Mark Scheme Summer 2008

GCE

GCE SNAB Biology (8048/9048)

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Summer 2008
Publications Code UA019993
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 Contents

General Introduction iii

General Information iv

Mark Schemes

Unit SN1 6131 Lifestyle, Transport, Genes and Health 1

Unit SN2 6132 Development, Plants and the Environment 11

Unit SN3 6133 paper 02 Report and Practical Review 23

Unit SN4 6134 Environment and Survival 26

Unit SN5 6135 paper 01 Energy, Exercise and Coordination; Coursework 34

written paper Investigation

Unit SN6 6136 Synoptic paper 41

ii
GENERAL INTRODUCTION

Mark schemes are prepared by the Principal Examiners and revised, together with the relevant
questions, by a panel of senior examiners and subject teachers. The schemes are further
amended at the Standardisation meetings attended by all examiners. The Standardisation
meeting ensures as far as possible that the mark scheme covers the candidates' actual
responses to questions and that every examiner understands and applies it in the same way.

The schemes in this document are the final mark schemes used by the examiners in this
examination and include the amendments made at the meeting. They do not include any
details of the discussions that took place in the meeting, nor do they include all of the possible
alternative answers or equivalent statements that were considered to be worthy of credit.

It is emphasised that these mark schemes are working documents that apply to these papers in
this examination. Every effort is made to ensure a consistent approach to marking from one
examination to another but each marking point has to be judged in the context of the
candidates' responses and in relation to the other questions in the paper. It should not be
assumed that future mark schemes will adopt exactly the same marking points as this one.

Edexcel cannot under any circumstances discuss or comment informally on the marking of
individual scripts. Any enquiries about the marks awarded to individual candidates can be
dealt with only through the official Enquiry about Results procedure.

Unit Codes and Unit Titles

This Mark Scheme covers the unit offered in this examination for Advanced Subsidiary Biology
(Salters-Nuffield) (Pilot) 6131. The units available for the complete qualifications, Advanced
Subsidiary and Advanced, are listed in the table below.

Level Unit Code Unit Title

AS
1 6131 Lifestyle, Transport, Genes and Health

2 6132 Development, Plants and the Environment

3 6133 Report and Practical Review

A2
4 6134 Environment and Survival

5 6135 Energy, Exercise and Coordination; Coursework Investigation

6 6136 Synoptic Paper

iii
GENERAL INFORMATION

The following symbols are used in the mark schemes for all questions:

Symbol Meaning of symbol

; semi colon Indicates the end of a marking point
Indicates that credit should be given for other correct
eq alternatives to a word or statement, as discussed in the
Standardisation meeting
Words or phrases separated by an oblique are alternatives
/ oblique
to each other
Indicate the beginning and end of a list of alternatives
{} curly brackets (separated by obliques) where necessary to avoid
confusion
Words inside round brackets are to aid understanding of
() round brackets
the marking point but are not required to award the point
Words inside square brackets are instructions or guidance
[] square brackets
for examiners

Crossed out work

If a candidate has crossed out an answer and written new text, the crossed out work can be
ignored. If the candidate has crossed out work but written no new text, the crossed out work for
that question or part question should be marked, as far as it is possible to do so.

Spelling and clarity

In general, an error made in an early part of a question is penalised when it occurs but not
subsequently. The candidate is penalised once only and can gain credit in later parts of the
question by correct reasoning from the earlier incorrect answer.

No marks are awarded specifically for quality of language in the written papers, except for the
essays in the synoptic paper. Use of English is however taken into account as follows:

• the spelling of technical terms must be sufficiently correct for the answer to be unambiguous
e.g. for amylase, ‘ammalase’ is acceptable whereas ‘amylose’ is not
e.g. for glycogen, ‘glicojen’ is acceptable whereas ‘glucagen’ is not
e.g. for ileum, ‘illeum’ is acceptable whereas ‘ilium’ is not
e.g. for mitosis, ‘mytosis’ is acceptable whereas ‘meitosis’ is not

• candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark.

• a correct statement that is contradicted by an incorrect statement in the same part of an

answer gains no mark – irrelevant material should be ignored.

iv
 Unit SN1 (6131/01) Lifestyle, Transport, Genes and Health

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(a) right-hand 1st box down ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(b) 1. (skeletal) muscle contracts / eq ;

2. squeezes vein / named vein ;

3. blood forced in both directions (away from squeezed

area) / eq ;

4. (one way) valves present (in veins) ;

5. one way flow / prevent backflow / eq ;

6. reference to role of thorax e.g. pressure changes during

inspiration / expiration / breathing ;
max
7. lower pressure in {heart / atria} during {diastole / eq} ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(c) 1. {squamous / pavement / flattened /thin / eq } cell /

endothelium ;

2. (only) one cell thick ;

3. small lumen present /(capillary) small diameter ;

max
4. pores present / gaps present / eq ; (2)

1
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(a)(i) 1. active {transport / uptake} ;

2. facilitated diffusion ;
max
3. endocytosis / pinocytosis / endopinocytosis / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(a)(ii) translation ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b)(i) 299 ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2( b)(ii) 906 ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(c) 1. {ATP / ADP / Pi / (inorganic) phosphate} ;

2. mRNA ;

3. tRNA ;
max
4. rRNA ; (2)

2
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(a)
Drink Time taken Caffeine
for 180 heart concentration /
beats / mg per 100ml
seconds

Instant coffee 33 to 34 ;

Filter coffee 58 to 60 ;

Tea 30 ;
(3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(b) no {difference / effect} due to :

1. genotype / eq ;

2. age ;

3. size / eq ;

4. gender /eq ;

5. physiological state / eq ;

6. pre-treatment / eq ;
max
7. absorption rate /eq ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(c) 1. variation due to chance / eq ;

2. still some caffeine present within the organism / still

some caffeine present on the surface ;

3. idea of time to recover from effect of caffeine ;

max
4. inaccuracy of measurements / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3
4(a)(i)
CH2OH CH2OH
O OH O
HO H H
H H
H OH H H OH OH H OH

H OH H OH
galactose ; glucose ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(a)(ii) 1. breaking of (glycosidic) bond / eq ;

2. {addition of / using} water / eq ;

3. breaking larger molecule(s) into smaller molecules /

named example other than lactose to glucose and
galactose OR disaccharide being broken into two
monosaccharides ;
max
4. reference to {hydrolytic / named} enzyme ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(b)(i) 1. Parents’ genotypes : Gg / gG for both parents

and
parents’ gametes: G g for both parents ;

2. Possible genotypes
of second child: GG Gg Gg gg ;

3. Probability of not
having the condition: 0.75 / 75% / ¾ ; (3)

4
Question Answer Mark
Number

4(b)(ii) 1. more than one {triplet / codon / eq} may code for same
amino acid ;

2. third base in {triplet / eq} often not important / eq ;

3. at 3rd base {point mutation / base changes / eq} ;

4. amino acid swapped but does not change shape of

protein / eq ;
max
5. (mutation occurs) in intron / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(b)(iii) 1. risk of miscarriage ;

2. risk of harm to {fetus / eq} / eq ;

3. reference to a fetus’ right to life ;

4. should the pregnancy be terminated / eq ;

5. {practical / financial} issues ;

max
6. mental and emotional issues ; (3)

5
Question Answer Mark
Number

5(a) far right-hand box ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(b)(i) 110 / first one / higher one / eq ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(b)(ii) 1. high salt {intake / in diet / eq} ;

2. high (saturated) {fat / cholesterol / LDL / eq} {intake /

in diet / eq} ;

3. high alcohol intake ;

4. smoking ;

5. stress ;

6. hardening of arteries / atherosclerosis / eq ;

7. old age ;

8. inherited trait / eq ;

9. obesity / overweight ;
max
10. lack of exercise / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(c)(i) 100% ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(c)(ii) {twice as / x2 more / 100% more} likely to have heart disease

/ eq ; (1)

6
Question Answer Mark
Number

5(d)(i) thrombus /(blood) clot / cholesterol / atheroma / fat / fatty

deposits / plaque / fibrin ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(d)(ii) 1. allows blood / metabolite / named metabolite /

oxygen ;

2. to reach (cardiac) muscle (tissue / cells) ;

3. (heart) muscle / region beyond block able to work

(more efficiently) ;

4. enables aerobic respiration / eq ;

max
5. removal of {lactic acid / lactate} / eq ; (3)

7
Question Answer Mark
Number

6(a)(i) {phosphate / phosphoric acid } / {deoxyribose / pentose / eq}

(sugar) ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(a)(ii) AA ;
TT ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(a)(iii) thymine ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(b)(i) hydrogen / H (bond) ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(b)(ii) (sample) 4 ; (1)

8
Question Answer Mark
Number

7(a) 1. (ion / Ca2+) {binds / eq} to protein (in membrane) /

{named / channel / carrier} protein ;

2. reference to {specificity / eq} of protein to {ion /

Ca2+} ;

3. protein spans the membrane / eq ;

4. protein changes shape / description of shape change

/ eq ;

5. (ion / Ca2+) moves across from a region of high

concentration to a region of lower concentration /
down a concentration gradient / eq ;
max
6. until both sides are equal / eq ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(b)(i) 1. {linear / rapid / steady / eq} increase for first {3½ / 4}

minutes ;

2. uptake slows after {3½ / 4 / {next 2 / eq}} minutes ;

3. no further {increase / uptake} after {5.5 / 6 minutes} ;

4. credit correct manipulation of the data e.g. uptake is max

1.8 to 2 au min -1 ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(b)(ii) 1. (a 10°C rise) increases the (initial rate of) uptake /

diffusion / eq ;

2. no effect on final concentration / eq ;

3. credit comparative manipulation of the data e.g. max

doubles the (initial) rate ; (2)

9
Question Answer Mark
Number

7(b)(iii) 1. more kinetic energy / moving faster / eq ;

2. therefore more collisions with {membrane / protein /

carrier / eq} ;

3. more ions moving into cell per unit time / eq ;

4. (dynamic) equilibrium will occur (independent of

temperature) / eq ;

5. more {membrane / named} protein altered / eq ;

max
6. more channels open ; (2)

10
 Unit SN2 (6132/01) Development, Plants and the Environment

Question Answer Mark

Number

1 Plant Animal Bacterial

(eukaryotic) (eukaryotic) (prokaryotic)
cell cell cell
Cell wall 9 8 9

Chloroplasts 9 8 8;

Nuclear 9 9 8;
membrane

Cell (unit) 9 9 9;
membrane

Ribosomes 9 9 9;

Centrioles 8 9 8; max
(5)

11
Question Answer Mark
Number

2 1. insulin detaches from ribosomes / rough endoplasmic

reticulum / RER ;

2. (insulin) passes through / inside endoplasmic reticulum

(to golgi body) ;

3. (insulin) passes from endoplasmic reticulum to golgi

body in vesicles ;

4. (insulin) assumes 3-D shape whilst passing through ER ;

5. (insulin) is (further) modified inside golgi body ;

6. (insulin) is enclosed in vesicles budded off / produced

by golgi body ;

7. vesicles fuse / join with cell membrane (releasing

insulin to exterior) ;
max
8. (insulin passes through cell membrane) by exocytosis ; (5)

12
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(a) 1. cellulose has β-, starch has α-glucose ;

2. cellulose has unbranched, starch can have branched

molecules ;

3. cellulose molecules are much longer / several thousand

(glucose) molecules long whilst starch several hundred ;

4. cellulose molecules are straight, starch molecules are

coiled / spiral ;

5. cellulose molecules are only of one type, starch can be

a mixture of two types of molecules / amylose and
amylopectin ;

6. cellulose only has 1 – 4 glycosidic bonds whilst starch max

has 1 – 4 and 1 – 6 glycosidic bonds ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(b) 1. (cellulose) molecules parallel / side by side ;

2. joined by hydrogen bonding ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(c) 1. (cohesion is) the attraction between like molecules /

water molecules (tendency) to stick together / eq ;

2. by hydrogen bonding ;
max
3. appropriate references to polarity of water molecules ; (2)

13
Question Answer Mark
Number

4(a)
1. (so) DNA/skin cells not protected from UV ;

2. so increased chance of mutation ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(b)
1. {DNA damaged / reference to (somatic) mutation} by
UV / other mutagen ;

2. cells divide faster than cell death / apoptosis reduced /

eq ;

3. disruption of mechanisms controlling cell division / cell

cycle / uncontrolled cell division ;

4. correct reference to mutation in tumour suppressor

genes / oncogenes ;

5. reference to tumour as an abnormal / undifferentiated max

mass of cells ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(c)
1. some (cancerous) cells may have broken off / not all
cancerous cells were removed ;

2. travels to other parts of the body in the blood / lymph ;

3. metastasis / secondary tumours ;

max
4. a different tumour may arise independently / eq ; (2)

14
Question Answer Mark
Number

5(a) 1. halves the chromosome number / one of each pair in

gamete / haploid cells ;

2. randomly assorts the chromosomes / genes ;

3. provides genetic variation ;

max
4. the diploid number is maintained (in the zygote) ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(b)
1. acrosome present ;

2. digestive enzymes / eq ;

3. breakdown jelly surrounding ovum / allow head to

reach the ovum membrane ;

4. reference to genetic material passing through ovum max

membrane ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(c)(i) 16 ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(c)(ii) the cells do not {grow / increase in volume} / no new

cytoplasm is produced ; (1)

15
Question Answer Mark
Number

5(c)(iii)
1. chromosomes {shorten / coil} / condenses / become
visible ;

2. (each chromosome becomes visible) as two chromatids ;

3. nuclear membrane / envelope breaks down ;

4. centrioles position themselves at opposite end of the

cell / eq ;

5. spindles formed from microtubules / between {poles /

centrioles}/ eq ;

6. chromosomes on the equator / eq ;

max
7. {attached / eq} by centromeres ; (3)

16
Question Answer Mark
Number

6(a)
1. the rate of hatching {increases with temperature up to
/ peaks at} 28oC ;

2. as the temperature increases above 28oC hatching rate

decreases ;
max
3. reference to optimum temperature ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(b)
1. enzymes have an optimum temperature/ are
temperature sensitive ;

2. increased enzyme activity up to 28 °C ;

3. some enzymes distorted / denatured (above 28 °C) ;

max
4. disrupting metabolic / physiological processes ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(c)
1. (reduced hatching) so reduced population of adults at
temperatures over 28 °C ;

2. at places where the present temperatures are

currently less than 28 °C global warming would increase
populations / hatching rate ;

3. increased population due reduced predation / reduced

population due to increased predation ;

4. increased population due to increased food supply /

decreased population due to reduced food supply ;

5. early hatching means population out of synchronisation max

with food supply causing decrease / eq ; (3)

17
Question Answer Mark
Number

7(a)(i)
1. the deeper the layer the older (the layer)/ eq ;
max
2. use of (radio)carbon dating of the peat; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(a)(ii) alder trees grow well in wet places / eq ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(b) 1. identify the insects ;

2. estimate total insect numbers of each species in each

layer ;

3. find out which species of insect live in warm places

(today) ;

4. reference to increased numbers of such insects in max

upper layers of ( peat) ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(c)(i) 1. (loss of habitat as) cannot migrate/disperse northwards;

2. competition from other plants advancing from the max

south ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

7(c)(ii) 1. will use up stored food / starch / sugar (in respiration)

faster than it can be replaced (by photosynthesis) ;

2. therefore limiting growth/ increase in biomass / eq ;

3. increased CO2 release further increases global max

warming ; (2)

18
Question Answer Mark
Number

8(a) 1. CO2 released (by burning sunflower oil) has only {just /
recently / eq} been absorbed by photosynthesis / eq ;

2. C02 from burning fossil fuel has been out of circulation

for millions of years / eq ;

3. if the sunflower oil were not burnt the CO2 would still
be released by decay/respiration (of organisms which
feed on it) / eq ;

4. (using sunflower oil) carbon neutral/does not make a

net addition to the CO2 concentration of the max
atmosphere ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

8(b)(i) 1.06 – 0.29 = 0.77 ;

0.77 x 100 = 72.6 / 73(%) ;

1.06 (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

8(b)(ii)
(sunflower)
1. down-stream processing costs are lower (than for sugar
beet) less energy is needed to turn it into usable fuel ;

2. despite the fact that the yield (of raw sunflower plants
per hectare) is much less ;

3. use of figures e.g. the energy needed for down-stream

processing is less than one tenth of that needed for max
sugar beet ; (2)

19
Question Answer Mark
Number

8(b)(iii) 1. not enough available farmland ;

2. farmland also needed to produce other crops such as

food ;
max
(2)
3. unsuitable climate ;

Question Answer Mark

Number

8(c)(i) 1. improved yield (per hectare) ;

2. plant quality makes down-stream processing {easier /

cheaper / less energy demanding} ;

3. reduced pesticides / fertiliser requirement ;

4. better adapted for climate change ;

max
5. faster growing / easier to harvest ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

8(c)(ii) 1. pollen may carry the GM genes to {crops used to feed

humans / wild plants} ;

2. GM genes may get into crops used to feed humans ;

3. GM genes may have unforeseen effects on wildlife / the

ecosystem / food chains ;

4. the environmental advantages of GM biofuels are not

enough to risk unforeseen consequences of GM ;

5. may contaminate organic crops ; max

(2)

20
Question Answer Mark
Number

9(a)(i) mitosis / cloning ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

9(a)(ii) 1. {not all / different} genes are switched {on / off} /

active / activated ;

2. correct and appropriate reference to factors /

mechanisms for gene switching ;
max
3. e.g. reference to promoters / transcription factors ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

9(a)(iii) 1. if you (suffered an accident / disease / deterioration)

and needed to replace damaged brain cells ;

2. would be genetically the same as the rest of your cells ;

3. able to replace more than one kind of brain cell ;

max
4. goes on generating new cells as required / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

9(b)(i)
1. embryonic cells are easier to work with than adult stem
cells ;

2. embryonic cells are (relatively) undifferentiated

whereas adult stem cells {are/appear to be} less so ;

3. embryonic stem cells are {totipotent / pluripotent /

able to become any kind of cell in the body}, but adult
stem cells are {multipotent / able to become only a
limited number of cell types} ;

4. embryonic stem cells have a wider range of clinical

applications / adult stem cells have a narrower range of max
clinical applications ; (2)

21
Question Answer Mark
Number

9(b)(ii) Against
Credit any three of the points below:
1. embryonic stem cells (are taken from embryos) which
(are to be considered) unborn children / eq ;

2. use of stem cells is thus effectively murder / lack of

respect for embryo as a (potential) human ;

3. a lot of current (embryonic) stem cell treatment is

fraudulent / badly regulated / exploits suffering /
encourages IVF clinics to ‘create’ more ‘spare’
embryos ;

4. if we wait a few years longer we shall have the same

benefits through adult stem cells ;

5. not enough funding for alternatives e.g. adult stem

cells ;

6. an embryo becomes a new human at the moment of

conception / eq ;

The fourth mark: for attempting to balance opposing points of

view whilst thoughtfully coming down on one side e.g.
“Even though it may benefit people this does not justify taking
the life of an unborn child” ;

For
Credit any three of the points below:
1. offers prospect of treatment to many suffering people ;

2. research using alternatives e.g. adult stem cells

progressing more slowly than that with embryonic stem
cells ;

3. if we ban it in the UK it’ll still happen in other

countries ;

4. using spare IVF embryo which would alternatively be

destroyed ;

5. research with embryonic stem cells is needed to

develop use of adult stem cells ;

6. an embryo is not a new human until it is viable / eq ;

The fourth mark: for attempting to balance opposing points of

view whilst thoughtfully coming down on one side e.g.
“Alleviation of suffering in people (who have already been max
born) is (ethically) more important than destroying embryos” ; (4)

22
 Unit SN3 (6133/02) Practical Review

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(a)
1. repetitions as part of validity (specific e.g. needed);

2. precision / accurate with specific example reference to

DV ;

3. apparatus choice with specific example reference to

DV ;

4. variable control with specific example reference to

CV ;

5. error minimising with specific example reference to

DV ;

6. suitable range of IV example ;

max
7. use of control / baseline of example ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(b) three precautions as appropriate in context ;;; (3)

23
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(a)
1. appropriate error described ;
2. systematic / random ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b)
1. basic method for elimination described ;
2. detail; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(c)
1. IV ;
2. DV ;
3. Relevant CV ; (3)

24
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(a)
1. correct presentation method ;
2. trend / pattern identified ;
3. what this means in specific case ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(b)
1. extended range of IV, with example ;
2. more values of IV (around critical points) in original,
with examples to illustrate ;
3. repetition, to measure reliability / degree of error /
error bars / SD / range ;
4. use of more accurate / precise equipment, with
example ;
5. more skilled use of equipment, with example ;
max
6. better / some control of CVs, with example ; (4)

25
 Unit SN4 (6134/01) Environment and Survival

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(a) 1. T helper cells {destroyed / damaged / reduced in

number / cell lysis / eq} ;

2. no T killer cell {production / activation} / eq ;

3. B cells activation / plasma cells production / eq ;

4. (less / no) antibody production / eq ;

max
5. phagocytosis / phagocytes ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(b) 1. (inflammation) – preventing infection at site of tissue

damage / detail of response e.g. macrophages
attracted / oedema / increased blood flow ;

2. phagocytosis ;

3. (lysozyme action – enzyme to) destroy bacteria / cell

lysis / breakdown of cell walls ;

4. interferon ; (4)

26
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(a) 1. male fish have unique DNA ;

2. inherit DNA from male parent /eq ;

3. share DNA fingerprint characteristics /eq ;

4. doesn’t change during life / eq ;

5. reference to microsatellites / restriction enzymes cut max

DNA predictably ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b)(i) 1. 63/68 x 100 ;

OR 42.6 +38.2 + 11.8

2. 92.6 /92.64 / 92.65 / 93 ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b)(ii) 1. all females are more likely to mate with a male from
same population / eq ;

2. population A exclusively mates within the same

population ;

3. populations B and/or C will breed with each other ;

4. reference to limitations in data (e.g. ref to small max

sample size in population C) ; (2)

27
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(c) 1. reference to definition of a species ;

2. all mating within population /eq ;

3. reference to reproductive isolation ;

4. no gene flow ;

5. reference to accumulation of differences /changes ;

max
6. more likely to become genetically different; (4)

28
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(a) 1. thylakoid / granum ;

2. membrane ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(b) A ATP;

B reduced NADP / eq; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(c) photolysis; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(d) 1. less carbohydrate production ;

2. less reduced NADP ;

3. less reduction of carbon dioxide ;

4. less ATP (to supply energy) ;

max
5. less conversion of GP to GALP ; (4)

29
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(e)(i) 1. competition ;

2. for light ;

3. for carbon dioxide;

4. for space ;

5. for water / ions ;

max
6. fewer resources for growth ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(e)(ii) 1. treat crop with atrazine ;

2. (non-resistant) weeds die ;

3. reference to reduced competition ;

4. produce atrazine-resistant crop ;

max
5. reference to selective breeding / genetic modification ; (2)

30
Question Answer Mark
Number

4(a)(i) humidity / oxygen concentration / toxins /pH ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(a)(ii) 1. time for fly to find body is due to chance /eq ;

2. reference to succession ;

3. earlier organisms change conditions ;

4. (changed conditions) more suitable for later organisms

/ eq ;
max
5. example of condition changes ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(b)(i) 1. (45), 9 / 9-10 days ;

2. (1.5), 7.5-8.5 ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(b)(ii) 1. (house fly 4-5 days at 22) 8-9 days at 12 ;

2. (flesh fly 4 days at 22) 8 days at 12 ;

3. (all figures suggest) within 8-9 days ;

max
4. died within a day of each other ; (3)

31
Question Answer Mark
Number

5(a) 1. C is bacteriocidal ;

2. bacteriocidal kills bacteria ;

3. B is bacteriostatic ;
max
4. bacteriostatic prevents reproduction / growth ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(b) 1. bacterium is no longer affected by antibiotic A ;

2. reference to mutation / changed {gene /DNA} ;

3. reference to resistance ;

4. reference to selection /eq ;

5. reference to plasmid transmission / horizontal max

inheritance ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

5(c) 1. lawn bacteria / eq ;

2. reference agar plate / eq ;

3. antibiotic in well / multidisc / eq ;

4. incubation qualified ;

5. measurement of clear area / eq ;

6. bigger area implies more effective ;

max
7. reference to safety / aseptic technique / eq ; (4)

32
Question Answer Mark
Number

6(a) 1. reference to (selective) advantage ;

2. speech provides better communication / eq ;

3. reference to better social interactions / eq ;

max
4. greater reproductive success / converse ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(b)(i) 1. undermines teaching of bible / ref creation story in

Genesis ;

2. reference to relationship of man to animals / eq ;

3. reference to age of the world / time of evolution ;

4. reference to influence of religion on politics / legal max

system ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

6(b)(ii) 1. evolution is controversial because it contradicts

creation story / eq ;

2. natural selection as a mechanism of change since

creation less controversial ;

3. evidence for natural selection can be observed / more

evidence for natural selection ;

4. distinction between microevolution and macroevolution max

(new taxa) / eq ; (2)

33
 Unit SN5 (6135/01) Energy, Exercise and Coordination

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(a) 1. reference to columns being {smaller / narrower /eq}(in

visual cortex for left eye) /converse ;

2. (sensory) {neurone / axon} {shorter neurone / reduced

growth} (for left / deprived eye) converse ;

3. {fewer / shorter dendrites} / fewer {synapses / max

branches} (in left/deprived eye) / eq / converse ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(b) 1. reference to {critical/ sensitive} period / critical

window (in visual development) ;

2. idea that if one eye is deprived of {stimulation/light},

{neurones /dendrites/synapses / columns} do not
develop / eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(c) reference to visual deprivation studies e.g. cataract removal

from children, bandaging of eyes / reference to development
of distance perception e.g. Muller-Lyer (1)

34
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(a) 1. activity in basal ganglia (of treated brain) is {greater

than in untreated brain / lower than in healthy brain} ;

2. activity in motor cortex (of treated brain) is {less than

in untreated brain / same as in healthy brain} ;

3. drug stimulates release of dopamine / eq ;

4. muscles now {more in control / just tapping fingers max

/ fewer spasms } ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b) 1. correct reference to calcium ions required ;

2. (dopamine) released at the (pre)synaptic membrane ;

3. by exocytosis /reference to vesicles fusing ;

4. idea of diffuses across (synaptic cleft) ;

5. binds to {receptors / eq} on post-synaptic membrane ;

6. {sodium ion / cation} channels open ;

7. sodium ions enter ;

max
8. depolarisation of post-synaptic membrane / eq ; (4)

35
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(c) 1. dopamine cannot cross blood brain barrier / eq ;

2. therefore L-dopa is used /eq ;

3. which is converted into dopamine (in the brain) ;

OTHER DRUGS:

4. could have a similar shape to dopamine / eq ;

5. bind to dopamine receptors ;

6. could inhibit enzymes which break down dopamine ;

7. correct reference to selegiline ;

max
8. maintaining a high concentration of dopamine ; (4)

36
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(a)(i) 1. reference to oxygen (concentration) decreasing / eq ;

2. greater (decrease) when ADP is added ;

3. (oxygen used to) convert ADP to ATP (in respiration) ;

4. oxygen is needed for respiration / eq ;

5. correct reference to oxidative phosphorylation ;

max
6. reference to {ADP concentration / eq} is limiting ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(a)(ii) reduced NAD / NADH / NADH2 ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(a)(iii) cristae / inner membrane / stalked particle ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(a)(iv) 1. hydrogen atoms split into protons and electrons / eq ;

2. electrons transferred along electron carriers / a series

of redox reactions / eq ;

3. oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor / water is

formed ;

4. {protons / eq} moved into intermembrane space / eq ;

5. {protons / eq} move (into matrix) down a

{concentration / electrochemical} gradient ;

6. through stalked particles / ATP synthetase /eq ;

7. correct ref. to chemiosmotic theory ;

8. (ATP)formed by {phosphorylation of ADP / oxidative max

phosphorylation } / eq ; (3)

37
Question Answer Mark
Number

3(b)(i) 1. correct reference to ATP (supplies energy) for active

transport / reference to sodium-potassium pump / eq ;

2. sodium ions pumped out (of the axon) / restores

(membrane to) resting potential ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

3(b)(ii) 1. correct reference to ATP (supplies energy) for active

transport / reference to sodium-potassium pump / eq ;

2. (pumps sodium ions out) of inner segment / maintains

(more) negative charge inside the membrane / eq ; (2)

38
Question Answer Mark
Number

4(a)(i)
SLOW TWITCH has:

1. more mitochondria ;

2. more myoglobin ;

3. less sarcoplasmic reticulum ;

4. more capillaries ;

5. less (stored) glycogen ;

6. less creatine phosphate ;

7. more resistant to fatigue / more likely to be aerobic / max

eq ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(a)(ii) (1)
prey ;

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(a)(iii)
1. predators have more fast twitch (than slow twitch) ;
max
(2)
2. anaerobic respiration / glycolysis is used / eq ;

39
Question Answer Mark
Number

4(b)
1. (lactate) removed from muscle / diffuses into blood
stream / enters liver ;

2. (lactate) converted / eq / to pyruvate ;

3. reference to role of {NADH / eq} ;

4. pyruvate {oxidised to carbon dioxide and water / enters

Krebs cycle} / eq ;

5. reference to higher oxygen consumption / greater

oxygen debt ;
max
6. (some) lactate {converted / eq} to glycogen (in liver) ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

4(c)
1. correct reference to homeostasis ;

2. correct reference to negative feedback ;

3. changes to (core ) temperature detected by

{hypothalamus / thermoregulatory centre} ;

4. (arteriole) {vasodilation / shunt vessel constricts}

increases blood flow (to the skin / tongue) / eq ;

5. increase loss of heat from (skin / tongue / surfaces) /

loss of heat from (skin / tongue / surfaces) has a cooling max
effect ; (4)

40
 Unit SN6 (6136/01) Synoptic paper

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(a) 1. huge numbers / population size / eq ;

2. illustrated with example from the text ;

3. variety in metabolism/diet/molecular differences / eq ;

4. illustrated with example from the text ;

5. wide habitat distribution / eq ;

6. illustrated with example from the text ;

7. more life under the earth than on it / eq ;

8. reference to “all bacteria swim in a single gene pool”/

eq ;

9. explanation of single gene pool concept ;

10. specific example of how they have a major influence on

many other living organisms e.g. oxygen production for
respiration of other organisms ;
max
11. bacteria are unlikely to become extinct ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(b)(i) 1. {genetic / DNA}differences ;

2. molecular differences / lipids / peptidoglycan / eq ;

3. archaea are more different from bacteria than you and I max
are more different from a crab or spider / eq ; (2)

41
Question Answer Mark
Number

1(b)(ii) 1. did not fit in with old way of classifying in terms of

{gross morphological / visible} similarities and
differences / Woese’s system focuses on molecular
characteristics / eq ;

2. suitable for microbiologists / less suitable for botanists

and zoologists / too heavily weighted towards the
microbial / eq ;

3. numerically distorted i.e. most identified species put

into a small section of the classification system / eq ;

4. reference to alternative / updated classification max

systems; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(c) 1. eukaryotes have a nucleus, prokaryotes do not ;

2. eukaryotes have {membrane bound organelles / named

organelle}, prokaryotes do not ;

3. eukaryotes have larger ribosomes than prokaryotes ;

4. eukaryotic cells are much larger than prokaryotic cells ;

5. eukaryotic cells walls (if present) are made of cellulose

(or chitin), prokaryotic cell walls are made of other
materials (e.g. murein) ;

6. plasmids traditionally thought to be confined to

prokaryotic cells ;

7. linear chromosomes in eukaryotes, circular DNA in

prokaryotes / reference to histone proteins in max
eukaryotes, not prokaryotes / eq ; (2)

42
Question Answer Mark
Number

1(d) 1. genes can spread between different {species / types /

eq} of bacteria ;

2. through sexual reproduction / exchange of

plasmids / conjugation ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(e) 1. prostaglandins released ;

2. reset set point of hypothalamus / eq ;

3. produce fever / core temperature rises ;

4. histamine released ;

5. Inflammation / inflammatory response ;

6. {killer / cytotoxic} T cells {destroy infected cells /

damage tissues} ;

7. clonal selection of white blood cells causes swollen max

{lymph nodes / glands} / eq ; (3)

43
Question Answer Mark
Number

1(f) 1. rapid reproduction rate / quick generation time ;

2. large populations ;

3. large pool of mutations / lots of variation ;

4. strong selection pressure of antibiotics /eq ;

5. widespread use of antibiotics in farming ;

6. misuse of antibiotics / prescribed inappropriately /

course not finished / eq ;

7. conjugation/bacterium can share plasmids / can pass

antibiotic resistance genes from one bacterium to
another (species) / eq ;

8. reference to antibiotic markers in genetic engineering ;

9. correct reference to hospital hygiene / compromised

immune system of patients / intravenous procedures / max
eq ; (4)

Question Answer Mark

Number

1(g) 1. may kill the host before they have a chance to infect
other people / eq ;

2. newly evolved strain so it has not yet become reduced

in virulence ;
max
3. reference to isolation of victims /eq ; (1)

44
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(a)(i) 1. main food chain: phytoplankton – Calanus - sand eel –

herring /cod with arrows pointing showing direction of
energy flow ;

2. trophic levels indicated correctly in any comprehensible

way ;

3. inclusion of any two other organisms at correct trophic

level with appropriate arrows ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(a)(ii)
1. each cod eats many times its own mass of sandeels (in
its life time) / eq ;

2. when {energy / nutrients / organic matter} passes from

one trophic level to another only some is passed on /
eq ;

3. energy loss through respiration / heat / faeces / not

all potential prey get eaten ;
max
(2)
4. larger number of sandeels (than cod) / removal of cod
by fishing ;

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(b)(i) 1. more light (intensity) ;

2. suitable wavelengths ;

3. more carbon dioxide dissolved in the water ;

4. more appropriate temperature ;

5. more minerals / eq ;
max
6. fewer zooplankton ; (2)

45
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(b)(ii) production of ATP / DNA / nucleotides / phospholipids /

membranes ; (1)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(c)(i) (1)
grams (organic) carbon per square metre ;

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(c)(ii) 1. there is a (weak) correlation between temperature and

productivity ;

2. the increase / decrease in productivity starts earlier

than the increase in temperature ;

3. appropriate reference to data to illustrate points

made ;

4. increase in productivity is more gradual than the

increase in temperature ;

5. reference to other variables that may affect max

productivity e.g. light intensity or day length ; (3)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(c)(iii) 1. productivity is limited by temperature (in May) ;

2. reference to grazing by {zooplankton / Calanus} (in

July) ;

3. reference to another limiting factor e.g. reduced

(solubility) of carbon dioxide, depletion of mineral ions, max
photoperiod ; (2)

46
Question Answer Mark
Number

2(d) 1. less food available / more predation / eq ;

2. low temperature optimum of its enzymes / eq ;

3. life cycle out of seasonal synchrony with the species it

feeds on / {reproductive / migratory} behaviour / eq;

4. increased respiration rate may increase food

requirement/deplete stored food reserves more
quickly;
max
5. lower oxygen concentration ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(e)(i) 1. herring stocks were in (steep) decline prior to {the ban

/ 1978} ;

2. but recovered rapidly/eq once fishing was controlled ;

3. use of figures e.g. recovered to over half of the 1963

level in less than ten years ;

4. meanwhile cod stocks (which were not controlled) max

remained low ; (2)

Question Answer Mark

Number

2(e)(ii) 1. (mean) size of (adult) cod will get less /eq ;

2. cod may {mature/become sexually mature} earlier/at a

smaller size ;

3. genes for smallness/early maturity passed on to the

next generation /eq ;
max
4. example of change in behaviour ; (2)

47
Question Marking Grid
Number
3
A Breadth: maximum of 6 marks
These marks are to be awarded
to the candidate if they
successfully introduce the
general area of Biology
relevant to the essay title. If a
relevant B point is awarded
then the corresponding A point
should also be awarded. Key
ideas to look for are in bold
type – the candidate need only
show evidence that he or she
realises that key idea is
appropriate in the essay to
gain a breadth (A) mark.
Indicate A1 to A10 on the script
as appropriate
A1 Homeostasis
A2 Neurones and the nervous
system / reflexes
Mark
(20)
B Depth: maximum of 8 marks
These marks are awarded to
candidates for demonstrating an
understanding of relevant A level
biological detail expanding on the
areas of biology introduced in A. This
list is not exhaustive but is designed
to give an idea of the type of response
worthy of credit for a (B) mark.
Allow a maximum of 4 B marks per
corresponding A mark.
Indicate B1a to B10d on the script as
appropriate
B1a Good definition of what is meant by
homeostasis i.e. maintenance of a
constant internal environment or
similar.
B1b Correct description of negative
feedback.
B1c Description of a control mechanism
with reference to at least 2 of the
following: set point/norm value,
detector/receptor,
comparator/regulator, corrective
mechanism/effector, control system,
signal/nervous impulse/hormones.
B1d/B1e Credit up to two specific example of
homeostatic mechanism not covered
in another A/B point below.
B2a Correct outline description of the
organisation of the nervous system
into CNS and peripheral nervous
system.
B2b Description of structure of a typical
neurone.
B2c Description of how a resting potential
is set up in a neurone.
B2d Description of an action potential and
the nature of a nerve impulse.
B2e Description of saltatory conduction.
48

A3 Role of brain in control and
coordination / synapses
A4 Receptors/sense organs
B2f Description of a reflex arc.
B2g Credit a specific examples of reflexes
such as the pupil reflex.
B2h Explanation of purpose of reflexes e.g.
fast, automatic and protective.
B3a Correct reference to at least two
regions of the brain and their
corresponding functions: e.g. thalamus
for relaying sensory information,
visual cortex for interpreting visual
information etc.
B3b Role of hypothalamus in control of
much of the endocrine system (via
pituitary gland)
B3c Correct reference to role of the
pituitary gland.
B3d Description of the role of the brain in
either: learning, processing
information, recall and memory,
calculation, control of behaviour etc.
B3e Description of how information is
passed at a synapse.
B3f Role of synapses in coordination of
information e.g. temporal and spatial
summation or inhibition.
B3g Description of how synapses can be
directly affected by the internal
environment e.g. chemical
imbalances/drugs.
B3h Correct description of habituation
and/or sensitisation.
B4a Provide examples of at least 2 types of
receptor and what they detect e.g.
mechanoreceptors, chemoreceptors,
thermorecptors, photoreceptors,
baroreceptors, proprioceptors.
B4b Further specific detail of a receptor
e.g. details of a rod photoreceptor in
the retina.
49
A5 Autonomic nervous system B5a Role of parasympathetic nervous
system described e.g. rest and digest
described.

B5b Role of sympathetic nervous system

described e.g. fight or flight
described.
A6 Hormones/endocrine system B6a Outline description of the endocrine
system as glands releasing hormones
into the blood.

B6b Example of a specific hormone and its

A7 Control and co-ordination at
level of the cells
role in control and coordination e.g.
adrenaline in fight or flight, or
insulin/glucagons in blood glucose
regulation.
B7a Good example of control of cell cycle
via cytokines etc.

B7b Consequence of loss of control of cell

cycle.

B7c Description of role of tumour

suppressor genes / eq.

B7d Example of control of metabolic

pathway e.g. end point inhibition / lac
operon.

B7e Outline description of control of gene

expression.

B7f Further detail of control of

transcription / translation e.g.
selective splicing of mRNA,
transcription factors / methylation
etc.
A8 Response of body to infection B8a Non-specific immune response
/ damage described e.g. inflammatory response
/ fever.

B8b Clonal selection of relevant

lymphocytes.

B8c Role of macrophages described / eq.

B8d Blood clotting described.

50
A9 Response to damage in
external environment (not
credited elsewhere) e.g.
thermoregulation / uv light
A10 Control of heart/breathing
B9a Role of hypothalamus in
thermoregulation.
B9b Correct description of 2 methods of
increasing heat loss e.g. vasodilatation
leading to more radiation, sweating -
leading to more heat loss through
evaporation.
B9c Correct description of two methods of
conserving heat/ generating more
heat e.g. vasoconstriction – less
radiation, shivering – more heat
generated from respiration.
B9d Outline description of melanin
production in response to uv light
exposure.
B9e Reference to role of MSH and MSH
receptors – different sensitivities to uv
light.
B10a Ventilation centre in medulla
(oblongata).
B10b Chemoreceptors respond to {CO2/ pH /
temperature} of the blood which
change as a result of respiration.
B10c pH change explained by production
and dissociation of carbonic acid/
production of lactic acid by anaerobic
respiration.
Stimulation of stretch receptors
causes exhalation.
B10d Cardiac muscle is myogenic.
B10e SAN under influence of cardiovascular
control centre in the medulla
(oblongata).
B10f Specific correct ref. to sympathetic
nerve/vagus nerve.
B10g Greater venous return causes greater
stroke volume.
51
A11 Osmoregulation/excretion B11a Description of role of liver in wide
range of roles e.g. urea production for
excretion.

B11b Outline description of role of kidney in

osmoregulation.

B11c Role of kidney in excretion

B11d Role of kidney in control of

pH/salt/blood pressure
A12 Behavioural responses B12 Outline of a correct description of a
behavioural response to help survival
in a suitable context e.g. hide to avoid
predator, adjust clothing worn/diet to
survive in different environment.

UNPACKING THE QUESTION – MAXIMUM OF 6 MARKS

C1 A good comparison has been made between the nervous and endocrine systems.

C2 The essay clearly conveys that the systems described work closely together and rarely
in isolation.

C3 Importance of thermoregulation described i.e. clear consequences of lack of regulation

hypo or hyperthermia described – e.g. consequence on enzyme action and metabolism due
to temperature change.

C4 Importance of cardiac output/ ventilation rate linked clearly to supplying muscle cells
with oxygen/removing waste for respiration so we can respond to danger and move faster.

C5 Linked point to C4 but description also includes role of adrenaline and sympathetic
nervous system.

C6 Importance of the reflex described for B3b clearly described together with
consequence of the reflexes not working e.g. damage to retina if pupil does not constrict
in bright light.

C7 Importance of osmoregulation or excretion well described with consequences of lack of

excretion of CO2, urea, imbalance of water/salt levels etc described.

C8 Example of consequence of a hormone not working correctly e.g. lack of insulin leading
to diabetes mellitus and consequent potential problems described.

C9 Example of damage to brain and the effect it can have on a person - ultimately if your
brain doesn’t work you die.

C10 Good description given to explain how a human can survive in a particular
environment / hazardous situation because of the way he/she can respond to the situation
– probably combining physiological and behavioural responses.

C11 Explanation that complex brain has enabled complex behavioural responses and social
learning,/ detailed communication / tool use etc which made possible cultural and
technological evolution so that we can manipulate our environment to help survival / eq.

52
 C12 Description that human populations have shown evolutionary adaptations to survive in
their environments e.g. melanin levels in skin, surface area to volume ratio due to body
shape, etc.

C13 Description of effects of drugs or disease on control and coordination and the
potential consequences for the body.

D: Coherence, clarity and expression of the answer - maximum of 4 marks

This strand will award students for style of their answer and is quite distinct from mentioning
the big ideas (C). It isn’t what candidates say but how they say it.

Level Mark Descriptor

Level 5 4 A truly synoptic essay which links together information from different
parts of the specification in a coherent and logical style (introduction,
conclusion, good use of paragraphs and well illustrated by examples).
Good spelling, punctuation, grammar and sound use of technical
terminology.

Level 4 3 Good logical structure with good spelling, punctuation, grammar and
sound use of technical terminology, but tends to be a collection of
information which, although relevant, tends to be disjointed and only
partly attempts to synthesise information.

Level 3 2 A reasonably coherent account that includes satisfactory spelling,

punctuation and grammar, which tends to be disjointed. A collection
of information with little or no attempt to link ideas together.

Level 2 1 Some relevant information is presented in an intelligible way using

correctly formulated simple sentences.

Level 1 The use of English is not adequate to convey scientific information

beyond naming a list of examples. A candidate who has scored some
marks (particularly in strand A) for mentioning some relevant points
may nevertheless fail to score marks in strand D if he or she fails to
form simple sentences.

Note that the maximum total mark which can be

awarded is 20

53
Question Marking Grid
Number
4
Breadth: maximum of 6 marks
These marks are to be awarded
to the candidate if they
successfully introduce the
general area of Biology
relevant to the essay title. If a
relevant B point is awarded
then the corresponding A point
should also be awarded. Key
ideas to look for are in bold
type – the candidate need only
show evidence that he or she
realises that key idea is
appropriate in the essay to
gain a breadth (A) mark.
Indicate A1 to A10 on the script
as appropriate
A1 Embryo screening/PIGD
A2 Prenatal/foetal screening
Mark
(20)
Depth: maximum of 8 marks
These marks are awarded to
candidates for demonstrating an
understanding of relevant A level
biological detail expanding on the
areas of biology introduced in A. This
list is not exhaustive but is designed to
give an idea of the type of response
worthy of credit for a (B) mark.
Allow a maximum of 4 B marks per
corresponding A mark.
Indicate B1a to B10d on the script as
appropriate
B1a Clear description of selecting cells
from an early embryo – i.e. context
must be pre-implantation – in vitro as
part of IVF.
B1b Use of restriction enzymes to cut the
DNA [may be credited in context of
A1, A2, A3 or A5 but not more than
once]
B1c Outline correct description of gel
electrophoresis and southern blotting
[may be credited in context of A1, A2,
A3 or A5 but not more than once]
B1d Description of use of gene probe –
complementary bases and labelled
{radioactive/fluorescent} [may be
credited in context of A1, A2, A3 or
A5 but not more than once]
B1e Example of a specific context and
disease in which IVF and embryo
screening would be worthwhile.
B2a {Amniocentesis/chorionic villus
sampling/CVS} to obtain the cells from
the foetus.
B2b See B1b
B2c See B1c
B2d See B1d
B2e Risk of miscarriage as a result of the
techniques used to obtain the cells.
54
 B2f Improved genetic screening of foetus
for informed decisions re. Abortions/
preparation/ peace of mind.

B2g Example of specific disease in which

prenatal screening may be used e.g.
cystic fibrosis – [must be different to
any context awarded in B1e]
A3 Adult screening B3a Clear use described e.g. to identify
carriers/ early detection of genetic
abnormalities in adults so that they
can receive early treatment or make
informed decisions about having
children e.g. Huntingdon's Chorea

B3b See B1b

B3c See B1c
B3d See B1d

B3e Describe suitable source of cells e.g.

cheek swab.

B3f Clear description of benefits /

drawbacks of knowledge of
predisposition e.g. can adjust lifestyle
to reduce risks.
A4 Gene therapy B4a Normal allele inserted into a target
cell by means of a suitable vector.

B4b Name/description of a suitable vector

e.g. liposome, virus [not gene gun for
human gene therapy used to insert a
normal allele]

B4c Method of delivery of a vector to the

cells e.g. nebuliser, direct injection
into extracted stem cells.

B4d Outline description of transcription

and translation of the new added gene
resulting in the production of the
functional protein and hopefully
recovering lost function – relieve
symptoms etc.

B4e Treatment needs to be repeated as

somatic gene therapy is not a cure and
the treated cells will die and need to
be replaced.

B4f Can use gene therapy to modify stem

cells to provide cure/replacement
tissue – e.g. to cure SCID.

55
A5 Genetic fingerprinting B5a Measuring genetic diversity within a
population

B5b See B1b

B5c See B1c
B5d See B1d

B5e Outline description of PCR to obtain

enough DNA to carry out analysis.
[may also be credited in other
contexts]

B5f One other application of genetic

A6 Genetically modified organisms
containing human genes
fingerprinting discussed in context
e.g. paternity testing/identifying a
body/criminal, etc.
B6a Plants, animals and bacteria may have
a human gene inserted into them to
produce a useful protein.

B6b Specific example provided e.g.

bacteria to produce human insulin,
factor 8 in milk/boar’s
semen/vaccines in plants like
bananas.

B6c Modify animal cells so they are more

similar to human cells for
transplantation e.g. pigs hearts for
xenotransplantation due to lack of
human hearts available.

B6d Use of antibiotic marker genes

B6e Outline description of method for

getting gene into the organism e.g.
produce protoplasts and use gene gun/
Agrobacterium [do not credit same
technique as used for B4b if already
credited.]
A7 Understanding inherited B7a If you find a gene associated with a
diseases specific inherited disorder you may be
able to determine what protein it
makes/ role it has in the cell and
therefore explain how the mutation
causes the disorder/eq

56
A8 Development of new medicines B8a If you identify the gene causing a
disease you may be able to
manufacture a protein/medicine that
will replace the lost protein/ inhibit a
malfunctioning protein / enzyme

May use antisense drugs

B8b (RNA/complementary DNA} as new
medicines to switch off malfunctioning
genes e.g. oncogenes causing cancer.
A9 Understanding B9a Cell development/differentiation is
development/cell controlled by gene switching.
differentiation.
B9b Describe the role of transcription
factors in the initiation of
transcription for gene expression.

B9c Describe one other method of gene

switching e.g. the lac operon,
methylation, supercoiling.

B9d Description of cancer as a disease of

the genes causing uncontrolled cell
division, therefore the more we know
about the genes controlling cell
division the more likely we will be
able to find a cure for cancer.

B9e Reference to ability to manipulate

stem cells.
A10 Understanding mental health B10a Many mental health disorders are
disorders multifactoral, including the
involvement of one or more genes.

B10b Specific example provided e.g.

Alzheimers linked to APOE genes.
A11 Understanding Human B11a Can trace migration patterns/
evolution/ancestry ancestry through the genes

B11b Y chromosome only inherited from

father to son (often with the surname)
helps determine family trees and
ethnic origins/eq.
/Mitocondrial DNA only inherited from
mother through the egg.

B11c Tracing patterns of mutations and

mutation rates helps show migration
patterns, evidence for evolution of
modern humans in Africa and
subsequent migration across the
world.

B11d Comparing genes/DNA sequences

provides evidence for evolutionary
relationships with other organisms/eq.

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A12 Specific wider/ethical B12a Rights of the embryo/ foetus to life
issues/dangers (reference to source of stem cells).

B12b Eugenics – selection according to

genotype

B12c Gene therapy may cause further

mutations – could cause cancer/eq

B12d Viruses used as vectors for gene

therapy may become infectious and
cause damage/disease.

B12e Suitable reference to insurance issues.

UNPACKING THE QUESTION – MAXIMUM OF 6 MARKS

C1 Results of genetic screening need to handled with sensitivity and counselling should be
provided.

C2 Discussion about whether the testing (esp embryo testing) is worth the cost/ hassle etc
e.g.IVF is expensive and fairly unreliable and uncomfortable, but is it worth it in order to
reduce the need for a possible abortion if they waited for a foetal screen rather than an
embryo screen? Better not to know arguments e.g. some people prefer not to know if they
have incurable conditions/ stress with positive result for presence of a particular allele.

C3 data protection issues / insurance issues e.g. high premiums if you inform the
insurance company of a higher risk, but you will defraud them if you know you are likely to
die prematurely but take out an extra large health/life insurance policy based on
knowledge you withhold from the insurance company.

C4 Thin end of the wedge arguments (Current applications are acceptable) but might lead
to greater pressure for designer babies/eugenics – misuse of the new technology or 'and
why not?' e.g. arguments discussion of positive and negative issues surrounding designer
babies (recognising the argument but countering it).

C5 information about the human genome is ethically/morally neutral, it is the applications

you use the information for that may generate ethical/moral dilemmas.

C6 difficulties in policing genetic research legislation: recognises that if this type of

research continues there will need to be safeguards but these will be difficult to police
and this throws the whole business into question/if we ban some types of research in the
UK other it will merely move overseas to (less scrupulous) countries.

C7 clear distinction provided between somatic gene therapy (legal treatment but not a
cure) and germ line gene therapy (could cure/ prevent but illegal as dangerous and issues
to do with future generations not being able to provide consent).

C8 DNA finger printing - only the guilty need fear - or a civil liberties time bomb?

C9 obtaining the DNA sequence is only the beginning, further research needed to identify
the genes and understand what they do – Bioinformatics.

C10 Issues regarding patenting – who owns the DNA sequence? Can it restrict other
research opportunities due to price? / eq.

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 C11 good discussion about some of the potential hazards of genetically modifying
plants/animals e.g. super weeds, spread of antibiotic resistance/ new allergies etc.

C12 credit discussion of a further ethical issue e.g. is it worth the cost in comparison to
trying to find an effective treatment for HIV/Malaria etc? Do the rights of one person to
have a treatment outweigh a potential (but small) risk of a negative outcome for a wider
population e.g. a transgenic pig heart may save a life, but there is a small risk that a new
viral disease could be introduced to the human population (e.g. reactivate a dormant
porcine retrovirus because it is now contained within a human host and may combine with
an infectious human virus).

C13 It would be unethical to ignore potential for good in GM technology: the dangers and
the need for regulation need to be recognised but the medical / environmental /
agricultural opportunities to alleviate human suffering/save the planet/feed the hungry is
such that it would be ethically wrong not to pursue it/to try to ban it.

D: Coherence, clarity and expression of the answer - maximum of 4 marks

This strand will award students for style of their answer and is quite distinct from mentioning
the big ideas (C). It isn’t what candidates say but how they say it.

Level Mark Descriptor

Level 5 4 A truly synoptic essay which links together information from
different parts of the specification in a coherent and logical style
(introduction. Conclusion, good use of paragraphs and well
illustrated by examples). Good spelling, punctuation, grammar and
sound use of technical terminology.

Level 4 3 Good logical structure with good spelling, punctuation, grammar and
sound use of technical terminology, but tends to be a collection of
information which, although relevant, tends to be disjointed and
only partly attempts to synthesise information
Level 3 2 A reasonably coherent account that includes satisfactory spelling,
punctuation and grammar, which tends to be disjointed. A collection
of information with little or no attempt to link ideas together

Level 2 1 relevant information is presented in an intelligible way using

correctly formulated simple sentences.

Level 1 The use of English is not adequate to convey scientific information

beyond naming a list of examples. A candidate who has scored some
marks (particularly in strand A) for mentioning some relevant points
may nevertheless fail to score marks in strand D if he or she fails to
form simple sentences.

Note
The maximum total mark which can be awarded is 20

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