1000 Lea Board Questions

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
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1000 questions
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1. An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police under a Reorganized Department of the
Interior and Local Government and for Other Purposes, gave way to the creation of the
country's police force that is national in scope and civilian in character. It is administered and
controlled by the National Police Commission.
a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. Act 4864
2. A graduate of the U.S. Military Academy, a regular captain but then a Lieutenant Colonel of
the U.S. Cavalry Volunteers in the Philippines officially designated and confirms by the
Commission as Chief of Constabulary in 1901.
a. Howard Taft
b. Henry T. Allen
c. Lapu-Lapu
d. Marcos
3. Philippine National Police Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998, the PNP was
envisioned to be a community and service oriented agency. As mandated by law, the PNP
activated the Internal Affairs Service (IAS) on June 1, 1999. It is an organization within the
structure of the PNP, and it is headed by Inspector General.
a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. Act 4864
4. By the coming of the Spaniards, the countrys police system started. The police were then
called____
a. Guardillo
b. Guardia civil
c. Safe guard
d. Manpowers
5. In 1852, it took over the peace keeping duties in the island under a Royal Decree.
a. Guardillo
b. Guardia civil
c. Safe guard
d. Manpowers
6. Manila Police was formally organized by virtue of what act of the Philippine Commission.?
a. Act no. 433
b. Act no. 413
c. Act no. 175
d. Act no. 987
7. When was Manila Police was formally organized?

a. Dec. 3, 1900
b. Jan. 9, 1901
c. Dec. 4, 1903
d. Mar. 6, 1967
8. He was appointed PC Chief in December 1917. Thus, for the first time in sixteen (16) years of
existence, the Constabulary was placed under Filipino leadership.
a. Taft
b. Henry T. Allen
c. Brig. Gen. Rafael T. Crame
d. Marcos
9. He issued an Executive Order creating all insular police called Military Police Command,
USAFFE pursuant to USAFFE General Orders Nos. 50 & 51, re-designated it as Military Police
Command, AFWESPAC. This idea was conceived to restore the bad image of the Constabulary
during the Japanese occupation when these constables were made to run after the guerrillas.
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Elpidio Quirino
c. Sergio Osmea
d. Diosdado Macapagal
10. The Administrative Code of the Philippines, promulgated on____________, provided for the
constitution of police forces in every cities and municipalities with the officers and members
thereof being appointed by the Mayors with the consent of the City or Municipal Council. Under
this set-up the police are primarily a political entity that tended to serve the wills of those in
power.
a. October 4, 1990
b. August 5, 1903
c. September 10, 1955
d. January 4, 1978
11. Known as the Police Act of 1966 was enacted, by virtue of which, National Police
Commission was created, vested with the power to supervise and control the police forces all
over the country. Under this act the administration, control and disciplinary measures, including
training of each member are placed under the exclusive jurisdiction of the NAPOLCOM.
a. R.A 6975
b. R.A 8551
c. R.A 7456
d. R.A 4864
12. He proclaimed Martial Law throughout the country by virtue of Proclamation No. 1081, and
subsequently Presidential Decree No. 765 was put into effect on August 8, 1975.
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Elpidio Quirino
c. Ferdinand Marcos
d. Diosdado Macapagal
13. The state shall establish and maintain one police force, which shall be national in scope and
civilian in character, to be administered and controlled by the NAPOLCOM. The authority of
local executives over the police units in their respective jurisdiction shall be provided by the law
a. Sec. 6, Art XVI in the 1987 Constitution
b. Sec 3, ART X in the 1935 Constitution
c. Sec 6, Art XI in the 1987 Constitution
d. Sec 6, Art XVIII in the 1987 Constitution
14. It is a form of human association for the attainment of a goal or objective. It is the process of
identifying and grouping the work to be performed, defining and delegating responsibility and
authority establishing relationships for the purpose of enabling people work effectively.
a. Administration
b. Organization
c. Police Organization
d. Management
15. Is a group of trained personnel in the field of public safety administration engaged in the
achievement of goals and objectives that promotes the maintenance of peace and order,
protection of life and property, enforcement of the laws and the prevention of crimes?
a. Administration
b. Organization
d. Management
16. Which is not belonging to the functional units?

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section
17. Which is not belonging to the territorial units?

a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit
18. Functional group within a section; or the smallest functional group within an organization.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit
19. The largest organic functional unit within a large department. It comprises of numbers of
divisions
a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section
20. Functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section
21. Primary subdivision of a bureau

a. Post
b. Bureau
c. Division
d. Section
22. A section or territorial division of a large city each comprised of designated districts.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. area
d. unit
23. A geographical subdivision of a city for patrol purposes, usually with its own station.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District
24. An area containing two or more beats, routes, or posts.
a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District
25. An area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.

a. Post
b. Beat
c. Sector
d. District
26. A length of streets designated for patrol purposes. It is also called LINE BEAT
a. Post
b. Route
c. Sector
d. District
27. A fixed point or location to which an officer is assigned for duty, such as a designated desk
or office or an intersection or cross walk from traffic duty. It is a spot location for general guard
duty.
a. Post
b. Route
c. Sector
d. District
28. It is usually a written communication unless otherwise specifies to be verbal; verbal should
be confirmed by written communication.
a. Data
b. Record
c. Report
d. Files
29. An instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate.

a. command
b. required
c. order
d. direction
30. All personnel of the police department who have oath and who possess the power to arrest.
a. Arresting officer
b. Officer in charge
c. Sworn officer
d. power officer
31. One having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over officers of
lower rank.
a. Supervisor
b. Superior officer
c. Superintendent
d. Chief
32. An officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an area, or a district.
a. Superior officer
b. Commanding officer
c. Ranking officer
d. Chief officer
33. The officer who has the more senior rank/higher rank in a team or group.
a. Superior officer
b. Commanding officer
c. Ranking officer
d. Chief officer
34. The period of time that has elapsed since the oath of office was administered. Previous active
services may be included or added.
a. length of service
b. service oriented
c. service period
d. police service
35. The period when an officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty.
a. off duty
b. on duty
c. present duty
d. 24 hours duty
36. The nature of which the police officer is free from specific routine duty.
a. off duty
b. on duty
c. free time duty
d. 24 hours at home
37. The police service, its nature, which requires that the officer be excused from the
performance of his active regular duty.
a. Special duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
d. off duty with excused letter
38. Period, which an officer is excused from active duty by any valid/acceptable reason,
approved by higher authority.
a. Valid excuse
b. Leave of absence
c. excused duty
39. Period which an officer is excused from active duty by reason of illness or injury.
a. Disability excused duty
b. Sick leave
c. excused duty
40. A consequence of an act which temporarily deprives an officer from the privilege of
performing his duties as result of violating directives or other department regulations.
a. Consequence duty deprivation
b. Suspension
c. Deprivation duty
d. Temporary off duty
41. Rules established by department directors/supervisors to control the conduct of the members
of the police force.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual
42. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of officers assigned to specified post or
position.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d. Duty manual
43. Which is not belonging to the following orders by ranking officer?

a. General order
b. Special order
c. Court order
d. Personal order
44. The straight line organization, often called the individual, military or departmental type of
organization.
a. Staff organization
b. Line organization
c. Functional organization
d. Auxiliary organization
45. Rarely found in present day organizations, except at or near the top of the very large
organizations.
46. The simplest and perhaps the oldest type; but it is seldom encountered in its channels of
authority and responsibility extends in a direct line from top to bottom within the structures,
47. Combination of the line and functional types. It combines staff specialist such as the
criminalists, the training officers, the research and development specialists, etc.
b. Line and staff organization
48. Authority is definite and absolute.

49. Limited to the particular activity over which he has control, regardless of who performs the
function.
50. Channels of responsibility is to think and provide expertise for the line units.
51. It also has some inherent weaknesses which, for many organizations, make its use
impractical. Perhaps its greatest advantage is that, it is utterly simple.
52. It involves a division of the work into units of eighth person with a person in charge who has
complete control and who can be hold directly responsible or accountable for results, or lack of
them.
53. It combines staff specialist or units with line organization so that service of knowledge can
be provided line personnel by specialist.
54. The backbone of the police department.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
c. Auxiliary functions
d. primary functions
55. Those operations designed to support the line functions.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
56. The logistical operations of the department.

a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
57. These include training, communications, jailing, maintenance, record keeping, motor
vehicles, and similar operations.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
58. They include such operations as patrol, criminal investigation, and traffic control, as well as
supervision of the personnel performing those operations.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
59. Patrol officer, the detective, the sergeant, the lieutenant, the captain, and the chief of police.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
c. Auxiliary members
d. primary members
60. Advisors who are typically assigned to planning, research, legal advice, budgeting, and
educational services.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
d. primary members
61. Carrying out the majors purposes of the police department.

a. Line members
b. Staff members
d. primary members
62. Delivering the services provided by the department.

a. Line members
b. Staff members
d. primary members
63. Often civilians with specialized training who serve within the department but do not deal
with daily operations on the street.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
d. primary members
64. Their main function is to study police policies and practices and to offer proposals to the
chief executive of the department.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
65. Highly specialized, involved in an advisory capacity. Detached from the public and not
directly responsible for the decisions made by department executive.
a. Line functions
b. Staff functions
66. Dealing directly with the departments clientele. Making final decisions with respect to the
activities they perform.
a. Line members
b. Staff members
d. primary members
67. The grouping of activities and segregation of line, staff, and auxiliary functions are large-
scale examples.
a. Line functions
b. Specialization
68. Important in all organizations, since it must be expected that some members will know more,
perform better and contribute more in one area of activity than in others, Disparities in job ability
among persons may be the result of physical attributes, mental aptitude, skills, interests
education, training, motivation, or adaptation, among other factors.
a. Line functions
b. Specialization
69. The norms and values that characterize a culture.

a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
70. The ideas behind the concept of a market economy such as private ownership of property,
economic freedom, competitive markets and a limited role for government.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
71. Governmental regulations play significant role in how organizations choose to manage
themselves.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
72. Influenced management theory in areas such as motivation and leadership.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
73. Influenced management theory in the areas of environmental analysis, planning, control,
organization design and employee rights.
a. Social forces
b. Economic forces
c. Political forces
d. Arm forces
74. If all persons within an organization were given the freedom to do what they like and to
refuse to do what they dislike, there would be little likelihood of accomplishment.
a. Hierarchy of authority
b. Security authority
c. Command responsibility
d. Unity of command
75. The maximum number of subordinates at a given position that superior can supervise
effectively.
a. Span of Control
d. Unity of command
76. The right to command and control the behavior of employees in lower positions within an
organizational hierarchy.
a. Authority
d. Unity of command
77. Any collaborative effort such as that in a police department thus requires a system of checks
and controls on individual behavior. Hence, the department must have a person or persons with
authority to direct the actions of workers and ensure compliance with standards in order to
achieve the departments goals.
a. Hierarchy of authority
d. Unity of command
78. The formal relationship among superiors and subordinates in any given organization.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control
79. It can be illustrated by the situation in which a subordinate abstains from making his or her
choice among several courses of action and instead automatically accepts the choice made by the
supervisor regardless of whether one personally agrees.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control
80. Effective organization requires that only a manageable number of subordinates be supervised
by one person at any given time.
a. Span of Control
d. Unity of command
81. It can be visualized as a ladder, with each rank representing a higher or lower level of
authority.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control
82. A hierarchy thus serves as the framework for the flow of authority downward and obedience
upward through the department.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control
83. Any particular position of the ladder is expected to direct and control the activities of the
ranks, while obeying the directions and instructions received from higher ranks.
a. Hierarchy
b. Authority
c. Command
d. Control
84. This number will, of course, vary not only from one organization to another depending on
each organizations definition of effective supervision but also within each organization
depending on the number of task and the size of personnel available at a given time.
a. Span of Control
d. Unity of command
85. The conferring of an amount of authority by a superior position onto a lower-level position.
a. Delegation
d. Unity of command
86. The process of sharing understanding and information on common subjects. More precisely,
it is an intercourse between, through or more people by means of words, letters symbols, or
gestures for the purpose of exchanging information.
a. Procedure
b. Communication
c. Globalization
d. Bluetooth
87. These are the essential to effective communication within such large organization. Except
a. Procedure
b. Channels
c. Standardized language
d. Rapport
88. The backbone of any organizational structure.

a. Delegation
d. Unity of command
89. The person to whom authority is delegated becomes responsible to the superior for doing the
assigned job. However, they remain accountable for accomplishment of the job within the
guidelines and quality standards of the agency.
a. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of command
90. Organizations that are highly structured.

a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization
c. Informal organization
d. Good organization
91. Organizations that are those without structure.

a. Formal organizations
b. Proper organization
c. Informal organization
d. Good organization
92. Which statement is true?
a. The police organization are governed by only principle of unity of command
b. No formal or informal police organization governed by principles.
c. Every formal police organization whether small or large are governed by principles.
d. Every police organization has few principles.
93. Shows the vertical hierarchy of the organization which defines an unbroken chain of units
from top to bottom describing explicitly the flow of authority.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar principle
d. Individual principle
94. Organization is effective if it enables the individuals to contribute to the organizations

objectives.
c. Scalar principle
95. Organization structure is effective if it is structured in such a way to aid the accomplishment
of the organizations objectives with a minimum cost.
c. Scalar principle
96. This is the scalar principle.

a. Line authority and change of command
b. Span of Control
c. Delegation of authority
d. Unity of Command
e. All of the above
97. This principle of organization suggests that communications should ordinarily go upward
through established channels in the hierarchy. Diverting orders, directives, or reports around a
level of command usually has disastrous effects on efficiency of the organization.
b. Span of Control
d. Unity of Command
98. A supervisor over personnel or units shall not mean more than what he can effectively direct
and coordinate. In span of control, levels of authority shall be kept to a minimum.
b. Span of Control
d. Unity of Command
99. Shall carry with it a commensurate authority and the person to whom the authority is
delegated shall be held accountable therefore. It implies that delegation must carry with it
appropriate responsibility.
b. Span of Control
d. Unity of Command
100. Explains that subordinates should only be under the control of one superior.
b. Span of Control
d. Unity of Command
101. Division of work according to type, place, time and specialization.

a. Functional principle
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of balance
d. Principle of delegation by results
102. System of varied functions arrange into a workable pattern. The line organization is
responsible for the direct accomplishment of the objectives while the staff is responsible for
support, advisory or facilitative capacity.
b. Line and staff
103. The main traditional purpose of the police.

a. To protect the celebrities
b. To protect the authority or the government
c. To protect the president only
d. To protect the property
104. The application of principles must be balanced to ensure the effectiveness of the structure
in meeting organizations objectives.
b. Line and staff
105. Police organization is effective and efficient.

a. The police is 24 hours duty
b. The more people arrested and thrown in jail
c. The more victims of crime
d. Crime prevention
106. Authority delegated should be adequate to ensure the ability to accomplish expected results.
b. Line and staff
107. Explains that the responsibility of the subordinates to their superior for performance is
absolute and the superior cannot escape responsibility for the organization on activities
performed by their subordinates.
b. Line and staff
c. Principles of Absoluteness of Responsibility
108. Role of police that focused on solving crimes.

a. Traditional
b. Community
c. National
d. International
109. Explains that responsibility for action cannot be greater than that implied by the authority
delegated nor should it be less.
b. Line and staff
d. Principle of Parity and Responsibility
110. Implies that decisions within the authority of the individual commander should be made by
them and not be returned upward in the organizational structure.
b. Line and staff
d. Authority Level Principle
111. The more flexible the organization, the more it can fulfill its purpose.
b. Line and staff
c. Principle of Flexibility
112. The role of police that focused on crime control.

a. Traditional
b. Community
c. National
d. International
113. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is S?

a. Salute
b. Special
c. Situation
d. Smart
114. A piece or pad of blotting papers of a book in which transaction happenings are noted
before being permanently recorded.
a. Police blotter
b. Police report
c. Police handbook
d. Blotter
115. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is C?

a. Cooperation
b. Conduct
c. Command/Control
d. Cops
116. The book of records, public records which every police station/officer is mandated to
possess for future reference.
a. Police blotter
b. Police report
c. Police handbook
d. Blotter
117. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is M.E.A?

a. Management, Exercise, Action
b. Mission, Execution, Administration/Equipment
c. Must, Exercise, Action
d. Management, Execution, Administration
118. The force should be organized primarily according to the nature of the basis to be
performed. It should be divided into groups so that similar and related duties may be assigned to
each.
a. According to function
b. According to level of authority
c. According to time frame
d. According to place of work
119. The elements are divided into many shifts or watches according to the time of the day. This
is the most elementary form of police organization. Any large functional unit can also be
organized according to time if the demand exists.
120. A territorial distribution of a platoon, accomplished by assigning patrolman on beats, is

necessary to facilitate the direction and control of the officers and to ensure suitable patrol
service at every point within the jurisdiction. Patrolman on street duty is usually under the
supervision of a patrol sergeant. When the number of patrolmen is great, it may be desirable to
divide them into squads assigned to specific sectors of jurisdiction, with a sergeant in charge of
each squad.
121. A police department is always divided according to the level of authority. Example, there
will be some patrolmen, sergeants, some lieutenants, some captains, and so on. Vertical
combinations of superior officers, with each rank at a different level of authority from any other,
from channels through which operations may be directed and controlled can be adopted in
certain cases to ensure coordination.
122. Work specialization can increase efficiency with the same amount of effort.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Division of Work
d. Centralization
123. Compensation should be fair to both the employee and the employer.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Remuneration of personnel
d. Centralization
124. Employees should be treated with kindness and justice.

a. Equity
b. Unity of Command
c. Remuneration of personnel
d. Centralization
125. The objective is to pursue the optimum utilization of the capabilities of personnel.
a. Discipline
b. Unity of Command
c. Division of Work
d. Centralization
126. How many deputy chiefs that will assist the Chief PNP?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 1
127. Power to supervise and control the police forces all over the country.
a. NBI
b. NAPOLCOM
c. AFP
d. Legislative
128. Equivalent rank of Director General in AFP ranks?

a. Director
b. General
c. Brigadier General
d. Deputy director
129. How many directorial staff in PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 10
c. 15
d. 16
130. What is the AFP rank of PO1?

a. Private
b. Private first class
c. Sergeant
d. Corporal
131. What is the AFP rank of SPO1?

a. Private
b. Private first class
c. Sergeant
d. Corporal
132. How many administrative units of PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 11
c. 12
d. 15
133. The process of setting performance objectives and identifying the actions needed to
accomplish them.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling
134. The process of directing and coordinating the work efforts of other people to help them
accomplish the task.
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling
135. What is the AFP rank of Inspector?

a. Captain
b. Major
c. Lieutenant
d. Master Sergeant
136. The process of dividing work to be done and coordinating results to achieve desired purpose
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling
137. How many operational units in PNP organization?

a. 13
b. 11
c. 12
d. 15
138. What is the AFP rank of superintendent?

a. Colonel
b. Lieutenant colonel
c. General
d. Brigadier general
139. An act extending for five years the reglementary period for complying with the minimum
educational qualification for appointment to the PNP and adjusting the promotion system thereof
is amending for the purpose pertinent provisions of R.A 6975 and R.A. 8551 and for other
purposes.
a. Act no. 175
b. R.A 6507
c. R.A 9708
d. Act no. 768
140. A law for honor students

a. P.D 093
b. P.D 907
c. R.A 6507
d. R.A 6506
141. Police-to-population ratio in highly urbanized cities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050
142. Board and Bar examination.

a. P.D 093
b. R.A 1080
c. R.A 6507
d. R.A 6506
143. Police-to-population ratio in component cities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050
144. What is the AFP rank of SPO2?

a. Captain
b. Major
c. Staff sergeant
d. Master Sergeant
145. Police-to-population ratio in municipalities.

a. 1:500 to 700
b. 1: 650 to 800
c. 1:750 to 1000
d. 1: 850 to 1050
146. On the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in
accordance with a police-to-population ratio of.
a. 1:500
b. 1: 650
c. 1:750
d. 1: 850
147. Who will head the five (5) Police District Offices (PDO) of the National Capital Region
(NCR)?
a. Director general
b. District director
c. Regional director
d. Provincial director
148. Who will head the Police Provincial Office (PPO) corresponding to all provinces
throughout the country?
a. Director general
d. Provincial director
149. Who will head City/Provincial Public Safety Company (C/PPSC)?

a. Director general
d. Group director
150. Who shall have the command and direction over City Police Office (CPO) of highly
urbanized cities outside of NCR?
a. Director general
d. Group director
151. Law for Licensed criminologist.

a. P.D 093
b. R.A 1080
c. R.A 6507
d. R.A 6506
152. The Office of the Inspector General, Internal Affairs Service (IG, IAS), Program
Management Office (PMO), and Public Information Office (PIO), which are all under the office
of.
a. Director general
c. Chief PNP
d. Group director
153. Which is not a power and functions of PNP?

a. Enforce all laws and ordinances relative to the protection of lives and properties of authority
only.
b. Supervise and control the training and operation of security agencies and issue licenses to
operate security agencies, and to security guards and private detectives for the practice of their
profession
c. Issue licenses for the possession of firearms and explosives in accordance with law.
d. Exercise the general powers to make arrest, search and seizure in accordance with the
Constitution and pertinent Laws
154. The PNP is a nationwide government organization whose jurisdiction covers the entire
breath of the Philippines archipelago which extends up to the municipality of Kalayaan islands in
the province of Palawan.
a. Civilian in character
b. PNP jurisdiction
c. National in scope
d. Generality
155. PNP is not a part of the military. Although, it retains some military attributes such as
discipline, it shall adopt unique non-military cultures, Code of Ethics, and Standard of
Professional conduct comparable to the civilian police forces of other countries.
a. Civilian in character
b. PNP jurisdiction
c. National in scope
d. Generality
156. Provide technical services to the Commission in areas of overall policy formulation,
strategic and operational planning, management systems or procedures, evaluation and
monitoring of the Commission's programs, projects and internal operations; and shall conduct
thorough research and analysis on social and economic conditions affecting peace and order in
the country.
a. Planning and research service
b. Legal Affair Service
c. Crime Prevention and Coordinating Service
d. Personnel and Administrative service
157. Shall undertake criminological researches and studies; formulate a national crime
prevention plan; develop a crime prevention and information program and provide editorial
direction for all criminology research and crime prevention publications
158. Shall provide the Commission with efficient and effective service as legal counsel of the
Commission; draft or study contracts affecting the Commission and submit appropriate
recommendations pertaining thereto; and render legal opinions arising from the administration
and operation of the Philippine National Police and the Commission
159. Shall perform personnel functions for the Commission, administer the entrance and
promotional examinations for policemen, provide the necessary services relating to records,
correspondence, supplies, property and equipment, security and general services, and the
maintenance and utilization of facilities, and provide services relating to manpower, career
planning and development, personnel transactions and employee welfare
160. Shall conduct continuous inspection and management audit of personnel, facilities and
operations at all levels of command of the PNP, monitor the implementation of the Commission's
programs and projects relative to law enforcement; and monitor and investigate police anomalies
and irregularities
d. The Inspection, Monitoring and Investigation Service
161. Shall review the Commission's plans and programs and formulate policies and procedures
regarding acquisition, inventory, control, distribution, maintenance and disposal of supplies and
shall oversee the implementation of programs on transportation facilities and installations and the
procurement and maintenance of supplies and equipment.
b. The Installations and Logistics Service
162. Maximum tenure for Chief PNP.

a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 5 years
163. Maximum tenure for Provincial director/ City Director

a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 5 years
164. Maximum tenure for Deputy Chief.

a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 5 years
165. Maximum tenure for Regional director?

a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 5 years
166. Maximum tenure for Director of Staff service.

a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 9 years
d. 5 years
167. The anti-crime machinery

a. Napolcom
b. CJS
c. IAS
d. Court
168. Rendering what is due or merited and that which is due or merited.
a. Law
b. Fair
c. Justice
d. equity
169. The machinery which society uses in the prevention and control of crime. The process is
the totality of the activities of law enforcers, prosecutors, defense lawyers, judges and corrections
personnel, as well as those of the mobilized community in crime prevention and control.
a. Napolcom
b. CJS
c. IAS
d. Court
170. Integrated process primarily concerned with apprehension, prosecution, trial, adjudication,
and correction of criminal offenders.
a. Napolcom
b. CJS
c. IAS
d. Court
171. What is the correct order of CJS?

a. Community, Prosecution, Police, Court, Correction
b. Law enforcement, Correction, Court, Prosecution, Community
c. Prime mover, Defense, Judgment, Rehabilitation, Citizen
d. Law enforcement, Prosecution, Conviction, Community, Reformation
172. The broadest pillar

a. Community
b. Police
c. Prosecution
d. Court
173. An organize schedule or sequence by methodical activities intended to attain a goal and
objectives for the accomplishments of mission or assignment.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
174. Management function concerned with visualizing future situations, making estimates
concerning them, identifying issues, needs and potential danger points, analyzing and evaluating
the alternative ways and means for reaching desired goals according to a certain schedule,
estimating the necessary funds and resources to do the work, and initiating action in time to
prepare what may be needed to cope with the changing conditions and contingent events.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
175. An attempt by police administrators in trying to allocate anticipated resources to meet

anticipated service demands. It is the systematic and orderly determination of facts and events as
basis for policy formulation and decision affecting law enforcement management.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
176. It is a method or way of doing something in order to attain objectives. Plan provides answer
to 5Ws and 1 H.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
177. Specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time.
a. Objectives
b. Goals
c. Vision
d. Mission
178. The use of a rational design or pattern for all departmental undertakings rather than relying
on chance in an operational environment.
a. Plan
b. Operational Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
179. The process of preparing for change and coping with uncertainty formulating future causes
of action; the process of determining the problem of the organization and coming up with
proposed resolutions and finding best solutions.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
180. It may also be the process of formulating coordinated sequence of methodical activities and
allocation of resources to the line units of the police organization for the attainment of the
mandated objectives or goals.
a. Plan
b. Police Operational Planning
c. Police planning
d. Planning
181. It is the preparation and development of procedures and techniques in accomplishing of

each of the primary tasks and functions of an organization.
a. Plan
b. Operational Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
182. General statement of intention and typically with time horizon or it is an achievable end
state that can be measured and observed.
a. Objectives
b. Goals
c. Vision
d. Mission
183. It is the systematic and orderly determination of facts and events as basis for policy
formulation and decision affecting law enforcement management.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
184. The process of combining all aspects of the department and the realistic anticipation of
future problems, the analysis of strategy and the correlation of strategy to detail.
a. Plan
b. Planning
c. Police planning
d. Calendar
185. Broad design or method; or a plan to attain a stated goal or objectives.

a. Tactics
b. Strategy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines
186. Specific design, method or course of action to attain a particular objective in consonance
with strategy.
a. Tactics
b. Strategy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines
187. Sequences of activities to reach a point or to attain what is desired.

a. Tactics
b. Strategy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines
188. Product of prudence or wisdom in the management of human affairs, or a course of action
which could be a program of actions adopted by an individual, group, organization, or
government, or the set of principles on which they are based.
a. Tactics
b. Policy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines
189. Rules of action for the rank and file to show them how they are expected to obtain the
desired effect.
a. Tactics
b. Policy
c. Procedure
d. Guidelines
190. Series of preliminary decisions on a framework, which in turn guides subsequent decisions
that generate the nature and direction of an organization. This is usually long ranged in nature.
a. Strategic planning
b. Line planning
c. Military planning
d. Tactical planing
191. Means by which goals and objectives can be attained. They maybe policies, strategies or
specific actions aimed at eliminating a problem.
a. Way
b. Alternatives
c. Power
d. Procedure
192. The rational comprehensive approach is the dominant tradition in planning. It is also the
point of departure for most other planning approaches.
a. Synoptic Approach
b. Incremental Approach
c. Transactive Approach
d. Advocacy Approach
193. The task of planning should be detailed in a work chart that specifies on what events and
actions are necessary, when they must take place, which is to be involved in each action and for
how long, and how the various actions will interlock with one another.
a. Describe the present situation
b. Prepare for planning
c. Develop projections and consider alternative future states
d. Identify and analyze problems
194. Planning must have a mean for evaluation. Without an accurate beginning database there is
no reference point on which to formulate success or failure.
195. An attempt to link the current situation with the future, keeping in mind the desirable
outcomes. It is important for the police executive to project the current situations into the future
to determine possible, probable and desirable future states while considering the social,
legislative, and political trends existing in the community.
196. The discovery of the problems assumes that a system to monitor and evaluate the current
arena is already on place. Closely related to the detection and identification of issues is the
ability of the police to define the nature of the problem, that is to able to describe the magnitude,
cause, duration, and the expense of the issues at hand. A complete understanding of the problem
leads to the development of the means to deal with the issues.
197. Making choices about goals is one of the most important aspects of planning. It makes no
sense to establish a goal that does not address a specific problem. Remembering that the police
departments are problem oriented, choices about goals and objectives should adhere to the
synoptic model.

c. Set Goals
198. Alternatives are means by which goals and objectives can be attained. These are options or
possible things to be done in case the main or original plan is not applicable.
c. Identify alternative course of action
199. This includes the study on the courses of actions; suitability studies; feasibility studies;
acceptability studies; and judgment.
a. Suitability
b. Cost effectiveness analysis
c. Must wants analysis
d. Strategic analysis
200. Each course of action is evaluated in accordance with general policies, rules and laws.
a. Suitability
201. These include the appraisal of the effects of a number of factors weighed separately and
together.
a. Feasibility
b. Suitability
c. Acceptability
d. Liability
202. Those judged to be suitable and feasible are then analyzed in acceptability studies.
a. Feasibility
b. Suitability
c. Acceptability
d. Liability
203. This technique is sometimes called cost-benefit or cost performance analysis. The purpose
of this form of selection is that the alternative chosen should maximize the ratio of benefit to
cost.
a. Suitability
204. This method of selecting a preferred course of action combines the strengths of both
strategic and cost effectiveness analysis.
a. Suitability
205. Concerned with both the subjective weights of suitability, feasibility, and acceptability and
the objectives weights of cost versus benefits.
a. Suitability
206. The police administrator must be aware that the implementation requires a great deal of
tact and skill. It may be more important how an alternative is introduced to a police department
than what actually is.
a. Plan and carryout implementation
b. Monitor and evaluate progress
c. Summation of synoptic planning approach
d. Repeat the planning process
207. This can be done by making a summary of the presentation, could be tabular or other forms
of presentation.
208. Repetition of the process of planning enables the planner to thresh out possible flaws in the
plan.
209. Feedback must be obtained concerning the results of the planning cycle, the efficiency of
the implementation process, and the effectiveness of new procedures, projects or programs.
210. This is an important step of synoptic planning, trying to figure out what, if anything
happened as a result of implementing a selected alternative.

211. Long range and comprehensive planning are not only too difficult, but inherently bad. The
problems are seen as too difficult when they are grouped together and easier to solve when they
are taken one at a time and broken down into gradual adjustments over time.
a. Incremental planning
b. Transactive planning
c. Advocacy planning
d. Radical planning
212. The first mainstream involves collective actions to achieve concrete results in the immediate
future. The second mainstream is critical of large-scale social processes and how they permeate
the character of social and economic life at all levels, which, in turn, determine the structure and
evolution of social problems.
d. Radical planning
213. Beneficial aspects of this approach include a greater sensitivity to the unintended and
negative side effects of plans.
d. Radical planning
214. Carried out in face-to-face interaction with the people who are to be affected by the plan
and not to an anonymous target community of beneficiaries. Techniques include field surveys
and interpersonal dialogue marked by a process of mutual learning.
d. Radical planning
215. These are the basic principles in planning, organization and management of the PNP in
support of the overall pursuits of the PNP Vision, mission and strategic action plan of the
attainment of the national objectives.
a. Fundamental doctrines
b. Operational doctrine
c. Functional doctrines
d. Primary doctrines
216. These provide guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest
such as personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics, planning, etc.
217. These are the principles and rules governing the planning, organization and direction and
employment of the PNP forces in the accomplishment of basic security operational mission in
the maintenance of peace and order, crime prevention and suppression, internal security and
public safety operation.
218. Formulated jointly by two or more bureaus in order to effect a certain operation with regard
to public safety and peace and order. These essentially involve the participation of the other
bureaus of the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP), Bureau of Fire Protection
(BFP), Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC), National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) and
other law enforcement agencies.
c. Complimentary doctrines
219. These define the fundamental principles governing the rules of conduct, attitude, behavior
and ethical norm of the PNP.
b. Ethical doctrine
220. The right to exercise, to decide, and to command by virtue of rank and position
a. Authority
b. Doctrine
c. Discipline
d. Cooperation
221. It provides for the organizations objectives. It provides the various actions. Hence, policies,
procedures, rules and regulations of the organization are based on the statement of doctrines.
a. Authority
b. Doctrine
c. Discipline
d. Cooperation
222. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to insure supportive behavior.

a. Authority
b. Doctrine
c. Discipline
d. Cooperation
223. It relates to plans which are strategic or long range in application, and it determine the
organizations original goals and strategy.
b. Intermediate or medium planning
c. Operational planning
d. Police planning
224. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and quality efforts and accomplishments. It
refers to the process of determining the contribution on efforts that can make or provide with
allocated resources.
c. Operational planning
d. Police planning
225. Refers to the production of plans, which determine the schedule of special activity and are
applicable from one week or less than year duration. Plan that addresses immediate need which
are specific and how it can be accomplished on time with available allocated resources
a. Strategic or long range planning
c. Operational or short range planning
d. Police planning
226. Anti-Crime Master Plan

a. Master Plan Sandigan-Milenyo
b. Master Plan Sandugo
c. Master Plan Banat
d. Master Plan Sang-ingat
227. Anti-Illegal Drugs Master Plan

228. Support to Internal Security Operations Master Plan

229. Security Operations Master Plan
230. Disaster Management Master Plan

d. Master Plan Saklolo
231. Protection and Preservation of Environment, Cultural Properties, and Natural Resources
Master Plan
c. Master Plan Sangyaman
232. Aviation Security Group Strategic Plan against terrorist attacks

a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. LOI Pagpapala
d. Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan
233. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG) Strategic Plan against Organized
Crime Groups
a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. LOI Pagpapala
234. Is the entry point in the conceptualization of the PNP Pastoral Program for the next five
years with a Total Human Development Approach (THD Approach).
a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. LOI Pagpapala
235. Resulted in the apprehension of 110,975 persons, the confiscation of 470 unlawfully
attached gadgets to vehicles, and rendering various forms of motorists assistance.
a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. Oplan disiplina
236. Sets forth the operational guidelines on the heightened security measures and sea borne
security patrols.
a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. Oplan disiplina
237. Developed as a result of crisis. A particular problem may occur for which the department
has no plan and must quickly develop one, sometimes without careful preparation.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Operational plans
238. Essential statements that identify the role of the police in the community and a future
condition or state to which the department can aspire. It may also include a statement of values to
be used to guide the decision making process in the department.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
239. Developed in anticipation of problems. Although not all police problems are predictable,
many are, and it is possible for a police department to prepare a response in advance.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
240. Designed to meet the long-range, overall goals of the organization. Such plans allow the
department to adapt to anticipated changes or develop a new philosophy or model of policing
(community policing).
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Strategic plans
241. Designed to meet the specific tasks required to implement strategic plans.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
242. Provide the basic framework for responding to organizational problems. The organizational
vision and values, strategic statement, policies, procedures, and rules and regulations are
examples of standing plans. Include guidelines for responding to different types of incidents; for
example, a civil disturbance, hostage situation, crime in progress, and felony car stops.
a. Reactive plans
b. Standing plans
c. Visionary plans
243. The framework for the operation of the major functional units in the organization, such as
patrol and investigations. It also includes the design of the structure, how different functions and
units are to relate and coordinate activities, and how resources are to be allocated.
a. Reactive plans
b. Functional plans
c. Visionary plans
244. The measures or comparisons to be used to assess police activities and behavior (outputs)
and results (outcomes). If one of the goals of the police department is to reduce the crime rate,
any change that occurs can be compared to past crime rates in the same community or crime in
other communities, a state, or the nation. If the crime rates were reduced while holding or
reducing costs, it would reflect an improvement not only in effectiveness but also in
departmental productivity.
a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Operational efficiency, effectiveness, and productivity plans
245. Concerned with a specific purpose and conclude when an objective is accomplished or a
problem is solved. Specific police programs or projects such as drug crackdown, crime
prevention program, and neighborhood clean-up campaign are good examples of time-specific
plans.
a. Reactive plans
b. Time Specific plans
c. Visionary plans
246. Procedures intended to be used in all situations of all kinds shall be outlined as a guide to
officers and men in the field. Examples of these procedures are those related to reporting, to
dispatching, to raids, arrest, stopping suspicious persons, receiving complaints, touring beats, and
investigation of crimes. The use of physical force and clubs, restraining devices, firearms, tear
gas and the like shall, in dealing with groups or individuals, shall also be outlined.
a. Field Procedure
b. Headquarter procedure
c. Special operation procedure
d. Tactical plans
247. Certain special operations also necessitate the preparation of procedures as guides.
Included are the operation of the special unit charged with the searching and preservation of
physical evidence at the crime scenes and accidents, the control of licenses, dissemination of
information about wanted persons, inspection of the PNP headquarters, and the like.
a. Field Procedure
d. Tactical plans
248. Included in these procedures are the duties of the dispatcher, jailer, matron, and other
personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual. Procedures that involve
coordinated action on activity of several offices, however, shall be established separately as in
the case of using telephone for local or long distance calls, the radio teletype, and other similar
devices.
a. Field Procedure
d. Tactical plans
249. These are the procedures for coping with specific situations at known locations. Included in
this category are plans for dealing with an attack against buildings with alarm systems and an
attack against the PNP headquarters by lawless elements. Plans shall be likewise be made for
blockade and jail emergencies and for special community events, such as longer public meetings,
athletic contests, parades, religious activities, carnivals, strikes, demonstrations, and other street
affairs.
a. Field Procedure
d. Tactical plans
250. These are plans for the operations of special divisions like the patrol, detective, traffic, fire
and juvenile control divisions.
a. Field Procedure
b. Operational plans
d. Tactical plans
251. These operating divisions/units shall have specific plans to meet current needs. The
manpower shall be distributed throughout the hours of operation and throughout the area of
jurisdiction in proportion to need. Assignments schedules shall be prepared that integrate such
factors as relief days, lunch periods, hours, nature, and location of regular work. Plans shall
assure suitable supervision, which become difficult when the regular assignment is integrated to
deal with this short time periodic needs.
a. Field Procedure
d. Regular Operating Programs
252. The unusual need may arise in any field of police activity and is nearly always met in the
detective, vice, and juvenile divisions by temporary readjustment of regular assignment.
a. Field Procedure
b. Meeting unusual needs
d. Tactical plans
253. The active interest and the participation of individual citizen is so vital to the success of the
PNP programs that the PNP shall continuously seek to motivate, promote, and maintain an active
public concern in its affairs.
a. Field Procedure
d. Extra- office plans
254. Plans of management shall map out in advance all operations involved in the organization
management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money
a. Field Procedure
b. Management plans
255. Present and future money needs for personnel, equipment, and capital investments must be
estimated. Plans for supporting budget request must be made if needed appropriations are to be
obtained.
a. Budget planning
b. Management plans
256. Procedures shall be established and expenditure reports be provided to assist in making
administrative decisions and in holding expenditures within the appropriations.
a. Field Procedure
c. Accounting procedure
257. Products of police operational planning adopted by the police organization to guide the
police officers in the conduct of their duties and functions, especially during field operations.
a. Standard operating procedure
b. Management plans
258. This SOP prescribes the basic procedures to be observed by all PNP Units and mobile
patrol elements in the conduct of visibility patrols. POLICE BEAT PATROL PROCEDURES
a. SOP #01
b. SOP #02
c. SOP #03
d. SOP #04
259. This SOP prescribes the guidelines in the conduct of inspections to ensure police visibility.
SIYASAT
a. SOP #01
b. SOP #02
c. SOP #03
d. SOP #04
260. This SOP prescribes the deployment of 85% of the PNP in the field to increase police
visibility and intensifies anti-crime campaign nationwide. BANTAY KALYE
a. SOP #01
b. SOP #02
c. SOP #03
d. SOP #04
261. Launched in 1992 as the peoples direct link to the police to receive public calls for
assistance and complaints for prompt action by police authorities. This SOP prescribes the
procedures in detail of Duty Officers, Telephone Operators and Radio Operators; and their term
of duty and responsibilities. REACT 166
a. SOP #01
b. SOP #02
c. SOP #03
d. SOP #04
262. LIGTAS (ANTI-KIDNAPPING) - With the creation of the Presidential Anti-Organization

Crime Task Force (PAOCTF), the PNP is now in support role in campaign against kidnapping in
terms of personnel requirements. Sets forth the PNPs guidelines in its fight against kidnapping
activities.
a. SOP #05
b. SOP #06
c. SOP #07
d. SOP #08
263. JOINT ANTI-BANK ROBBERY ACTION COMMITTEE (ANTI-BANK ROBBERY)

This SOP provides overall planning, integration, orchestration or coordination, and monitoring of
all efforts to ensure the successful implementation.
a. SOP #05
b. SOP #06
c. SOP #07
d. SOP #08
264. ANTI-TERRORISM this prescribes the operational guidelines in the conduct of operations
against terrorists and other lawless elements involved in terrorist activities.
a. SOP #05
b. SOP #06
c. SOP #07
d. SOP #08
265. ANTI-CARNAPPING This SOP prescribes the conduct of an all-out and sustained anti
carnapping campaign to stop/minimize carnapping activities, neutralize syndicated carnapping
groups, identify/prosecute government personnel involved in carnapping activities, and to
effectively address other criminal activities related to car napping.
a. SOP #05
b. SOP #06
c. SOP #07
d. SOP #8
266. MANHUNT BRAVO (NEUTRALIZATION OF WANTED PERSONS) SOP sets forth the
objectives and concept of operation tasks of all concerned units in the neutralization of wanted
persons.
a. SOP #11
b. SOP #12
c. SOP #10
d. SOP #09
267. PAGLALANSAG/PAGAAYOS-HOPE This SOP sets forth the concept of operations and
tasks of all concerned units in the campaign against Partisan Armed Groups and loose fire.
a. SOP #11
b. SOP #12
c. SOP #10
d. SOP #09
268. ANTI-HIJACKING/HIGHWAY ROBBERY This SOP sets forth the guidelines and
concepts of operations to be observed in the conduct of anti-highway robbery/hold-up/hijacking
operations.
a. SOP #11
b. SOP #12
c. SOP #10
d. SOP #09
269. ANTI-ILLEGAL GAMBLING This SOP sets forth the operational thrusts to be undertaken
by the PNP that will spearhead the fight against all forms of illegal gambling nationwide.
a. SOP #11
b. SOP #12
c. SOP #10
d. SOP #09
270. ANTI-PORNOGRAPHY - This prescribes the guidelines to be followed by tasked PNP

Units/Offices in enforcing the ban on pornographic pictures, videos and magazines.
a. SOP #16
b. SOP #14
c. SOP #15
d. SOP #13
271. JERICHO - This SOP prescribes the operational guidelines to be undertaken by the
National Headquarter (NHQ) of PNP in the establishment of a quick reaction group that can be
detailed with the office of the Secretary of Interior and Local Government (SILG), with
personnel and equipment requirements of that reaction group supported by the PNP.
a. SOP #16
b. SOP #14
c. SOP #15
d. SOP #13
272. NENA (ANTI-PROSTITUTION/VAGRANCY) This SOP sets forth the operational thrusts
to be undertaken by the PNP that will spearhead the fight against prostitution and vagrancy.
a. SOP #16
b. SOP #14
c. SOP #15
d. SOP #13
273. ANTI-SQUATTING This SOP sets forth the concept of operation in the campaign against
professional squatters and squatting syndicates.
a. SOP #16
b. SOP #14
c. SOP #15
d. SOP #13
274. GUIDELINES IN THE CONDUCT OF ARREST, SEARCH, AND SEIZURE -This SOP
prescribes the procedures and manner of conducting an arrest, raid, search and/or search of
person, search of any premises and the seizure of properties pursuant to the 1987 Philippine
Constitution, Rules of Court, as amended and updated decision of the Supreme Court.
a. SOP #17
b. SOP #20
c. SOP #19
d. SOP #18
275. SCHEMATIC DIAGRAM OF SANDIGAN MASTER PLAN

a. SOP #17
b. SOP #20
c. SOP #19
d. SOP #18
276. ANTI-ILLEGAL LOGGING

a. SOP #17
b. SOP #20
c. SOP #19
d. SOP #18
277. ANTI-ILLEGAL FISHING

a. SOP #17
b. SOP #20
c. SOP #19
d. SOP #18
278. ANTI-ILLEGAL DRUGS

a. SOP #22
b. SOP #21
c. SOP #23
d. SOP #24
279. Refers to the preparation in advance of protective and safety measures for unforeseen events
resulting from natural and human actions.
a. Disaster preparation
b. Emergency and Disaster planning
c. Planning
d. Keen plan
280. Is the accurate accomplishment of a plan as per schedule?

a. Immediate
b. Speed
c. Fast
d. Haste
281. Doing a job quickly with errors

a. Immediate
b. Speed
c. Fast
d. Haste
282. Is a sudden, unforeseen, extraordinary occurrence.
a. Emergency
b. Rescue
c. Disaster
d. Calamity
283. The disturbance or interruption shall be deemed tumultuous if caused by more than three
persons who are armed or provided with means of violence.
a. Disorder
b. Tumultuous
c. Outcry
d. Crowd
284. The means to shout subversive or proactive words tending to stir up the people to obtain by
means of force or violence.
a. Disorder
b. Tumultuous
c. Outcry
d. Crowd
285. It consists of a body of individual people with no organization, no single partnership. Each
individuals behavior is fairly controlled and ruled by reason.
a. Majority
b. Community
c. Human species
d. Crowd
286. Takes on the semblance of organization with some common motive for action, such as
revenge for a crime committed on the scene where the crowd assembled, an aggravated fight, or
a confrontation with the police. At times like this, there is already a strong feeling of
togetherness.
a. Disorder
b. Tumultuous
c. Mob
d. Crowd
287. It is a violent confusion in a crowd.

a. Disorder
b. Tumultuous
c. Mob
d. Riot
288. Unlawful assembly and riot are as contagious as a plague unless they are quarantined from
the unaffected areas of the community. In here, all persons who are at the scene should be
advised to leave the area, thereby reducing the number of potential anti-police combatants.
a. Containment
b. Dispersal
c. Prevention of entry
d. Arrest violators
289. The police have to protect the area once the people have been moved out or dissipated into
smaller groups to prevent them from returning. Enforce quarantine by not allowing the group to
resume their actions.
a. Containment
b. Dispersal
d. Arrest violators
290. One of the first acts of the police upon arrival at the scene of the disturbance is to locate and
isolate individuals who are inciting the crowd to violate or fragrantly violating the law. Prevent
any attempt by the crowd or mob to rescue those arrested by enforcing total quarantine.
a. Containment
b. Dispersal
d. Arrest violators
291. Depending upon the circumstances, it is always necessary to establish priorities. Assessing
the situation to determine the nature of assistance and number of men needed is part of the
planning process.
a. Containment
b. Dispersal
c. Establish priorities
d. Arrest violators
292. The police action in its initial stages at a riot must be dramatic. The elements of surprise
may enhance effectiveness of riot control
a. Surprise offensive
b. Security of information
c. Maximum utilization of force
d. Flexibility of assignments.
293. A show of police force should be made in a well-organized manner, compact, and efficient
in a military-type squad formations.
294. Plans for action and communications regarding the movement of personnel and equipment
should be kept confidential
295. Officers and teams should be flexibly assigned to various places where the need is greatest.
296. Keep the plan as simple as possible and the instructions are direct to avoid mass confusion
among the officers.
a. Thoughtful
b. Impressive
c. Outstanding
d. Simplicity
297. Certain psychopathic people may attempt to take advantage of the mass confusion and
excitement at a riot scene by taking a concealed position and shooting at people with some type
of weapons, usually rifle.
a. Sniper
b. Arsonist
c. Looters
d. Robber
298. Persons holding torch in their hands are potential. They must be taken into custody
immediately.
a. Sniper
b. Arsonist
c. Looters
d. Robber
299. Acts of simple misdemeanor thefts or may consists of robbery of breaking and entering.
Take the suspects into custody by whatever means are necessary.
a. Sniper
b. Arsonist
c. Looters
d. Robber
300. Shall decide cases on appeal from decisions rendered by the PNP Chief and National
Internal Affairs Service.
a. National Appellate Board
b. Regional Appellate Board
c. Napolcom
d. PLEB
301. Shall decide cases on appeal from decisions rendered by Regional Directors, Mayors and
PLEB.
c. Disciplinary Board
d. PLEB
302. Disciplinary action imposed upon the regional director or by the PLEB involving demotion
or dismissal from service may be appealed to the Regional Appellate Board.
a. Within 20 days
b. Within 15 days
c. Within 10 days
d. Within 5 days
303. Disciplinary action imposed by the PNP Chief shall be appealed to the National Appellate
Board.
a. Within 20 days
b. Within 15 days
c. Within 10 days
d. Within 5 days
304. How many days will the RAB and NAB shall decide the appeal from receipt of the notice
of appeal.
a. Within 20 days
b. Within 60 days
c. Within 40 days
d. Within 50 days
305. Shall have jurisdiction to hear and decide citizens complaint or cases filed before it against
erring officers and members of the PNP.
d. PLEB
306. The central receiving entity for all Citizens Complaint.

d. PLEB
307. It refers to any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any member of the PNP.
a. Blotter
b. Complaint
c. Citizens complaint
d. Justice
308. Refers to any individual person.

a. Juridical person
b. Natural person
c. Human person
d. Personality
309. Refers to any organization, corporation and institution.

a. Juridical person
b. Natural person
c. Assembly
d. Government
310. Which is not a composition of PLEB?

a. Any member of the sangguniang panglungsod/bayan chosen by his respective sanggunian
b. Any Barangay Captain of the city or municipality concerned chosen by the Association of
barangay captains.
c. Three other members who shall be chosen by the peace and order council from among the
respective members of the community. A member of the Bar or in the absence thereof, a college
graduate, or the principal of the central elementary school in the locality
d. None of the above
311. The term of office of the members of the PLEB.

a. 5 years
b. 3 years
c. 2 years
d. 6 years
312. Each case shall be decided within how many days from the time the case has been filed with
the PLEB.
a. 20 days
b. 60 days
c. 40 days
d.50 days
313. The administrative Disciplinary Machinery of the PNP.

b. IAS
d. PLEB
314. Who will head the Internal Affair Service nationally?

a. Regional Director
b. General
c. Inspector General
d. District Director
315. Retirement or separation from the police service of the PNP uniformed personnel.
a. Retirement
b. Discharge
c.. Attrition
d. Legal leave
316. Conduct summary hearings on PNP members facing administrative charges.

b. IAS
d. PLEB
317. The termination of employment and official relations of PNP member who rendered less
than 20 years of active service in the government.
a. Retirement
b. Separation
c.. Attrition
d. Legal leave
318. The termination of employment and official relations of PNP member who rendered at least
20 years of active service in the government.
a. Retirement
b. Separation
c.. Attrition
d. Legal leave
319. Within how many working days upon receipt thereof the decisions rendered by the
provincial inspectors shall be forwarded to the area Internal Affairs Service for review
a. 20 days
b. 10 days
c. 40 days
d.50 days
320. Investigate complaints and gather evidence in support of an open investigation.

b. IAS
d. PLEB
321. File appropriate criminal charges against PNP members before the court as evidence
warrants and assist in the prosecution of the offense.
b. IAS
d. PLEB
322. Decisions rendered by the National IAS shall be appealed to.

b. IAS
d. PLEB
323. Who will head the Internal Affair Service in Province?

b. General
c. Superintendent
d. District Director
324. Percentage for monthly retirement benefits of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired
grade in case of twenty (20) years of active service. Increasing by two and one-half percent
(2.5%) for every year of active service rendered beyond twenty (20) years to a maximum of
ninety percent (90%) for thirty-six (36) years of active service and over:
a. 50 %
b. 60%
c. 30%
d. 90%
325. The uniformed personnel shall have the option to receive in advance and in lump sum his
retirement pay.
a. for first 5 years
b. for first 6 years
c. within 6 months
d. for first 7 years
326. Period for the payment of the retirement benefits in lump sum shall be made.
a. within 5 years
b. 6 years
c. within 6 months
d. 7 months
327. An officer or non-officer who is permanently and totally disabled as a result of injuries
suffered or sickness contracted in the performance of his duty as duly certified.
a. Napolcom
b. IAS
d. PLEB
328. Upon finding and certification by the appropriate medical officer, that the extent of the
disability or sickness renders such member unfit or unable to further perform the duties of his
position, shall be entitled to one year's salary and to lifetime pension.
a. 80 %
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 90%
329. Guaranteed period surviving legal spouse or if there be none, the surviving dependent
legitimate children shall be entitled to the pension should such member who has been retired
under permanent total disability.
a. 5 years
b. 6 years
c. 6 months
d. 7 years
330. How many Napolcom regular commissioners?

a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d.5
331. Number of the regular commissioners shall come from the civilian sector who is neither
active nor former members of the police or military.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d.5
332. At least one of the Napolcom commissioners shall be.

a. woman
b. effeminate
c. lesbian
d. animal
333. Period for all uniformed members of the PNP shall undergo a Field Training Program.
a. 5 months
b. legal 6 months commonly prescribed by law
c. 12 months
d. 11 months
334. Shall administer the entrance and promotional examinations for policemen on the basis of
the standards set.
a. Napolcom
b. IAS
d. PLEB
335. Uniformed members of the PNP shall be considered employees of the National Government
and shall draw their salaries therefrom. They shall have the same salary grade level.
a. Engineers
b. Public school teachers
c. Seaman
d. Accountant
336. PNP may be paid financial incentive by the local government unit concerned subject to the
availability of funds.
a. Metropolitan Manila, chartered cities and first class municipalities
b. Provinces of Mindanao
c. City of Calabarzon
d. Quezon City
337. For early retirement program any PNP officer or non-commissioned officer may retire and
be paid separation benefits corresponding to a position.
a. (3) ranks higher than his or her present rank
b. (4) ranks higher than his or her present rank
c. (2) ranks higher than his or her present rank
d. (1) rank higher than his or her present rank
338. Submit a periodic report on the assessment, analysis, and evaluation of the character and
behavior of PNP personnel and units to the Chief PNP and the Commission.
b. IAS
d. PLEB
339. Provide assistance to the Office of the Ombudsman in cases involving the personnel of the
PNP.
b. IAS
d. PLEB
340. Inspector general who headed IAS shall posses.

a. Good behavior
b. Civilian in character
c. Discipline
d. National in character
341. Who shall appoint the inspector general?

a. Director
b. Congress
c. President
d. Executive clemency
342. Any complaint by a natural or juridical person against any member of the PNP.
a. Community complaint over PNP
b. Complainant
c. Citizens complaint
d. I patrol mo
343. Area of management concerned with human relations in the police organization.
a. Police Personnel Management
b. Police Personnel Administration
d. Administration
344. The management of human resources is delegated to the unit of organization.

a. Police Personnel Management
b. Police Personnel Administration
c. Human Resource Department
d. Administration
345. Study of the labor supply of jobs, which are composed with the demands for employees in
an organization to determine future personnel requirements, which either increase or decrease. If
there is an expected shortage of personnel the organization may decide to train and develop
present employees and/or recruit from outside sources.
a. Police Recruitment
b. Police personnel Training
c. Police Selection
d. Police Placement
346. The process of encouraging police applicant from outside an organization to seek
employment in an organization. The process of recruitment consists of developing a recruitment
plan, recruitment strategy formulation job applicants search, screening of qualified applicants,
and maintaining a waiting list of qualified applicants.
c. Police Selection
d. Police Placement
347. The process of determining the most qualified police applicant for a given position in the
police organization.
c. Police Selection
d. Police Placement
348. The process of making police officers adjusted and knowledgeable in a new job and or
working environment.
c. Police Selection
d. Police Placement
349. Any method used to improve the attitude, knowledge, and skill or behavior pattern of an
employee for adequate performance of a given job. It is a day-to-day, year round task. All police
officers on a new position undergo a learning process given a formal training or not. Learning is
made easier for officers when the organization provides formal training and development. It
reduces unnecessary waste of time, materials, man-hours and equipment.
c. Police Training and development
d. Police Placement
350. The evaluation of the traits, behavior and effectiveness of a police officer on the job as
determined by work standards. It is judgmental if it is made a tool in decision-making for
promotion, transfer, pay increase, termination or disciplinary actions against police officers. It is
developmental in purpose when the evaluation is used to facilitate officers improvement in
performance or used to improve recruitment, selection, training and development of personnel.
d. Performance rating or Police appraisal
351. Financial compensation in the form of wages of salaries constitutes the largest single
expenditure for most organizations.
a. Police Compensation
d. Performance rating or Police appraisal
352. The activities programmed to implement the organization philosophy or creed and the
personnel philosophy of central managers in relation to people so as to accomplish
organizational objectives.
a. Police handbook
b. Personnel Program
c. Policies
d. Guide
353. Includes human resources planning, job description and job specification, police
recruitment, selection, placement, transfer, layoffs, and separation.
a. Acquiring competent personnel
b. Holding and retaining competent police personnel
c. Developing and motivating personnel
d. Labor and human relation
354. Deals with the education of the police officers, the appraisal of work performance, their
promotion, and the suggestion system, which enables them to develop so they can rise to the
police organizations desired standards of performance.
355. Gives depth and meaning to good management philosophy, and involves the granting of fair
wages, reasonable working hours, and other employee benefits and services. These activities
include the determination of an equitable wage and maintenance of an incentive system. This
area also concerned with securing greater officer participation in activities and with
strengthening officer morals and effectiveness. All these help make the organization a good
place to work in.
356. The development of harmonious relations between management on one hand and individual
police officer the on the other hand. It also concerns the observance and application of laws and
court decisions affecting human relations, and relationships with other government law
enforcement agencies.
357. This is to achieve a favorable climate for police officers. Good human relations should be
the attitude in the applications, implementation and interpretation of the organizations policies,
rules and regulations. The important tools in this area are records and reports, personnel research
and statistics, and evaluation of the effects of current policies, activities, and programs.
b. Efficient administration of the program with adequate budget
358. Tools of police management, which give life and direction to the police program of
activities and set limits within which action is to be pursued by the personnel concerned.
a. Rules
b. Laws
c. Policies
d. Guide
359. The authority and the responsibility of subordinates. They help the personnel understand
their mutual relationships. They are ahead to guide the men on the operational level, authority,
and responsibility and to enable them to arrive at sound decisions.
a. Rules
b. Laws
c. Policies
d. Guide
360. This type of policy comes from top management level and is intended to set up guidelines in
the operation of the police organization
a. Originated Policy
b. Appealed Policy
c. Imposed Policy
d. Govern Policy
361. This type of policy comes from the government in the forms of laws, administrative orders,
and rules and procedures or contract specifications.
b. Appealed Policy
c. Imposed Policy
d. Govern Policy
362. This type of policy is born when problems arise at the lower levels of the organization and
the man in charge does not know how to meet the problem. He then appeals to his superiors for
guidelines and for guidance.
b. Appealed Policy
c. Imposed Policy
d. Govern Policy
363. Common means of communicating police policies to all officers. They can be issued fast
and they provide the greatest assurance of reaching every employee. They are built in means by
which every member of the organization is reached.
b. Memoranda and Circulars
c. Imposed Policy
d. Govern Policy
364. An abstract of information derived from the job analysis report, describing the duties
performed, the skills, the training, and experience required the responsibilities involved, the
condition under which the job is done, and relation of the job to the other job in the organization.
a. Job Fair
b. Jobless
c. Job Description
d. Job hiring
365. The applicant passes through the waiver program as provided in under R.A 8551.
a. Temporary
b. Probationary
c. Permanent
d. Job selection
366. The applicant able to finish the required field training program for permanency.
a. Temporary
b. Probationary
c. Permanent
d. Job selection
367. The applicant passes through the regular screening procedures.

a. Temporary
b. Probationary
c. Permanent
d. Job selection
368. Who shall appoint PO1 to SPO4 for regional personnel?

b. Chief PNP
c. President
d. Provicial Director
369. Who shall appoint PO1 to SPO4 for National Head Quarter personnel?
b. Chief PNP
c. President
370. Who shall appoint Inspector to Superintendent?

b. Chief PNP
c. President
371. Who shall appoint Sr. Superitendent to Deputy Director General?

b. Chief PNP
c. President
372. Who shall appoint General?
b. Chief PNP
c. President
373. The means by which officers are provided with the knowledge and the skills required in the
performance of their multiple, complex duties. In order that the recruit officer may commence
his career with a sound foundation of police knowledge and techniques, it is most important that
the entrance level training he soundly conceived, carefully organized and well-presented.
a. Oganization
b. Oraganized Training
c. Admimnistration
d. Staffing
374. The premier educational institution for the training of human resources in the field of law
enforcement (PNP, BFP, BJMP), subject to the supervision of the NAPOLCOM.
a. Oganization
c. Admimnistration
d. PPSC
375. The most basic of all police training. It is a prerequisite for permanency of appointment.
a. Basic Recruit Training
c. Admimnistration
d. PPSC
376. The basic recruit training shall be conducted.

a. within not less than six (7) months
b. within not less than six (9) months
c. within not less than six (6) months
d. within not less than six (12) months
377. How many hours a training week for basic recruitment.

a. 60 hours
b. 50 hours
c. 5 days
d. 40 hours
378. The process by which an individual police officer who is recruited into the service receives
formal instruction on the job for special and defined purposes and performs actual job functions
with periodic appraisal on his performance and progress.
c. The PNP Field Training
d. PPSC
379. Officers Basic Course

a. PO1 to PO3
b. SPO1 to SPO4
c. Inspector to Chief Inspectors
d. Chief Inspector to Sr. Superintendent
380. Junior Leadership Training

a. PO1 to PO3
b. SPO1 to SPO4
381. Officers Advance Course

a. PO1 to PO3
b. SPO1 to SPO4
382. Senior Leadership Training

a. PO1 to PO3
b. SPO1 to SPO4
383. Directorial Staff Course

a. Directors
b. SPO1 to SPO4
384. Officer Senior Education Course.

a. Directors
b. Superintendent and above
385. The process of measuring the performance of people in achieving goals and objectives. It is
also known as performance evaluation system
c. Appraisal
d. PPSC
386. System of increasing the rank of a member of the police service.

a. Valor
b. Achiever
c. Promotion
d. Reward of Valor
387. Length of service in the present rank, and qualification.

a. Seniority
b. Service employee
c. Merit
c. Duration
388. Award in some cases that a police officer dies.

a. Valor
b. Service
c. Posthumous
d. Bravery
389. Under Republic Act 6975, PNP personnel are entitled to a longevity pay of _______% of
their basic monthly salaries for every five years of service.
a. 20
b. 10
c. 5
d. 30
390. To ascertain the standard policies and procedures, review and analyze the performance,
activities and facilities affecting operations and to look into the morale, needs and general
efficiency of the police organization in maintaining law and order.
a. Military Inspection
b. Rank Inspection
c. Police Inspection
d. General Inspection
391. Type of Police Inspection which conducted by the head of subordinate units in a regular
basis.
a. Regular Inspection
b. Authoritative Inspection
c. General Inspection
d. External affairs
392. Type of Police Inspection which conducted by the staff for and in behalf of the Chief PNP
or superior officers in command of various units or departments.
b. Internal affairs
d. Staff Inspection
393. Nature of Police Inspection which embraces administration, training, operation,

intelligence, investigation, morale and discipline as well as the financial condition of the police
organization.
b. Internal Affairs
d. External affairs
394. Nature of Police Inspection which embraces the community relationship of the organization,
the crime and vice situation of the locality, and the prevailing public opinion concerning the
integrity and reputation of the personnel.
b. Internal Affairs
d. External affairs
395. The omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to perform an act or duty, which it was
the peace officers legal obligation to perform; it implies a duty as well as its breach and the fast
can never be found in the absence of a duty.
a. Misfeasance
b. Nonfeasance
c. Misconduct
d. Incompetency
396. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.
a. Misfeasance
b. Nonfeasance
c. Misconduct
d. Irregularities in the performance of duty
397. The doing, either through ignorance, inattention or malice, of that which the officer had no
legal right to do at all, as where he acts without any authority whatsoever, or exceeds, ignores or
abuses his powers.
a. Misfeasance
b. Nonfeasance
c. Misconduct
d. Irregularities in the performance of duty
398. It imports an act of cruelty, severity, unlawful exaction, domination, or excessive use of
authority. The exercise of the unlawful powers or other means, in depriving an individual of his
liberty or property against his will, is generally an act of oppression.
a. Misfeasance
b. Oppression
c. Misconduct
d. Ignominy
399. The concealment or distortion of truth in a matter of fact relevant to ones office, or
connected with the performance of his duties.
a. Liar
b. Dishonesty
c. Traitor
d. Covert
400. Abandonment or renunciation of ones loyalty to the Government of the Philippines, or

advocating the overthrow of the government.
a. Repatriation
b. Neglect
c. Violation of Law
d. Disloyalty to the Government
401. This presupposes conviction in court of any crime or offense penalized under the Revised
Penal Code or any special law or ordinance.
a. Repatriation
b. Neglect
c. Violation of Law
d. Disloyalty to the Government
402. Written communications between organizations, between customers/ client and the
organization, between buyer and supplier and between the organization and various branches of
the government.
a. Internal Communication
b. External Communication
c. Lateral Communication
d. Effective Communication
403. Communications between an organization and employees such as payroll, records, bulletins
and regulations and communications among an organizations department such as inventory
control records, interoffice memoranda, and reports. Categories are plans for future productions
or services and records of equipment and assists owned.
a. Internal Communication
b. External Communication
c. Lateral Communication
d. Effective Communication
404. The actual placement of materials in a storage container, generally a folder, according to a
plan. It includes the process of classifying, coding, arranging, and storage systematically so that
they may be located quietly when needed.
a. Arrangement
b. Filing
c. Organizing
d. Proper placement
405. An instructional book containing detailed information about various phases of filing and
records management including rules for the procedures used. Illustrations of those procedures
and examples of clerical details, such as folder labeling, typing style, and material used, are
usually included in the manual.
a. Handbook
b. Filing Manual
c. PNP Manual
d. Form 198 PNP
406. Mentally determining the name of subject or number of which a specific record is to be
filed.
a. Search
b. Planning
c. Classifying
d. Assessment
407. Making an identifying mark on the item to be stored to indicate what classifications it is to
be filed.
a. Coding
b. Planning
c. Classifying
d. Assessment
408. The names, initials, or words used in determining the alphabetic order of field materials.
a. Symbol
b. Units
c. Tag
d. Titles
409. Is somewhat like a directional sign. It tells the filer or searcher where to find the needed
material. A notation put into a file to indicate that a record to not store in that file.
a. Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Library
d. Direction
410. Dividers in filing equipment are called________, because information on them serves as
guide to the eye of filing and locating stored items.
a. Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Library
d. Direction
411. Guide introduces a special section that falls within the alphabetic range of the primary guide
it fallows such as A section devoted to a special subject applications, or a special name group
such as names beginning with the word General.
a. Primary Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Out Guide
d. Direction
412. A heavy divider that replaced a folder in the file when the folder is temporarily removed.
a. Primary Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Out Guide
d. Direction
413. The container in which papers or materials are kept in a filing cabinet
a. Envelope
b. Cross reference
c. Folder
d. Bag
414. The heart identification system.

a. DNA
b. Type blood
c. Fingerprint card
d. Photograph
415. These are records required in the management of the department personnel and designed to
aid in assignment, promotion, and disciplinary actions.
a. Administrative records
b. Miscellaneous Records
c. Management Records
d. Department Records
416. These are records, which do not relate to recorded complaint and investigation reports but
are informational in character.
417. The heart of any police record system. It is the basis for an analysis of offences and the
methods by which they are committed. The following are the different types of reports included
under the case records, which shall be accomplished by all concerned.
a. DNA
b. Case Records
c. Fingerprint card
d. Photograph
418. Useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime location. The location of crime hazards aid
in the direction of enforcement effort. It provides supervising officer with evidence of weakness
in police service and shows the individual officer where his attention is specially needed.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
419. Accident spot map for the posting for motor vehicle and pedestrian accident, which occur in
the area.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
420. A general crime spot map on which are posted the location of murders, rapes, robberies,
holdup, carnapping and other major crimes of the locality.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
421. It is a non-stock private organization, and it was formed in May 1958.

a. P.D 5657
b. P.D 5674
c. P.D 4567
d. P.D 5487
422. An act that regulates the organization and operation of the private detective, watchmen or
security guard agencies.
a. P.D 5657
b. P.D 5674
c. P.D 4567
d. P.D 5487
423. The defense against crime or a state of being secured or free from hazard. Is to protect the
establishment from any form of losses as a result of theft, robbery, pilferage, sabotage,
espionage, accident, fire and subversive activities
a. Free
b. Security
c. Defense
d. Barrier
424. System of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the matter to be protected.
Concerned with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment,
facilities, material, and documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage
and theft
a. Physical Security
b. Communication Security
c. Personnel Security
d. Hotel Security
425. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards hotel
guests and personnel, hotel property, and functions in hotel restaurants, bars and clubs.
d. Hotel Security
426. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards cash
and assets which are in storage in transit and during transactions.
a. Bank Security
d. Hotel Security
427. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevents or delay
the enemy or unauthorized person in giving information through the communication system.
a. Bank Security
d. Hotel Security
428. Physical security that involves the protection of documents and classified papers from loss,
access to unauthorized person, damage, theft and compromised through disclosure.
d. Document Security
429. The protection of top ranking official the government, visiting persons of illustrious
standing and foreign dignitaries.
a. Security
d. VIP Security
430. The protection of the rich person, industrial magnates, political leaders against kidnapping
for economic, political, emotional or nationalistic purposes.
a. Bank Security
b. Crisis Security
d. Industrial Security
431. Measures to safeguard factories, manufacturing establishment, etc.

a. Factory Security
c. Industrial Security
d. Business Security
432. Physical which deals with the protection of processes, formulas, patents and other activities.
a. Bank Security
b. Operational Security
433. Any act or condition, which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss
or destruction of property, or disruption of the objectives of the installations.
a. Security
b. Security Hazard
c. General Security
d. Mankind Security
434. Types of hazard, which the mere cause is the natural phenomenon. Ex. Storm, earthquake,
typhoons, floods, fire, lightning etc
a. Natural Hazard
b. Security Hazard
c. Phenomenal Hazard
d. Man-made Hazard
435. A hazard that the act of omission or commission both overt/covert by an individual or by
group of an individual.
a. Natural Hazard
b. Security Hazard
d. Man-made Hazard
436. The importance of the product or services that the company is giving or producing.
a. Vulnerability
b. Criticality
c. Productivity
d. Services
437. Susceptible the establishment for the particular sabotage, espionage, etc.
a. Vulnerability
b. Criticality
c. Productivity
d. Services
438. A French word of Spy.

a. Legion
b. Espion
c. Karion
d. Nion
439. The agent of Espionage. They are very dangerous because of their skill in deception and
undercover works.
a. Saboteur
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover man
440. French word of Sabotage which means Wooden Slipper.

a. Sabot
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover
441. The agent of sabotage.

a. Saboteur
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover man
442. Act of destroying, damaging or any evil motives that will lead to stoppage of the normal
operation of the company, factory, plant and or establishment.
a. Pilferage
b. Espionage
c. Damage
d. Sabotage
443. Types of Sabotage

a. Chemical and Mechanical
b. Internal and Mechanical
c. Mechanical and Psychological
d. Mental and Physical
444. Type of Mechanical sabotage where they used foreign materials to apply in the
establishment.
a. Contamination
b. Breakage
c. Substitution
d. Omission
445. Type of mechanical sabotage committed by means of a doing by an individual, which can
cause destruction inside of the company or establishment
a. Contamination
b. Breakage
c. Substitution
d. Omission
446. Substances that are easily exploded by means of heat, friction, jarring or sparks. They are
highly dangerous because of its damaging effect.
a. Bombs
b. Breakage
c. Explosives
d. Omission
447. Destroying the vital parts of a machine

a. Contamination
b. Breakage
c. Substitution
d. Omission
448. It is very sensitive to heat. It can be exploded by means of fire, friction or spark.
a. High intensity explosives
b. Low intensity explosives
c. Normal intensity explosives
d. Average intensity explosives
449. Detonated by means of shock, jarring or shake. These are from liquid.
a. High intensity explosives
b. Low intensity explosives
c. Normal intensity explosives
d. Average intensity explosives
450. Manufactured and usually homemade and popularly used by illegal fisherman and miners.
a. TNT
b. Dynamite
c. Gas
d. Oil
451. Which is popular in military?

a. TNT
b. Dynamite
c. Molotov Bomb
d. Stench Bomb
452. Chemical that is carried out by the racketeers and with disagreeable odor.
a. TNT
b. Dynamite
c. Molotov Bomb
d. Stench Bomb
453. Types of stench bomb which mix with alcohol, ether or warm water and place it in a vial or
bottle. White Powder
a.Valiriana acid
b. Zinc valerate
c. Butyric acid
d. Hydrogen sulfide
454. Type of stench bomb which double fermentation of sugar and milk.
a.Valiriana acid
b. Zinc valerate
c. Butyric acid
d. Hydrogen sulfide
455. Type of stench bomb which rotten eggs, or rotten fish smell or odor.
a.Valiriana acid
b. Zinc valerate
c. Butyric acid
d. Hydrogen sulfide
456. The malicious burning of ones property.

a. Arson
b. Girl on Fire
c. Illegal setting of Fire
d. Intentional fire
457. Promiscuous multitude of people, rude and disorderly.

a. Crowd
b. Mob
c. Plurality
d. Majority
458. Temporary congregation of people.
a. Crowd
b. Mob
c. Plurality
d. Majority
459. Temporary congregation of people without interest

a. Psychological crowd
b. Physical crowd
c. Crowd less
d. Rational crowd
460. Temporary congregation of people with common interest in a certain thing.

a. Psychological crowd
b. Physical crowd
c. crowd less
d. Rational crowd
461. Common interest only for short duration.

a. Casual psychological
b. Dementia psychological
c. International psychological
d. Praecox
462. Common interest in a long duration.

a. Casual psychological
b. Dementia psychological
c. International psychological
d. Parexoc
463. One of the most annoying and common human hazard. A.K.A Petty
a. Pilferage theft
b. Qualified theft
c. Sabotage
d. Espionage
464. One who steal due to inability to resist the unexpected opportunity or has little fear that
there is detection for souvenir.
a. Casual pilferage
b. Systematic pilferage
c. automatic pilferage
d. Treacherous pilferage
465. One who steal with preconceived plan and take away things for all types of goods, supplies
or merchandise for economic gain.
a. Casual pilferage
b. Systematic pilferage
c. automatic pilferage
d. Treacherous pilferage
466. The person who is fond of getting the property of other people. There is satisfaction on the
part of the person committing a crime.
a. Kleptomaniac
b. Maniac
c. Propertyniac
d. Addict
467. Taking the property of another with violation of trust and confidence.
a. Simple theft
b. Normal theft
c. Qualified theft
d. Simulated theft
468. Those people or somebody who gets the things or property displayed in the store without
payment.
a. Simple theft
b. Normal theft
c. Shoplifter
d. Simulated theft
469. The first line of security or defense by establishing structural barriers fence, to protect the
entire establishment.
a. Perimeter security
b. Line security
c. barrier
d. Security line
470. This part of security planning explains the historical background of the organization of its
security picture.
a. Vision
b. Mission
c. Situation
d. Execution
471. This part of security will cover what the plan is all about and what it intends to do.
a. Vision
b. Mission
c. Situation
d. Execution
472. This part of security plan will explains and outline the concept of the security project.
a. Vision
b. Mission
c. Situation
d. Execution
473. This part of the security plan involves listing of security equipment.
a. Vision
b. Administrative and Logistics
c. Situation
d. Execution
474. Process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance with established

security policies and procedures as a result of a security survey.
a. Security inspection
b. Security assessment
c. Security examination
d. Security determination
475. Proprietary or in house security, and they are directly under the payroll of the company.
a. Security guard forces
b. Company guard
c. Agency guard
d. Government guard forces
476. They are hired by an agency, and they are paid by contract.
b. Company guard
c. Agency guard
477. They are considered as government employees and paid by the government.
b. Company guard
c. Agency guard
478. Facilities provided for signaling, alerting or alarming workers at any location throughout the
installation as occasion demands. These include the use of telephone and radio.
a. Security
b. Protective alarm system
c. Communication security system
d. Security facilities
479. Provide an electrical and mechanical means of detecting and announcing proximity of
intrusion which endanger the security of a restricted area, a facility of an installation, or its
components.
a. Security
b. Protective alarm system
c. Communication security system
d. Security facilities
480. Old type where the key is open and are seen through .
a. Warded lock
b. Pin Tumbler lock
c. Disc Tumbler lock
d. Card operated lock
481. Used in car doors, desk, drawers, etc.

a. Warded lock
b. Pin Tumbler lock
482. Widely used I doors of offices and houses irregular in shape and the key.
a. Warded lock
b. Pin Tumbler lock
483. This opens by pressing a series of numbers buttons in proper sequence.

a. Warded lock
b. Pin Tumbler lock
d. Code operated lock
484. Coded cards whether notched, embossed or embedded with magnetic-fuels are inserted to
open.
a. Warded lock
b. Pin Tumbler lock
485. Has 3 deals which must be aligned in proper order before the lock will be open
a. Warded lock
b. Combination lock
486. Refers to any person who is not a member of a regular police agency or the Armed Forces
of the Philippines who does detective work for hire, reward, or commission.
a. Civilian
b. Private detective
c. Community
d. Citizen
487. Document issued to a person by competent authority allowing such person to established
direct, manage, or operate detective or intelligence and private watchmen/security agency.
a. License
b. Warrant
c. Order
d. Summon
488. The exchange of thoughts or opinions by conversations, or seminar. The exchange could be
from oral, written and other forms.
a. Communication
b. Dialogue
c. Conference
d. Interaction
489. The common language known for two or more individuals who want to exchange thought or
ideas with each other.
a. Lateral Communication
b. Dialogue accent
c. Conference seminar
d. Medium communication
490. The physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks and others
a. active measures
b. physical measures
c. passive measures
d. measure security
491. Are those that will deter man from committing such acts for fear of being caught, charged in
court, or get dismissed
a. active measures
b. physical measures
c. passive measures
d. measure security
492. The key element in the security system of a plant of installation.

a. animal
b. human guard
c. barrier
d. security
493. An inquiry into specific phases of the persons life and includes a Local Agency Check
(LAC), interviews of references and former co-employees, if anyl.
a. PBI
b. CBI
c. ABS
d. GMA
494. Is thorough inquiry into all important aspect or the persons life history and includes a
National Agency History Sheet (NAHS) and those developed in the course of the inquiry.
a. PBI
b. CBI
c. ABS
d. GMA
495. Faithful allegiance to the Philippine Government and its duly constituted authorities.
a. Loyalty
b. Integrity
c. Discretion
d. Moral
496. Ability or tendency to act or decide with prudence; habits of wide judgment; good
judgment.
a. Loyalty
b. Integrity
c. Discretion
d. Moral
497. Uprightness of character, soundness of moral principle; freedom from moral delinquencies;
honesty.
a. Loyalty
b. Integrity
c. Discretion
d. Moral
498. Personal traits; moral habits.

a. Loyalty
b. Integrity
c. Discretion
d. Moral
499. Opinion or estimation in which a group of person is generally held; what he is reported to
be.
a. Loyalty
b. Reputation
c. Discretion
d. Moral
500. The aggregate of distinctive mental and moral qualities that have been impressed by nature,
education and habit upon the person.
a. Loyalty
b. Integrity
c. Discretion
d. Character
501. Refers to the working protective detail that provides close physical security on the principal
a. Security
b. Loose security
c. Close in security
d. Detail security
502. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager or Operator of a Security Agency.
a. 35 years old
b. 45 years old
c. 25 years old
d. 27 years old
503. The maximum number of guards for company guard and agency guard forces.
a. 2000
b. 1000
c. 200
d. 500
504. The minimum number of guards allowed for private security agencies.
a. 2000
b. 1000
c. 200
d. 500
505. The minimum number of guards allowed for company guard forces.
a. 200
b. 100
c. 30
d. 500
506. A term used in England for lock pickers, safe combination crackers.
a. Peterpan
b. Peterman
c. Ben10
d. Johnny English
507. A heavily constructed fire resistant storage facility and is always part of the building
structure.
a. Security
b. Loose security
c. Vault
d. Detail security
508. Installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items
and at least 12 feet in height, with enough ventilation and fire proof of at least I hour
a. Security
b. Loose security
c. Vault
d. File room
509. If you know the enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred
battles.If you know yourself and not the enemy, for every victory, you are a fool who will meet
defeat in every battle
a. Frederick the great
b. Sun tzu
c. W. Parker
d. Moses
510. An impromptu intelligence agent. Apart from her tonsorial specialty, she also allowed sex
to gain intelligence from a powerful enemy. She achieved the largest effective force of her
employers adversaries and contriving the stroke which put that force out of action
b. Sun tzu
c. W. Parker
d. Delilah
511. He was marching to Asia, were rumors of disaffection growing among his allies and
mercenaries, he sought the truth, and got it by simplest expedient by devising the first letter
sorting and opening to obtain information.
b. Sun tzu
c. Alexander great
d. Delilah
512. He was known The Great Mongol, who used intelligence to conquer China and invade
Cathay. He instructed his Generals to send out spies and used prisoners as sources of
information.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alexander great
d. Delilah
513. One Spy in the right place is worth 20,000 men in the field. He organized two Bureaus of
Interest.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alexander great
d. Napoleon Bonaparte
514. Consolidate all incoming information regarding the enemy for presentation to the emperor
and to obtain information as desired.
a. Bureaucratic Intelligence
b. Bureau of Intelligence
c. Topographic Bureau
d. Geographic Bureau
515. Maintains a large map which covers the latest information regarding both enemy and
friendly forces.
a. Bureaucratic Intelligence
b. Bureau of Intelligence
c. Topographic Bureau
d. Geographic Bureau
516. He maintained Military Intelligence and Secret Political Police Service all over Europe. His
main arm was Spy against spy concept.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alexander great
517. He was known as the Father of Organized Military Espionage.

b. Gengis khan
c. Alexander great
518. He was one of the most brilliant intelligent agents. Though a homosexual, he became Chief
of the Austro Hungarian Secret Service.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alfred Redl
519. He became a double agent of Russia. In 1913, his treason was discovered and he was forced
to commit suicide. His treason also led to the death of almost 500,000 agents and soldiers
combined in his 13 years espionage episode.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alfred Redl
520. In 1913, his treason was discovered and he was forced to commit suicide. His treason also
led to the death of almost 500,000 agents and soldiers combined in his 13 years espionage
episode.
b. Gengis khan
c. Alfred Redl
521. The agency was created under the US National Security Act of 1947. It was the Central
Intelligence group established during the time of President Truman in January 1946. The CIA
was under the National Security Council.
a. Intelligence bureau
b. Intelligence bureau
c. Central Intelligence Agency
d. National Intelligence
522. Intelligence, only the well guided succeed. It is a basic intelligence concept that there must
be unity between knowledge and action. It follows therefore that intelligence should interact and
condition the decision.
a. Communication
b. Objectivity
c. Independence
d. Continuity
523. Intelligence adequate to their needs must be communicated to all the decision makers in
manner that they will understand and form that will permit its most effective use.
a. Communication
b. Objectivity
c. Interdependence
d. Continuity
524. Intelligence is artificially subdivided into component elements to insure complete coverage,
eliminate duplication and to reduce the overall task or manageable sizes.
a. Communication
b. Objectivity
c. Interdependence
d. Continuity
525. Intelligence must be continuous. It is necessary that coverage be continuous so that the
shape of what happens today could be studied in the light of what happened before, which in turn
would enable us to predict the shape of things to come.
a. Communication
b. Objectivity
c. Interdependence
d. Continuity
526. The story must be told and it must be told well. The story must be convincing and to be
convincing it must not only be plausible or factual but its significance must be shown.
a. Timeliness
b. Usefulness
c. Selection
d. Security
527. It is achieved by the measures which intelligence takes to protect and preserve the integrity
of its activities.
a. Timeliness
b. Usefulness
c. Selection
d. Security
528. Must be communicated to the decision maker at the appropriate time to permit its most
effective use.
a. Timeliness
b. Usefulness
c. Selection
d. Security
529. It is an intelligence activity which is primarily long range in nature with little practical
immediate operation value.
a. Strategic Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
530. It is an intelligence activity that has the immediate nature and value necessary for more
effective police planning and operation.
531. It is the integrated product of intelligence developed by all the governmental branches,
departments concerning the broad aspect of national security and policy.
532. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile
foreign activities and to the protection of info against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
533. An investigative process in which disguises and pretext cover and deception are used to
gain the confidence of criminal suspects for the purpose of determining the nature and extent of
any criminal activities that maybe contemplating or perpetuating.
c. Undercover work
534. Refers to the knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes and the investigation, arrest,
and prosecution of criminal offenders.
c. Criminal Inteligence
535. Refers to the knowledge essential to the maintenance of peace and order.
c. Internal Security Intelligence
536. Refers to the knowledge essential to ensure the protection of lives and properties.
c. Internal Security Intelligence
d. Public Safety Intelligence
537. Organization of raw data and information into usable form; grouping similar items of
information so that they will be readily accessible.
a. Collection
b. Recording
c. Evaluation
d. Dissemination
538. The reduction of info into writing or some other form of graphical representation and the
arranging or this info into writing or some form of graphical representation and the arranging of
this into groups of related items Police log book and Journal, Intel-work Sheet - Intel Files,
Situation Maps - Rouges Gallery, Modus Operandi Files.
a. Collection
b. Recording
c. Evaluation
d. Dissemination
539. Examination of raw information to determine intelligence value, pertinence of the

information, reliability of the source and agency, and its credibility or truth of information. The
determination of the pertinence of the info to the operation, reliability of the source of or agency
and the accuracy of the information.
a. Collection
b. Recording
c. Evaluation
d. Dissemination
540. Refers to all evaluated materials of every description including those derived from
observation, reports, rumors, imagery, and other sources from which intelligence in produced.
a. Intelligence
b. Information
c. Evaluation
d. Report
541. 99% of the information collected are coming from open sources
a. Covert information
b. Open sources
c. Close sources
d. Resources
542. 1% of information are collected from close sources.

a. Covert information
b. Open sources
c. Close sources
d. Resources
543. The gathering of information or documents procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject or target becomes knowledgeable of the purpose.
a. Overt intelligence
b. Covert intelligence
c. Overt sources
d. Line intelligence
544. The secret procurement of information, which is obtained without the knowledge of the
person or persons safeguarding vital intelligence interest.
a. Overt intelligence
b. Covert intelligence
c. Overt sources
d. Line intelligence
545. Refers to a person who gives information to the police voluntarily or involuntarily without
any consideration
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Undercover man
d. Volunteer
546. Those who give information to the police for price or reward
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Undercover man
d. Volunteer
547. Informant who gives information to the police pertaining to the underworld about organized
criminals with the understanding that his identity will be protected.
a. Criminal informant
b. Confidential informant
c. Voluntary informant
d. Special informant
548. Those who gives information concerning specialized cases only and it is regarded a special
treatment by the operatives ex. teachers, businessmen.
549. A type of informant who give information freely and willfully as a witness to a certain act.
550. is similar to the former but he gives information violate of the law to include crimes and
criminals.
551. Those who gives information through telephone with the hope that the informant can not be
identified.
c. Anonymous informant
552. A person who casually imparts information to an officer with no intention of providing
subsequent information.
b. Incidental informant
c. Recruited informant
553. A person who is selected cultivated and developed into a continuous source of info.
b. Incidental informant
554. Informants who by the nature of their work or position in society have a certain legal, moral
or ethical responsibilities to report info to the police.
c. Spontaneous informant
555. Those under the compulsion to report info to the police
b. Ordinary informant
556. The insertion of action agent inside the target organization.

a. Intruder
b. Penetration
c. Infiltration
d. Interruption
557. Recruitment of action agent inside the target organization

a. Intruder
b. Penetration
c. Infiltration
d. Interruption
558. An investigative technique in which agent conceal his official identity an obtain information
from that organization.
a. Informer
b. Informant
c. Undercover assignment
d. Volunteer
559. An agent who has been recruited by an intelligence service within a highly sensitive target,
who is just beginning a career or have been long or (outside) insider.
a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Expendable agent
d. Penetration agent
560. An agent who has such reached the enemy gets information and would manage to get back
alive.
a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Expendable agent
561. An enemy agent who has been captured, turned around and sent back where he came from
as an agent of his captors
a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Expendable agent
562. An agent whom false information is leaked to the enemy.

a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Expendable agent
563. an agent who uses influence to gain information

a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Agent of influence
d. Agent in provocation
564. One who provoke the enemy to give information

a. Agent in place
b. Double agent
c. Agent of influence
d. Agent in provocation
565. A form of clandestine investigation which consists of keeping persons, place or other
targets under physical observation in order to obtain evidence or information pertinent to an
investigation.
a. Intelligence
b. Survey
c. Surveillance
d. Discreet
566. Surveillance of persons

a. Tailing
b. Shadowing
c. Casing
d. Reconnaissance/ Casing
567. Surveillance of other things, events, and activities
a. Tailing
b. Roping
c. Casing
d. Reconnaissance/Casing
568. Surveillance of place

a. Tailing
b. Roping
c. Casing
d. Reconnaissance/Casing
569. A conference held among the team members, the police intelligence unit before surveillance
is conducted.
a. Briefing
b. Pre-conference Intelligence
c. Instruct conference
d. Intelligence conference
570. A plan established the as required according to type of personnel, and the general and
specific instructions for surveillance.
a. Surveillance plan
b. Oplan
c. Personnel plan
d. Master plan
571. The observation of places or areas from a fixed point.

a. Stakeout or plant
b. Surveillance
c. Observation
d. Conference
572. The assignment of trained intelligence personnel to other agencies in order to obtain
information of police intelligence value. Agencies like the press, credit agencies, labor unions,
telephone companies.
a. Task
b. Plan assignment
c. Liaison program
d. Intelligence program
573. A place, building, enclosed mobile, or an apartment, where police undercover men meet for
debriefing or reporting purposes.
a. Light house
b. Safe house
c. Boarding house
d. Bunker
574. Any person is a convenient, secure and unsuspecting place where police undercover men
meet his action agent for debriefing or reporting purposes.
a. Surveillant
b. Convoy
c. Drop
d. Decoy
575. An accomplice or associate of the subject used to avoid or elude surveillant.

a. Surveillant
b. Convoy
c. Drop
d. Decoy
576. A cover supporting the surveillant who can become a convoy whenever surveillant is
burned.
a. Surveillant
b. Convoy
c. Drop
d. Decoy
577. When subject under surveillance becomes aware that he is under observation and identifies
the observer.
a. Surveillant
b. Convoy
c. Made
d. Decoy
578. When the surveillant does not know the whereabouts of his subject or the subject had
eluded the surveillance.
a. Surveillant
b. Convoy
c. Lost
d. Made
579. Subject person to be watch is unaware that he is under observation

a. Discreet
b. Close
c. Loose
d. Stationary
580. This is observation of place usually a bookie stall, a gambling, joint, a residence where
illegal activities are going on fixed position.
a. Discreet
b. Close
c. Loose
d. Stationary
581. Subject is aware that he is under observation varied on each occasions

a. Discreet
b. Close
c. Loose
d. Stationary
582. Applied frequently or infrequently, period of observation varied on each occasion

a. Discreet
b. Close
c. Loose
d. Stationary
583. Surveillance follow the subject from the place to place to maintain continuous watch of his
activities
a. Discreet
b. Moving
c. Loose
d. Stationary
584. The term use in the police organization which is surveillance of a building place or area to
determine its suitability for Intel use or its vulnerability in operations.
a. Casing
b. Surveillance
c. Reconnaissance
d. Loose
585. The term use in the military which is surveillance of a building place or area to determine
its suitability for Intel use or its vulnerability in operations.
a. Casing
b. Surveillance
c. Reconnaissance
d. Loose
586. Considered a security measure because it offers some degree of protection for those
operating in an area unfamiliar to them.
a. Casing
b. Surveillance
c. Reconnaissance
d. Loose
587. The most effective method and will produced the most info since you know just what
youre looking for.
a. Personnel Reconnaissance
b. Map Reconnaissance
c. Observation method
d. Overt method
588. It is a system or plan whereby information of intelligence value is obtained through the
process direct intercommunication in which one or more of the parties to the common is unaware
of the specific purpose of the conservation..
c. Elicitation
d. Tactical interrogation
589. Process of setting people to start talking.

a. Probe
b. Approach
c. Planning
d. Conversation
590. To keep the people taking incessantly.

a. Probe
b. Approach
c. Planning
d. Conversation
591. The need for obtaining information of the highest degree of credibility taken on the
minimum of time can be through interrogation which varies and dependent entirely on the
situation.
c. Elicitation
d. Tactical interrogation
592. The product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration and
interpretation of all available information regarding the activities of criminal and other law
violators for the purpose of affecting their arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan to
commit crime.
a. Military intelligence
b. Police Intelligence
c. Intelligence
d. Information
593. The end product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, integration and
interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspect of foreign nations
or of areas of operations and which is immediately or potentially significant to planning.
a. Military intelligence
b. Police Intelligence
c. Intelligence
d. Information
594. Our knowledge is gathered through sight.

a. 85 %
b. 13%
c. 15%
d. 2%
595 Our knowledge is gathered through hearing

a. 85 %
b. 13%
c. 15%
d. 2%
596. Our knowledge is gathered through other three senses

a. 85 %
b. 13%
c. 15%
d. 2%
597. The essence of police function.

a. Patrol
b. Intelligence
c. Crime prevention
d. Operation
598. The backbone of a police department.

a. Crime deterrence
b. Patrol division
c. Crime prevention
d. Operation
599. The regular tour made by a guard in a place in order to protect it or to maintain order.
It could also mean a person or a group such as a police or military unit sent to carry out a tour of
duty in a certain place with a particular mission either for reconnaissance purposes or simply to
provide protection.
a. Patrol
b. Intelligence
c. Crime prevention
d. Operation
600. Patrol originated directly or via German Patrolla from the French patrouller (patroullier),
which originally means.
a. to walk through mud in a military camp
b. to walk through mud in a out camp
c. to walk through mud in a police camp
d. to walk through mud in a island camp
601. The suppression of the desire of potential criminals to commit crimes.

a. Crime deterrence
b. Kontra krimen campaign
c. Crime prevention
d. Criminal apprehension
602. The elimination of the opportunity of criminals to perform acts against the law.
a. Crime deterrence
b. Kontra krimen campaign
c. Crime prevention
d. Criminal apprehension
603. This theory applies the principle of overt operation.

a. Low police visibility
b. High police visibility
c. General deterrence
d. Crime prevention
604. The principle of covert operation is integrated in this theory.

d. Crime prevention
605. This is a theory on patrol emphasizes the selection of places to be patrolled like those of
establishments that are likely be victimized by criminals.
d. Game theory
606. Various means of getting from one place to another within a specified patrol jurisdiction.
Various methods of patrol are not intended to isolate the patrol officer from the people he vowed
to serve and protect.
a. Patrol method
b. Intelligence
c. Crime prevention
d. Operation
606. The most extensively used and the most effective means of transportation for police on
patrol. Equipped with state-of-the-art police gear, patrol cars today provide a rapid, safe, and
efficient means of transportation under average operating conditions.
a. Patrol car
b. foot patrol
c. horse patrol
d. beat patrol
607. Usually used for traffic, surveillance, parades, and special events.
a. Patrol car
b. fixed foot patrol
c. horse patrol
d. beat patrol
608. Used where there is considerable foot movement such as patrolling business and shopping
centers, high crime areas, and in places where there are many or multiple family dwellings.
a. Patrol car
b. fixed foot patrol
c. mobile foot patrol
d. beat patrol
609. An effort, which seeks to prevent crime from occurring. This involves the use of patrol
officers of all crime analysis. It includes the effort by the beat officer to see trends in developing
areas or individual and to make measures to intercede. An alternative patrol system which entails
anticipation on the part of the patrol units that something unusual would occur.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Reactive patrol
c. Directed deterrent patrol
d. Target oriented patrol
610. This patrol methods performs predetermined preventive functions on a planned and
systematic basis. These preventive activities are designed on the basis of detailed analysis of
crime incidents, offender characteristics, methods of operating and locations.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Reactive patrol
611. Those that are directed toward specific persons, places, or events. It can be Location
Oriented, Offender Oriented, and Event Oriented Patrol.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Reactive patrol
612. An effort to respond existing situations that confront them and the type of reaction may
determine whether or not a suspect is arrested and prosecuted, or a problem is solved or a life is
saved. This is a patrol activity which consists of driving around the district and waiting for
something to happen.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Reactive patrol
613. The process of conducting intensified surveillance over selected areas that have been
identified through crime analysis or through intelligence data as being high risk areas for the
commission of selected types of crimes.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Location oriented patrol
614. It is the process of conducting surveillance of an individual. In this case, police intelligence
data as well as criminal history information on known offenders will form the basis for the
identification of targets against which patrol efforts are directed
a. Proactive patrol
b. Reactive patrol
d. Offender Oriented Patrol
615. It is simply the identification of events which may require the application of intensified
patrol efforts or different kind of patrol strategies due to the nature of the problems they may
create.
a. Proactive patrol
b. Event Oriented Patrol
d. Offender Oriented Patrol
616. One of the major indication of the effectiveness of the patrol shift is how to tell matches
variations in workload by day of the week and by hour of the day.
a. Shift
b. Duty schedule
c. Shift scheduling
d. On duty
617. The so called graveyard shift to denote lack of activities or dog watch
a. Day shift
b. Afternoon shift
c. Morning shift
d. Midnight shifts
618. This shift is devoted to service activities. The people that a police officer meets during the
day shift are usually law abiding and create few problems.
a. Day shift
b. Afternoon shift
c. Morning shift
d. Midnight shifts
619. The afternoon shift is usually the busiest and offers the greatest variety of activities.
a. Day shift
b. Afternoon shift
c. Morning shift
d. Midnight shifts
620. The systematic and theoretically informed comparison of crime in two or more cultures. It
explains why crime exists to a greater or lesser degree in one country versus another.
a. Comparative efficiency
b. Comparative culture
c. Comparative system
d. Comparative criminology
621. Crimes against the peace and security of mankind. It can occur only within the boundaries
of a country.
a. National crimes
b. Transnational crimes
c. International crimes
d. Conventions
622. Acts become crimes based on agreements between countries.

a. National crimes
d. Conventions
623. Involve at least two countries. Offenses whose inception, proportion and/ or direct or
indirect effects involve more than one country
a. National crimes
d. Conventions
624. Destroying a national, ethnic, racial or religious group.

a. Genocide
b. Apartheid
c. Intervention
d. Money laundering
625. Suppression to abolish by authority of a racial and ethnic group.

a. Genocide
b. Apartheid
c. Intervention
d. Money laundering
626. The practice of disguising the origins of illegally-obtained money. Ultimately, it is the
process by which the proceeds of crime are made to appear legitimate.
a. Genocide
b. Apartheid
c. Intervention
d. Money laundering
627. People who are politically organized into a sovereign state with a definite territory.
a. Sovereign state
b. Independent state
c. Professed values
d. Triangulation
628. Internationally recognized unit of political authority.

a. Sovereign state
c. Professed values
d. Triangulation
629. Those that are proclaimed as values by the participants in the system.
a. Sovereign state
c. Professed values
d. Triangulation
630. The implementation of multiple measures as a way to improve the validity or truthfulness of
what one is trying to measure.
a. Sovereign state
c. Professed values
d. Triangulation
631. The belief that ones own country or culture does things right and all other ways are
wrong orforeign.
a. Ethnocentrism
c. Professed values
d. Triangulation
631. The police and the military are totally separate and the latters role is only to protect the
country from outside aggression.
a. Civil police model
b. State police model
c. Quasi- military police model
d. Martial law model
632. Calls for the police of the state using military methods to secure public order
633. The state has seized a great deal of control over the police and their personnel are somewhat
interchangeable
634. The word patrol was derived from what French word, which means to walk through
puddles or to walk through mud in a military camp?
A. Patrolle
B. Patrouiller
C. Patroller
D. Patrouilier
635. The ancient system of apprehending criminals whereby a complainant goes to the middle of
the community and shout to call all male residents to assemble and arrest the suspect refers to:
A. Frankpledge
B. Hue and cry
C. Vigiles
D. Tythingmen
636. The Statute of Winchester introduced the system known as:

A. Keepers of the peace
B. Watch and ward- Marching Watches Hue and Cry
C. Curfew
D. Justice of the peace
637. The term introduced by the French that became the forerunner of the word peace officer
was:
A. Sergent de ville
B. Officer de la Paix
C. Sergent de arm
D. Police
638. Which of the following is not true about patrol?

A. It is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the police department
639. The police function in which patrol belong is:
A. Line function
B. Staff function
C. Administrative function
D. Auxiliary function
640. The term that is used to describe the group of men organized by Henry Fielding and named
by his brother John Fielding that became the first organized foot patrol refers to:
A. Praetorian guards
B. Scotland yard
C. Bow Street Runners
D. Royal Guards
641. The title given to Sir Robert Peel was?

A. Father of Criminal Investigation
B. Father of Modern Policing System
C. Father of Modern Criminology
D. Father of Patrol
642. The famous name of the acclaimed first formally organized modern police force in the
world was:
A. Interpol
B. New York Police District
C. Scotland Yard
D. Texas rangers
643. Traditional foot patrolling in the Philippines was initiated on:

A. March 10, 1917
B. July 31, 1901
C. August 7, 1901
D. September 7, 1901
644. The first automobile patrol in the Philippines was initiated on:
A. May 17, 1954
B. May 7, 1954
C. August 7, 1901
D. May 14, 1957
645. The first chief of the mobile patrol bureau of manila police department when mobile patrol
was initiated for the first time was:
A. Arsenio Lacson
B. Isaias Alma Jose
C. Basilio Cael
D. Rafael Crame
646. In police matters, this simply refers to the wise use of ones judgment, personal experiences
and common sense to decide a particular situation
A. Police discretion
B. Police decision
C. Police judgment
D. Common sense
647. The only division of the police department that cannot be eliminated, thus it is known as the
principal unit or the backbone of the police organization refers to:
A. Investigation
B. Traffic
C. Patrol
D. Auxiliary
648. This refers to the suppression of the desire of people to commit crime
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime suppression
C. Crime intervention
D. Crime deterrence
649. The elimination of the opportunity of people to commit crime as a result of patrol refers to:
A. Crime prevention
D. Crime deterrence
650.The following are patrol activities, except:

A. Routine patrol and observation
B. Inspection services
C. Responding to emergency calls
D. Arrest of suspected criminals
E. Preparation of investigation reports
651. The regular day to day patrol activity refers to:

A. Routine patrol
B. Proactive patrol before incident
C. Reactive patrol after incident
D. Called for services community service
652. Arrest in flagrante delicto is an example of:

A. Crime prevention
D. Crime deterrence fear of committing crimes
653. The principle of patrol force organization which states that patrol officers should be under
the command of only one man refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
654. The maximum number of subordinates that a superior officer on patrol could effectively
supervise is known as:
A. Span of control
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
655. The principle which states that some members of the police organization are assigned to
perform patrol and other field functions while the others are assigned to support them refers to:
A. Principle of unity objectives
B. Unity of command
C. Line and staff principle
D. Specialization
656. The percentage of police officers assigned in patrol is:

A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 50%
657. Based on Section 27 of RA No. 6975, the prescribed manning level or police to population
ration in the PNP is:
A. 1:1000
B. 1:750
C. 1:500
D. 1:800
658. The theory in patrol which states that police officers should conduct overt police operations
in order to discourage people from committing crime refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. Low police visibility theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory
659. The theory in police patrol which states that police officers should conduct clandestine
police operation in order to increase criminal apprehension refers to:
A. Theory of police omnipresence
B. Low profile theory
C. High police visibility theory
D. Minimum deterrence theory
660. The patrol strategy which employs police officers in their police uniform and marked
police vehicles refers to:
A. High visibility patrol
B. Low visibility patrol
C. Decoy patrol
D. Blending patrol
661. The patrol strategy which employs patrol officers in their civilian attire and unmarked
police vehicles refers to:
C. Decoy patrol
D. Blending patrol
662. The patrol strategy which employs bait or distracter to in order to catch criminals in known
as:
C. Blending patrol
D. Decoy patrol
663. The structured patrol strategy in response to an identified crime problem refers to:
A. Split force patrol
B. Directed deterrent patrol
C. Reactive patrol
D. Proactive patrol
664. This patrol strategy is focused more on called for services

A. Reactive patrol
B. Proactive patrol before incident
C. Directed deterrent patrol specific area
D. Blending patrol to mixed with
665. The patrol strategy which is best on populous areas such as markets, malls, and ports is:
A. Blending patrol
B. Spit force patrol
C. Reactive patrol
D. All of them
666. The crime prevention strategy which addresses the underlying causes of crime refers to:
A. Problem-oriented policing
B. Reactive patrol
C. Team policing
D. Proactive patrol
667. The patrol strategy which brings the police and the people together in a cooperative manner
in order to prevent crime refers to:
A. Problem oriented policing
B. Reactive patrol
C. Team policing
D. Proactive patrol
668. The University of Wisconsin-Madison professor who introduced problem oriented policing
was:
A. Sir Robert peel
B. Herman Goldstein
C. Rudyard Kippling
D. Henry Fielding
669.Team policing began in:

A. Stockholm Sweden
B. Sicily Italy
C. Aberdeen Scotland
D. Paris France
670. The most expensive patrol method when it comes to human resources is:
A. Foot patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Marine patrol
D. Aircraft patrol
671. The patrol method which gives the greatest opportunity to develop sources of information
is:
A. Foot patrol
B. Mobile patrol
C. Marine patrol
D. Aircraft patrol
672. The patrol method that is characterized by speed and mobility and considered as least
expensive as it utilizes lesser number of men and covers a wider area in a short period of time,
while offering protection to patrol officers, refers to:
A. Foot patrol
B. Automobile patrol
C. Motorcycle patrol
D. Marine patrol
673. The patrol method used in high crime areas, business and shopping centers, and places
where there are multiple family dwellings is:
A. Foot patrol
C. Canine patrol
D. Helicopter patrol
674. The patrol method used to monitor the general situation viewing from above is:
A. Horse patrol
B. Canine patrol
C. Helicopter patrol
D. Automobile patrol
675. The patrol method that is most practically applicable to a dwelling-studded area is:
A. Foot patrol
C. Aircraft patrol
D. Marine patrol
676. The patrol method that has the combined characteristics of mobility and stealth refers to:
A. Foot patrol
B. Bicycle patrol
C. Motorcycle patrol
D. Automobile patrol
677. One of the oldest methods of patrol next to walking is:

A. Foot patrol
B. Helicopter patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. Bicycle patrol
678. The patrol method that is most applicable in wooded areas and grassy fields is:
A. Foot patrol
B. Canine patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. Bicycle patrol
679. They were the first civilization who utilized dogs in patrolling
A. Greeks
B. Romans
C. Egyptians
D. Chinese
680. The smelling sense of dog is up to how many times more sensitive than humans sense of
smell?
A. One thousand times
B. Ten thousand times
C. One hundred times
D. Ten million times
681. The highest scoring dog for police work is:

A. German Shepherd
B. Bloodhound
C. Chihuahua
D. Askal
682.The method of patrol that is utilized in anti-smuggling activities along river banks and water
ports is:
A. Aircraft patrol
B. Marine patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. All of them
683. The other term for dog patrol is:

A. Canine patrol
B. Mounted patrol
C. K-9 patrol
D. Both A and C
684. The fixed point or location to which a patrol officer is assigned for duty refers to:
A. Post
B. Beat
C. Route
D. Sector
685. The area assigned for patrol purposes whether on foot or motorized refers to:
A. Post
B. Beat
C. Route
D. Sector
686. An area containing two or more beats, routes or posts refers to:
A. District
B. Intersection
C. Sector
D. Section
687. A section or territorial division of a large city, each comprised of designated districts refers
to:
A. Area
B. Route
C. Sector
D. Beat
688. The length of street that is designated for patrol purposes refers to:
A. Post
B. Beat
C. Route
D. Sector
689. The geographical subdivision of a large city or province designated for patrol purposes,
usually with its own police station refers to:
A. Area
B. Sector
C. District
D. Territory
690. The patrol force that was originally founded by Stephen F. Austin in response to
colonization and revolution is now referred to as the:
A. Shire reeve
B. Texas rangers
C. Scotland yard
D. Conquistadores
691. This term refers to the patrol experimental program using helicopter that was conducted in
Lakewood California
A. Dark knight
B. Sky night
C. Sky knight
D. Sky blue
692. The following are the advantages of foot patrol, except:

A. It develops greater contact with the public
B. It promotes easier detection of crime
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It involves larger number of personnel
693. Going right while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of
origin is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise
B. Counter clockwise
C. Zigzag
D. Crisscross
694. While patrolling, starting at one corner of the patrol area and working your way diagonally
across it to the opposite corner is following a:
A. Zigzag pattern
B. Circular pattern
C. Clockwise pattern
D. Cloverleaf pattern
695. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol ranges from:

A. 20-25 mph
B. 20-25 kph
C. 26-30 mph
D. 50 kph
696. A highway intersection designed to route traffic without interference, by means of system of
curving ramps form one level to another in the form of a four leaf clover refers to:
A. Sector
B. Cloverleaf intersection
C. Cloverform intersection
D. Rotunda
697. Doubled firepower and physical protection is an advantage of:

A. Foot patrol
B. Two-man automobile patrol
C. Helicopter patrol
D. Motorcycle patrol
698. If a patrol officer needs to respond to a crime incident faster but undetected, then the best
patrol method that he should employ is:
A. Foot patrol
B. Motorcycle patrol
C. Automobile patrol
D. Bicycle patrol
699. The police are the public and the public are the police is a policing concept introduced by:
A. Sir Robert peel
B. Benjamin Mendelsohn
C. Henry Fielding
D. Jonathan Wild
700. The patrol method that requires the greatest number of patrol officers is:
A. Foot patrol
C. Aircraft patrol
D. Marine patrol
701. Greater opportunity to develop sources of information is an advantage of:

A. Foot patrol
C. Canine patrol
D. Aircraft patrol
702. Horse patrol is also known as:

A. Canine patrol
B. Mounted patrol
C. K-9 patrol
D. All of them
703. Which of the following types of patrol can cover a widest view of an area
A. Foot patrol
B. Horse patrol
D. K-9 patrol
704. The patrol method which is applicable in patrolling long stenches of highway or areas that
are inaccessible through other patrol methods is:
A. Marine patrol
B. Aircraft patrol
C. Horse patrol
D. Foot patrol
705. Among the following is the patrol method with the least stealth
A. Helicopter patrol
B. Bicycle patrol
D. Horse patrol
706. Among the following is the patrol method with the greatest stealth
A. Helicopter patrol
B. Bicycle patrol
D. Motorcycle patrol
707. This acronym stands for the system of attaching a miniature camera to a search dog
A. WOLVES
B. CATS
C. DOGS
D. CANINES
708. The following are the breeds of dog best suited for police work, except:
A. German shepherds
B. Doberman pinschers
C. Alaskan malamutes
D. Askals
E. Bouviers
709. The large dog with drooping ears and sagging jowls and keenest smell among all dogs,
formerly used for tracking purposes is known as:
A. German shepherd
B. Doberman pinscher
C. Bloodhounds
D. Alaskan malamute
710. The landmark experiment on preventive patrol, being the first study that demonstrated the
effects of different policing styles was conducted in 1972 in:
A. New York city
B. Los Angeles
C. London
D. Kansas city
711. The phase of problem oriented policing that is focused on the problems cause, scope and
effect refers to:
A. Scanning
B. Analysis
C. Response
D. Assessment
712. The application of crime analysis to determine and address the underlying causes of crime is
a good example of:
A. Preventive patrol
B. Team policing
C. Problem oriented policing
D. Proactive patrol
E. Community oriented policing
713. Using uniformed police officers and marked police vehicles characterizes
C. Decoy patrol
D. Reactive patrol
714. The employment of barangay tanods is an example of:

A. Team policing
B. Problem oriented policing
C. Decoy patrol
D. Reactive patrol
715. Which of the following does not belong with the others?
A. Omnipresence
B. High visibility
C. Conspicuous
D. Clandestine
716. The percentage of police officers assigned to perform patrol and other field functions is:
A. 50
B. 85
C. 40
D. 60
717. The minimum manning level of the PNP under extreme condition is:
A. 1:500
B. 1:800
C. 1:750
D. 1:1000
718. Fatigue is an example of what patrol hazard?

A. Psychological hazard
B. Physical hazard
C. Mental hazard
D. All of them
719. The computer that allows officers on patrol cars to access files from headquarters and other
law enforcement agencies or dispatchers in highly industrialized countries like US is known as:
A. Vehicle mounted TV
B. HELP
C. WOLVES
D. Mobile Data Terminal
720. Which of the following term is attributed to the ancient Egyptians who discovered the
usefulness of dogs in patrol?
A. Ephori
B. Vigiles
C. Centurion
D. Medjay
721. The first chief of the Mobile Patrol Bureau of the Manila Police Department was:
A. Arsenio Lacson
B. Isaias Alma Jose
C. Rafael Crame
D. George Curry
722. In the anatomy of crime, this refers to the act of a person that enables another to victimize
him:
A. Instrumentality
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Carelessness
723. The total system used to accomplish the police visibility program of the PNP is:
A. Team policing
B. Problem oriented policing
C. Integrated patrol system
D. Preventive patrol system
724. Real time current situation is shown in the:
A. Modus operandi file
B. Intelligence summary
C. Spot map
D. Rouge gallery
725. The police officers in Police Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with a prescribed
division of:
A. 2 shifts
B. 3 shifts
C. 4 shifts
D. Every other day
726. The ideal daily on duty hours for a patrol officer is:
A. 8
B. 6
C. 12
D. 24
727. The Community Oriented Policing System in the Philippines is primarily patterned from the
police system of what country?
A. England
B. USA
C. France
D. Japan
728. The patrol pattern which offers the easiest way to observe the movement of the patrol
officer is:
A. Clockwise
B. Counter clockwise
C. Crisscross
D. Straight
729.. The reversal patrol pattern which is usually done at the last hour of duty to ascertain that
nothing happened in the area of responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Counter clockwise pattern
C. Zigzag pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
730. The following terms are synonymous with each other, except:
A. Decoy
B. Bait
C. Distracter
D. Warner
740. The first organized foot patrol for policing purposes was formed in?
A. New York City
B. London
C. Rome
D. Greece
741. In police communication, 10-0 means
A. Caution
B. Positive
C. Change location
D. Unable to copy
742. The organized schedule or sequence of methodical activities intended to attain a goal or
objective refers to:
A. Plan
B. Planning
C. Operational plan
D. Operational planning
743. The process of determining the problems of the organization and coming up with the
proposed solution generally refers to:
A. Planning
B. Operational planning
C. Police planning
D. Police operational planning
744. The following statements are true, except:
A. Planning is the conceptual idea of doing something to attain a goal or objective
B. Planning is the use of rational design for departmental undertaking
C. C. Planning is the process of deciding in advance what has to be done and how it is to be
done
D. None of them
745. Creativity in planning includes the following, except:
A. Imitation
B. Idea linking
C. Inductive reasoning
D. Deductive reasoning
746. The creativity in planning that moves from specific to general is:
A. Imitation
B. Idea linking
C. Inductive reasoning
D. All of them
747. The systematic and orderly determination of facts and events as basis for policy formulation
and decision affecting law enforcement management refers to:
A. Planning
C. Police planning
748. It is the process of formulating coordinated sequence of methodical activities in law
enforcement and allocation of resources to line units in order to attain a mandated purpose
A. Planning
C. Police planning
749. The use of rational design or pattern for all departmental undertaking refers to:
A. Planning
C. Police planning
750. The set of procedures intended to meet varying degree of emergency while at the same time,
providing continuing police coverage refers to:
A. Specific emergency plan
B. Radical plan
C. General emergency plan
D. Strategic plan
751. The type of plan designed to meet specific unusual needs refers to:
A. Synoptic plan
B. Strategic plan
C. Specific emergency plan
D. Radical plan
752. This refers to the general statement of intention typically with time horizon. It is an
achievable end state that can be measured and observed
A. Objective
B. Vision
C. Goal
D. Mission
753. The specific commitment to achieve a measurable result within a specific period of time
refers to:
A. Goal
B. Strategy
C. Objective
D. Tactic
754. This refers to a sequence of activities to reach a point or attain what is desired
A. Strategy
B. Procedure
C. Tactic
D. Mission
755. The broad design, method or plan to attain a stated goal or objective refers to:
A. Strategy
B. Procedure
C. Tactic
D. Policy
756. The rule of action for the rank and file to show them how they are expected to obtain the
desired effect refers to:
A. Policy
B. Guideline
C. Procedure
D. Plan
757. The different means by which goals and objectives can be attained refers to:
A. Strategies
B. Plans
C. Alternatives
D. Procedure
758. This is a statement of how the organization will look like in the future. It is a picture of what
the PNP organization wants to be:
A. Police vision
B. Goal
C. Police mission
D. Objective
759. The functions performed by the PNP, BFP and BJMP generally refers to:
A. Public safety services
B. Law enforcement services
C. Pease and order maintenance services
D. Crime prevention services
E. All of them
760. The end result of the functions performed by the PNP, BFP and BJMP is generally termed
as:
A. Public safety
B. Crime prevention
C. Law enforcement
D. All of them
E. Peace and order
761. The body of principles officially accepted as the best way of performing the functions of the
PNP, BFP and BJMP is known as:
A. Public safety doctrine
B. Public safety principle
C. Public safety policy
D. Any of them
762. The coverage of public safety functions are the following, except:
A. Law enforcement
B. Fire protection
C. Crime prevention
D. None of them
E. Maintenance of peace and order
763. The authoritative statement of principles prescribing the proper acquisition, use and
employment of PNP human and material resources to achieve planned objectives, which is
largely based on knowledge, gained through time-honored police experiences, studies, analysis
and tests refers to:
A. PNP vision
B. PNP doctrine
C. PNP mission
D. PNP Rules of Engagement
764. The basic principle in planning, organization and management of the PNP in support of the
overall pursuit of the PNP vision, mission and strategic action plan of the attainment of the
national objectives pertains to:
A. PNP doctrine
B. PNP operational doctrine
C. PNP Fundamental doctrine
D. PNP functional doctrine
765. The principle and rules governing the planning, organization, direction and employment of
the PNP forces in the accomplishment of basic security mission in the maintenance of peace and
order, crime prevention and suppression, internal security and public safety operation refers to:
A. PNP doctrine
C. PNP fundamental doctrine
766. This provides the guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest
such as personnel, intelligence, operations, logistics and planning
A. PNP doctrine
C. PNP fundamental doctrine
767. The doctrine formulated jointly by two or more bureaus in order to effect a certain operation
concerning public safety and peace and order refers to
A. Complementary doctrine
B. Ethical doctrine
C. Supplementary doctrine
D. Functional doctrine
768. The doctrine that essentially involves the participation of the other bureaus such as the
BJMP, BFP, PPSC, NBI and other law enforcement agencies refers to:
A. Complimentary doctrine
B. Ethical doctrine
D. Operational doctrine
769. This defines the fundamental principles governing the rules of conduct, attitude and
behavior of the PNP members
A. Complimentary doctrine
B. Operational doctrine
D. Ethical doctrine
770. The statement which clearly specifies if what business the PNP organization is in refers to:
A. Police vision
B. Police objectives
C. Police mission
D. All of them
771. The statement: The PNP shall enforce the law, prevent and control crimes, maintain peace
and order and ensure public safety and internal security with the active support of the
community is the:
A. PNP mission
B. PNP goal
C. PNP vision
D. PNP objective
772. This refers to the concepts and ideas governing the organization of the PNP in all levels and
foundation of relationship that exists between each members from superior to subordinates
A. Principles
B. Visions
C. Missions
D. Goals
773. Unity of command, span of control, delegation of authority and chain of command are
generally referred to as:
A. Hierarchy of principle
B. Scalar principle
C. Hierarchy of authority
D. Hierarchy of protocols
774. Strictly speaking, scalar principle could simply be interpreted as:
A. Unity of command
B. Delegation of authority
C. Span of control
D. Chain of command
775. The type of police function that includes patrol, investigation, traffic and juvenile and vice
control pertains to:
A. Line function
B. Administrative function
C. Auxiliary function
D. Staff function
776. This refers to the primary or operational function of the police department that actually
performs the organizational objectives
A. Line function
B. Auxiliary function
C. Staff function
D. Service function
777. The guideline in planning which answers the question what to do refers to:
A. Mission
B. Strategy
C. Philosophy
D. Reason
778. The following are true about quality planning, except:
A. It improves analysis of the problem
B. It provides better information for decision making
C. It helps to clarify goals, objectives and priorities
D. It results in more effective allocation of resources
E. None of them
779. The characteristics of an effective plan are the following, except:
A. It must be sufficiently general
B. The benefits derived from the plan must offset the effort in planning and implementing
the plan
C. It should be flexible
D. None of them
E. All of them
780. The characteristics of a good police plan are the following, except:
A. Simple
B. Objective
C. Flexible
D. None of them
E. Realistic
781. A good police operational plan is characterized by the following, except:
A. It includes the advises of every organic personnel involved in planning
B. It incorporates the ideas or opinions of the staff officer
C. It contains the conclusion of the crime analyst
D. It reflects the experience of the line officer
E. None of them
782. The following are reasons for strategic planning, except:
A. Strategic focus
B. Congruence
C. Strategic response to change
D. None of them
783. The type of plan according to coverage that emanates from national headquarters and covers
national scope of implementation refers to:
A. Local plan
B. Regional plan
C. National plan
D. Strategic plan
784. A plan for the accomplishment of the police vision is timely regarded as:
A. Strategic plan
B. Regional plan
C. Local plan
D. National plan
785. According to coverage, operational plan is an example of:
A. Local plan
B. National plan
C. Regional plan
D. All of them
786. Plan with a scope of less than one year is classified as:
A. Strategic plan
B. Short range plan
C. Medium range plan
D. Any of them
787. The approach in planning which involves taking the system apart and using each part to
analyze the whole system refers to:
A. Analytical approach
B. Synoptic approach
C. Synthetically approach
D. Strategic approach
788. The approach in planning which considers all the organizational processes together to try to
understand how they relate to each other and the environment in which the system functions is
known as:
A. Analytical approach
B. Synoptic approach
C. Synthetically approach
D. Strategic approach
789. This refers to the planning responsibility of the senate, congress and other law making
bodies
A. Broad external policy planning

B. Internal policy planning
C. Incremental planning
D. Legislative planning
790. The planning responsibility of the PNP chief and other high ranking PNP officials is known
as:
A. Broad external policy planning
B. Internal policy planning
C. Incremental planning
D. Radical planning
791. The problem oriented approach in planning is also known as:
A. Synoptic planning
B. Incremental planning
C. Radical Planning
D. Transactive planning
792. This approach in planning is based on the idea that problems are easier to solve when they
are taken one at a time and broken down into gradual adjustment over time
A. Incremental planning
B. Synoptic planning
C. Transactive planning
D. Radical planning
793. This approach in planning involves informing the people in advance of the intentions of the
planner in order to weigh between the positive and the negative aspects of the implementation of
the plan
A. Incremental planning
B. Transactive planning
C. Synoptic planning
D. Advocacy planning
794. This approach in planning involves the collective actions to achieve concrete results in the
immediate future and a critical large scale social processes to determine the evolution of social
problems
A. Radical planning
B. Advocacy planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Incremental planning
795. The general type of plan that is developed as a result of crisis refers to:
A. Proactive plan
B. Visionary plan
C. Reactive plan
D. Strategic plan
796. The type of plan that is developed in anticipation of a future problem refers to:
A. Broad external policy plan

B. Radical plan
C. Proactive plan
D. Problem oriented plan
797. This plan contains the essential statements that identify the role of the police in the
community and the future conditions in which the department can aspire
A. Reactive plan
B. Missionary plan
C. Strategic plan
D. Visionary plan
798. The plan which is intended to meet the long range overall goals of the police organization
refers to
A. Visionary plan
B. Strategic plan
C. Missionary plan
D. Proactive plan
799. The type of plan designed to meet specific tasks required to implement strategic plans refer
to:
A. Strategic plan
B. Operational plan
C. Proactive plan
D. Visionary plan
800. This type of plan provides framework for responding to organizational problems and
different types of incidents such as civil disturbances, hostage situation and crime in progress
A. Long range plan
B. Functional plan
C. Standing plan
D. Strategic plan
801. This type of plan involves the framework for the operation of the major units in the
organization such as patrol and investigation. It also includes the design of the structure, how
different functions and units are to relate and coordinate activities, and how resources are to be
allocated
A. Functional plan
B. Standing plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Short range plan
802. The type of plan that compares past and present accomplishments to assess performance
and to determine the proper measures to be undertaken to improve performance refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Strategic plan
803. This type of plan is intended for specific purpose such as drug crackdown, crime prevention
program, or neighborhood clean-up campaign. It concludes when the objective is accomplished
or the problem is solved
A. Strategic plan
B. Time specific plan
C. Problem oriented plan
D. Time bound operational plan
804. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and
some special operations
A. Strategic plan
B. Operational plan
C. Policy or procedural plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
805. The procedure which is intended to be used in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
in operations relative to reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers to:
A. Field procedure
B. Tactical procedure
C. Headquarters procedure
D. All of them
806. The procedure which refers to the duties of a jailer, dispatcher, matron and other personnel
concerned which may be reflected in the duty manual refers to:
A. Field procedure
D. Special operation procedure
807. The procedure for the operation of specialized units such as searching and preservation of
physical evidences at the crime scene by the members of the SOCO team is known as:
A. Field procedure
D. Special operation procedure
808. The plan for coping with specific situations at known location such as a plan for dealing
with an attack against the PNP headquarters refers to:
A. Time specific plan
B. Technical plan
C. Operational plan
D. Tactical plan
809. This plan is designed for the activities of special divisions like patrol, investigation, traffic,
fire and juvenile control, and is intended to accomplish the primary police functions
B. Special operation procedure
C. Operational plan
D. Policy or procedural plan
808. The sub-type of operational plan which is intended to meet current needs refers to:

B. Regular operating program
C. Procedural plan
D. Field procedure
809.. This type of plan is intended to motivate, promote and maintain an active public concern
and cooperation in the field of traffic control, crime and juvenile delinquency prevention
A. Management plan
B. Extra-office plan
C. Policy or procedural plan
D. Cooperative plan
810. The type of plan intended for the administration of personnel and material, and in the
procurement and disbursement of money refers to:
A. Tactical plan
B. Management plan
C. Technical plan
D. Extra-office plan
811. The appropriation for future money needs for personnel, equipment and capital investment,
also known as management of fiscal matters is known as:
A. Budget planning/Budgeting
B. Accounting
C. Purchasing procedure
D. All of them
812. The type of plan according to time which determines quantity and quality of efforts and
accomplishments refers to:
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Short range plan
D. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
813. The characteristics of a good police operational plan are the following, except:
A. It reflects the experience of the line officers
B. It incorporates the findings of the police statisticians
C. It contains the conclusions of the crime analysis
D. It is based primarily on theoretical concepts
814. The first step in planning is:
A. Clarifying the problem
B. Frame of reference
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Analyzing the facts
815. The following are the factors affecting planning, except:
A. Condition
B. Resources available
C. Time
D. None of them
816. Soliciting the acceptance of the personnel concerned is a step in planning known as:
A. Frame of reference
B. Arranging for the execution of the plan
C. Selling the plan
D. Selecting the most appropriate alternative
817. 1. In Philippines lowest rank PO1, In japan_____
a. PO1
b. Constable
c. Police officer
d. Japanee officer 1
818. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and robbery.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
819. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or combination of target where totally
removed, destroyed or both.
A. Risk reduction
B. Probable maximum loss
C. Risk transfer
D. Possible maximum loss
820. A conference similar to entrance conference, this is only done after the completion of
security survey.
A. Entrance conference
B. Briefing
C. Debriefing
D. Exit conference
821. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm system near the object to be
protected.
A. Auxiliary alarm
B. Proprietary system
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
822. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case of
need, direct call is possible.
A. Auxiliary alarm
C. Local alarm system
D. Central station system
823. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an employee
who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates.
A. Pass system
B. Pass exchange system
C. Single pass system
D. Multi pass system
824. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards which security has to deal with.
A. Casual pilferage
B. Systematic pilferage
C. Pilferage
D. None of the above
825. A natural hazards or acts of god.
A. Calamity
B. Phenomenon
C. Disaster
D. Force majeure
825. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security agency law passed?
A. June 13, 1999
B. June 13, 1969
C. June 7, 2009
D. June 31, 1969
826. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business, government or industrial
environment for which the risk manager has responsibility.
A. Risk self-assumption
B. Risk spreading
C. Risk avoidance
D. Risky management
827. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset.
A. Adversary
B. Risk
C. Security hazard
D. Criticality
828. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time.
A. Transposition system
B. Code
C. Concealment
D. Cipher
829. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to
classified matter.
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
830. It may be a formula for a chemical compound, a process of manufacturing, treating or
preserving materials, a pattern for machine or device or a list of customers.
A. Transmission security
B. Trade secret
C. Patents
D. Proprietary information
831. Factors considered in background investigation except:
A. Integrity
B. Character
C. Personal prestige
D. Loyalty
831. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms license issued by the PNP
through its Firearm Explosive Division under the civil security group renewable every
A. 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 2 years
D. 1 year
832. Before a security guard can practice his profession, he shall possess a valid security license,
What is this license?
A. Firearm license
B. License to operate
C. Drivers license
D. Security guard license
833. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as his shift is concerned.
A. Officer in charge
B. Shift in charge
C. Security guard on duty
D. Assistant detachment commander
834. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual but limited only to some of
the circumstances of his personal life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation.
A. PSI
B. PBI
C. CBI
D. BI
835. It is an inquiry into the character, reputation, discretion and loyalty of individual in order to
determine a persons suitability to be given security clearance.
A. BI
B. LAC
C. NAC
D. PSI
836. A security force maintained and operated by any private company for its own security
requirements only.
A. Insular security force
B. Company security force
C. Government security unit
D. Private security unit
837. Motives that cause people to be disloyal
A. Character
B. Revenge
C. Moral
D. Reputation
838. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of security agency.
A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP, inactive or retirees
B. At least 25 years of age
C. Filipino citizen
D. All of them
839. Before private security agencies render security services to its clients, there must be a
contract that must bind them, it is called
A. Contract service
B. Service contract
C. Security contract
D. Security service contract
840. Tenure of security personnel is based on
A. Can be extended by the client
B. The service contract between the agency and the client
C. Labor contracting between the agency and the guard
D. Tenure provided by the labor code
841. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training?
A. AFP and PNP retirees
B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance
C. AFP and PNP veterans
D. All of the above
842. Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not prevent criminals from trespassing
and should be used normally as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the human
guard forces.
A. Detect
B. Deterred
C. Provide
D. Impeded
843. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual or motor driven.
A. Stand pipe
B. Fire extinguisher
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire pump
844. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest to the top floor with water
under pressure for use in case of fire.
A. Lowering pipe
B. Wet pipe
C. Top pipe
D. Stand pipe
845. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers
A. 360 degrees
B. 180 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees
846. Example of the Security Communication system.
A. Telephone
B. Paging system
C. Radio
D. All of them
847. The management of keys used in plant office or business organization to prevent
unauthorized access is referred to as
A. Security key control
B. Lock control
C. key control
D. Key management
848. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security
buildings, storehouses and compounds. One of the ff: is true
A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be safeguarded
B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices
C. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective
devices
D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards
849. As a security chief of an industrial firm, inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the
warehouses. What will be your choice of action
A. To resign because you have failed your job
B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprit
C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their
immediate implementation
D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the compound/complex
850. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security. As security officer, you can
advise management on this aspect although this is not totally your assigned work. Document
security is not a protection of vital records from
A. Authorized handless
B. Theft or loss
C. Compromise or destruction
D. Unauthorized access
851. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage, loss or disruption of operations
due to various hazards.
A. Risk analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Relative vulnerability
D. Relative criticality
852. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty og rmployees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as
risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks.
853. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound
A. Auxiliary system
C. Central alarm system
D. Local alarm system
854. Weakest link in the security chain.
A. Security Guards
B. Manager
C. Barriers
D. Personnel
855. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this particular place is referred to as
A. Compromise area
B. Restricted area
C. Danger area
D. Exclusive area
856. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound
to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
857. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial
Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside
of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors
B. Priests
C. Chiefs of Police
D. Mayors
858. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision
and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police
B. Judges
C. Local Government Executives
D. Fiscals
859. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may
recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
860. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections.
A. NBI
B. Ombusdman
C. COMELEC
D. DILG
861. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent
B. Director General
C. Director
D. Deputy Director General
862. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __.
A. Inspector
B. Chef Inspector
C. Senior Inspector
D. Superintendent
863. The head of a local peace and order council is the __.
A. judge
B. chief of police
C. mayor
D. governor
864. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director
General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)?
A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno
B. Gen. Raul Imperial
C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez
D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento
865. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his
subordinates in relation to the
performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command
B. delegation of responsibility
C. Command responsibility
D. span of control
866. The credential extended by the Civil Service
Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of
conferring status for permanent appointment in the police
service.
A. police credibility
B. police visibility
C. Criminology Board Examination
D. police patrol examination
E. police eligibility
867. What is the principle of organization suggesting that
communication should ordinarily go upward and downward
through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Span of Control
C. Unity of Command
D. Delegation of Authority
868. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System
B. Comparative Police System
C. Police Visibility
D. Community Oriented Policing System
869. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year round needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs
B. extra office
C. regular operating programs
D. special operating programs
870. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend
criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory
B. high visibility
C. theory of omnipresence
D. team policing
871. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from
moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity
B. loyalty
C. discretion
D. moral
872. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called:
A. demolition
B. squadron
C. eviction
D. tear down
873. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?
A. Inspector
B. senior superintendent
C. asst. chief
D. chief superintend
874. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than
members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent
B. Tiktik
C. Private detective
D. Undercover
875. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or
vehicle.
A. research
B. undercover operation
C. casing
D. surveillance
876. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference
B. security check
C. security survey
D. security education
877. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine
Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
878. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the
investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out
B. sold out
C. burnt out
D. get out
879. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting
the surveillance is:
A.rabbit
B.surveillant
C.traffic enforcement
D.patrol
880. The cheapest form of police patrol.
A. Bicycle Patrol
B. Foot Patrol
C. Motorcycle Patrol
D. Helicopter Patrol
881. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A.training of station commander
B.adequacy of resources of the police station
C.rank of the patrol commander
D.salary rates of police personnel
882. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
883. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service
A.Clientele
B.Purpose
C.Time
D. Process
884. All of the following are members of the Peoples Law
Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order
Council from among the respected members of the
community.
B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of
the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the
Philippines (IBP)
885. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting,
determine, or delaying illegal access to an installation.
A. alarm
B. wall
C. barrier
D. hazard
886. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of
A. a driver and intelligence agent
B. a driver and traffic man
C. a driver and a recorder
D. a driver, recorder and supervisor
887. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss
which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious
affiliation, address, etc.
C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
888. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a ______where telephones or any
means of communication shall
A.ensure open lines of communication.
B.command post
C.operations center
D.field room
889. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical
evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical
nature.
A. Logistics Service
B. Crime Laboratory
C. Communication and Electronic service
D. Finance Center
890. As a security officer, you cannot prevent nor protect natural hazards like storm,
earthquakes, floods and the like. In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards
you will
A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming
B. Alert your guards when hazards occur
C. Not take any concern of such hazards
D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan
for these hazards for the firm
891. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are known in industrial security as
physical security.
A. Guarding
B. Reporting
C. Relieving
D. Accounting
892. Bicycle patrol have the combined advantage of ________________ since they can be
operated very quietly and without attracting attention.
A. reduced speed and greater area covered.
B. Mobility and wide area coverage
C. Shorter travel time and faster response
D. Mobility and stealth
893. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You dont have enough men to cover
all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police
assistance
D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving
mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol
894. The father of organized military espionage was:
A. Akbar C. Genghis Khan
B. Alexander the Great D. Frederick the Great
895. Which of the following is the most common reason why an informer gives information to
the police.
A. wants to be known to the policeman
B. monetary reward
C. as a good citizen
D. revenge
896. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT:

A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisor
C. require completed work
D. define authority and responsibility
897. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical
evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and
physical nature.
A. Logistics Service C. Communication and Electronics Service
B. Crime Laboratory D. Finance Center
898. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agencys mission are
_____________.
A. staff C. management
B. supervision D. line
899. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting
surveillance on him, the latter is:
A. cut out C. burnt out
B. sold out D. get out
900. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police
through:
A. foot patrol C. highway patrol
B. mobile patrol D. helicopter patrol
901. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT
A. stop quickly, look behind
B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper
C. window shop, watch reflection
D. retrace steps
902. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from:
A. business world C. an underworld informant
B. newspaper clippings D. communications media
903. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic
sciences can enter the police service as officers through:
A. regular promotion C. lateral entry
B. commission ship D. attrition
904. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his
subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt
which of the following projects?
A. COPS on the blocks C. Oplan Sandugo
B. Oplan Bakal D. Complan Pagbabago
905. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive
security program for his industrial plan?
A. security conference C. security survey
B. security check D. security education
906. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-
visibility patrol techniques.
A. low-visibility patrol C. decoy patrol
B. directed deterrent patrol D. high-visibility patrol
907. if enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and
pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic.
A. Civil Relations Unit C. Traffic Management Command
B. Traffic Operations Center D. Aviation Security Command
908. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different
senses.
A. observation C. research
B. casing D. interrogation
909. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT
A. never meet subject face to face
B. avoid eye contact
C. recognize fellow agent
D. if burnt out, drop subject
910. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a
few meters from Maria. The thiefs desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the
police officer but the _______________ for successful theft is.
A. ambition C. intention
B. feeling D. opportunity
911. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically
appointed to the rank of:
A. Senior Superintendent C. Senior Police Officer I
B. Inspector D. Superintendent
912.PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of the:

A. PNP Directorate for Plans
B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development
C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management
D. PNP Directorate for Comptroller ship
913. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons
within the vicinity. In the police work, this is called:
A. data gathering C. interrogation
B. field inquiry D. interview
914. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down
lost persons or illegal drugs.
A. smell C. eating
B. hearing D. drinking
915. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of geographic information because

law enforcement officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs.
A. Logistics C. Narcotics trafficking
B. Human Cargo Trafficking D. Economic resources
916. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties?
A. motorcycle C. patrol car
B. helicopter D. bicycle
917. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the
person or vehicle.
A. research C. casing
B. undercover operation D. surveillance
918. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than
members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or an law enforcement agency of the
government.
A. Secret Agent C. Private Detective
B. Tiktik D. Undercover
E. All of these
919. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from
moral delinquencies is referred to as
A. integrity C. discretion
B. loyalty D. moral
E. all of these
920. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and
turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you
completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling. What patrol pattern have
you applied?
A. clockwise C. counterclockwise
B. straightway D. free-wheeling
E. criss-cross
921. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend
criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected?
A. low profile theory C. theory of police omnipresence
B. high visibility D. team policing
922. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or
wooded areas requires the use of
A. bike patrol C. marine patrol
B. horse patrol D. helicopter patrol
923. Which of the following refers to the long range planning?

A. Intermediate C. medium
B. Strategic D. short
924. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year around needs is called
A. meeting unusual needs C. regular operating programs
B. extra office D. special operating programs
925. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol?

A. horse C. canine
B. foot D. police
926. The act of expelling a squatter by not legal process is called:
A. demolition C. eviction
B. squadron D. tear down
927. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A. Inspector C. asst. chief
B. senior superintendent D. chief superintendent
E. all of these
928. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility?
A. ability C. believability
B. capacity D. vulnerability
E. all of these
929. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant?

A. observation C. called for service
B. crime prevention D. criminal apprehension
930. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization
A. patrol C. investigation
B. records D. traffic
931. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and surprise is lost which is
one of the ______________ of air patrol:
A. advantages C. disadvantages
B. features D. importance
E. errors
932. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or
stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots?
A. foot C. bicycle
B. horse D. dog
933. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG?
A. R.A. 5487 C. R.A. 1174
B. R.A. 8551 D. R.A. 6975
934. Who Is the most important officer in the police organization?

A. general C. patrol
B. investigator D. traffic
E. The Chief of Police
935. Which of the following is the oldest warning device?

A. trumpet C. radio
B. horn D. siren
936. What type of cover uses actual or true background?
A. artificial C. natural
B. multiple cover D. cover within a cover
937. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go
upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command C. Unity of Command
B. Span of Control D. Delegation of Authority
938. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police service?
A. 15 years service C. 30 years service
B. 25 years service D. 20 years service
E. 35 years service
939. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are
automatically deputized as representatives of the
A. NAPOLCOM C. PLEB
B. DND D. none of these
940. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine
National Police.
A. DILG C. NAPOLCOM
B. DND D. DFA
941. It is the central receiving entity for any citizens complaint against the members and officers
of the PNP.
A. DILG C. PLEB
B. NAPOLCOM D. IAS
E. Ombudsman
942. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his
subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties, we are referring to:
A. chain of command C. command responsibility
B. delegation of responsibility D. span of control
E. responsible parenthood
943. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the
maintenance of peace and order by police officers.
A. Integrated Police System C. Police Visibility
B. Comparative Police System D. Police Pangkalawakan System
E. Community Oriented
Policing System(COPS)
945. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group
objective. Also, no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to
A. chain of command C. unity of command
B. command responsibility D. delegation of authority
E. span of control)
946. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to what
Percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from
the date of his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied services?
A. 2 C. 10
B. 5 D. 15
E. 20
947. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance
of his duty.
A. off duty C. on call
B. off limits D. on duty
E. on the way
948. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his police duties in
consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations.
A. Dismissal C. suspension
B. Restriction D. reprimand
E. incarceration
949.The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for
the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service.
A. Police credibility C. Criminology Board Examination
B. Police visibility D. police pathola
E. police eligibility
950. The first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP).
A. Cesar Nazareno C. Umberto Rodriguez
B. Raul Imperial D. Recaredo Sarmiento
E. Fernando Poe Jr.
951. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and
continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.
A. PNPA, C. PNTC
B. PCCR D. PPSC
E. NSTC
952. Under the law, the city/municipal jail warden should have this rank.
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector
B. Chef Inspector D. Superintendent
E. Chief Superintendent
953. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Director General D. Deputy Director General
E. Senior Superintendent
954. It exercises supervision and control over the provincial jails.

A. BJMP C. DOJ
B. Bureau of Prisons D. Provincial Government
E. DILG
955. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau.
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B. Director General D. Deputy Director General
E. Senior Superintendent
956. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal jails.
A. BJMP C. DOJ
B. Bureau of Prisons D. Local Government Unit
E. DOH
957. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment.
A. 25% C. 10%
B. 5% D. 20%
E. 25%
958. It administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity.

A. CIDG C. Womens Desk
B. DSWD D. Homicide Division
E. IAS
959. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision

and control over PNP units.
A. Chief of Police C. Local Government Executives
B. Judges D. Fiscals
E. Barangay Tanods
960. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment
of PNP members outside of their town residences.
A. Regional Directors C. Chief of Police
B. Priests D. Mayors
E. Judges
961. The head of a local peace and order council.
A. judge C. mayor
B. chief of police D. governor
E. barangay captain
962. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order.
A. employment C. assignment
B. deployment D. designation
E. attrition
963. The capability of a prospective agent to obtain the desired info for the Intel organization or
to perform to Intel collection mission in the area.
A. access
B. consent
C. intelligence
D. connection
964. Among the following, which is the least expensive and least secure personnel control
identification system?
A. Multiple pass system
B. Group pass and badge system
C. Spot magnetized identification pass
D. Single pass or badge system
965. Include all the security measures designed to prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of
doubtful loyalty to the government from gaining access to classified matter or to any security
facility and to prevent appointment or retention as employees of such individuals.
A. Security personnel
B. Employee security
C. Personnel security
D. Both A and C
966. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification categories
A. Reclassify
B. Classified
C. Declassify
D. Security clearance
967. That component of communication security which results from the provisions of technically
sound crypto system and their proper use.
A. Transmission security
B. Cryptographic security
C. Communication security
D. All of the above
968. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to compound or
installation or part thereof.
A. Pass system
B. ID
C. Access list
D. Duress code
969. Dividers in filing equipment are called________, because information on them serves as
guide to the eye of filing and locating stored items.
a. Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Library
d. Direction
970. Guide introduces a special section that falls within the alphabetic range of the primary guide
it fallows such as A section devoted to a special subject applications, or a special name group
such as names beginning with the word General.
a. Primary Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Out Guide
d. Direction
971. A heavy divider that replaced a folder in the file when the folder is temporarily removed.
a. Primary Guide
b. Cross reference
c. Out Guide
d. Direction
972. The container in which papers or materials are kept in a filing cabinet
a. Envelope
b. Cross reference
c. Folder
d. Bag
973. The heart identification system.

a. DNA
b. Type blood
c. Fingerprint card
d. Photograph
974. These are records required in the management of the department personnel and designed to
aid in assignment, promotion, and disciplinary actions.
975. These are records, which do not relate to recorded complaint and investigation reports but
are informational in character.
976. The heart of any police record system. It is the basis for an analysis of offences and the
methods by which they are committed. The following are the different types of reports included
under the case records, which shall be accomplished by all concerned.
a. DNA
b. Case Records
c. Fingerprint card
d. Photograph
977. Useful to indicate the traffic accidents and crime location. The location of crime hazards aid
in the direction of enforcement effort. It provides supervising officer with evidence of weakness
in police service and shows the individual officer where his attention is specially needed.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
978. Accident spot map for the posting for motor vehicle and pedestrian accident, which occur in
the area.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
979. A general crime spot map on which are posted the location of murders, rapes, robberies,
holdup, carnapping and other major crimes of the locality.
a. General Spot map
b. Spot map
c. Traffic Spot map
d. Crime Spot map
980. It is a non-stock private organization, and it was formed in May 1958.

a. P.D 5657
b. P.D 5674
c. P.D 4567
d. P.D 5487
981. An act that regulates the organization and operation of the private detective, watchmen or
security guard agencies.
a. P.D 5657
b. P.D 5674
c. P.D 4567
d. P.D 5487
982. The defense against crime or a state of being secured or free from hazard. Is to protect the
establishment from any form of losses as a result of theft, robbery, pilferage, sabotage,
espionage, accident, fire and subversive activities
a. Free
b. Security
c. Defense
d. Barrier
983. System of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the matter to be protected.
Concerned with the physical measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment,
facilities, material, and documents, and to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage
and theft
d. Hotel Security
984. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards hotel
guests and personnel, hotel property, and functions in hotel restaurants, bars and clubs.
d. Hotel Security
985. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which safeguards cash
and assets which are in storage in transit and during transactions.
a. Bank Security
d. Hotel Security
986. The protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevents or delay
the enemy or unauthorized person in giving information through the communication system.
a. Bank Security
d. Hotel Security
987. Physical security that involves the protection of documents and classified papers from loss,
access to unauthorized person, damage, theft and compromised through disclosure.
d. Document Security
988. The protection of top ranking official the government, visiting persons of illustrious
standing and foreign dignitaries.
a. Security
d. VIP Security
989. The protection of the rich person, industrial magnates, political leaders against kidnapping
for economic, political, emotional or nationalistic purposes.
a. Bank Security
b. Crisis Security
990. Measures to safeguard factories, manufacturing establishment, etc.

a. Factory Security
c. Industrial Security
d. Business Security
991. Physical which deals with the protection of processes, formulas, patents and other activities.
a. Bank Security
b. Operational Security
992. Any act or condition, which may result in the compromise of information, loss of life, loss
or destruction of property, or disruption of the objectives of the installations.
a. Security
b. Security Hazard
c. General Security
d. Mankind Security
993. Types of hazard, which the mere cause is the natural phenomenon. Ex. Storm, earthquake,
typhoons, floods, fire, lightning etc
a. Natural Hazard
b. Security Hazard
d. Man-made Hazard
994. A hazard that the act of omission or commission both overt/covert by an individual or by
group of an individual.
a. Natural Hazard
b. Security Hazard
d. Man-made Hazard
995. The importance of the product or services that the company is giving or producing.
a. Vulnerability
b. Criticality
c. Productivity
d. Services
996. Susceptible the establishment for the particular sabotage, espionage, etc.
a. Vulnerability
b. Criticality
c. Productivity
d. Services
997. A French word of Spy.

a. Legion
b. Espion
c. Karion
d. Nion
998. The agent of Espionage. They are very dangerous because of their skill in deception and
undercover works.
a. Saboteur
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover man
999. French word of Sabotage which means Wooden Slipper.

a. Sabot
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover
1000. The agent of sabotage.

a. Saboteur
b. Spy
c. Cody
d. Undercover man
Re read again and again..
GOOD LUCK

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LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

Pray first before study

7. When was Manila Police was formally organized?

16. Which is not belonging to the functional units?

17. Which is not belonging to the territorial units?

20. Functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization

21. Primary subdivision of a bureau

25. An area assigned for patrol purposes, whether foot or motorized.

29. An instruction given by a ranking officer to a subordinate.

43. Which is not belonging to the following orders by ranking officer?

48. Authority is definite and absolute.

54. The backbone of the police department.

55. Those operations designed to support the line functions.

56. The logistical operations of the department.

61. Carrying out the majors purposes of the police department.

62. Delivering the services provided by the department.

69. The norms and values that characterize a culture.

88. The backbone of any organizational structure.

90. Organizations that are highly structured.

91. Organizations that are those without structure.

94. Organization is effective if it enables the individuals to contribute to the organizations

96. This is the scalar principle.

101. Division of work according to type, place, time and specialization.

103. The main traditional purpose of the police.

105. Police organization is effective and efficient.

108. Role of police that focused on solving crimes.

112. The role of police that focused on crime control.

113. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is S?

115. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is C?

117. S.M.E.A.C in arrest abbreviation what is M.E.A?

120. A territorial distribution of a platoon, accomplished by assigning patrolman on beats, is

124. Employees should be treated with kindness and justice.

128. Equivalent rank of Director General in AFP ranks?

129. How many directorial staff in PNP organization?

130. What is the AFP rank of PO1?

131. What is the AFP rank of SPO1?

132. How many administrative units of PNP organization?

135. What is the AFP rank of Inspector?

137. How many operational units in PNP organization?

138. What is the AFP rank of superintendent?

140. A law for honor students

141. Police-to-population ratio in highly urbanized cities.

142. Board and Bar examination.

143. Police-to-population ratio in component cities.

144. What is the AFP rank of SPO2?

145. Police-to-population ratio in municipalities.

149. Who will head City/Provincial Public Safety Company (C/PPSC)?

151. Law for Licensed criminologist.

153. Which is not a power and functions of PNP?

162. Maximum tenure for Chief PNP.

163. Maximum tenure for Provincial director/ City Director

164. Maximum tenure for Deputy Chief.

165. Maximum tenure for Regional director?

166. Maximum tenure for Director of Staff service.

167. The anti-crime machinery

171. What is the correct order of CJS?

172. The broadest pillar

175. An attempt by police administrators in trying to allocate anticipated resources to meet

181. It is the preparation and development of procedures and techniques in accomplishing of

185. Broad design or method; or a plan to attain a stated goal or objectives.

187. Sequences of activities to reach a point or to attain what is desired.

a. Describe the present situation

a. Plan and carryout implementation

222. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to insure supportive behavior.