NEET | 06.08.

2017
COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. Two resistors of resistances R1=(300 3) and R2=(500 4) are connected in
series. The equivalent resistance of the series combination is
(1) (800 1) (2) (800 7) (3) (200 7) (4) (200 1)
2. Which of the following physical quantities has a unit but no dimensions?
(1) Relative velocity (2) Relative density (3) Strain (4) Angle
3. If power (P), surface tension (S) and Plancks constant (h) are arranged so that
the dimensions of time in their dimensional formulae are in ascending order,
then which of the following is correct?
(1) P, S, h (2) P, h, S (3) S, P, h (4) S, h, P
4. A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is kg, unit of length is
m and unit of time is s. What will be value of 5 J in this new system?
(1) 5 2-2 (2) 5 -1 -22 (3) 5 -2 -1-2 (4) 5 -1 22
5. In the formula X=3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic
induction respectively. The dimensions of Y in MKSQ system are
(1) [M-3 L-2T4Q4] (2) [M-2 L-1T5Q3] (3) [M-1 L-2T4Q4] (4) [M-3 L-1T4Q4]
6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Path length is a scalar quantity whereas displacement is a vector quantity.
(2) The magnitude of displacement is always equal to the path length traversed by
an object over a given time interval.
(3) The displacement depends only on the end points whereas path length
depends on the actual path followed.
(4) The path length is always positive whereas displacement can be positive,
negative and zero.
7. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x=a+bt2, where a=8.5 m
and b=2.5 m s -2 and t is measured in seconds. The average velocity of
the object between t=2s and t=4s is
(1) 5 m s-1 (2) 10 m s-1 (3) 15 m s-1 (4) 20 m s-1
8. A boy walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km with a speed of
5 km h-1. Finding the market closed he instantly turns and walks back with a
speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the average speed and average velocity of the boy
between t=0 to t=50 min?
(1) 0, 0 (2) 6 km h-1, 0 (3) 0, 6 km h-1 (4) 6 km h-
1
, 6 km h-1
dv
9. The motion of a body is given by the equation 6 3v where v is the speed in m
dt
s-1 and t is time in s. The body is at rest at t=0. The speed varies with time as
(1) v=(1 e-3t) (2) v=2(1 e-3t) (3) v=(1 + e-2t) (4) v=2(1 + e-3t)
10. In the given v-t graph the distance travelled by the body in 5 seconds will be
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(1) 100 m (2) 80 m (3) 40 m (4) 20 m

-1
11. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 m s on a straight road. A scooterist wishes to
overtake the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance of 1 km from the scooterist
with what speed should the scooterist chase the bus?
(1) 40 m s-1 (2) 25 m s-1 (3) 10 m s-1 (4) 20 m s-1
12. Three forces of magnitudes 6 N, 6 N and 72 N act at corner of cube along three
sides and shown in figure. Resultant of these forces is

(1) 12 N angle OB (2) 18 N along OA (3) 18 N along OC (4) 12 N along OE

13. The magnitude of the x-component of vector A is 3 and the magnitude of vector
A is 5. What is the magnitude of the y-component of vector A ?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 8
14. The direction cosines of i j k are
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 2, 2 (3) , , (4) , ,
2 2 2 3 3 3
15. Resultant of two vectors A and B is of magnitude P. If B is reversed, then
resultant is of magnitude Q. What is the value of P2+Q2?
(1) 2(A2+B2) (2) 2(A2-B2) (3) A2-B2 (4) A2+B2
16. The driver of a car moving towards a rocket launching pad with a speed of 6 ms -1
observed that the rocket is moving with speed of 10 m s-1. The upward speed of
the rocket as seen by the stationary observer is nearly.
(1) 4 ms-1 (2) 6 ms-1 (3) 8 ms-1 (4) 11 ms-1
17. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k, where t is in seconds and
the coefficients have the proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of
velocity of the particle at t=1 s is
(1) 530 with x axis (2) 370 with x axis (3) 300 with y axis (4) 600
with y axis
18. Rain is falling vertically with the speed of 30 ms-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a
speed of 12 ms-1 in east to west direction. In which direction she should hold her
umbrella?
2
(1) At an angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the east.
5

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COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

2
(2) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
5
5
(3) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the east.
2
5
(4) At angle of tan 1 with the vertical towards the west.
2
19. If a body is projected with an angle to the horizontal, then
(1) Its velocity is always perpendicular to its acceleration.
(2) Its velocity becomes zero at its maximum height.
(3) Its velocity makes zero angle with the horizontal at its maximum height.
(4) The body just before hitting the ground, the direction of velocity coincides
with the acceleration
20.Two particles are projected in air with speed u at angles 1 and 2 (both acute) to
the horizontal respectively. If the height reached by the first particle is greater
than that of the second, then which one of the following is correct?
(1) 1 > 2 (2) 1 = 2 (3) T1 < T2 (4) T1 = T2
21. Two projectiles are fired from the same point with the same speed at angles of
projection 600 and 300 respectively. Which one of the following is true?
(1) Their range will be the same
(2) Their maximum height will be the same
(3) Their velocity at the highest point will be the same
(4) Their time of flight will be the same
22. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a speed of 360 k m h-1 released a bomb at
a height of 490 m from the ground. If g=9.8 ms-2, it will strike the ground at
(1) 10 km (2) 100 km (3) 1 km (4) 16 km
23. A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms -1 at an
angle of 300 with the horizontal. If it hits the ground at a distance of 17.3 m from
the base of the tower, the height of the tower is (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 5 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 10 m
-2
24. A player kicks a ball at a speed of 20 ms so that its horizontal range is maximum.
Another player 24 m away in the direction of kick starts running in the same
direction at the same instant of hit. If he has to catch the ball just before it
reaches the ground, he should run with a velocity equal to (Take g=10 m s-2)
(1) 2 2ms 1 (2) 4 2ms 1 (3) 6 2ms 1 (4) 10 2ms 1
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) In one dimension motion, the velocity and the acceleration of an object are
always along the same line
(2) In two or three dimensions, the angle between velocity and acceleration
vectors may have any value between 00 and 1800.
(3) The kinematic equations for uniform acceleration can be applied in case of a
uniform circular motion.

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COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(4) The resultant acceleration of an object in circular motion is towards the

centre only if the speed is constant.
26. A stone tied to the end of a string 100 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle
with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 22s, then the
acceleration of the stone is
(1) 16 ms-2 (2) 4 ms-2 (3) 12 ms-2 (4) 8 ms-2
27. An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 12 cm moves along the groove
steadily and completes 7 revolutions in 100 s. The linear speed of the insect is
(1) 4.3 cm s-1 (2) 5.3 cm s-1 (3) 6.3 cm s-1 (4) 7.3 cm
-1
s
28.A particle moves in straight line in same direction for 20 seconds with velocity 3
m/s and then moves with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 sec and finally moves
with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity of the
particle?
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 5 m/s (4) Zero
29. A particle is moving in xyplane at 2 m/s along xaxis. 2 seconds later, its
velocity is 4 m/s in a direction making 60 with positive xaxis. Its average
acceleration for this period of motion is:-
2 2
(1) 5 m/s , along yaxis (2) 3 m/s , along yaxis
2 2
(3) 5 m/s , along at 60 with positive xaxis (4) 3m/s , at 60 with
positive xaxis.
2
30.The velocity of a particle moving along xaxis is given as v = x 5x + 4 (in m/s)
where x denotes the xcoordinate of the particle in metres. Find the magnitude of
acceleration of the particle when the velocity of particle is zero ?
(1) 0 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 3 m/s2 (4) None of these
31. A body starts from rest and is uniformly accelerated for 30 s. The distance
travelled in the first 10 s is x1, next 10 s is x2 and the last 10 s is x3. Then x1 : x2 :
x3 is the same as:-
(1) 1 : 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 2 : 5 (3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 1 : 3 : 9
32. A particle is projected vertically upwards and it
reaches the maximum height H in T seconds . The height of the particle
at any time t will be :-
2 2 1 2 g 2
(1) H g(t T) (2) g(t T) (3) H g(t T) (4) (t T)
2 2
33. A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens
2
out. Then he descends with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s . If he bails out of the
2
plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 m/s , hit velocity on reaching the
ground will be :-
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s (3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
34. With what speed should a body be thrown upwards so that the distances
traversed in 5th second and 6th second are equal?

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COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

(1) 58.4 m/s (2) 49 m/s (3) 98 m/s (4) 98 m/s

35. A particle is projected vertically upwards from a point A on the ground. It takes t1
time to reach a point B but it still continues to move up. If it takes further t 2 time
to reach the ground from point B then height of point B from the ground is :-
(1) g t1 t2 (3) g t1 t2
1 2 1 2 1
(2) gt1t2 (4) gt1t2
2 8 2
36. The velocity time graph of a linear motion is shown in figure. The displacement
& distance from the origin after 8 sec. is :-
v(m/ s)
4

2
t(s)
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
-2

(1) 5 m, 19m (2) 16 m,22m (3) 8 m,19m (4) 6 m, 5m

37. Initially car A is 10.5 m ahead of car B. Both start moving at
time t=0 in the same direction along a straight line. The v car B
10 m/ s car A
velocity time graph of two cars is shown in figure. The time
45
when the car B will catch the car A, will be :- t
(1) t = 21 sec (2) t = 2 5 sec
(3) 20 sec (4) None of these.
y
38.A man moves in xy plane along the path shown. At what
C
point is his average velocity vector in the same direction as P
B D
his instaneous velocity vector. The man starts from point P. A
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D x

39. Which of the following velocitytime graph shows a realistic situation for a body
in motion :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

40. The velocity time graph of a body falling from rest under
gravity and rebounding from a solid surface is represented by which of the
following graphs?
v v
v v

t t t
t
(1) (2) (3) (4)
41. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following plots represents the
speedtime graph of the ball during its flight if the air resistance is ignored :

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COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

v v v v

(1) t (2) t (3) t (4) t

42. A particle is dropped from a height h.Another particle

which was initially at a horizontal distance 'd' from the first, is
simultaneously projected with a horizontal velocity 'u' and the two
particles just collide on the ground . The three quantities h. d and u are
related to :
2 u2 h 2 2u 2 h 2 2
(1) d = (2) d = (3) d = h (4) gd = u h
2g g
43. The dimensions of a rectangular block measured with callipers having least count of 0.01 cm are 5
mm 10 mm 5 mm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of the volume of the block
is
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 15% (4) 20%
44. The figure shows the velocity (v) of a particle plotted against time (t).

Mark out the incorrect statement.

(1) The displacement of the particle in time 2T is zero.
(2) The initial and final speeds of the particle are the same.
(3 The acceleration of the particle remains constant throughout the motion.
(5) The particle does not change its direction of motion.
45. If the position vector of a particle is given by r (4 cos 2t )i (4sin 2t ) j (6t )k m , its acceleration
at t = p/4 s in m s2 is
(1) 16i (2) 16k (3) 16 j (4) 16(i j )

Part B (Chemistry)
46. The volume of a closed reaction vessel in which the following equilibrium reaction occurs is
halved: 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
As a result
(1) The rates of forward and backward reactions will remains the same.
(2) The equilibrium will not shift.
(3) The equilibrium will shift to the right.
(4) The rate of forward reaction will become double that of reverse reaction and the
equilibrium will shift to the right.
47. H2 (g)+I2 (g) 2HI (g) when 46 g of I2 and 1 g of H2 are heated at equilibrium at 4500 C, the
equilibrium mixture contained 1.9 g of I2. How many moles of I2 and HI are present at
equilibrium?
(1) 0.0075 and 0.147 moles (2) 0.0050 and 0.147 moles
(3) 0.0075 and 0.347 moles (4) 0.0052 and 0.347 moles
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COMBINED TEST 2 (P, C, B)

48. One mole of nitrogen and three moles of hydrogen are mixed in a 4 litre container. If 0.25
percent of nitrogen is converted to ammonia by the following reaction N2(g)+3H2(g)2NH3 (g).
What will be the value of K for the following equilibrium? N2 (g) +3/2 H2 (g) NH3 (g)
(1)1.49 10-5 L mol-1 (2) 2.22 10-10 L2 mol-2
(3) 3.86 10-3 L mol-1 (4) Question is incomplete
49. One mole of ammonium carbonate dissociates as shown below at 500 K :
NH2COONH4 (s) 2NH3 (g) + CO2 (g)
If the pressure exerted by the released gases is 3.0 atm, then the value of K p is :
(1) 7 atm (2) 3 atm (3) 4 atm (4) 8 atm
50. The value of KC for the reaction N2 (g) +3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) is 0.50 at 4000 C. what will be the
value of KP at 4000 C when concentrations are expressed in mol L-1 and pressure in atmosphere?
(1) 210-4 (2) 2.8010-6 (3) 208010-4 (4) 210-6
51. The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 30. The percentage dissociation of N2O4
at this temperature is
(1) 55.5% (2) 60% (3) 70% (4) 53.3%
52. Calculate pH of a solution whose 100 ml contains 0.2 gm NaOH dissolved in it
(1) 10.699 (2) 11.699 (3)12.699 (4)13.699
-4
53. A certain weak acid has Ka = 1.010 . Calculate the equilibrium constant for its reaction with a
strong base
(1) 109 (2)1010 (3) 1011 (4) 1012
54. The degree of ionization of a compound depends on
(1)Size of solute (2) Nature of solute
(3) Nature of vessel (4)Quantity of electricity passed
55. BaCl2 solution is always neutral in nature. Because
(1) Number of barium ion = number of chloride ion
(2) Number of barium ion is just double than chloride ions
(3) Number of chloride ions are just half than Ba+2 ions
(4) Number of Ba2+ ions is just half that of Cl ions.
56. The acid with maximum strength has pKa value equal to
(1) 10 (2) 4.5 (3) 1.0 (4) 2.0
57. Which one of the following can act as Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base?
(1) CH3COO (2)CO32- (3) HPO42- (4) H3PO4
-30
58. Given the solubility product of A2B2 is 2 10 . What will be the solubility in moles/litre?
1/5
2 103 10 28
1/5
-32 1/5
(1) (1.85 10 ) (2) (3) (4) All
108 5400
59. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?
(1) HNO3 and NH4NO3 (2) HCl and KCl
(3) HNO2 and NaNO2 (4) NaOH and NaCl
60. A salt M2X3 dissolves in water such that its solubility id x.g. mole/ litre. Its K sp is
(1) x5 (2) 6x2 (3) 108x5 (4) 6x5

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61. The solubilities of AgCl in water, in 0.02 M CaCl2 in 0.01 M NaCl and in 0.05 M AgNO3 are
S0, S1, S2, S3 respectively. Which of the following relationships between these quantities is
correct?
(1) S0 > S1 > S2 > S3 (2) S0> S2> S1 >S3 (3) S0> S1= S2> S3 (4) S0> S2> S3> S1
62. 20 ml of 0.2 M NaOH is added to 50 ml of 0.2 M CH3COOH to give 70 ml of the solution.
What is the pH of the solution? (The ionization constant of acetic acid is 2 10-5 )
(1) 4.522 (2) 5.568 (3) 6.522 (4) 7.568
-10 0
63. Solubility product of AgCl is 2.8 10 at 25 C. calculate solubility of the salt in 0.1 M
AgNO3 solution
(1)2.8 10-9 mole / litre (2) 2.8 10-10 mole / litre
(3) 3.2 10-9 mole / litre (4) 3.2 10-12 mole / litre
64. What will be the hydrogen ion concentration of a 0.01 M solution of Ca (OH)2?
(1) 5 10-13 M (2) 5 1016 (3) 5 10-10 (4) None
65. Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable
compound?
(1) I- (2) HS- (3) NH2- (4) F-
66. What is true regarding complete combustion of gaseous isobutene?
(1) H= E (2) H > E (3) H= E = 0 (4) H < E
67. How much heat is produced when 4.50 g methane gas is burnt in a constant pressure system?
Given: CH4 +2O2 CO2+2H2O; H= -802 kJ
(1) 225.6 kJ (2)125.6 kJ (3)175.6 kJ (4) 325.6 kJ
68. Hf o for Al2O3 is -1670 kJ. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction : 4Al+3O22Al2O3
(1) 2340 kJ (2) 3340 kJ (3) 1340 kJ (4) 4320 kJ
69. Calculate the heat of neutralization by mixing 200 ml of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 ml of 0.2 M
KOH if heat generated by the mixing is 2.3 kJ.
(1) 17.5 kJ (2) 42.5 kJ (3) 57.5 kJ (4) 34.5 kJ

70. A system does 100 J of work on surroundings by absorbing 150 J of heat. Calculate the change
in internal energy.
(1) 100 J (2) 50 J (3) 25 J (4) 150 J
71. Heat of resolution for C6H12O6 (s) +6O2 (g) 6CO2 (g) + 6H2O (I) at constant pressure is
651 kcal at 170 C. Calculate the heat of reaction at constant volume at 17o C.
(1) 554.5 kcal (2) 654.5 kcal (3) 354.5 kcal (4) 154.5 kcal
72. The heat of combustion of naphthalene (C10H8(s)) at constant volume was measured to be
5133 kJ mol-1 at 298 K. Calculate the value of enthalpy change. (Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1).
(1) 3137955.14 Joule (2) 5137955.14 Joule
(3) 4127955.14 Joule (4) 3247955.14 Joule
73. Calculate the work performed when 2 moles of hydrogen expands isothermally and reversibly
at 250C from 15 to 50 litres.
(1) 1436 calories (2) 1318 calories (3)- 1215 calories (4) 1172 calories
74. Which one of the following equations does not correctly represents the first law of
thermodynamics for the given process?
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(1) Isothermal process : q= - w

(2) Cyclic process : q= - w
(3) Expansion of gas into vacuum : = q
(4) Adiabatic process : = - w
75. The work done in ergs for the reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume
of 10 litres to 20 litres at 250 C is
(1) 2.303 x 298 x 0.082 log 2 (2) 298 x 108 x 8.31 x 2.303 log 2
(3)2.303 298 x 0.082 log 0.2 (4) 8.31 x 107 x 298 2.303 log 0.5
76. In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase its temperature. In
this process, which of the following is true?
(1) E=W=Q=0 (2) E0, Q=W=0 (3) E=W0, Q=0 (4) E=Q 0, W=0
77. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand freely and adiabatically into vacuum until its
volume has doubled. A statement which is not true concerning this expression is
(1) H=0 (2) S=0 (3) E=0 (4) W=0
78. Calculate the standard free energy change for the reaction N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 at
298K .Given H0 = - 92.4 kJ and S0 = - 198.3 JK-1.
(1) 23.106 kJ (2) 43.506 kJ (3) 33.306 kJ (4) 13.306 kJ
79. Determine the enthalpy change for the reaction CH4 (g) + Cl2 (g) CH3Cl (g) + HCl (g). Bond
energies for C H, C Cl, Cl Cl, H Cl are 412, 338, 242, 431 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 215 kJ/mol (2) 115 kJ/mol (3) 130 kJ/mol (4) 145 kJ/mol
80. Calculate the standard enthalpy change for a reaction CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g)
given Hf0 CO2 (g), CO (g) and H2O (g) as 393.5, - 110.5 and 241.8 kJ/mol respectively.
(1) 31.2 kJ (2) 21.2 kJ (3) 11.2 kJ (4) 41.2 kJ
81. C (graphite) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.05 kcal mol -1

C (diamond) +O2 (g) CO2 (g); H= - 94.50 kcal mol-1

Therefore,
(1) C(graphite) C(diamond); H 0298 k= - 450 cal mol-1
(2) C(diamond) C(graphite); H 0298 k= 450 cal mol-1
(3) Graphite is the stable allotrope.
(4) Diamond is harder than graphite.
82. Consider the reactions
C (g) + 2H2 (g) CH4 (g), H = -x kcal
C (s) + 4H (g) CH4 (g), H = -x1 kcal
CH4 (g) CH3 (g) + H (g), H = y kcal
The bond energy of C H bond is
(1) y kcal mol-1 (2) x1 kcal mol-1 (3) x/4 kcal mol-1 (4) x1/4 kcal mol-
83. When a solid melts reversibly
(1) H decreases (2) G increases (3) E decreases (4) S increases
84. The quantity of heat which must be supplied to decompose a compound into its element is
equal to the heat evolved during the formation of that compound from the elements. This
statement is known as
(1) Hesss law (2) Joules law
(3)Le- chateliers principle (4) Lavoisier and Laplace law

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85. Following reaction occurring in an automobile 2C8H18 (g) +25O2 (g) 16CO2 (g) +18H2O (g).
The sign of H, S and G would be
(1) + , - , + (2) - , + , - (3) - , + , + (4) + , + , -
86. 200 ml of KOH and 200 ml of HNO3 of same molarity are mixed together and librated 3.426
kJ of heat. Determine the molarity of each solution.
(1) 0.1 mole (2) 1.3 mole (3) 0.7 mole (4) 0.3 mole
87. For the reaction CH3COOH (l) + 2O2 (g) 2CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l) at 250 C and 1 atm. Pressure,
H= - 874kJ. Then the change in internal energy (E) is .
(1) 874 kJ (2) 871.53 kJ (3) 876.47 kJ (4) + 874 kJ
88. The H2O (g) molecule dissociates as
(i) H2O (g) H(g) + OH (g); H = 490 kJ
(ii) OH (g) H(g) + O (g); H = 424 kJ
The average bond energy (in kJ) for water is
(1) 490 (2) 424 (3) 914 (4) 914/2
89. The specific heats of iodine vapours and solid are 0.031 and 0.055 Cal/g respectively. If heat
of sublimation of iodine is 24 Cal/g at 2000 C, what is its value at 2500 C?
(1) 22.8 Cal/g (2) 11.2 Cal/g (3)12.8 Cal/g (4) 24.4 Cal/g
90. A sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.50 atmosphere so as to decrease its
volume from 400 cm3 to 200 cm3. During the process 8.00 J of heat flows out to surroundings.
Calculate the change in internal energy of the system.
(1) 2.13 J (2) 4.17 J (3) 1.13 J (4) 3.52 J

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Part C (Biology)
91. Tse-tse fly is a vector for sleeping sickness which transmits the infective stage of
which of the following parasite
(1) Leishmania donavani (2) Plasmodium fa1ciparum
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense (4) Wuchereria bancrofti
92. Fever in malaria is due to
(1) Entry of sporozoites into blood capillaries
(2) Entry of merozoites into liver cells
(3) Release of merozoites from red blood cells
(4) Entry of cryptomerozoites into red blood cells
93. Malaria is transmitted by 'Anopheles'. This was discovered by
(1) A. Laveran (2) Ronald Ross (3) Pasteur (4) Huxley
94. Filaria germ is a kind of
(1) Bacteria (2) Helminthes (3) Mosquito
(4) Protozoa
95. The accumulation of excess fluid in tissue space is called
(1) Hodgkin's disease (2) Parkinson's disease (3) Oedema
(4) Cirrhosis
96. Which of the following is a matching pair of the vector and the disease
(1) Culex -Filariasis (2) Housefly - Yellow fever
(3) Body louse - Typhoid (4) Sandfly - Plague
97. Congenital diseases are those which
(1) Occur during life time (2) Are deficiency diseases
(3) Are present from time of birth (4) Are spread from man to man
98. A non-infectious unnatural and unusual reaction of a person to any substance or
condition for which he is hypersensitive is termed as

(1) Infection (2) Immunity (3) Allergy

(4) Toxin
99. Cause of 'Erythroblastosis foetalis' may be
(1) Adjoining of RBC (2) Bleeding (3) Diapedesis (4)
Haemophilia
100. Which disease is caused by activation of oncogenes
(1) Cholera (2) Cancer (3) T.B. (4) Viral flu
101. Identify the wrong statements
A. The tumor of haematopoietic cells is called leukemia
B. Cancer arising from the epithelial tissues of internal organs and glands is
referred as melanoma
C. Sarcoma is a type of cancer where bone and cartilages are involved
D. Only benign tumors are called as true cancer or neoplasm

(1) A and B only (2) Band Conly (3) Band D only (4) A and C only

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102. It causes cancer of vagina

(1) Cadmium oxide (2) Diethylstibestrol (3) Afflatoxin (4)
Vinyl chloride
103. Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide which

(1) Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

(2) Causes gastric ulcers
(3) Raises blood pressure
(4) Is carcinogenic

104. Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic

hydrocarbons, which cause
(1) Reduction in oxygen transport (2) Increase in blood pressure
(3) Cancer (4) Retardation of growth of foetus
105. The use of tobacco is originated in
(1) China (2) America (3) Russia (4) Eastern India
106. Carcinogenic agent is
(1) X-ray radiation (2) U.v. radiation (3) Nicotine (4) All the above
107. Which one of the following is most carcinogenic present in tobacco smoke
(1) Nicotine (2) Benzopyrene (3) Caffeine (4) Tar
108. Addiction to alcohol causes
(1) Cirrhosis (2) Epilepsy (3) Neurosis
(4) Psychosis
109. A person who is addict of alcohol gets his liver destroyed because
(1) Liver stores excess of glycogen (2) Liver stores excess of starch
(3) Liver stores excess of protein (4) Liver stores excess of fat
110. Driving after drinking is not advised because due to intoxication
(1) Reaction time delays (2) Judgement and co-ordination disturbs
(3) Affect behaviour and vision (4) All of the above
111. Opiate narcotic drugs are
(1) Antianxiety (2) Analgesic (3) Hypnotic
(4) Antihistamine
112. The drug useful to increase cardiovascular effects in human beings is
(1) Cocaine (2) Barbiturate (3) Benzodiazepine (4) Insulin
113. Benzo-diazepene is an
(1) Antidepressant (2) Antipsychotic (3) Antianxiety drug (4) Sedative
114. ECT is
(1) An apparatus for epilepsy (2) A durg which acts as sedative
(3) Shock treatment (4) Artificialorgan for human
115. Match the following and choose the correct answer
Column I Column II
(a) Phobia (i) Maladaptive habit
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(b) Neurosis (ii) Undue concern about health

(c) Hypochondria (iii) Lack of sleep
(d) Insomnia (iv) Intense fear
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (iii) (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) -:
(iii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) -
(ii), (d) - (iii)
116. Which of following is a hallucinogen
(1) Lysergic acid diethylamide (2) Psilocybin
(3) Mescaline (4) A1lofthese
117. Cyclosporin A an immunosuppressive drug is produced by

(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Manascus purpureus

(3) Penicillium notatum (4) Trichoderma polysporum
118. Heroin is
(1) Diacetyl morphine (2) Triacetyl morphine
(3) Tetra acetyl morphine (4) Mono acetyl morphine
119. Opium, morphine, heroin, pethidine and methadone are collectively called as
(1) Tranquillisers (2) Stimulants (3) Hallucinogens (4) Opiate
narcotics
120. Hallucinogens
(1) Are nerve depressants (2) Are nerve stimulants
(3) Alter thoughts, feelings and perceptions (4) Are pain relievers
121. 'Marijuana' is extracted from
(1) Dried leaves and flowers of hemp plant (2) Ergot fungus
(3) Hemp plant (Cannabis sativa) (4) Cocoa plant
122. The rejection of organ transplanting in human is prevented by using
(1) Aspirin (2) Cyclosporin (3) Calcitonin
(4) Thrombin
123. Drugs that cause malformation in embryo during pregnancy are called
(1) Tranquillizers (2) Teratogens (3) Alcoholic beverages (4) Nicotin
124. Amnesia is -
(1) Loss of memory (2) Loss of filtration capacity of kidney
(3) Loss of appetite (4) Loss of blood
125. Which of the following stimulates the heart
(1) Mescalin (2) Epinephrin (3) LSD
(4) Hasish
126. The tranquillisers differ from the sedatives that they
(1) Make a person more wakeful (2) Produce calmness
(3) Produce calmness without inducing sleep (4) Produce deep sleep
127. Ingestion of marijuana leads to illusions and alters the thoughts, feelings and
perceptions of a person. Marijuana is a

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(1) Narcotic (2) Stimulant (3) Hallucinogen (4) Sedative

128. Sleep is prevented by
(1) Barbiturates (2) Benzodiazephines (3) Amphetamines (4) Psilocybin
129. 'Valium' is an example of
(1) Benzodiazephines (2) Barbiturates (3) Stimulants
(4) Hallucinogens
130. The drugs used by weight conscious peoples to reduce appetite and increase
alertness are
(1) LSD (2) Morphine
(3) Amphetamines and cocaine (4) Aspirin
131. Which are intimately related
(1) Disease and health (2) Body and health
(3) Body and mind (4) Body and spiritualvalues
132. Psychoanalysis was founded by
(1) Jenner (2) Parkinson (3) Freud (4) Hansen
133. During hibernation frog performs
(1) Pulmonary respiration (2) Cutaneous respiration
(3) Bucco-pharyngeal respiration (4) Both cutaneous and pulmonary
respiration
134. Skin is an accesory organ of respiration in
(1) Humans (2) Frog (3) Rabbit (4) Lizard
135. Diffusion of oxygen in tissues of Cockroach occurs through
(1) Blood (2) Integument (3) Tracheae (4) Tracheoles
136. Fish brought out of water dies because of
(1) Absence of pressure (2) Inability to respire
(3) Inability to feed (4) Rise in temperature
137. Book lungs are respiratory structures of
(1) Arachnida (2) Mollusca (3) Mammals (4)
Earthworm
138. Arytenoid cartilage occurs in
(1) Larynx (2) Nose (3) Hyoid (4) Sternum
139. Lining of trachea is made of
(1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
140. Epithelium lining bronchioles is
(1) Pseudostratified columnar (2) Pseudostratified sensory
(3) Squamous scnsory (4) Cuboidal and columnar
141. Numbers of lobes in right and left lungs of human are :
(1) 2, 4 (2) 3, 2 (3) 4, 2 (4)
6, 3
142. Covering of the lungs is called :
(1) Perichondrium (2) Pleural membrane (3) Pericardium (4) Peritoneum
143. During inspiration, air passes into lungs due to
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(1) Increase in volume of thoracic cavity and fall in lung pressure

(2) Fall in pressure inside the lungs
(3) Increased volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Muscular expansion of lungs
144. Rate and depth of respiration shall increase when
(1) Oxygen concentration increases (2) CO2 concentration increases
(3) Bicarbonate concentration increases (4) Bicarbonate concentration
decreases
145. If the CO2 concentration in the blood increases, the breathing shall
(1) Increase (2) Decrease (3) Stop (4) No affect.
146. The process of respiration is concerned with
(1) Intake of O2 (2) Liberation of O2
(3) Liberation of CO2 (4) Liberation of energy
147. During inspiration, the diaphragm:
(1) relaxes to become dome-shaped (2) contracts and flattens
(3) expands (4) shows no change
148. Tidal volume in human beings is
(1) 1000 ml (2) 1500 ml (3) 500 ml (4) 4.5 litres
149. Vital capacity of lungs is
(1) 500 ml (2) 3.5 4.5 L (3) 2.5 3.9 L (4) 1.5
2.5 L
150. Vital capacity of lung is equal to
(1) IRV + ERV + TV (2) IRV + ERV + TV -RV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV (4) IRV + ERV
151. Residual volume in the lungs of an average human is
(1) 500 ml (2) 3-45Iitres (3) 1000 ml (4) 1500 ml
152. Vital capacity of lungs of an average human is
(1) 3000-4500 ml (2) 1500-.1800 ml (3) 2000-2500 ml (4) 500-1000 ml
153. human beings, CO2 concentration in the inspired and expired air is respectively
(1) 003% and 53% (2) 04% and 50% (3) 004% and 30% (4)
003% and 40%
154. Oxygen dissociation curve of myoglobin is
(1) Hypobolic (2) Hyperbolic (3) Linear (4)
Sigmoid
155. During one circuit of blood from lungs to the tissue and back through the
circulatory system the percentage of haemoglobin giving the oxygen is
(1) 50% (2) 25% (3) 75% (4) 100%
156. Which of the following gases makes the most stable combination with the
haemoglobin of red blood cells ?
(1) CO2 (2) CO (3) O2 (4) N2
157. Oxygen is transported in vertebrates as
(1) Dissolved in plasma (2) Complex with haemoglobin
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(3) Dissolved in cytoplasm of erythrocytes (4) Absorbed over the RBC.

158. Respiratory movements are controlled by
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Crura
cerebri
159. Pneumotaxic centre occurs in
(1) Cerebellum (2) Cerebrum (3) Medulla oblongata (4)
Pons varolii
160. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by
(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood (2) Carbon dioxide content in
arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in venous blood (4) Oxygen content in arterial blood
161. Which part of the human brain controls the breathing movements?
(1) cerebrum (2) cerebellum (3) diencephalon (4)
medulla oblongata
162. Controlling centre of normal breathing in mammals lies in :
(1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum (3) Midbrain (4)
Medulla oblongata
163. Asphyxia occurs due to
(1) Combination of hypoxia and hypercapnea (2) Combination of hypoxia and
hypocapnea
(3) Combination of hyperoxamia and hypocapnea
(4) Combination of hyperoxamia and hypercapnea
164. Reduction in respiratory surface of the lungs due to break down of partition in
the alveoli is known as
(1) Asphyxia (2) Bronchitis (3) Asthma (4)
Emphysema
165. Chloride shift is required for transport of
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
166. Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to right on decrease of
(1) Acidity (2) Carbon dioxide concentration
(3) Temperature (4) pH
167. Maximum amount 70-75% of carbon dioxide transport occurs as
(1) Dissolved in plasma (2) Carbaminohaemoglobin complex
(3) Bicarbonate (4) None of the above
168. Haldane believes oxyhaemoglobin to act as
(1) Acid (2) Alkali (3) Buffer (4) None of the above
169. Percentage of oxygen transported by haemoglobin is
(1) 97% (2) 100% (3) 49% (4) 3%
170. Compound soluble in water which does not impede oxygen transportation is
(1) SO2 (2) SO3 (3) CO (4) NO

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171. Air entering lungs is

(1) Warmed (2) Filtered
(3) Deprived of some oxygen (4) Enriched with CO2
What is true ?
(1) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2) 1 and 2 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 2 and 3
172. One molecule of haemoglobin carries
(1) One molecule of O2 (2) Two molecules of O2
(3) Three molecules of O2 (4) Four molecules of O2
173. Gaseous exchange between blood and alveolar air across respiratory membrane
occurs by:
(1) Osmosis (2) Diffusion (3) Active transport (4) Phagocytosis
174. How is oxygen mainly transported by blood in man?
(1) adsorbed to the surface of RBCs (2) combined with haemoglobin
(3) dissolved in plasma (4) all the above ways
175. During oxygen transport the oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level liberates oxygen
to the cells because in tissue :
(1) O2 concentration is high and CO2 is low (2) O2 concentration is low and CO2
is not high
(3) O2 tension is high and CO2 tension is low (4) O2 tension is low and CO2 tension
is high
176. The blood leaving the lungs has all its haemoglobin oxygenated and gives up
oxygen to the tissues, because:
(1) The tissue can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin
(2) O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 concentration higher than in
lungs
(3) O2 concentration in tissues is higher and CO2 concentration lower than in
lungs
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction
177. Oxygen carrier or the respiratory pigment in the blood of frog and other
vertebrates is :
(1) Haemocyanin (2) Cytochrome (3) Haemoglobin (4) None of these
178. When, under certain conditions, the P50 value of haemoglobin rises the affinity
of the pigment of combining with O2 will :
(1) remain same (2) rise (3) fall (4) first
rise and then fall
179. If, under certain conditions, the P50 value of haemoglobin rises to 100 mm Hg, a
person will die of O2 deficiency because the pigment:
(1) is not loading enough oxygen in lungs
(2) can load enough oxygen in lungs but cannot unload it in tissues
(3) can neither load nor unload oxygen

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(4) suffers dehydration and cannot function normally

180. Under a given oxygen concentration in blood, dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin will
increase if.
(1) pH of blood falls (2) pH of blood rises
(3) CO2 concentration in blood falls (4) Free fatty acid concentration in
blood falls

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ANSWER KEY 06.08.2017 (Sharanya)

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 2 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 1
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 4 4 2 4 1 4 1 2 3 1
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 1 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 2 1
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 3 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 2 1
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 3 2 1 4 3
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 2 4
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 3 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 3
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 4 1 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 2
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 2
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 4 1 4 1 1
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 3 3 2 2 3 1 3 3 1 2
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 4
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 1 4 3
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 3 1 3
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 1 3 4
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 2 2 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 1
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 4 1 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 2
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 4 4 1 4 3 4 3 1 1 1
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 1

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