Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 66

Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Critical Care
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A 68-year-old patient has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days and has a nursing diagnosis
of disturbed sensory perception related to sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse
include in the plan of care?
a. Administer prescribed sedatives or opioids at bedtime to promote sleep.
b. Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods.
c. Silence the alarms on the cardiac monitors to allow 30- to 40-minute naps.
d. Eliminate assessments between 0100 and 0600 to allow uninterrupted sleep.
ANS: B
Clustering nursing activities and providing uninterrupted rest periods will minimize sleep-
cycle disruption. Sedative and opioid medications tend to decrease the amount of rapid eye
movement (REM) sleep and can contribute to sleep disturbance and disturbed sensory
perception. Silencing the alarms on the cardiac monitors would be unsafe in a critically ill
patient, as would discontinuing assessments during the night.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1601

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
2. Which hemodynamic parameter is most appropriate for the nurse to monitor to determine the
effectiveness of medications given to a patient to reduce left ventricular afterload?
a. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
ANS: B
Systemic vascular resistance reflects the resistance to ventricular ejection, or afterload. The
other parameters will be monitored, but do not reflect afterload as directly.

TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
3. While family members are visiting, a patient has a respiratory arrest and is being resuscitated.
Which action by the nurse is best?
a.Tell the family members that watching the resuscitation will be very stressful.
b.Ask family members if they wish to remain in the room during the resuscitation.
c.Take the family members quickly out of the patient room and remain with them.
d.Assign a staff member to wait with family members just outside the patient room.
ANS: B
Research indicates that family members want the option of remaining in the room during
procedures such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and that this decreases anxiety and
facilitates grieving. The other options may be appropriate if the family decides not to remain
with the patient.
TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
4. Following surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patients central venous pressure
(CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action is a priority for the nurse to take?
a.Administer IV diuretic medications.
b.Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol.
c.Document the CVP and continue to monitor.
d.Elevate the head of the patients bed to 45 degrees.
ANS: B
A low CVP indicates hypovolemia and a need for an increase in the infusion rate. Diuretic
administration will contribute to hypovolemia and elevation of the head may decrease cerebral
perfusion. Documentation and continued monitoring is an inadequate response to the low
CVP.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter is most appropriate
for the nurse to monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
a. Central venous pressure (CVP)
b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
ANS: C
PVR is a major contributor to pulmonary hypertension, and a decrease would indicate that
pulmonary hypertension was improving. The other parameters also may be monitored but do
not directly assess for pulmonary hypertension.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1603-1604

6. The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator will determine that teaching about arterial
pressure monitoring for a new staff nurse has been effective when the nurse
a. balances and calibrates the monitoring equipment every 2 hours.
b. positions the zero-reference stopcock line level with the phlebostatic axis.
c. ensures that the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat for all readings.
d. rechecks the location of the phlebostatic axis when changing the patients position.
ANS: B
For accurate measurement of pressures, the zero-reference level should be at the phlebostatic
axis. There is no need to rebalance and recalibrate monitoring equipment hourly. Accurate
hemodynamic readings are possible with the patients head raised to 45 degrees or in the
prone position. The anatomic position of the phlebostatic axis does not change when patients
are repositioned.

TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
7. When monitoring for the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall
myocardial infarction, the most important information for the nurse to obtain is
a.central venous pressure (CVP).
b.systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
c.pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).
d.pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).
ANS: D
PAWP reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure (or left ventricular preload) and is a
sensitive indicator of cardiac function. Because the patient is high risk for left ventricular
failure, the PAWP must be monitored. An increase will indicate left ventricular failure. The
other values would also provide useful information, but the most definitive measurement of
changes in cardiac function is the PAWP.

8. Which action is a priority for the nurse to take when the low pressure alarm sounds for a
patient who has an arterial line in the left radial artery?
a. Fast flush the arterial line.
b. Check the left hand for pallor.
c. Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.
d. Rezero the monitoring equipment.
ANS: C
The low pressure alarm indicates a drop in the patients blood pressure, which may be caused
by cardiac dysrhythmias. There is no indication to rezero the equipment. Pallor of the left
hand would be caused by occlusion of the radial artery by the arterial catheter, not by low
pressure. There is no indication of a need for flushing the line.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
9. Which action will the nurse need to do when preparing to assist with the insertion of a
pulmonary artery catheter?
a. Determine if the cardiac troponin level is elevated.
b. Auscultate heart and breath sounds during insertion.
c. Place the patient on NPO status before the procedure.
d. Attach cardiac monitoring leads before the procedure.
ANS: D
Dysrhythmias can occur as the catheter is floated through the right atrium and ventricle, and it
is important for the nurse to monitor for these during insertion. Pulmonary artery catheter
insertion does not require anesthesia, and the patient will not need to be NPO. Changes in
cardiac troponin or heart and breath sounds are not expected during pulmonary artery catheter
insertion.

10. When assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that
the catheter is correctly placed when the monitor shows a
a. typical PA pressure waveform.
b. tracing of the systemic arterial pressure.
c. tracing of the systemic vascular resistance.
d. typical PA wedge pressure (PAWP) tracing.
ANS: D
The purpose of a PA line is to measure PAWP, so the catheter is floated through the pulmonary
artery until the dilated balloon wedges in a distal branch of the pulmonary artery, and the
PAWP readings are available. After insertion, the balloon is deflated and the PA waveform will
be observed. Systemic arterial pressures are obtained using an arterial line and the systemic
vascular resistance is a calculated value, not a waveform.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1608

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
11. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a right radial
arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take immediate action?
a. The right hand is cooler than the left hand.
b. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 77 mm Hg.
c. The system is delivering 3 mL of flush solution per hour.
d. The flush bag and tubing were last changed 3 days previously.
ANS: A
The change in temperature of the left hand suggests that blood flow to the left hand is
impaired. The flush system needs to be changed every 96 hours. A mean arterial pressure
(MAP) of 75 mm Hg is normal. Flush systems for hemodynamic monitoring are set up to
deliver 3 to 6 mL/hour of flush solution.

12. The central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) is decreasing in a patient who has severe
pancreatitis. To determine the possible cause of the decreased ScvO2, the nurse assesses the
patients
a. lipase.
b. temperature.
c. urinary output.
d. body mass index.
ANS: B
Elevated temperature increases metabolic demands and oxygen use by tissues, resulting in a
drop in oxygen saturation of central venous blood. Information about the patients body mass
index, urinary output, and lipase will not help in determining the cause of the patients drop in
ScvO2.

13. An intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock.
Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are
being met?
a. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
b. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
c. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min
d. Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat
ANS: C
A CO of 5 L/min is normal and indicates that the IABP has been successful in treating the
shock. The low SV signifies continued cardiogenic shock. The tachycardia and low urine
output also suggest continued cardiogenic shock.

14. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraaortic balloon pump in place. Which action
should be included in the plan of care?
a. Position the patient supine at all times.
b. Avoid the use of anticoagulant medications.
c. Measure the patients urinary output every hour.
d. Provide passive range of motion for all extremities.
ANS: C
Monitoring urine output will help determine whether the patients cardiac output has
improved and also help monitor for balloon displacement. The head of the bed can be elevated
up to 30 degrees. Heparin is used to prevent thrombus formation. Limited movement is
allowed for the extremity with the balloon insertion site to prevent displacement of the
balloon.

15. While waiting for cardiac transplantation, a patient with severe cardiomyopathy has a
ventricular assist device (VAD) implanted. When planning care for this patient, the nurse
should anticipate
a. giving immunosuppressive medications.
b. preparing the patient for a permanent VAD.
c. teaching the patient the reason for complete bed rest.
d. monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection.
ANS: D
The insertion site for the VAD provides a source for transmission of infection to the
circulatory system and requires frequent monitoring. Patients with VADs are able to have
some mobility and may not be on bed rest. The VAD is a bridge to transplantation, not a
permanent device. Immunosuppression is not necessary for nonbiologic devices like the VAD.

16. To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best
initial action by the nurse is to
a. auscultate for the presence of bilateral breath sounds.
b. obtain a portable chest x-ray to check tube placement.
c. observe the chest for symmetric chest movement with ventilation.
d. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor to check for placement in the trachea.
ANS: D
End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement.
Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion are also used, but they
are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is
done after the tube is secured.

17. To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on
mechanical ventilation, the nurse should
a.inflate the cuff with a minimum of 10 mL of air.
b.inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon is firm on palpation.
c.inject air into the cuff until a manometer shows 15 mm Hg pressure.
d.inject air into the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation.
ANS: D
The minimal occluding volume technique involves injecting air into the cuff until an air leak
is present only at peak inflation. The volume to inflate the cuff varies with the ET and the
patients size. Cuff pressure should be maintained at 20 to 25 mm Hg. An accurate assessment
of cuff pressure cannot be obtained by palpating the pilot balloon.

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
18. The nurse notes premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) while suctioning a patients
endotracheal tube. Which action by the nurse is a priority?
a. Decrease the suction pressure to 80 mm Hg.
b. Document the dysrhythmia in the patients chart.
c. Stop and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
d. Give antidysrhythmic medications per protocol.
ANS: C
Dysrhythmias during suctioning may indicate hypoxemia or sympathetic nervous system
stimulation. The nurse should stop suctioning and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
Lowering the suction pressure will decrease the effectiveness of suctioning without improving
the hypoxemia. Because the PVCs occurred during suctioning, there is no need for
antidysrhythmic medications (which may have adverse effects) unless they recur when the
suctioning is stopped and patient is well oxygenated.

19. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient receiving
mechanical ventilation indicates the need for suctioning?
a. The patients oxygen saturation is 93%.
b. The patient was last suctioned 6 hours ago.
c. The patients respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute.
d. The patient has occasional audible expiratory wheezes.
ANS: C
The increase in respiratory rate indicates that the patient may have decreased airway clearance
and requires suctioning. Suctioning is done when patient assessment data indicate that it is
needed, not on a scheduled basis. Occasional expiratory wheezes do not indicate poor airway
clearance, and suctioning the patient may induce bronchospasm and increase wheezing. An
oxygen saturation of 93% is acceptable and does not suggest that immediate suctioning is
needed.

20. The nurse notes thick, white secretions in the endotracheal tube (ET) of a patient who is
receiving mechanical ventilation. Which intervention will be most effective in addressing this
problem?
a. Increase suctioning to every hour.
b. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
c. Add additional water to the patients enteral feedings.
d. Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning.
ANS: C
Because the patients secretions are thick, better hydration is indicated. Suctioning every hour
without any specific evidence for the need will increase the incidence of mucosal trauma and
would not address the etiology of the ineffective airway clearance. Instillation of saline does
not liquefy secretions and may decrease the SpO2. Repositioning the patient is appropriate but
will not decrease the thickness of secretions.

21. Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated for a patient with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD), the patients arterial blood gas (ABG) results include a pH of
7.51, PaO2 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The
nurse will anticipate the need to
a. increase the FIO2.
b. increase the tidal volume.
c. increase the respiratory rate.
d. decrease the respiratory rate.
ANS: D
The patients PaCO2 and pH indicate respiratory alkalosis caused by too high a respiratory
rate. The PaO2 is appropriate for a patient with COPD and increasing the respiratory rate and
tidal volume would further lower the PaCO2.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1615-1616

22. A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressurebased cardiac output (APCO)
monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be
required?
a. The arterial pressure is 90/46.
b. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
c. The stroke volume is increased.
d. The stroke volume variation is 12%.
ANS: A
The hypotension suggests that the high intrathoracic pressure caused by the PEEP may be
decreasing venous return and (potentially) cardiac output. The other assessment data would
not be a direct result of PEEP and mechanical ventilation.

23. A nurse is weaning a 68-kg male patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) from mechanical ventilation. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the
weaning protocol should be stopped?
a. The patients heart rate is 97 beats/min.
b. The patients oxygen saturation is 93%.
c. The patient respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
d. The patients spontaneous tidal volume is 450 mL.
ANS: C
Tachypnea is a sign that the patients work of breathing is too high to allow weaning to
proceed. The patients heart rate is within normal limits, although the nurse should continue to
monitor it. An oxygen saturation of 93% is acceptable for a patient with COPD. A
spontaneous tidal volume of 450 mL is within the acceptable range.

24. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine (Levophed) IV
infusion. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be
adjusted?
a. Heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg.
c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
ANS: C
Vasoconstrictors such as norepinephrine (Levophed) will increase SVR, and this will increase
the work of the heart and decrease peripheral perfusion. The infusion rate may need to be
decreased. Bradycardia, hypotension (MAP of 56 mm Hg), and low PAWP are not associated
with norepinephrine infusion.

25. When caring for the patient with a pulmonary artery (PA) pressure catheter, the nurse observes
that the PA waveform indicates that the catheter is in the wedged position. Which action
should the nurse take next?
a. Zero balance the transducer.
b. Activate the fast flush system.
c. Notify the health care provider.
d. Deflate and reinflate the PA balloon.
ANS: D
When the catheter is in the wedge position, blood flow past the catheter is obstructed, placing
the patient at risk for pulmonary infarction. A health care provider or advanced practice nurse
should be called to reposition the catheter. The other actions will not correct the wedging of
the PA catheter.

26. When evaluating a patient with a central venous catheter, the nurse observes that the insertion
site is red and tender to touch and the patients temperature is 101.8 F. What should the nurse
plan to do next?
a. Give analgesics and antibiotics as ordered.
b. Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip.
c. Change the flush system and monitor the site.
d. Check the site more frequently for any swelling.
ANS: B
The information indicates that the patient has a local and systemic infection caused by the
catheter, and the catheter should be discontinued. Changing the flush system, giving
analgesics, and continued monitoring will not help prevent or treat the infection.
Administration of antibiotics is appropriate, but the line should still be discontinued to avoid
further complications such as endocarditis.

27. An 81-year-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable
and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the
patient has new onset confusion. The nurse will plan to
a. give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer.
b. inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.
c. notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer.
d. obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.
ANS: B
The patients history and symptoms most likely indicate delirium associated with the sleep
deprivation and sensory overload in the ICU environment. Informing the receiving nurse and
transferring the patient is appropriate. Postponing the transfer is likely to prolong the delirium.
Benzodiazepines and restraints contribute to delirium and agitation.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
28. The family members of a patient who has just been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU)
with multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action
should the nurse take next?
a. Explain ICU visitation policies and encourage family visits.
b. Immediately take the family members to the patients bedside.
c. Describe the patients injuries and the care that is being provided.
d. Invite the family to participate in a multidisciplinary care conference.
ANS: C
Lack of information is a major source of anxiety for family members and should be addressed
first. Family members should be prepared for the patients appearance and the ICU
environment before visiting the patient for the first time. ICU visiting should be
individualized to each patient and family rather than being dictated by rigid visitation policies.
Inviting the family to participate in a multidisciplinary conference is appropriate but should
not be the initial action by the nurse.

MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
29. When caring for a patient who has an arterial catheter in the left radial artery for arterial
pressurebased cardiac output (APCO) monitoring, which information obtained by the nurse
is most important to report to the health care provider?
a. The patient has a positive Allen test.
b. There is redness at the catheter insertion site.
c. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 86 mm Hg.
d. The dicrotic notch is visible in the arterial waveform.
ANS: B
Redness at the catheter insertion site indicates possible infection. The Allen test is performed
before arterial line insertion, and a positive test indicates normal ulnar artery perfusion. A
MAP of 86 is normal and the dicrotic notch is normally present on the arterial waveform.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
30. The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed holding the
endotracheal tube (ET). Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Activate the rapid response team.
b. Provide reassurance to the patient.
c. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube.
d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
ANS: D
The nurse should ensure maximal patient oxygenation by manually ventilating with a bag-
valve-mask system. Offering reassurance to the patient, notifying the health care provider
about the need to reinsert the tube, and activating the rapid response team are also appropriate
after the nurse has stabilized the patients oxygenation.

31. The nurse notes that a patients endotracheal tube (ET), which was at the 22-cm mark, is now
at the 25-cm mark and the patient is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take
next?
a. Offer reassurance to the patient.
b. Bag the patient at an FIO2 of 100%.
c. Listen to the patients breath sounds.
d. Notify the patients health care provider.
ANS: C
The nurse should first determine whether the ET tube has been displaced into the right
mainstem bronchus by listening for unilateral breath sounds. If so, assistance will be needed
to reposition the tube immediately. The other actions are also appropriate, but detection and
correction of tube malposition are the most critical actions.

32. The nurse educator is evaluating the care that a new registered nurse (RN) provides to a
patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which action by the new RN indicates the need for
more education?
a. The RN increases the FIO2 to 100% before suctioning.
b. The RN secures a bite block in place using adhesive tape.
c. The RN asks for assistance to reposition the endotracheal tube.
d. The RN positions the patient with the head of bed at 10 degrees.
ANS: D
The head of the patients bed should be positioned at 30 to 45 degrees to prevent ventilator-
associated pneumonia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
33. A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is
fighting the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
b. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
c. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device.
d. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
ANS: A
The initial response by the nurse should be to try to decrease the patients anxiety by coaching
the patient about how to coordinate respirations with the ventilator. The other actions may also
be helpful if the verbal coaching is ineffective in reducing the patients anxiety.

34. The nurse educator is evaluating the performance of a new registered nurse (RN) who is
providing care to a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation with 15 cm H2O of peak
end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which action indicates that the new RN is safe?
a. The RN plans to suction the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
b. The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient.
c. The RN tapes connection between the ventilator tubing and the ET.
d. The RN changes the ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 48 hours.
ANS: B
The closed-suction technique is used when patients require high levels of PEEP (>10 cm H2O)
to prevent the loss of PEEP that occurs when disconnecting the patient from the ventilator.
Suctioning should not be scheduled routinely, but it should be done only when patient
assessment data indicate the need for suctioning. Taping connections between the ET and the
ventilator tubing would restrict the ability of the tubing to swivel in response to patient
repositioning. Ventilator tubing changes increase the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia
(VAP) and are not indicated routinely.

OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
35. The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed
on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When
monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the health care provider immediately if
the patient develops
a. oxygen saturation of 93%.
b. respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
c. green nasogastric tube drainage.
d. increased jugular venous distention.
ANS: D
Increases in jugular venous distention in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage may
indicate an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) and that the PEEP setting is too high for this
patient. A respiratory rate of 20, O2 saturation of 93%, and green nasogastric tube drainage are
within normal limits.

36. A patient who is receiving positive pressure ventilation is scheduled for a spontaneous
breathing trial (SBT). Which finding by the nurse is most important to discuss with the health
care provider before starting the SBT?
a. New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor.
b. Enteral feedings are being given through an orogastric tube.
c. Scattered rhonchi are heard when auscultating breath sounds.
d. HYDROmorphone (Dilaudid) is being used to treat postoperative pain.
ANS: A
Myocardial ischemia is a contraindication for ventilator weaning. The ST segment elevation is
an indication that weaning should be postponed until further investigation and/or treatment for
myocardial ischemia can be done. The other information will also be shared with the health
care provider, but ventilator weaning can proceed when opioids are used for pain
management, abnormal lung sounds are present, or enteral feedings are being used.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
37. After change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse
assess first?
a. Patient who failed a spontaneous breathing trial and has been placed in a rest
mode on the ventilator
b. Patient who is intubated and has continuous partial pressure end-tidal CO2
(PETCO2) monitoring
c. Patient with a central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) of 69% while on bilevel
positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
d. Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and now has no
urine output for the last 6 hours
ANS: D
The decreased urine output may indicate acute kidney injury or that the patients cardiac
output and perfusion of vital organs have decreased. Any of these causes would require rapid
action. The data about the other patients indicate that their conditions are stable and do not
require immediate assessment or changes in their care. Continuous PETCO2 monitoring is
frequently used when patients are intubated. The rest mode should be used to allow patient
recovery after a failed SBT, and an ScvO2 of 69% is within normal limits.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1625 | 1627

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning
38. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
a. Patient who was extubated in the morning and has a temperature of 101.4 F
(38.6 C)
b. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for sleep apnea whose
respiratory rate is 16
c. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours postpercutaneous
coronary intervention who needs to void
d. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for a venous thromboembolism and has a
partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 98 sec
ANS: D
The findings for this patient indicate high risk for bleeding from an elevated (nontherapeutic)
PTT. The nurse needs to adjust the rate of the infusion (dose) per the health care providers
parameters. The patient with BiPAP for sleep apnea has a normal respiratory rate. The patient
recovering from the percutaneous coronary intervention will need to be assisted with voiding
and this task could be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel. The patient with a fever
may be developing ventilator-associated pneumonia, but addressing the bleeding risk is a
higher priority.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1600
OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning
COMPLETION
1. A patients vital signs are pulse 87, respirations 24, and BP of 128/64 mm Hg and cardiac
output is 4.7 L/min. The patients stroke volume is _____ mL. (Round to the nearest whole
number.)
ANS:
54
Stroke volume = cardiac output/heart rate

OTHER
1. When assisting with oral intubation of a patient who is having respiratory distress, in which
order will the nurse take these actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer
choice [A, B, C, D, E].)
a. Obtain a portable chest-x-ray.
b. Position the patient in the supine position.
c. Inflate the cuff of the endotracheal tube after insertion.
d. Attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the endotracheal tube.
e. Oxygenate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device for several minutes.
ANS:
E, B, C, D, A
The patient is pre-oxygenated with a bag-valve-mask system for 3 to 5 minutes before
intubation and then placed in a supine position. Following the intubation, the cuff on the
endotracheal tube is inflated to occlude and protect the airway. Tube placement is assessed
first with an end-tidal CO2 sensor, then with a chest x-ray.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraortic balloon pump (IABP) following a
massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the
IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? (Put a comma and
a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].)
a. Ensure that the IABP console has turned off.
b. Assess the patients vital signs and orientation.
c. Obtain supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter.
d. Notify the health care provider of the IABP malfunction.
ANS:
A, B, D, C
Blood in the IABP catheter indicates a possible tear in the balloon. The console will shut off
automatically to prevent complications such as air embolism. Next, the nurse will assess the
patient and communicate with the health care provider about the patients assessment and the
IABP problem. Finally, supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter may be needed, based
on the patient assessment and the decision of the health care provider.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 66

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Medical-Surgical Nursing Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems 9e Chapter 66

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Chapter 66: Nursing Management: Critical Care

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1601

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1604

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1609

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1603-1604

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1605

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1607

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1606

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1608

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1608

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1606

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1609

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1603

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1613

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1613

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1614-1615

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1615

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1617

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1615-1616

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1622-1624

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1627

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1604

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1608

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1611

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1601

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1602

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1606

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1617

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1614

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1616

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1623-1624

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1626

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1625 | 1627

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1603

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1614

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1612

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