Rheumatology Test

Q.1. All are B cell markers except :

a. CD 15
b. CD 19
c. CD 21
d. CD 24

Q.2. Which one of the following statements about NK cells is not correct
a. they lyse tumour cells
b. they are found in peripheral blood and lymphoid tissues.
c. they are CD 3 positive
d. they lyse target cells by antibody mediated cellular cytotoxicity

Q.3. Interferons secreted by all except :

a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Fibroblast
d. Lymphocytes
e. None

Q.4. Opsonising toxins are :

a. C3a
b. C3b
c. C5a
d. C5-9

Q.5. Anaphylaxis is mediated by all except :

a. Serotonin
b. Bradykinin
c. Prostaglandins
d. Anaphylotoxin

Q.6. Factor present in the final complement pathway

a. C3
b. C4
c. C5
d.Protein B
Q.7. Complement fixation is done by
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgA
e. All

Q.8. Immunoglobulins IgG the maximum concentration is of which subclass

a. Ig G1
b. IgG2
c. IgG3
d. IgG4

Q.9 Ig A lymphoma involves :

a. Large intestine
b. Small intestine
c. Lymph nodes
d. Spleen

Q.10. Intravenous Immunoglobulins (IVIG) is given in

a. ITP
b. Kawasakis disease
c. Myasthenia Gravis
d. GBS
e. All

Q.11. MHC is associated with

a. T-cell function
b. Transplant reaction
c. Auto-immune disease
d. All

Q.12. HLA II antigens are recognised by

a. T-helper
b. T- effector
c. T-supressor
d. All
Q.13. HLA B27 is associated with
a. Psoaritic arthropathy
b. Ankylosing arthropathy
c. Inflammatory arthropathy
d. Reactive arthritis
e. All

Q.14. HLA DR2 is associated with

a. Narcolepsy
b. Multiple Sclerosis
c. Good-pastures syndrome
d. SLE
e. Type I DM
f. All

Q.15. HLA B8 is associated with

a. Myasthenia Gravis
b. Graves disease
c. Both
d. None

Q.16. Humoral immunodeficiency is suspected and under evaluation. Which of

the following is not compatible with the diagnosis
a. Giardiasis
b. PCP
c. Recurrent Sinusitis
d. Recurrent subcutaneous abscess

Q.17. Adenosine Deaminase deficiency is associated with :

a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. X-linked agammaglobumnemia
c. Chronic granulomatous disease
d. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia

Q.18. Recurrent Giardiasis suggests

a. C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
b. C8 deficiency
c. Severe variable deficiency
d. Di-Georges syndrome
Q.19. Thymoma is associated with all except
a. Graves disease
b. Red cell aplasia
c. Eosinopenia
d. Hypergammaglobulinemia

Q.20. Recurrent Neisseria infection suggests

a. Complement C5 deficiency
b. C2 deficency
c. C3 deficiency
d. C4 deficiency

Q.21. A man takes peanut and developed Stridor, neck swelling, tongue
swelling, and hoarseness of voice. Most probable diagnosi diagnosis is :
a. Foreign body bronchus
b. Parapharyngeal abscess
c. Foreign body larynx
d. Angioneurotic edema

Q.22. The most specific antibody for SLE is :

a. ANA
b. Anti-Sm
c. Anti-dsDNA
d. Anti-Ro

Q.23. Best marker for drug induced lupus

a. Anti-Histone
b. Anti-dsDNA
c. ANA
d. Anti-Ro

Q.24. Joint erosions are not a feature of ;

a. RA
b. Psoraisis
c. SLE
d. ALL of the above
Q.25. Characteristic feature of SLE is
a. Uveatis
b. Joint deformity
c. Polyserosistis
d. Cavitating lung lesion

Q.26. HLA-B5 is associated with

a. Behcets syndrome
b. Ankylosing arthritis
c. Rheumatic fever
d. None

Q.27. Addisions disease is associated with

a. HLA-B27
b. HLA- B8
c. HLA- A3
d. HLA 13

Q.28. Hemochromotosis is associated with

a. HLA B3
b. HLA A3
c. HLA DR2
d. HLA- DR3

Q.29. Hereditary Angioedema is characterised by

a. Autosomal dominant C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
b. Autosomal recessive C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
c. Autosomal dominant C3 esterase inhibitor deficiency
b. Autosomal recessive C3 esterase inhibitor deficiency

Q.30.Among the following which are IgM :

a. Anti-A, anti-B
b. Antibodies to S.Typhi O
c. Wasserman antibodies for Syphilis
d. All of the above
Q.31. Antibody associated with CREST syndrome is :
a. Anti-centromere
b. Anti-Topoisomerase
c. Anti-Histone
d. All

Q.32. Serum sickness reaction is mediated by

a. cell mediated cytotoxicity
b. Immune complex deposition
c. Bradykinin
d. T-cell

Q.33. Digeorge syndrome is associated with

a. velo-facial defects
b. thymus hypoplasia
c. Mental retardation
d. all of the above

Q.34. Anti-SS-a antibody is same as

a. Anti-Rho
b. Anti-La
c. Anti-Sm
d. ANA

Q.35. Anti-Rho antibody is associated with all except

a. increased dermatological manifestation
b.increased risk of nephritis
c. congenital lupus with congenital heart block
d.none of the above

Q.36. Infliximab/ Adamamubib are

a. IL antibodies
b. TNF antibodies
c. TNF blockers
d. Interferons
Q.37. Anakinra is
a. IL-1 antagonist
b. IL-2 antagonist
c. IL-3 antagonist
d. IL-4 antagonist

Q.38. Etarnacept is
a. TNF-alpha receptor blocker
b. TNF-antibody
c. IL-1 antibody
d. none of the above

Q.39. Morpheus is
a.Limited form of scleroderma
b. skin TB
c. Hansens variant
d. Porphyria variant

Q.40. Juvenile RA is
a. Seronegative
b. Large joint involvement, asymmetry
c. rapid progression
d. all of the above.

Q.41. Schobers test is a test for

a. Inflammatory arthritis
b. Lumbar spine flexion
c. Chest expansion
d. Psoaritic arthritis.

Q.42. The arthritis related to Psoariasis is most commonly associated with

a. generalised variety
b. Pustular variety
c. Guttate variety
d. All of the above.

Q.43. All are features of inflammatory arthritis except

a.Raised ESR
b. Morning stiffness
c. Tender joints
d. New bone formation

Q.44. DIP is not involved in

a. RA
b. OA
c. Psoaritic arthritis
d. Multiple histocytosis

Q.45. Heberdens arthropathy affects

a. Lumbar spine
b. Symmetrically large joints
c. Sacro-iliac joint
d. DIP

Q.46. Not sensitive to pain

a. synovial membrane
b. Articular cartilage
c. Muscle
d. Periosteum

Q.47. Swan neck deformity is due to

a. Flexion at DIP and extension at PIP
b. Flexion at PIP and extension at DIP
c. Flexion at wrist and extension at MCP
d. Flexion at MCP and extension at DIP

Q.48. True about Gout is all except

a. Occurs due to accumulation of urate crystals
b. Can be precipitated by PZA
c. Birefringent crystals are present in joints
d. occurs more in females
e. Due to decreased excretion of uric acid

Q.49. Most effective treatment of acute attack of gout is

a. Aspirin
b. Allopurinol
c. Colchicine
d. Mefenemic acid
Q.50. Which is not used in the treatment of acute gouty arthritis
a. Aspirin
b. Ibuprofen
c.Naproxen
d. Piroxicam

Q.51. Treatment of acute gout includes all except

a. NSAIDS
b. Colchicine
c. Allopurinol
d. All of the above

Q.52. Most specific and earliest investigation to diagnose Gouty arthritis is

a. Urinary uric acid estimation
b. Blood uric acid
c. Bone erosion around joints
d. Synovial fluid for crystals

Q.53. Calcification around the joint is seen in

a. Pseudogout
b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Gout

Q.54. Commonest cause of non-gonococcal arthritis

a. Staph. Aureus
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Pseudomonas
d. Anaerobes

Q.55. A 60 year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen
right ankle joint. Radiographs of the ankle show destroyed joint with large
number of loose bodies. The most probable diagnosis is
a. Charcots joint
b. osteoarthritis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Gout

Q.56. Charcots joint is not seen in

a. Ankle
b. Knee
c. Shoulder
d. None of the above

Q.57. Neuropathic joints are seen in all except

a. Tabes Dorsalis
b. Leprosy
c. Diabetes
d. Myopathy

Q.58. Tietzs syndrome usually develops at the costal cartilage

a. Second
b. Sixth
c. Eight
d. Fourth

Q.59. Uveo-Parotitis is seen in

a. Sarcoidosis
b. Lupus erythematosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. All of the above

Q.60. Keratoderma blenorrhagia is pathognomic of

a. Behcets disease
b. Reiters disease
c. Lymes disease
d. Glucagonoma

Q.61. About Polyarteritis nodosa ,true are all except

a. medium vessel vasculitis
b. renal involvement in form of malignant hypertension
c. Pulmonary artery is commonly involved
d. p-ANCA is positive

Q.62. Mixed connective tissue disorder is characteristed by

a. ANA
b. Anti-U1 SS-a
c. Anti- SS-a
d. Anti- SS-b
Q.63. Lip biopsy is diagnostic in
a. Scleroderma
b. Sjogrens syndrome
c. SLE
d. None