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Test ID: 7 7 1 2 8 4 MCT–0001/10

MAT Mock Test

Maximum Marks: 800 Time: 150 minutes
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
1. Do not open the seal of this booklet. Wait for the signal to start.
2. This booklet contains 32 pages including the blank ones. Immediately after opening the booklet,
verify that all the pages are printed properly.
3. Keep only the Admit Card, pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. Do not keep with you books,
rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pager,
palmtops, cellular phones, or any other device. These should be left outside the room.
4. The Test Paper contains 200 questions. Each question is worth 4 marks.
5. The paper is divided into five sections. Section-I: 40 Qs; Section-II: 40 Qs; Section-III: 40 Qs;
Section-IV: 40 Qs and Section-V: 40 Qs.
The marks scored in Social and Environmental Awareness do not add to the final score.
6. Directions for answering the questions are given in the test booklet before each group of questions
to which they apply. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the
appropriate ovals.
7. Wrong answers carry negative marks, to tune of – 1 for every incorrect answer. There is only one
correct answer for each question.
8. Do the rough work on the test booklet only and not on the answer sheet or any other paper.
9. Follow the instructions of the invigilator. Candidates found violating the instructions will be disqualified.
10. At the end of the test, remain seated. Do not leave the hall till the invigilator announces, “You may
leave now.” The invigilator will make the announcement only after collecting the test booklets and
answer sheets from everyone in the room.



Name:______________________________ Enrollment ID: ________________________

Centre:_____________________________ Batch: _______________________________

Time:_______________________________ Date: ________________________________

Best of Luck ! Test Prep Best of Luck !
Section – I
1. Two dealers offer successive discounts on an article with same list price. The first offers discounts
of 25%, 20% and 15% and the other of 30%, 20% and 5%. Which is a better offer for the customer?
(a) 1st offer (b) 2nd offer (c) Both are equal (d) Cannot be determined

2. The population of a city is 155625. For every 1000 men, there are 1075 women. If 40% of men and
24% of women of the city are literate, then what is the percentage of literate people in the city?
49 59 59
(a) 50% (b) 31 % (c) 41 % (d) 31 %
83 83 83

3. In the year 2008 the combined annual salary of my uncle and aunt was Rs. 3,00,000.
1 1
The next year they got respective increment of th and th of their salaries in 2008.
9 6
If my aunt’s new annual salary was 70% of my uncle’s new annual salary then what was my aunt’s
new annual salary?
(a) Rs.1,00,000 (b) Rs.1,20,000 (c) Rs.1,40,000 (d) Rs.1,60,000

4. A man cheats while buying as well as selling rice. While buying he takes 20% more than the
indicated weight and while selling he uses a faulty balance which indicates 1250 gm for a kilogram.
If he sells the rice at 30% below cost price (of the indicated weight), find his profit or loss percent?
(a) 5% loss (b) 5% profit (c) 15% profit (d) 10% profit

5. Mr. Smith decides to sell both his cars. He sells the first car at a loss of 20%. He marks the second
car up by 100% and then gives a discount of 40%. What is the percentage loss or gain in the
transaction, given that the selling prices of both the cars are the same?
(a) 3% loss (b) 2% loss (c) 3% gain (d) 4% loss
6. When a liquor dealer shipped a crate of 800 beer bottles to a customer, a few of the bottles broke
due to careless handling. The dealer had offered a discount of 10% and the customer paid Rs.
11520. But because of the loss in transit, inspite of the discount, the customer gets beer bottles,
whose value is Rs. 160 less than what he pays. What is the value (in rupees) of the broken bottles?
(Assume that the value of the beer bottles is proportional to their marked price).
(a) Rs. 1500 (b) Rs. 1600 (c) Rs. 1728 (d) Rs. 1440

7. A and B invest certain amounts at 10% per annum interest (compounded yearly).
The amount that A gets at the end of 3 years is equal to the amount that B gets at the end
of 2 years. What are the investments of A and B respectively if the total amount invested by both is
Rs. 10500?
(a) Rs. 5500, Rs. 5000 (b) Rs. 5000, Rs. 5500 (c) Rs. 6000, Rs. 4500 (d) Rs. 4500, Rs. 6000

8. A man’s basic pay for a 60 hour week is Rs. 1,800. Overtime is paid at the rate of 16% above the
basic pay rate. In a certain week he worked overtime and his total wage was Rs. 2,185. What is the
number of hours that he had worked during the week?
(a) 61 (b) 71 (c) 80 (d) 81

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Test Prep
9. A shopkeeper buys 50 dozen eggs at Rs. 4 per dozen. Out of them, 40 eggs were found broken.
At what rate (per dozen) should he sell the remaining eggs so as to gain 5% on the whole?
(a) Rs. 4 (b) Rs. 4.25 (c) Rs. 4.50 (d) Rs. 5.25

10. A milkman store a part of mixture from a container which contained 32% of milk and then replaced
what he stole, by mixture containing only 18% milk. The mixture was then of 24% strength only.
What fraction of the container had he removed?
3 5 4 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8 7 7 11

11. A 30-litre bucket contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 2 : 1. A certain quantity of this
mixture is replaced by water such that the ratio of milk and water becomes 8 : 7. This resultant
mixture is added to 20 litres of another mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1. What is
the percentage of milk in the new mixture?
(a) 75% (b) 53% (c) 45% (d) 62%

12. The present average age of Bharat, Jyoti and their daughter is 30 years. Their daughter was born
10 years ago. The average age of Bharat, his parents and Jyoti 15 years ago, was 38.75 years. The
average age of Bharat and his parents, 20 years ago, was 38 years. What is Jyoti’s age at
(a) 20 years (b) 25 years (c) 65 years (d) 40 years

13 Suresh decided to distribute 266 mangoes among Amar, Akbar and Anthoni. He intended to distribute
them in such a way that 6 times of what Amar gets, 4 times of what Akbar gets and 9 times of what
Anthoni gets are all equal. But by mistake he distributed them in the ratio 2 : 4 : 1. How many more
or less mangoes did Amar get as compared to what he should have got?
(a) 8 mangoes more (b) 6 mangoes more (c) 8 mangoes less (d) 4 mangoes less

14. A and B started a business by investing Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 60,000 respectively.
A receives 12 % of the profit for managing the business and the rest is divided in proportion of their
capitals. What is the share of A in a profit of Rs. 8800?
(a) Rs. 4200 (b) Rs. 4400 (c) Rs. 4600 (d) Rs. 4800

15. A certain amount of money is divided among nine students. The second student gets Rs. 2 more
than twice the amount given to the first student. The third student gets Rs. 3 more than thrice the
amount given to the first student, and so on till the ninth student. If the ratio of the amount with the
ninth student to the amount with the first student is 10 : 1, how much did the fifth student get
(in rupees)?
(a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 50

16. From a class of 40 boys and 30 girls, a group of 10 people are selected at random. One from the
group is selected as a leader at random. What is the probability that the person, chosen as the
leader is a boy?
4 5 1 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9 7 2 7

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Test Prep
17. Ramu picks up a card from a standard pack of cards, and then replaces it till he gets a queen or a
heart or a red coloured card. What is the probability that the final card picked up is a queen?
2 1 3 4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
5 7 8 29

18. Three cards are drawn simultaneously from a pack of cards. Find the probability that one of them is
red, another is a spade and the third is a club.
52 169 52 169
(a) (b) (c) (d)
475 850 113 475

19. There are 6 available tickets to the theater, four of which are for the seats in the front row. Out of
these 6 tickets, 3 tickets are selected at random. What is the probability that two of them are for the
front row?
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.7 (c) 0.9 (d)

20. On a railway route there are ten stations. How many different types of tickets are required in order
that it may be possible to book a passenger from every station to every other station?
10! 10! 10!
(a) (b) 10! × 2! (c) (d)
2! 8! 2!8!

21. What are the number of ways in which the letters of the word “ARGUMENT” can be arranged so that
only consonants occur at both the ends?
(a) 3! × 5! (b) 14400 (c) 41000 (d) None of these

22. Box X contains 3 green balls, 2 yellow balls. Box Y contains 4 green balls, 1 yellow ball. If 2 balls
selected at random (without replacement) from X and 1 ball is selected at random from Y. What is
the probability that all three will be yellow?
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
120 100 60 50

23. A contractor agrees to build a wall 132 feet long in 36 days and employs 16 men. If after 20 days he
finds that only 60 feet of the wall is finished, then how many more men, all now working times as
many hours, will be required to finish the work on time?
(a) 4 men (b) 6 men (c) 8 men (d) 10 men

24. A cistern can be filled by two taps A and B in 25 min. and 30 min. respectively and can be emptied
by a third in 15 min. If all the taps are turned on at the same moment, what part of the cistern will
remain unfilled at the end of 100 min.?
1 1 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 3 2 5

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Test Prep
25. x can do a certain work in 8 days while y can do the same work in 12 days. If z joins them, they
together can do the work in 3 days. If the total wages for the entire work be
Rs. 400, how much x will get as per his efficiency?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 150 (c) Rs. 140 (d) Rs. 200

26. A and B can do a work in 12 days while B and C can do it in 6 days. After A had worked on it for
3 days and B for 4 days, C finished the work in 7 days. In how many days could B do the work
(a) 12 (b) 16 (c) 30 (d) 20

27. A cistern is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The part of the tank filled by first two pipes in one
hour while operating simultaneously is equal to the part filled by the third pipe alone in one hour. The
second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours slower than the third pipe.
What is the time required by the first pipe to fill the tank alone?
(a) 6 hours (b) 10 hours (c) 15 hours (d) 30 hours

28. At his usual rowing rate, Rahul can travel 12 miles downstream in a certain river in six hours less
than it takes him to travel the same distance upstream. But if he could double his usual rowing rate
for this 24 miles round trip, the downstream 12 miles would then take only one hour less than the
upstream 12 miles. What is the speed of the current in miles per hour?
7 4 5 8
(a) m/h (b) m/h (c) m/h (d) m/h
3 3 3 3

29. A boat takes 3 hours to travel from place A to B downstream and back from B to A upstream. If the
speed of the boat in still water is 4 km, what is the distance between the two places?
(a) 8 km (b) 12 km (c) 6 km (d) Data inadequate

30. In a race Preeti gives Priya a start of 10 seconds and still beats her by 100 metre. In another race
on the same track both start at same time and Preeti wins by 20 seconds. Find their respective
speeds if the length of the track is 600 metre.
(a) 25 m/s., 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s, 15 m/s (c) 15 m/s, 10 m/s (d) 10 m/s, 5 m/s

31. Ram and Shyam are running along a circular track of length 60 m. If their speeds are
2 m/sec and 4 m/sec respectively, how many more rounds than Ram would Shyam have completed
in an hour?
(a) 240 rounds (b) 60 rounds (c) 120 rounds (d) 30 rounds
32. Two identical trains A and B running in opposite directions at same speed take 2 minutes to cross
each other completely. The number of bogies of A are increased from 12 to 16.
How much more time would they now require to cross each other?
(a) 40 seconds (b) 50 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 20 seconds

33. From a circular metal sheet of radius 15 cm, a sector with a central angle of 72° is cut and it is used
to form a cone such that the arc subtending the angle 72° at the centre becomes the base of the
cone. Find the volume of this cone.
1250 6
(a) 18 6 π cm3 (b) 16 6 π cm3 (c) π cm3 (d) 144 6 π cm3

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Test Prep
34. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB||CD. E is a point on AD and F is a point on BC such that
AE : ED = 1 : 3 and EF||AB. If AB = 16 cm and DC = 12 cm, find the ratio of areas of quadrilateral
DCFE to that of ABCD?
(a) 9 : 7 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 81 : 112 (d) 112 : 81

35. A solid object, which is in the shape of a frustum of a cone, has radius 12 cm at top and 9 cm at
bottom. Its height is 28 cm. It is melted and converted to a cylindrical object of same height as that
of the object. What is the radius of the cylinder? (in cm)
(a) 98 cm. (b) 101 cm. (c) 111 cm. (d) 116 cm.

36. Five years hence Rakesh’s age will be thrice the age of Suresh four years ago. Four years ago
Rakesh’s age was twice Suresh’s present age. What are the ages of Suresh and Rakesh respectively
(in years)?
(a) 46, 21 (b) 21, 46 (c) 22, 44 (d) 44, 22

(2 2n
− 3.22n − 2 3n − 2.3n − 2 )
37. What is the value of ?
3 n−4
(4 n+3
−2 2n
1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4 8 16 32

38. A vertical tower stands on a horizontal plane and is surmounted by a flagstaff of height 21 m. At a
point on the plane the angle of elevation of the bottom of the flagstaff is 300 and that of the top of the
flagstaff is 450. What is the height of the tower?

(a) 21 ( )
3 + 1 m. (b) 14 ( )
3 + 1 m. (c)
14 ( 3 +1) m. (d)
21 3 +1) m.
2 2

39. The sum of the first 3 terms of a Geometric Progression is 9 and the sum of their squares is 27.
What are the 6th, 7th and 8th terms of the series respectively?
1 1 1
(a) 3, 9 and 27 (b) , and (c) 3, 3 and 3 (d) 4, 16 and 64
3 3 3

40. In a college, every student has to take at least one of the four optional subjects – English, Commerce,
Physics and Statistics. 38 students take English, 42 students take Commerce, 30 students take
Physics and 36 take statistics. 29 students take exactly one subject, 21 take exactly two subjects,
13 take exactly three subjects. Find the total number of students in the college.
(a) 63 (b) 72 (c) 86 (d) 94

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Test Prep
Section – II
41. Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn
followed by a left turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If he
walks 5 km before taking each turn, towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point S to
reach point Q?
(a) North (b) South (c) West (d) East

42. There are six friends L, M, N, P, Q and S and each of them has a different height. N is taller
than Q and P but shorter than M. P is taller than only Q while S is shorter than only L. Which of the
following pairs represents the tallest and the shortest among the five friends?
(a) M, P (b) L, Q (c) P, Q (d) Cannot be determined

43. In a certain code ‘GOAT’ is coded as ‘20-12-26-7’. How will you code ‘QUICK’ in that code?
(a) 10-6-18-24-16 (b) 12-8-9-14-3 (c) 6-10-18-24-16 (d) 18-12-10-6-16

44. In a certain code ‘CONFUSED’ is written as ‘EMNBEFTV’. How is ‘SECLUDED’ written in that

Directions for questions 45 and 46: What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
letter series?

45. bacbacdbacdebacdefbacd?
(a) c (b) d (c) e (d) f

46. XDH, VGJ, TJL, RMN, ?

(a) QOP (b) PPP (c) SNO (d) QLM

Directions for questions 47 and 48: What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following
number series?

47. 1, 8, 9, ?, 25, 216, 49.

(a) 128 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 81

48. 336, 210, 120, ?, 24, 6.

(a) 36 (b) 49 (c) 60 (d) 81
Directions for questions 49 to 52: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of
words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration
of input and rearrangement.
Input : but 32 71 glory fair south 65 84
Step I : south but 32 71 glory fair 65 84
Step II : south 84 but 32 71 glory fair 65
Step III : south 84 glory but 32 71 fair 65
Step IV : south 84 glory 71 but 32 fair 65
Step V : south 84 glory 71 fair but 32 65
Step VI : south 84 glory 71 fair 65 but 32
and Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.

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Test Prep
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step
for the given input.

49. Step III of an input is:

year 92 ultra 15 23 strive house 39

How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?

(a) Three (b) Four (c) Two (d) Five

50. Input: any how 49 24 far wide 34 69

Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?

(a) VI (b) VII (c) V (d) VI

51. Step II of an input is:

war 58 box cart 33 49 star 24.

Which of the following steps will be the last ?

(a) V (b) VI (c) IV (d) VIII

52. Input: play over 49 37 12 match now 81

Which of the following will be step IV?

(a) play 81 over 49 37 match now (b) play 8 over 49 37 12 match now
(c) play 81 over 49 now 37 match 12 (d) There will be no such step

53. In a certain code ‘KITE’ is written as %2$# and ‘STUD’ is written as @$57. How is ‘DESK’ written in
that code?
(a) 8%©# (b) ©8%# (c) #7%@ (d) 7#@%

54. Raman was driving in New Town, where all roads ran either North-South or East-West forming a grid.
Roads were at a distance of 1 km from each other in parallel. Raman started at the inter-section of
streets number 7 and 8. He drove 3 km North, 3 km West, and 4 km South. Which further route
could bring him back to his starting point?

I. 3 km East, then 2 km South;

II. 3 km East, then 1 km North,
III. 1 km North, then 2 km West.

(a) I only (b) II only (c) I and II only (d) II and III only

Directions for questions 55 to 57: Read the information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Mr. and Mrs. Sharma have two children Asha and Shashi. Shashi married Radha, daughter of Mrs. Mahajan.
Suresh, son of Mrs. Mahajan, marries Rita. Sonu and Rocky are born to Suresh and Rita. Uma and Sudha
are the daughters of Shashi and Radha.

55. What is the surname of Sonu?

(a) Mahajan (b) Sharma (c) Agarwal (d) None of these

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Test Prep
56. How is Suresh related to Sudha?
(a) Brother (b) Maternal uncle (c) Uncle (d) Cousin

57. What is Sudha’s relation to Asha?

(a) Sister (b) Niece (c) Aunt (d) Daughter

58. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said. “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.” How
is that gentleman related to Deepak?
(a) Father (b) Grandfather (c) Brother-in-law (d) Uncle

Directions for questions 59 to 61: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions
given below:

Puneet, Qureshi, Rahul, Satendra, Teja, Varun and William are seven students of a school. Each of them
studies in different standard from Standard IV to Standard X not necessarily in the same order. Each of
them has a favourite subject English, Science, History, Geography, Mathematics, Hindi and Sanskrit not
necessarily in the same order.

Qureshi studies in VII Standard and does not like Mathematics. Rahul likes English and does not study in
IX Standard. Teja studies in VIII Standard and likes Hindi. The one who likes Science studies in X Standard.
Satendra studies in IV Standard. William likes Sanskrit. Puneet does not study in X Standard. The one who
likes Geography studies in V Standard.

59. In which standard does William study?

(a) VII (b) IX (c) X (d) Data inadequate

60. Which subject does Puneet like?

(a) Geography (b) Mathematics (c) English (d) History

61 Which subject does Satendra like?

(a) History (b) Geography (c) Mathematics (d) Data inadequate

62. A cube of side 4 cm is painted black on all of its surfaces and then divided into various smaller cubes
of side 1 cm each. The smaller cubes so obtained are separated. What are the number of smaller
cubes with no surface painted?
(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 12

63. A cube of 4 cm has been painted on its surfaces in such a way that two opposite surfaces have been
painted blue and two adjacent surfaces have been painted red. Two remaining surfaces have been
left unpainted. Now the cube is cut into smaller cubes of side 1 cm each. How many cubes will have
at least red colour on their surfaces?
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 28 (d) 30

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Test Prep
Directions for questions 64 to 66: Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. P sits third to the right of W
and third to the left of Q. S sits second to the right of T. V sits second to the left of R. T is not the neighbour
of Q while U is neither a neighbour of T nor W.

64. Which of the following pairs has only one person sitting between them, if the counting is done in
clockwise direction?
(a) T, V (b) R, P (c) W, P (d) None of these

65. Three of the following pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the seating arrangement
and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) P, Q (b) P, U (c) S, Q (d) R, P

66. Starting from P’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction,
the seating position of how many members (excluding P) would not change?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three

67. Many eateries in the local super market have decided not to accept credit or debit cards but to
accept only cash from the customers.

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statement?
(a) People may not have enough cash to pay their food bills.
(b) People generally prefer to pay by debt or credit cards.
(c) Customers will still eat at these establishments and pay cash.
(d) Credit and debit cards are not easy to handle.

68. The municipal authority has made English language as one of the compulsory subjects in all the
primary schools under its control from the current academic year.

Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statement?

(a) The students in the primary school run by municipal authority are not taught
English language so far.
(b) The parents of the primary school students do not have working knowledge in English
language so far.
(c) All the primary schools outside the control of municipal authority teach English language as one
of the compulsory subjects.
(d) None of these

69. Majority of the students in the local school opted for Hindi as the optional third language for their
SSC examination.

Which of the following will weaken above proposition?

(a) Hindi continues to be the favourite subject for many young students.
(b) There is no other language option available in the local school for SSC examination.
(c) 55% of the students have chosen Hindi as the second language.
(d) The school administration has not beenable to find good teachers for languages other than

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Test Prep
70. The Government has urged the farmers to increasingly opt for high yield varieties of foodgrains to
boost food security of our country vis-a-vis other countries in South Asian Region.

Which of the following will substantiate the above statement?

(a) Indian farmers have not opted for high yield varieties of food grains in the past.
(b) The Government has not made such appeal to the farmers in the past.
(c) The farmers have opted though on a smaller scale high yield varieties of foodgrains in the past.
(d) None of these

71. The Government has decided to remove all the unauthorised dwelling on the footpaths of all the
cities in state and keep them free from further encroachments.

Which of the following assumptions was made while taking the above decision?
(a) The Government has in the past taken such decisions.
(b) The Government has enough resources to implement the decision effectively.
(c) The Government machinery in the past was not equipped to take such action.
(d) The Government is occasionally blamed for taking biased decisions.

Directions for questions 72 to 76: In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses
of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement,
follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the
statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested
courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Mark your answer as:

(a) if only I follows.
(b) if only II follows.
(c) if both I and II follow.
(d) if neither I nor II follows.

72. Statement: The condition of most of the main roads in the city has deteriorated following heavy
downpour during the past fortnight due to bad quality of bitumen and other material.

Courses of action:
I. Government should immediately suspend the officials responsible for maintenance of the city
II. Government should evolve a mechanism to monitor the quality of all the roads throughout the

73. Statement: There has been sudden increase in the number of migrants from rural areas to big
cities in the recent past causing extensive pressure on the meager resources of the civic amenities.

Courses of action:
I. The concerned civic authority should immediately put a complete ban on entry of migrant
II. The Government should immediately set up a task force with a mandate to find ways to reduce
the influx of migrant population in the big cities.

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Test Prep
74. Statement: There is an exodus of good students from the vernacular medium schools to the nearby
English medium schools in the locality.

Courses of action:
I. The management of the vernacular medium schools should immediately set up a joint action
committee to find out the reason for the exodus and find ways to reverse the trend.
II. The management of the English medium schools should immediately set up a joint action
committee to accommodate students as per their capacity.

75. Statement: The private utility company has decided to increase the power tariffs by about
40 percent with immediate effect though the state owned power company has increased the tariffs
by only 10 percent.

Courses of action:
I. The government should instruct the private utility company to increase the tariff by only
10 percent.
II. The government should penalise the private utility company for announcing such high increase.

76. Statement: The cost of raw materials required for manufacturing passenger cars have increased
considerable resulting into reduction in demand for mid-sized passenger cars.

Courses of action:
I. The Government should provide tax rebate to the manufacturers to bring down the price level.
II. The passenger car manufacturing companies should rationalise pricing of passenger cars of
different segment to boost sales in near future.

Directions for questions 77 to 80: In each of these questions two statement marked assertion (A) and
reason (R) are given.

Mark your answer as:

(a) if both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) if A is true but R is false.
(c) if both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(d) if A is false, but R is true.

77. Assertion (A): England has not won any match in round one of the FIFA world cup 2010.
Reason (R): David Beckham is not playing in this world cup.

78. Assertion (A): For the production of aluminium cheap electricity is essential.
Reason (R): Extraction of aluminium from its ore requires abundant supply of electricity.

79. Assertion (A): Cutting down forests is undesirable from the point of view of soil erosion.
Reason (R): Cutting of forest reduces the percolation of rain water.

80. Assertion (A): Noise pollution is an unwanted accumulation of noise in the atmosphere.
Reason (R): It interferes with communication.

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Section – III
Directions for questions 81 to 84: Ratios of Exports to Imports of company A and company B are
given below.

Company 'A' Company 'B'

1997 1998 1999 2000 2001 2002

81. In which year were the exports of company ‘A’ the maximum?
(a) 2000 (b) 2002
(c) 1999 (d) Cannot be determined

82. Trade deficit of company ‘A’ in 1997 is 40% less than that in 1998. What is the ratio of the exports
of company ‘A’ in 1997 to that in 1998? (Trade Deficit = Import – Export)
(a) 15 : 7 (b) 49 : 15
(c) 17 : 13 (d) Cannot be determined

83. Differences between exports and imports of company ‘A’ and that of ‘B’ in 2001 are in the ratio 7 : 5.
Find that exports of company ‘A’ in 2001 is what % more or less than that of ‘B’?
(a) 37% less (b) 11% more
(c) 48% more (d) 53% less

84. In which year was the absolute difference between exports and imports of company ‘B’ minimum?
(a) 1998 (b) 1999
(c) 2000 (d) Cannot be determined

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Directions for questions 85 to 88: These questions are based on the table given below. The percentage
breakup in the tables given below is decided on the basis of the item worth (in Rs.).

Imports in India (in percentage)

Section 2001-2002 2002-2003 2003-2004 2004-2005 2005-2006

Agriculture and Allied 17.9 18.2 18.2 13.4 12.1
Ores and Minerals 5.2 1.8 2.7 2.8 3.6
Petroleum and crude 2.3 1.4 3.2 4.9 4.5
Electronic Items 73.6 77.6 74.7 76.1 77.4
Other Products 1 1 1.2 2.8 2.4

Distribution of imported Electronic items (in percentage)

Product 2001-02 2002-03 2003-04 2004-05 2005-06

LCD 7.1 5.5 5.0 4.4 3.8

Music System 8.8 7.8 9.2 9.8 10.1

Mobile Phones 12.5 13.6 13.2 15.7 16.6

DVD Players 14 13.7 13.6 11.8 11.8

Refrigerators 12.3 11.6 13.1 11.4 10.4

Micro-wave ovens 15.3 16.6 17.8 16.8 18.3

Others 30 31.2 28.1 30.1 29

Total 100 100 100 100 100

85. By what percentage has the production of Ores and Minerals in India increased from 2003-04 to
(a) 37.50% (b) 46.66% (c) 72% (d) Cannot be determined

86. If in year 2003-04, LCDs worth $224.10 million were imported to India then what was the amount
of total imports in India in that year?
(a) $5000 million (b) $4000 million (c) $6000 million (d) $8000 million

87. If the imports of Micro-wave ovens in 2002-03 were approximately $ 300 million then what is the
value of the imports of Ores and Minerals in 2005-06, given that the value of India’s imports has
increased by 150% from 2002-03 to 2005-06?
(a) $162 million (b) $184 million (c) $179 million (d) None of these

88. If India’s imports increased by 20% from 2001-02 to 2005-06, then what is the approximate percentage
increase in the imports of the Mobile Phones from 2001-02 to 2005-2006?
(a) 57% (b) 68% (c) 78% (d) Cannot be determined

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Directions for questions 89 to 92: Refer to the following pie charts and solve the questions based on
The following pie charts represent the budget expenditure of certain countries on various sectors for the
year in 2007:



6% 14%


14% 15%

8% 19%



21% 14%

Defence Education Health

Interest Nonplanned Infrastructure

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89. A country is said to be developing if its combined expenditure on education, health and infrastructure
is atleast 50% of the total expenditure. How many of the three countries can be called developing
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

90. If a country is under military rule, it will spend maximum on defence and minimum on either health
or education. How many of the above countries are under military rule?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Cannot be determined

91. If the budgetary expenditures of all the three countries are combined, which sector will account for
the maximum expenditure?
(a) Non-planned (b) Interest (c) Defence (d) Cannot be determined

92. If the total budgetary expenditure of China is four times the total budgetary expenditure of Russia;
and the population of Russia is twice the population of China, then the per capita budgetary
expenditure of China is how many times per capita expenditure of Russia?
1 1
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) (d)
8 4
Directions for questions 93 to 96: These questions are based on the following graph.

Hero Honda manufactures five different types of vehicles – CBZ, Karizma, Splender, CD-Dawn and Passion.
The number of units of the different vehicles manufactured from 2005 to 2007 is represented in the form of
a bar graph.

Number of units produced (in thousands)

200 CBZ
160 Karizma
140 125
100 100 splender
75 75 75
60 50 50 50 50 50 CD-Dawn
40 25 25 25
20 Passion
2005 2006 2007

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93. If the production target of all the vehicles together in 2008 is 20% more than the production in 2007,
then what is the percentage deficit in 2008 with respect to the target, if the number of vehicles
produced in 2008 is 520 thousand?
(a) Between 4% and 5%. (b) Less than 3%.
(c) Greater than 5%. (d) Between 3% and 4%.
94. By how many percentage points is the production of Splender, as a percentage of the total number
of vehicles produced, more in 2006 than in 2007?
(a) 3.33 (b) 4.88 (c) 4.44 (d) 2.22
95. For Karizma, the percentage decrease in the production from 2006 to 2007 is equal to the percentage
increase in the price during the same period. If the price of each Karizma in 2006 was Rs. 2 lakh,
then what is the price of each Karizma in 2007?
(a) Rs. 2.33 lakh (b) Rs. 6 lakh (c) Rs. 2.99 lakh (d) Rs. 2.66 lakh
96. What is the percentage increase in the total production of vehicles by Hero Honda from
2005 to 2007?
(a) 100% (b) 50% (c) 150% (d) 200%
Directions for questions 97 to 100: Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production
of two items I and II. The comparative data about production of these items by the seven companies is
given in the following graph and table. Study them carefully and answer the questions given below.

Percentage share of the total production cost

by the seven companies
27% 5% G
D 12%

C B 15%
22% 11%
Ratio of cost of production between items I and II,
and the percent profit earned on the two items.

Ratio of cost of production Percent profit

Item I Item II Item I Item II
A 2 3 25 20
B 3 2 32 35
C 4 1 20 22
D 3 5 15 25
E 5 3 28 30
F 1 4 35 25
G 1 2 30 24

Cost of the total production (both items together)

by seven companies = Rs. 25 crores.

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97. Cost of production of item I by company F is what percent of the cost of production of item II by
company D?
(a) 16% (b) 33.33% (c) 66.67% (d) None of these

98. What is the total profit earned by company G for items I and II together?
(a) Rs. 78 lakh (b) Rs. 1.62 crore (c) Rs. 7.8 crore (d) Rs. 16.2 lakh

99. What is the ratio of the cost of production of item I by company A to the cost of production of item
I by company D?
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3

100. What is the total cost of production of item I by company A and item II by company B?
(a) Rs. 2.6 crore (b) Rs. 26 lakh (c) Rs. 3.35 crore (d) Rs. 33.65 lakh

Directions for questions 101 to 104: There are five high schools A, B, C, D and E in a certain town. Total
number of high school students of the town is 1800. Each students knows either english or hindi or both
the languages but do not know any other language. The strength of school A is 20% and B is 37.5% of the
total number of students of the town. D and E have equal strengths. 40% students of A know only one
language–Hindi. 60% students of D know only one language–English. There are 111 more students in B
who know Hindi exclusively than the number of students of D who know English only. 55 students of C
know Hindi but not English. 15 students of D know both the languages. The strength of C is 37.5% of the
strength of A. Two-fifths of students of B know both the languages. The number of students of C who know
English but not Hindi is 40 less than the number in the same category of B. 97 students of E know only
English and 72 students of A know both the languages. 28 students of E know both the languages.

101. What percent of the total number of students know both the languages?
(a) 22.33% (b) 22.66% (c) 22.22% (d) 22.5%

102. What is the difference between the number of students who know English and those who know
Hindi exclusively?
(a) 250 (b) 200 (c) 400 (d) 360

103. The number of students who know only Hindi of C is how many times of those who know both the
languages of the same school?
2 1 1 2
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 3
3 3 3 3

104. What percent of the total number of students know Hindi exclusively?
(a) 44.44% (b) 55.55% (c) 33.33% (d) None of these

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Directions for questions 105 to 108: The diagram shows the percentage of students in six classes
– A, B, C, D, E and F whose favourite game is hockey, kabaddi or kho-kho. The total number of students
in these classes are A–80, B–96, C–120, D–100, E–80 and F–120

100 %
H ockey 50% K abadd i
B A 100 %
100 % 75% 50% 25% 0%
K ho-K ho

Answer the following questions based on the given information.

105. Find the number of students in classes C and D together whose favourite game is hockey?
(a) 95 (b) 110 (c) 125 (d) 135

106. How many more students in class B have Kho-Kho as their favourite sport when compared to
students in class A, whose favourite sport is Kabaddi?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10

107. The number of students in class B whose favourite sport is Hockey form what percentage of the
student in class C whose favourite sports is Kabaddi?
(a) 60 (b) 80 (c) 84 (d) 90

108. In the class in which the percentage of students whose favourite sport is Hockey was the highest,
what is the number of students whose favourite sport was not Hockey?
(a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 35 (d) 25

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Directions for questions 109 to 114: Each of the following questions consists of two quantities, one in
column A and one in column B.

Mark your answer as:

(a) if the quantity in column A is greater.
(b) if the quantity in column B is greater.
(c) if the two quantities are equal.
(d) if the relationship cannot be determined from the given information.

Column – A Column – B

109. The number of posts 12 posts

needed for a fence
144 feet long and successive
posts are placed
12 feet apart
110. Time elapsed from hours
2:55 P.M. to 3:15 P.M.
on the same afternoon

1 2
111 of 8 66 % of 4
3 3

112. The average of 0.49 , 75%

and 0.8

113. 3 % 3 (35/1000)

114. x (if x + 1 > 0) y (if y – 1 > 0)

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Directions for questions 115 to 120: Each question is followed by two statements marked (I) and (II).
Answer each question using the following instructions.

Mark your answer as:

(a) if the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
(b) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
(c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but not by using either
statement alone.
(d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

115. Is Pannalal the father of Ruby?

I. Ruby is the daughter of Pannalal.
II. Pannalal is the brother of Hiralal.

116. Is the integer divisible by 15?

I. Sum of the digits of number equals 15.
II. Unit digit of number is 6.

117. Is A an even number?

I. 4A + 3B is an even number.
II. 3A + 4B is an even number.

118. Is N1N2 a perfect square?

I. Number of divisors of N1 is 25.
II. Number of divisors of N2 is 9.

119. Is AB parallel to EF in the adjoining figure?




I. The ratio of the angles T, R and F of ∆TRF is 10 : 5 : 3.

II. ∠ASQ = 70°

120. What is the ratio of the area between two concentric circles and the area of the outer circle?
I. Their circumferences are in the ratio 3 : 2
II. The radius of the inner circle is 5 2

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Section – IV
121. Which one of the following is not included in Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
(b) Equal justice and free legal aid.
(c) Living wages for workers.
(d) Safeguarding forests and wild life.

122. Who decides whether a Bill is a Finance Bill or not?

(a) President of India (b) Finance Minister of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha (d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

123. What is the title of the autobiography on Mahatma Gandhiji?

(a) Sermon on the Mount (b) Hind swaraj
(c) My Experiments with Truth (d) Discovery of India

124. Population census is made in India in every

(a) 7 years (b) 10 Years (c) 15 Years (d) 20 Years

125. Which State is the largest producer of Tobacco in India?

(a) Karnataka (b) Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Tamil Nadu

126. Which of the following is linked with ‘Golden Hand Shake Scheme’?
(a) Voluntary Retirement (b) Indian Gold Dealers
(c) Foreign Gold Dealers in India (d) Promoting Trade in Gold

127. Which gas is used for the artificial ripening of green fruits?
(a) Ethane (b) Carbon-dioxide (c) Acetylene (d) Ethylene

128. What is the percentage of water in an adult human body?

(a) 10% (b) 30% (c) 65% (d) 75%

129. When does the ‘blue moon’ phenomenon occur?

(a) Two full moons occur in the same month.
(b) Four full moons appear in two consecutive months of the same calendar year.
(c) Two full moons appear in the same month thrice in a calendar year.
(d) None of the these

130. Which among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Methane (d) All of the above

131. Which one of the following is the correct combination?

Player Sports
(a) Jeev Milkha Singh – Tennis
(b) Jhulan Goswami – Cricket
(c) Baichung Bhutia – Hockey
(d) Pankaj Advani – Badminton

132 Which king of the Gupta Dynasty was called the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(a) Samudragupta (b) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(c) Sri Gupta (d) Chandragupta-I

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133 Camel can walk easily in the desert, because
(a) it has thick skin
(b) it can maintain water level in the body
(c) it has a layer of fat under the skin to combat heat
(d) it has long legs with padded paws

134 For which of the following the unit of measurement is kilo watt hour?
(a) Force (b) Power (c) Time (d) Energy

135 What is the full form of NREGA?

(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(b) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(c) National Rural Employment Guarantee act
(d) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

136 Sania Mirza is related to Lawn Tennis. In the same way Saina Nehwal is related to which sport?
(a) Chess (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Squash

137. Who was affectionately called as ‘Dada Moni in the world of Hindi Cinema?
(a) Balraj Sahni (b) Prithviraj Kapoor (c) Ashok Kumar (d) Utpal Dutt

138. What is the name of the first nuclear reactor of India?

(a) Rohini (b) Vaishali (c) Apsara (d) Kamini

139. A nominal sum given as a token for striking a sale is called

(a) Earnest money (b) Advance (c) Interest (d) Solatium

140. India’s first private telephone service was launched in 1998 at

(a) New Delhi (b) Indore (c) Mumbai (d) Kochi

141. How many Indian Companies found a place in Forbes list of the companies for 2010 i.e, Global
(a) 47 (b) 50 (c) 56 (d) 62

142. Who among the following has been appointed as a new Brand Ambassador of Sony India to
promote the sale of its digital cameras in the market?
(a) Kareena Kapoor (b) Deepika Padukone (c) Saif Ali khan (d) Preeti Zinta

143. Who among the following won the award of the best batsman of Indian premier League – III?
(a) Suresh Raina (b) M.S Dhoni (c) Sachin Tendulkar (d) Pragyan Ojha

144. Pick the odd one out?

(a) Outlander (b) Montero (c) Palio (d) Cadia

145. Which Air conditioning company has the slogan “ Inspire the next”?
(a) Bluestar (b) Hitachi (c) Carrier (d) LG

146. What is the full form of NSE?

(a) New York Stock Exchange (b) New york Special Exchange
(c) New york Script Exchange (d) National Securities Depository Limited

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147. Which Major Indian Corporate group is popular as ADAG?
(a) Anil Dhirubhai Ambani Group (b) Anil Dhirubhai Associate group
(c) Ambani Dhirubhai Associated Group (d) Ambani Dhirubhai Assorted Group

148. What is the name of the recent car released by Toyota in India?
(a) Camry (b) Qualis (c) Xing (d) Voyager

149. What is the name of the UK- based tea company acquired by Tata Tea?
(a) Tetley (b) Gemini (c) Brooke Bond (d) Nestel

150. What is a computer network without wires called?

(a) LAN (b) WAN (c) WiFi (d) EPABX

151. What is the National Currency of Malaysia?

(a) Dollar (b) Ringgit (c) Rupees (d) Riyals

152. In Mutual Fund Terminology, what is SIP?

(a) Start Investment Plan (b) Simple Investment Plan
(c) Serial Investment Plan (d) Systematic Investment Plan

153. What is the name of the Mobile Company which was acquired by Sony
(a) Nokia (b) Erricson (c) DoCoMo (d) Cell One

154. Louie Phillippe is the brand name of a

(a) shirt (b) paper (c) car (d) luggage Ware

155. The UK government has proposed that everyone in UK is to be provided with

(a) a training Course during 2010 (b) a Bank Account
(c) zero- Carbon energy (d) internet Access

156. Which of the following countries is not the member of SAARC?

(a) Maldives (b) Malaysia (c) Bhutan (d) Nepal

157. Against which brand Google has won the crucial victory in the five-year-long legal battle
(a) Gucci (b) Louis Vuitton (c) Apple (d) China Direct.com

158. Hamas is a militant organization fighting against which of the following countries?
(a) Sudan (b) Israel (c) Brazil (d) Syria

159. What was the name of the first feature film (talkie) produced in India?
(a) Hatimtai (b) Alamm Ara (c) Pundalik (d) Raja Harishchandra

160. In which year Mother Teresa won the Nobel Prize for peace?
(a) 1977 (b) 1979 (c) 1982 (d) 1984

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Section – V
Directions for questions 161 to 165: In each of the questions below, four sentences are given denoted by
A, B, C and D. Arrange these sentences to form a meaningful paragraph.

161. A. If it does not, it could lead to misleading conclusions.

B. The sample must be so selected that it is representative of the target population.
C. The business strategies arising from them might not be effective.
D. Market research depends on statistical sampling procedures.
(a) DCBA (b) ABDC (c) BCAD (d) DBAC

162. A. But, technological advances and global developments are undercutting the foundation of this
B. Today, knowledge is being hailed as the new source of wealth and power.
C. But, to leverage knowledge, we have to transform the way we organise and use human resources.
D. Historically, our industrial wealth has been built on the exploitation and depletion of natural
(a) BCAD (b) CBDA (c) ACBD (d) DABC

163. A. Over fifty years of self-rule has not made a positive and visible impact on the life of the masses.
B. These have led several persons to take to deviant ways of life.
C. So, the matter should be looked in a wider perspective and a viable alternative should be sought.
D. The disparities, deprivations and discrimination continue to be pervasive and grim.
(a) BCDA (b) CBAD (c) ADBC (d) DCAB

164. A. With the breakdown of joint family system and the strain of modern life, elderly people no longer
receive the attention they deserve.
B. But in India, government schemes are still ad hoc and hardly touch the periphery of the problem.
C. Some countries have found ways to take care of the elderly people.
D. Given the advance in medical science and healthcare, the number of elderly people has increased
(a) CBAD (b) ADCB (c) BCDA (d) CDBA

165. A. Besides, deforestation is aided by ever increasing urban infrastructural demand, such as metalled
highway, better places of dwelling etc.
B. Heavy use of fuel wood, mainly for domestic chores, contributes to a high level of air-borne
particulate matter and has caused the depletion of forest resources.
C. As a result, large-scale utilisation of forest resources has caused serious economical,
environmental and social hazard.
D. The burning of fuel wood is one of the major sources of air pollution in India.
(a) DBAC (b) ABDC (c) ACDB (d) BCDA

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Directions for questions 166 to 180: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

Passage – I

Dairy industry dominates change in India through its causal links with factor and product markets. It
employs around 20 percent of the labour force and contributes around 10 percent of the gross domestic
product. In the poorer states, its contribution to the domestic product is close to 40 percent. Low productivity
in dairy sector has led to the concentration of the poor in this sector. Due to the sheer size of the service
sector economy and the importance of its products in the diets of the poor, gains in dairy productivity have
significant potential impact on poverty. Theoretically, it is possible to reduce poverty as well as expand the
domestic market for industry by raising labour productivity in dairy sector and spreading its gains among
the low income groups. Modelling of the linkages between dairy sector and industrial growth has shown
that a 10 percent increase in dairy output would increase industrial output by 5 percent and urban workers
would benefit by both increased industrial employment and price deflation. However, there is an asymmetry
of adjustments in the demand and supply of dairy products. An increase in non-dairy production would lead
to an immediate increase in demand for intermediate and final dairy products, whereas supply-side
adjustments involving re-allocation of resources and net additional investment for capacity expansion take
a much longer period. There is a widely held view that in a large country like India, the demand stimulus for
industrialisation would come mainly from dairy industry with less social and economic costs.

Interdependencies in dairy and labour market are important for the development process. An upward shift
in the dairy products supply curve would simultaneously result in an upward shift in the labour demand
curve. The magnitude of the interdependence depends on the technique of production causing the shifts
in the dairy products supply curve. Similarly, an upward shift in the labour supply curve shifts up the dairy
products demand curve. The extent of interdependence between the forces of labour supply and dairy
products demand depends on the employment output elasticity and the income elasticity of demand for
dairy product. The recent estimate of the employment-output elasticity in dairy sector is around 0.3;
income elasticity of dairy product is in the range of 0.35-0.40; and that for cereals is 0.25-0.30. The other
important interdependency, which plays a crucial role in inducing indirect employment, is that between
dairy product and other sectors through demand linkages. Since milk accounts for a sizeable share in the
budget of the poor and any reduction in the milk price leaves a significant proportion of income for other
items, a lower milk price stimulates employment in industrial and dairy sectors. On the other hand, an
increase in the milk price would increase the wage costs of industrial products and hence the prices of
industrial products. In the absence of adjustments through exports, it would result in demand deficiency.
Clearly, the most favourable situation in India is one in which labour demand outpaces its supply and milk
supply outpaces its demand.

Wage rates cannot fall below a certain minimum determined by the costs of subsistence living and the
labour supply curve turns elastic at the subsistence wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the
wage rate. Demographic pressure cannot push the wage rate below the subsistence level. People would
be willing to starve rather than work unless the energy expended in physical work is compensated by the
energy provided by food. Milk and its product price usually determines the subsistence wage rate in dairy
as well as in the urban informal sector since dairy products account for about two-fifths of the calorie intake
of the poor.

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166. What is meant by demand deficiency?
(a) The absence of adjustments in dairy product supply and wage cost
(b) The low calorie intake present in dairy products
(c) The increase in dairy production will decrease the industrial production.
(d) None of these

167. The poor are more concentrated in dairy sector because they
(a) are socially and economically attached to cattle wealth.
(b) feel insecure in urban area.
(c) think that their major food product is most secure in dairy sector.
(d) None of these

168. According to the passage, the poverty can be reduced by

A. raising labour productivity in dairy sector.
B. distributing judiciously the dairy sector gain among the poor.
C. making the dairy products available to poor at a negligible price.
(a) Either (A) or (E) (b) Either (A) or (C)
(c) Both (A) and (B) (d) All (A), (B) and (C)

169. How, according to the passage, does the dairy sector dominate change process in India?
(a) Its contribution to gross domestic product is the maximum.
(b) Majority of Indian population depends on dairy sector.
(c) The dairy sector is directly linked with factor and product markets.
(d) Increase in dairy sector production raises the industrial production.

170. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word ‘deflation’ as used in the passage?
(a) reduction (b) manifestation
(c) increase (d) air pressure

Passage – II

While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in
starting the process of modernising Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that
process. One of the most beneficial institutions which was initiated by the British was democracy. Nobody
can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy was and is a far better alternative to the
arbitrary rule of rajas and nawabs which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.

However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of
cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party which got the support of
the majority of elected members formed the Government while the others constituted a standing Opposition.
The existence of the Opposition of those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.

In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it’s rule by
persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the
elected members as in the rest of society.

Normally, members of any organisation have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues
but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between
some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in Opposition. This is natural

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because it is not likely that some members would have the same views on all issues as against others who
also agree on all issues.

The members of an organisation usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an
adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus,
persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail, may not be on the same
side if there is a difference on some other issue.

It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two-party system came to prevail in
Britain, and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule.

Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two-party system was not brought about
in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India - of more or less equal strength - is a virtual
impossibility. The reasons should be taken into consideration by those who regret the absence of a two-
party system.

When the two-party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rulers (consisting
of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed
two groups within the selected members of Parliament. There were members of the British aristocracy
(with landed interests and consisting of lords, barons, etc.) and members of the newly emerging commercial
class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were of more or less equal strength and they
were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

171. In pre-British period, when India was ruled by independent rulers,

(a) peace and prosperity prevailed in the society.
(b) people were isolated from political affairs.
(c) public opinion was inevitable for policy-making.
(d) law was equal for one and all.

172. Democracy is practised where

(a) people participate on paper.
(b) elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matters.
(c) the opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(d) the representatives of the masses rule.

173. Which of the following create(s) a barrier in the way of a two-party system in the Indian democracy?

i. A large electorate consisting of several political groups.

ii. Uniformity of interests among political groups
iii. Political consciousness and awareness among the masses.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii) and (iii) (c) Only (i) (d) Only (ii)

174. Which of the following is true about the situation in Britain, according to the passage?
(a) At a time Britain will have only one party in power and the other in Opposition.
(b) Britain has a vast number of voters.
(c) British aristocracy is more powerful than its commercial class consisting of merchants and
(d) With the passage of time, the commercial class in British has gained an upper hand in political

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175. Give a suitable title to the passage.
(a) Democracy, the best form of governance
(b) Democracy in Britain
(c) Britishers in India
(d) End of aristocracy in India

Passage – III

We have seen some pretty gruesome violence in our war with terrorism which may have desensitised us
or taught us the merit of stoic acceptance of mindless violence. Such violence has shown steady escalation
with terrorists now prepared to even die in their mission. While what happened on 11/9 was epochal, the
subcontinent too has seen suicide missions in action Sriperumbudur onwards. But the attack on our
Parliament was unprecedented and the violence was certainly not mindless, which is why it raised a
couple of questions. One is why it could not be prevented –– was there no prior intelligence about it or was
it sheer failure of security arrangements in parliament? The other is about its investigation by the police.

A dispassionate assessment of both shows that intelligence did exist but even if parliament remained
secure due to the sacrifice of valiant security personnel, its security arrangements, which are in the form
of concentric circles radiating inwards, were breached at the outermost cordon. The principle underlying
these arrangements is that even if the outermost cordon is breached, the inner cordons shall stand firm.
The first cordon itself, however, is expected to turn back any attempt to breach it. The personnel on duty
in this cordon regulate access into Parliament and must satisfy themselves of the bona fides of all visitors
by scrutinising passes or identity cards.

It is the scrutiny that failed 13/12 – the duty personnel either did not conduct it with the required diligence
or were fooled by fake documents. This scrutiny is not easy, most people object to it, either because of the
time taken or because they see it as an affront. Ideally, the checking time should be reduced without
minimising its effectiveness. What really happened on December 13 is not clear except that the culprit car
was allowed entry as it had a flashing light on top, as VIP cars do, and a Home Ministry (MHA) label which
had been duplicated by downloading the MHA logo from the website.

Whether it could have been detected then or not, such a serious security breach must be prevented in
future. The website can be made secure but how did the rather ample quantum of explosives in the car go
undetected, especially since the duty personnel did have an explosive detector? Or was its use deemed
unnecessary because the vehicle appeared to be a government car? Measures to prevent a recurrence of
such incidents can be devised only if the correct position is known.

Checking at the Parliament gates was tightened some years ago, but the gates are kept open, though with
barricades to slow down. A neater arrangement would be mechanically operated gates that open
after electronically checking entry cards. The gates could also be monitored by a CCTV system from a
central room.

Since the terrorists involved in this case were all dead even before investigation could begin, they could
hardly be questioned about things like planning details, their associates, etc. Searching the bodies of the
dead terrorists could have led to some helpful information, but as this was a suicide mission, such a
search was not possible until the bodies were sanitised and that takes time. However, the police were still
able to unravel the mystery, and identify and arrest four of the conspirators and even organise a live
telecast of one of them confessing.

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It is assumed that Pakistan has been forced by the US to proceed against militant outfits on the basis of
the evidence collected by the Indian police so far. They deserve appreciation. Hopefully, once the investigation
is over, the trial in the special court shall not be prolonged.

176. Which of the following worry the author of the passage?

A. Lack of prior intelligence in 11/9 incident

B. Failure of security arrangements in
11/9 incident
C. Lack of prior intelligence in 13/12 incident
D. Failure of security arrangements in 13/12 incident
(a) Only A and B (b) Only C and D (c) Only A, B and C (d) Only B, C and D

177. Which of the following factors was responsible for ensuring that Parliament remained safe during the
the attack on it?
(a) Our being desensitised by the frequent terrorist attacks
(b) The security personnel were on a suicide mission.
(c) The preparedness of our intelligence agencies
(d) The bravery of the security personnel

178. Which of the following mechanisms does the author suggest for the entry of vehicles into the
parliament premises?

A. The provision of barricades to slow the vehicles.

B. Mechanically operated gates that openafter electronically checking entry cards.
C. Monitoring by a CCTV system from a central control room.
(a) Only A and C (b) Only B (c) Only C (d) Only B and C

179. Why is a thorough investigation not possible in the parliament attack case?
(a) There was no prior intelligence about it.
(b) The investigators are not capable of dispassionate assessment.
(c) The terrorists involved in his case are all dead.
(d) The parliamentarians feel insulted on being checked thoroughly.

180. Which of the following is NOT true as per the passage?

(a) Suicide mission is a recent tactic employed by the terrorists.
(b) The duty personnel had an explosive detector.
(c) Security check of the parliamentarians, if done properly, is a time-taking process.
(d) All the above are true

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Directions for questions 181 to 185: Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the
blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

181. Though biotechnology is about 25 years old, the country’s _____ sector came into its own
internationally for the first time as recently as four months ago.
(a) embryonic (b) acquisitive (c) extensiv (d) fledgling

182. Despite all the talk of real estate prices falling, the fact is that housing in the country is _____
(a) frightfully (b) legally (c) marginally (d) pathetically

183. The rules of the game that the jury followed are above _____ and I am prepared to believe them.
(a) reproach (b) suspicion (c) ground (d) peak

184. Anti-globalisation protesters may take _____ at this, but the Indian markets’ links with the global
bourses are stronger than ever.
(a) cudgels (b) umbrage (c) touchy (d) nexus

185. The live pictures of airplanes _____ into the World Trade Center may change our world.
(a) targeting (b) thrusting (c) slamming (d) smashed

Directions for questions 186 to 190: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. (Ignore the errors of
punctuation, if any.)

186. (a) It is time we had revised / (b) our attitudes to governance / (c) in developing countries / (d) and
transition economies.

187. (a) He hardly had / (b) collected the papers / (c) on his desk when / (d) the door burst open.

188. (a) Had he fared / (b) more better in the exam / (c) he would have / (d) got a better job.

189. (a) He criticised / (b) the government for / (c) failing in halting / (d) economic decline.

190. (a) He as well as / (b) his friends / (c) were sad about / (d) not winning the competition.

Directions for questions 191 to 195: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it.

It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the
body. In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the production and release in brain neurons of
the neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds the neurons use to transmit signals to
other cells) depend directly on the food that the body processes.

Our first studies sought to determine whether the increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large
injection of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels
in the blood. We found that, immediately after the rats began to eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood
tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These findings suggested that the production and
release of serotonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with blood tryptophan increases. In later

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studies we found that injecting insulin into a rat’s blood stream also caused parallel elevations in blood and
brain tryptophan levels and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the secretion of the
animal’s own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate-containing
meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level and
the concentrations of tryptophan and of serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.

Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan and serotonin
levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan, why does it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer lies
in the mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also provides
the brain cells with other amino acids found in protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of
protein increases blood concentration of the other amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does
that of tryptophan.

The more protein there is in the meal, the lower is the ratio of the resulting blood tryptophan concentration
to the concentration of competing amino acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to the brain.
Thus the more protein in the meal, the less serotonin subsequently produced and released.

191. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors initially held which of the following hypotheses
about what would happen when they fed large amounts of protein to rats?
(a) The rats’ tyrosine levels would increase less quickly than would their leucine levels
(b) The rats’ brain serotonin levels would not decrease
(c) The rats’ brain tryptophan levels would decrease
(d) The rats would produce more insulin

192. According to the passage, one reason that the authors gave rats carbohydrates was to
(a) compare the effects of carbohydrates with the effects of proteins
(b) depress the rats’ tryptophan levels
(c) cause the rats to produce insulin
(d) demonstrate that insulin is the most important substance secreted by the body

193. The authors’ discussion of the “mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells” is
meant to (see middle of the 3rd para)
(a) provide supporting evidence for a controversial scientific theory
(b) refute the conclusions of a previously controversial scientific theory
(c) help explain why a particular research finding was obtained
(d) stimulate further research studies

194. Which of the following titles best summarizes the content of the passage?
(a) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The connection between serotonin levels and tyrosine
(b) Neurotransmitters: Their crucial function in Cellular Communication
(c) The effects of food intake on the Production and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings
(d) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal Dependence

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195. According to the passage, the speed with which tryptophan is provided to the brain cells of a rat
varies with the
(a) concentration of tryptophan in the brain before a meal
(b) concentration of serotonin in the brain before a meal
(c) concentration of leucine in the blood rather than on the concentration of tyrosine in the blood
after a meal
(d) amount of Protein present in the meal

Directions for questions 196 to 200: In each of these questions, the word at the top is used in four
different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is incorrect or inappropriate.

196. PUSH
(a) I pushed the door hard, but it just would not open.
(b) He told me to push and leave him alone.
(c) His rivals are trying to push him out of the elections.
(d) They pushed their way to the front of the queue.

(a) The employer was not ready to accept any conditions from the candidate.
(b) Women in some societies are conditioned to accept lower status than men.
(c) One should condition well at these formal dinners.
(d) He is in no condition to go to work.

198. FLASH
(a) Violence flashed in many areas last night.
(b) Camera bulbs flashed as the Prime Minister appeared on the podium.
(c) The news of tsunami flashed around the world within moments.
(d) A strange thought flashed through her mind.

199. INNER
(a) Dr. Singh is a member of the inner circle of the Director.
(b) Before shifting to this area, Col. Sudhir lived in inner Mumbai.
(c) If you have the inner strength, nobody can shake you.
(d) You can make an impact anywhere if you have the inner attitude.

(a) The audience could hardly hear her opening remarks.
(b) I like to get out in the opening air on weekends.
(c) The film’s opening night was a huge success.
(d) The opening of the novel is by far its best part.

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