AIATSOYMEO2016T09 Solution PDF

Roll No.
: Test Date: 03/04/2016
Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

OPEN MOCK TEST
TEST No.9
KASH TE
AA ST
IA
D
SE
IN
RI E
AL L
MEDICAL
S
Entrance Exams -2016
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will be rejected.
Test No. 9
TOPICS OF THE TEST
Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Test - 9 (Code A) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 9 MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
4. A projectile is given an initial velocity of i 2 j m/s,

Pressure of gas is given by P = n RT e RTV

1.
V where i is along ground and j is along the vertical.
where, T = temperature, V = volume, R = universal
If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its trajectory is
gas constant and n = no. of moles. The dimensions
of are (1) 4y = 2x 25x2 (2) y = x 5x2
(3) y = 2x 5x2 (4) 4y = 2x 5x2
(1) ML5 T 2
5. An aeroplane has to go from a city A to another city
5
(2) ML T 2 1 B 500 km away. B is at north of A. The wind is
mol
blowing towards east at a speed of 20 m/s. The air
speed of aeroplane is 40 m/s. The direction in which
(3) M1 L5 T 3 the pilot should head the plane to reach the point B
is
(4) ML4 T 3 mol1
(1) North-West direction
2. To measure the resistance of cylindrical wire whose (2) 30 East of North
resistivity is 1.7 108 m, the length of wire is
measured as 10 cm. The scale used to measure (3) 30 West of North
length has a least count 1 mm, the radius of wire is
(4) 60 West of North
measured as 1.00 mm with the help of micrometer
whose least count is 0.02 mm. Find the percentage 6. A shot is fired from O at an angle with horizontal.
error in the computation of resistance. If the shot hits the object P on an inclined plane
horizontally then the relation between and is
(1) 2% (2) 3%
(3) 5% (4) 7% P
3. A particle moves so that the displacement x at time
t is given by x2 = 1 + t2. What is its acceleration?

1 t2 O
(1) (2)
x x3 1
(1) 2 tan tan (2) tan tan
4
1 t2 t2 t
(3) (4) 3
x x3 x 3
x (3) tan 4 tan (4) tan 2 tan
Space for Rough Work
1/22
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 9 (Code A)
7. The value of , for which tension in the string AB is 10. Shots are fired simultaneously from the top and the
minimum, is bottom of a vertical cliff with elevation 37 and 53
respectively as shown. If they strike the ground
A
simultaneously, then the relation between u1 and u2
30 C
is
B u1
37
w
(1) 30 (2) 60
(3) 45 (4) 90 u2
8. In a smooth circular tube of radius R, a particle of 53
mass m is released from top. The angular position
with vertical where particle will leave the contact with (1) 3u1 = 4u2
inner surface and start revolving in the contact of (2) 4u1 = 3u2
outer surface will be
(3) u1 u2
u2
(4) u1
R 2
11. A sphere is rolling without slipping on a fixed
horizontal plane surface with a constant speed. In
the figure, A and C are the points on same line. Then
1 2 1 1
(1) sin (2) tan
3 3
1 2 1 1
C A
(3) cos (4) tan
3 2
9. A block of mass m having charge q is sliding down
an inclined plane of inclination and coefficient of
(1) Velocities of A and C are different but
friction . When uniform electric field E is applied
accelerations are same
parallel to the base of inclined plane, the block slides
(2) Velocities of A and C are same but accelerations
down with constant velocity. The value of E is
are different
mg tan mg tan
(3) Velocities and accelerations both are same for A
(1) q 1 tan (2) q 1 tan and C position
mg mg tan (4) Velocities and accelerations both are different

(3)
q tan
(4) q for A and C position
2/22
12. Gravitational field intensity at the centre O of the 15. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes
semicircular ring (of mass m and radius r) shown 1
here is process in which P , then molar heat capacity
T
y of gas is
r 3R 5R
(1) (2)
x 2 2
O
7R
2 Gm 2 Gm (3) (4) 2R
j j 2
(1) (2)
r2 r2
16. A block Q of mass m moving with velocity v 0
2 Gm 2 Gm collides with another block P of same mass as
(3) j (4) i
r2 r 2 shown in figure. There is no friction between floor and
13. An object of specific gravity is hung from a blocks. After collision,Q sticks to P. Find the
massless string. The tension in string is T. The maximum compression in spring.
object is immersed in water so that one half of its
volume is submerged. The new tension in the string
is
v0 Q
2 1 2 1 K P
(1) T (2) T m m
2 2
1 1
(3) T (4) T 2m v0 m
(1) 2 v 0 (2)
K 2 K
14. Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are suspended
with the help of two wires having same area of cross
section. If the ratio of Youngs modulus of the wires 2m v0 2m
(3) v 0 (4)
Y1 1 K 2 K
is Y 2 , then the ratio of extensions produced in
2
wires is 17. Equation of motion of particle performing S.H.M. is
d2x
(1) 8 : 1
Y1 2 m 2
2 x 0 . If the amplitude of oscillation is a,
dt
(2) 4 : 1 then the distance covered by particle in 2.5 second
1 kg
is (particle begins at mean position)
(3) 6 : 1 Y2 1 m
(1) 2a (2) 3a
2 kg
(4) 2 : 1 (3) 5a (4) 9a
3/22
18. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has a cross 22. Moment of inertia of an annular ring of mass M and
section of 8 cm2, other end of which has 40 fine of inner radius R1 and outer radius R2 about the axis
holes each of area 108 m2. If the liquid flows inside tangential and parallel to the diameter of ring is
the tube with a speed of 0.15 m min1, then the
M 2
R1 R22 M
5 R12 R22
speed with which the liquid is ejected through the
holes is (1) (2)
4 4
(1) 0.5 m/s (2) 0.55 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 50 m/s (3)
2
R1 R22
M 2
(4)
4
R1 5R22
M 2
19. A train approaching a hill at a speed of 40 km/h

sounds a whistle of frequency 580 Hz, when it is at 23. In the given circuit, if potential difference between A
a distance of 1 km from hill. A wind with a speed of and B is VA VB = 4 V, then the value of X will be
40 km/h is blowing in the direction of motion of the
train. Find the frequency of echo heard by the driver. 10 5V
(Velocity of sound in air = 1200 km/h)
(1) 600 Hz (2) 620 Hz
A B
(3) 500 Hz (4) 560 Hz
20. 1 kg of ice at 0C is mixed with 1 kg of steam at
X 2V
100C. What will be the ratio of mass of steam and
water in final composition of the system when (1) 20 (2) 25
thermal equilibrium is reached?
(3) 30 (4) 40
1
(1) 2 (2) 24. An electric field of 20 N/C exists along the x-axis in
2
space. If A(4 m, 2 m) and B(6 m, 5 m) are the
1 points in space, then the value of potential difference
(3) 3 (4) (VB VA) between these points is
3
21. A mass m moves with a velocity v and collides (1) 120 V (2) 40 V
inelastically with another identical mass at rest. After
(3) 80 V (4) 60 V
v
collision first mass moves with velocity in a 25. A 5 F capacitor is charged to 12 V. The positive
3
plate of this capacitor is now connected to the
direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
negative terminal of a 12 V battery and vice-versa.
motion. Find the speed of the second mass after
The heat developed in the process is
collision.
(1) 1.44 mJ
2
(1) v (2) 3v
3 (2) 1.56 mJ
(3) 1.72 mJ
v
(3) v (4)
3 (4) Zero
4/22
26. Some amount of a radioactive substance (half life = 30. Two concentric coils x and y of radii 16 cm and
10 days) is spread inside a room and consequently 10 cm respectively lie in the same vertical plane
the level of radiation becomes 64 times permissible containing the North-South direction. Coil x has
level for normal occupancy of the room. After how 20 turns and carries a current of 16 A. Coil y has
many days the room will be safe for occupation? 25 turns and carries current of 18 A. The sense of
current in x is anticlockwise and in y, clockwise. For
(1) 20 days (2) 40 days an observer looking at the coil facing west, the
(3) 50 days (4) 60 days resultant magnetic moment due to these coils is
(1) 2.3 Am2 towards east
27. The surface of a metal of work function 2 eV is
illuminated by light whose electric field component is (2) 3 Am2 towards west
(3) 3.7 Am2 towards west
E 100 sin(1.5 1015 s1 ) t . Find the approximate
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted (4) 5 Am2 towards west
from the surface. 31. A charged particle (of mass m and charge q) enters
in uniform transverse magnetic field at point A, as
(1) 2 eV (2) 4.2 eV
shown in figure. Time for which the particle remains
(3) 1 eV (4) Zero in the magnetic field region is
28. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of molecules of
hydrogen and helium which are at temperature 27C B
and 127C is
v
4 8 A
(1) (2)
3 3
3 1 2 m m
(3) (4) (1) (2)
4 3 qB qB
2 2 m 2m
29. The energy spectrum of -particle number (N) as a (3) (4)
qB qB
function of -particle energy (E) emitted from a
radioactive source is 32. An electron moves along the line XOX which lies in
the same plane as that of the square loop of
N N conducting wire as shown. The direction of induced
current is
(1) (2)
E E
X X
N O
N
(1) Clockwise as electron moves from X to X
(2) Anticlockwise as electron moves from X to O
(3) (4) (3) Clockwise as electron moves from O to X
E E (4) Both (2) & (3)
5/22
33. What will be the reading of a hot wire voltmeter if 38. A plane wavefront of wavelength is incident on a
it is connected across the terminals of a generator single slit of width b. What is the angular width for
whose voltage wave form is represented by secondary maxima?
V = 200 sin t + 100 sin 3t + 50 sin 5t?

(1) 100 V (2) 162 V (1) (2)
2b b
(3) 150 V (4) 200 V
2 b
34. In given figure the focal length of convex length is (3) (4)
1 cm. An object is at (1.5 cm, 2 cm). The distance b
of image from x-axis is 39. A thin prism of angle 7 and refractive index 1.5 is
y combined with another prism of angle and refractive
index 1.7. If the emergent ray goes undeviated, then
O 1.5 cm
the value of is
2 cm
(1) 11 (2) 9
O x
(3) 7 (4) 5
40. The energy of electron in the n th orbit is
13.6
(1) 6 cm (2) 4 cm En eV , when zero potential is at infinity.
n2
(3) 2 cm (4) 1 cm What will be its value if zero potential is considered
35. The number of possible interference maximum for of first orbit?
YDSE in which slit separation is twice the
13.6 13.6
wavelength of monochromatic light is (1) 2
27.2 eV (2) 2
13.6 eV
n n
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 7 13.6 13.6
(3) 2
27.2 eV (4) eV
36. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exists across a n n2
pn junction. Width of depletion region is 1 m. If an 41. In the given circuit the output y becomes zero for the
electron with speed 5 105 m/s approaches this inputs
pn junction from n-side, then what will be its
approximate speed on entering the p-side? A
(1) 2 105 m/s (2) 105 m/s B
y
(3) 3 103 m/s (4) 3.8 105 m/s C
37. If 200 MeV energy is released per fission of uranium
atom, then the number of fission per second required (1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
to release one kilowatt power is (2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
(1) 3.125 105 (2) 3.125 1013 (3) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
(3) 1.245 1019 (4) 1.245 1013 (4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
6/22
42. The output waveform of half wave rectifier is 44. When an astronomical telescope is focussed on a
distant star, the distance of the eyepiece from the
V objective is 60 cm. When focussed on a distant
V0 object, the eyepiece must be shifted away by
10 cm. If the focal length of eyepiece is 5 cm, what
t will be the distance of the object from the objective?
T
T 3T (Assume that the eye is focussed for infinity)
2 2
(1) 30 cm
The rms value of output is
(2) 105.3 cm
V0 (3) 215.5 cm
(1) (2) V0
2
(4) 357.5 cm
V0
(3) (4) 2V0 45. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz
2 travels in a free space along the x-direction. At a
43. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus
particular point in space and time, E 6.3 j V m .
(1) Only the proton number changes
(2) Both the neutron number and the proton number
changes The value of B at that point is
(3) There is no change in the proton number and the (1) 2.1 108 k T (2) 1.2 108 k T
neutron number
(4) Only the neutron number changes (3) 1.2 108 i T (4) 2.1 108 j T
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Weight of O2 required to react with 1.35 g of Al 49. Total number of orbitals present in g-subshell will be
completely to form Al2O3 will be (1) 5 (2) 7
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.2 (3) 8 (4) 9
(3) 3.2 (4) 0.8 50. Which of the following can have same valency as its
group number?
47. Number of H+ ions given by one molecule of H3PO2
(1) Cr (2) Fe
when dissolved in water is
(3) Ni (4) Co
(1) 1 (2) 2
51. What is the hybridization of oxygen atom in furan?
(3) 3 (4) Zero (1) sp3 (2) sp
48. Which of the following transition in Be3+
gives same (3) sp2 (4) sp3d
frequency, given by n = 4 to n = 2 in He+? 52. CO2 is isostructural with
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 6 to n = 3 (1) SO2 (2) NO2
(3) n = 8 to n = 4 (4) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) KO2 (4) BeF2
7/22
53. The value of Vc (critical volume) is 58. Allotrops of hydrogen are
(1) b (2) 2b (1) Ortho and Meta
(3) 3b (4) 4b (2) Ortho and Para
54. Which of the following will have the maximum heat (3) Para and Meta
of neutralization in magnitude? (4) Ortho, Para and Meta
(1) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HCl 59. Which of the following alkaline earth metal will do not
impart colour to the flame?
(2) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF
(1) Mg (2) Be
(3) 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole CH3COOH
(3) Sr (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) 1 mole KOH + 1 mole HCl
60. H2C2O4 (oxalic acid) and H2SO4 (conc.) on reaction
55. A + B C, the value of Kc = 103 and G f of A, give two gases. The gases are
B and C are 100, 200 and 500 kJ/mol, the
(1) CO and CO2
temperature will be (approx.)
(2) CO and SO3
(1) 2483.4 K
(3) CO2 and SO3
(2) 3482 K
(4) SO2 and SO3
(3) 2883.4 K
61. B2H6 on reaction with NH3 can give
(4) 3883.4 K
(1) B2H6 4NH3
56. If the value of Kp for the reaction A(s) B(g) +
C(g) is 16 atm2. The value of pressure at equilibrium (2) Borazine
of B (g) and C (g) will be (3) B2N3
(1) PB = PC = 3 atm (4) All of these
(2) PB = PC = 4 atm 62. What is the IUPAC name of
(3) PB = 2PC = 10 atm CH 3 CH CH 2 CH2COOH?

(4) PC = 2PB = 8 atm NH2 CN
57. How many moles of I ion are required to react with (1) 3 - Cyno - 2 - amino pentanoic acid
1 mole of MnO4 in acidic medium? (2) 3 - Cyno - 4 - amino pentanoic acid
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 - Amino - 3 - cyanopentanoic acid
(3) 2 (4) 5 (4) 4 - Amino - 3 - cyanopentanoic acid
8/22
63. Which of the following cannot show tautomerism? 67. Which of the following is non-benzenoid aromatic?
O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O
O O
O
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
O
O 68. In qualitative analysis if both "N" and "S" are present
64. Which is optically active? in an organic compound, the colour appears at the
end is
CH3 CH3 (1) Brown
(1) C=C=C=C
C2H5 C2H5
(2) Blood red
CH3 CH3 (3) Black

(2) C=C=C
CH3 (4) Prussian blue
CH3
69. Major product of the following reaction is
(3) CH3 CH3 CH3
C=C=C Cl2
C2H5 CH3 CH CH2 CH 3 Products.
C2H5 h
CH 3 CH3 CH3
(4) C=C=C=C (1) CH3 C CH2 CH3
CH 3 CH3
Cl
65. Strongest acid out of the following
CH3
CH2 CH2 COOH CH2 CH2 COOH
(1) (2) (2) CH2 CH CH CH 3
F NO2
Cl
CH2 CH2 COOH CH2 CH2 COOH
(3) (4) CH3
Cl Br
(3) CH3 CH CH CH3
66. Electrophilic substitution reaction takes place mainly
Cl
in
(1) Methane (2) Ethyne CH3
(3) Benzene (4) Cyclopropane (4) CH3 CH CH2 CH2 Cl
9/22
O
74. If ECl 1.36 V , then what will happen if
70. HCHO and CH 3 C CH 3 are the ozonolysis 2 /2Cl
product of solution is diluted?
(1) CH3 C = CH2 (1) There will be no change in reduction potential

CH3 (2) Oxidation potential will increase
(2) CH3 CH CH = CH2 (3) Reduction potential will increase
CH3 (4) Reduction potential will decrease
(3) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 75. t1 t2 t3

100 g 50 g 25 g 12.5 g
(4) CH 3 CH = CH CH 3 What will be the value of t1 + t2 + t3 if rate constant
71. Reducing agent present in classical smog is of the reaction is k = 10 mol/L/s and half-life is 10 s?
(1) SO3 (2) SO2 (1) 30 s (2) 12.5 s
(3) NO2 (4) NO (3) 15 s (4) 17.5 s
72. The distance between two tetrahedral voids in ccp 76. Which of the following have maximum coagulating
unit cell is power for argyrol sol?
a (1) Cl (2) SO24

(1)
2
2+
(3) Ca (4) AI3+
a
(2) 77. Leaching is done for the concentration of
2
(1) Cu2S (2) Ag2S
3a
(3) (3) PbS (4) ZnS
2
78. The ratio of sigma bonds present in cations and
(4) All of these anion in ionic PCl5 is
73. If the value of lowering in vapour pressure of a liquid (1) 3 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
is 100 mm when a non-electrolyte solute is added
to it. What will be the value of elevation in boiling (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
point if vapour pressure of pure liquid is 700 mm Hg
and Kb = 10 K kg/mol? (Molar mass of solvent = 79. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than
167 g) respective halogen, except
(1) 5 K (2) 10 K (1) I2 (2) Br2
(3) 15 K (4) 20 K (3) CI2 (4) F2
10/22
80. Which of the following is correct regarding stability HN3 HNO2
of oxidation state? 86. CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH H SO A
2 4
(1) Ni2 Pt 2 (2) Cr 2 Cr 3 Conc. H2SO4 HCl

B C D
443 K
(3) Mn2 Mn3 (4) All of these
Which of the following is correct about D?
81. Which of the following is paramagnetic?
(1) [Co(NH3)6 ]Cl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] (1) D is optically active
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) Ni(CO)4 (2) D is meso compound

82. Which of the following will show most number of (3) D is acyl chloride
isomers?
(4) D is chloro alkene
(1) [Mn(NH3)5 Cl ] Br
87. Glucose and fructose can be distinguished by
(2) K4 [Fe(CN)5Cl ]
(1) Tollens reagent
(3) [Mn(NH3)4(CN)2] Cl
(4) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (2) Fehlings solution
83. The product of the following reaction (3) Lucas test
KOH (aq) (4) Br2 (aq)

C6H5Cl Product
(Room temp.)
88. The common between isoprene and chloroprene is
(1) C6H5OH (2) C6H4(OH)Cl
(1) Both form addition polymer
(3) C6H4(OH)2 (4) No reaction
(2) Both undergo 1, 4 addition
84. CH3CH2CHO can be converted to CH3CH2CH3 by
(3) Both polymerize to form synthetic rubber
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) HI/Red P
(3) N2H4/KOH and glycol 89. Which of the following can act as antacid?
(4) All of these (1) NaOH (2) MgCO3
NH2OH H2 Pt (3) Al(OH)3 (4) Both (2) & (3)

85. CH3 C CH3 +
A CH3 CH CH3
H 90. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Here A
(1) Follows electrophilic addition reaction
(1) Is an amide
NH (2) Involves the addition of : CH2
(2) Is CH3 C CH3 (3) Follows electrophilic substitution and gives
product stabilized due to H-bonding
(3) Shows tautomerism
(4) Involves acidic medium to form electrophile
(4) Shows geometrical isomerism
11/22
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. A marriage between colour-blind and sickle cell 94. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. following
anemic female and normal visioned but sickle cell diagram.
anemic male may produce
(1) Normal visioned sickle cell anemic sons
(2) 50% colour-blind sons and all sickle cell anemic

daughters
(3) Normal visioned sickle cell anemic daughters (1) Cell wall possesses uneven thickenings of
cellulose, pectin and hemicellulose
(4) Colour-blind daughters and colour-blind sons (2) It is a living mechanical tissue
92. Considering 20 chromosomes in oosphere of castor (3) It occurs in layers below epidermis in root of
plant, find out the number of chromosomes present dicotyledonous plants
in caruncle, tube nucleus, PEC and nucellus (4) It usually has high refractive index
respectively
95. Which of the following partially heterotrophic member (s)
(1) 40, 20, 60, 40 capture, kill and eat up members of animal species?
(2) 20, 20, 60, 40 (a) Cuscuta (b) Bladderwort
(3) 40, 20, 60, 20 (c) Panthera tigiris (d) Dactylaria

Mark correct option :
(4) 20, 20, 20, 40
(1) (a), (b)
93. In which of the following character photosynthetic
(2) (a), (d)
mechanism of Zea mays is different from
Lycopersicum esculentum? (3) Only (b)
(4) (a), (b) & (c)
(1) Show low CO 2 fixation rate under high light
96. In Antirhinum majus, when a cross is made between
conditions
dwarf plant with pink flowers and homozygous tall
(2) RuBisCO catalyses a wasteful oxygenation plant with red flowers, what proportions of phenotypes
in the offspring could be tall-white and tall-pink
reaction respectively?
(3) Pumping mechanism increases the (1) 50%, 50%
concentration of CO2 at enzyme site (2) 0%, 50%
(4) Has RuBisCO activity inside the bundle sheath (3) 0%, 100%
cells (4) 50%, 100%
12/22
97. Consider the following : 101. Thalamus is not fused with the wall of ovary in
(a) Oxidative phosphorylation (1) Guava, Mustard (2) Apple, Plum
(b) Lack NADP reductase (3) China rose, Rose (4) Sunflower, Buttercup
(c) Cyclic flow of electrons
102. Consider the following events
(d) Oxygen evolving complex
(a) Begins with the simultaneous splitting of
Which of the given characters/structures are centromere
concerned with stroma lamellae present in
chloroplasts? (b) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial
plate
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(c) Interkinesis
(3) (b) & (c) (4) (a), (c) & (d)
(d) Homologous chromosomes separate and move
98. In animals, the organism, if unable to migrate, might
to opposite poles
avoid the stress by entering a stage of suspended
development, known as : Correct sequence of events in meiosis is
(a) Hibernation (b) Aestivation (1) (c), (b), (d) & (a) (2) (b), (d), (c) & (a)
(c) Conform (d) Diapause
(3) (c), (d), (b) & (a) (4) (b), (a), (c) & (d)
Mark correct option
103. Find out the incorrectly matched pair.
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (d) only
(1) Historic Convention on Biological Diversity Held
(3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (b) & (c) in Rio de Janeiro
99. During the ecological succession, in the successive
(2) Great Indian Bustard Project Desert National
seral stages there is a/an
Park (Rajasthan)
(1) Increase in niche specialisation
(3) Nagarjunasagar Sirisailam (A.P.) Largest Rhino
(2) Decrease in total biomass Project in India
(3) Development of mesic to dry conditions (4) World Summit on Sustainable Development
(4) Reduction in species diversity Held in Johannesburg
100. Which of the following biochemical reactions in living 104. How many of the plants, given in box, are
systems are induced by RNA catalysts? characterized by development of false septum inside
the ovary?
(1) Presence of 16 S rRNA enhances the rate of
peptide bond formation in bacteria
Candytuft, Dianthus, Aloe, Garlic,
(2) Activation of amino acids in translation Makoi, Gossypium, Lily, Mustard
(3) Endonucleolytic cleavage of splice junctions of
hnRNA by snRNA (1) Three (2) Four
(4) Both (1) & (3) (3) Two (4) Five
13/22
105. In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and 108. Reducing agent NADH + H+ is oxidized to NAD+ by
Solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for pyruvic acid in
months due to
(1) Alcoholic fermentation
(1) Sporopollenin (2) Tectum
(2) Electron transport chain
(3) Specific proteins (4) Pectocellulosic intine (3) Lactic acid fermentation
106. How many of the following statements are correct? (4) EMP pathway
(a) The loudness of a sound that a person can 109. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, vacuoles, lysosomes
withstand without discomfort is about 150 dB. and peroxisomes are
(b) Fertiliser factory may cause air pollution, thermal (1) Components of endomembrane system
pollution and eutrophication.
(2) Semi-autonomous organelles
(c) Water will become septic if the dissolved
oxygen level drops to zero. (3) Single membrane bound organelles
(4) Involved in translation process
(d) Plants growing near the boundary wall act as
barriers for sound pollution and act as dust 110. If the growing point of ________ is exposed to long
catchers. days and the leaves to short days no flowers appear
(1) 2 (2) 3 but in the opposite case plant duly flowers.
(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) Soyabean (2) Tobacco
107. Study the pedigree chart given below and mark the (3) Xanthium (4) Sugarbeet
correct option: 111. Which of the following option correctly represents the
position of oldest formed layer of secondary phloem
GenerationI in a dicot stem?
(1) Just inside the vascular cambium
GenerationII (2) Just inside the crushed primary phloem

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Just outerside of medulla
GenerationIII (4) Just outerside of vascular cambium
(a) (b) (c)
112. Plant growth regulator synthesized in large amount
(1) It may be inheritance of a Y-linked trait by tissue undergoing senescence and ripening fruits
is bioassayed by
(2) Affected individuals cannot be homozygous
dominant for a Mendelian character (1) Triple response test
(2) Root growth inhibition test
(3) It is inheritance of chromosome aberration like
myotonic dystrophy (3) Avena curvature test
(4) Generation II (b) XcY; Generation III (b) XXc (4) Chlorophyll preservation test
14/22
113. Fucus and Polysiphonia reproduce sexually by 118. Read the following statements :
(1) Motile male and non-motile female gametes (a) Particulate matter can be removed by catalytic
convertors
(2) Heterogametes (b) BOD is a measure of oxygen required by aerobic
(3) Non-motile male and female gametes chemoautotrophs for the biochemical degradation
of organic materials in water
(4) Motile male and female gametes
(c) All the interstate buses in Delhi were converted
114. Which of the following components are matched to run on CNG at the end of 2002
incorrectly? (d) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act was passed in 1974
(1) CMP 11 Paris 2012
Find the correct option (here T, true and F, false)
(2) COP 3 Kyoto 1997
(1) (a) (F), (b) (T), (c) (T), (d) (T)
(3) CMP 3 Bali 2007
(2) (a) (T), (b) (F), (c) (F), (d) (T)
(4) COP 15 Copenhagen 2009 (3) (a) (F), (b) (T), (c) (T), (d) (F)
115. Sporophyte is not free living but attached to the (4) (a) (F), (b) (F), (c) (F), (d) (T)
photosynthetic dorsiventral thalloid gametophyte and 119. Viroids resemble to tobacco mosaic virus in
derives nourishment from it in the life cycle of possessing
(1) Funaria (2) Pteris (1) Free RNA molecules
(3) Ginkgo (4) Marchantia (2) Ability to multiply in animal cells
(3) Protein coat
116. Choose the wrongly matched pair
(4) Ribonucleotides
(1) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate Provide
energy for polymerisation in DNA replication 120. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in
a correct sequence :
(2) Nucleosome In Chlamydomonas and Nostoc (a) Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
(3) QB bacteriophage Mutate and evolve faster (b) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(4) Lac operon Under negative and positive (c) Autoradiography
regulation (d) Transferring of separated DNA fragments to
synthetic membrane
117. The walls are embedded with silica and thus
indestructible in Find out the correct option.
(1) Primitive relatives of animals (1) (d) (b) (c) (a)
(2) Saprobic protists (2) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(3) Chief producers of oceans (3) (b) (d) (c) (a)
(4) Whirling whips (4) (b) (a) (d) (c)
15/22
121. Which of the following filamentous organism 127. If one can induce parthenocarpy through the
possesses chlorophyll-a and non-cellulosic cell wall? application of growth substances, which fruit would
you select to induce parthenocarpy?
(1) Ulothrix (2) Alternaria
(1) Garden pea (2) Pomegranate
(3) Spirogyra (4) Anabaena
(3) Guava (4) Coconut
122. Select the wrongly matched pair.
128. Reservoir is located in earth's crust in nutrient cycles
(1) Temperate broad leaf forest Quercus like
(2) Well developed xylem Hydrilla (1) P, C (2) S, P
(3) Clay soil High water holding capacity (3) C, N (4) N, P
(4) Ecological equivalents Owl and cat 129. Which one of the following pairs of elements helps
to maintain cation-anion balance in cells?
123. Lateral bud is capable of giving rise to new
offsprings in (1) K+, Cl (2) Cu2+, Fe3+
(1) Bryophyllum (2) Sweet potato (3) NO2 , HPO24 (4) Zn2+, Mn2+
(3) Adiantum (4) Ginger 130. Breeding and development of cultivars resistant to
diseases reduce the dependence on use of
124. Most obvious and technically complicated feature of
all living organisms is (1) Bacteriocides and biofertilisers
(1) Self consciousness (2) Biofertilisers and bioweedicides

(3) Fungicides and nematicides
(2) Ability to sense their surroundings
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Metabolism
131. Find out the pairs, which are correctly matched.
(4) Intrinsic growth
ColumnI ColumnII
125. Which of the following pair is wrongly matched?
a. Streptococcus (i) Organic farming
(1) Cisternae Site of formation of glycoprotein b. Glomus (ii) Statins
and glycolipids in Golgi complex
c. Monascus purpureus (iii) Solubilisation of
(2) Stroma Enzymes of Calvin cycle phosphate
(3) Thylakoids Flattened membranous sacs in d. Azospirillum (iv) VAM
chloroplast
(v) Clot buster
(4) Cristae Homologous to mesosomes (1) a (i) & (v) (2) c (ii) & (iii)
126. Effect of root pressure is observable at (3) d (i) & (iii) (4) b (i), (iii) & (iv)
(1) Night when evaporation is high 132. The protoplasts of two plants are brought in contact
(2) Special openings of veins near the tip of grass and made to fuse by means of
stem (1) Cellulase and PEG
(3) Early morning when absorption is high (2) Sodium nitrate
(4) Evening when transpiration and absorption both (3) Pectinase and protease
low (4) Polyvinyl alcohol and 2, 4 D
16/22
133. During aerobic respiration of glucose in a plant cell, 138. Select the odd one out w.r.t. DNA from the given
most of the ATPs are synthesized as a result of options.
(1) Oxidative phosphorylation in cytoplasm and (1) Thymidine (2) Thymine
mitochondria (3) Thymosine (4) Thymidylic acid
(2) Substrate level phosphorylation in cytoplasm 139. Regression of a well developed corpus luteum and its
(3) Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria involution in a healthy nonpregnant female is caused
by decrease in the concentration of _____ hormone
(4) Oxidative and substrate level phosphorylation in which is in ______ phase of menstrual cycle
cytoplasm
(1) LH, Secretory (2) FSH, Luteal
134. Choose the correct statement. (3) LH, Proliferative (4) LH, Menstrual
(1) In yeast, asci are arranged in ascocarps 140. During gametogenesis, the first set of haploid cells
(2) Common mushrooms and toadstools are edible to be formed in testes and ovaries are (A), (B) and
fungi (C) respectively Select the option which fills the
blanks (A), (B) and (C) correctly.
(3) Agaricus, Spirogyra and Neurospora cannot
reproduce by zoospores (1) Primary spermatocyte, primary oocyte and first
polar body
(4) Albugo candida and Puccinia graminis grow on
(2) Secondary spermatocyte, secondary oocyte and
wheat plant as parasites
second polar body
135. Most algal genera are haplontic, except (3) Secondary spermatocyte, secondary oocyte,
(1) Volvox (2) Ectocarpus and first polar body
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Spirogyra (4) Secondary spermatocyte, primary oocyte, first
polar body
136. Hind II, the first type II restriction endonuclease, is
coded by E.C. number 3.1.21.4. The digit 3 in this 141. All annelids and arthropods are similar to each other
number indicates that w.r.t. all the features, except
(1) Presence of schizocoelom
(1) It is a hydrolase enzyme
(2) Presence of metamerism
(2) It cleaves the phosphodiester sequence three
nucleotides away from the palindromic (3) Protostomic mode of development
recognition site (4) Presence of haemocoel
(3) It denatures the DNA by breaking the three 142. Consider the following statements and choose the
hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytonsine correct option from the choices given below
bases (a) Mitochondrial DNA isolated from African
(4) Its endonuclease action does not involve water populations has least variations or mutations.
molecules (b) Africa is called cradle of human evolution.
137. An overdose of proton pump inhibitors will affect the (1) Only (a) is correct
activity of (2) Only (b) is correct
(1) Enterokinase (2) Trypsin (3) Both (a) & (b) are correct
(3) Pepsin (4) Steapsin (4) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
17/22
143. Consider the following statements (ad) about (c) Female Ascaris is longer than the males and
cockroach and choose the correct option w.r.t. true lacks cloaca
and false statements. (d) Male cockroaches have anal styles which are
(a) Elytra are metathoracic wings, used as wing absent in females.
covers
How many statements out of the above are correct?
(b) Two thoracic and eight abdominal spiracles are
present in cockroach (1) One (2) Two
(c) The 10th segment of female cockroach bears (3) Three (4) Four
unjointed anal styles which are absent in males 148. In case of a female who suffers from anovulation but
(d) In male cockroach, a characteristic mushroom has normal physiological conditions available for
gland is present in 6th 7th abdominal segments carrying out fertilization and embryonic development;
the preferred ART should be
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) T T T T (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
(2) F F F T (3) ET (4) ICSI

(3) T T F T 149. Which of the following methods of gene transfer is
considered as an indirect transfer method?
(4) T F F T
144. Select the odd one out w.r.t. type of epithelium in (1) Biolistics
the excretory tract (2) Electroporation
(1) Renal pelvis (2) Ureters (3) Ca2+ mediated gene transfer
(3) Urinary bladder (4) Urethra
(4) Retrovirus mediated gene transfer
145. Cytochrome oxidase enzyme has ____ as the
inorganic cofactor while _____ as its prosthetic 150. Genetic disorder leading to progressive degeneration
group. of muscles and corresponding reduction in their
strength is
Choose the correct option which fills the blanks.
(1) Poliomyelitis (2) Hashimoto's disease
(1) Zn2+ , NAD (2) Fe2+, Haem
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Muscular tetany
(3) Cu2+, NAD (4) Haem, NADP
146. Avascular and hence easily transplantable parts of 151. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. AIDS.
human eye include (1) The gp 120 of the virus binds with CD-4
(1) Lens (2) Ciliary bodies receptors of target cells.
(3) Choroid (4) All of these (2) HIV multiples in the macrophages which are also
147. Consider the following statements w.r.t. sexual called HIV factories
dimorphism in animals. (3) The destruction of cytotoxic T cells by HIV
(a) In Pristis, males have pelvic claspers which are causes appearance of syndrome
absent in females (4) Being HIV positive and having AIDS are two
(b) Female amphibians have copulatory pads on first separate conditions as appearance of syndrome
digit of forelimbs during breeding season does not occur for a long time after virus entry.
18/22
152. In a population of (100) individuals, (9) have attached 157. The failure of opening of Ca2+ ion channels on the
ear lobes which is a recessive character. What is the membrane of a neuron will result in
number of heterozygotes for this characteristic in the
population? (1) Lack of generation of impulses
(1) 42 (2) 36 (2) Lack of transmission of impulse on axolemma
(3) 49 (4) 7 (3) Lack of repolarization of axolemma
153. Blood of a person with AB positive blood group (4) Lack of release of neurotransmitter from axon
terminals.
(1) Can be donated to a recipient with A positive
blood group 158. Which of the following options is correct w.r.t.
deglutition mechanism, digestion and absorption?
(2) Can be donated to a recipient with B positive
blood group (1) Deglutition is totally an involuntary process,
controlled by autonomic plexus
(3) Persons with AB group can accept blood from
persons with AB as well as other groups of (2) Uvula prevents the entry of food in the glottis
blood.
(3) Epiglottis prevents the entry of food in
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct nasopharynx
154. Interferons are included in (4) Fructose is transported exclusively by facilitated

diffusion; therefore, it cannot be absorbed against
(1) Physical barriers a concentration gradient.
(2) Physiological barriers 159. Which of the following groups includes all
(3) Cellular barriers protostomic metamerically segmented
schizocoelomates?
(4) Cytokine barriers
(1) Pila, Macrobrachium, Araneus
155. When parietal cells are stimulated, they secrete
(2) Buthus, Loligo, Ascaris
(1) HCl and intrinsic factor
(3) Pheretima, Periplaneta, Apis
(2) HCl and pepsinogen
(4) Octopus, Rattus, Echinus
(3) HCO3 and intrinsic factor
160. A tissue is a group of cells performing common
(4) HCl and HCO functions and having common origin. Which of the
3
following cells in the human tissues do not have
156. Establishment of biological body clock by releasing mesodermal origin?
melatonin hormone is the function of
(1) Fibroblasts
(1) Pituitary glands adenohypophysis
(2) Pineal gland (2) Mast cells
(3) Hypothalamus (3) Macroglia
(4) Pituitary glands neurohypophysis (4) Microglia
19/22
161. Choose the correct match w.r.t. Periplaneta Which of the following sets contains only incorrect
americana. statements?
(1) Malpighian tubules Excretory structures at the (1) (a), (b) & (d)
junction of foregut and
(2) (b) & (d)
midgut
(2) Hepatic caeca 6-8 blind tubules at the (3) (b) only
junction of gizzard and (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
midgut to produce
digestive enzymes 165. Synarthrose type of joints are
(3) Salivary glands Two secretory parts and (1) Completely immovable as exist between skull
four receptacles opening in bones
pharynx (2) Slightly compressible as in intervertebral discs
(4) Both (2) & (3) are correct
(3) Feely movable e.g., between mandible and
162. The type of cell junction which adheres a cell firmly mandibular archs
to the laminin proteins in its basal lamina is
(4) Slightly compressible as in pubic symphysis
(1) Tight junction (2) Adhering junction
166. Consider the following statements w.r.t. functioning of
(3) Desmosome (4) Hemidesmosome the heart
163. Which of the following is not a component of NADP?
(a) When venous return increases, it stretches or
(1) A vitamin lengthens the ventricular muscle fibres so force
(2) Adenine of contraction increases.
(3) Haem as a prosthetic group (b) End diastolic volume determines the Pre-load on
ventricular musculature.
(4) Phosphate
164. Consider the following statements w.r.t. gel (c) Force of contraction of ventricular wall and hence
electrophoresis cardiac output are directly proportional to pre -
load.
(a) The gel for isolation of DNA fragments on the
basis of their sizes, is made of agarose, a (d) The heart beat rate is inversely proportional to
mucopolysaccharide. systemic blood pressure according to Mareys
law.
(b) DNA fragments are separated according to their
charge only, the sizes of fragments not affecting How many of the above statements are correct?
the process.
(1) One
(c) Separation of DNA fragments is according to
their sizes as they move through sieves in the (2) Two
agarose gel.
(3) Three
(d) DNA fragments move towards cathode on the
basis of the charge on them. (4) Four
20/22
167. The cations which play an important role in formation 171. Partial pressure of 104 mm of Hg in the alveoli
of a coagulum of fibrin proteins in the walls of oxygenates the capillary blood. When 1000 ml of
damaged blood vessels are this oxygenated blood is pumped to the striated
muscle tissue undergoing strenuous exercise, the
(1) Mg2+ (2) Ca2+ total amount of oxygen it will release into muscles
(3) Na+ (4) K+ is ___________ with the oxy-Hb curve shifting to
__________ side. Select the option which fills blanks
168. Syphilis, a bacterial STD caused by Treponema, is correctly.
(1) Preventable by using non-medicated IUDs (1) 15 ml, Left
(2) Communicable from an infected mother to the (2) 5 ml, Left
developing foetus across the placenta
(3) 150 ml, Right
(3) Characterized by painful chancres on external (4) 50 ml, Right
genitals which have necrotic bases
172. Comparison of the peaks obtained when the
(4) Incurable at all stages in an affected human antibody titre of blood is plotted against time reveals
169. If a gene encoding for ADA enzyme is incorporated a much higher peak during secondary immune
in lac z sequence of pUC 18 plasmid, the resultant response in comparison to primary immune
recombinant bacteria in which plasmids are inserted response. It can be attributed to
will be (1) Anamnestic response generated by memory
(1) Having functional lac z gene coding for cells
galactosidase (2) Excess build up of epitopes in the body during
a secondary response
(2) White is color on X-gal containing selection
medium (3) Combined action of non-specific and specific
immune system reactions
(3) Blue is color on X-gal containing selection
medium (4) Faster activation of both CD-4 and CD-8 T-cells
(4) Both (1) & (3) 173. Consider the following statements w.r.t. origin of life
on earth
170. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. different parts of
the brain and their respective function. (a) Earliest autotrophs were oxygenic
photoautotrophs.
(1) Amygdala Defense castle of
(b) Chemical origin of life occurred in absence of
body molecular oxygen in warm little ponds.
(2) Medulla oblongata Emesis reflex Select the correct option
(3) Cerebellum Intelligence, logical (1) Only (a) is correct
reasoning and
wernicke's association (2) Only (b) is correct
area (3) Both (a) & (b) are correct
(4) Cerebrum Brocas motor speech
(4) Both (a) & (b) are incorrect
area
21/22
174. Dehydration causes increase in the osmolarity of 177. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ringworm
body fluids triggering infection in humans.
(1) Release of ADH from hypothalamus, reducing (1) Ringworm infections thrive in parts of body having
high moisture and high temperature conditions.
urine elimination
(2) Ringworm in groin area is called Tinea cruis.
(2) Stimulation of macula densa cells of DCT to stop (3) Ringworm are caused by nematode parasites or
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system round worms which have circular bodies in cross
section.
(3) Enhanced tubular secretion of Na+, retaining
water in the nephrons (4) Ringworms spread through direct contact or by
sharing clothes and towels with infected
(4) All of these are correct individuals.
175. Inbreeding depression, which is a result of continuous 178. How many of the following are examples of
mating between related individuals, results in reduced macrophages?
fertility and productivity It can be overcome by many
(a) Microglia (b) Kupffer cells
breeding options but the most preferable method for
animals that are below average in productivity in milk (c) Alveolar macrophages(d) Histiocytes
production, growth rate in beef cattle is (e) Macroglia (f) PMNL
(1) Outcrossing (1) Three (2) Four
(2) Crossbreeding (3) Five (4) Six
(3) Interspecific mating 179. The cry gene inserted in Bt cotton which made it
tolerant to attack of corn borer pest was
(4) Outbreeding
(1) Cry I Ab (2) Cry II Ab
176. Moulting hormone ecdysone of cockroach, which (3) Cry I Ac (4) Cry II Ac
controls its paurometabolous development is
secreted by 180. The ideal cloning vector for delivering ADA cDNA into
SCID affected human is
(1) Corpora cardiaca glands
(1) Retrovirus
(2) Corpora allata gland (2) Ti Plasmid
(3) Prothoracic glands (3) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(4) Conglobate gland (4) Yeast episomal plasmid

22/22
Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016
TEST - 9 (Code-A)
Test Date : 03-04-2016 ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (3) 38. (2) 74. (3) 110. (4) 146. (1)
3. (3) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (4) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (4) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (1) 81. (3) 117. (3) 153. (3)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (1) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (1)
12. (1) 48. (3) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (4) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (1) 86. (1) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (3) 126. (3) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (1)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (4) 167. (2)
24. (2) 60. (1) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (3) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (3) 136. (1) 172. (1)
29. (1) 65. (2) 101. (3) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (3) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (3) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (4) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (2) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (4) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (4) 180. (1)
1/9
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016 Test - 9 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 8. Answer (3)
2. Answer (3)
A
N
PQ
R = B
r 2
mg sin

R% = l % + 2r% cos V
mg
1 0.02
= 2 100
100 1 Between A and B
3. Answer (3) 1
mg(R R cos) + 0 = mv 2
4. Answer (3) 2
mv 2
vy mg cos N = , N =0
vx = 1 m/s vy = 2 m/s, tan = R
vx
9. Answer (1)
1 x2
y = tan g
2 v x2 qE cos
N N
5. Answer (3)

N qE
Vwg mg sin
sin
sq E
mg co
Vpw Vpg
A E
W Vwg N = mg cos+ q E sin
mg sin = N + q E cos
S
10. Answer (2)

Vpg sin = Vwg V12 is uniform along y axis.

V12 = u1 cos 37 i u1 sin37 j
40 sin = 20
= 30
6. Answer (4) u2 cos 53 i u2 sin53 j
u1 cos 37 u2 cos 53 i
P will be the maximum height.
=
7. Answer (1)
A C u1 sin37 u2 sin53 j
T1
T2
90 30 u1 cos37 u2 cos53 0
B
4 3
mg u1 u2
5 5
T1 Mg
=
sin(60 ) 4 u1 3 u2
sin120
(T1)min where sin (60 +) = 1 11. Answer (4)
= 30 12. Answer (1)
2/9
14. Answer (3)
0 693 2.3 64 N0
log
15. Answer (3) 10 t N0
R 27. Answer (2)
C = Cv , PVn = constant
u 1 28. Answer (2)
K PV h
P = constant
T T 3 kTm
P2 V = K 29. Answer (1)
1 30. Answer (3)
PV 2 = K
N
16. Answer (4)
X
mV0 = 2m v YY
W E
1 1
(2m )v 2 = K x2
2 2
S
17. Answer (3)
18. Answer (3) M = NiA
A1V1 = A2V2 M = m x my

32. Answer (4)
V Vw Vo
f'f 33. Answer (2)
V Vw Vs
2 2 2
20. Answer (2) 200 100 50
Vrms
21. Answer (1) 2 2 2

Pi mv i I f f

v 0 u f 1.5 1
Pi m j mv
3
I 1

2 .5
Pi Pf
23. Answer (1) I 4 cm
5 10i = 2 + i x = 4 35. Answer (1)
25. Answer (1) 1 2

eV = m v u2
1 2 2
5 12 106 120 12 10 6
2 37. Answer (2)
1 2 103
= 5 12 106 Heat No. of fission =
2 200 1.6 103
3/9
39. Answer (4) fo + fe = 60
S1 + S2 = 0 fo + fe+10 = Vo + fe
( 1) A1 + ( 1) A2 = 0 Vo = 65, fo = 55
40. Answer (1)
1 1 1
41. Answer (4) = f
Vo uo o
42. Answer (1)
ray is E.M. radiation E=BC
[ CHEMISTRY]
Number of gram equivalents of oxygen = number of 1 mole NaOH + 1 mole HF give 68 kJ/mole
gram equivalents of aluminium
55. Answer (2)
w 1.35
= A+ B B
8 9

w = 1.2 g G = Gp G R
47. Answer (1)
= 500 [ 100 ( 200)]
Basicity of H3PO2 is one
48. Answer (3) = 500 + 300
= 200
1 1 1
R 2 2 (Z )2
n1 n2 G = 2.303 RT Log Ke
200000 = 2.303 8.31 T log 103

1 1 1 2
R 2 (2) T = 3483.4 K
(2) (4)2
56. Answer (2)
Divide and multiply by (4)2
Kp and total pressure remain constant
1 1 1 2 57. Answer (4)
R 2 (4)
(4) (8)2
+7 5 I + Mn
MnO4 + 5I
2+
2
49. Answer (4) 2
Cr belongs to 6th group Fact
2
sp
O 60. Answer (1)
COOH Conc. H2SO4

CO + CO2 + H2O
COOH

52. Answer (4)
FBeF 61. Answer (2)
Vc = 3 b Correct according to IUPAC rules
4/9
O P = 100 m
P 100 1
will not show tautomerism = XB
P A 700 7
O
64. Answer (3) Tb = K b m
It is dissymmetric XB 1000
= Kb
65. Answer (2) 1 XB MA
Acidic character I
66. Answer (3) 1
7 1000
Fact = 10
1 1 167
67. Answer (1) 1

7

is aromatic = 10 K
74. Answer (3)
68. Answer (2)
0.059 PCl 2
Fe(SCN)3 +NaCl Ered Ered log
FeCl3 + NaSCN n Cl 2 .
Blood red
75. Answer (4)
69. Answer (3)
For zero order reaction
CH3
t1 + t2 + t3 = 10 + 5 + 2.5 = 17.5 s.
CH3 CH CH CH3 , the total reactivity.
76. Answer (4)
Cl
Argyrol is Ag sol (ve)
is 2 3.8 = 7.6 for 2 - carbon atom
77. Answer (2)
70. Answer (1)
Ag2S 4NaCN 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Na2S .
O3
CH3 C = CH 2 CH3 C = O + HCHO
Zn/H2O 78. Answer (4)
CH3 CH3
Ionic PCl5 is [ PCl4 ]+ [ PCl6 ]
71. Answer (2)
79. Answer (4)
SO2 is reducing agent
Fact
72. Answer (4)
80. Answer (4)
All are correct
A
81. Answer (3)
Fe3+ has d 5 system
B
D 82. Answer (3)
C
Ionization and linkage both isomerism are possible.
a 3 83. Answer (4)
AB =
2
, AD = 2a , AC a 2
C6H5Cl has partial double bond character.
5/9
Fact CH2 = C CH = CH2 and CH2 = C CH = CH2
85. Answer (3) CH3 Cl
Isoprene Chloroprene
NOH NO
89. Answer (4)
A is CH3 C CH3 CH 3 CH CH 3
Oxime 2- Nitrosopropane MgCO3 and Al(OH)3 are antacid.
90. Answer (3)
86. Answer (1)
HN3 OH OH
CH 3 CH 2 CH2 CH2 COOH CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2
CHCl2
HNO2
O + NaOH + CHCl3 O
CH3CH2 CH2CH2NH2 CH3 CH2CH2CH2OH Conc.
H2SO4 NaOH
HCl 443 K
OH
C=O
O H
87. Answer (4)
Br2 (aq) forms saccharic acid from glucose but not
from fructose. In this reaction electrophile is CCl2
[ BIOLOGY ]
ttRr X TTRR
C C
X X aa X XYaa
tR tr TR
C
Xa Xa Ya
TtRR TtRr
C
XX aa C
(Tall-Red) (Tall-Pink)
X Yaa
97. Answer (3)
92. Answer (1) Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria.
n = 20 98. Answer (2)
Caruncle (2n) = 40 Diapause is a stage of suspended development.
tube nucleus (n) = 20 99. Answer (1)

Dry to mesic conditions.
PEC (3n) = 60
100. Answer (3)
Nucellus (2n) = 40
23 S rRNA.
93. Answer (4)
101. Answer (3)
Zea mays C4 plant
Hypogynous and perigynous flowers.
Collenchyma (b) Metaphase I
95. Answer (3) (d) Anaphase I
Insectivorous plants (a) Anaphase II
6/9
103. Answer (3) 121. Answer (4)
Largest tiger reserve. Ulothrix, Spirogyra cellulosic wall.
104. Answer (3) 122. Answer (2)
Parietal placentation Hydrophyte.
105. Answer (3) 123. Answer (4)
106. Answer (2) Axillary buds.
80 dB 124. Answer (2)
107. Answer (2) Consciousness.
Autosomal dominant trait 125. Answer (4)
108. Answer (3) Functionally similar.
Pyruvate act as oxidant in lactic acid fermentation. 126. Answer (3)
109. Answer (3) Night and early morning when absorption is high.
ER, golgi body, lysosomes and vacuoles in 127. Answer (3)
endomembrane system.
Pericarp, placenta and thalamus are edible in guava.
110. Answer (4)
128. Answer (2)
LDP.
129. Answer (1)
111. Answer (2)
130. Answer (3)
Secondary phloem is developed on outer side of
131. Answer (4)
vascular cambium.
Fungi, bacteria and cyanobacteria in organic farming
112. Answer (1)
132. Answer (2)
Ethylene
PEG and NaNO3
113. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)
Fucus Brown algae
ETC and oxidative phosphorylation.
Polysiphonia Red algae
134. Answer (3)
114. Answer (1)
Albugo candida is parasite on mustard.
CMP-11, 2015, Paris.
135. Answer (2)
115. Answer (4)
Haplo-diplontic.
Dorsiventral thalloid gametophyte in liverworts.
136. Answer (1)
116. Answer (2)
The first digit in E.C. indicates the class of the
Nucleosomes in eukaryotes. enzyme and hence the mode of its activity.
117. Answer (3) 137. Answer (3)
Diatoms. Proton pump inhibition results in reduced HCl
release.
118. Answer (4)
138. Answer (3)
(a) Gases (b) Bacteria, fungi (c) Public transport
Thymosine is a hormone from thymus gland.
119. Answer (4)
139. Answer (1)
Viroid is naked RNA.
Regression of corpus luteum is triggered by reduced
120. Answer (2) level of LH of secretory phase.
7/9
140. Answer (3) 153. Answer (3)
The first haploid cells in testes are secondary AB positive blood group is a universal recipient due
spermatocytes while in ovaries are secondary to absence of agglutinins/antibodies.
oocyte and first polar body.
154. Answer (4)
141. Answer (4)
Interferons are secreted by virally infected cells and
Annelids generally have closed circulatory system. other cells of the body to protect the non-infected
142. Answer (2) cells.
Mitochondrial DNA from Africans populations has 155. Answer (1)

maximum variations through mutations. Autonomic neurons in submucosa (meissners
143. Answer (2) plexus) and muscularis externa (auerbachs plexus)
control the muscles of gut wall.
Elytra are mesothoracic wings. Two pairs of thoracic
and eight pairs of abdominal spiracles are present in 156. Answer (2)
cockroach. Unjointed anal styles are found only in Melatonin hormone from pineal gland sets up the
male cockroaches. biological clock of the body.
144. Answer (4) 157. Answer (4)
Urethra has pseudostratified non-ciliated epithelium Ca2+ ions trigger the exocytosis of synaptic vesicles
while all other parts have transitional epithelium. from synaptic knots.
145. Answer (2) 158. Answer (4)
Haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of the
Deglutition is a voluntary process in which uvula
active site of enzyme.
prevents the food from rising up in the nasopharynx
146. Answer (1) and epiglottis prevents the food entry in glottis
Lens and cornea, both are easily transplantable due 159. Answer (3)
to avascular nature.
Annelids and arthropods are metamerically
147. Answer (3) segmented schizocoelomates.
Male amphibians have copulatory pads on first digit 160. Answer (3)
of forelimbs.
Macroglia are ectodermal in origin.
148. Answer (2)
161. Answer (2)
GIFT Gametic Intrafallopian Transfer.
Malpighian tubules are located at the junction of
149. Answer (4) midgut and hindgut.
Vector mediated gene transfer is indirect method of Pharyngeal glands of cockroach have four secretory
gene transfer. parts and two receptacles.
150. Answer (3) 162. Answer (4)
Dystrophy is a genetic disorder, characterized by Hemidesmosomes connect the cells to their
lack of dystrophin protein. basement membranes.
151. Answer (3) 163. Answer (3)
HIV reduces number of helper T cells by destroying 164. Answer (2)
them.
Charge and size both play an important role in
152. Answer (1)
separation of DNA fragments.
Frequency of recessive allele (q) = 0.3
165. Answer (1)
So, frequency of dominant allele (p) = 0.7
Synarthrose/fibrous joints are completely immovable
Hence frequency of heterozygotes (2 pq) = 0.42 joints.
8/9
166. Answer (4) 174. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2) Dehydration triggers on RAAS and enhanced tubular
Ca2+ ions are involved in blood clotting. reabsorption of Na+ ions.
168. Answer (2) 175. Answer (1)
Syphilis is curable in primary stage and its chancres
are painless. Outcrossing is mating of animals of same breed but
not having any common ancestors for at least 46
169. Answer (2) generations, introducing variations but not causing
Insertionally inactivated lac z gene results in failure drastic changes.
to utilize Xgal by recombinant bacteria, which fail
to produce blue color, hence appearing white. 176. Answer (3)
170. Answer (3) Corpora allata produce juvenile hormone.

171. Answer (3) 177. Answer (3)
Dissociation of oxygen from (Hb) causes a right
shift in the curve. Ringworms are fungal infections.
172. Answer (1) 178. Answer (2)

Secondary/anamnestic response is always vigorous 179. Answer (1)
due to memory cells.
173. Answer (2) 180. Answer (1)
Earliest autotrophs were chemoautotrophs and were Retroviruses are used as ideal cloning vectors for
anoxygenic. eukaryotic host cells.

9/9

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Roll No.

: Test Date: 03/04/2016

Centre Code: Test Booklet Code A

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Complete Syllabus of Class XI & XII

Time : 3 Hrs. T EST 9 MM : 720

4. A projectile is given an initial velocity of i 2 j m/s,

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

19. A train approaching a hill at a speed of 40 km/h

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(3) n = 8 to n = 4 (4) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) KO2 (4) BeF2

Space for Rough Work

53. The value of Vc (critical volume) is 58. Allotrops of hydrogen are

(1) b (2) 2b (1) Ortho and Meta

(3) 3b (4) 4b (2) Ortho and Para

(3) PB = 2PC = 10 atm CH 3 CH CH 2 CH2COOH?

Space for Rough Work

CH3 CH3 (3) Black

Space for Rough Work

product of solution is diluted?

(1) CH3 C = CH2 (1) There will be no change in reduction potential

(2) CH3 CH CH = CH2 (3) Reduction potential will increase

CH3 (4) Reduction potential will decrease

(3) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 75. t1 t2 t3

(1) SO3 (2) SO2 (1) 30 s (2) 12.5 s

(3) NO2 (4) NO (3) 15 s (4) 17.5 s

a (1) Cl (2) SO24

(1) 5 K (2) 10 K (1) I2 (2) Br2

(3) 15 K (4) 20 K (3) CI2 (4) F2

Space for Rough Work

(1) Ni2 Pt 2 (2) Cr 2 Cr 3 Conc. H2SO4 HCl

(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) Ni(CO)4 (2) D is meso compound

83. The product of the following reaction (3) Lucas test

KOH (aq) (4) Br2 (aq)

(4) All of these (1) NaOH (2) MgCO3

NH2OH H2 Pt (3) Al(OH)3 (4) Both (2) & (3)

(1) Normal visioned sickle cell anemic sons

(2) 50% colour-blind sons and all sickle cell anemic

(3) 40, 20, 60, 20 (c) Panthera tigiris (d) Dactylaria

(4) Both (1) & (3) (3) Two (4) Five

Space for Rough Work

(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) Soyabean (2) Tobacco

GenerationII (2) Just inside the crushed primary phloem

Space for Rough Work

(1) Primitive relatives of animals (1) (d) (b) (c) (a)

(2) Saprobic protists (2) (b) (d) (a) (c)

(3) Chief producers of oceans (3) (b) (d) (c) (a)

(4) Whirling whips (4) (b) (a) (d) (c)

Space for Rough Work

(1) Self consciousness (2) Biofertilisers and bioweedicides

Space for Rough Work

(2) F F F T (3) ET (4) ICSI

(1) 42 (2) 36 (2) Lack of transmission of impulse on axolemma

(3) 49 (4) 7 (3) Lack of repolarization of axolemma

154. Interferons are included in (4) Fructose is transported exclusively by facilitated

(3) Hypothalamus (3) Macroglia

(4) Pituitary glands neurohypophysis (4) Microglia

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2016