100 Most Probable Questions For Prelims 2017 (Geography & Environment)

CSE Prelims 2017
100 MOST PROBABLE

QUESTIONS FOR PRELIMS 2017
(GEOGRAPHY & ENVIRONMENT)
WRITTEN BY
INDIA BHAI
(ASHUTOSH GUPTA)
100 Most Probable Questions for Prelims 2017 (Geography &
Environment)
Dear Friends,
Probability and Prediction at UPSC Prelims? Most of us say, its not possible in UPSC
examination. But still in back of our mind we study selectively in all the subjects. Why?
We segregate the topics in the priority of importance and probability in the examination and
then we study and revise them. So in other words, we are studying on the basis of prediction
and probability. So why not study those important topics in a systematic way!
Lets see the trends of questions on geography in Prelims. UPSC has asked 11(2011), 10(2012),
20(2013), 18(2014), 16(2015) and only 3 questions in 2016. So should we expect even less
questions in prelims 2017 on geography? However, in the era of unpredictability of UPSC we
can expect atleast 15-20 questions in geography and environment which will determine the
fate for most of the candidates. So geography should not be taken too casually!
What is the use of this booklet? 100 Most Probable Questions are compilations of most
probable questions from important topics in Geography and Environment. The booklet consists
of conceptual, factual and map based questions from geography and environment which are
most important for prelims. The best way to study this booklet is to first solve the questions
fully and then go through the explanations. After finding those questions where you are weak,
try to read that topic fully from any geography book which you read. This will help you to
complete almost all the important topics in geography for prelims 2017.
The topics are important, not the questions. So prepare these topics well rather than
memorizing these questions. All the predictions and probability herein are based on past years
trend and areas from which UPSC generally asks questions.
Go ahead with the prelims final revision!
All the best!
India Bhai
(Ashutosh Gupta)
Like my facebook page: India Bhai Page 2

Environment)
1. Consider the following statements:

1) Conrad Discontinuity is between upper crust and lower crust.
2) Repetti Discontinuity is between upper mental and lower mental.
3) Lehmann Discontinuity is between outer core and inner core.
Select the options from below:
(A)1 and 2 (B)3 and 4
(C)2 and 3 (C)1,2 and 3
2. Which of the following are true about the Igneous Rocks?

1. Igneous Rocks are classified based on texture.
2. The few examples of Igneous Rocks are granite, quartzite and basalt.
3. Igneous Rocks are formed by intermediate conditions of cooling of molten magma.
Choose the correct statements from the following codes:
(A)Only 1 (B)Only 1 and 3
(C)Only 2 and 3 (C)1, 2 and 3
3. Consider the following statements and identify wrong statements

(A) Metamorphism also occurs without original minerals within rocks undergo chemical
changes.
(B)Metamorphic rocks are not stratified.
(C)Dark and light shades can be seen in metamorphic rocks
(D)The crustal once formed may be carried down into the mantle (interior of the earth).
4. Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks:

I. Sedimentary rocks are formed at Earth's surface by the hydrological system.
II. The formation of sedimentary rocks involves the weathering of pre- existing rocks.
III. Sedimentary rocks contain fossils.
IV. Sedimentary rocks typically occur in layers.
Which of these statements are correct?
(A) I and II (B) I and IV (C) II, III and IV (D) I, II, III and IV
5. Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the seismograph?
(A)P- waves (B) S-waves

Environment)
(C)Love waves (D)Rayleigh waves
1. P and S convert into L waves when they reach the earths surface.
2. S waves causes particles to move backward and forward in the line of the propagation
of the waves whereas in P waves the particles oscillate at right angles to the wave
direction.
3. Shear waves are also called Surface waves.
4. P and S waves penetrate up to greatest depth inside the earth and their velocity
changes only when there are changes in the density of rocks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
7. Which of the above are the reasons for the formation of Karst Topography?
1. Presence of soluble rocks, preferably limestone at the surface or subsurface level.
2. Limestone should be porous and permeable and largely controlled by joints.
3. The limestone should be highly folded, fractured and faulted.
4. There should be high rainfall so that required amount of water is available to dissolve
carbonate rocks.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4
8. Following are features in a Karst Landforms:
1. Lapies 2. Dolinas
3. Poljes 4. Stalagamites
Choose the erosional feature from following choices:

Environment)
(A) 1 ,2 and 3 (C)2,3 and 4

(B) 1,3 and 4 (D)1,2,3 and 4
9. Bars, tombolo and spits are:
(A)Erosional landforms created by sea waves.

(B) Depositional landforms along the coasts.
(C) Erosional features made by glaciers.
(D) Despositional features in Karst and Ground water topography
10. Gently sloping depositional plain formed due to coalescence of several alluvial fans is called
(A)Palaya (B)Pediment
(C)Bolson (D) Bajada
11. Consider the following geological phenomena:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. The following are the river drainage pattern characteristics:
I. It is formed when the tributaries flow in opposite direction to their master stream.
II. Such pattern is generally developed due to river capture.
Based on above characteristics, which river drain pattern it represents:
(A)Pinnate Drainage (B)Herringbone Drainage

Environment)
(C) Barbed Drainage (D)Rectangular Drainage
13. Which of the following are wrongly matched?
(A) Dolphin Rise - Atlantic Ocean
(B) Albatross Plateau - Pacific Ocean
(C) Carlesberg Ridge - Indian Ocean
(D) Challenger Rise - Pacific Ocean
14. Consider the following statements regarding the Ocean Salinity:
1. Anticyclonic conditions with stable air and high temperature increases the salinity of the
surface water of the ocean.
2. Westerlies increases the salinity along the western coasts of the continents whereas they
lower the salinity along the eastern coast.
3. Equatorial warm current drive away salts from the western coastal areas of the continents
and accumulate them along the eastern coastal areas.
4. The North Atlantic Drift, the extension of Gulf Stream increases salinity, along the north-
western coast of Europe.
Select the correct answers from below:
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D)1,2,3 and 4
15. Which of the following seas have highest salinity?
(A) Red Sea (B) Gulf of Mexico
(C) North Sea (D) Baltic Sea

Environment)
16. Consider the statements regarding the salinity of the oceans:
1. Trade winds drive away the saline water from the eastern coasts of the
continents and pile them up near the western coasts causing low salinity in the
former area and high salinity in the latter.
2. Westerlies increase the salinity along the eastern coasts of the continents
whereas they lower the salinity along the western coast.
Chose the correct answer from below:
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C)Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2
1. The Gulf Stream raises the temperature of Atlantic and Gulf coastal plains of the USA during
summer months and causes and intensifies heat waves and thus becomes responsible for
hazardous weather conditions.
2. El Nino current destroys planktons off the Peruvian coasts and causes diseases resulting into
mass deaths of fishes.
Which of the above statements are true?

(B) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2
18. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to growth of coral polyps?
(A) There should be clean sediment-free water for the growth of corals.
(B) Fresh water is good for coral polyps growth.
(C) Ocean currents and waves are favorable for corals.
(D) Corals can live in moderate oceanic salinity.
19. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of gases in the atmosphere?

Environment)
(A) Carbon dioxide >> Neon>>Helium>>Argon
(B) Argon>> Carbon dioxide>>Helium>>Neon
(C) Argon>>Carbon dioxide>>Neon>>Helium
(D) Carbon dioxide>>Argon>>Neon>>Helium
1. The lower portion of the Stratosphere having maximum concentration of Ozone is called
Ozonosphere.
2. Ionosphere is part of Mesosphere.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2
1. In the month of January, when the earth is farthest to the sun, there is winter season in the
northern hemisphere.
2. The energy radiated from the sun decreases when the number of sunspots increases.
1. Inversion of temperature causes frost in the hilly areas
2. Inversion of temperature causes atmospheric stability.

Environment)
(A) Purga - a snow laden wind in Russian Tundra
(B) Bise - an extremely cold wind in France
(C) Yamo - a warm and cold wind in Japan
(D) Zonda - A warm wind in Central Europe
24. Consider the following statements about Jet Streams.
1. Jet Stream Circulation is observed between poles and 20 Degree latitudes in both the
hemispheres.
2. Jet streams flow from east to west in both the hemispheres and hence they are
called westerlies or upper level westerlies.
3. Their trajectory is wavy and meandering.
4. There is seasonal change in the wind velocity in jet streams wherein these become strong
during summer season and wind velocity becomes twice the velocity during winter season.
(A)1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C)1 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
1. Higher the temperature of air, higher the humidity capacity.
2. Humidity capacity increases from Equator to Poles.

Environment)
Which of the above statement is correct?
1. Specific humidity is defined as the weight of water vapour in grams contained in kilogram of
air.
2. Specific humidity is always affected by changes in air pressure or air temperature.
1. Relative humidity gradually decreases from equatorial regions to towards subtropical high
pressure belts where it becomes minimum and further increases poleward.
2. Maximum relative humidity is found during summer season between 30 degree North and
30 degree South latitudes and there is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas
lowest value is recorded in the evening.
1. For air column to be in unstable equilibrium, the normal lapse rate is greater than dry
adiabatic lapse rate.

Environment)
2. Fog is generally associated with inversion of temperature and occurs during winters in
subtropical regions but it occurs in all seasons in the regions beyond 35 degree latitudes.
(A) Cirro-stratus - Halo
(B) Cumulo-nimbus - Thunder clouds
(C) Cirrus - Mares tails
(D) Nimbo-Stratus - Bright brisk weather
30. Which of the following areas is/are best suited for formation of air masses?
1. an extensive area with broadly uniform surface of earth.
2. areas having cyclones.
3. hot deserts in tropical regions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
31. With reference to frontal precipitation, consider the following statements:

1. Precipitation associated with a warm front is of long duration and for large area.
2. Heavy but short duration precipitation occurs because of stationary front.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Environment)
32. When cold front passes over an area then

1. temperature decreases.
2. relative humidity increases.
3. sky becomes clear.
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
33. Secondary circulation in atmosphere consists of

1. polar easterlies
2. temperate cyclones
3. mountain winds
4. monsoon
5. sea breezes
(A) 1 only (B) 2, 4 and 5 only
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 3 and 5 only
34. Consider the following statements regarding Temperate Cyclone
1. Temperate Cyclones are formed in the regions extending between 35-65 degrees latitudes in
both the hemispheres due to convergence of two contrasting air masses.
2. After their formation, temperate cyclones move in westerly direction under the influence of
westerly winds and control the weather conditions in the middle latitudes.
35. Consider the following conditions regarding the formation of Tropical Cyclone
1. There should be continuous supply of abundant warm and moist air.
2. High value of coriolis force.

Environment)
3. Associated with the inter-tropical convergence (ITC).
4. Upper convergence above sea level
5. Pre existing weak low pressure
(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1,2,3,4 and 5
36. Consider the following characteristics regarding the Anticyclones.
1. Anticyclones are much smaller in size and area than temperate cyclones
2. Anticyclones follow cyclones and therefore their track is predictable.
3. Winds descend from above at the centre and thus weather becomes clear and rainless.
4. Anticyclones do not have fronts.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3, and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
(A) Dayaks - Groups inhabiting Borneo
(B) Innuits - Eskimos of North America
(C) Navajo - Indian inhabitants of Arizona and New Mexico
(D) Maori - Original inhabitants of Kenya and Tanzania
38. Consider the following characteristics regarding the Mediterranean type climate.
1. Most of the precipitation comes to this region from temperate cyclones moving with the
Westerlies.

Environment)
2. Jarrah and karri in Australia , Maquis in France and Chaparral in California are prominent
woodlands found in Mediterranean type climatic regions.
3. Mediterranean regions are deficient in coal and iron ore.
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
39. With reference to layers of Ionsphere, consider the following statements:

1. During day time, D layers density is less compared to E and F layer.
2. High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the D layer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
40. Rivers forms many outstanding features throughout their course. In this respect which of
the following pairs are correctly matched ?
1. river capture : middle course
2. meanders : upper course
3. ox-bow lakes : lower course
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
41. Corals reefs are generally absent on the western coasts of continents. This is because
(A) western coast of continents witnesses subsidence of air
(B) western coast of continents have cold currents
(C) western coast of continents have dry winds blowing over them
(D) none of the above

Environment)
42. Consider the following statements regarding hetrotrophic animals on the basis of the
availability of organic matter to them-
1. Saprophytes are those animals which live on organic compounds in solution form derived
from dead plants and animals.
2. Holozonic animals are those who take their food through their mouths.
43. Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem productivity.
1. Gross primary production (GPP) is the total amount of energy produced by the autotrophic
primary producers at trophic level one.
2. Net primary production (NPP) represents the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or
stored at trophic level one.
44. Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem.
1. Pyramid of Numbers and Pyramid of Biomass can be upright or inverted.
2. Biomass pyramid gives an idea of the rate of ecological/ecosystem production.
3. The energy flow (transfer of organic molecules) in the ecosystem is unidirectional and is
cyclic.
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2

Environment)
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
45. Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are
actually a symbiotic association of
(A)algae and bacteria
(B)algae and fungi
(C)bacteria and fungi
(D)fungi and mosses
46. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession
because of
(A)insects and fungi
(B)limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(C)water limits and fire
(D)None of the above
47. Consider the following
1. Upliftment of land
2. Lowering of outlets
3. River capture
4. Decrease in stream load
5. Locking of water in glaciers
Which of the above factors are causes for Rejuvenation of rivers?

Environment)
(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 5
(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(A) Rotterdam Convention -- on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain
Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
(B) Basel Convention -- on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and
Their Disposal
(C) Montreal protocol -- for the protection of ozone layer
(D)Bonn Convention --It is Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild

Animals (CMS)
49. Consider the following statements regarding the soil forming processes.
1. Leaching is a process by which water is percolating downwards through a soil, removes

humus in solution, soluble bases and sesquioxides from the upper horizon or A-horizon.
2 Podzolization encompasses the downward migration of Aluminium and Iron, together

with organic matter, from the surface areas and their accumulation in the profiles deep areas.
(C) Both 1 an 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2
50. Consider the following statements
1. The economic significance of Cuddaph system contains large deposits of cement grade
limestones.
2. Vindhyan system of rocks is important for the production of precious stones and building
materials.

Environment)
51. Consider the following statements regarding the coastlines of India.
1. The east coast of India, especially its south-eastern part (Tamil Nadu coast), appears to be a
coast of emergence.
2. The west coast of India, on the other hand, is both emergent and submergent.
52. Why does the west coast of India have more ports than the east coast?
1. West coast is coast of submergence (except Malabar Coast) while east coast is an emergent
coast.
2. West Rivers form estuaries and eastern rivers form delta.
3. Because of high tides on the west coast.
4. Continental shelf on east extends up to 500 km into the sea, so, difficult to develop good
ports and harbours.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
53. Consider the following statements regarding the himalayas of India.
1. Dafla, Abor, Miri and Mishmi Hills are parts of Shiwaliks.

Environment)
2. The folds in Great Himalayas are asymmetrical with steep south slope and gentle north slope.
(A) Rohi - Some patches of fertile tracts in Rajasthan
(B) Bhur -Barren saline efflorescence of drier areas
(C) Dhayas - Broad flood plains of khaddar flanked by bluffs
(D) Chos - numerous streams of the northern plains
55. Deltas of eastern India are shrinking due to

1. huge amount of sediments being deposited.
2. groundwater mining.
3. construction of large dams.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
56. Consider the following statements about jet streams:

1. Easterly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter.
2. The easterly jet stream is replaced by the westerly jet stream during summer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
57. Many places in India are famous for particular minerals. Which of these pairs are correctly
matched ?

Environment)
1. Zawar : Uranium
2. Khetri : Copper
3. Balaghat : Manganese
4. Jaduguda : Zinc
58. The office of the registrar general and census commissioner conducts the census in India. It
is under which ministry/body?
(A) MOSPI (B) Ministry if Home Affairs
(C) PMO (D) Planning Commission
59. The child sex ratio takes into account which of the following age groups?
(A) 0-1 year (B) 0-5 years
(C) 0-6 years (D) 0-12 years
60. Which of the following is/are correct according to the definitions used in the census 2011?
1. Adolescents are those in the age group of 10-19 years.
2. Youth are those in the age group of 15-35 years.
3. Sex ratio is the number of men per thousand women.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
61. Which of the following are not tributaries of Mahanadi?
(A) Tel (B) Jonk
(C) Ong (D)Som
62. Consider the following statements about Karewas:

1. Karewas are lacustrine deposits [deposits in lake] in the Valley of Kashmir and in Bhadarwah
Valley of the Jammu Division.
2.These are the flat topped mounds that border the Kashmir Valley on all sides.

Environment)
3. They are characterized with fossils of mammals and at places by peat.

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
63. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) Rajghat Dam -Betwa River
(B) Poochampad - Godavari River
(C) Banasagar Project - Son River
(D) Almatti - Kaveri
64. The peninsular plateau is a major physiographic division of India. Which of the following
is/are a part of the peninsular plateau?
1. Kutch peninsula
2. Aravali range
3. Meghalaya plateau
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
65. Many areas in Rajasthan and adjoining states have arid and desert soils. Which of the
following are correct about such soils?
1. they have high phosphate content
2. they have high nitrogen content
3. they are poor in organic matter
(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Environment)
66. Consider the following statements about soils of India:

1. Almost all laterite soils are very poor in lime and magnesia and deficient in nitrogen.
2. Red soils are fairly rich in potash.
3. Alluvial soils have immature and weak profiles.

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
67. Consider the following statements about forest products of India:

1. Hard wood trees include important species such as deodar, poplar, and cedar.
2. Softwood trees provide raw materials for making paper pulp.
3. 70% of the Hardwood is burnt as fuel and only 30% percent is used in industries.

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
68. Consider the following wetlands in India:
1. Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan 2. Loktak Lake, Manipur
2. Chilka Lake 4. Sasthamkotta Lake
Which of the above are included in Montreux Record?

(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
69. Which of the following are not a part of Indian Biodiversity Hot Spot?
(A) The Eastern Himalayas (B) The Western Himalayas
(B) Indo-Burma (C) The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka

Environment)
70. Consider the following pollutants with reference to the Air Quality Index (AQI).
1. Nitrogen dioxide
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Carbon dioxide
4. Ozone
5. Ammonia
Which of the above pollutants are part of the AQI launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest
and Climate Change?
(A) 1,2 ,4 and 5 (B) 1,2,3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
71. Which of the following is not a part of Critically Endangered species declared by
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) red list?
(A) Hawksbill Turtle (B) Pygmy Hog
(C) Small Bush Frog (D) Hog Deer
72. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no
predator in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which
one of the following could be that animal?
(A) Indian wild buffalo (B) Indian wild ass
(C) Indian wild boar (D) Indian Gazelle
73. Consider the following statements with reference to Olive Ridley Turtles.
1. Olive Ridley Turtles are found only in warmer waters including the southern Atlantic, Pacific
and Indian Oceans.

Environment)
2. They are known for their arribadas.
3. They have been categorized as Endangered in IUCN Red list and listed as Schedule I species in
the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972.
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
(A) Giant Panda - Endangered
(B) Giraffes - Vulnerable
(C) Himalayan Brown Bear - Critically Endangered
(D) Indian Painted Frog - Least Concern
75. Which of the following Rivers does not pass through Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Sabarmati (B) Mahi
(C) Damodar (D) Luni
76. Given are the Indian Rivers and corresponding National Parks
1. Lohit Orang National Park
2. Chambal Rajaji National Park
3. Narmada Kanha National Park
Select the correct match
(A) Only 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
77. Heat waves were in news recently which killed more than 2,500 people in the year 2015 till
June.
Consider the following statements regarding heat waves
1) Heat waves adverse impact occurred mainly in Northern and Eastern region of India.
2) Severe heat waves come under National Calamity just like cold waves.
3) IMD recommended to declare a region as severe heat waves affected region if temperature

Environment)
reached beyond 45 degree Celsius.

4) It is a natural calamity found in tropical regions and not in temperate regions.
Choose the correct statement/s from the code

(A) 1, 3 only (B) 2, 3, 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 only (D). All the above
78. Black soils are known for its fertility with little or no evidence of exhaustion. This is because
1. Black soils with equal proportion of clay, gravel and coarse sand has high moisture
retention capacity.
2. Cracks developed during dry season allow oxygenation of the soils.
3. Black soil has low level of kankar thus supports wide variety of crops.
Choose the incorrect reason from the codes below
(A) 2 Only. (B) 2, 3 only.
(C) 1, 3 only. (D) All the above.
79. Tea best grows in Assam, Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts of West Bengal. What is/are the
uniqueness of this region which suits this crop?
1) It has warm and humid climate.
2) Showers are mainly concentrated in 4-5 months ie June to October in any year.
3) Deep, fertile and well drained soil.
4) Rugged topography of the relief near the Himalayan foot hills.
Choose the correct code.
(A) 1, 2, 3 only. (B) 1, 3 only.
(C) 1, 3, 4 only. (D) All the above.
80. Equator passes through which of the following capitals?
(A) Brazzaville (B) Nairobi
(C) Bogota (D) Quito
81. Which river passes through the Equator twice?
(A) Congo (B) Nile
(C)Negro (D) Amazon

Environment)
82. Arrange the following countries in the order of their location on tropic of Capricorn from
west to east?
1. Namibia 2. Botswana 3. Zimbabwe 4. Mozambique
(A) 2-3-4-1 (B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 4-3-2-1 (D) 3-4-1-2
83. Prime Meridian does not pass through which of the following countries?
(A) Ghana (B) Spain
(C)France (D) Tunisia
84. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one
proceeds from north to south?
1.Bangkok
2.Hanoi
3.Vientiane
4.Phnom Penh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 4-2-1-3 (B) 2-3-4-1
(C) 2-3-1-4 (D) 4-3-2-1
85. Dead sea is located between

(A) Israel and Lebanon (B) Israel and Jordan
(C) Lebanon and Jordan (D) Jordan and Syria
86. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in West Asia as one
proceeds from north to south?
1. Abu Dhabi
2. Manama

Environment)
3. Muscat
4. Doha
(A) 4-2-1-3 (B) 2-3-4-1
(C) 2-4-1-3 (D) 4-3-2-1
87. Which of the following pairs are not correctly matched?

(A) Dasht-e-Kavir - Iran
(B) Nefud Desert - Saudi Arabia
(C) Kharan Desert - Pakistan
(D) Dasht-e-Margo - Kazakhstan
88. Consider the following Countries

1. Kazakhstan 2. Uzbekistan
3. Turkmenistan 4. Iran
5. Russia 6. Azerbaijan
Which of the above countries borders Caspian Sea?
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (B) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(C) 1,2,4,5 and 6 (D) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
89. Consider the following regions of Israel.

1. West Bank
2. Gaza Strip
3. Golan Heights
Arrange these regions of Israel from North to South.
(A) 3-1-2 (B) 1-2-3
(C) 1-3-2 (D) 3-2-1

Environment)
90. Consider the capital cities of countries of South-East Asia
1. Hanoi 2. Vientiane
3. Phnom Penh 4. Ho Chi Minh City
Which of the above cities lies on the bank of River Mekong?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4
91. Consider the capital cities of countries of Europe
1. Vienna 2. Bratislava
3. Budapest 4. Belgrade
5. Bucharest
Arrange these capital cities along the bank of River Danube from source to mouth.
(A) 1-2-4-5-3 (B) 1-3-4-2-5

(C) 1-2-3-4-5 (D) 1-3-2-4-5
(A) Lake Michigan -- Chicago
(B) Lake Erie -- Detroit
(C) Lake Ontario -- Toronto
(D) Lake Huron -- Hamilton

(A) Gibson Desert -- Australia
(B) Mojave Desert -- USA
(C) Dasht-e-Lut -- Saudi Arabia
(D) Takla Makan Desert -- China

Environment)
94. Which of the following countries do have coast on Baltic Sea

(A) Belarus (B) Estonia
(C) Lithuania (D) Latvia
95. Which is the correct order of Islands from North to South in Nicobar Islands?
(A) Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Great Nicobar
(B) Great Nicobar, Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar
(C) Great Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Little Nicobar
(D) Little Nicobar, Car Nicobar, Great Nicobar
96. Which of following states of India does not cut Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Tripura (B) Mizoram
(C) Manipur (D) Chhattisgarh
97. Consider the tributaries of Yamuna

1. Sindh 2. Betwa
3. Dhasan 4. Ken
Arrange these tributaries from West to East
(A) 2-1-3-4 (B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 1-2-4-3 (D)2-1-4-3

(A) Mikir Hills -- Assam
(B) Abor Hills -- Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Barda Hills -- Maharashtra
(D) Garhjat Hills -- Orissa

Environment)
99. Which of the following oil refineries are located along the coast?
1. Bina
2. Tatipaka
3. Numaligarh

(A) Mica -- Andhra Pradesh
(B) Asbestos -- Rajasthan
(C) Magnesite -- Orissa
(D) Kyanite -- Jharkand

100 Most Probable Questions for Prelims (Geography & Environment)2017
Answers with Explanations

1. Answer: D
Explanation:
2. Answer: B.
Explaination: If molten material is cooled slowly at great depths, mineral grains may be very
large. Sudden cooling (at the surface) results in small and smooth grains. Intermediate
conditions of cooling would result in intermediate size of grains making up igneous rocks.
Quartzite is metamorphic rock.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: Sometimes minerals or materials of different groups are arranged into alternating
thin to thick layers appearing in light and dark shades. Such a structure in metamorphic rocks is
called banding and rocks displaying banding are called banded rocks.
4. Answer: D
Explanation: All the statements are correct. The weathered material at the pre-existing rocks is
transformed by the hydrolyzed systems and is deposited elsewhere in layers. They contain
fossils.
5. Answer A
Explanation: Why do P-waves travel faster than S-waves?

P-waves and S-waves are body waves that propagate through the planet. P-waves travel 60%
faster than S-waves on average, because the interior of the Earth does not react the same way
to both of them.
P-waves are compression waves that apply a force in the direction of propagation. As the
interior of the Earth is almost incompressible, P-waves transmit their energy quite easily
through the medium, and thus travel quickly.
On the other hand, S-waves are shear waves, which means that the motion of the medium is
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. The energy is thus less easily
transmitted through the medium, and S-waves are slower.
6. Answer: (D) 1 and 4
Explanation: Correct Statements should be :
Statement 2. P waves causes particles to move backward and forward in the line of the
propagation of the waves whereas in S waves the particles oscillate at right angles to the wave
direction
Statement 4. Shear waves are also called Secondary (S)waves.
7. Answer: C : 1 and 3
Explanation : Statement 2: Limestones should NOT be Porous wherein Permeability is largely

controlled by joints and not by the mass of rocks because if limestone are porous, the water
may pass through the rock mass and thus whole rock mass will become weak and will collapse.
On the other hand, if limestones are non-porous and thickly bedded, water will infiltrate

through joints resulting into effective corrosion of limestones along the joints and solution
holes would be formed.
Statement 4: There should be ENOUGH rainfall so that required amount of water is available to
dissolve the rocks. The rainfall should be neither too high nor too low.
8. Answer: A
Explanation: Stalagamites and Stalactites are depositional features in the Karst Topography.
Lapies, Dolinas and Poljes are erosional features.
9. Answer: B
Explanation: Bars, tombolo and spits are depositional features
The ridges, embankments or mounds of sands formed by sedimentation through sea waves
parallel to the shoreline are called bars. The larger forms of bars are called barriers.
If bars are formed in such a way that they are parallel to the coast but are not attached to the
land, they are called offshore or longshore bars. If the sand bars are formed in such a way that
their one end is attached to the land while the other end projects or opens out towards the sea,
they are called spits.
Connecting bars are formed when bars are so extended that they either join two headlands or
two islands. Connecting bars are variously named on the basis of their shapes and forms. For
example, a bar connecting two headlands is called connecting bar while a bar becomes
Tombolo when it connects the mainland with an island or connects a headland with the island.
Thus, a tombolo acts as a bridge between the coast and an island.
10. Answer: D
Explanation: Gently sloping depositional plain formed due to coalescence of several alluvial
fans is called Bajada.
The intermontane basins in arid or semi arid areas are generally called bolsons. Numerous
ephemeral streams after originating from the surrounding mountain fronts drain into the
bolsons. Some water collects in the centre of the bolsons and from temporary lakes. Such
temporary lakes are called Playas.
Pediments situated between mountain front and bajada in intermontane basin are broad,
extensive and gently sloping areas of rock cut surfaces which spread as aprons around the
bases of mountains. In form and function, a pediment is similar to an alluvial fan, the difference
being that a pediment is an erosional landform and a fan is constructional.

11. Answer: D
12. Answer: C
Explaination:
Barbed Drainage Pattern:
A pattern of drainage in which the confluence of a tributary with the main river is
characterized by a discordant junctionas if the tributary intends to flow upstream
and not downstream.
Tributaries flow in opposite direction to their master streams. The tributaries join their
master stream in a hook-shaped bend. Such pattern is developed due to river capture.
This pattern is the result of capture of the main river which completely reverses its
direction of flow, while the tributaries continue to point in the direction of former flow.
The Arun River (Nepal), a tributary of the Kosi is an interesting example of barbed
drainage pattern.
13. Answer: D
Explanation: Both Dolphin Rise (North Atlantic Ocean) and Challenger Rise (South Atlantic
Ocean) lies in the Atlantic Ocean. They both form part of Mid- Atlantic Ridge which represents
the zone of divergent or constructive plate margins in the Atlantic Ocean.

14. Answer: D
All answers are correct.
15. Answer: A
Explanation:
The salinity of any sea depends upon following factors:
(i) Evaporation: There is a direct positive relationship between the rate of evaporation
and salinity. For example, greater the evaporation, higher the salinity and vice-versa.
Infact, salt concentration increases with rapid rate of evaporation. But salinity
decreases with increasing precipitation. For example: salinity is higher near the
tropics than at the equator because both the areas record high rate of evaporation
but with dry air over the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. Also partially enclosed seas
have higher salinity. The RED SEA records the highest salinity because of low
precipitation and very high evaporation.
(ii) Influx of river water: The effect of influx of river water is more pronounced in the
enclosed seas. For example, the Danube, Dneister, the Dneiper etc.reduce the
salinity in the Black Sea. Marginal areas of the oceans bordering the continents have
lower salinity than their central parts because freshwater is added to the marginal
areas through the rivers. Salinity of partially enclosed seas in the higher latitudes is
seldom controlled by latitudes rather it depends on influx of melt water. This is why
the BALTIC SEA records comparatively lower salinity than the NORTH SEA though the
latitudinal extent to both the seas is the same.
(iii) Precipitation
(iv) Atmospheric pressure and wind direction:
(v) Circulation of Ocean water: Equatorial warm currents drive away salts from the
western coastal areas of the continents and accumulate them along the eastern
coastal areas. The high salinity of the GULF OF MEXICO is partly due to this factor.
The North Atlantic Drift, the extension of Gulf Stream increases salinity, along the
north-western coast of Europe. Similarly, salinity is reduced along the north-eastern
coasts of North America due to cool Labrador Current. There is high salinity in the
Gulf of Mexico and the Caribbean Sea due to more saline water brought by the
North Equatorial Current.
Therefore the salinity is in the decreasing order:

Red Sea >> Gulf of Mexico >> North Sea >> Baltic Sea
16. Answer: D
Explanation: Winds help in the redistribution of salt in the oceans and seas as winds drive away
saline water to less saline areas resulting into decrease of salinity in the former and increase in
the latter. In other words, in the areas of upwelling of water less saline water moves up from
below (and hence low salinity) whereas the areas where water is piled up, salinity is increased.
For example, trade winds drive away saline water from the WESTERN coasts of the continents
(or eastern margins of the oceans) and pile them up near the EASTERN coasts (or western
margins of the oceans) causing low salinity in the former area and high salinity in the latter.
Westerlies increase the salinity along the WESTERN coasts of the continents whereas they
lower the salinity along the EASTERN coast.
17. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Ocean currents while flowing along the coasts modify their weather conditions in a
number of ways. The most effective impacts of ocean currents are seen on the
temperature of affected coastal lands. The effects are positive (beneficial) and negative
(injurious) for flora and fauna. The warm currents, when they reach colder areas, do not

allow their temperatures to fall rather they keep them relatively warmer in winter
months. The origin of ideal and favorable European type of climate of the western
coasts of Europe is due to the effects of the North Atlantic warm current which is the
extension of the Gulf Stream. The temperature of the coastal countries (Great Britain,
Norway, Sweden, Denmark, Netherland etc) is higher during winter than the average
temperature for their respective latitudes. The Gulf Stream on the other hand raises the
temperature of Atlantic and Gulf coastal plains of the USA during summer months and
causes and intensifies heat waves and thus becomes responsible for hazardous weather
conditions. Sometimes, the temperature rises so rapidly that several people die of sun
strokes. The coastal lands of the east and south-east USA are not benefitted from the
warming effects of the Gulf Stream during winter because the winds are offshore i.e.
winds blow from the mainland towards the Atlantic Ocean.
2. Ocean currents act as distributing agents of nutrients, oxygen and other elements
necessary for the existence and survival of fishes. Ocean currents transport planktons
from one area to the other area. These planktons are useful food for fishes. Gulf Stream
carries planktons from Mexican Gulf to the coasts of Newfoundland and north-western
Europe. It may be pointed out that many significant fishing grounds have developed in
these areas. Sometimes, a few ocean currents destroy planktons. The southward
shifting of the counter equatorial warm current during southern winter gives birth to El
Nino current. The temperature at Peruvian coast does not fall considerably because of
the current. Though the amount of rainfall increases along the coasts due to this
current but fishes die due to disappearance of planktons and occurrence of guano
disease and pests caused by El Nino. For example, El Nino current destroys planktons off
the Peruvian coasts and causes several diseases resulting into mass deaths of fishes.
18. Answer: B
Explanation:
The following are the favorable conditions for the growth of corals:
1. Corals can survive in the tropical regions having annual temperature range of 20-21
Degree Celsius.
2. Coral do not live in deep waters
3. There should be clean sediment free water because muddy water or turbid water clogs
the mouths of coral polyps resulting into their deaths.

4. It may be pointed out that though coral polyps require sediment free water but fresh
water is also injurious for the growth of corals. This is why corals avoid coastal lands
and live away from the areas of river mouths.
5. Very high proportion of oceanic salinity is injurious for the growth of coral polyps
because such waters contain little amount of calcium carbonates whereas lime is
important food of coral polyps.
6. Ocean currents and waves are favorable for corals because they bring necessary food
supply for the polyps. It is obvious that corals grow in open seas and oceans but they die
in lagoons and small enclosed seas because of lack of supply of food.
7. There should be extensive submarine platforms for the formation of colonies by the
coral polyps.
19. Answer: C
Explanation:
20. Answer: A
Explanation:

1. The lower portion of the stratosphere having maximum concentration of ozone is

called Ozonosphere, which is confined between the heights of 15 km to 35km from sea
level though the upper limit has been fixed at 55km.
2. Ionosphere extends from 80km to 640 km and it is part of Thermosphere which
extends beyond Mesosphere.
21. Answer: D
Explanation:
1. In the month of January, when the earth is nearest to the sun, there is winter season in the
northern hemisphere due to low amount of insolation received. On the other hand, in the
month of July, when the earth is farthest from the sun, there is summer instead of winter in the
northern hemisphere due to high amount of insolation receive. It is obvious that factors of the
angle of the sun s rays and length of day play more dominant role in the distribution of
insolation than the factor of varying distances between the earth and the sun.
2. The energy radiated from the sun increases when the number of sunspots increases and
therefore the amount of insolation receive at the earth s surface also increases. On the other
hand, the amount of insolation received at the earth s surface decreases when the number of
sunspots decreases. During every 11th year there is maximum number of sunspots.
22. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Inversion of temperature causes frost when the condensation of warm air due to its cooling
by cold air below occurs at temperature below freezing point
2. Inversion of temperature causes atmospheric stability which stops upward (ascent) and
downward (descent) movements of air. The atmospheric stability discourages rainfall and
favors dry conditions.
23. Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is
Zonda - A warm wind in Argentina
Tramontane -A warm wind in Central Europe
24. Answer: C

Explanation: The correct statements are as follows:
2.Jet streams flow from west to east in both the hemispheres and hence they are
called westerlies or upper level westerlies.
4. There is seasonal change in the wind velocity in jet streams wherein these become strong
during winter season and wind velocity becomes twice the velocity during summer season.
25. Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Humidity is directly related with temperature i.e. , higher the temperature, higher the
humidity capacity and lower the temperature, lesser the humidity capacity. In other
words, as air temperature increases, humidity also increases and vice-versa.
2. The extent of land and water and wind velocity also influences humidity capacity.
Oceanic and coastal areas record higher humidity capacity of air than the remote areas
of the continents. Humidity capacity decreases from equator to poles.
26. Answer: D
Explanation
1. Specific humidity is defined as the mass of water vapour in grams contained in kilogram of air
and it represents the actual quantity of moisture present in definite air.
2. Specific humidity is seldom affected by changes in air pressure or air temperature because it
is measured in the units of weight (grams). It is directly proportional to vapour pressure, which
is the partial pressure exerted by water vapour in the air and is independent of other gases ,
and is inversely proportional to air pressure.
27. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. The Horizontal distribution of Relative humidity on the earth s surface is zonal in character.
Equatorial regions are characterized by highest relative humidity. Relative humidity gradually
decreases from equatorial regions to towards subtropical high pressure belts where it becomes
minimum and further increases poleward. The zones of high and low relative humidity shift
northward and southward with northward and southward migration of the sun respectively.
2. Seasonal distribution of relative humidity is largely controlled by latitudes. Maximum relative

humidity is found during summer season between 30 degree North and 30 degree South

latitudes while high latitude record relative humidity more than average value during winters.
There is maximum relative humidity in the morning whereas lowest value is recorded in the
evening.
28. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. When normal lapse rate is greater than dry adiabatic lapse rate of ascending parcel of
air the rising air continues to rise upward and expand and thus becomes unstable and is
in unstable equilibrium. In other words, atmospheric instability is caused when the rate
of cooling of rising air (dry adiabatic lapse rate) is lower than the normal lapse rate. For
example, if the temperature of a certain parcel of air at ground surface is 40 degree
Celcius, the dry adiabatic and normal lapse rates are 10 degree celcius and 11 degree
celcius per 1000 m respectively, then the temperature of ascending air at the height of
1000m would be 30 degree celcius (40degree-10degree=30 degree celcius) while the
temperature of the atmosphere at that height would be 29 degree celcius (40degree C-
11degree C= 29 degree C ). Thus, the rising air being warmer (30 degree C) than the
surrounding (29 degree C) continues to rise and expand to cause atmospheric instability.
2. Fog is generally associated with inversion of temperature and occurs in the morning
hours but sometimes also continues till noon. Fog occurs during winters in subtropical
regions but it occurs in all seasons in the regions beyond 35 degree latitudes.
29. Answer: D
Explanation:
Cirro-stratus - These look like a thin sheet or a veil. The sky looks milky and the sun or the moon
shines through these clouds with a characteristics halo . They can bring rain or snow.
Cumulo-nimbus Extending for a tremendous height, their black and white globular masses
take a fantastic range of shapes. Their cauliflower top often spreads out like an Anvil. These are
frequently seen in tropical afternoons. These are also called Thunder clouds.
Cirrus They are fiberous. These appear like wisps in the blue sky. These are often called
Mares tails . These consists of always of ice crystals. These may signal rain. These indicate fair
weather and often give a brilliant sunset.
Nimbo-stratus- It is a rain cloud. It is a dark, dull and clearly layered. It brings continuous rain or
snow or sleet. It is not associated with bright brisk weather.

30. Answer: B
Explanation:
Areas having cyclones have converging air flow and are therefore not suited for formation of air
masses. Air masses are formed over an extensive area with broadly uniform surface of earth
like hot desert region in tropical areas. Anticyclone over an area also helps in formation of air
masses as they have divergent air flow.
31. Answer: A
Explanation:
Precipitation associated with a warm front is of long duration. Heavy but short duration
precipitation occurs because of cold front.
32. Answer: C
Explanation:
Relative humidity (RH) decreases when cold front passes over an area. Cold fronts are
associated with clear sky and weather while warm fronts have clouds and rainfall.
33. Answer: C
Explanation:
Primary circulation planetary winds, includes polar easterlies.
Secondary circulation cyclones, anticyclones, monsoon etc
Tertiary winds local winds like land and sea breezes, mountain and valley winds etc.
34. Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Temperate Cyclones are formed in the regions extending between 35-65 degrees
latitudes in both the hemispheres due to convergence of two contrasting air masses e.g.
warm, moist and light tropical air masses (westerly winds) and cold, and dense polar air
masses. The polar fronts created due to these two opposing air masses are responsible
for the origin and development of temperate cyclones.
2. After their formation, temperate cyclones move in easterly direction under the
influence of westerly winds and control the weather conditions in the middle latitudes.

35. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. There should be continuous supply of abundant warm and moist air. Tropical cyclones
originate over warm oceans having surface temperature of 27 Degree C during summer
season.
2. High value of coriolis force is required for the origin of these cyclones. It is apparent that
tropical cyclones are practically absent in a belt of 5-8 degree wide on both side of the
equator where coriolis force is minimum. It means that cyclonic circulation of air is
caused due to deflection in wind direction resulting from coriolis force. Majority of the
tropical cyclones originate within a belt of 5-20 degree latitudes in the western parts of
the oceans.
3. They are associated with the inter-tropical convergence (ITC) which extends from 5-30
degree N latitudes during summer season
4. Upper divergence above sea level. The upper air anticyclonic circulation sucks the air
from the ocean surface above and thus the upward movement of air is accelerated and
low pressure centre at the surface is further intensified.
5. Pre-existing weak tropical disturbances intensify and ultimately develop into high
intensity violent tropical cyclones.
36. Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Anticyclones are much larger in size and area than temperate cyclones as their diameter
is 75% larger than that of the later.
2. Thought Anticyclones follow cyclones but their track is highly variable and
unpredictable. They move very sluggishly and sometimes they become stationary over a
particular place for few days.
3. Winds descend from above at the centre and thus weather becomes clear and rainless
because the descending winds cause atmospheric stability.
4. Anticyclones do not have fronts.
37. Answer: D
Explanation:
Maori Original inhabitants of New Zealand.
Masai Negroids of Kenya and Tanzania living around Lake Victoria.

38. Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Most of the precipitation comes to this region from temperate cyclones moving with the
Westerlies. The rainfall is highly reliable as the cyclonic storms have a regular
frequency.
2. Jarrah and karri in Australia , Maquis in France and Chaparral in California are
prominent woodlands found in Mediterranean type climatic regions.
3. Mediterranean regions are deficient in coal and iron ore, therefore, iron and steel and
engineering industries have not been able to make a mark.
39. Answer: A
Explanation:
High-frequency radiowaves are reflected from the E layer. D layer is the lowest of the
ionosphere layers, which absorbs the highest amount of harsh x-ray radiation. During the night,
there is a minimal amount of ionization taking place. There is a high amount of energy
dissipation because of rapid collisions of the ions. During day time all three- D, E and F layer are
present, but D layer does not help in communication. This is because its density is greatly
reduced. The D layer is normally not dense enough to reflect the radio waves. However, the E
layer is, so the VLF signals go through the D layer, bounce off the E layer, and go back down
through the D layer to the ground. The signals lose energy as they penetrate through the D
layer and hence radios pick up weaker signals from the transmitter during the day.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
River capture (When a river or stream from one drainage system erodes through a land divide
a d ac ui es the ow f o a othe d ai age syste ) happe s i uppe cou se. Mea de s a e
formed in the middle course.
41. Answer: B
Explanation:
Western coast of continents have cold currents. Coral reefs do not flourish where there are
cold currents because of the upwelling of the cold water from depths that cools the warm
surface water.
42. Answer: C

Explanation:
Saprophyte may refer to
Saprotroph, a term used for organisms which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter
(this term commonly applies to fungi)
Saprophytes are more generally plants, fungi, or micro-organisms that live on dead or
decomposing matter.
Holozoic nutrition is a type of heterotrophic nutrition that is characterized by the
internalization (ingestion) and internal processing of liquids or solid food particles. Protozoa,
such as amoebas, and most of the free living animals, such as humans, exhibit this type of
nutrition.
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Gross primary production (GPP) is the total amount of energy produced by the autotrophic
primary producers at trophic level one. In other words, gross primary productions refer to the
total amount of energy assimilated by autotrophic primary producer green plants.
2. Net primary production (NPP) represents the amount of energy or organic matter fixed or
stored at trophic level one. Thus, net primary production excludes the amount of energy which
is lost through respiration by autotrophic primary producer plants. Net primary production is,
thus, gross primary production minus the energy lost through respiration. Net primary
production represents the usable amount of energy at trophic level one, which is made
available to higher trophic levels.
The ecosystem productivity whether, gross or net, is generally measured in dry

gram/sq.meter/day or year.
44. Answer: A
Explanation:
1. If a food chain represents primary producers of very large size (trees) at trophic level 1, and
parasites and hyper parasites at trophic levels 2 and 3 as primary and secondary consumers
respectively, the resultant pyramid is inverted pyramid because one single primary producer
(tree) can support numerous primary consumers (parasites) and secondary consumers
(hyperparasites). Pyramid of Numbers and Pyramid of Biomass can be upright or inverted.
2. Biomass pyramid includes the biomass of each trophic level instead of number of species.
Thus, the total weight of whole organic matter (biomass) at each trophic level represents the

standing crop at a single point in time. Biomass pyramid does not give any idea of the rate of
ecological/ecosystem production.
3. The energy flow (transfer of organic molecules) in the ecosystem is unidirectional and is non-
cyclic (is not available again for reuse). However, the circulation of matter in the biosphere is
accomplished through cyclic pathways e.g. through geobiochemical cycles. The matter are
cycled in such a way that their total mass remains almost constant.
45. Answer: B
Explanation:
More of a biology question. Fungus provides shelter, water and minerals to the algae and, in
return, the alga provides food (photosynthesis).
46. Answer: C
Explanation:
Grasses have this one good trick to monopolize a place. In dry season the grasses dry up
and cause fires which destroy other plant species and their seeds.
Also grasslands develop in regions with scanty rainfall where plant growth cannot be
achieved.
Though forests form the climax community in most of the ecosystems, but in grassland
ecosystem [In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological
succession] grasses form the climax community. Thanks to fire and lack of water.
Grasslands are almost irreversible once deforestation in water scarce areas gives way to
grasslands. [Ecological Damage]
47. Answer: D
Explanation:
Rejuvenation of rivers is caused by a wide range of factors. These basically fall into three
categories:
Dynamic Rejuvenation:
1. Upliftment of land
2. Lowering of outlets
3. Tilting of land
4. Volcanic activity
Static Rejuvenation:

1. Climate change
2. River capture
3. Decrease in stream load
Eustatic rejuvenation:
1. Locking of water in glaciers

2. Changing capacity of ocean basins.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
Vienna convention for the protection of ozone layer (1985)
The convention was adopted on 22nd March, 1985 by the conference of the Vienna
Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer is a Multilateral Environmental
Agreement.
It is under the the Vienna convention of 1985was the starting point of the global
cooperation for protection of ozone layer. Later, adoption of Montreal protocol on
substances that deplete ozone layer on 1987, the amendment in Montreal protocol in
London (1990) and Vienna (1995).
Montreal protocol on substances that deplete ozone layer, 1987 to the Vienna Convention
The Protocol came into force in 1989.

The protocol set targets for reducing the consumption and production of a range of
ozone depleting substances.
In a major innovation the protocol recognized that all nations should not be treated
equally. The agreement acknowledges that certain countries have contributed too
zone depletion more than others.
It also recognizes that a nation s obligation to reduce current emissions should reflect
its technological and financial ability to do so. Because of this, the agreement sets
more stringent standards and accelerated phase-out time tables to countries that have
contributed most to ozone depletion.
India accepted this protocol along with its London Amendment in September 1992.
The Ministry of Environment and Forest has established an ozone cell and a steering
committee on the protocol to facilitate implementation of the India country program,
for phasing out ozone depleting substances production by 2010 to meet the
commitments India has also taken policy decisions.
The Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules 2000 were drafted
under Environment (protection) Act, 1986.
49. Answer: C

Explanation:
1. Leaching is a process by which water is percolating downwards through a soil, removes

humus in solution, soluble bases and sesquioxides from the upper horizon or A-horizon.
leaching is the removal of soluable components of the soil column. As water washes down
through the soil it can carry away bases such as calcium, held as exchangeable ions in clay-
humus complexes, as well as acidification through the substitution of hydrogen ions.
2 Podzolization encompasses the downward migration of Aluminium and Iron, together

with organic matter, from the surface areas and their accumulation in the profile s deep areas.
An advanced stage of leaching, podzolization is the process of the removal of iron and
aluminium compounds, humus, and clay minerals from the surface soil horizons by an organic
leachate solution, and the deposition of some of these translocated materials in lower B
horizons.
50. Answer: C
Explanation:
Purana Rock System (1400-600 Million years)
Includes two divisions: the Cuddapah System and the Vindhyan System.
Cuddapah System
Unfossiliferous clay, slates, sandstones and limestones was deposited in synclinal

basins[depression between two folds {Fold mountain}].
Outcrops best observed in Cuddapah district of Andhra Pradesh.
These rocks contain ores of iron, manganese, copper, cobalt, nickel, etc.
They contain large deposits of cement grade limestones.
Vindhyan System (1300-600 million years)
This system derives its name from the great Vindhyan mountains.
The system comprises of ancient sedimentary rocks (4000 m thick) superimposed on the
Archaean base.
Mostly Unfossiliferous.
Large area of this belt is covered by the Deccan trap.
The Vindhayan system have diamond bearing regions from which Panna and Golconda
diamonds have been mined.
It is devoid of metalliferous minerals but provides large quantities of durable stones,
ornamental stones, limestone, pure glass making sand etc..

51. Answer: C
Explanation:
Coastlines of Emergence and Submergence
Coastline of emergence is formed either by an uplift of the land or by the lowering of the
sea level. Coastline of submergence is an exact opposite case.
Bars, spits, lagoons, salt marshes, beaches, sea cliffs and arches are the typical features
of emergence. {Marine Landforms}
The east coast of India, especially its south-eastern part (Tamil Nadu coast), appears to be
a coast of emergence.
The west coast of India, on the other hand, is both emergent and submergent.
The northern portion of the coast is submerged as a result of faulting and the southern
portion, that is the Kerala coast, is an example of an emergent coast.
1. Coramandal coast (Tamil Nadu) ==> Coastline of emergence

2. Malabar coast (Kerala Coast) ==> Coastline of emergence
3. Konkan coast (Maharashtra and Goa Coast) ==> Coastline of submergence.

52. Answer: D
Explanation:
1. West coast is coast of submergence (except Malabar Coast) while east coast is an emergent
coast. These imply that sea is deeper in west coast than sea on east coast. So, west coast has
favourable conditions for natural harbours.
2. West Rivers form estuaries and eastern rivers form delta. Therefore it becomes difficult for
ships to reach the east coast covered with sediments.
3. High Tides hit coast real hard. So coastal erosion, natural ports
4. Continental shelf on east extends up to 500 km into the sea, so, difficult to develop good
ports and harbours. Ships can enter and leave only during tides. But this does-not mean we
cannot have ports in this condition. Some of the world's well known ports are located on
Continental shelves like London, Singapore, Hong Kong.
5. Historically, British India had trade contacts mainly with the Western world & Arabs. So
natural choice was ports on Eastern coast.
53. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. The Shiwaliks are known by different names in different areas. They are called Jammu Hills in
Jammu and Dafla, Abor, Miri and Mishmi Hills in Arunachal Pradesh. The Dhang Range, Dundwa
Range (Uttarkhand) and the Churia Ghat Hills of Nepal also forms part of the Shiwalik range.
2. The folds in Great Himalayas are asymmetrical with steep south slope and gentle North
Slope. This mountain arc, convex to the south, terminates abruptly in the Nanga Parbat in
north-west and in the Namcha Barva in the north-east.
54. Answer: B
Explanation:
Rohi- Rajasthan Bagar is drained by a number of short seasonal streams originating from the
Aravali and supports agriculture in some patches of fertile tracts called rohi.
Bhur- Bhur denotes elevated piece of land situated along the banks of the Ganga river
especially in the upper Ganga-Yamuna Doab. This has been formed due to accumulation of
windblown sands during the hot dry months of the year.
Dhayas- The depositional process by the rivers, continuing since long, ha united these doabs
and has given a homogenous geomorphological entity to the entire area. However, the mass of

alluvium has been broken by the river courses which have carved for themselves broad flood
plains of khaddar flanked by bluffs, locally known as dhayas.
Chos- The northern part of the plain adjoining the Shiwalik hills has been intensively eroded by
numerous streams called Chos. This has led to enormous gullying. The erosion by the Chos is
particulary noticed inn Hoshiarpur district of Punjab.
55. Answer: C
Explanation:
Deltas shrink due to lack of sediments and not due to huge amount of sediments. A
proliferation of large dams that starve deltas of sediment, groundwater mining that causes land
compaction, and artificial levees that affect river courses, have been responsible for the
subsiding of major Indian deltas including Ganga-Brahmaputra, Krishna-Godavari, Brahmani and
Mahanadi.
Read more http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indian-deltas-are-

sinking/article5892566.ece
56. Answer:D
Explanation:
Westerly jet stream blows over the northern Indian region in winter. The westerly jet stream is
replaced by the easterly jet stream during summer. This helps in the onset of monsoon.
57. Answer: C
Explanation:
1 and 4 are interchanged. Zawar in Rajasthan is famous for Zinc, whereas Jaduguda in
Jharkhand is famous for Uranium.
58. Answer: B
Explanation:
Ministry if Home Affairs. Most people would have thought the answer as MOSPI, because that
deals with statistics. The registrar general and census commissioner being under ministry of
home affairs would have come to you as a surprise. But UPSC loves surprise, so don t get this
wrong from now.
59. Answer: C

Explanation:
Simple question. UPSC has this habit of asking simple yet subtle things that we might ignore.
The Census definition of child is one who is between 0 to 6 years of age.
60. Answer: A
Explanation:
UPSC emphasizes basics and we need to get the basic definition of various terms that we use.
So Adolescents are those in the age group of 10-19 years. Youth are those in the age group of
15-24 years. Sex ratio is the number of women per thousand men.
61. Answer: D
Explanation:
Tributaries of Mahanadi: Sheonath, Hasdo, Mand, Ib, jonk, Ong,Tel
Som is tributary of Brahmani.
62. Answer: D
Explanation:
Karewas:
Karewas are lacustrine deposits [deposits in lake] in the Valley of Kashmir and in
Bhadarwah Valley of the Jammu Division.
These are the flat topped mounds that border the Kashmir Valley on all sides.
They are characterized with fossils of mammals and at places by peat.
The Karewa sequence, occupying an area of about 2,500 sq km , rests over the folded
Paleozoic-Mesozoic rocks of the Kashmir Basin in the Kashmir Valley floor, above the river
alluvium. Most of the cultivated fields in the Kashmir Valley are situated on the Karewa
sediments.
Formation:
During the Pleistocene Period (1 million years ago), the entire Valley of Kashmir was
under water.
Subsequently, due to endogenetic forces, the Baramullah Gorge was created and the lake
was drained through this gorge.
The deposits left in the process are known as karewas.
The thickness of karewas is about 1400 m.

In fact, the karewas have been elevated, dissected and removed by subaerial denudation
as well as by the Jhelum river giving them the present position.
Economic Significance
The karewas are mainly devoted to the cultivation of saffron, almond, walnut, apple and
orchards.
The karewas, devoted to saffron cultivation are fetching good income to the growers.
63. Answer: D
Explanation:
Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric project on the Krishna River in North Karnataka.
64. Answer: C
Explanation:
Please revise the physiographic divisions of India from NCERT or Khullar along with a map.
Kutch peninsula is a part of the coastal plains. Aravali hills and Meghalaya plateau (eastward
extension of the Chotanagpur Plateau ) are part of the peninsular plateau.
65. Answer: B
Explanation:
Yes desert soils have high phosphate content. They have phosphate content as high as in
alluvial soils. Nitrogen and organic matter, as expected are low.
66. Answer:
Explanation:
1. Almost all laterite soils are very poor in lime and magnesia and deficient in nitrogen.
Sometimes, the phosphate content may be high, probably present in the form of iron
phosphate but potash is deficient.
2.Red soils are fairly rich in potash but poor in lime, magnesia, phosphates, nitrogen and
humus.
3. The parent material of the alluvial soils is of transported soil. The streams bring with them
the products of weathering of rocks from the mountains and deposit them in the low lying
areas. The alluvial soils have immature and weak profiles.

67. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Hard wood trees include important species such as teak, mahogany, logwood, ebony, sal,
kikar, semal etc. whereas Soft wood trees include deodar, poplar, cedar, balsam, pine etc.
2. Softwood trees provide raw materials for making paper pulp.
3. 70% of the Hardwood is burnt as fuel and only 30% percent is used in industries while 70% of
the softwood is used in industries and only 30% is burnt as fuels.
68. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International
Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to
occur as a result of technological developments, pollution or other human interference. It is
maintained as part of the Ramsar List.
List of Indian wetlands of International importance included in the Montreux Record are -
1) Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan
2) Loktak Lake, Manipur.
Note: Chilika Lake was removed from the register in 2002 in light of the improved conditions of
the lake. In fact, Chilika lake is the first Ramsar site in Asia to be removed from the Montreux
record
69. Answer: B
Explanation:
Indian Biodiversity Hot Spot
There are 3 biodiversity hot spots present in India. They are:
1. The Eastern Himalayas [Arunachal Pradesh, Bhutan, Eastern Nepal]

2. Indo-Burma and [Purvanchal Hills, Arakan Yoma, Eastern Bangladesh]
3. The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
Western Himalayas are not part of the biodiversity hot spot.
70. Answer: A

Explanation:
The proposed AQI will consider eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb)
for which short-term (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards
are prescribed.
71. Answer: D
Explanation:
Only Hog deer is endangered species. Rest all are critically endangered species. Visit Red list of
IUCN for whole list. Pet question of UPSC every year!
72. Answer: B
Explanation:
Sandy saline area = Kutch region
Indian wild buffalo = Terai region
Indian wild boar = can survive in different types of habitat: grasslands,

taiga, tropical rainforests, but they prefer life in deciduous forests.
Chinkara (Indian gazelle) = Thar desert
India wild ass:
Distribution: Mostly occurs in Rann of Kutch region.

Population steadily increasing.
Today, its last refuge lies in the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann of Kutch.
Threat Diseases, habitat degradation due to salt activities, Invasive species Prosopis
juliflora shrub, and encroachment and grazing by the Maldhari.
73. Answer: A
Explanation:
About Olive Ridley Turtles

They are smallest and most abundant of all the sea turtle species. They are Omnivores.
Gets their name from olive green colouration of its heart shaped shell.
They are found only in warmer waters, including the southern Atlantic, Pacific and
Indian Oceans.

They are known for their arribadas (synchronized mass nesting) during which time tens
of thousands of female turtles come ashore to nest in the span of a few days.
Gahirmatha located in the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, Odisha houses the world
largest mass nesting site of these turtles.
Past few years, Sandy stretches of Hope Island of the Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary,
Andhra Pradesh have also emerged as a breeding ground for these turtles.
Their breeding season is from October to February where female can lays 100-150 eggs
at one time.
Despite high population, their numbers have declined significantly in past few year.
They have been categorized as Vulnerable in IUCN Red list and Listed as Schedule I
species in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, thereby being offered maximum
protection.
74. Answer: A
Explanation:
GIANT PANDA NO LONGER ENDANGERED

Why in News?
The International Union of Conservation of Nature has said in a report that the Panda is
now classified as vulnerable instead of endangered species.
Highlights of the Report

The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) report attributes the change
in classification to the growing numbers of wild Panda.
Agencies to enforce poaching bans and expand forest reserves.
The report also warned that climate change is predicted to eliminate more than 35
percent of the Panda s natural bamboo habitat in the next 80 years.
75. Answer: D
Explanation:
The River Luni: In Rajasthan
76. Answer: C
Explanation:
Rajaji National Park spread across Dehradun, Haridwar and Pauri districts of
Uttarakhand.
Kanha National Park located in the upper reaches of Narmada .
The Orang National Park, located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra River in the Darrang
and Sonitpur districts of Assam.
77. Answer: A

Explanation:
Heat waves impacted mainly in northern states like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Eastern states like
Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana.
Central government has declared cold waves; tsunamis etc as National Calamity but not heat
waves.
Thus recently after the heat waves took toll of many lives country wide, there was a demand
from
Experts as well as many states for heat waves to be declared as National Calamity.
Heat waves are the phenomenon found not only in tropical regions but also in temperate
regions.
Example: UK experienced the severe heat waves in 2013.
78. Answer: A
Explanation:
Black soil is mainly composed of clay, thus it has high moisture retention capacity. Black soils
are in fact rich in kankar nodules which add to the fertility of the soil.
79. Answer: B
Explanation:
Showers are almost evenly distributed throughout the year with very low dry spell.
Well drained gentle sloped soils are required and rugged topography is not suitable for tea
Plantations.
80. Answer: D
Explanation: The capital of Ecuador is Quito lies on Equator in South American continent.
81. Answer: A
Explanation: The river Nile extends from The Victoria lake which is located on the area of both
the African nations - Tanzania and Kenya and drains into the Mediterranean sea in the north.
So, it joins The Equator and passes through the tropic of Cancer too.
The Congo River passes through the Equator twice.
The Limpopo River passes through the tropic of Capricorn twice.
82. Answer: B
Explanation: The countries arranged from West to East across Tropic of Capricorn are Namibia,
Botswana, Zimbabwe and Mozambique

83. Answer: D
Explanation:
Prime Meridian does not pass through Tunisia. The countries the Prime Meridian passes
through are : Burkina Faso, Spain, France, Ghana, Algeria, Mali, United Kingdom and Togo. It
can be remembered as : BSF GAME in TOGO.

84. Answer: C
Explanation:
The arrangement from north to south of the South Eastern country s capital are as follows:
Hanoi- Vientiane-Bangkok-Phnom Penh

85. Answer: B
Explanation: The Dead Sea, also called the Salt Sea, is a salt lake bordering Jordan to the east,
and Israel to the west. Its surface and shores are 427 meters below sea level, Earth's lowest
elevation on land. The Dead Sea is 306 m deep, the deepest hyper saline lake in the world. With
34.2% salinity (in 2011), it is also one of the world's saltiest bodies of water.

86. Answer: C
Explanation:
The cities arranged from north to south in West Asia are Manama, Doha, Abu Dhabi and
Muscat.

87. Answer: D
Explanation:
Dasht-e-Margo a desert in southwestern Afghanistan
88. Answer: D
Explanation:
The countries bordering Caspian Sea are: Kazakhstan, Iran, Russia, Azerbaijan and
Turkmenistan (Can be shortly remembered as KIRAT)

89. Answer: A
Explanation:
The Regions of Israel are arranged from North to South as Golan Heights, West Bank and Gaza.

90. Answer: B
Explanation: The Mekong river Rising in southeastern Qinghai province, China, it flows through
the eastern part of the Tibet Autonomous Region and Yunnan province, after which it forms
part of the international border between Myanmar (Burma) and Laos, as well as between
Laos and Thailand. The river then flows through Laos, Cambodia, and Vietnam before draining
into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (formerly Saigon). Vientiane (Viangchan),
the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks. About
three-fourths of the drainage area of the Mekong lies within the four countries the
river traverses on its lower courseLaos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam.

91. Answer: C
Explanation:
The cities arranged from source to mouth are Vienna- Bratislava-Budapest-Belgrade-Bucharest
92. Answer: D
Explanation: Hamilton lies on Lake Ontario.

93. Answer: C
Explanation: Dasht-e-Lut desert lies in Iran and not in Saudi Arabia.
94. Answer: A
Explanation: Belarus is a land locked country and do not have any coast.
95. Answer: A
Explanation:

96. Answer: C
Explanation: T opic of Ca ce deg ee f o e uato passes through 8 Indian States. From

West to East Big cities Nearby This Line Are Following:-
State-City-Location from Equator
1-Gujrat-Gandhinagar-
2-Rajasthan-Banswara-
3-Madhya Pradesh-Bhopal-
4-Chhatisgarh-Ambikapur-
5-Jharkhand-Ranchi- 34
6-West Bengal-Durgapur-
7-Tripura-Nutan Bazar-

8-Mizoram-Sabual- 8
97. Answer: B
Explanation:
Sindh, Betwa, Dhasan and Ken are from West to East.
98. Answer: C
Explanation:
Barda Hills lies in Gujrat.
99. Answer: B
Explanation:
Bina refinery is located inland in the state of Madhya Pradesh. Numaligarh refinery is located in
Assam state. Tatipaka refinery is located along the coast of Andhra Pradesh in Godavari delta.

100. Answer: C
Explanation:
Mica:
1. Andhra Pradesh (41 per cent)

2. Rajasthan (21 per cent)
3. Odisha (20 per cent)
Asbestos:
1. Rajasthan is the largest producer. Important occurrences are known in Udaipur,

Dungarpur, Alwar, Ajmer and Pali districts.
2. In Andhra Pradesh, asbestos of fine quality occurs in Pulivendla taluk of Cuddapah
district.
3. In Karnataka, the main deposits occur in Hassan, Mandya, Shimoga, Mysore and
Chikmaglur districts.
Magnesite
Major deposits of magnesite are found in Uttaranchal, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.
Tamil Nadu is the largest producer [three-fourth] of magnesite in India.

Tamil Nadu has one of the largest deposits of magnesite in the world and the largest in
India are found at Chalk Hills near Salem town.
Kyanite
Kyanite occurs in metamorphic aluminous rocks.

It is primarily used in metallurgical, ceramic, refractory, glass, cement industries due to
its ability to stand high temperatures.
It is also used in making sparking plugs in automobiles.
India has the largest deposits of kyanite in the world. All the three grades of kyanite are
found here. Kyanite grades depend on aluminium content. Greater the aluminium
content, greater the quality.
Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Karnataka produce practically the whole of kyanite of
India.
Jharkhand is the largest producer of kyanite [four-fifths].

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1. Consider the following statements:

Select the options from below:

(A)1 and 2 (B)3 and 4

(C)2 and 3 (C)1,2 and 3

2. Which of the following are true about the Igneous Rocks?

3. Consider the following statements and identify wrong statements

4. Consider the following statements made about the sedimentary rocks:

5. Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the seismograph?

(A)P- waves (B) S-waves

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(C)Love waves (D)Rayleigh waves

6. Consider the following statements:

3. Shear waves are also called Surface waves.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 4

1. Presence of soluble rocks, preferably limestone at the surface or subsurface level.

2. Limestone should be porous and permeable and largely controlled by joints.

3. The limestone should be highly folded, fractured and faulted.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1 and 4

8. Following are features in a Karst Landforms:

Choose the erosional feature from following choices:

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(A) 1 ,2 and 3 (C)2,3 and 4

9. Bars, tombolo and spits are:

(A)Erosional landforms created by sea waves.

(C)Bolson (D) Bajada

11. Consider the following geological phenomena:

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

12. The following are the river drainage pattern characteristics:

II. Such pattern is generally developed due to river capture.

Based on above characteristics, which river drain pattern it represents:

(A)Pinnate Drainage (B)Herringbone Drainage

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(C) Barbed Drainage (D)Rectangular Drainage

13. Which of the following are wrongly matched?

(A) Dolphin Rise - Atlantic Ocean

(B) Albatross Plateau - Pacific Ocean

(C) Carlesberg Ridge - Indian Ocean

(D) Challenger Rise - Pacific Ocean

14. Consider the following statements regarding the Ocean Salinity:

Select the correct answers from below:

(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1,2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D)1,2,3 and 4

15. Which of the following seas have highest salinity?

(A) Red Sea (B) Gulf of Mexico

(C) North Sea (D) Baltic Sea

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16. Consider the statements regarding the salinity of the oceans:

Chose the correct answer from below:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C)Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

17. Consider the following statements: