MCQ on Microbiology - Microbes in Human Welfare

1. The discovery that led to the development of first antibiotic was made by
a) Jenner
b) Pasteur
c) Fleming
d) Pauling

2. Spirulina is a

a) edible fungus
b) biofertilizer
c) biopesticide
d) single cell protein

3. Biogas is
a) Methane rich fuel
b) ecofriendly and pollution free source
c) Propane rich fuel
d) Both a and c

4. High value of B O D (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) shows

a) water is normal
b) water is highly polluted
c) water is less polluted
d) none of these

5. Which of the following is fermentation process?

a) batch process
b)continuous process
c) both a and b
d) none of these

6. Who showed that Sacchaaromyces cerevisiae causes fermentation forming products such as
beer and buttermilk?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Alexander Fleming
c) Selman Waksman
d) Schatz

7. Rennet is used in
a) bread making
b) fermentation
c) cheese making
d) antibiotics synthesis
8. Tissue plasminogen activator is
a) a vitamin
b) an Enzyme
c)a chemical that stimulates tissue differentiation
d) amino acid

9. A bioreactor is
a) hybridoma
b) Culture containing radioactive isotopes
c) Culture for synthesis of new chemicals
d) Fermentation tank

10. Humulin is
a) carbohydrate
b) protein
c) fat
d) antibiotics

11. Which of the following can be application of fermentation?

a) tanning of leather
b) curing of tea
c) production of vine
d) all of these

12. Enzyme immobilisation is

a) conversion of an active enzyme into inactive form
b) providing enzyme with protective covering
c) changing a soluble enzyme into insoluble state
d) changing pH so that enzyme is not able to carry out its function

13. Biogas is produced by

a) aeobic breakdown of biomass
b) anaerobic break down of biomass
c) with the help of methanogenic bacteria
d) both b and c

14. Name the first organic acid produced by microbial fermentation

a) citric acid
b) lactic acid
c) acetic acid
d) none of the above

15. Vinegar is obtained from molasses with the help of

a) Rhizopus
b) Acetobacter
c) Yeast
d) both b and c

Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Bio fertilizers
Microbiology Multiple Choice Questions
MCQ Quiz on Microbes in Human Welfare
Answers

1-c
2-d
3-d
4-b
5-c
6-a
7-c
8-b
9-d
10-b
11-d
12-b
13-d
14-b
15-d

Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases

1. Aedes aegypti is a vector for
a) Yellow fever
b) Dengue fever
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) Both dengue and yellow fever

2. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

a) Diabetes
b) diptheria
c) Hypertension
d) Kwashiorkor

3. Congenital diseases are

a) Disease present at birth
b) Spread from one individual to another
c) Occur during life
d) Deficiency diseases

4. Which of the following diseases spreads through respiratory route?

a) Influenza
b) Mumps
c) Measles
d) all of above

5. Which of the following viruses causes common cold?

a) Rhino virus
b) T4 virus
c) MSZ virus
d) simian virus 40

6. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?

a) Rabies, mumps
b) AIDS, Syphilis
c) Typhoid, Tetanus
d) Cholera, Tuberculosis

7. If a person shows production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an
infection of
a) Tetanus
b) Typhoid
c) Malaria
d) Measles

8. Fever, slow pulse, abdominal tenderness, delirium and rose coloured rash indicate the disease?
a) Chicken box
b) Measles
c) Tetanus
d) Chicken pox

9. Mumps is an infection of
a) Parotid gland
b) submandibular gland
c) Sublingual gland
d) submaxillary land

10. Communicability of disease depends upon the availability of

a) Pathogen
b) Healthy person
c) Parasite
d) Susceptible person
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on AIDS
Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases
Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer
Answers
1. d) Both dengue and yellow fever
2. b) diptheria
3. a) Disease present at birth
4. d) all of above
5. a) Rhino virus
6. a) Rabies, mumps
7. d) Measles
8. b) Measles
9. a) Parotid gland
10. d) Susceptible person

Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases

1. Rickettsia form a group under

a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Virus
d) a category between viruses and bacteria

2. Give the correct matching of causative agent/ germ and disease

a) Glossina- Kala- azar
b) Anophles- Malaria
c) Wuchereria-Filariasis
d) Leishmania-Sleeping sickness

3. The blood cancer is known as

a) Haemolysis
b) Leukaemia
c) Haemophilia
d) Thrombosis

4. Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?

a) Skin cancer
b) Goitre
c) Hay fever
d) Enteric fever

5. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?

a) Rabies, Mumps
b) Typhoid, Tetanus
c) AIDS, Syphilis
d) Cholera, Tuberculosis

6. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulism affects the

a) Lymph glands
b) Spleen
c) Intestine
d) Central Nervous System

7. Diphtheria is caused by
a) Nematodes
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
d) None of these

8. Which of the following causes plague?

a) Trichinella spiralis
b) Yersinia pestis
c) Salmonella typhimuriam
d) Lesihmania donovani

9. Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted diseases (STD) with its
pathogen?
a) Syphilis- Treponema pallidium
b) Softsore- Bacillus brevis
c) Gonorrhoea- Entamoeba histolytica
d) Urethritis - Bacillus anthracis
10. The causative agent of mad cow disease is a
a) Virus
b) Prion
c) Worm
d) Bacterium
Learn more
MCQ on AIDS
MCQ on Cancer
MCQ on Biology and Human Welfare
Answers
1. b) Bacteria
2. c) Wuchereria-Filariasis
3. b) Leukaemia
4. c) Hay fever
5. a) Rabies, Mumps
6. d) Central Nervous System
7. c) Bacteria
8. b) Yersinia pestis
9. a) Syphilis- Treponema pallidium
10. b) Prion

Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases

1. Reduced number and size of RBCs and decreased amount of haemoglobin is a characteristic of

a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Megaloblastic anaemia
c) microcytic anaemia
d) all of these

2. Bleeding disease is due to the deficiency of

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin K

3. All are nutritional disorders associated with over nutrition except

a) hypervitaminosis
b) obesity
c) fluorosis
d) Osteomalacia

4. Vitamin D deficiency is the reason for

a) Rickets
b) Anaemia
c) Pellagra
d) Goitre

5. Enlargement of thyroid gland is due to the deficiency of

a) Vitamin A
b) Pottasium
c) Iodine
d) Vitamin D
6. All are vitamin deficiency diseases except
a) Marasmus
b) Rickets
c) Scurvy
d) Cheilosis

7. Fluorosis is due to
a) deficiency of fluorine
b) excess of fluorine
c) deficiency of calcium and fluorine
d) none of these

8. Cyanocobalamine deficiency is the reason of

a) Pernicious anaemia
b) Microcytic anaemia
c) macrocytic anemia
d) Pellagra

9. The condition of inflammation and cracking of skin at corners of mouth is

a) Pellagra
b) Cheilosis
c) Scurvy
d) Rickets

10. Calcium deposition in soft tissues is due to

a) deficiency of vitamin D
b) excess of vitamin D
c) excess of vitamin C
d) deficiency of vitamin C

11. Deficiency of Calcium may lead to a condition called

a) Giotre
b) Anaemia
c) Tetany
d) Scurvy

12. Beriberi is due to the deficiency of

a) vitamin D
b) vitamin A
c) vitamin B1
d) vitamin C
Learn more
Multiple Choice Questions on Blood
Multiple Choice Questions on Vitamins
Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases
Answers
1. c) microcytic anaemia
2. d) Vitamin K
3. d) Osteomalacia
4. a) Rickets
5. c) Iodine
6. a) Marasmus
7. b) excess of fluorine
8. a) Pernicious anaemia
9. b) Cheilosis
10. b) excess of vitamin D
11. c) Tetany
12. c) vitamin B1

Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases

1. Aedes aegypti is a vector for
a) Yellow fever
b) Dengue fever
c) Japanese encephalitis
d) Both dengue and yellow fever

2. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

a) Diabetes
b) diptheria
c) Hypertension
d) Kwashiorkor

3. Congenital diseases are

a) Disease present at birth
b) Spread from one individual to another
c) Occur during life
d) Deficiency diseases

4. Which of the following diseases spreads through respiratory route?

a) Influenza
b) Mumps
c) Measles
d) all of above

5. Which of the following viruses causes common cold?

a) Rhino virus
b) T4 virus
c) MSZ virus
d) simian virus 40

6. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused by virus?

a) Rabies, mumps
b) AIDS, Syphilis
c) Typhoid, Tetanus
d) Cholera, Tuberculosis

7. If a person shows production of interferon in his body, the chances are that he has got an
infection of
a) Tetanus
b) Typhoid
c) Malaria
d) Measles

8. Fever, slow pulse, abdominal tenderness, delirium and rose coloured rash indicate the disease?
a) Chicken box
b) Measles
c) Tetanus
d) Chicken pox

9. Mumps is an infection of
a) Parotid gland
b) submandibular gland
c) Sublingual gland
d) submaxillary land

10. Communicability of disease depends upon the availability of

a) Pathogen
b) Healthy person
c) Parasite
d) Susceptible person
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on AIDS
Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases
Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer
Answers
1. d) Both dengue and yellow fever
2. b) diptheria
3. a) Disease present at birth
4. d) all of above
5. a) Rhino virus
6. a) Rabies, mumps
7. d) Measles
8. b) Measles
9. a) Parotid gland
10. d) Susceptible person
Multiple Choice Questions on AIDS

AIDS virus
1. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome) Day is
a) May 1
b) December 1
c) December 20
d) June 1

2. AIDS was first reported in

a) Russia
b) France
c) Germany
d) U.S.A

3. AIDS can be transmitted by

a) Blood transfusion
b) Courtship
c) Handshake
d) all of the above

4. AIDS is caused by
a) Blood cancer
b) Human T-cell leukaemia virus
c) Bacterium
d) TMV

5. AZT ( 3-azido 2, 3 -dideoxy thymine) is used in the treatment of

a) malaria
b) AIDS
c) Malaria
d) Kala-azar

6. HIV virus has a protein coat and a genetic material which is

a) Double stranded DNA
b) Single stranded RNA
c) Double stranded RNA
d) Single stranded DNA

7. Which of the following could be called immune disorder?

a) AIDS and cholera
b) SCID and AIDS
c) AIDS and cholera
d) Hepatitis and leukaemia

8. The confirmatory test used to diagnose AIDS is

a) ELISA
b) Western blot
c) ESR
d) PCR

9. AIDS testing on normal individuals is done by

a) Separation by virus
b) Reduction in immunity of the individuals
c) Identification of antibodies
d) Identification of antigen-toxin

10. AIDS is
a) Endemic
b) Epidemic
c) Pandemic
d) Sporadic

11. HIV belongs to which of the following families of virus?

a) Reovirus
b) Lentivirus
c) Togavirus
d) Adenovirus

12. Development of vaccine is difficult for AIDS because env gene

a) undergoes mutation at rapid rate
b) undergoes reverse transcription
c) integrates into large number of host genes
d) integrates its genome into that of helper T cells

13. The causative agent for AIDS was first of all identified in 1984 and was named as
a) HIV-1
b) HIV-2
c) LAV
d) HTLV III

14. AIDS spread due to

a) homosexuality
b) immoral way of life
c) infected needles and syringes
d) all of the above
15. The virus that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) parasitizes
a) B cells
b) cytoxic Tcells
c) Helper T cells
d) The membrane of lymph nodes

Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer
Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases
Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases
Answers:

1- b
2- d
3-a
4-b
5-b
6-b
7-b
8-b
9-c
10-c
11-b
12-a
13-a
14-d
15-c

Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer

1. Cancer cells are
a) BHK
b) Veo
c) HL-8
d) Hela cells

2. Cancer is caused by
a) uncontrolled mitosis
b) uncontrolled meiosis
c) rupturing of cells
d) loss of immunity of the cells

3. Cancer cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

a) fast mutation
b) rapid cell division
c) lack of mutation
d) lack of oxygen

4. Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes in the cells but they do not express usually. This is
because of the presence of
a) proto oncogenes
b) tumour promoters
c) tumour suppressor genes
d) transposons or jumping genes

5. Cancer of lymphocytes is called

a) Sarcoma
b) Melanoma
c) myeloma
d) carcinoma

6. The basic difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is

a) cancer cells divide continuously but normal cells do not divide

b) normal cell is bigger than cancer cells
c) normal cells are immortal but cancer cells are mortal
d) cancer cells divide do not differentiate like normal cells

7. Diethylstibetorol (DES) is a carcinogen. Which organ of the body does it effect?

a) vagina
b) heart
c) lung
d) kidney

8. Reason of lung cancer is

a) coal mining
b) cement factory
c) calcium fluoride
d) bauxite mining

9. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue

a) bones
b) connective tissue
c) epithelial cells
d) embryonic tissue

10. Which on of the following is used in treatment of thyroid cancer?

a) U-238
b) I-131
c) C-14
d) rA-240

11. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming
secondary tumours is called
a) diapedesis
b) metastasis
c) proliferation
d) none of these

12. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to
diagnose the cancer
a) blood test
b) pap test
c) CT scan
d) mammography

13. Which one of the following genes is involved in the conversion of proto-oncogenes into
oncogenes causing cancer?
a) metastasis genes
b) angiogenesis genes
c) transposons
d) tumour suppressor genes

14. Which one of the following therapies will involve only the cancerous cells not the normal
cells in treatment
a) immunotherapy
b) surgery
c) aromatherapy
d) chemotherapy

15. Which one of the following cancers does not form a solid neoplasm
a) leukemia
b) lymphoma
c) lipoma
d) sarcoma
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer
Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases
Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases
Answers:
1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-c
6-d 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-b
11-b 12-d 13-d 14-a 15-a

MCQ on Biotechnology - Plant Tissue Culture

1. Who is the father of tissue culture?

a) Bonner
b) Haberlandt
c) Laibach
d) Gautheret
2. The production of secondary metabolites require the use of
a) protoplast
b) cell suspension
c) meristem
d) auxillary buds
3. Synthetic seed is produced by encapsulating somatic embryo with
a) sodium chloride
b) sodium alginate
c) sodium acetate
d) sodium nitrate
4. Hormone pair required for a callus to differentiate are
a) auxin and cytokinin
b) auxin and ethylene
c) auxin and absiccic acid
d) cytokinins and gibberllin
5. DMSO (Dimethyl sulfoxide) is used as
a) Gelling agent
b) alkaylating agent
c) Chelating agent
d) Cryoprotectant
6. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is
a) Manitol
b) Sorbitol
c) Mannol
d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)
7. Cybrids are produced by
a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
d) None of the above
8. Callus is
a) Tissue that forms embryo
b) An insoluble carbohydrate
c) Tissue that grows to form embryoid
d) Un organised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in cultured
9. Part of plant used for culturing is called
a) Scion
b) Explant
c) Stock
d) Callus
10. Growth hormone producing apical dominance is
a) Auxin
b) Gibberellin
c) Ethylene
d) Cytokinin
11. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is called
a) Natural media
b) Synthetic media
c) Artificial media
d) None of these
12. To obtain haploid plant, we culture
a) Entire anther
b) Nucleus
c) Embryo
d) Apical bud
13. Somaclonal variations are the ones
a) Caused by mutagens
b) Produce during tissue culture
c) Caused by gamma rays
d) Induced during sexual embryogeny
14. Which of the following plant cell will show totipotency?
a) Xylem vessels
b) Sieve tube
c) Meristem
d) Cork cells
15. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?
a) Plasmid
b) Cosmid
c) Phasmid
d) Agrobacterium
Answers:
b) Haberlandt
b) cell suspension
b) sodium alginate
a) auxin and cytokinin
d) Cryoprotectant
d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)
c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
d) Un organised actively dividing mass of cells maintained in cultured
b) Explant
a) Auxin
b) Synthetic media
a) Entire anther
b) Produce during tissue culture
c) Meristem
d) Agrobacterium

Multiple Choice Questions on Plant Breeding

1. Breeding for disease resistance requires
a) a good source of resistance
b) Planned hybridisation
c) Diseases test
d) all of these

2. Polyploidy is induced through

a) Irradiation
b) Mutagenic chemicals
c) Ethylene
d) Colchicine

3. Heterosis is
a) Appearance of spontaneous mutations
b) Induction of mutations
c) Mixture of two or more traits
d) Superiority of hybrids over their parents.

4. The quickest method of plant breeding is

a) introduction
b) Selection
c) Hybridisation
d) Mutation Breeding

5. The new varieties of plants are produced by

a) Introduction and mutation
b) Selection and hybridisation
c) Mutation and Selection
d) Selection and Introduction
6. Pure line breed refers to
a) heterozygosity only
b) homozygosity only
c) homozygosity and self assortment
d) heterozygosity and linkage

7. A scientist wants to study the viral effects on plants. Which of the following part of the plant
should be excluded?
a) pith
b) shoot apex
c) phloem
d) cortex

8. Somatic hybridisation is achieved through

a) Grafting
b) Conjugation
c) Protoplast fusion
d) Recombinant DNA technology

9. Bagging is done to

a) Avoid cross pollination

b) Avoid self pollination
c) Achieve desired pollination
d) Prevent contamination from foreign pollen

10. A technique of micropropagation is

a) Multiple root production
b) Somatic embryogenesis
c) Growth of micro organisms on culture medium
d) Multiple shoot production and embryo rescue

Learn more
Multiple Choice Question on Genetics
Multiple Choice Quiz on Plant Breeding
Multiple Choice Questions on Biotechnology
Answers
1. d) all of these
2. d) Colchicine
3. d) Superiority of hybrids over their parents.
4. d) Mutation Breeding
5. b) Selection and hybridisation
6. b) homozygosity only
7. b) shoot apex
8. c) Protoplast fusion
9. d) Prevent contamination from foreign pollen
10. b) Somatic embryogenesis

Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer

1. Cancer cells are
a) BHK
b) Veo
c) HL-8
d) Hela cells

2. Cancer is caused by
a) uncontrolled mitosis
b) uncontrolled meiosis
c) rupturing of cells
d) loss of immunity of the cells

3. Cancer cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to

a) fast mutation
b) rapid cell division
c) lack of mutation
d) lack of oxygen

4. Oncogenes are the cancer causing genes in the cells but they do not express usually. This is
because of the presence of
a) proto oncogenes
b) tumour promoters
c) tumour suppressor genes
d) transposons or jumping genes

5. Cancer of lymphocytes is called

a) Sarcoma
b) Melanoma
c) myeloma
d) carcinoma

6. The basic difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is

a) cancer cells divide continuously but normal cells do not divide
b) normal cell is bigger than cancer cells
c) normal cells are immortal but cancer cells are mortal
d) cancer cells divide do not differentiate like normal cells

7. Diethylstibetorol (DES) is a carcinogen. Which organ of the body does it effect?

a) vagina
b) heart
c) lung
d) kidney

8. Reason of lung cancer is

a) coal mining
b) cement factory
c) calcium fluoride
d) bauxite mining

9. Blastoma is a cancer involving which tissue

a) bones
b) connective tissue
c) epithelial cells
d) embryonic tissue

10. Which on of the following is used in treatment of thyroid cancer?

a) U-238
b) I-131
c) C-14
d) rA-240

11. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of origin to other part of the body forming
secondary tumours is called
a) diapedesis
b) metastasis
c) proliferation
d) none of these

12. A patient is suspicious of having breast cancer. What type of test will a physician conduct to
diagnose the cancer
a) blood test
b) pap test
c) CT scan
d) mammography
13. Which one of the following genes is involved in the conversion of proto-oncogenes into
oncogenes causing cancer?
a) metastasis genes
b) angiogenesis genes
c) transposons
d) tumour suppressor genes

14. Which one of the following therapies will involve only the cancerous cells not the normal
cells in treatment
a) immunotherapy
b) surgery
c) aromatherapy
d) chemotherapy

15. Which one of the following cancers does not form a solid neoplasm
a) leukemia
b) lymphoma
c) lipoma
d) sarcoma
Learn more:
Multiple Choice Questions on Cancer
Multiple Choice Questions on Human Diseases
Multiple Choice Questions on Deficiency Diseases
Answers:
1-d 2-a 3-b 4-c 5-c
6-d 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-b
11-b 12-d 13-d 14-a 15-a

MCQ on Biofertilizers and Pesticides

1. Organic farming is the technique of raising crops through uses of?
a) manures
b) biofertilizers
c) resistant varieties
d) all of these

2. Pyrethrin is got from

a) Azardirachta indica
b) Urtica dioca
c) Tagetus erecta
d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium

3. Which one is green manure/ biofertilizer

a) Sesbania
b) Rice
c) Oat
d) Maize

4. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has

a) Rhizobium
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Mycorrhiza
d) large quantity of humus

5. The most quickly available source of nitrogen to plants are

a) amide fertilizers
b) ammonia fertilizers
c) nitrate fertilizers
d) ammonia nitrate fertilizer

6. Most effective pesticide is

a) carbamates
b) Organophosphates
c) organochlorines
d) All of these

7. Which is true for DDT? It is

a) not a pollutant
b) an antibiotic
c) an antiseptic agent
d) a non degradable pollutant

8. Which is major component of Bordeaux Mixture?

a) copper sulphate
b) sodium chloride
c) calcium chloride
d) magnesium sulphate

9. Which one is correctly matched?

a) carbamates- malathion
b) organophosphates- carbofuran
c) carbamates- malathion
d) organochloride- endosulphan

10. IPM stands for

a) integrated pest manufacture
b) integrated plant management
c) integrated plant management
d) integrated pest management

11. Azolla is used as biofertilizer as it has

a) Rhizobium
b) Cyanobacteria
c) Mycorrhiza
d) large quantity of humus

12. Green manuring increases the crop yield by

a) 5-10%
b) 15-25%
c) 30-50%
d) 80-90%

13. Insecticides generally attack

a) respiratory system
b) nervous system
c) muscular system
d) circulatory system

14. Organisms associated with sorghum and cotton, which provide nutrition to them are
a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter
b) Azotobacter, Azospirillum
c) Anabaena, Rhizobium
d) Rhizobium, Azotobacter

15. Azolla as biofertilizer, increases the yield of rice fields by

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%
Learn more:

Multiple Choice Questions on Microbes in Human Welfare

Multiple Choice Questions on Economic Botany
Multiple Choice Questions on Economic Zoology

Answers:
1. d) all of these
2. d) Chrsanthemum cinerarifolium
3. a) Sesbania
4. b) Cyanobacteria
5. c) nitrate fertilizers
6. b) Organophosphates
7. d) a non degradable pollutant
8. a) copper sulphate
9. d) organochloride- endosulphan
10. d) integrated pest management
11. b) Cyanobacteria
12. c) 30-50%
13. a) respiratory system
14. a) Azospirillium, Azotobacter
15. d) 50%

Multiple Choice Questions On Strategies for Enhancement in food production

1. An organism that expresses a transgene is called
a) Clone organism
b) Mutated organism
c) somaclonal organism
d) Transgenic organism

2. Haploids of Datura are produced by

a) Tissue culture
b) Anther culture
c) Subculture
d) Meristem culture

3. Somatic hybrids used in

a) Transfer of cytoplasm
b) Gene transfer
c) Production of useful allopolypoids
d) all of these

4. Recombinant proteins are proteins produced by

a) Transgenes
b) Dominant genes
c) Mutated genes
d) Recessive genes

5. A crop that contains and expresses a transgene is called

a) GM crops
b) Transgenic crop
c) Genetically modified crop
d) both b and c
6. The way in which biotechnology can contribute to sustainable agriculture is
a) biofertilizer
b) Single Cell Protein (SCP)
c) Disease and insect resistant varieties
d) All of the above

7. Production of which enzyme was blocked in Flavr Savr tomato

a) Ligase
b) Invertase
c) Peptidase
d) polygalacto uronase

8. Fusion between protoplasts of the selected parents is induced by

a) Polyethyl glycol
b) Electric current
c) mutagene
d) both a and b

9. Microorganism used as biopesticides is

a) Fungi
b) Protozoa
c) Bacteria
d) All of these

10. A patent is granted for

a) An invention
b) The process of generating a product
c) An improvement in an earlier invention
d) All of these
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MCQ on Microbes in Human Welfare
Answers
1. d) Transgenic organism
2. b) Anther culture
3. d) all of these
4. a) Transgenes
5. d) both b and c
6. d) All of the above
7. d) polygalacto uronase
8. d) both a and b
9. d) All of these
10. d) All of these