ANATOMY REVIEW QUESTION SET1 processes of the lumbar vertebrae and psoas

muscle.
URINARY a. Urethra
1. How many ureteric constrictions are there? b. Urinary bladder
a. 1 c. Ureter
b. 2 d. Kidney
c. 3
d. 4 9. In relation of the ureter to the uterine
artery, the ureter is:
2. The main arteries supplying the bladder are a. Above and in front of the artery
branches of the? b. Above and behind the artery
a. Uterine artery c. Below and behind the artery
b. Internal iliac arteries d. Below and in front of the artery
c. Superior vesical arteries
d. Inferior vesical arteries 10. What is the maximum capacity of the urinary
bladder?
3. The male urethra is divided into four parts, a. 300ml
which of the following is not included? b. 500ml
a. Intramural part c. 700ml
b. Prostatic urethra d. 1000ml
c. Perineal part
d. Membranous part THORAX AND RESPIRATORY ORGANS QUESTIONS

4. Blood is supplied to the female urethra by 11. Part of the pleura that covers the lungs and
the? adheres to all its surfaces
a. Internal pudendal artery a) Mediastinal part of the parietal pleura
b. Vaginal artery b) Visceral pleura
c. A,b c) Diaphragmatic part of the parietal pleura
d. None of the above d) Cervical pleura

5. Which of the following will become the 12. Part of the parietal pleura that covers the
permanent kidneys? superior surface of the diaphragm on each side of
a. Pronephros the mediastinum
b. Mesonephros a) Mediastinal part of the parietal pleura
c. Metanephros b) Visceral pleura
d. Mullerian duct c) Diaphragmatic part of the parietal pleura
d) Cervical pleura
6. The kidney extends from
a. T10- L2 13. Which part of the lungs that has a blunt superior
b. T12-L2 end ascending above the level of the 1st rib into the
c. T12-L3 root of the neck that is covered by cervical pleura
d. T10-L3 a) Apex
b) Body
7. The right kidney lies a little lower that the c) Base
left? d) Right lung
a. True
b. False 14. Pressure within the lungs during inspiration
a) 4 mmHg
8. It is a muscular tube that begins with the b) 5 mmHg
renal pelvis, descend on the transverse c) 7 mmHg
d) 8 mmHg
 b. Facial vein
15. This is to insert a hypodermic needle through an c. Angular vein
intercostal space into the pleural cavity d. Retromandibular vein
a) Thoracoscopy
b) Pleurectomy 22. This begins in the abdomen at the cistern chyli,
c) Thoracentesis which is the dilated junction of the intestinal,
d) Pleurodosis lumbar and descending intercostal trunks?
a. Right Lymphatic duct
16. Percussion help detect whether the underlying b. Left Lymphatic duct
tissue are filled. If it has a dull sound what is it filled c. Thoracic duct
with? d. Mediastinal duct
a) Air
b) Fluid 23. This receives lymph from the lower abdominal
c) Solid wall, buttocks, penis, scrotum, labium majus,
d) B and c and the lower parts of the vagina and anal
canal?
17. The mucous membranes covering the carina is a. Superior Inguinal lymph node
one of the most sensitive areas of the of b. Inferior inguinal lymph node
tracheobronchal tree and is associated with what? c. Lymphatics in the region above the umbilicus
a) Cough reflex d. Lymphatics in the region below the umbilicus
b) Vomiting reflex
c) Muscle reflex 24. This receives lymph from the common, internal,
d) Injury or external iliac?
a. Paraaortic lymph node
18. Aspirated foreign bodies or food is more likely to b. Lumbar lymph node
lodge in what part of the bronchus c. Lateral Aortic lymph node
a) Left d. All of the above
b) Right e. None of the above
c) Equally for both
d) Any by chance 25. This drains along the gonadal vessels directly
19. This pleura is insensitive to pain because it into the aortic nodes?
recieve no nerves of general sensations. a. Lymph from the testis
a) Visceral pleura b. Lymph from the epididymis
b) Parietal pleura c. Lymph from the ovary
c) Both d. All of the above
d) None e. None of the above

20. Which lung has 3 segments 26. Where does the efferent vessels of the lymph
a) Left nodes of the perineum drain?
b) Right a. Internal iliac lymph node
c) Both b. Sacral lymph node
d) none c. Thoracic lymph node
d. All of the above
LYMPHATIC e. None of the above

21. This divides into an anterior branch, which joins 27. A facial muscle that compresses cheek to keep it
the facial vein to form the common facial vein, taut?
and a posterior branch, which joins the a. Mentalis
posterior auricular vein to form the external b. Risorius
jugular vein? c. Procerus
a. Deep facial vein d. Bucccinator
 D. None
28. The origin of Mentalis?
a. Fascia over masseter 35. fissure of liver located between caudate lobe and
b. Incisive fossa of the mandible lateral portion of left lobe?
c. Zygomatic arch A. Ligamentum venosum
d. Pterygomandibular raphe B. Ligamentum teres hepatis
C. Ligament of Treitz
29. This is a dense layer of interlacing collagen and D. None
elastic fibers; these fibers provide skin tone and
account for the strength and toughness of skin? 36. lies in the right iliac fossa and surrounded by
a. Epidermis peritoneum but has no mesentery
b. Dermis A. Appendix
c. Subcutaneous tissue B. Sigmoid
d. Deep fascia C. Duodenum
D. Cecum
30. This tends to spiral longitudinally in the limbs
and run transversely in the neck and trunk? 37. sickle-shaped peritoneal fold connecting the liver
a. Arrector muscles of hairs to the diaphragm and the anterior abdominal wall.
b. Cleavage lines A. Phrenicolic ligament
c. Lanners lines B. Falciform ligament
d. B & C C. Coronary ligament
D. Ligamentum venosum
GIT
38. the most common site of impaction of gallstones
31. which source of innervation to the GIT is A. Common hepatic duct
inhibitory? B. Cystic duct
A. Sympathetic C. Right and left hepatic ducts
B. Parasympathetic D. None
C. Enteric
D. None 39. extends from the body of L1 to the transverse
process of L1 and passess over the psoas muscle and
32. It is located at the junction of the right 9th costal the sympathetic trunk.
cartilageand lateral border of the rectus abdominis A. Right crus
A. Transverse colon B. Left crus
B. Ascending colon C. medial arcuate ligament
C. Spleen D. Lateral arcuate ligament
D. Gallbladder
40. Extends from the transverse process of L1 to rib
33. it is formed by the union of the splenic vein and 12 and passes over the quadratus lumborum.
superior mesenteric vein and receives the right and A. Right crus
left gastric vein. B. Left crus
A. Hepatic artery C. medial arcuate ligament
B. Hepatic vein D. Lateral arcuate ligament
C. Portal vein
D. Celiac trunk BACK AND UPPER EXTREMITIES

34. fissure of liver located between lateral portion of 41. In the inferior part of the neck, the roots of
left lobe and quadrate lobe? the brachial plexus unite to form three
A. Ligamentum venosum trunks that includes all of the ff, except:
B. Ligamentum teres hepatis a. Superior trunk
C. Ligament of Treitz b. Middle trunk
 c. Posterior trunk
d. Inferior trunk
42. Wrist drop, the inability to extend the wrist
and the fingers at the metacarpophalangeal
joints, is the characteristic clinical sign of
which nerve injury:
a. Ulnar nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Median nerve
d. Cutaneous nerve of the forearm
43. Injury to this nerve results in the paralysis of
the coracobrachialis, biceps, and brachialis
muscles:
a. Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Radial nerve
c. Ulnar nerve
d. Median nerve
44. May produce muscle spasms and severe
disability in hikers ( backpackers palsy)
who carry heavy backpacks for long periods:
a. Medial brachial plexus injury
b. Inferior brachial plexus injury
c. Superior brachial plexus injury
d. Deep brachial plexus injury
45. Distal attachment of triceps brachii muscle:
a. Distal end of the olecranon of the
ulna and fascia of forearm
b. Lateral end of the olecranon of the
ulna
c. Superior ulna
d. Proximal end of olecranon of the
ulna and fascia of forearm
46. This artery arise from the brachial artery
around the middle of the arm, and enters
the nutrient canal on the anteromedial
surface of the humerus:
a. Profunda brachi artery
b. Humeral nutrient artery
c. Superior ulnar collateral artery
d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
47. Largest branch of the brachial artery and has
the most superior origin:
a. Profunda brachi artery
b. Humeral nutrient artery
c. Superior ulnar collateral artery
d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
48. It terminates by dividing into middle and
radial collateral arteries, which participate in
the peri-articular arterial anastomoses
around the elbow:
a. Profunda brachi artery
b. Humeral nutrient artery
c. Superior ulnar collateral artery
d. Inferior ulnar collateral artery
49. Commonly injured during repetitive use of
the upper limb above the horizontal (e.g.
during throwing and racquet sports,
swimming and weightlifting):
a. Musculotendinous rotator cuff
b. Acromioclavicular joint
c. Supraspinatus
d. Sternoclavicular joint
50. Commonly occurs in athletes who throw a
baseball or football and in those who have
shoulder instability and subluxation (partial
dislocation) of the glenohumeral joint:
a. Axillary nerve injury
b. Glenohumeral joint injury
c. Bursitis of the elbow
d. Glenoid labrum tear
NEUROANATOMY
51. The circle of Willis is supplied by
a. External carotid and internal carotid
arteries
b. Internal carotid and vertebral
arteries
c. Vertebral and facial arteries
d. Cerebral artery
52. This arteries supplies the occipital lobe,
brain stem cerebellum and posterior part of
the thalamus
a. Vertebral arteries
b. External carotid
c. Internal carotid
d. Cerebral arteries
53. Are the arteries tha connect the posterior
and anterior portion of the circle of willis?
a. Anterior communicating
b. Posterior communicating
 c. Superior cerebellar a. Gracilis
d. Inferior cerebellar b. Sartorius
c. Vastus lateralis
54. The internal carotid is a branch of what d. Adductor longus
artery
a. Subclavian 62. The ff comprises the knee joint except
b. Brachiocephalic a. Femur
c. Cephalic b. Tibia
d. Common carotid c. Fibula
d. Patella
55. The vertebral artery is a branch of what 63. Which muscle is the prime extensor at the
artery knee joint
a. Subclavian a. Popliteus muscle
b. Brachiocephalic b. Quadriceps femoris
c. Cephalic c. Gracilis
d. Common carotid d. Sartorius

56. Supplies the anterior portion of the brain 64. Footdrop (inability to dorsiflex the foot)
a. ACA indicates injury of:
b. MCA a. Femoral nerve
c. Inferior cerebellar b. Common peroneal nerve
c. Saphenous nerve
57. Branch that supplies the corpus callosum d. Sciatic
a. ACA
b. MCA 65. Which muscles are responsible for plantar
c. Inferior cerebellar flexion at the ankle?
d. Basilar artery a. Extensor hallucis longus
58. Primay motor Tract b. Gastrocnemius
a. Corticospinal c. Extensor digitorum longus
b. Spinothalamic d. Tibialis anterior
c. Corticothalamic
d. Subcortical pathways 66. What nerve provides sensory innervations to
the sole of the foot
59. Tract for pain a. Tibial nerve
a. Spinothalamic b. Sural nerve
b. Spinocerebellar c. Saphenous nerve
c. Somatosensory tract d. Sciatic
d. Reticulospinal
67. The ff are muscles of the posterior leg
60. The motor cortex is located compartment except
a. Post central sulcus a. Soleus
b. Pre central sulcus b. Gastrocnemius
c. Below the occipital lobe c. Plantaris muscle
d. In the cerebellum d. Peroneus longus

LOWER EXTREMITY 68. What is the longest vein in the body

a. Great saphenous vein
61. A relatively weak member of adductor group b. Femoral vein
of muscles usually used in transplantation c. External pudendal vein
since it can be removed without noticeable d. Accessory saphenous vein
loss of its actions on the legs
 69. Which structure in the femoral triangle is not 75. In fetal circulation, what structure carries
contained within the femoral canal? the oxygenated blood?
a. Femoral nerve a. Umbilical veins
b. Femoral artery b. Placenta
c. Femoral vein c. Superior vena cava
d. Fascia lata d. Inferior vena cava
76. The fossa ovalis (remnant of foramen ovale)
70. Unhappy triad except is seen in what chamber of he heart?
a. ACL a. Right atrium
b. MCL b. Left atrium
c. Medial meniscus c. Right ventricle
d. None of the above d. Left ventricle
-
CARDIO 77. After birth, when do the ductus arteriosus
and ligamentum arteriosum complete their
71. What is the most posterior of the four obliteration and fibrosis?
chambers? a. 1-2 wks
a. Right atrium b. 1 month
b. Left atrium c. 1 wk
c. Right ventricle d. 3-4 nwks
d. Left ventricle 78. How many pairs of aortic arches usually
72. These fibrous strands connect the apices in develop?
the Right ventricle a. 4
a. Trabeculae carnae b. 5
b. Papillary muscles c. 6
c. Chordate tendinae d. 3
d. Moderator band 79. This becomes the Caval system in a venous
73. Which forms the venous coronary sinus? drainage pattern of an embryo
a. Left horn of the sinus venosus a. Umbilical veins
b. Right horn of the sinus venosus b. Allantoic veins
c. Primitive atrium c. Cardinal veins
d. Bulbus cordis d. Vitelline veins
80. Which embryonic structure that is most
likely responsible for the origin of PDA?
74. When a child is diagnosed with Atrial Septal a. Right 4th arch
Defect, what structure/s is/are b. Left 6th arch
hypertrophied? c. Left 5th arch
a. Right atrium d. Right 6th arch
b. Right ventricle
c. Pulmonary trunk
d. All of the above
ANATOMY OF THE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

81. In the process of spermatogenesis, the developmental sequence is:

a) spermatids, spermatozoa, spermatogonia,

spermatocytes
b) spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids,
spermatozoa
c) spermatogonia, spermatocytes, spermatids,
spermatozoa
d) spermatogonia, spermatids, spermatocytes,
spermatozoa

82. The accessory organs in the male that secrete into the ejaculatory ducts and the urethra
are:

a) seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral

glands
b) adrenal glands, bulbourethral glands, and seminal
glands
c) epididymis, seminal vesicles, and vas deferens
d) prostate gland, inguinal canals, and raphe

83. Which of the following would be found in the myometrium of the uterus?

a) spiral arteries
b) endometrial
glands
c) skeletal muscle
d) arcuate arteries

84. Ovum transport in the uterine tubes presumably involves a combination of:

a) flagellar locomotion and ciliary movement

b) active transport and ciliary movement
c) ciliary movement and peristaltic contractions
d) movement in uterine fluid and flagellar
locomotion

85. The outer limits of the vulva are established by the:

a) prepuce and vestibule

b) vestibule and the labia minora
c) mons pubis and labia majora
 d) lesser and greater vestibular
glands

86. The principal hormone that prepares the uterus for pregnancy is:

a. progesterone
b. FSH
c. LH
d. estrogen

87. The mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus is the:

a. broad ligament
b. suspensory
ligament
c. mesovarium
d. uterosacral
ligament

88. The body of the spermatic cord is a structure that includes:

a. epididymis, ductus deferens, blood vessels, and

nerves
b. vas deferens, prostate gland, blood vessels, and
urethra
c. ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and
lymphatics
d. all of the above

89. The enzymes needed to bore into the corona radiata reside in which portion of the sperm?

a. acrosomal cap
b. nucleus
c. spiral mitochondria of the neck

d. tail

90. Powerful, rhythmic contractions in the ischiocavernosus and bulbocavernosus muscles of

the pelvic floor result in:

a. erection
b. emission
c. ejaculation
d. all of the above