FM Test No.7 1.

The Industries
(Development and Regulation)
Q.1 India does not produce Act, 1951
large amounts of gold. Which 2. Trade Marks Act, 1999
of these can be the possible 3. The Indian Patent Act, 2005
reason(s)? 4. Civil Defence Act
1. Some gold mines in India Select the correct answer
are very deep which makes using the codes below.
commercial extraction A. 3 and 4 only
expensive. B. 1, 2 and 3 only*
2. India's gold reserves are C. 2 and 4 only
highly scarce. D. All of the above
3. Technological barriers exist
and extraction is risky. Q. 3 Money market
Which of the above is/are instruments have a maturity
correct? of
A. 1 and 2 only A. Less than one year *
B. 2 and 3 only B. Less than six months
C. 1 and 3 only* C. More than one year
D. 2 only D. None of these

Q.2 Which of the following Q.4 Debt market instruments

laws have a bearing on have a maturity of
pharmaceutical sector in A. Less than one year
India? B. Less than six months
C. More than one year *
D. None of these
Q.5 Irredeemable bond is also
known as
A. Fully convertible bond
B. Perpetual bond*
C. Partially convertible bond
D. None of these
Q.6 Floating rate bonds carry
A. Fixed rate of interest
B. Varying rate of interest*
C. Zero rate of interest
D. None of these
Q.7 Zero coupon bonds mean
A. Fixed rate of interest
B. Zero rate of interest*
C. Higher rate of interest
D. None of these
Q.8 Callable bonds mean
A. Subscriber has the right to
demand money before
time
B. Issue has the right to
redeem before the time*
C. Investor can request for
redemption any time
D. None of these
Q.9 If the credit quality of the
issuer deteriorates, market
expects
A. Lesser rate of interest
B. Higher rate of interest*
C. Zero rate of interest
D. None of these
Q.10 When the risk perception
is high, investor prefers to get
the bond at
A. Higher rate
B. Reduced rate *
C. Par rate
D. None of these
Q.11 If the maturity period of
the bond is more, investor prefers
A. Lesser return
B. Higher return *
C. Zero return Q.14 Which of the following
D. None of these are advantages of Market
based Financial System?
Q.12 Par value means 1. Provides attractive terms to
A. Value of the instrument both investors and borrowers.
traded in the market 2. Facilitates diversification
B. Value of the instrument at 3. Allows risk sharing
the time of issue* 4. Allows financing of new
C. Intrinsic value of the technologies
instrument A. Only 1 and 2
D. None of these B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 3 and 4
Q.13 Financial Institutions D. All*
provide which of the following
types of transformation Q.15 Which of the following
services? are advantages of Bank based
1. Asset Liability and Size Financial System?
Transformation 1. Close relationship with
2. Maturity Transformation parties
3. Risk Transformation 2. Provides tailor made
A. Only 1 and 2 contracts
B. Only 2 and 3 3. Efficient interpersonal risk
C. Only 1 and 3 sharing
D. All* A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All*
Q.16 Which of the following
countries have Market based
financial structure?
1. US
2. UK
3. Singapore
4. Korea
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 3 and 4
D. All*
Q.17 Investment environment
constitutes
A. Financial instruments
B. Financial markets
C. Financial intermediaries
D. All of these*
Q.18 Which of the following
countries have bank based
financial structure?
1. Japan
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 3 and 4
D. All*
Q.19 Financial planning is
A. Smart investment and
smart spending *
B. Good investment and lesser
spending
C. Less investment and lesser
spending
D. None of these
Q.20 Real estate investment
means
A. Investment in houses
B. Investment in flats
C. Investment in bungalows
D. All of these*
Q.21 Money market
instruments are
A. Treasury bills
B. Certificate of deposit 2. Provide risk capital in the
C. Commercial paper form of equity or quasi equity
D. All of these* to entrepreneurs
3. Lower the costs of
Q.22 Speculation involves transactions and information
A. Investing for a long period A. Only 1 and 2
B. Action for a short period B. Only 2 and 3
based on scientific lines* C. Only 1 and 3
C. Illegal contract D. All*
D. All of these
Q.25 Financial Services are
Q.23 Which of the following those that help with
are not money market 1. Borrowing and funding
instruments? 2. Lending and investing
A. Treasury bills 3. Buying and selling
B. Commercial Paper* securities
C. Certificate of deposit 4. Making and enabling
D. Fixed deposit receipt payment settlements
5. Managing risk exposures in
Q.24 What are the functions of financial markets
Capital Market? A. Only 1 and 2
1. Mobilize Long Term savings B. Only 2, 3 and 5
to finance long term C. Only 1, 3 and 4
investments. D. All*

Q.26 Identify correct pairs.

1. Primary Sector: Agriculture, D. People capacity
Fishing management model
2. Secondary Sector:
Manufacturing, Construction Q.29 Competencies of HRD
3. Finance Sector: Banking are ________.
and Insurance A. Training and development
A. Only 1 and 2 B. Career Planning.
B. Only 2 and 3 C. Empowerment.
C. Only 1 and 3 D. All the above.*
D. All*
Q.30 ________ is the basic unit
Q.27 Who is the member of of a job.
Western Area Local Board of A. Task. *
Reserve Bank of India? B. Position.
A. Kiran S. Karnik* C. Office
B. Nachiket M. Mor D. Role.
C. Anil Kakodkar
D. K. Selvaraj Q.31Competencies of HRD
manager _______.
Q.28 PCMM stands for _____. A. Business skills.
A. People capability maturity B. Leadership skills.
model.* C. Consulting skills.
B. People capacity D. All the above.*
management model.
C. Personnel capacity maturity Q.32 KPA stands for ___.
model. A. Key performance areas*
B. Key perfect areas B. Training
C. Key position areas. C. Selection.
D. None of the above D. Development.

Q.33 KPA for a job should not Q.36 ____ should be based
be too many generally they more on potential appraisal of
may be about _____. a person for the job for which
A. Four or five. * he is being considered.
B. Six or seven A. Promotion. *
C. Two or Three B. Selection
D. Eight or Nine C. Training.
D. Recruitment.
Q.34 Only ___ characteristics
are included to indicate which Q.37 The set of persons
attributes make a major having expectations from the
difference for a person to be role is called the ___ set.
effective in a role. A. Action.
A. Critical. * B. Task.
B. Similar. C. Work.
C. Different. D. Role.*
D. None of the above
Q.38 A human resource
Q.35 The critical attributes of development strategy should
a job can be used for contain aims or preferably ___
improving the ____ policy based objectives.
A. Recruitment. * A. FAIR.
B. RULE D. Performance Analysis.
C. SMART. *
D. GOAL. Q.42 Performance
management essentially
Q.39 The challenge of prime consists of the following
movers are called as _____. stages ___.
A. Champions. * A. Performance Planning.
B. Strategy. B. Performance Analysis.
C. Challenge. C. Performance Development
D. Action plans & Audit
D. All the above.*
Q.40 Performance appraisal is
a part of ____ management Q.43 A good appraisal
A. People management. possesses the following
B. Performance management* characteristics _____.
C. Process management. A. It is based on evidence.
D. None of the above B. joint activity and creates
commitment
Q.41 _____ is defined as multi C. results in improved
step process of aligning performance
employees work behaviors D. All the above.*
with the strategy and goals of
the organization Q.44 What organizational
A. Performance Appraisal development technique is a
B. Performance Management.* technique for assessing
C. Performance planning. attitudes and perceptions,
identifying discrepancies in that they have taken into
these, and resolving the account ________.
differences by using survey A. Cultural characteristics*
information in feedback B. Organizational differences
groups? C. Employee attitudes.
A. Team building. D. Societal differences.
B. Intergroup development.
C. Survey feedback.* Q.47 What may be particularly
D. Sensitivity training. necessary as part of the
training process where people
Q.45 What OD technique are working in another
involves changing the country?
attitudes, stereotypes, and A. E-learning
perceptions that work groups B. Discovery learning.
have about each other? C. Cross-cultural training.
A. Team building. D. Activist learning.*
B. Intergroup development.*
C. Survey feedback. Q.48 Assembly-line
D. Sensitivity training. technology is changing
dramatically as organizations
Q.46 Before using the same ____________.
OD techniques to implement A. Develop new products for
behavioral changes, especially the market.
across different countries, B. Replace human labor with
managers need to be sure robots.*
C. Replace old manually knowledge, skill, or ability a
controlled machines with training issue or from a
newer machines. motivational or work design
D. Find new markets for their problem is known as
products. A. Person analysis.
B. Personality analysis
Q.49 Development refers to C. Profit analysis.
learning opportunities D. Development analysis.*
directed towards
helping_____________ grow Q.52 Coaching,
A. Employees. Apprenticeships, Job rotation,
B. Employers. Job instruction training are
C. Supervisors. * some of _______.
D. Managers. A. On the job Techniques.
B. Off the job Techniques
Q.50 ____involves C. Inbound works.*
Organizational and Task D. Outbound activities
analysis. Q.53_________helps to
A. Training Assessment.* Understand different functions
B. Need Assessment of the organization.
C. Policy Assessment. A. Job nature.
D. Learning Assessment. B. Job rotation.*
C. Job revolution.
Q.51 Determining whether D. Job enhancement.
performance deficiencies
result from a lack of
Q.54 ____refer to training B. Tuition centre.
methods that require the C. Assessment centre
trainee to be actively involved D. Application centre*
in learning.
A. Hands on learning. Q.57 Sensitivity training is
B. Jobless learning otherwise known as ____.
C. Self learning.* A. Simulation training
D. Visual learning. B. Laboratory training.
C. Project training
Q.55 ____________ involves D. Behavioral Training.*
collecting of information and
providing feedback to Q.58 Multiple management
employees about their method is also known as
behaviour, communication ______
styles and skills. A. Junior board.
A. Assessment. B. Senior board.*
B. Evaluation. C. Trainers board
C. Estimation. D. Executive board.
D. Data Collection*
Q.59 __________refer to
Q.56 The ___________is a relationships, problems,
process in which multiple demands, tasks, or other
raters or evaluators evaluate features that employees face
employee's performance on a in
number of exercises. their jobs
A. Assurance centre. A. Job enhancement.
B. Job enrichment
C. Job experiences.* Q.63 An interactive,
D. Job encashment. instructor-led approach where
the instructor and employee
Q.60 GAFO stands for _____. meet in a classroom for a
A. Go Away and Find Out.* specific duration of time in a
B. Get Along and Figure Out. common location
C. Go Abroad and Find Out A. Face to face training.
D. Go After Foolish Opinioners. B. Group process.
C. Updation training*
Q.61 WBT stands for D. Ulterior training
_________.
A. Wide Base Training.* Q.64 Understanding of adult
B. Web Based Training. learning skills in feedback
C. World Class Based Training. writing electronic systems and
D. Webster Bold Training. preparing objectives focus on
_________ role.
Q.62 Factual or procedural A. Strategic role
information that supports a B. Administrative role
person doing a particular job C. Development role*
after initial learning has D. Analysis role
occurred is nothing but ____.
A. Reference documentation. Q.65 The process of
B. Research documentation.* examination a training
C. Record management program is called________.
D. Review process. A. Training evaluation.
B. Training-need analysis. A. Competitive framework
C. Training method B. Strategic framework
identification.* C. Administrative framework*
D. Training module designing. D. Legal framework.

Q.66 _____________is a reactive Q.69 It refers to the process

process used to determine if trainingis
A. Training& Development necessary.
B. Training* A. Task assessment.
C. Development B. Need assessment.*
D. Learning C. Training assessment.
D. Development orientation.
Q.67 _______is a proactive
process. Q.70 It involves identifying the
A. Training& Development* important tasks and
B. Training knowledge, skill, and
C. Development behaviors that need to be
D. Learning emphasized in training for
employees to complete their
Q.68 Training results in the tasks.
development of those skills A. Task Analysis.
and competencies in B. Organizational analysis
employees that are unique C. Need Analysis.
and superior to competitors, D. Development analysis.*
to competitive advantage is
nothing but.
Q.71 __________ is the simplest Q.74 Wide range of abilities
unit of work and involves very and attributes possessed by
elementary movement. people are called as
A. Position A. Management.
B. Task. * B. Human Resources.*
C. Job. C. Entrepreneur
D. Micro motion. D. Intreprenuer

Q.72 Which one of the Q.75 Deployment of which

following becomes a creative resource is difficult to master.
factor in production? A. Human.
A. Land. B. Land.
B. Capital.* C. Capital. *
C. Consumers. D. Natural.
D. Human Resources.
Q.76 The focus of Human
Q.73 People cast in the role of Resource Management
contributors to production are revolves around.
called. A. Machine.
A. Capitalist.* B. Motivation. *
B. Land owners. C. Money.
C. Human Resources D. Men.
D. Consumers.
Q.77 Quality oriented
organization primary concern
centers around
A. Coordination.
B. Communication Q.81 Union function arises as
C. Human Resources a result of employees
D. Discipline* A. Problem of communication
B. Longing for belonging*
Q.78 Quality goals require C. Dissatisfaction.
alignment with D. Change in technology.
A. Production.
B. Human Resources. * Q.82 Which one is not the
C. Finance. specific goal of human
D. Purchase. resource management?
A. Attracting applicants.
Q.79 Demand for human B. Separating employees.*
resources and management is C. Retaining employees.
created by. D. Motivating employees
A. Expansion of industry
B. Shortage of labor. Q.83 Identify which one is an
C. Abundance of capital added specific goal of human
D. Consumer preferences* resource management
A. Retraining.
Q.80 Management function B. Learning.
arises as a result of _____. C. Unlearning *
A. Consumer preferences D. Separating
B. Abundance of capital.*
C. Expansion of industry.
D. Shortage of labor.
Q.84 Identify the top most A. Productivity. *
goal of human resource B. Production.
management. C. Sales increase.
A. Legal compliance. D. Increase in profits
B. Competitive edge.
C. Work force adaptability.* Q.88 Responding to
D. Productivity. employees and involving
them in decision making is
Q.85 To achieve goals referred to as
organizations require A. Quality of work life.*
employees _________. B. Autonomy.
A. Control. C. Empowerment.
B. Direction. D. Reaction.
C. Commitment. *
D. Cooperation Q.89 A top manager of a
chocolate bar manufacturer
Q.86 Human resource asks for a report on how a
management helps improve. new competing chocolate bar
A. Production. * is being advertised. This is an
B. Productivity. example of
C. Profits. A. Employee research.*
D. Power B. Management research.
C. Management consulting.
Q.87 The amount of quality D. Marketing research
output for amount of input
means.
Q.90 All of the following are recognition of employment
phases of career development status and performance. All of
except. the following are forms of
A. Performance Phase. direct compensation except.
B. Direction Phase.* A. Base Pay.
C. Assessment Phase. B. Variable Pay.
D. Development Phase. C. Statutory Benefits.
D. Stock Benefits.*
Q.91 Performance Appraisal is
a primary HRM process that Q.93 Groups can be rewarded
links employees and in a Pay for Performance plan
organizations and provides in all of the following ways
input for other processes except.
through these means A. Gain sharing.
A. Identification, B. Bonus. *
Measurement, Management. C. Awards.
B. Assessment, Direction, D. Merit
Development
C. Recruitment, Selection, Q.94 Benefits that are
Onboarding* required by law to provide to
D. Skill, Effort, Responsibility. all employees are called
A. Medical Benefits.
Q.92 Total compensation is all B. Direct Benefits.
forms of direct and indirect C. Involuntary Benefits.
compensation paid or D. Statutory Benefits.*
provided to the employee in
Q.95 Recently who has been especially the need for more
appointed as an Executive specialization, the Reserve
Director of RBI? Bank created some new
A. Deepak Mohanty departments, merged others,
B. Deepak Singhal* and reorganized all into which
C. Jasbir Singh of the following clusters?
D. Deepali Pant Joshi 1. Monetary Policy and
Research
Q.96 How many Members are 2. Regulation and Risk
there on BIS Board of Management
Directors including Chairman 3. Supervision and Inclusion
and Vice Chairman? 4. Financial Markets and
A. 19 Infrastructure
B. 20 5. Human Resources and
C. 21* Operations.
D. 22 A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2, 3 and 5
Q.97 RBI has how many C. Only 1, 3 and 4
Offices? D. All*
A. 4*
B. 5 Q.99 As on June 2015 RBI has
C. 21 approximately for many
D. 22 employees?
A. 15,000
Q. 98 To respond to its B. 17,000*
changing responsibilities, C. 19,000
D. 21,000

Q.100 In January 2015, the

Central Statistics Office (CSO)
released a new series on
India’s national accounts. The
distinguishing features of the
new series are:
1. Updating the base year
from 2004-05 to 2011-12
2. Improved coverage of
corporate activity
3. Use of results from the
latest surveys, including on
activity in the unorganized
sector.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All*