1

IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper

11. The pontic design preferred for the appearance
1. A fixed partial denture is to be constructed for
zone of maxillary and mandibular teeth is
the mandibular arch of a 35 year-old female. The
A. Hygienic B. Saddle
opposing permanent maxillary first molar is
C. Spheroidal D. Ridge-lap
extruded 3mm beyond the plane of occlusion.The
best way to correct this situation is to: 12. In lingualized occlusion, the dominant
A. Reduce and reshape occlusal length of the tooth by functional element is
3mm. A. Maxillary buccal cusp B. Maxillary lingual cusp
B. Extract the opposing tooth and replace it with a fixed C. Mandibular buccal cusp D. Mandibular lingual cusp
partial denture. 13. The rib of metal on the occlusal surface of a
C. Restore the maxillary molar to a satisfactory plane of crown on a maxillary premolar, takes the form of
occlusion with a cast restoration. A. An occlusal offset B. An occlusal shoulder
D. Cut the maxillary extruded molar off the working cast, C. A contrabevel D. A bevel
construct a mandibular fixed prosthesis and equilibrate
the maxillary molar to the new occlusal plane after the 14. What should be thickness of the noble metal
prosthesis is cemented. framework of an anterior metal ceramic crown ?
A. Less than 0.1 mm B. 0.1-0.3 mm
2. The most favourable vault form is
C. 0.3 - 0.5 mm D. 0.5 - 0.7 mm
A. Medium depth with a well defined incline of the rugae
area 15. When preparing a posterior tooth for a full
B. Flat vault with well defined incline of rugae area coverage restoration, failure to place the functional
C. High vault D. None of the above cusp bevel would result in
A. Difficulty in seating the restoration
3. The occlusion rim in the anterior region should
B. An unesthetic restoration
be
C. Decreased retention of the restoration
A. Slightly lingual B. Slightly buccal D. A weak restoration
C. On the ridge D. None of the above
16. During the first year post extraction resorption
4. The thickness of palatal surface of maxillary
is more in
denture should be
A. Mandible B. Maxilla C. Equal D. Variable
A. 2mm B. 2.5mm C. 1.5mm D. 3mm
17. Causes of midline fracture of maxillary denture
5. Occlusal correction is done in immediate denture
may be
after
A. Torus palatinus B. Faulty occlusion
A. 24 hours B. After 48 hours C. Deep labial notch D. All of the above
C. Before insertion D. None of the above
18. An over extended mandibular denture will be
6. From stability point of view, least favorable is
dislodged as a result of function of
A. Normal inter-arch space A. Massetor B. Temporalis
B. Increased inter-arch space C. Buccinator D. Lateral pterygoid
C. Decreased inter-arch space D. None of the above
19. Which muscle has dual function as related to a
7. Least favorable prognosis is for
complete denture
A. Onlay graft A. Massetor B. Temporalis
B. Inter-positional bone graft C. Lateral pterygoid D. Geniohyoid
C. Inferior bone graft D. Visor osteotomy
20. Compared to the traditional methyl
8. SPA concept includes
methacrylate resins, epimines have
A. Selection of anterior teeth B. Setting of anterior teeth A. Higher polymerization shrinkage
C. Both of the above D. None of the above B. Lesser strength
9. The pin modified anterior crown is C. Higher heat of exothermic reaction
contraindicated for D. Poorer flow properties
A. Large teeth 21. The minimum distance between the gingival
B. Teeth that are thick faciolingually margin of a crown and the alveolar crest should be
C. Teeth with small pulps A. 0.5 mm B. 1 mm C. 2 mm D. 4 mm
D. None of the above
22. A taper of 7 is permitted for a restoration with
10. Anterior teeth may be
a height/width ratio of 1:2. What would be the
A. Anatomic B. Semi anatomic permissible taper for a preparation with a height
C. Non anatomic D. Any of the above /width ratio of 1:1, to have effective resistance ?
A.15 B. 3 C. 28 D. 21
www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 1
 2
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
23. The muscle which trims the posterior lingual C. Detrimental chewing habits
areas of the lower denture is D. Incorrect design of cast backing
A. Genioglossus B. Palatoglossus
35. Low and medium fusing porcelain are made by a
C. Mentalis D. Buccinator
special process called
24. At two-stage impression or altered cast A. Bisque baking B. Denitrification
technique man be used for construction of C. Fritting D. Fusion
removable partial dentures primarily because it
36. For greatest retention of the porcelain veneer
A. Results in a detailed impression of the soft tissue
the coping design should be
B. Accommodates resilient and nonresilient tissues
A. Convex with undercuts to retain porcelain
C. Allows the dentist to border mold
B. Convex with no undercuts
D. Both (B) and (C) above
C. Convex with sharp angle to distribute stresses
25. Esthetic zone in maxilla extends till D. Concave on facial surface to provide room for
A. 1st premolar B. 2nd premolar porcelain
C. 1st molar D. 2nd molar 37. Resin-retained FPDs are indicated
26. In CD preferred occlusal scheme is A. When abutments have short clinical crowns
A. Canine surface B. Group function B. Where abutment teeth are excessively restored or
C. Either of the above D. None of the above damaged
C. For the replacement of anterior teeth in children
27. Physiologic rest position is related to
D. For the replacement of molars in aged patients
A. Centric relation B. Centric occlusion
C. Vertical dimension D. All of the above 38. The angle between the lingual wall of the axial
groove of a crown and the adjoining axial surface
28. Realeff concept was given by
should be
A. Whip-Mix B. Hanau
A. 50-60 B. 45 C. Less than 40 D. 90
C. Frush & Fisher D. Fish
39. Minimum acceptable crown-ratio is
29. The esthetics of an artificial denture begins in
A. 2:3 B. 1:1 C. 3:2 D. 3:4
the
A. Selection of teeth B. Position of the teeth 40. In what situation might a crown-root ratio of
C. Finished denture D. Impression greater than 1:1 be considered adequate for a tooth
used as a bridge abutment?
30. The most important disadvantage of acrylic
A. When the opposing tooth cusps interdigitate in the
resin denture bases is
central fossa.
A. Shrinkage B. Porosity
B. When the opposing teeth are artificial or periodontally
C. Tooth breakage D. Water absorption
compromised.
31. Where would the functional cusp bevel be C. When the opposing roots are broader buccolingually
placed when preparing a mandibular second molar than mesiodistally.
for a full coverage restoration ? D. When the opposing roots are broader mesiodistally
A. Lingual cusps B. Mesial cusps than buccolingually.
C. Buccal cusps D. Noncentric cusps
41. To establish the chemical bond between metal
32. For which retainer is the tooth preparation most and porcelain, an oxide layer can be formed on the
conservative ? metal surface by heating it to a temperature that:
A. Resin bonded retainer B. Pin ledge retainer A. Exceeds the firing temperature of porcelain
C. Telescopic retainer D. None of above B. Is less than the firing temperature of porcelain
33. Hydroscopic expansion of the investment
C. Is equal to the firing temperature of porcelain
material occurs because of
D. None of the above
A. 900F heat in the oven 42. Removable die-system include
B. The 100F water both which increases the setting A. Di-Lok tray B. Pindex system
expansion by releasing a gaseous component C. Both of the above D. None of the above
C. The 100Fwater bath which allows the crystallization
43. Targis and Vectris is used for fabrication of
process to go to completion
A. Inlays B. Crowns
D. None of the above
C. Both A and B D. Inlays, crowns and bridges
34. What is likely to produce fracture in an anterior
44. The only system which may be used for
porcelain pontic facing
fabrication of all-ceramic bridges is
A. Great vertical overlap of teeth
A. In-Ceram B. Dicor
B. Great horizontal overlap
www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 2
 3
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
C. IPS- Empress D. Optek-HSP 58. Incisal rest are most frequently used in
A. Mandibular incisor B. Maxillary incisor
45. When an object appears to be of different colors
C. Mandibular canines D. Maxillary canines
under different lights, the phenomenon is called
A. Fluorescence B. Metamerism 59. Height of contour term was first used by
C. Polymerism D. Translucency A. Kennedy B. DeVan
C. Krol D. Prothero
46. The tooth with maximum color saturation is
generally the 60. Akers clasp is
A. Maxillary canine B. Premolars A. Circumferential clasp B. Combination clasp
C. Central incisors D. Lateral incisors C. Vertical projection clasp D. None of the above
47. Minimum reduction for a metal-ceramic crown 61. Push type retention is seen in
is A. Circumferential clasp B. Combination clasp
A. 0.5 - 0.7 mm B. 1.3 1.5 mm C. Vertical projection clasp D. All of the above
C. 1.8 2.0 mm D. None of the above
62. A sagger tray is used
48. Metal-ceramic crowns may be A. In the casting of Ni-Cr alloys
A. Mesial half crowns B. crowns B. In the firing of porcelain
C. Full crowns D. All of the above C. For adjusting the cervical margin of a preformed
aluminium crown
49. Electrolytically etched resin bonded retainers
D. For taking a polyether impression of the prepared teeth
are fabricated from
A. Nickel-chromium alloys B. Cobalt-chromium alloys 63. Indirect retainer resist movement
C. Palladium-gold alloys D. Silver-gold alloys A. Towards ridge B. Away from ridge
C. Around all fulcrums D. All of the above
50. Retentive pin holes are best placed in
A. Mesial side B. Distal side 64. RPI design was given by
C. Buccal or lingual D. Corners of the teeth A. Kratochvil (1967) B. Krol (1967)
C. Krol (1973) D. Kratochvil (1975)
51. Finishing of the preparation may be done by
A. Ultrafine diamonds B. Multi-fluted carbide burs 65. RPI design includes
C. Either A or B A. Mesial rest B. Distal rest
D. Preparations must be finished as this may decrease C. Incisal rest D. Lingual rest
retention 66. In tripoding, marks are marked
52. Connectors may be A. On tissue surface B. On art portion of the cast
A. Rigid B. Non - rigid C. A and B D. On abutment teeth
C. Cast D. All of the above
67. Shaped block out are given on
53. Of the prefabricated cemented porcelain pontic A. Buccal and lingual surfaces
facings, the most esthetic is the B. Mesial and distal surface
A. Harmony facing B. Reverse pin facing C. Deep interproximal surface
C. Interchangeable facing D. Long pin facing D. Beneath all minor connector
54. Minimum width of posterior component of 68. Swing lock RPD consist of
closed horse shoe of major connector should be A. Hinged labial bar B. Hinged lingual bar
A. 5mm B. 6mm C. 7mm D. 8mm C. Hinged labial or buccal bar
D. All of the above
55. Out of three types of minor connector which is
the weakest 69. Major connector in swing Lock denture is
A. Open lattice work B. Mesh work A. Hinged Labial bar B. Hinged Buccal bar
C. Nail bead D. None C. Hinged Lingual bar
D. Conventional Major connector
56. Space is required beneath minor connector
A. Open lattice work and mesh work B. Mesh work 70. Specific gravity of chrome alloy as compared to
C. Open lattice work gold is approximately
D. Nail bead, open lattice work and mesh work A. Equal B. One third
C. One half D. More
57. The best pontic material in contact with ridge
71. Modulus of elasticity for chromium cobalt is in
tissue is
range of
A. Glazed porcelain
A. 15x106 psi B. 32x106 psi
B. Polished nickel-chromium alloy
C. 50x106 psi D. 69x107 psi
C. Highly polished resin D. Unglazed porcelain
www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 3
 4
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
72. Classification based on whether Prosthesis is B. The drill should not rotate more than 5 secs
tooth borne, tissue borne or combination was given continuously in contact with bone
by C. Only speeds above 20,000 rpm should be used in
A. Bailyn B. Cummer drilling
C. Freidman D. Mauk D. Enough pressure should be used to proceed 0.5-1mm
every 5 seconds
73. The most important part of a partial denture is
A. The connectors B. Replaced teeth 83. How much tooth reduction is required over
C. Reciprocal arm D. Base functional cusps for a cast metal crown ?
A. 1.0 mm B. 2.0 mm C. 1.5 mm D. 0.5 mm
74. Reciprocal arm
A. Is non retentive and serves to resist lateral movement 84. When constructing complete dentures, the
B. Is retentive Gothic arch tracing is made
C. Fails to resist lateral movement A. After teeth setting
D. Fails to resist unseating forces B. Before making plaster interocclusal records
C. After teeth setting but before the final remount
75. Which of the following cements has the highest
D. Before teeth setting but after making plaster
compressive strength ?
interocclusal records
A. Zinc phosphate B. Polycarboxylate
C. Silicophosphate D. Glass ionomer 85. Which preparation has an isthmus and a
countersink on its occlusal surface ?
76. System based on the location and extent of the
A. Full coverage crown B. crown
edentulous space, where teeth are to be replaced
C. Proximal half crown D. Modified crown
on base was given by
A. Cummer B. Bailyn 86. The high lip line is the
C. Godfreys D. Mauk A. Level of the upper lip during serious talking
B. Level of the upper lip during natural smiling
77. The pontic easiest to fabricate, is the
C. Highest level of the lower lip
A. All metal pontic B. Resin veneered metal pontic
D. Level of the upper lip when the patient says 'cheese'
C. Metal ceramic pontic
D. Prefabricated cemented pontic 87. Centric relation is determined by
A. Muscles only B. Muscles and teeth
78. When the loss of first molar has broken the
C. Muscles and nerves D. Nerves and ligaments
lower dental arch, the second molar will become
inclined 88. The apex of the Bonwill's equilateral triangle is
A. Distolingually B. Mesiolingually located at the
C. Distobuccally D. Mesiobuccally A. Anterior tip of the incisive papilla
B. Upper central incisor's contact point
79. Which of the following is an advantage of using
C. Anterior most point on the chin
resins for resin-metal pontics?
D. Lower central incisor's contact point
A. No marginal leakage
B. Excellent bonding to metal 89. The most difficult bridges are those replacing
C. High resistance to abrasion and wear the
D. Easy to manipulate A. Maxillary central incisor B. Maxillary second molar
C. Mandibular first molar D. Maxillary canine
80. The average surface area of a maxillary denture
base is 90. The average biting forces generated in the
A. 3600-4100 sqmm B. 1200-1600 sqmm natural dentition and complete dentures are
C. 50-120 sqmm D. 2200-2600 sqmm respectively
A. 200 N and 600 N B. 9000 N and 7000 N
81. When selecting teeth for complete dentures,
C. 100 N and 30 N D. 600 N and 110 N
resin teeth are preferred over porcelain teeth if
A. There is limited interocclusal space 91. The retention and stability of a complete
B. The extractions were recent denture may be compromised by
C. The patient is presently wearing a denture that clicks A. Large and bulbous tuberosities
during speech but there exists sufficient interocclusal B. A deep lingual vestibule
distance C. Absence of mylohyoid ridge
D. All of the above D. A high V- shaped palate
82. When drilling cylindrical implant sites in bone, 92. The range of motion, as measured in
which the following is false? millimeters, is least for the
A. Copious irrigation should be used with the drill A. Pure hingelike opening and closing movement

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 4

 5
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
B. Protrusive movement 103. A cantilever bridge can be used to replace a
C. Left lateral movement D. Bennet movement missing
A. Mandibular first molar B. Maxillary lateral incisor
93. The maximum lingual axial wall reduction is
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular canine
needed for a
A. PFM crown B. Castable ceramic crown 104. For a complete denture patient with Class 111
C. Conventional porcelain jacket crown ridge relation, the freeway space
D. All of the above require similar reduction A. Must be increased B. Must be decreased
C. Should be the same as for Class I
94. In complete dentures, compared to the vertical
D. Do not set teeth for abnormal jaw relations
dimension of rest, the vertical dimension of
occlusion should be 105. Centric relation is
A. 0.5-1 mm less B. Same A. Repeatable and recordable B. Ahabitual position
C. 1-2 mm more D. 2-3 mm less C. A tooth to tooth relation D. All of the above
95. How many styli are normally used in making a 106. Border positions are invaluable when making
pantographic tracing? jaw relation records, as they
A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12 A. Are the only consistently repeatable positions
B. Remain constant throughout life
96. To produce the angle of convergence of 10 for
C. Are not under neuromuscular control
a full crown preparation, each opposing axial wall
D. Are totally under the operator's control
should have an in clination of
A. 10 B. 2.5 C. 20 D. 5 107. Non-anatomic teeth are specifically indicated
in complete dentures of patients with
97. Which of the following is not a method of
A. Poor neuromuscular coordination
retaining overdentures?
B. Increased inter-ridge space
A. Precision attachments B. Conventional magnets
C. Diabetes mellitus D. Poor masticatory efficacy
C. Rare earth magnets D. All of the above
108. Which should be the abutments when
98. The distance between the midpoints of the two
replacing a mandibular canine using porcelain
condyles is approximately
fused to metal retainers (PFM)?
A. 200 mm B. 100 mm C. 150 mm D. 50 mm
A. Incisors and premolars
99. Compared to the natural dentition, biting forces B. Lateral incisor and premolars
of patients with complete dentures are about C. Central and lateral incisors and first premolar
A. 90% B. 15% C. 40% D. Equal D. Lateral incisor, premolars and first molar
100. When setting teeth in a mandibular complete 109. Standard anatomic teeth for complete
denture, the last posterior tooth should be dentures have cuspal inclines of
A. Over firm foundation tissue A. 15 B. 33 C. 66 D. 45
B. Placed buccal to the external oblique ridge
110. The thickness of the luting cement in fixed
C. Set on the retromolar pad but not posterior to it
restorations should generally be
D. Placed with its central groove in line with the
mylohyoid ridge A. 2-5 m B. 25- 40 m
C. 0.5- 1.0 mm D.100-160 m
101.Relining of complete dentures is indicated
when 111. In a partial denture wearer, the stresses
A. The dentures create a major speech problem transmitted to the abutment teeth will be
B. Severe osseous undercuts exist and surgery is decreased, if the
contraindicated A.Length of the clasp arm is increased
C. The ridges have resorbed and adaptation of dentures is B. Clasp is completely active when it is seated on the
poor abutment teeth
D. The dentures have poor esthetics C. Length of the edentulous span is more
D. Retentive arm of the clasp is made less flexible
102. In an edentulous mandibular arch, the
retromolar papilla 112. Flexibility of the clasp arm depends on all of
A. Lies posterior to the retromolar pad the following, except
B. Contains dense glandular and loose areolar connective A. Angle of cervical convergence of the tooth
tissue B. Taper of the clasp C. Diameter of the clasp arm
C. Is the same as the retromolar pad D.Length of the retentive arm
D. Lies just anterior to the retromolar pad 113. Removable partial dentures which use indirect
retainers are Kennedy

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 5

 6
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
A. Class I and Class IV B. Class I and Class II D. Mandibular distal extension PDs
C. Class II and Class III D. Class II and Class IV
124. If a metal gingival collar is to be used for a
114. Ideally for fixed prosthodontics, which PFM crown, the thickness of the metal collar
articulator should be used ? should be at least
A. Arcon B. Non-arcon A. 0.3 mm B. 0.1 mm C. 0.5 mm D. 0.7 mm
C. Hinge D. Semi-arcon
125. The greatest disadvantage when using a
115. Where should the reciprocal clasp arm be lingual bar major connector, is
placed on the lingual surface of the abutment tooth A. Its complicated design
A. In the gingival one-third B. That it may not be rigid enough
B. At the junction of the occlusal and middle thirds C. The likelihood of decalcification of tooth surfaces
C. In the occlusal one-third D. Its greater contact with oral tissues
D. At the junction of the middle and gingival thirds
126. Compared to a cast circumferential clasp, the
116. All of the following are methods of main disadvantage of a combination clasp, is that,
strengthening porcelain, except it
A. Incorporating distilled water for condensation A. Can flex in all spatial planes
B. Ionic diffusion B. Is more prone to breakage or damage
C. Thermal mismatch D. Using platinum foil matrix C. Makes greater surface contact with the tooth
D. Is less acceptable esthetically
117. The first step in the construction of a RPD
framework is to 127. The primary advantage of an I clasp over a T
A. Transfer the design from the diagnostic cast to the clasp, is that, it
master cast A. Is more esthetic
B. Provide relief for the denture base B. Provides greater horizontal stabilization
C. Fabricate a refractory cast C. Has better reciprocation
D. Eliminate undesirable undercuts on the master cast D. Is more passive when completely seated
118. The shape of a palatal bar major cornector is 128. Guiding planes are usually not created on
A. Half oval B. Egg shaped which surface?
C. Round D. Rectangular with rounded edges A. Lingual B. Mesial
119. Which clasp should be used when the
C. Buccal D. Distal
retentive undercut on the tooth is away from the 129. When border molding, the shape and the
edentulous area from which the approach arm amount of the distofacial extension of a complete
originates ? mandibular edentulous impression is determined by
A. Reverse circlet clasp B. T clasp A. Position and the action of the masseter muscle
C. Simple circlet clasp D. Fish hook clasp B. Ramus of the mandibular
120. An edentulous area bounded posteriorly by a
C. Lateral pterygoid muscle
D. Attachment of the buccinator muscle
single tooth and anteriorly by a tooth which is not
suitable for support, is classified as Kennedy-Apple- 130. The retentive terminal of a clasp is normally
gate Class positioned on the tooth
A. VI B. V C. I D. IV A. Near the lingual surface of the tooth
B. At the mesiolingual or distolingual line angle
121. The cusp-fossa occlusal arrangement is
C. At the mesiofacial or distofacial line angle
preferred to the cusp-marginal ridge arrangement
D. Near the facial surface
for
A. Single restorations B. Short span bridges 131. Which type of RPD can best resist the forces
C. Full mouth reconstruction D. All restorations to which it is subjected ?
A. Class II B. Class III C. Class IV D. Class I
122. Which clasp is usually used on the side of the
arch where there is no edentulous space ? 132. Relief is required.beneath a mandibular lingual
A. Simple circlet clasp B. Modified T clasp bar major connector, when the
C. Embrasure clasp D. Multiple circlet clasp A. Lingual slope of the ridge is undercut
B. Slope of the lingual tissues is nearly vertical
123. Contact of opposing posterior teeth, in a
C. Lingual tissues slope towards the tongue
straight protrusive movement, is most desirable for
D. None of the above
A. A RPD opposing a complete denture
B. An all tooth borne PD 133. Wrought wire partial denture clasps are
C. Maxillary unilateral distal extension PDs designed for a maximum undercut of

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 6

 7
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
A. 0.02 inches B. 0.002 inches C. Prevent food impaction between the minor connector
C. 0.2 inches D. 0.0002 inches and the teeth
D. Transfer the forces on the prosthesis down the long
134. The occlusogingival height of the flat surface
axis of the abutment teeth
of the guide plane of a RPD, should be
A. 0.5-1 mm B. 2 -4 mm 144. The T-clasp is used when the
C. 1 - 2 mm D. 4 - 6 mm A. Useable undercut is located on the side of the tooth
away from the edentulous space
135. When designing a RPD, if a tooth has extruded
B. Approach arm must bridge a soft tissue undercut
4mm, the occlusal plane can be corrected by
C. Height of contour on the abutment tooth is close to the
A. Extracting the tooth
occlusal surface
B. Enameloplasty
D. Retentive undercut on the abutment tooth is located
C. Repositioning the tooth orthodontically
adjacent to the edentulous space
D. Placing an extracoronal cast restoration
145. Which type of RPD utilizes all or most of the
136. Compared to a circumferential clasp, a bar
remaining teeth for its retention and stabilization ?
clasp
A. Immediate B. Spoon
A. Is easier to design and construct
C. Swing-lock D. Interim
B. Covers more tooth surface
C. Is more retentive D. All of the above 146. The occlusal rest seat, for a cast chrome RPD,
at its thinnest point should be at least
137. Which clasp is indicated for mesially tipped
A. 4 mm B. 0.5 mm thick
mandibular molars with the retentive undercut
C. 2 mm D. 1.5-3 mm
located at the mesio-lingual line angle ?
A. T clasp B. I bar clasp 147. Immediate surgical obturators are fabricated
C. Hairpin clasp D. Ring clasp A. Immediately after the lesion is excised
B. Within one week of surgery
138. The most versatile and widely used clasp, is
C. Prior to the resection of the lesion
the
D. After the wound has healed completely
A. Ring clasp B. T clasp
C. Combination clasp D. Simple circlet clasp 148. When establishing balanced occlusion, lingual
cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing
139. At the first appointment after insertion of
side should contact the
complete dentures, the presence of generalized
A. Facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior
soreness of the crest of the mandibular ridge is
teeth
most likely due to
B. Lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular
A. Improper occlusion B. The newness of the denture
posterior teeth
C. Defective tissue registration
C. Lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular
D. Incomplete polymerization of the denture base
posterior teeth
140. Adequate occlusogingival height of the D. Central fossae of mandibular posterior teeth
abutment tooth is most critical for accommodating
149. The most immediate effect of defective
a
occlusal contact on a fixed partial denture is
A. T clasp B. Multiple circlet clasp
A. Pain caused by trauma
C. I bar clasp D. Hairpin clasp
B. Myofacial pain dysfunction
141. Probably the first edentulous occur in the C. Breakage of the fixed partial denture
dental arch is Kennedy- Applegate D. Orthodontic movement of the involved teeth
A. Class VI B. Class III
150. The chamfer is the finish line of choice for
C. Class IV D. Class II
A. A full cast metal crown
142. When replacing several missing anterior and B. The occlusal finish line on an onlay
posterior teeth, the maxillary major connector of C. A proximal half crown on a mesially titled molar
choice is D. An all porcelain crown
A. Palatal strap B. Double palatal bar
151. The most effective means of limiting applied
C. Lingual plate D. Closed horse shoe
loads to abutment teeth in a distal extension
143. The primary function of partial denture rests is removable partial dentures is by
to A. Splinting abutments B. Using a stress breaker
A. Prevent extrusion of the abutment teeth C. Maintaining a stable base tissue relationship
B. Help establish a more acceptable occlusal plane D. Using acrylic replacement teeth
152. Which of the following provides the greatest

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 7

 8
IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS Question paper
retention for an onlay ? 163. Words with sibilant sounds are pronounced
A. The proximal contacts B. The intracoronal portion correctly with an explosive sound effect and with
C. The cementing medium D. The mesial cusp slopes A. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth in
contact
153. Which of the following finish lines may be
B. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth almost
difficult to detect on the tooth in an impression, or
touching
later on the die ?
C. Incisal edges of maxillary and mandibular teeth widely
A. Shoulder B. Knife-edge
separated
C. Shoulder with bevel D. Chamfer
D. The tip of the tongue between incisal edges of
154. The so called resin retained FPDs or Maryland maxillary and mandibular teeth
bridges depend upon
164. In the preparation of a rest seat, the marginal
A. Mechanical retention B. Chemical retention
ridge of a molar tooth has been reduced
C. Indirect retention D. Micromechanical retention
approximately 2 mm. and the correct width of the
155. In fixed prosthodontics, when should a rest seat has been established. Next, the marginal
mutually protective occlusal scheme not be ridge must be rounded in order to
employed? A. Reduce the possibility of fracture of the metal rest
A. Class II malocclusion B. Posterior cross bite B. Reduce food trapping around the rest
C. Class III malocclusion D. All of the above C. Achieve better distribution of the vertical load
156. Risk of leaving unsupported enamel is highest
D. Provide better retention by the clasp
with which type of gingival finish line ? 165. When trying in a removable partial denture
A. Shoulder B. Chamfer framework, what should be reduced when pressure
C. Shoulder with bevel D. Bevel shows through the disclosing wax?
157. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record
A. Rest B. Indirect retainer
can be made, it is necessary to determine
C. Guiding plane D. None of the above
A. The axial centre of opening-closing rotation 166. The margins of a full crown are generally
B. The inclination of each condyle placed
C. The physiologic rest position D. Centric relation A. Subgingivally
158. The pulp can be best protected from the B. At the level of the marginal gingiva
frictional heat generated by a bur
C. Supragingivally
A. Using a water spray B. Using air cooling D. 1mm below the free-marginal gingiva
C. By irrigation with a syringe 167. The most significant radiographic observation
D. By asking the patient to rinse with cold water at that suggest whether alveolar bone is capable of
regular intervals withstanding occlusal forces of a removable partial
denture is the
159. Normal mandibular lateral movement is
approximately A. Condition of the cortical plate
A. 12 mm B. 6 mm B. Bone level surrounding the abutment teeth
C. 24 mm D. 18 mm C. Radiography of the trabeculae
D. Architecture of the trabeculae
160. A common consequence of inadequate axial
168. The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is to
reduction is
A. Traumatic occlusion A. Act as a direct retainer for the distal base
B. An undercontoured restoration B. Counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm
C. Tooth mobility D. An overcontoured restoration C. Perform as an indirect retainer
D. Stabilize the abutment teeth
161. All other factors being equal, an FPD with a
169. The internal surface of a cast full coverage
span of pontics compared to an FPD with a span of
one pontic, will flex
restoration should contact the die at the
A. 2 times more B. 4 times more A. Axial wall areas B. Occlusal region
C. 6 times more D. 8 times more C. Marginal areas D. Proximal contact areas
170. The walls of a full crown preparation are
162. Which type of preformed provisional crown has
usually prepared with
the most natural esthetics?
A. Nickel-chromium alloy crowns A. A 6-12 convergence towards the occlusal
B. Cellulose acetate crowns B. An 8-16 taper towards the cervical
C. Tin-silver alloy crowns D. Polycarbonate crowns C. A 3-6 convergence towards the occlusal
D. A 5-8 divergence towards the occlusal

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 8


IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS
171. Which of the following are the most common
characteristics of denture stomatitis?
1. It is commonly a manifestation of oral candidiasis
2. It can occur in acrylic and metal prosthesis
3. The patient is often asymtomatic
4. There is a high rate of recurrence of if the prosthesis is
not properly treated.
A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,3,4
172. The gingival finish line, least conservative of
tooth structure is
A. Feather edge B. Shoulder
C. Chamfer D. Shoulder with bevel
173. Cross-tooth. Cross-arch balance is indicated in
A. Restoring a natural dentition.
B. Using non-anatomical teeth on a flat ridge.
C. Mandibular Kennedy class 3 RPDs opposing natural
dentition.
D. Using anatomic teeth on a prominent ridge with a
broad thick base.
174. The proximal groove of a crown preparation
should
A. Have a gingival seat which merges smoothly with the
finish line
B. Be at least 6 mm in length
C. Be V-shaped
D. Terminate 0.5 mm occlusal to the gingival finish line
175. All are true about nonridgid connector
EXCEPT:
A. Prevents the middle abutment from acting as a fulcrum
B. Shouldn't be used in long span fixed partial dentures
because teeth can move under normal function.
C. Allows different segments of the fixed partial denture
to move in different directions
D. Allows fixed partial dentures to be made on teeth with
different angulation
176. The stylomandibular ligament limits
A. Extreme protrusion of the mandible
B. Mandibular rotation on opening
C. Posterior movement of the mandible
D. None of the above
177. A full crown achieves retention primarily by
the
A. Type of finish line B. Parallelism of axial walls
C. Depth of occlusal reduction
D. Number of escape holes
178. Which pontic has a concave fitting surface?
A. Ridge lap B. Hygienic
C. Saddle D. Bullet-shaped
179. The most reliable landmark for determining
the posterior height of the occlusal plane is a point:
A. Four millimeters below the parotid duct
B. Two millimeters above the resting height of the tongue
9
Question paper
C. Midway between the tuberosity of the maxilla and the
retromolar pad.
D. At the middle of the retromolar pad
180 .The occlusal records used for the functionally
generated path technique represent
A. The movement of the condyles
B. A "Gothic arch" or arrow point design made by the
excursions of a maxillary stamp cusp
C. The pathways of the opposing cusps within the border
movements of the mandible
D. Vertical closure in the intercuspal position
181. Which of the following has no effect on
increasing resistance form of a preparation?
A. Increasing parallelism -both retention and resistance;
B. One path of draw; decreasd oblique forces
C. Increasing occlusal-gingival length -both retention and
resistance; increase surface area; decrease tipping
D. Greater circumference of the tooth -increase arc of
displacement
182. When mounting diagnostic casts, the use of a
face bow transfer will
A. Position the Maxillary cast in its Proper Location
Anterioposteriorly And Mediolaterally on the Articulator
B. Verify centric relation
C. Place the condyles in their most anterior-superior
position against the articular eminences
D. Verify protrusive relation
183. The tooth surface left unveneered for the
preparation of a reverse crown is the
A. Lingual B. Buccal
C. Mesial D. Distal
184. When preparing a tooth for a full crown, the
functional cusp bevel is placed
A. Parallel to the inclination of the cusp plane it opposes
B. So that it forms an acute angle
C. At an angle of 45
D. Parallel to the inclination of the cusp plane on which it
is placed
185. Location of the gingival finish lines in crown
preparations are influenced by
A. Existing restorations B. Crown length available
C. Periodontal considerations D. All of the above
186. The success of an anterior crown is
complicated
A. For thin tapering teeth
B. By the presence of a deep overbite
C. For malaligned teeth D. All of the above
187. All of the following may be effective in saliva
control during tooth preparation, except
A. Local anesthesia B. Antisialagogue
C. Cotton rolls D. None of the above
188. In order to maintain periodontal health, the
most ideal position for the gingival margin of a cast

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 9


IDEAS WTS MDS PROSTHODONTICS
gold restoration is
A. Just below the crest of the free gingiva
B. At the level of the junctional epithelium
C. Above the crest of the free gingiva
D. In the gingival sulcus between the crest and the
epithelial attachment
189. The ridge-lap design of pontic is indicated for
the replacement of a
A. Maxillary first molar B. Maxillary central incisor
C. Mandibular first molar
D. Mandibular second premolar
190. A conical pontic is indicated for the
replacement of a
A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary canine
C. Mandibular first molar D. Maxillary first premolar
191. When using zinc phosphate cement as a luting
agent, it is recommended that you
1. Mix quickly on a cold glass slab
2. Mix slowly over a large area of the glass slab
3. Place cavity varnish on the tooth prior to cementation
4. Use when insolubility is a desired property
A. 1,3 B. 1,4 C. 2,3 D. 1,3,4
192. Which of the following types of maxillary
cantilevered fixed partial dentures would be most
destructive to the periodontal supporting tissues of
the abutment tooth?
A. Molar abutment, premolar pontic
B. Canine abutment, lateral incisor pontic
C. Lateral incisor abutment, central incisor pontic
D. Central incisor abutment, central incisor pontic
10
Question paper
196. Which of the following cements is most
sensitive to moisture contamination?
A. Glass ionomer B. Zinc phosphate
C. Polycarboxylate D. Silicophosphate
197. A patient returns to the dental office for his
first post-insertion examination of recently placed
complete dentures. The patient complains of
generalized soreness of the denture-supporting
tissues.The most likely cause of soreness would be
A. Incorrect height of occlusal plane
B. Unbalanced occlusion
C. Excessive peripheral seal
D. Excessive vertical dimension
198. After processing full upper and lower dentures
with cusped teeth, selective grinding to correct
processing errors should be performed. What is the
correct sequence of grinding procedures?
A. Protrusive, centric, balancing, working
B. Centric, protrusive, balancing, working
C. Centric, working, balancing, protrusive
D. Centric, balancing, working, protrusive
199. Which of the following materials should be
avoided in the construction of a denture for a
patient who has received radiation therapy for oral
cancer?
A. Rubber base B. ZOE
C. Polyvinyl siloxane D. Alginate
200. What part of the denture bearing area provides
best continuous vertical support to the mandibular
denture?

193. Group function occlusion is most acceptable

A. Buccal shelf area B. Retromolar pad
for
C. Crest of ridge D. All impression ridge
A. A young person with steep cuspal inclines in the
posterior teeth
B. A patient whose cuspid is worn and shows no evidence
of traumatic occlusion
C. A patient wearing a posterior maxillary free end saddle
RPD that does not include the cuspid as an abutment
D. A patient that has experienced mobility in the
maxillary premolars due to excursive contacts

194. The most common error in preparing as

anterior tooth for a ceramometal crown is
A. Insufficient facial reduction
B. Insufficient lingual reduction
C. Insufficient proximal reduction
D. Insufficient incisal reduction
195. When performing crown lengthening surgery,
the dentist should insure that the distance between
the anticipated margin of the restoration and the
alveolar crest be no less than
A. 2 mm on the interproximal surfaces
B. 3 mm on the interproximal surfaces
C. 1 mm on all surfaces D. 3 mm on all surfaces

www.ideasclasses.com |
e-mail
help@ideasclasses.com, | Helpline-09341990113 10