TESTING QUESTION BANK

1) Which of the following option specifies the correct order during Test Execution :

a) Test Plan
b) Test Completion
c) Defect Management
d) Test Recording
e) Test Execution
f) Retest
g) Test Preparation

ANS : a,g,d,e,c,b,f.

2) Which of the following is the best source of input for User Acceptance Testing?

a) Program Specification.
b) User Requirement.
c) Client Requirement.
d) Expected Result.

3) Which of the following are testing criteria for Transition Assembly Tested
applications?

ANS: a) Code compliance with standard.

b) The Product/Performance test environments are fully installed and configured.

4) An Automated testing framework is a set of Automated guidelines which help in :

a) Less Test Structuring.

b) Extent of Reusability.

5) Choose the correct flow of Test Execution :

 a) Orient team and review execution model.
b) Execute scripts and regression tests.
c) Access reports and manage execution results.
d) Perform setup for next execution day/cycle.
e) Confirm final metrics of exit criteria.
f) Close out test execution.
g) Sign off test execution results.

ANS: e,a,d,b,c,g,f. (COPEASC)

6) Capacity Planning is front end of Capacity Management.

Performed for long term (Annually, Monthly, Quarterly).
ANSWER:
Diagram Flow:

a) Estimate Services and Components.

b) Define Solution approaches.
c) Model Capacity.
d) Select solution.
e) Define buffer and replenish level.
f) Define monitoring parameters and threshold limits.
g) Evaluate the ability to meet SLAs.
h) Identify and implement actions to resolve SLA (Service Level Agreement) gaps.
i) Notify demand management of any constraint.
j) Document the Capacity Plan.
k) Obtain Stakeholder Signoff.

7) A software developed with no defects is a 100% Defect Free Software.

ANS: FALSE.

8) Applied Statistics process :

ANS:

a) Define Parameters and Values.

b) Prepare and generate Test scripts.
c) Analyse and adjust coverage.
d) Confirm expected results and scripts.
e) Review and Signoff
f) Update Test execution plan.
 9) Benefits of Orthogonal Array Testing technique.

ANS: a) Increases overall productivity.

b) Analysis of results takes less time due to low number of Test Conditions.

c) Lower Implementation time.

d) Less execution time.

e) 95% of the code.

Name of the Orthogonal Array follows the pattern LRuns(LevelsFactors).

10) Automation Framework comes under which stage?

ANS: Design Stage.

11) Why not TDD?

 Difficult to follow Functional Tests.
 Design impacts.
 False sense of security.
 Additional Complexity.
 Difficult to create original tests.
 Increases project costs.
 Continuous Tweaking.
 Management support is essential.

12) In which phase of Agile, system is transitioned to production and Final & Acceptance
tests are performed?

A) Production
B) Initiation
C) End-Game
D) Construction

13) Common challenges in test design:

ANS:

a) Too many scripts per plan.

 b) Quality
c) Efficiency
d) Lack of coverage measurements

14) Why Applied Statistics is used in Test design for Test Planning?
a) Efficiency
b) Quality
c) Precise coverage measurements.

15) Benefits of using Applied Statistics.

a) Addresses the common challenges in test design.
b) Provides a structured approach in test design.
c) Provides actionable inputs to determine the amount of testing required.

16) Why TDD.

a) Small Steps.
b) More productive.
c) Easier to find and fix the defects.
d) Constant Feedback.
e) Looser coupling.
f) More focused classes.
g) Forces Critical Analysis and Design.
h) Reducing debugging time.
i) Cleaner interfaces.

17) Performance testing is likely to cover different types of Performance Tests such as :
a) Load Test
b) Stress Test
c) Stability or Endurance test
d) Throughput
e) Baseline
f) Failover
g) Regression
h) Batch

It is also called as Test scope

Performance Approach document:

a) Test Scope
b) Test Metrics
c) Test Tools
d) Key dates and Deliverables.

18) What depends upon Business Requirements linked with Error handling?
a) Positive Testing
b) Negative Testing
c) External
d) Error Guessing

19) Identify techniques used for Regression Testing from list below :
a) Regression test selection
b) Modular Test Selection
c) Retest all
d) Prioritization of Test cases.
e) Dataflow Technique.

20) Exploratory Testing is NOT a Software Testing Technique.

ANS: TRUE

21) What are the 4 Levels of Coverage in White Box Testing?

a) Statement
b) Branch
c) Condition
d) Path

22) What testing stages in the V-Model use White Box Testing?
a) Unit Testing
b) Assembly Testing

Whereas in Black Box Testing, all stages except Unit Testing.

23) White Box Testing is required for :
a) Finding Typological errors and Syntax checking
b) Finding design errors.
c) Finding the logical errors creeping into the work.

24) Static Testing (Dry Run Testing) types :

a) Walk through
b) Technical Review
c) Inspection

25) Which of the following is a traceability that identifies the relationship of related work
products for the purpose of avoiding Potential conflicts?
a) Vertical Traceability.
b) Horizontal Traceability
c) Bi-Directional Traceability.

 Vertical  High level BR High level Design  Detailed  Code.

 Bi-Directional Work Product.

26) What are the benefits of SDLC?

a) Guides the resources on the SD
b) Form a common understanding
c) Avoid constances
d) Avoid the old code and fix process
e) Help to meet conflict demands

27) How to select an Automation tool?

a) Problem Management
b) Test execution scripts
c) Testing work products

28) What are the requirements in Application Test requirements?

a) Understand the business process that the application needs to support.
 29) What are the Benefits of MB7?
a) Improves test quality
b) Help detect requirement defects
c) Facilitates evolution of Requirements
d) Reduces testing cost and time

30) Best source of input for UAT

a) User Requirement

31) Developing tests based on program and programmer’s weak points is known as :

ANS: Risk Based Testing

32) Disadvantages of Agile

33) What should be considered while developing a Testing Methodology
34) Imagine A,B,C,D four models  Retesting
35) Lowers the cost of Testing

ANS: V-Model

36) Test approach document contains which of the following sections:

ANS: All of the above.

37) Breaking values into chunks

ANS: Equivalence Partitioning

38) Project Management Diagram

ANS: Plan and Mobilize

39) Working Model

ANS: Prototype

40) Benefits of Testing Environment

a) Testing upgrades & new features
b) Training users on new systems before roll out
 c) Testing new forms, new scripts and other enhancements before, not during
deployment.
d) Potential backup system for production system.

41) Interactions and integrations are a major source of defects.

ANS: TRUE

42) Orthogonal Array Technique:

The fault model that supports this technique’s usefulness is,

 Most Defective interaction are not complex but simple interactions

 There are many combinations of objects, components, options or setting and some
can be missed.
 Random selection of values lead to inefficient tests.

43) Hurricane and Typhoon are which types of testing?

ANS: External Testing

44)

44) Data Identification, Conditioning & Population is given in which part of Test Data
Environment?

ANS: Define Test Data Management Approach.

Test Data Management Approach includes :

 Introduction
 Guiding Principles
 TDM Approach
 TDM Tools
 Test Environment Requirements
 Test data upload/Refresh Approach
 Test tool requirements.

45) What are the elements of poorly managed Test Environment?

a) Unskilled or Temporary resources
b) Following poorly defined infrastructure
c) Using old version of software
d) Using Non-Licenced software
e) Lack of Management or Ownership

46)

47) Under what ways can we cover the cost of testing without reducing its
effectiveness?

a) Stage Containment
b) V Concept of testing
c) Testing each test phase, not just the program itself.
d) All of the above

48) Which SDLC Model reflects a Working model that is fully equivalent to the
component of the product?
ANS: Prototype Model

49) When is a Test Strategy typically created?

ANS:

 Solution Planning Phase.

 This deliverable may be embedded as a section within the overall Delivery
Strategy.

50) Plan Assembly Test is done in which test?

ANS: Analyse Test

51)

51) When do we prepare and finalize the Test Cycle Schedule (TCCS)?

ANS: In prepare Test Scripts and Data.

52) You must choose a tool NOT based on its popularity, but because it fits your Project
Requirements.

ANS: True

53) UAT is devised to answer the important question Does the system enable Users to
do their jobs.

ANS: True

54) What are the advantages of using Common Test Data across test stages:
a) Reduces the burden on developers to create their own data.
b) Simplifies Regression Testing
c) Reduced the time spent in Test Preparation Activities.
55)

56)

57) Automation Framework comes under which stage?

ANS: Design Stage

58) Performance Testing is likely to cover multiple types of Performance Test :

Load, Stress, Stability/Endurance, Throughput, Baseline, Failover, Regression, Batch.

They are also called “Test Scope”

Performance Approach Document :

 Test Scope
 Test Metrics
 Test Tools
 Key-dates and Deliverables.

59) What depends on Business Requirements linked with Error Handling?

a) Positive Testing
b) Negative Testing
c) External

60) Test Closure Memo contains :

a) Number of runs executed
b) Number of Defects identified including a list of all defects that are still open
c) Actions that are being taken to address Open defects
d) All of the above.

61) What is the Entry criteria for Transition Assembly Tested Application?
a) Product Test Team receive all assembled and tested components.
b) Application passed Assembly test
c) The product tested environments are fully installed and configured.
d) The Assembly test team tested all Assembled components.
e) Code complies with Standards.

62) The best source of input to find UAT.

ANS: User Requirement.

 63) In what phase is Solution and Approach defined :

ANS: Project Planning / Solution planning?

64) Data items that the project will require in order to test the application is called :
a) Data Mining
b) Data Acquisition
c) Stubs
d) Data Identification

65) One user… Multiple Iterations

ANS: Baseline

66)

67) Data Acquisition  Preparation Phase

68) Downloads and Uploads using production data :

 a) Mock
b) Mining
c) Extract
d) None of the above

69) Defects with steps open and actions to be taken :

ANS: Test Closure Memo.

70) Discrete  Plan and Support.

71) Project Manager to Tester, which testing?

ANS: Smoke Testing

72) Regression Test Techniques

ANS: Retest etc.

73) Poorly Managed test Environment is due to:

ANS: Unskilled staff.

74) Model Based

a) Use Case
b) State Transition
c) Boundary
d) Decision Tables

75) Automated Testing Framework: They are set of Automation guidelines which help in
:
a) Amount of Reusability
b) List test structuring
c) More time spent on training for usage of tool
d) Involvement of data wherever appropriate

76) Which of the following are Testing criteria for Transition Assembly Tested
Application:
a) Code compliance with standards
b) Product/Performance test environment is fully installed

77) Login with Valid Credentials  Business Requirements.

78) Equivalence Partitioning is done in the  Analysis Phase.

79) Benefits of Model Based Testing:

a) Improves test quality
b) Helps detect requirement defects
c) Facilitates evolution of requirement
d) Reduces testing cost and time in Maintenance Phases.

80)

81) Content of Query Log

a) Log No. of errors
b) Log Defects
c) Logged No. of resources
d) Logged Key Issues.

82) Requirement Testability  Test Analysis.

Requirement Traceability  Test Implementation.
 83) Which of the following types of Traceability identifies the origin of items:
ANS: Vertical Traceability

84) Which of the factors are monitored in the Interpretation phase of Exploratory
Testing:
a) Test Coverage
b) Risk
c) Test execution log
d) Issue, Queries
e) All of the above

85) In which phase are intention and approach defined:

ANS: Solution Planning Phase/Project Planning.

86) Data Items that the project will require in order to test the application is:

ANS: Data Identification.

87) Performance of an Application is ensured by:

a) Planning and Designing
b) Testing and Tuning
c) Modelling and Forecasting

88) SCM is related to People Management.

89) Advantages of common data test:

a) Improves testing productivity
b) Reduces the burden from the Developer to create their own data.
c) Simplifies Regression testing
d) Reduced time spent in preparation activities.

90) Weaknesses of V-Model:

a) No Risk Analysis
b) No iteration of phases
 91) Weaknesses of Waterfall Model
92) Benefits of ALM

93) Planning is related to a Single Delivery Date in which model?

ANS: Waterfall Model.

94) A defective test is more dangerous than a defective product:

TRUE

95) Who can perform UAT?

ANS: Users and Super-Users

96) Which two phases are NOT present in Discrete Testing but are present in Embedded
Testing?

ANS: Plan and Support.

97) Need for TDD:

a) More focussed classes
b) Process Critical analysis and Design

98) SCM is related to :

a) Quality Management
b) People Management
c) Change

99) Benefits of ALM

100) Which phase of testing ensures Testability Test Implementation:
ANS: Analysis
 101)

102) Login with Valid Credentials  Business requirements

103) Automated using framework, are set of Automation guidelines which help in :

a) Test Structuring
b) Extent of Reusability
c) More time spent on training for usage of tool
d) Involvement of data wherever appropriate

NILESH’S QUESTION BANK

1) Which of the following are entry criteria as for Transition Assembly Tested
Application?
a) Product Test Team received all assembled & tested components.
b) Code compliance with standard.
c) Product Oblique Performance test environment is fully installed configured.
d) Assembly team tested all assembled components.

2) Equivalence Partitioning is planned in which stage?

ANS: Analyse stage.

3) Benefits of Model Based Testing

a) Improves test quality.
b) Helps detect requirement defects.
c) Facilitates evolution of requirements.
d) Reduces testing cost and time in Maintenance phases.
 4)

5) Regression Testing techniques:

a) Retest- All Technique
b) Regression Test Selection Technique
c) Dataflow Technique
d) Test Case Prioritization Technique.

6) Poorly Managed test environment :

a) Non-licensed software.
b) Unskilled or temporary resources on staff.
c) Following poorly defined infrastructure.
d) Using old version of software.
e) Lack of management or ownership.

7) Model Based Test techniques

a) State
b) Use-Case
c) Decision
d) Boundary

8) In Automated Testing Framework, there are set of Automation guidelines which

helps in:
a) Less test structuring.
b) Extent of Reusability.
 c) More time spent on training for using of tool.
d) Involvement of data wherever appropriate.

9) Query Log :
a) Log
b) Number of errors.
c) Log defects.
d) Log number of resources
e) Log user Questions & Issues.

10) Valid Credentials to Login  Business Requirement.

11) What defined what testing technique we should use?

a) How confident the tester is to use that particular technique.
b) Objective of testing
c) Whether there is a tool to support the technique.
d) How appropriate is the technique to test that particular application.

12) In which phase are solution and approach defined?

ANS: Project Planning approach.

13) Data item that the project will require in order to test the application is called:
a) Data Mining
b) Data Acquisition
c) Data stub
d) Data Identification

14) What is Baselining?

ANS: One user… Multiple iterations.

15) Developing test based on program’s or programmer’s weak points is:

a) Error Guessing
b) Risk Based
c) Negative Testing
d) Exceptional Handling
 16) Need for TDD:
a) More focus classes.
b) Follows Critical Analysis & Design.

17) SCM (Supply Change Management) is related with:

a) Quality Management.
b) Change Management.
c) People Management.
d) Risk Management.

18) Advantage of Common Test Data:

a) Reduces the burden on developers to create their own data.
b) Simplifies Regression Testing
c) Reduced the time spent in Test Preparation Activities.

19) Planning is oriented to a single delivery date  Waterfall Model.

20) Benefits of ALM:

a) Uses single dashboard to plan and track projects and releases for predictability.
b) Manage and create traceability between requirements, tests, defects, code
changes and build management system tasks.
c) Unify functional, performance, security, and quality management.
d) Increase visibility with milestones and KPIs to better align business and IT.
e) Allow Testing Teams to provision and deploy a test lab themselves in a hybrid
delivery environment.

21) Weaknesses of V-Model:

a) No Risk Analysis.
b) No iteration of phases.
c) Difficult task tracing system.
d) Rigorous testing effort.
 22) Which of the phase of testing ensures Testability?
a) Test Implementation
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) All of the above.

23) Which of the phase of testing ensures Traceability?

ANS: Test Implementation.

24) THIS ensures “Design and build the Right system”, while THIS ensures that “The
system works as designed”

ANS: Verification & Validation.

25) Which of the following factors all monitored in the Interpretation phase of
Exploratory testing?
a) Test Coverage
b) Risk
c) Test execution log
d) Issue, Queries
e) All of the above

26) Data Acquisition falls in which phase of Test Data Management Approach?
a) Plan Phase
b) Preparation Phase
c) Execution phase
d) All of the above

27) Performance Engineering of an application is ensured by:

a) Planning & Design
b) Testing and Tuning
c) Modelling & Forecasting
d) All of the above.

28) Discreet Testing has what phases in it?

ANS: Plan & Support.

 Non HSFP Test Questions

1) If customer requirements are incomprehensible, then which testing is used?

a) Waterfall Model
b) RAD
c) Prototype Model
d) Agile Model
e) V-Model.

2) What induce risks?

a) New Technology
b) New automation
c) …….
d) All of the above.

3) Which option is right for Peer Review?

ANS: It is done by….

4) When all main functionality are checked & critical bugs are fixed, the testing is
stopped.

ANS: True

5) What is the Entry Criteria for Transition Assembly Tested Application?

a) Product Test Team receives all assembled and tested components.
b) Application passed Assembly test
c) The product tested environments are fully installed and configured.
d) The Assembly test team tested all Assembled components.
e) Code complies with Standards.

6) Regression Test is also used to test the defects rising due to change in the Test
Environment.

ANS: True
 7) Waterfall Model Drawbacks:

ANS: Requirements are needed at the beginning itself.

8) Incremental Waterfall Model drawbacks:

a) Requires good planning, design and careful partitioning of the product.
b) Requires well-defined interfaces between the increments, specially during the
simultaneous development of interfaces.
c) Requires early definition of a fully functional product to define the increments.

9) Retesting is one answer.

10) What steps are in Test Approach?

a) Stage Containment
b) Test overview.
c) ….
d) All of the above.

11) In which phase is Test Approach made?

ANS: Test Analysis.

12) A,B and C are modules of a project. Defect is found in C and it gets fixed. What
kind of testing should one perform?

ANS: Retest.

13) Post release check is done by whome?

ANS: Client.

14) Agile Method Weaknesses:

a) Constant client interaction means added time pressure on all stakeholders.
b) Flexibility to continuous change requests is needed to ensure the delivery of the
right product.

Advantages of Agile Method:

a) Possible to make changes in the project at any time to comply with the
requirements.
b) The incremental testing approach helps minimize risks.