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Results Reporter

Out of 40 questions, you answered 9 correctly with a final grade of 23%


9 correct
(23%)
31 incorrect
(78%)
0
unanswered
(0%)
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT _____________ investigates the body's structure, whereas __________
investigates the processes or functions of living things.

Physiology, cytology
A)

Physiology, anatomy
B)

Anatomy, histology
C)

Histology, cytology
D)

Anatomy, physiology
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Anatomy is the discipline that investigates the
body's structure, and Physiology is the investigation of the processes or
functions of living things.
2
INCORRECT The study of tissues is called

cytology.
A)

anatomy.
B)

histology.
C)

anatomic imaging.
D)

physiology.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Histology is the study of tissues. Cytology is the
study of cell's structural features.
3 CORRECT
Ultrasound, X-rays, CT, and MRI are all examples of

anatomic imaging.
A)
surface anatomy.
B)

regional anatomy.
C)

gross anatomy.
D)

cytology.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
4
INCORRECT A group of cells with similar structure and function, together with the
extracellular substances located between them, form a(n)

organism.
A)

organelle.
B)

tissue.
C)

organ.
D)

organ system.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A tissue is a group of cells with similar
structure and function along with the extracellular substances between
them.
5 CORRECT
The basic living unit of all plants and animals is the

cell.
A)

chemical.
B)

organ.
C)

organelle.
D)

tissue.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: The cell is the basic unit of all living things.
6
INCORRECT Which organ system removes substances from the blood, combats disease,
maintains tissue fluid balance, and absorbs fat from the digestive tract?

endocrine
A)

integumentary
B)

lymphatic
C)

respiratory
D)
urinary
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The Lymphatic system functions in removing
foreign substances from the blood and lymph, combating disease, helping to
maintain tissue fluid balance and absorbing fats from the digestive tract.
7
INCORRECT Which organ system consists of skin, hair, nails, and sweat glands?

endocrine
A)

integumentary
B)

lymphatic
C)

respiratory
D)

urinary
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The integumentary system consists of skin,
hair, nails, and sweat glands.
8 CORRECT
Which organ system consists of hormone-secreting glands, such as the pituitary
and thyroid glands?

endocrine
A)

integumentary
B)

lymphatic
C)

respiratory
D)

urinary
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
9
INCORRECT Which of these characteristics of life helps maintain homeostasis when
environmental conditions change?

growth and development


A)

metabolism
B)

organization
C)

reproduction
D)

responsiveness
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Responsiveness is the ability of an organism to
maintain homeostasis by sensing changes in its internal or external
environment and respond to them by making adjustments.
10
INCORRECT Development is a process that begins with fertilization and ends with

birth.
A)

adolescence.
B)

adulthood.
C)

old age.
D)

death.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Development begins with fertilization and ends
with death.
11
INCORRECT Given these terms related to negative-feedback: 1. control center 2. effector 3.
receptor 4. response 5. stimulus Arrange them in the correct order as they
operate to maintain homeostasis.

1,2,3,4,5
A)

2,3,5,1,4
B)

3,2,1,5,4
C)

4,5,3,2,1
D)

5,3,1,2,4
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The correct sequence in maintaining
homeostasis is stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, and response.
12
INCORRECT A body temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C) is the __________ for
body temperature.

constant
A)

lower limit
B)

normal range
C)

set point
D)

upper limit
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: 98.6 degrees F is the set point (ideal normal
value) for body temperature.
13
INCORRECT Which of these processes illustrates positive-feedback?
increase in respiratory rate during exercise
A)

increase in heart rate when blood pressure decreases


B)

shivering when body temperature decreases


C)
increase in uterine contractions when uterine stretching increases during
D) childbirth

all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect answer: Increased respiratory rate during exercise is an
example of a negative-feedback mechanism not a positive-feedback
mechanism.
14
CORRECT Failure of negative-feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis

may produce disease.


A)

occurs when blood pressure increases during exercise.


B)

can be corrected by stimulating positive-feedback mechanisms.


C)

cannot be corrected by medical therapy.


D)

all of these
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
15
INCORRECT According to the concept of negative feedback, a slight increase in blood
pressure causes

an increase in heart rate.


A)

a decrease in heart rate.


B)

no change in heart rate.


C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An increase in blood pressure would cause a
decrease in heart rate.
16
INCORRECT To maintain homeostasis, the normal range of values for a variable

is always below the set point.


A)

may change in different situations.


B)

may not deviate from the set point.


C)

occurs because of positive-feedback.


D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The set point is within the normal range of
values for a variable.
17
INCORRECT A term that means "away from the midline" is:

distal
A)

lateral
B)

medial
C)

proximal
D)

superior
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lateral is a directional term that means away
from the midline of the body.
18
INCORRECT Which of these descriptions does NOT apply correctly to a person in the
anatomic position?

standing erect
A)

head facing forward


B)

feet facing forward


C)

arms hanging to the sides


D)

palms facing toward the thighs


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In the anatomic position, a person is standing
erect, facing forward, arms hanging to the side with the palms of the hands
facing forward.
19
INCORRECT The scapula (shoulder blade) is __________ to the lung.

dorsal
A)

posterior
B)

superficial
C)

all of these
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The scapula is dorsal (synonymous with
posterior) and superficial to the lung.
20
INCORRECT The elbow is __________ to the wrist.

distal
A)
inferior
B)

lateral
C)

medial
D)

proximal
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The elbow is proximal to the wrist as it is closer
to the attachment point of the limb to the trunk.
21
INCORRECT The nose is __________ and __________ to the ears.

anterior, proximal
A)

superior, lateral
B)

inferior, posterior
C)

anterior, medial
D)

superficial, medial
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nose is anterior and medial to the ears.
22
INCORRECT Which of the paired terms below are opposites?

anterior and cephalic


A)

posterior and cephalic


B)

posterior and caudal


C)

superior and cephalic


D)

anterior and dorsal


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Anterior and dorsal (synonymous with
posterior) are directional terms which are opposites.
23
CORRECT Pancreatitis describes

inflammation of the pancreas.


A)

removal of the pancreas.


B)

cancer of the pancreas.


C)
secretions from the pancreas.
D)

death of the pancreas.


E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
24
INCORRECT A person lying flat on his back is said to be in the __________ position.

anatomic
A)

prone
B)

supine
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A person is in the supine position when lying
flat on his back.
25
INCORRECT Given these directional terms: 1. caudal 2. cephalic 3. distal 4. inferior 5.
proximal Which of these directional terms correctly describes the relationship of
the ankle to the knee?

1,3
A)

1,3,4
B)

2,3,4
C)

3,4
D)

4,5
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The ankle is distal and inferior to the knee.
26
INCORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the ankle?

crural
A)

femoral
B)

carpal
C)

pedal
D)

tarsal
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Tarsal refers to the ankle, crural refers to the
leg.
27
CORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the shoulder?

acromial
A)
brachial
B)

cervical
C)

clavicular
D)

digital
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
28
INCORRECT The only plane that can divide the body into equal halves is the

frontal (coronal) plane.


A)

oblique plane.
B)

midsagittal plane.
C)

transverse plane.
D)

Serengeti plane.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A midsagittal plane runs vertically through the
body and divides it equally into right and left portions.
29
INCORRECT A(n) __________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions.

frontal (coronal)
A)

oblique
B)

sagittal
C)

transverse
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A transverse (also called a horizontal) plane
divides the body into superior and inferior portions.
30
INCORRECT A cut across the long axis of an organ made at other than a right angle is called
a(n)

cross section.
A)

transverse section.
B)

oblique section.
C)

longitudinal section.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An oblique section is a cut made across the
long axis of an organ not at a right angle.
31
INCORRECT In which quadrant of the abdomen would stomach pain most likely be felt?

lower left
A)

lower right
B)

upper left
C)

upper right
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because of the stomach's general position in
the abdominal cavity, stomach pain is most likely to be felt at the left upper
quadrant.
32
CORRECT Which of these structures is NOT found in the mediastinum?

diaphragm
A)

esophagus
B)

heart
C)

thymus gland
D)

trachea
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
33
INCORRECT Which of these statements concerning body regions is correct?

The pelvis is located between the thorax and abdomen.


A)

The leg extends from the knee to the ankle.


B)

The arm extends from the shoulder to the wrist.


C)

The trunk can be divided into the thorax and pelvis.


D)

The thorax is often subdivided superficially into four quadrants.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The pelvis is located inferior to the thorax and
abdomen, not between them.
34
INCORRECT The cavity surrounded by the rib cage and bounded inferiorly by the diaphragm
is the

mediastinum.
A)
pericardial cavity.
B)

thorax.
C)

abdomen.
D)

pelvic cavity.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The thoracic cavity is surrounded by the rib
cage and bound inferiorly by the diaphragm.
35
CORRECT The lungs are separated by the

mediastinum.
A)

mesenteries.
B)

diaphragm.
C)

peritoneal membranes.
D)

pelvic cavity.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer
36
INCORRECT Serous membranes

line body cavities that open to the outside.


A)

produce a lubricating film of fluid.


B)

are found only on the walls of the thoracic cavity.


C)

separate the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.


D)

completely cover retroperitoneal organs.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Serous membranes line body cavities that are
closed off to the outside.
37
INCORRECT The serous membrane on the surface of the lungs is called

parietal pericardium.
A)

visceral pericardium.
B)

parietal pleura.
C)

visceral pleura.
D)
parietal peritoneum.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The visceral pleura is the serous membrane
covering the lungs. The parietal pericardium surrounds the heart.
38
INCORRECT Which of these organs is NOT retroperitoneal?

adrenal glands
A)

kidneys
B)

urinary bladder
C)

spleen
D)

pancreas
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The adrenal glands, kidneys, urinary bladder
and pancreas are all retroperitoneal organs.
39
INCORRECT Given these serous membranes: 1. parietal pericardium 2. visceral pericardium
3. parietal peritoneum 4. visceral peritoneum 5. parietal pleura 6. visceral
pleura
A man had a knife wound that penetrated the abdomen, passed through the
stomach, and hit the diaphragm, but did not pass all the way through. Arrange
the serous membranes in the correct order as the knife passed through them.

1,2,4,3,5
A)

2,3,4,4,3,2
B)

3,4,4,3
C)

4,3,3,4,5
D)

5,6,6,4
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The knife passed through the parietal
peritoneum into the abdominal cavity, then through the visceral peritoneum
of the stomach going in and again coming out, and finally through the
parietal peritoneum as it penetrated into the diaphragm.
40
CORRECT You are doing a handstand. Your head is __________ to your neck.

superior
A)

inferior
B)

superficial
C)
medial
D)

proximal
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: The head is always superior to the neck because
relational descriptions are based on the anatomic position.

Results Reporter
Out of 90 questions, you answered 22 correctly with a final grade of 24%

22 correct
(24%)

68 incorrect
(76%)

0
unanswered
(0%)

Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the

A)ribosome

B)cell

C)organ

D)organelle

Feedback: The cell is the smallest unit of life.

2
When a cell is observed with a compound light microscope, which of the following
INCORRECT structures will be seen?

A)carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins

B)cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus

C)DNA and RNA

D)all cytoplasmic organelles

Feedback: With the compound microscope we are only able to see the basic
structures.

3
INCORRECT To study the smallest organelles and cellular components of cells
_______________ is/are used.

A)x-rays

B)flashlights

C)the transmission electron microscope (TEM)

D)the compound light microscope

Feedback: The compound microscope is not sufficient enough to view the


detailed structure of the cells.

4
INCORRECT The fluid mosaic model is a theory for the structure of
A)microtubules

B)microfilaments

C)the DNA molecule

D)the plasma membrane

Feedback: The cell wall is viewed as a collage of molecules.

5
INCORRECT Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell
bind to _______ on another cell.

A)channel proteins
B)marker molecules

C)receptor molecules

D)second messengers

Feedback: The term receptor means "which can receive information".

6
INCORRECT Which one among the following describes the function of the cell membrane or
plasma membrane?

A)Cell membrane separates the cell from its external environment.

B)Plasma membrane gives the cell a definite size and shape.

Plasma membrane controls the movement of molecules from one side of the
C)cell to the other.

D)All of the above are the functions of cell membrane.

Feedback: The cell membrane as the outermost structure is responsible for


the movements of molecules through it.

7
INCORRECT Basic skeleton of the plasma membrane is formed by

A)strong muscles

B)bilayered phospholipid structure


C)water insoluble tails that face the exterior of the membrane

D)cholesterol and glucose

Feedback: Two layers help define cell structure and control the flow of
molecules.

8 CORRECT
Proteins of the plasma membrane serve all of the following functions except

pumping water out of the cell


A)

breaking down hormones


B)

serving as carriers for large molecule transportation


C)

binding to neurotransmitters
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

9
INCORRECT Which of the following best approximates the diameter of a typical human cell?

1-2 mm
A)

20 m
B)

2-3 m
C)

50 nm
D)

Feedback:

A human cell is approximately 20µm.

10
CORRECT In some tissues, cells are tightly packed and their cell membranes are connected
by the structure known as the

intercellular junction
A)

synapse
B)

plasma membrane
C)

glycoprotein
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

11
INCORRECT The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that

cholesterols are always bad in nature


A)

some proteins are free to move laterally through the membrane


B)

phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane


C)

the membrane has rigidity and flexibility


D)

Feedback: Cell membranes are adaptable to their environment.

12
INCORRECT Cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are

extensions of the lysosomal membrane


A)

modified structure to function as sensory receptors


B)

proteins that help in the interaction between cells


C)

external projections supported by microtubules


D)

Feedback: Cells can interact by protein molecules.

13
INCORRECT The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means that

only gasses and water can pass through it


A)

small molecules can enter the cells


B)

only certain substances can pass into or out of the cell


C)

substances need carrier molecules to pass through it


D)

Feedback: The internal cell environment could only be maintained by


controlling the free movements of molecules.

14
INCORRECT Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function?

channel proteins - are part for new protein synthesization


A)

marker molecules - are primarily steroids


B)

receptor molecules - attach to ligand molecules


C)

peripheral proteins - penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the
D) other

Feedback: The markers are usually glycoproteins.

15
INCORRECT The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is

glycolipids
A)

saturated fats
B)

cholesterol
C)

phospholipids
D)

Feedback: They could be also harmful as they clog arteries and increase
blood pressure.

16
INCORRECT When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the
electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins
close. These channels would be called

open-gated channels
A)

chemical-gated channels
B)

voltage-gated channels
C)

ligand-gated channels
D)

Feedback: Voltage is associated with electrical charges.

17
INCORRECT Osmosis is the diffusion of _______ across a selectively permeable membrane.

urea
A)

oxygen
B)

water
C)

sodium
D)

Feedback: The process of osmosis is the net diffusion of water across a


semipermeable membrane.
18
INCORRECT Which of the following statements concerning transport across the plasma
membrane is true?

Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules.


A)

Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the


B) lipid bilayer.

Water cannot move through the plasma membrane.


C)

Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions.
D)

Feedback: A lipid needs to be dissolved before it can pass through the


plasma membrane.

19
INCORRECT When molecules move from the area of lower concentration to the area of higher
concentration and energy is used, it is called

filtration
A)

osmosis
B)

active transport
C)

passive transport
D)

Feedback: Active transport requires energy as molecules move in the


opposite direction of concentration gradient.

20
CORRECT The aroma of a cake baking in the kitchen reaches the living room. The distribution
of this odor throughout the house is an example of

simple diffusion
A)

dialysis
B)
osmosis
C)

active transport
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

21
INCORRECT Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion? An increase in the

viscosity of the solvent


A)

the distance the molecules have to travel


B)

molecular weight of the diffusing particles


C)

temperature
D)
Feedback: Increase in heat causes an increase in molecular movement.

22
INCORRECT What change/s occur when red blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution?

red blood cells gain water


A)

red blood cells lose water and shrink


B)

red blood cells neither gain nor lose water


C)

concentration of sodium increases within the cells


D)

Feedback: Hypertonic solution has less water than RBC.


23
INCORRECT The movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure
gradient is called

diffusion
A)

filtration
B)

facilitated diffusion
C)

active transport
D)

Feedback: Coffee is made in this same way.

24
CORRECT The movement of oxygen from a higher concentration in the lungs to a lower
concentration in the blood stream is an example of

diffusion
A)
osmosis
B)

active transport
C)

bulk transport
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

25
INCORRECT The greater the concentration of a solute in a solution, the greater the

tendency for water to diffuse from the solution


A)

osmotic pressure of the solution


B)

number of carrier molecules present


C)

rate of the active transport


D)

Feedback: Osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration of a


solution.

26
CORRECT 0.9% NaCl solution (saline) is isotonic to a cell, while seawater is

hypertonic to the cell


A)

isotonic to the cell


B)

hypotonic to the cell


C)

All of the above.


D)

Feedback: Correct Answer


27
CORRECT The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane

actively moves potassium into cells


A)

osmotically moves sodium into cells


B)

actively transports water out of cells


C)

moves chlorine out of cells


D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

28
INCORRECT Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be
affected?

simple diffusion
A)

osmosis
B)

active transport
C)

facilitated diffusion
D)

Feedback: Active transport is dependent on ATP.

29
INCORRECT The process of pinocytosis,

is a form of exocytosis
A)

involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles


B)

does not require ATP


C)
forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported
D)

Feedback: Pinocytosis is specialized to liquid ingestion.

30
INCORRECT What characteristic is shared by simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

Both require cellular energy for the transport of substances.


A)

Both involve the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane.


B)

Both require a special carrier molecule to move substances across the


C) membrane.

Both involve the movement of a substance from regions of a higher


D) concentration to lower concentration without cellular energy.

Feedback: Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion involve the movement of


molecules from a higher to a lower concentration.

31
INCORRECT In simple diffusion, the rate at which a solute passes through a membrane
depends on all of the following EXCEPT the

surface area of the membrane


A)

number of carriers in the membrane


B)

temperature of the solution


C)

concentration difference from one side of the membrane to the other


D)

Feedback: In simple diffusion the rate does not depend on the transport
maximum.

32
CORRECT If a carrier protein were to move both hydrogen and chloride ions from the
inside of a cell to the extracellular fluid, and consume ATP in the process, it
would be considered a(n)
symport system
A)

voltage-gated ion channel


B)

facilitated diffusion system


C)

antiport system
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

33
INCORRECT All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT

exocytosis
A)

simple diffusion
B)

active transport
C)

phagocytosis
D)

Feedback: Phagocytosis cannot move substances out of a cell.

34
CORRECT Many gland cells release their secretions by means of _______, a process
somewhat like reverse endocytosis.

exocytosis
A)

phagocytosis
B)

receptor-mediated endocytosis
C)

fluid-phase pinocytosis
D)
Feedback: Correct Answer

35
INCORRECT White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of

macrocytosis
A)

pinocytosis
B)

exocytosis
C)

phagocytosis
D)

Feedback: In this process pseudopodia are formed from cell membrane.

36
CORRECT Organelles are distinguished from inclusions in that organelles are _______,
whereas inclusions are _______.

functional structures; storage sites for chemical substances


A)

small organs; vital sites where important functions occur


B)

nonfunctional structures; functional structures


C)

masses of chemicals non essential to life; masses of chemicals vital to life


D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

37
INCORRECT Which of the following cellular components is nonliving?

mitochondria
A)

nucleus
B)
cytoplasm
C)

none of these are alive


D)

Feedback: The internal structures of a cell are not considered living


individually.

38
INCORRECT Which of the following is a nonmembranous organelle?

a mitochondrion
A)

the rough endoplasmic reticulum


B)

a centriole
C)

a lysosome
D)

Feedback: The centriole is not encapsulated.

39
CORRECT Cells dispose of worn-out organelles by a process called

autophagy
A)

exocytosis
B)

cytolysis
C)

apoptosis
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

40
INCORRECT _______ is enclosed in double membranes with cristae extending inward from
the inner membrane.
The nuclear envelope
A)

A mitochondrion
B)

The lysosome
C)

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum


D)

Feedback: Mitochondria have more than one membrane.

41
INCORRECT Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called

smooth ER
A)

dendritic ER
B)
nodular ER
C)

rough ER
D)

Feedback: Attached ribosomes give the rough ER its unique appearance.

42
INCORRECT Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

ATP synthesis
A)

protein synthesis
B)

DNA synthesis
C)

active transport
D)

Feedback: The RE is responsible for protein synthesis.

43
CORRECT What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?

the lysosomes
A)

the rough endoplasmic reticulum


B)

the centriole
C)

the nucleus
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

44
INCORRECT Muscle cells contain numerous _______ because of their high demand for ATP.

ribosomes
A)

lysosomes
B)

mitochondria
C)

microtubules
D)

Feedback: The mitochondria are associated with the production of energy.

45
INCORRECT What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were
destroyed?

exocytosis
A)

active transport
B)

ciliary beating
C)

protein synthesis
D)

Feedback: Ribosomes are associated with protein synthesis.

46
INCORRECT When a white blood cell engulfs a foreign particle with its pseudopods, it traps
the particle in a bubble called a _______ in its cytoplasm.

pinocytotic vesicle
A)

vacuole
B)

clathrin-coated vesicle
C)

secretory vesicle
D)
Feedback: Foreign particles are isolated in vacuoles.

47
INCORRECT Which one among the following statements about organelles is true?

They are extracellular structures.


A)

They are part of the cell membrane.


B)

Depending on the particular cell function, organelles vary in number and


C) type.

They generally lack membranes.


D)

Feedback: Number and types of organelles are determined by cell function.

48
INCORRECT Which of the following organelles have their structure and function accurately
described?

Vesicles - membranous sacs; contain various substances that recently


A) entered or formed in the cell

Microfilaments - tiny rods of protein (actin); cause cellular movement


B)

Microtubules - long, slender tubes of globular protein (tubulin); form


C) internal skeleton of cell

all of the above are properly matched


D)

Feedback: There are no exceptions in this list.

49
CORRECT The function of the Golgi apparatus is

packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids


A)

production of microtubules
B)
excretion of excess salt
C)

DNA replication
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

50
INCORRECT If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's
_______ could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department.

nucleus
A)

lysosome
B)

golgi apparatus
C)

endoplasmic reticulum
D)

Feedback: The Golgi apparatus is associated with transportation of proteins.

51
INCORRECT The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and
toxins is the

ribosome
A)

microtubule
B)

secretory vesicle
C)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum


D)

Feedback: The smooth ER is a type of protection for the cell.

52
CORRECT A cell uses centrioles in the process of
cell division
A)

energy generation
B)

protein synthesis
C)

RNA replication
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

53
INCORRECT A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in

secretion
A)

storage of glycogen
B)

detoxification activities
C)

cellular communication
D)

Feedback: Peroxisomes aid in the reduction of toxins.

54
INCORRECT Organelles in the cytoplasm are embedded in a semitransparent matrix called

cisternae
A)

intracellular support
B)

cytosol
C)

cytoplasm
D)
Feedback: Cytosol forms the background of the cell.

55
INCORRECT Tay-Sachs disease involves a cellular defect in

membrane structure
A)

lysosomal enzymes
B)

ciliary activity
C)

mitotic spindles
D)

Feedback: Tay-Sachs is associated with a defect in lysosomal enzymes.

56
CORRECT _______ are the only type of cells where flagella are found.

Sperm
A)

Hair
B)

Cilia
C)

Neuron
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

57
INCORRECT Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a "brush border" composed of
_______, which are cell extensions that increase surface area.

cilia
A)

hairs
B)
rugae
C)

microvilli
D)

Feedback: Microvilli are also called brush bordered.

58
INCORRECT Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of

A)width and numbers

B)length and numbers

C)depth and numbers


D)length and width

Feedback:

Cilia appear small and brush-


like:

while the flagella is whip-like in


function:
59
INCORRECT The building blocks of DNA and RNA found in the nucleus of the cell are known as
the

A)monosaccharides

B)nucleotides

C)amino acids

D)triglycerides

Feedback: The nucleotides are units of nucleic acids.

60
CORRECT The "control center" of the cell is the

nucleus
A)
B)ribosome

C)mitochondrion

D)plasma membrane

Feedback: Correct Answer

61
INCORRECT The structure of the nucleus can be described as

A)enclosed in a cell membrane

B)enclosed in a nuclear envelope

C)composed of cytoplasm

D)composed of cytoplasmic organelles

Feedback: An envelope encases the nucleus.

62
CORRECT In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped within proteins. This structure is known as

A)chromatin

B)cytoplasmic organelles
C)DNA molecules

D)nucleoli

Feedback: Correct Answer

63
INCORRECT One function of a nucleus in the cell is to

A)digest lipids

B)produce ATP

C)produce secretory vesicles

D)control and coordinate cellular activities

Feedback: The nucleus is the "brain" of the cell.

64
INCORRECT Elements present in DNA and RNA are

A)C, H, O

B)C, H, O, N, S

C)C, H, O, N, P

O, H, N, P, S
D)

Feedback: In addition to essential elements of organic compounds, nucleic


acids have O,N,P.

65
INCORRECT DNA is condensed to form a structure called a _________ in the nucleus.

A)RNA

B)cytosol

C)gene

D)chromosome

Feedback: The nucleus contains chromosomes.

66
INCORRECT Nucleoli

A)are located in the cytoplasm

B)produce ribosomal subunits

C)have a distinct membrane

D)are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus

Feedback: The nucleoli produce subunits of ribosomes.


67
INCORRECT Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function?

A)chromosomes - contains RNA and histones

B)nuclear envelope - contains the nucleolar organizer

C)nuclear pores - allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm

D)chromatin - fluid portion of the nucleus

Feedback: Nuclear pores allow the movement of molecules between the


nucleus and cytoplasm.

68
INCORRECT Arrange the following in correct sequence:

1. Polypeptide chains move through rough ER and then carried in vesicles to


Golgi Apparatus.
2. Vesicles are pinched off from Golgi Apparatus carrying newly formed
proteins to plasma membrane.
3. Golgi Apparatus separates and modifies varieties of proteins and then
packages them into vesicles.
4. Initiated by RNA, polypeptide chains are made by ribosomes on rough ER.

A)1, 2, 3, 4

B)4, 1, 3, 2

C)2, 3, 1, 4

3, 2, 4, 1
D)
Feedback: After the proteins are made in rough ER, they are isolated, then
modified by the Golgi Apparatus.

69
INCORRECT The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (m-RNA) is known as

A)transduction

B)translocation

C)translation

D)transcription

Feedback:

See illustration:
70
CORRECT If an m-RNA molecule is 2400 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will
contain _______ codons.

A)800

B)600

C)1200

D)2400

Feedback: Correct Answer

71
INCORRECT Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?

A)m-RNA

B)r-RNA

C)t-RNA

D)DNA

Feedback: Anti-codons are located in t-RNA.

72
CORRECT The process of DNA replication is

A)semiconservative in nature

B)known as translation

C)semipermeable in nature

D)sequencing of codons in RNA

Feedback: Correct Answer

73
INCORRECT DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules
has

two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides


A)
one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized
B)strand of nucleotides

C)two strands of nucleotides from the parent

D)two strands of nucleotides from the parent RNA

Feedback: DNA replication involves one strand of neucleotides from the


parent DNA and one strand that is synthesized.

74
INCORRECT Chemotherapy usually makes use of drugs that affect the ___________ of
cancer cells.

nuclear membranes
A)
cytoplasmic membranes
B)

DNA molecules
C)

lysosomes
D)

Feedback: Chemotherapy attacks the cancer cell's DNA.

75
INCORRECT The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to
determine the sequence of

nucleotides in a gene
A)

amino acids in a protein


B)

nucleotides in the anticodons of t-RNA


C)

codons in DNA
D)

Feedback: The sequence of nucleotides determines the sequence of amino


acids in a protein.

76
INCORRECT Which one among the following bases is present in RNA but NOT in DNA?

adenine
A)

guanine
B)

cytosine
C)

uracil
D)

Feedback: DNA doesn't have uracil.


77
INCORRECT Cells undergo a series of changes during their life-span which is known as

cell division
A)

DNA information
B)

cell cycle
C)

growth phase
D)

Feedback: Cells maintain a life cycle of their own.

78
INCORRECT When a cell grows

the relationship between its surface area and volume remains unchanged
A)
the surface area increases to a lesser degree than its volume
B)

its volume increases to a lesser degree than its surface area


C)

its need for nutrients increases to a lesser degree than its need for oxygen
D)

Feedback: Volume of cells increases during growth.

79
INCORRECT What happens by the process of mitosis?

daughter cells with reduced chromosomes are formed


A)

cytoplasm with identical RNA molecules are produced


B)

new daughter cells with same number of chromosomes and all other cellular
C) components are produced

none of the above is true


D)

Feedback: For growth and development cells reproduce by mitosis.

80
INCORRECT DNA synthesis occurs during

the G phase of interphase


A)

telophase of mitosis
B)

the S phase of interphase


C)

anaphase
D)

Feedback: DNA synthesis occurs during the S phase of interphase.


81
CORRECT Human somatic cells contain _______ chromosomes, while gametic cells contain
_______ chromosomes.

46; 23
A)

23; 23
B)

46; 46
C)

23; 46
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

82
INCORRECT The major phenomenon and changes during cell division starts within the

cytoplasm
A)
nucleus
B)

cell membrane
C)

outside the cell


D)

Feedback: The nucleus controls and regulates cellular activities.

83
CORRECT The process by which cytoplasm divides during cell division is known as

cytokinesis
A)

karyokinesis
B)

synthesization
C)

phagocytosis
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

84
INCORRECT Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the

skin cells
A)

gametes (egg and sperm)


B)

body cells
C)

malignant cells
D)

Feedback: Meiotic cell division is necessary for reproduction.

85
CORRECT By the process of meiosis, a _________ number of chromosomes are produced
in the gametes.

haploid
A)

diploid
B)

tetraploid
C)

infinite
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer

86
INCORRECT Crossing over

occurs during mitosis


A)

increases the amount of genetic diversity


B)

results in the formation of chromatids with the same DNA sequences


C)

form tetrads
D)

Feedback: Crossing over increases the amount of genetic diversity.

87
INCORRECT How many divisional stages occur during meiosis?

5
A)

4
B)

2
C)
1
D)

Feedback: There occur two successive divisions during meiosis.


88
INCORRECT The process that divides the nucleus during cell division is known as
cytokinesis
A)

phagocytosis
B)

synthesization
C)

karyokinesis
D)

Feedback: Division of nucleus is known as karyokinesis.

89
CORRECT Which is the longest and most complex phase during meiosis?

prophase I
A)

metaphase II
B)

cytokinesis
C)

telophase I
D)

Feedback: Correct Answer


90
INCORRECT Which of the following is characteristic of aging cells?

golgi apparatus becomes fragmented


A)

lipid inclusions accumulate


B)

glycogen-containing structures decrease


C)

all of the above phenomenon occur


D)

Feedback: Aging cells show fragmentation, accumulation of inclusions, and


decrease in structures for storage.
Integumentary System

Results Reporter
Out of 40 questions, you answered 5 correctly with a final grade of 13%

5 correct
(13%)

35 incorrect
(88%)

0
unanswered
(0%)

Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1
INCORRECT A major function of the skin is protection from

abrasion.
A)

ultraviolet light.
B)

entry of microorganisms.
C)

dehydration.
D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In addition to protecting us from abrasions, the


skin provides protection from ultraviolet light, the entry of microorganisms,
and dehydration.

2 CORRECT
The layer of skin that is composed of dense connective tissue and has
projections called papillae is the
dermis.
A)

hypodermis.
B)

stratum corneum.
C)

stratum basale.
D)

stratum lucidum.
E)

Feedback: Correct Answer: The dermis is the layer of the skin composed of
dense connective tissue with projections called papillae.

3
INCORRECT Striae occur as a result of

pimples.
A)

overstretching the dermis.


B)

losing too much epidermis.


C)

too many fibers in the hypodermis.


D)

loss of hair follicles.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Striae or stretch marks occur because of


overstretching of the dermis.

4
INCORRECT This layer contains loose connective tissue and has about half of the body's
stored fat.

dermis
A)

hypodermis
B)

stratum corneum
C)

stratum basale
D)

stratum lucidum
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hypodermis is the layer that contains loose
connective tissue and half of the body's stored fat. The dermis is part of the
skin that sits on the hypodermis.

5
INCORRECT The specific layer that shapes the ridges for fingerprints and footprints is the

hypodermis.
A)

papillary layer of the dermis.


B)

reticular layer of the dermis.


C)

underlying muscle layer.


D)

superficial bony layer.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The papillary layer of the dermis shapes the
overlying epidermis into fingerprints and footprints at thick skin.

6
INCORRECT The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the

epidermis.
A)

reticular layer of the dermis.


B)

papillary layer of the dermis.


C)

hypodermis.
D)

subcutaneous tissue.
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from


capillaries residing in the papillary layer of the dermis.

7 CORRECT
Cell division occurs in which layer of the epidermis?

stratum basale
A)

stratum corneum
B)

stratum granulosum
C)

stratum lucidum
D)

stratum reticularis
E)

Feedback: Correct Answer: Cell division occurs in the stratum basale of the
epidermis.

8
INCORRECT The stratum germinativum includes both the stratum basale and the

stratum corneum.
A)

stratum granulosum.
B)

stratum lucidum.
C)

stratum reticularis.
D)
stratum spinosum.
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum germinativum includes the stratum


basale, where most of the epidermal cells undergoing mitosis reside, and the
stratum spinosum, where a limited amount of cell division takes place.

9
INCORRECT In which layer of epidermis do the nucleus and other organelles disintegrate,
and the cells die?

stratum basale
A)

stratum corneum
B)

stratum granulosum
C)

stratum lucidum
D)

stratum spinosum
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum granulosum is the layer of the


epidermis where the nuclei and organelles of the epidermal cells begin to
disintegrate and the cells are said to die.

10
INCORRECT The __________ consists of many layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by
lipids.

dermis
A)

hypodermis
B)

stratum corneum
C)

stratum basale
D)

stratum spinosum
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum corneum is the layer of the


epidermis that consists of multiple layers of dead squamous cells surrounded
by lipids.

11
INCORRECT In which of these layers are melanocytes found?

dermis
A)

hypodermis
B)

stratum corneum
C)

stratum basale
D)

stratum lucidum
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanocytes, the cells which produce melanin,


are found in the stratum basale intermixed with the keratinocytes.

12
INCORRECT Thick skin

usually lacks the stratum lucidum.


A)

is typically found on the back.


B)

does not produce hair.


C)

(unlike thin skin) develops calluses and corns.


D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Thick skin does contain the stratum lucidum. It
does not produce hair.
13
INCORRECT Most of the cells of the epidermis are

fibroblasts.
A)

keratinocytes.
B)

Langerhans cells.
C)

macrophages.
D)

melanocytes.
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Keratinocytes are the most numerous cells


found in the epidermis.

14
INCORRECT Which of these statements is true regarding keratinization?

The deepest cells are located in the stratum corneum.


A)

Epithelial cells eventually die and produce an outer layer of cells.


B)

The stratum corneum has cuboidal or columnar cells that undergo mitotic
C) division.

The stratum basale can thicken to produce a callus.


D)

The newest cells are found in the outer layer of cells.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The deepest cells are located in the stratum
basale.

15
INCORRECT Cyanosis is a condition caused by
consuming large amounts of carotene.
A)

increased blood flow to the skin.


B)

albinism.
C)

exposure to ultraviolet light.


D)

a decrease in blood oxygen.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by


decreased blood oxygen.

16
INCORRECT Concerning skin color, which of these statements is correctly matched?

Skin appears yellow = not enough oxygen in blood.


A)

Pale skin = shock.


B)

Skin tans = increased carotene in stratum corneum.


C)

Dark skin = less melanin than light skin.


D)

Pregnancy = decrease in the production of melanin.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by


decreased blood oxygen. A yellowish skin tone can be associated with
carotene accumulation in the stratum corneum and hypodermis.

17
INCORRECT Melanin

production occurs in melanocytes and keratinocytes.


A)
is packaged into vesicles called melanosomes.
B)

is present in large quantities on the soles of the feet.


C)

is responsible for skin color, but not hair color.


D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanin production occurs only in the


melanocytes.

18
INCORRECT All of these conditions increase the amount of melanin in the skin EXCEPT:

exposure to ultraviolet light.


A)

pregnancy.
B)

Addison's disease.
C)

vitiligo.
D)

freckles.
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Exposure to ultraviolet light would increase the


amount of melanin in the skin.

19
INCORRECT Which type of burn is described by all of the following characteristics? 1.
epidermis and dermis destroyed 2. initially painless 3. much scar tissue formed

first-degree burn
A)

second-degree burn
B)

third-degree burn
C)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In first-degree burns only the epidermis is


involved. The burns are red and painful with no scarring.

20
INCORRECT According to "the rule of nines," a man burned extensively on his head and both
upper limbs has burns on __________ percent of his body.

9
A)

18
B)

27
C)

36
D)

45
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because each limb accounts for 9% of the body
and the head would account for another 9% the total percentage for this
man's burns would be 27%.

21
INCORRECT Which of these is the type of hair found on the fetus, but is not present after
birth?

terminal hair
A)

lanugo
B)

vellus hair
C)

both a and b
D)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo is the type of hair found on the fetus
but is not present after birth. Terminal hair replaces lanugo hair at teh
eyelids, scalp and eyebrows around the time of birth.
22
INCORRECT "Peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old baby is

lanugo.
A)

terminal hair.
B)

vellus hair.
C)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo hair is the type of hair found on a fetus,
which is not present after birth. Vellus hair, which is short, fine, and usually
unpigmented, would be the "peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old.

23
INCORRECT Terminal hair

is found in greater quantity in adult females than in adult males.


A)

decreases at puberty.
B)

is found on eyebrows and eyelids.


C)

is fine, unpigmented hair.


D)

is found only on the toes.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Terminal hair, which is long, coarse, and


pigmented, is found in greater quantity in the adult male not the adult
female.

24
INCORRECT The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the

cortex.
A)

cuticle.
B)
medulla.
C)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair
shaft. The middle layer is the cortex and the innermost layer is the medulla.

25
INCORRECT The hair follicle

has an epithelial root sheath and a dermal root sheath.


A)

can provide epithelial cells for skin repair.


B)

contains only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb.


C)

has an arrector pili muscle attached.


D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hair follicle has an epithelial root sheath
and a dermal root sheath, can provide epithelial cells for skin repair, contains
only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb and has arrector pili muscle
attached to it.

26
CORRECT Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the

matrix.
A)

dermal root sheath.


B)

hypodermis.
C)

cuticle.
D)

hair shaft.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the matrix.

27
INCORRECT Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because

the head has a better blood supply than the eyelid.


A)

the hair follicles in the scalp are much deeper than follicles in the eyelid.
B)

the scalp hairs are more exposed to the sun, which stimulates growth.
C)

the growth stage for scalp hairs is longer than for eyelash hairs.
D)

the eyelash hair shaft consists of columns of dead keratinized epithelial


E) cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs
because the growth stage for scalp hair is longer than for eyelashes. Scalp
hairs grow for a period of three years then rest for 1-2 years, while
eyelashes grow for approximately 30 days then rest for 105 days.

28
INCORRECT After the resting stage of hair growth, each hair normally

grows more rapidly.


A)

falls out.
B)

loses its pigmentation.


C)

produces more melanocytes.


D)

increases the depth of the hair follicle.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Hair normally falls out after the resting stage of
hair growth.
29
INCORRECT Arrector pili muscles

consist of skeletal muscle fibers.


A)

are attached directly to the hair shaft.


B)

contract in response to frightening situations.


C)

cause sweat glands to contract.


D)

assist in the production of sebum.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Arrector pili muscles consist of smooth muscle


cells.

30
INCORRECT "Pattern baldness"

occurs only in men.


A)

is not genetic.
B)

occurs when vellus hairs are replaced by terminal hairs.


C)

involves the hormone testosterone.


D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: "Pattern baldness", seen most often in males,


can also occur in females.

31
INCORRECT Which glands of the skin possess all of the following characteristics? 1. secrete
oily, white substance rich in lipids 2. open into a hair follicle 3. during secretion,
lysis and death of secretory cells occurs
apocrine sweat glands
A)

merocrine sweat glands


B)

sebaceous glands
C)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Sebaceous glands secrete an oily, white


substance rich in lipids, open into hair follicles, and during secretion have
their secretory cells lyse and become part of the secretion.

32
INCORRECT Which of these parts of the body have the most merocrine sweat glands?

margins of the lips


A)

soles of the feet


B)

forearm
C)

leg
D)

back of neck
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There are not merocrine glands at the margins
of the lips.

33
INCORRECT Apocrine sweat glands

are found everywhere in the body except the palms of the hands.
A)

produce secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce odor.


B)

are functional even in babies.


C)
are located in the external auditory meatus.
D)

produce cerumen.
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Apocrine sweat glands are found at the axillae,
the genitalia (scrotum and labia majora), and the anus.

34
CORRECT Nails

grow from the nail matrix.


A)

have a resting stage, similar to hair.


B)

have a visible part, which is the nail bed.


C)

have a hyponychium, which is the whitish, crescent-shaped area at the base


D) of the nail.

contain proteoglycans and chondrocytes.


E)

Feedback: Correct Answer: Nails grow primarily from the nail matrix,
although the nail bed does contribute as well.

35
INCORRECT The nail is __________ that contains hard keratin.

stratum basale
A)

stratum corneum
B)

stratum granulosum
C)

stratum lucidum
D)

stratum spinosum
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nail is stratum corneum containing hard


keratin.

36
INCORRECT Which of these events occur as a result of a decrease in body temperature?

blood vessels in the epidermis dilate, at first


A)

blood vessels in the dermis constrict if skin temperature falls below 15


B) degrees C

contraction of arrector pili muscles


C)

sweat is produced
D)

all of these
E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In response to a decrease in body temperature,


dermal blood vessels will initially constrict, reducing blood flow to the skin
and thereby decrease heat loss.

37
INCORRECT Protective functions of the integumentary system include all of these EXCEPT:

callus formation prevents damage by friction.


A)

nails protect the ends of digits.


B)

hairs in the nose and ears prevent entry of foreign materials.


C)

hair protects the head from abrasion and ultraviolet light.


D)

skin glands produce alkaline secretions that kill bacteria.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Callus formation prevents damage from friction


or pressure.
38
INCORRECT As a result of aging, the skin

increases the amount of elastic fibers in the dermis.


A)

becomes thicker.
B)

has decreased blood flow.


C)

has increased activity of the sebaceous and sweat glands.


D)

generally increases the amount of melanin produced.


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The amount of elastic fibers in skin decreases,


not increases, with aging.

39
INCORRECT Which of these is NOT considered to be a cause of acne?

hormones, especially testosterone


A)

a diet rich in fatty foods and chocolate


B)

abnormal keratinization of hair follicles


C)

an increase in sebum production


D)

the bacterium Propionibacterium acnes


E)

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hormone testosterone is a known cause of


acne. Increased levels of testosterone during puberty make acne common at
this age.

40
CORRECT Which of these qualities must a medication possess if it is absorbed from a skin
patch?
lipid-soluble
A)

water-soluble
B)

must contain keratin


C)

must be slightly acidic


D)

must contain melanin


E)

Feedback: Correct Answer: Lipids released from lamellar bodies into the
intercellular space allow medications that are lipid-soluble to be absorbed
through the skin.

Skeletal System

Results Reporter
Out of 40 questions, you answered 5 correctly with a final grade of 13%
5 correct
(13%)
35 incorrect
(88%)
0
unanswered
(0%)
Your Results:
The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .
1
INCORRECT Regarding skeletal system function,

bone often serves as a model for cartilage growth.


A)

tendons connect bone to bone.


B)

blood cells are produced in the marrow of many bones.


C)

cartilage serves as an important mineral storage area.


D)
all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cartilage often serves as a model for bone.
2
INCORRECT Which of these connective tissue types has proteoglycans in its matrix?

bone
A)

cartilage
B)

ligaments
C)

tendons
D)

both c and d
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Proteoglycans, large molecules consisting of
proteins and sugars, are found in the matrix of cartilage providing for the
resiliency seen in that connective tissue.
3 CORRECT
Cells that produce new cartilage matrix are called

chondroblasts.
A)

chondrocytes.
B)

chondroclasts.
C)

osteoblasts.
D)

fibroblasts.
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Chondroblasts are the cells that produce new
cartilage matrix.
4
INCORRECT The perichondrium

surrounds each lacuna in the matrix.


A)

contains mainly loose connective tissue.


B)

contains blood vessels and nerves.


C)

is important for the storage of fat.


D)

covers the surface of articular cartilage.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The perichondrium is the double-layered
connective tissue sheath covering cartilage.
5
Cartilage
INCORRECT
often occurs in thin plates or sheets.
A)

receives nutrients and oxygen by diffusion.


B)

is easily replaced if damaged.


C)

has a good blood supply.


D)

A and B
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Choice E is correct. Cartilage can occur in thin
plates and sheets, as an epiphyseal growthplate for example, and receive
nutrients and oxygen by diffusion, as it is not directly vascularized.
6
INCORRECT Which of these correctly describes appositional growth of cartilage?

Chondrocytes in the center of the cartilage lay down new matrix.


A)

Fibroblasts produce new chondroblasts.


B)

Chondroblasts in the perichondrium lay down new matrix.


C)

New osteons are formed from osteoblasts.


D)

Canaliculi connect between chondrocytes to allow transport of nutrients.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Chondroblasts in the inner layer of the
perichondrium lay down new matrix in appositional growth. Chondrocytes in
the center of cartilage lay down new matrix in interstitial growth.
7
INCORRECT Which of these bone types is NOT matched with the correct example?

long bone-humerus
A)

short bone-clavicle
B)

flat bone-scapula
C)

irregular bone-vertebrae
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The humerus is a long bone.
8
INCORRECT In a long bone, the epiphyseal plate is

located in the center of the diaphysis.


A)

the outer membrane layer on the diaphysis.


B)
the location where growth occurs.
C)

produced when the epiphyseal line changes to bone.


D)

the location for fat storage.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The epiphyseal plate is located between the
epiphysis and diaphysis, and is the location for bone growth (lengthening).
9
INCORRECT The ends of long bones are called

diaphyses.
A)

epiphyses.
B)

lamellae.
C)

trabeculae.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The diaphysis is the "shaft" of a long bones.
The epiphyses are the ends of long bones.
10
INCORRECT The surface of the medullary cavity of long bones is lined with a connective
tissue membrane called

periosteum.
A)

epiphyseal plates.
B)

endosteum.
C)

perichondrium.
D)

lamellae.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Periosteum is the connective tissue covering
the diaphysis, not the medullary cavity of long bones.
11
INCORRECT Which portion of a long bone stores yellow marrow in adults?

the epiphysis
A)

the medullary cavity


B)

periosteum
C)

compact bone
D)

the epiphyseal plate


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The medullary cavity found in the diaphysis of a
long bone is the site for yellow marrow storage in adults.
12
INCORRECT Which of these locations does NOT contain red marrow in an adult?

ribs
A)

skull
B)

proximal femur
C)

sternum
D)

vertebrae
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In adults, the ribs contain red marrow.
13
INCORRECT The outer layer of bone, composed of dense, irregular, collagenous connective
tissue that contains blood vessels and nerves is called

endosteum.
A)

concentric lamellae.
B)

periosteum.
C)

the epiphyseal plate.


D)

the diaphysis.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Endosteum is the connective tissue membrane
that lines the medullary cavity of long bones.
14
INCORRECT Which of these statements is NOT true regarding bone?

Osteoblasts produce bone matrix.


A)

Osteocytes are osteoblasts that have become surrounded by matrix.


B)

Osteoclasts break down bone.


C)

Osteocytes are connected to each other by Volkmann's canals.


D)

Osteocytes are found in lacunae.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoblasts are the bone cells that produce
bone matrix.
15
INCORRECT Bundles of collagen fibers that penetrate the periosteum into the outer part of
the bone are called

endosteums.
A)
diaphyses.
B)

epiphyses.
C)

perforating fibers.
D)

trabeculae.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Endosteum is the connective tissue membrane
that lines the medullary cavity of long bones. Perforating fibers or Sharpey's
fibers are the collagenous fibers from tendons and ligaments that penetrate
the periosteum and attach to the outer portion of the bone.
16
INCORRECT Which of these substances is present in the largest quantity in bone?

collagen
A)

hydroxyapatite
B)

proteoglycan aggregates
C)

lacunae cartilage
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Calcium phosphate crystal called
hydroxyapatite, make up the largest portion of bone.
17
INCORRECT Hydrogen ions are pumped across the ruffled border, producing an acid
environment. This describes the activity of

osteoblasts.
A)

osteocytes.
B)

osteoclasts.
C)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoclasts are bone cells that pump hydrogen
ions across a ruffled border, creating an acid environment which functions in
the decalcification of bone.
18
INCORRECT __________ are stem cells that have the ability to become osteoblasts or
chondroblasts.

Osteocytes
A)

Osteoclasts
B)

Osteoprogenitor cells
C)

Osteons
D)
Chondrocytes
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoprogenitor cells are the stem cells that
can differentiate into osteoblasts or chondroblasts.
19
INCORRECT Given these cells: 1. osteoblasts 2. osteocytes 3. osteoprogenitor cells Which of
these sequences represents the order in which they are produced?

1,2,3
A)

1,3,2
B)

2,1,3
C)

2,3,1
D)

3,1,2
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoprogenitor cells are stem cells derived
from mesenchymal cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts. When the
bone matrix they produce surrounds osteoblasts, they are called osteocytes,
mature bone cells.
20
INCORRECT Fetal bone tissue that has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions
is

lamellar bone.
A)

long bone.
B)

short bone.
C)

woven bone.
D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Woven bone, bone tissue with randomly
arranged collagen fibers, is first formed during fetal development.
21
INCORRECT Which of these structures is found in compact bone, but not in cancellous bone?

osteoclasts
A)

canaliculi
B)

lamellae
C)

central (haversian) canals


D)

osteocytes
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteoclasts, which function in bone
reabsorption, are found in both compact and cancellous (spongy) bone.
22
INCORRECT Cancellous bone
has no osteocytes.
A)

is located in the diaphyses of long bones.


B)

is composed of delicate interconnecting rods or plates called trabeculae.


C)

does not contain marrow.


D)

forms the outer surface of most bones other than long bones.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cancellous (spongy) bone does have
osteocytes, mature bone cells surrounded by bone matrix.
23
CORRECT Which of these structures is found within an osteon?

concentric lamella
A)

interstitial lamella
B)

circumferential lamella
C)

periosteum
D)

all of these
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Concentric lamellae are the circular layers of
bone matrix that along with associated osteocytes and central canal, form an
osteon.
24
INCORRECT Given these passageways:

1. canaliculi
2. central (haversian) canal
3. blood vessels in periosteum
4. perforating (Volkmann's) canal

Which of these represents the correct order as nutrients pass from outside the
bone to the osteocytes?

1,2,3,4
A)

2,4,1,3
B)

3,4,2,1
C)

3,1,4,2
D)

4,3,2,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Nutrients pass from blood vessels in the
periosteum to perforating (Volkmann's) canals, to central (haversian)
canals, and finally to the canaliculi as they pass from outside the bone to the
osteocytes.
25
INCORRECT Which of these bones is produced at least partly by intramembranous
ossification?

clavicle
A)

frontal
B)

mandible
C)

parietal
D)

all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The clavicles, frontal and parietal bones, and
parts of the mandible are all produced, at least partly, by intramembranous
ossification.
26
CORRECT Intramembranous ossification is usually complete by __________ years of age,
whereas endochondral ossification is usually complete by __________ years of
age.

2, 25
A)

5, 10
B)

10,2
C)

10, 25
D)

25, 5
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Intramembranous ossification is usually complete
by two years of age, while endochondral ossification is usually complete by
25 years of age.
27
INCORRECT Membrane-covered spaces between developing skull bones are called

centers of ossification.
A)

central canals.
B)

fontanels.
C)

perforating canals.
D)

endochondral openings.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Centers of ossification are the locations in
membranes where intramembranous ossification begins.
28
INCORRECT Endochondral ossification

occurs primarily in the bones of the skull.


A)

involves calcification of the cartilage matrix.


B)

produces bone in connective tissue membranes.


C)

occurs when chondrocytes replace osteoblasts in the matrix.


D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Intramembranous, not endochondral
ossification, is the primary process forming the bones of the skull.
29
INCORRECT Secondary ossification centers

are located in the diaphysis of the bone.


A)

are located in the epiphysis of the bone.


B)

are located in the fontanels.


C)

appear during early fetal development.


D)

are locations for intramembranous ossification.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Primary ossification centers are located in the
diaphyses of bones. The secondary ossification centers are located in the
epiphyses of long bones.
30
INCORRECT In endochondral ossification, the perichondrium that surrounded the hyaline
cartilage becomes

circumferential lamellae.
A)

osteons.
B)

lacunae.
C)

perforating canals.
D)

periosteum.
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The perichondrium becomes periosteum.
31
INCORRECT Given these zones within the epiphyseal plate:
1. zone of calcification
2. zone of hypertrophy
3. zone of proliferation
4. zone of resting cartilage
Arrange them in the correct order, from the epiphysis to the diaphysis.
1,2,3,4
A)

1,3,4,2
B)

2,4,1,3
C)

3,2,1,4
D)

4,3,2,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: From the epiphysis to the diaphysis, the
epiphyseal plate includes: the zone of resting cartilage, the zone of
proliferation, the zone of hypertrophy, and the zone of calcification.
32
INCORRECT Growth in the length of a long bone stops when

the articular cartilage becomes completely ossified.


A)

the epiphyseal plate becomes completely ossified.


B)

appositional growth at the periosteum stops.


C)

intramembranous ossification is complete.


D)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Growth in the length of a long bone stops when
the epiphyseal plate is completely ossified, becoming an epiphyseal line.
33
CORRECT Which type of bone growth is responsible for an increase in the diameter of
bones?

appositional growth
A)

interstitial growth
B)

endochondral growth
C)

trabecular growth
D)

intramembranous growth
E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Appositional bone growth is responsible for the
increase in bone diameter or width.
34
CORRECT Which of these statements concerning bone growth are correct?

Increased amounts of testosterone and estrogen cause a rapid increase in


A) bone growth.

Testosterone and estrogen prevent ossification of the epiphyseal plate.


B)
Too little growth hormone can cause a condition called acromegaly.
C)

Too much growth hormone can cause dwarfism.


D)

Achondroplastic dwarfism is caused by too much thyroid hormone.


E)
Feedback: Correct Answer: Increased testosterone and estrogen levels, as
seen during puberty for males and females, causes a rapid increase in bone
growth.
35
INCORRECT Osteomalacia can occur as a result of a

vitamin C deficiency.
A)

vitamin D deficiency.
B)

lack of thyroid hormone.


C)

lack of growth hormone.


D)

lack of sex hormones.


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osteomalacia can occur as a result of vitamin D
deficiency resulting in decreased calcium absorption with the softening of
bones due to calcium depletion.
36
INCORRECT A deficiency of vitamin C in the diet can result in

decreased collagen synthesis.


A)

scurvy.
B)

poor wound healing.


C)

growth retardation in children.


D)

all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Vitamin C deficiency can result in decreased
collagen synthesis, as well as scurvy, poor wound healing, and growth
retardation in children.
37
INCORRECT Arrange the following events in the correct order of occurrence after a bone is
broken.

1. osteoblasts produce ossification


2. hematoma formation
3. internal fibrocartilage callus and external bone-cartilage callus formation
4. woven bone is remodeled to form compact bone

1,2,3,4
A)
2,3,4,1
B)

2,3,1,4
C)

2,4,1,3
D)

2,4,3,1
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The order of events that occur after a bone is
broken are first the formation of a hematoma, then the production of an
internal fibrocartilage callus and external bone-cartilage callus, followed by
osteoblasts producing ossification and finally, woven bone being remodeled
to form compact bone.
38
INCORRECT PTH is secreted from the __________ , whereas calcitonin is secreted from the
__________ .

thyroid gland, pancreas


A)

thyroid gland, parathyroid gland


B)

pancreas, pituitary
C)

parathyroid gland, thyroid gland


D)

adrenal gland, thyroid gland


E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: PTH is secreted from the parathyroid glands,
whereas calcitonin is secreted from the thyroid gland.
39
INCORRECT Parathyroid hormone causes

increased chondroblast activity.


A)

increased bone breakdown.


B)

decreased blood calcium levels.


C)

increased calcium lost in the urine.


D)

all of these
E)
Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclast
activity, resulting in increased bone breakdown.
40
INCORRECT Which of these disorders is caused by a bacterium?

acromegaly
A)

osteogenesis imperfecta
B)
osteomalacia
C)

osteomyelitis
D)

osteoporosis
E)