DATE : 24/07/2016 Test Booklet Code

AA

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016

Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4
marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ballpoint Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
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is the same as that on this Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report
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in the Attendance Sheet.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

1. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c) Answer (3)

and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three
v2
fundamental constants. Which of the following Sol. a cos 30 
combinations of these has the dimension of length? r

hG hG 3 v2
 15 
(1) (2) 2 2.5
c 3/2 c 5/2
 v = 5.7 m/s
hc Gc
(3) (4) 4. A rigid ball of mass m strikes a rigid wall at 60° and
G h3/2
gets reflected without loss of speed as shown in the
Answer (1) figure below. The value of impulse imparted by the
Sol. L  hacbGc wall on the ball will be
[L]1 = [M1L2T–1]a [LT–1]b [M–1L3T–2]c m
V
Solving,
1 1 3 60°
a , c , b
2 2 2 60°
hG V
 L 3/2
c
2. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same (1) mV (2) 2mV
time in a straight line and their positions are mV mV
represented by xP(t) = at + bt 2 and xQ(t) = ft – t 2. (3) (4)
2 3
At what time do the cars have the same velocity?
Answer (1)
af af r r r
(1)
1 b
(2)
2(b  1) Sol. | J |  | P2  P1 |  2mV cos   mV

af f a 5. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a

(3) (4) velocity of 400 ms–1 strikes a wood block of mass
2(1  b ) 2(1  b )
2 kg which is suspended by light inextensible string
Answer (4)
of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
dxP the block found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm.
Sol. v P   a  2bt
dt The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
dx horizontally from the block will be
vQ  Q  f  2t
dt (1) 100 ms–1 (2) 80 ms–1
vP = vQ (3) 120 ms–1 (4) 160 ms–1
 a + 2bt = f – 2t Answer (3)
2t + 2bt = f – a Sol. Apply conservation of linear momentum.
f a CM rises through height h, so its velocity after
 t
2(b  1) collision = 2gh
3. In the given figure, a = 15 m/s2 represents the total
acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise 0.01 400  2  2gh  0.01 v
direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given  v = 120 m/s
instant of time. The speed of the particle is 6. Two identical balls A and B having velocities of
0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically
in one dimension. The velocities of B and A after the
30°

R collision respectively will be

a
O (1) –0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
(2) 0.5 m/s and –0.3 m/s
(1) 4.5 m/s (2) 5.0 m/s (3) –0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
(3) 5.7 m/s (4) 6.2 m/s (4) 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (2) 10. A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and m2
attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of
Sol. They will exchange their velocity, so
the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod
vB = 0.5 m/s and vA = –0.3 m/s and passing through the centre of mass is
7. A particle moves from a point ( 2iˆ  5 jˆ) to m1m2 2 m1  m2 2
(1) l (2) l
(4 jˆ  3kˆ ) when a force of (4iˆ  3 jˆ) N is applied. m1  m2 m1m2
How much work has been done by the force? (3) (m1 + m2)l2 (4) m1m2 l 2
(1) 8 J (2) 11 J Answer (1)
(3) 5 J (4) 2 J l
Answer (3) Sol. x1 CM x2
r r r m1 m2
Sol. s  r2  r1  (4 ˆj  3kˆ )  ( 2iˆ  5 jˆ)
m2l m1l
x1  and x2 
 2iˆ  jˆ  3kˆ m1  m2 m1  m2
r
F  4iˆ  3 ˆj I  m1x12  m2 x22 
m1m2 2
l
ur r m1  m2
W  F s  8  3  5 J
11. Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R,
8. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m the variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is
with moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal shown by
kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and L B be their
angular momenta respectively, then
g g
L
(1) LA  B (2) LA = 2LB (1) (2)
2
(3) LB > LA (4) LA > LB O O
R r R r
Answer (3)
g g
L2
Sol. E 
2I (3) (4)
 EA = EB O O
R r R r
L2A L2 Answer (2)
  B
2I A 2IB GMr
Sol. gin  ⇒ gin  r
IB > IA  LB > LA R3
GM 1
9. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating gout  ⇒ g out 
about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass r2 r2
and same radius is also rotating about its
geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of g
the sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of
rotation (Esphere / Ecylinder) will be
(1) 2 : 3 O R r
(2) 1 : 5 12. A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius
R) at a height h from its surface. The total energy of
(3) 1 : 4 the satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration
(4) 3 : 1 due to gravity at the earth's surface, is

Answer (2) mg0 R 2 mg 0 R 2

(1) (2) 
2(R  h ) 2(R  h )
1⎛ 2 2⎞ 2
Esphere ⎜ mR ⎟  1 2mg0 R 2 2mg0 R 2
2 ⎝ 5 ⎠
Sol.   (3) (4) 
Ecylinder 1⎛ 1 ⎞ 5 Rh Rh
⎜ mR ⎟ (2)
2 2
2⎝2 ⎠ Answer (2)
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

GMm 15. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which
Sol. Total energy =  the heat capacity increases with temperature. One
2r
of these is at 100°C, while the other one is at 0°C.
Here, r = R + h and GM = g0R2
If the two bodies are brought into contact, then
mg0 R 2 assuming no heat loss, the final common
 E temperature is
2(R  h )
(1) 50°C
13. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from
(4 cm × 2 cm) to (5 cm × 4 cm). If the work done (2) More than 50°C
is 3 × 10–4 J, the value of the surface tension of the (3) Less than 50°C but greater than 0°C
liquid is
(4) 0°C
(1) 0.250 Nm–1
Answer (2)
(2) 0.125 Nm–1 Sol. Loss of heat by hot body = Gain of heat by cold body
(3) 0.2 Nm–1 Tc1 1  Tc2 2
(4) 8.0 Nm–1 Tc1  Tc2 ⇒ 1  2
Answer (2) 16. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in
Sol. W = 2(Af – Ai)T 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that
Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The
W temperature of the body at the end of next
 T =
( Af  Ai )  2 10 minutes will be

3  104 J 7
= 4 4 (1) T
2[5  4  10  4  2  10 ] 4
= 0.125 Nm–1
3
14. Three liquids of densities 1, 2 and 3 (with 1 > 2 (2) T
2
> 3), having the same value of surface tension T,
rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. 4
The angles of contact 1, 2 and 3 obey (3) T
3

(1)  1  2  3  0 (4) T
2
Answer (2)

(2) 0  1  2  3 
2 T1  T2 ⎛ T  T2 ⎞
Sol.  K⎜ 1  T0 ⎟
t ⎝ 2 ⎠

(3)  1  2  3  
2
3T  2T
 K (2.5T  T )
10

(4)   1  2  3 
2 T
  K (1.5)T
Answer (2) 10

2T cos  1
Sol. h  K=
r g 15
 r  cos (as T, h and r are constants)
T x ⎛T  x ⎞
   Now,  K⎜ T⎟
10 ⎝ 2 ⎠
1 < 2 < 3
3T
 Solving x 
Its rise so 0  1  2  3  2
2
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

17. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a Answer (2)

process described by the equation PV 3 = constant.
The heat capacity of the gas during this process is P kT
Sol. 
 m
3 5
(1) R (2) R
2 2 Pm
 
(3) 2R (4) R kT

Answer (4) 20. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of

a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has
Sol. PV3 = constant polytropic process with n = 3
negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled
R down and released, it oscillates with a time period
C = Cv 
1 n of 3 s. When the mass m is increased by 1 kg, the
time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. The value
R R
=  of m in kg is
r  1 1 n
3 4
R R (1) (2)
= 5   R 4 3
1 3
1
3
16 9
(3) (4)
18. The temperature inside a refrigerator is t2 °C and the 9 16
room temperature is t1 °C. The amount of heat
delivered to the room for each joule of electrical Answer (4)
energy consumed ideally will be
m
t1 t1  273 Sol. T1  3  2
K
(1) t  t (2) t  t
1 2 1 2
m 1
t2  273 t1  t2 Then, T2 = 5 = 2
K
(3) t  t (4) t  273
1 2 1
3 m
Answer (2) Dividing, 
5 m 1
Q2 1
Sol. K   9 m
W t1 1 
25 m 1
t2
9m + 9 = 25m
t W
Q2  2 16m = 9
t1  t2
9
t W m=
Q1  Q2  W  2 W 16
t1  t2
21. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the
t1W t1  273
= t t  t t
same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe
1 2 1 2 L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be
19. A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume (1) L (2) 2L
V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T. The
mass of each molecule of the gas is m. Which of L
(3) (4) 4L
the following gives the density of the gas? 2
Answer (2)
P Pm
(1) (2)
(kT ) (kT ) 3V 3V
Sol. 2L  4L
1
P
(3) (4) mkT
(kTV )  L1 = 2L

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

22. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have (1) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4

frequencies (n – 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to
2
give beats. The number of beats produced per (2) k  (k1  k2  k3 )  2k 4
second will be 3

(1) 1 2 3 1
(3) k  k  k  k  k
(2) 4 1 2 3 4

(3) 3 1 1 1 1 3
(4) k  k  k  k  2k
(4) 2 1 2 3 4

Answer (4) Answer (3)

Sol. (n – 1) and (n + 1) suppose to form frequency n Sol. k1, k2 and k3 are in parallel so Arithmetic mean.

n and n will be at resonance k1  k2  k3

keq 
n – 1 and n  produce 1 beat 3
keq is in series with k4. So harmonic mean.
n + 1 and n  produce 1 beat
Number of beats formed are ‘2’. 2 1 1
  
k keq k4
23. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with
an electric field intensity 2 × 105 N/C. It experiences
2 3 1
a torque equal to 4 N m. The charge on the dipole,   
k k1  k2  k3 k 4
if the dipole length is 2 cm, is
(1) 8 mC 25. The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points
A and B in the given figure is
(2) 2 mC
(3) 5 mC
(4) 7 C
(1) –3 V (2) +3 V
Answer (2)
(3) +6 V (4) +9 V
Sol.   PE sin 
Answer (4)
   qlE sin 
Sol.

 q 
lE sin  VA – VB = (2 × 2) + 3 + (2 × 1)
4 =4+3+2
=  2 mC
2  102  0.5  2  105 =9V
24. A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation 26. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a
d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric 230 V main supply. When a resistance R is
materials having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb
k4 as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric consumes 500 W. The value of R is
material is to be used to have the same capacitance (1) 230  (2) 46 
C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is
(3) 26  (4) 13 
given by
Answer (3)

P 500
Sol. I    5A
V 100
Voltage across resistance R will be
230 – 100 = 130 V

130
R   26 
5

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

27. A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a 30. Which of the following combinations should be
circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used for
centre of the loop is B. It is then bent into a circular communication?
coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of
(1) R = 20 , L = 1.5 H, C = 35 F
this coil of n turns will be
(2) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45 F
(1) nB (2) n2B
(3) 2nB (4) 2n2B (3) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 F

Answer (2) (4) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 F

0 I Answer (3)
Sol. B  , when made n turns radius becomes r '
2r
R
Sol. Better tuning means low bandwidth =
r L
n  2r '  2r ⇒ r ' 
n
31. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region
0 nI  I of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at
Now, B '   n 2 0  n 2B
2r ' 2r r
dB
28. A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a a rate . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the
dt
uniform horizontal magnetic field and is in equilibrium
state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region
Now the torque required to keep the magnet in this of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then
new position is the e.m.f. generated is

W
(1)
3
(2) 3W
R R

2W 1 2
3W
(3) (4)
2 3 (1) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
Answer (2) r r
dB 2 dB 2
(2) – r in loop 1 and – r in loop 2
Sol. W = PE(cos 1 – cos 2) dt dt
W = PE(cos 0 – cos 60°) r
dB
(3) – R 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
PE
= r
2 dB 2
(4) – r in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
 PE = 2W
Answer (4)
 = PE sin  = 2W sin 60° = 3W
Sol. Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 1 is r2
29. An electron is moving in a circular path under the r
influence of a transverse magnetic field of dB 2
So emf in loop 1 is – r .
3.57 × 10–2 T. If the value of e/m is 1.76 × 1011 C/kg, dt
the frequency of revolution of the electron is Magnetic flux linked with area of loop 2 is zero
(1) 1 GHz (2) 100 MHz
So emf in loop 2 = 0
(3) 62.8 MHz (4) 6.28 MHz
32. The potential differences across the resistance,
Answer (1) capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and
100 V respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power
qB 1.76  1011  3.57  102 factor of this circuit is
Sol. f = 
2m 2  3.14 (1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
= 109 Hz = 1 GHz (3) 0.8 (4) 1.0

7
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (3) 35. An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5
(near normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed
R VR 80 from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from
Sol. cos    
z V 80  (100 – 40)2
2 the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab
is
80
  0.8 (1) 8
100
(2) 10
33. A 100  resistance and a capacitor of 100 
(3) 12
reactance are connected in series across a 220 V
source. When the capacitor is 50% charged, the (4) 16
peak value of the displacement current is
Answer (3)
(1) 2.2 A (2) 11 A
Sol. d = (d1 + d2) 
(3) 4.4 A (4) 11 2 A = 1.5(5 + 3) = 12 cm

Answer (1) 36. The interference pattern is obtained with two

coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
Sol. R = 100 , Xc = 100  interference pattern, the ratio
200 V 220 V Imax – Imin
Imax    2.2 A
100 100  Imax  Imin
34. Two identical glass (g = 3/2) equiconvex lenses of will be
focal length f each are kept in contact. The space
between the two lenses is filled with water (w = 4/3). n
(1)
The focal length of the combination is n 1

(1) f / 3 (2) f 2 n
(2)
n 1
(3) 4f / 3 (4) 3f / 4

Answer (4) n
(3)
1 2 1 ⎛ 3⎞
 n  12
Sol.  (g  1)  , ⎜ g  ⎟ , R  f
f R R ⎝ 2⎠
2 n
1 2 –2 2 (4)
f1 = –(w – 1) R  3R  3f
 n  12
Answer (2)
1 1 1 1 1 1 2
     –
feq f f f1 R R 3R
I1
Sol. I  n
2
1 1 1 2
  
feq f f 3f
   
2 2
Imax  I1  I2 n  1 I2
1 2 2
 
feq f 3f
   
2 2
Imin  I1 – I2 n – 1 I2
1 4

feq 3f
Imax – Imin 4 n 2 n
 
3f Imax  Imin 2(n  1) n  1
feq 
4
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

37. A person can see clearly objects only when they lie Answer (1)
between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order
to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision h p2 h2 hc
Sol. Momentum P =  E  ⇒ 
to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens,  2m 2m 2 0
the person has to use, will be
hc
(1) Convex, +2.25 diopter ⇒ 0  2
2m 2
h
(2) Concave, –0.25 diopter
(3) Concave, –0.2 diopter 2mc  2

(4) Convex, +0.15 diopter h

Answer (2) 40. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode

Sol. Maximum distance of distinct vision = 400 cm. C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
So image of object at infinity is to be formed at emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of
400 cm. energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will
Use lens formula reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A
relative to C is
1 1 1
– 
v u f (1) +3 V
1 1 1
–  (2) +4 V
–400  f
P = –0.25 D (3) –1 V
38. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed
(4) –3 V
immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm.
The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel Answer (4)
beam of wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The distance of
the first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the Sol. Emax = E – 
centre of the screen is
2 eV = 5 eV –   = 3 eV
(1) 0.10 cm
(2) 0.25 cm Now eV0 = E' – 

(3) 0.20 cm = 6 eV – 3 eV = 3 eV
(4) 0.15 cm
So stopping potential is –3V.
Answer (4)
 y 41. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
Sol.    y orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength
a f
 . When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit,
f f
y the corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
a
39. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength 
16
fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff (1) 
wavelength (0) of the emitted X-ray is 25

2mc  2 9
(1) 0  
h (2)
16

2h
(2)  0 
mc 20
(3) 
7
2m 2c 2 3
(3) 0 
h2 20
(4) 
(4) 0 =  13

9
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (3) Answer (2)

Sol. Rc = 2 k V0 = 4 V
1
Sol.  
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ 4V 4V
R⎜ 2 – 2 ⎟ IC  
⎝2 3 ⎠ RC 2k = 2 mA

1 IC
'    100
⎛ 1 1 ⎞ IB
R⎜ 2 – 2 ⎟
⎝3 4 ⎠
IC
 IB   2  10 –5 A
100
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
–
 ' ⎜⎝ 22 32 ⎟⎠ Vin = IBRi = 2 × 10–5 × 1 k= 20 mV
 20
 ⎛ 1 1 ⎞  ' 
⎜ 2 – 2⎟ 7 44. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as
⎝3 4 ⎠ shown in the figure below. The current flowing through
the resistance R1 will be
42. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes.
2
The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and
85% decay of the same radioactive substance is R1 D1 D2
10 V
(1) 15 R2 3  R3 2 

(2) 30
(1) 2.5 A
(3) 45 (2) 10.0 A
(4) 60 (3) 1.43 A
Answer (4) (4) 3.13 A
Sol. Number of active nuclei falls from Answer (1)

60% to 15% Sol. D1 is reverse biased

D2 is forward biased
1
So sample becomes th
4 10 V
I = 2.5 A
(2  2)
1
= th 45. What is the output Y in the following circuit, when
22
all the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?
So number of half-lives = 2 A
B P
Q Y
Time t = 2 × 30 = 60 minute C
(1) 0, 1
43. For CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage
across the collector resistance of 2 k is 4 V. If the (2) 0, 0
current amplification factor of the transistor is 100 (3) 1, 0
and the base resistance is 1 k then the input
signal voltage is (4) 1, 1
Answer (3)
(1) 10 mV

(2) 20 mV Sol. Output Y   A  B   C  A  B  C

(3) 30 mV When A, B, C are 0  Y = 1

(4) 15 mV When A, B, C are 1  Y = 0

10
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

46. Which one of the following compounds shows the 50. During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the
presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond? time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas
using a current of 3 amperes is
(1) H2O2
(1) 55 minutes (2) 110 minutes
(2) HCN
(3) 220 minutes (4) 330 minutes
(3) Cellulose
Answer (2)
(4) Concentrated acetic acid
Sol. For 1 mole Cl2, 2 F electricity is required
Answer (3)
 For 0.1 mole Cl2, 0.2 F electricity will be
Sol. Fact. required
47. The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm3 solution of  Q=I×t
AgNO 3 with electrolytic conductivity of Q 0.2  96500
5.76 × 10–3 S cm–1 at 298 K or, t 
  110 min.
I 3  60
(1) 2.88 S cm2/mol (2) 11.52 S cm2/mol 51. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which
n = 3 and l = 1?
(3) 0.086 S cm2/mol (4) 28.8 S cm2/mol
(1) 2 (2) 6
Answer (2)
(3) 10 (4) 14
3
  1000 5.76  10  1000 Answer (1)
Sol. m  
M 0.5 Sol. An orbital can accommodate maximum of
2 electrons with anti-parallel spins.
= 11.52 S cm2/mol
52. For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is
48. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten
changed isothermally from p i to p f, the entropy
at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because
change is given by
the
⎛p ⎞ ⎛p ⎞
(1) Rate is proportional to the surface coverage (1) S  nRln ⎜ f ⎟ (2) S  nRln ⎜ i ⎟
⎝ pi ⎠ ⎝ pf ⎠
(2) Rate is inversely proportional to the surface
coverage ⎛p ⎞ ⎛p ⎞
(3) S  nRT ln ⎜ f ⎟ (4) S  RT ln ⎜ i ⎟
(3) Rate is independent of the surface coverage ⎝ pi ⎠ ⎝ pf ⎠

(4) Rate of decomposition is very slow Answer (2)

Answer (1) ⎛p ⎞
Sol. S  nRln ⎜ i ⎟
Sol. Rate is proportion to the surface coverage ⎝ pf ⎠
49. The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the 53. The van't Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution
electrolytes used for the coagulation of As2S3 are of the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
given below :
(1) 0 (2) 1
I. (NaCl) = 52
(3) 2 (4) 3
II. (BaCl2) = 0.69
Answer (4)
III. (MgSO4) = 0.22 Sol. Ba(OH)2  Ba2(+) + 2OH(–)
The correct order of their coagulating power is  van't Hoff factor = 1 + 2 = 3
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III 54. The percentage of pyridine (C 5H 5N) that forms
pyridinium ion (C 5H5N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
(3) III > II > I (4) III > I > II
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 × 10–9) is
Answer (3)
(1) 0.0060% (2) 0.013%
1 (3) 0.77% (4) 1.6%
Sol. Coagulating power 
Coagulation value Answer (2)

11
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

58. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product

Sol. C5H5N + H2O C5H5N H + OH 1.6 × 10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be
t=0 C
(1) 1.26 × 10–5 M
t = eq. C(1 – ) C C
(2) 1.6 × 10–9 M

C 2 (3) 1.6 × 10–11 M

 Kb   C2
1  (4) Zero
Answer (2)
Kb 1.7  109
  
C 0.1
Sol. AgCl(s) Ag (aq)  Cl(–) (aq)
S S S
= 1.3 × 10–4
 (–)
NaCl Na (aq)  Cl (aq)
 %  = 1.3 × 10–4 × 100 = 0.013% 0.1 M 0.1 M
55. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the
coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and  Ksp(AgCl) = S(S + 0.1)
fluoride ion (F–) are Q S << 0.1

(1) 4 and 2 (2) 6 and 6  S + 0.1  0.1

(3) 8 and 4 (4) 4 and 8  1.6 × 10–10 = S × 0.1

 S = 1.6 × 10–9 M
Answer (3)
59. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two
Sol. In CaF2, Ca2(+) has fcc arrangement and F(–) ions are compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole of XY2
present in all tetrahedral voids. weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the
 Co-ordination numbers for Ca2(+) and F(–) ions are atomic weights of X and Y are
8 and 4. (1) 40, 30 (2) 60, 40
56. If the Eºcell for a given reaction has a negative value, (3) 20, 30 (4) 30, 20
which of the following gives the correct relationships Answer (1)
for the values of G° and Keq?
Sol. For XY2,
(1) G° > 0; Keq < 1 (2) G° > 0; Keq > 1
Q 0.1 mole XY2  10 g
(3) G° < 0; Keq > 1 (4) G° < 0; Keq < 1
 1 mole XY2  100 g
Answer (1) and X + 2Y = 100 …(i)

o For X3Y2,
Sol. Q Ecell  – ve
Q 0.05 mole X3Y2  9 g
 G° = +ve & Keq = –ve
 1 mole X3Y2  180 g
i.e., G° > 0 & Keq < 1 and 3X + 2Y = 180 …(ii)
57. Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal On solving,
solution?
X = 40
(1) Hmix = 0 and Y = 30
(2) Umix = 0 60. The number of electrons delivered at the cathode
during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in
(3) P = Pobs – Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0
60 seconds is (charge on electron = 1.60 × 10–19 C)
(4) Gmix = 0
(1) 6 × 1023 (2) 6 × 1020
Answer (4) (3) 3.75 × 1020 (4) 7.48 × 1023
Sol. Gmix for ideal solution is positive. Answer (3)

12
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Sol. Q = I  t 65. The hybridizations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in

= 1 A  60 s NO2 , NO3 and NH4 respectively are
= 60 C
(1) sp, sp3 and sp2
60 (2) sp2, sp3 and sp
 No. of electrons = 19
1.602  10 (3) sp, sp2 and sp3
= 3.75  1020 (4) sp2, sp and sp3
61. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule Answer (3)
(1) Contains replaceable H+ ion
O (–)
(2) Gives up a proton
 +1 
Sol. O = N = O 
(+)
;


–1 N ;
(3) Accepts OH– from water releasing proton O –1
O



sp +1

 

 
(4) Combines with proton from water molecule
sp2
Answer (3)
(+)
Sol. Boric acid is an acid because its molecule accepts H
OH(–) from water releasing proton. N
B(OH)3 + H2O  [B(OH)4](–)(aq) + H(+)(aq) H H
H
62. AIF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is sp3
due to the formation of
66. Which of the following fluoro-compounds is most
(1) K3[AIF3H3] (2) K3[AIF6] likely to behave as a Lewis base?
(3) AIH3 (4) K[AIF3H]
(1) BF3 (2) PF3
Answer (2)
(3) CF4 (4) SiF4
Sol. Fact.
Answer (2)
63. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanized iron
but the reverse is not possible. It is because Sol. In PF3, P has a lone pair of electrons.

(1) Zinc is lighter than iron 67. Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic
and isostructural?
(2) Zinc has lower melting point than iron
(3) Zinc has lower negative electrode potential than (1) CO32 , NO3 (2) CIO3 , CO32
iron
(3) SO32 , NO3 (4) CIO3 , SO32
(4) Zinc has higher negative electrode potential than
iron Answer (1 & 4)

Answer (4) Sol. Option (1) :

 O 2(–) –1
Sol. E Zn2(  ) /Zn  0.76 V O
C ; N
 O O
 O +1 O

 

 

 

 

EFe 2(  )
/Fe
 0.44 V
–1 –1 –1 –1
64. The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as
Both have 32 electrons with trigonal planar structure.
(1) Limewater
Option (4) :
(2) Quicklime
– 2(–)
(3) Milk of lime
;
(4) Aqueous solution of slaked lime O Cl (–) O S
(–)
O
 

 

O O O




Answer (3) (–)





Sol. Fact. Both have 42 electrons with pyramidal structure.

13
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

68. In context with beryllium, which one of the following 72. Among the following, which one is a wrong
statements is incorrect? statement?
(1) It is rendered passive by nitric acid (1) PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist
(2) It forms Be2C (2) p-d bonds are present in SO2
(3) Its salts rarely hydrolyze (3) SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
(4) Its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric (4) I3 has bent geometry
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Salts of beryllium is readily hydrolysed due to
presence of vacant p-orbital. Sol. Shape of SeF4 would be see saw whereas that of
CH4 would be tetrahedral.
69. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately
73. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the folllowing
following species is
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour?
(1) NH3  CN  Br   C6H5
(1) Cu + 2H2SO4  CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
(2) 3S + 2H2SO4  3SO2 + 2H2O (2) CN  C6H5  Br   NH3

(3) C + 2H2SO4  CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O (3) Br   CN  NH3  C6H5

(4) CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF   
(4) CN  Br  C6H5  NH3
Answer (4) Answer (2)
Sol. CaF2 + H2SO4  CaSO4 + 2HF Sol. Fact.
In this reaction there is no change in oxidation state 74. Which one of the following statements related to
of any atom. lanthanons is incorrect?
70. Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have (1) Europium shows +2 oxidation state
electron density along the axes? (2) The basicity decreases as the ionic radius
decreases from Pr to Lu
(1) d z2 , d xz (2) dxz, dyz
(3) All the lanthanons are much more reactive than
aluminium
(3) d z2 , d x 2  y 2 (4) d xy , d x 2  y 2
(4) Ce(+4) solutions are widely used as oxidizing
Answer (3) agent in volumetric analysis
Answer (3)
Sol. z y
Sol. Fact.
75. Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin
complexes of
x (1) d 7 (2) d 8
(3) d 4 (4) d 9
Answer (2)
dz 2 dx 2 – y 2 Sol. Fact.
76. Which of the following can be used as the halide
71. The correct geometry and hybridization for XeF4 are
component for Friedel Crafts reaction?
(1) Octahedral, sp3d2 (1) Chlorobenzene (2) Bromobenzene
(2) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d (3) Chloroethene (4) Isopropyl chloride
(3) Planar triangle, sp3d3 Answer (4)
(4) Square planar, sp3d2 Sol. Isopropyl chloride would form stable carbocation
Answer (1) 
H3C — C — CH3
Sol. XeF4, has octahedral geometry where hybridisation of
Xe is sp3d2. H

14
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

77. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are 79. In pyrrole
coplanar?
4 3
5 2
(1) (2) N1
H

the electron density is maximum on

(1) 2 and 3
(2) 3 and 4
CH3 CN
(3) C C (4) (3) 2 and 4
CH3 CN
(4) 2 and 5
Answer (1) Answer (4)
Sol. Biphenyl is a planar system, where all the carbon Sol. At 2 and 5 negative charge is more stable.
atoms and H-atoms are in same plane.
80. Which of the following compounds shall not produce
78. Which one of the following structures represents propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination
nylon 6,6 polymer? or direct only elimination reaction?

H2
H2 H2 (1) H2C CH2 (2) H3C C CH2OH
C H C H
(1) C C C
NH2 CH3 H2
66
H2
(3) H 2C C O (4) H3C C CH2Br
H2 H2
C H C H Answer (3)
(2) C C
NH2 CH2 Sol. H 2C C O , has only two carbon atom, cannot
66
be converted into propene as the conditions are
H2 H2 given.
C H C H
H2 H2 C C 81. Which one of the following nitro-compounds does
C H C H 6 not react with nitrous acid?
(3) C C CH3 COOH
NH2 Cl 6 H2 H2
H3C C H3C C
O (1) C NO2 (2) CH NO2
H2 H ( CH ) NH H2 H3C
(4) C( C N 2 6

C 2 C
H2
O CH3
n
H3C
Answer (4) (3) H3C C NO2 (4) H3C C
H NO2
Sol. Nylon-6,6 is the co-polymer of adipic acid and H3C
O
hexamethylene diamine.
Answer (3)
O O H H
|| || | | CH3
nHO – C –(CH2 )4 – C– OH  nH – N –(CH2 )6 N H
Sol. H3C C NO2
CH3
O O H H

C ( CH2)4 C N (CH2)6 N + 2nH2O No acidic H-atom on the carbon atom having

n NO2-group.

15
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

82. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that

the genetic information flows from
(1) Amino acids  Proteins  DNA (3)
(2) DNA  Carbohydrates  Proteins
(3) DNA  RNA  Proteins
(4) DNA  RNA  Carbohydrates
Answer (3)
Sol. Fact. (4)

83. The correct corresponding order of names of four

aldoses with configuration given below

Answer (3)
CHO CHO
H OH HO H

H OH H OH HF
Sol. –H
CH2OH CH2OH

CHO CHO
HO H H OH 85. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A
HO H HO H reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an
CH2OH CH2OH unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol,
forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the
molecular formula C 12 H10 N2O. The structure of
respectively, is compound A is
(1) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose NH2
(2) D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose (1)
(3) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
NO2
(4) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose (2)
Answer (4)
CN
Sol. Fact.
(3)
84. In the given reaction
CONH2
HF (4)
+ 0°C P

Answer (2)
the product P is
NO2 NH2
Sn/HCl HNO2
Sol.
F
(1) OH

N2Cl

F
(2)
N=N OH

16
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

86. Consider the reaction 88. Which among the given molecules can exhibit
tautomerism?
CH3CH2CH2Br + NaCN  CH3CH2CH2CN + NaBr
O O
This reaction will be the fastest in
O
Ph
(1) Ethanol Ph
I II III
(2) Methanol
(1) III only
(3) N, N-dimethylformamide (DMF)
(2) Both I and III
(4) Water
(3) Both I and II
Answer (3)
Sol. Q The reaction is S N2, most suitable solvent (4) Both II and III
should be polar aprotic i.e., DMF.
Answer (1)
87. The correct structure of the product A formed in the
Sol. Bridge-head carbocation is unstable, therefore,
reaction
O
O tautomerism will be shown only by and the

H2(gas, 1 atmosphere)
A OH
Pd/carbon, ethanol
enolic form would be .

is
89. The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids
OH
COOH COOH COOH

(1) O
O
I II III

O is

(2) (1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I

(3) III > II > I (4) II > I > III

Answer (2)
OH
Sol. On the basis of –I effect, the correct acidic strength
(3) would be

COOH COOH COOH

OH > >
O
O
II III I
(4)
90. The compound that will react most readily with
gaseous bromine has the formula
Answer (2)
(1) C3H6 (2) C2H2
O O (3) C4H10 (4) C2H4
H2(gas, 1 atm.)
Answer (1)
Sol. Pd/carbon, ethanol
Sol. In gas phase allylic substitution takes place.
17
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)
91. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? 96. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) They are eukaryotic (1) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
the immediate environment
(2) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(2) Algin is obtained from red algae, and
(3) They are heterotrophic
carrageenan from brown algae
(4) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(3) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and
Answer (2) Gracilaria
Sol. Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin and (4) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
polysaccharides. Answer (2)
92. Methanogens belong to Sol. Algin is obtained from brown algae, and carrageenin
(1) Eubacteria from red algae.
(2) Archaebacteria 97. The term 'polyadelphous' is related to
(3) Dinoflagellates (1) Gynoecium (2) Androecium
(4) Slime moulds (3) Corolla (4) Calyx

Answer (2) Answer (2)

Sol. The stamens may be united into one bundle
Sol. Methanogens, halophiles and thermoacidophiles are
(monoadelphous), or two bundles (diadelphous) or
archaebacteria.
into more than two bundles (polyadelphous).
93. Select the wrong statement.
98. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania,
(1) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish,
(2) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths
of diatoms in their flowers?
(3) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans (1) Three (2) Four
(4) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in (3) Five (4) Six
water Answer (2)
Answer (1) Sol. Brassicaceae, A2+4 Mustard, Radish, Turnip
Sol. The cell walls of diatoms are embedded with silica Lamiaceae, A2+2 Salvia
and thus the walls are indestructible. 99. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
94. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry (1) Brassica (2) Trifolium
information on (3) Pisum (4) Cassia
(1) Date of collection Answer (1)
(2) Name of collector Sol. Radial or actinomorphic symmetry is found in flowers
(3) Local names like mustard, Datura, Chilli.
(4) Height of the plant 100. Free-central placentation is found in
Answer (4) (1) Dianthus (2) Argemone

Sol. The herbarium sheets carry a label providing (3) Brassica (4) Citrus
information about date and place of collection, Answer (1)
english, local and botanical names, family, collector's Sol. Dianthus, Primrose – Free central placentation.
name.
Argemone – Parietal placentation.
95. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme
Citrus – Axile placentation.
environmental conditions because of
101. Cortex is the region found between
(1) Broad hardy leaves
(1) Epidermis and stele
(2) Superficial stomata
(2) Pericycle and endodermis
(3) Thick cuticle
(3) Endodermis and pith
(4) Presence of vessels
(4) Endodermis and vascular bundle
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. In conifers, the needle like leaves, thick cuticle and Sol. Cortex is the region present between epidermis and
sunken stomata help to reduce water loss. stele.
18
 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)
102. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses 108. Which of the following biomolecules is common to
(1) Originate in the lumen of vessels respiration-mediated breakdown of fats,
carbohydrates and proteins?
(2) Characterize the sapwood
(3) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into (1) Glucose-6-phosphate
vessels (2) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
(4) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem (3) Pyruvic acid
vessels
(4) Acetyl CoA
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. Tyloses are balloon - shaped structures in xylem
vessels developed by xylem parenchyma cells. Sol. Acetyl CoA is common to fat, carbohydrate and
103. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is protein catabolism.

(1) Lysozyme (2) Ribozyme 109. A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across
a plant stem by a suitable method. The sap was
(3) Ligase (4) Deoxyribonuclease
tested chemically. Which one of the following test
Answer (2) results indicates that it is phloem sap?
Sol. Ribozyme is RNA acting like an enzyme or (1) Acidic (2) Alkaline
biocatalyst.
(3) Low refractive index (4) Absence of sugar
104. Select the mismatch.
Answer (2)
(1) Gas vacuoles – Green bacteria
Sol. Alkaline pH (7.8 – 8.0) is present in phloem sap
(2) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells where as xylem sap is acidic.
(3) Protists – Eukaryotes 110.You are given a tissue with its potential for
(4) Methanogens – Prokaryotes differentiation in an artificial culture. Which of the
Answer (2) following pairs of hormones would you add to the
medium to secure shoots as well as roots?
Sol. Large central vacuole is present in plant cells.
(1) IAA and gibberellin
105. Select the wrong statement
(2) Auxin and cytokinin
(1) Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
(3) Auxin and abscisic acid
(2) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
bacterial cells (4) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
(3) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells Answer (2)
(4) Mycoplasma is a wall-less microorganism Sol. Auxins and cytokinin induce development of root
and shoot in a culture medium (respectively).
Answer (2)
Sol. Pili and fimbriae are surface structures of the 111. Phytochrome is a
bacteria that do not play a role in motility. (1) Flavoprotein (2) Glycoprotein
106. A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes is (3) Lipoprotein (4) Chromoprotein
(1) Lysosome (2) Microsome Answer (4)
(3) Ribosome (4) Mesosome Sol. Photochrome is a blue-green pigment which absorb
Answer (1) red and far red light. It is a coloured protein i.e.
chromoprotein.
Sol. The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be
very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes. 112. Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
107. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in (1) Zn (2) Fe
(1) S phase (2) G1 phase (3) Ca (4) Mn
(3) G2 phase (4) M phase Answer (3)
Answer (1) Sol. Calcium is required by dividing and differentiating
Sol. DNA replication occurs in S-phase of cell cycle. cells.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

113. The process which makes major difference between Sol.  Syncarpous – Pistils fused together.
C3 and C4 plants is  Gametogenesis – Formation of gamete.
(1) Glycolysis (2) Calvin cycle
 Dikaryotic hyphae – Hyphae of ascomycetes
(3) Photorespiration (4) Respiration
 Pistillate flower – Unisexual female flower.
Answer (3)
117. In majority of angiosperms
Sol. Photorespiration is present in C3 plants but absent
in C4 plants. (1) Egg has a filiform apparatus
114. Which one of the following statements is not (2) There are numerous antipodal cells
correct? (3) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore
(1) Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction mother cells
are called clone (4) A small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(2) Microscopic, motile asexual reproductive
Answer (3)
structures are called zoospores
Sol. Megaspore Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to
(3) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise
form megaspore.
from the internodes present in the modified stem
(4) Water hyacinth, growing in the standing water, 118. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought
drains oxygen from water that leads to the death about by the agency of
of fishes (1) Water (2) Insects or wind
Answer (3) (3) Birds (4) Bats
Sol. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from Answer (2)
the nodes present on modified stem.
Sol. Water hyacinth and water lily are aquatic plants
115. Which one of the following generates new genetic pollinated by insect or wind.
combinations leading to variation?
119. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent
(1) Vegetative reproduction
to
(2) Parthenogenesis
(1) Megasporangium
(3) Sexual reproduction
(2) Megasporophyll
(4) Nucellar polyembryony
(3) Megaspore mother cell
Answer (3)
(4) Megaspore
Sol. Sexual reproduction generates new genetic
recombination leading to variations. Answer (1)
116. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the Sol. Integumented and stalked megasporangium is called
correct option using the codes given below ovule.
Column-I Column-II 120. Taylor conducted the experiments to prove
a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
b. Formation of gametes(ii) Pistillate on
c. Hyphae of higher (iii) Syncarpous (1) Vinca rosea
Ascomycetes (2) Vicia faba
d. Unisexual female (iv) Dikaryotic (3) Drosophila melanogaster
flower (4) E. coli
Codes : Answer (2)
a b c d Sol. Semiconservative mode of chromosome replication
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) was proved by Taylor in Vicia faba.
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 121. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) one linkage group to another is called
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) Inversion (2) Duplication
Answer (4) (3) Translocation (4) Crossing-over

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (3) 126. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a
Sol. Translocation is a phenomenon of transfer of a gene
recombinant plasmid using
segment between non-homologus chromosome, i.e.,
different linkage group. (1) Eco RI (2) Taq polymerase
122. The equivalent of a structural gene is (3) Polymerase III (4) Ligase
(1) Muton (2) Cistron Answer (4)

(3) Operon (4) Recon Sol. In DNA recombinant technology, linking of foreign
DNA and plasmid is made possible by DNA ligase
Answer (2) which is also called "molecular glue".
Sol. Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a 127. Which of the following is not a component of
polypeptide. downstream processing?
Eukaryotic structural gene is monocistronic whereas (1) Separation
prokaryotic structural gene is polycistronic.
(2) Purification
123. A true breeding plant is
(3) Preservation
(1) One that is able to breed on its own
(4) Expression
(2) Produced due to cross-pollination among
Answer (4)
unrelated plants
Sol. After the completion of biosynthetic pathway,
(3) Near homozygous and produces offspring of its downstreaming processing includes all the steps
own kind involved in isolation, purification and preservation of
(4) Always homozygous recessive in its genetic products. All the steps before the completion of
constitution pathway are included in upstreaming processing i.e.,
expression of genetic material.
Answer (3)
128. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces
Sol. True breeding line is one that, having undergone
blunt ends?
continuous self pollination, shows the stable trait
inheritance and expression for several generations. It (1) Sal I (2) Eco RV
is both homozygous recessive as well as dominant (3) Xho I (4) Hind III
in genetic constitution.
Answer (2)
124. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA
Sol. Eco RV cuts the DNA in the centre of restriction
as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
sites forming blunt ends.
(1) 5 S rRNA (2) 18 S rRNA
The pallindromic sequence for Eco RV is
(3) 23 S rRNA (4) 5.8 S rRNA
5 3
Answer (3) G AT AT C
Sol. 23S rRNA is a component of larger subunit of C T AT A G
ribosome and it act as peptidyl transferase 3 5
(ribozyme).
129. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-
125. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)
(1) Purification of product deficiency?

(2) Addition of preservatives to the product (1) Gene therapy

(3) Availability of oxygen throughout the process (2) Chemotherapy

(4) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture (3) Immunotherapy

vessel (4) Radiation therapy
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. Stirred-tank bioreactor is provided with stirrer for Sol. Gene therapy was given in 1990 to a four year old
availability of oxygen throughout the process. girl child with ADA deficiency.

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

130. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have Answer (3)
been identified till date by Norman Myers? Sol. Parthenium hysterophorus is an exotic or alien
(1) 17 (2) 25 species which causes extinction of native (or)
(3) 34 (4) 43 indegenous species.

Answer (3) 135. Red list contains data or information on

Sol. Today the number of hotspots identified by ecologists (1) All economically important plants
is 34 covering an area less than 2% of land surface (2) Plants whose products are in international trade
with about 20% of human population living there.
(3) Threatened species
131. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal
vent ecosystem are (4) Marine vertebrates only

(1) Green algae Answer (3)

(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Blue-green algae
(4) Coral reefs
Answer (2)
Sol. The primary producers of the deep sea hydrothermal
vent ecosystem are Archaebacteria, they have
chemosynthetic mode of nutrition.
132. Which of the following is correct for r-selected
species?
(1) Large number of progeny with small size
(2) Large number of progeny with large size
(3) Small number of progeny with small size
(4) Small number of progeny with large size
Answer (1)
Sol. IUCN [International Union Conservation of Nature and
Natural Resources] (or) WCU [World Conservation
Union] maintains red list which is a catalogue for
threatened species.
136. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused
by bacteria?
(1) Cholera and tetanus (2) Typhoid and smallpox
(3) Tetanus and mumps (4) Herpes and influenza
Answer (1)
Sol. Cholera is caused by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae
and tetanus is caused by a bacterium Clostridium
tetani.
137. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly
classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below:

Sol. r-selected species  species whose population Column-I Column-II

growth is function of biotic potential (r). They have a. Family (i) Diptera
large number of progeny with small size.
b. Order (ii) Arthropoda
133. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '–' sign
c. Class (iii) Muscidae
to detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then
the population interaction represented by '+' '–' refers d. Phylum (iv) Insecta
to Codes:
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism a b c d
(3) Commensalism (4) Parasitism (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer (4)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Sol. Parasitism Parasite is benefitted (+) but host is
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
harmed (–) so it is a (+, –) type of population
interaction. (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
134. Which of the following is correctly matched? Answer (1)
(1) Aerenchyma – Opuntia Sol. Housefly belongs to
(2) Age pyramid – Biome (i) Phylum - Arthropoda
(3) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to (ii) Class - Insecta
biodiversity
(iii) Order - Diptera
(4) Stratification – Population
(iv) Family - Muscidae

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

138. Choose the correct statement. 142. Oxidative phosphorylation is

(1) All mammals are viviparous
(2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired
fins.
(3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
(4) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
Answer (2)
(1) Formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group
from a substrate to ADP
(2) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(3) Addition of phosphate group to ATP
(4) Formation of ATP by energy released from
electrons removed during substrate oxidation

Sol. Cyclostomes belong to the division agnatha. They are
jawless vertebrates without paired fins.
139. Study the four statements (A–D) given below and
select the two correct ones out of them:
A. Definition of biological species was given by
Ernst Mayr.
Answer (4)
Sol. Oxidative phosphorylation uses energy of oxidation-
reduction of substrate to generate ATP.
143. Which of the following is the least likely to be
involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of
most proteins?

B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in (1) Hydrogen bonds

plants. (2) Electrostatic interaction
C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by (3) Hydrophobic interaction
R.H. Whittaker. (4) Ester bonds
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is Answer (4)
synonymous with growth.
Sol. Ester bond is formed between sugar and phosphate
The two correct statements are in a nucleotide.
(1) B and C (2) C and D 144. Which of the following describes the given graph
(3) A and D (4) A and B correctly?
Answer (3)
Sol. Photoperiod affect reproduction in plants.
Bionomial nomenclature system was given by B
Potential Energy

Carolus Linnaeus
140. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which A
part of the reproductive system?
Substrate
(1) Seminal vesicles
(2) Mushroom glands Product
(3) Testes Reaction
(4) Vas deferens (1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
Answer (1)
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence
Sol. In male cockroach, sperms are stored in seminal
of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
vesicle.
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence
141. Smooth muscles are
of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(1) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of
(2) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated Answer (2)
(4) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate Sol. Potential energy of substrate is more than the
Answer (1) product. So it is an exothermic reaction. 'A'
represents the activation energy in the presence of
Sol. Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform, nonstriated
muscles. enzyme while 'B' in the absence of enzyme i.e.,
enzyme lowers down the activation energy.
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

145. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which Sol. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli of lungs is
checkpoint should be predominantly activated? 104 mm of Hg that is more than that of blood in
(1) G1 / S (2) G2 / M pulmonary artery (40 mm of Hg).

(3) M (4) Both G2 / M and M 149. Choose the correct statements.

Answer (1) (1) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

Sol. G1 / S check point of cell cycle is a major check point. (2) Meissner's corpuscles are thermoreceptors

146. Match the stages of meiosis of Column-I to their (3) Photoreceptors in the human eye are
characteristic features in Column-II and select the depolarised during darkness and become
correct option using the codes given below: hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus
Column-I Column-II (4) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous Answer (3)
chromosomes Sol. Photoreceptors (Rod cells) in human eye are
b. Metaphase I (ii) Terminalization of depolarised during darkness and become
chiasmata hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus.
c. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place 150. Graves' disease is caused due to
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at (1) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland
equatorial plate
(2) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
Codes
(3) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
a b c d
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (4) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland

(2) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) Answer (2)

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Sol. Grave's disease is due to the hypersecretion of
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) thyroid gland.

Answer (1) 151. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active
sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during
Sol. Pachytene - Stage of crossing over muscle contraction.
Metaphase-I - Chromosome align at equatorial plate (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
Diakinesis - Terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Sodium (4) Potassium
Zygotene - Pairing of homologous chromosome
Answer (1)
147. Which hormones do stimulate the production of
Sol. Calcium ions bind with TpC unit of troponin which is
pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin
(1) Angiotensin and epinephrine for crossbridge activity during muscles contraction.
(2) Gastrin and insulin 152. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number
(3) Cholecystokinin and secretin can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss
of blood from the body.
(4) Insulin and glucagon
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes
Answer (3)
(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes
Sol. Cholecystokinin and secretin both hormones
increase the secretion of pancreatic juice. Answer (4)
148. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the Sol. Deduction in thrombocytes (platelets) can cause
lungs is clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood
from the body.
(1) Equal to that in the blood
153. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on
(2) More than that in the blood
hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular
(3) Less than that in the blood glucose uptake and utilization.
(4) Less than that of carbon dioxide (1) Insulin (2) Glucagon
Answer (2) (3) Secretin (4) Gastrin
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (1) Answer (2)

Sol. Insulin is a peptide hormone which acts mainly on Sol. Posterior pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland
hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular because it only stores and releases hormones.
glucose uptake and utilisation so it decreases the 158. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of
blood glucose level. sodium is
154. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal (1) Distal convoluted tubule
system, may occur due to (2) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular (3) Bowman's capsule
junction leading to fatigue
(4) Descending limb of Henle's loop
(2) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+ Answer (2)
(3) Decreased level of estrogen Sol. Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in active
(4) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation reabsorption of sodium.
of joints 159. Which of the following is hormone releasing IUD?
Answer (3) (1) LNG-20 (2) Multiload-375
Sol. Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due (3) Lippes loop (4) Cu7
to decreased level of estrogen. Answer (1)
155. Serum differs from blood in Sol. LNG-20 (Levonorgestrel) is a hormone releasing
(1) Lacking globulins IUDs.

(2) Lacking albumins 160. Which of the following is incorrect regarding

vasectomy?
(3) Lacking clotting factors
(1) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
(4) Lacking antibodies
(2) No sperm occurs in epididymis
Answer (3) (3) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
Sol. Serum is plasma without clotting factors. It never (4) Irreversible sterility
clot.
Answer (2)
156. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some Sol. In vasectomy, sperms occur in epididymis. In this,
air always remains in the lungs which can never be vas deferens are cut so sperms are not present in
expelled because semen.
(1) There is a negative pressure in the lungs 161. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
(2) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling to in-vitro fertilization is transferred into
at the lung walls (1) Uterus (2) Fallopian tube
(3) There is a positive intrapleural pressure (3) Fimbriae (4) Cervix
(4) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the Answer (1)
atmospheric pressure Sol. In intrauterine transfer (IUT), embryo more than 8
Answer (2) blastomeres formed due to in-vitro fertilization is
transferred in uterus.
Sol. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some
air always remains in the lung which can never be 162. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway
expelled because there is a negative intrapleural of transport of sperms?
pressure pulling at the lung walls. (1) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis
157. The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine  Vas deferens
gland because (2) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules
 Vas deferens
(1) It is provided with a duct
(3) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules
(2) It only stores and releases hormones
 Epididymis
(3) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(4) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens
(4) It secretes enzymes  Epididymis
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

Answer (1) XCY × XX

(Colour-blind (Normal vision
Sol. Pathway of transport of sperms in human male is man) woman)

Rete testis  Efferent ductules (Vasa efferentia)  Progeny XC Y

Epididymis  Vas deferens. C
X XX XY
163. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the XX
C
XY
X
correct option using the codes given below:
Column-I Column-II 100% - carrier daughters (Phenotypically normal)

a. Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation 100% - Normal son

b. Antrum (ii) Sperm 166. Genetic drift operates in

c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia (1) Small isolated population

d. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle (2) Large isolated population
Codes: (3) Non-reproductive population
a b c d (4) Slow reproductive population
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Answer (1)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Sol. Genetic drift operates in small isolated inbreeding
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) population.

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 167. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
heterozygous individual is represented by
Answer (2)
(1) p2
Sol. Correct matching is:
(2) 2pq
(a) Mons pubis - Female external genitalia
(b) Antrum - Graafian follicle (3) pq

(c) Trophoectoderm - Embryo formation (4) q2

(d) Nebenkern - Sperm Answer (2)

164. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, Sol. In Hardy Weinberg equation,
progesterone are produced by p2 = Homozygous dominant individuals
(1) Ovary 2pq = Heterozygous individuals
(2) Placenta q2 = Homozygous recessive individuals
(3) Fallopian tube
168. The chronological order of human evolution from
(4) Pituitary early to the recent is
Answer (2) (1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus 
Sol. Hormones secreted by placenta are hCG, hPL, Homo habilis  Homo erectus
estrogen and progesterone. (2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 
165. If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is Homo habilis  Homo erectus
homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability (3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis 
of their son being colour-blind is Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(1) 0 (4) Australopithecus  Homo habilis 
(2) 0.5 Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
(3) 0.75 Answer (2)
(4) 1 Sol. The chronological order of human evolution from
Answer (1) early to the recent is

Sol. Colourblindness is X-linked recessive disease and Ramapithecus  Australopithecus 

shows criss-cross inheritance. Homo habilis  Homo erectus

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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)

169. Which of the following is the correct sequence of Answer (2)

events in the origin of life? Sol. Interspecific hybridization is mating of animals of two
(i) Formation of protobionts different related species.
(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers 173. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS
causative agent HIV?
(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule
(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) reverse transcriptase
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
molecules of reverse transcriptase
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
Answer (3) (4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired
Sol. Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is immune response
Synthesis of organic monomers Answer (2)

Sol. Causative agent of AIDS is HIV which is enveloped
Synthesis of organic polymers virus that contains two identical molecules of ssRNA
 and two molecules of reverse transcriptase.
Formation of protobionts
 174. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a
marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty
Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
acids?
170. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
fulfill the traits given below, except (1) Mystus (2) Mangur

(1) It should be able to express itself in the form of (3) Mrigala (4) Mackerel
'Mendelian characters' Answer (4)
(2) It should be able to generate its replica Sol. Mackerel is a marine fish having rich source of
(3) It should be unstable structurally and chemically omega-3 fatty acids.
(4) It should provide the scope for slow changes 175. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
that are required for evolution correct option using the codes given below :
Answer (3) Column-I Column-II
Sol. A molecule which is unstable structurally and a. Citric acid (i) Trichoderma
chemically cannot act as a genetic material. b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
171. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes
c. Statins (iii) Aspergillus
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is
called the d. Butyric acid (iv) Monascus
(1) Template strand (2) Coding strand Codes :
(3) Alpha strand (4) Antistrand a b c d
Answer (1) (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Sol. The DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyze the (2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
polymerisation in only one direction that is 5 3,
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
the strand with polarity 5 3 act as template and
is called as template strand. (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
172. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of Answer (2)
(1) Animals within same breed without having Sol. Microbe Product
common ancestors
Aspergillus niger - Citric acid
(2) Two different related species
Trichoderma polysporum - Cyclosporin-A
(3) Superior males and females of different breeds
Monascus purpureus - Statins
(4) More closely related individuals within same
breed for 4–6 generations Clostridium butylicum - Butyric acid
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 NEET (UG) Phase-II_2016 (Code-AA)
176. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a 179. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in
good index for pollution for water bodies receiving
(1) Increased population of aquatic organisms due to
effluents from
minerals
(1) Domestic sewage (2) Dairy industry
(2) Drying of the lake due to algal bloom
(3) Petroleum industry (4) Sugar industry
(3) Increased population of fish due to lots of
Answer (3) nutrients
Sol. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is not a good (4) Mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents
from petroleum industry as the generated waste is Answer (4)
mostly non-biodegradable in nature. Sol. Micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic
177. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by matter consume oxygen as a result there is a sharp
decline in oxygen causing mortality of fish and other
(1) C. Darwin (2) G. F. Gause
aquatic creatures.
(3) MacArthur (4) Verhulst and Pearl
180. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain
Answer (2) shall occur in
Sol. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by (1) Phytoplankton
G. F. Gause.
(2) Seagull
178. Which of the following National Parks is home to the
famous musk deer or hangul? (3) Crab
(1) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur (4) Eel
(2) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh Answer (2)
(3) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh Sol. Maximum DDT concentration occurs in fish eating
(4) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir birds like seagull due to biomagnification. This
happens because a toxic substance accumulated by
Answer (4)
an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted,
Sol. Conservation of Musk deer or Hangul. thus passed to higher trophic level.

  

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