Set No. -1 Question Booklet No. .... (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen) 7 Roll No. | Fol No. (Witte the digits irr words) .. a ‘al: 7 Seral No. of OMR Answer Sheet ... 22; Day and Date (Signature of Invigilator} INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only bluebisck bait-pelnt pen in the space above and on both sides of the OMA Answer Shest) 1. Within 30 minutes of the issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty “Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. 2. Do not bring any leose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. : A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided. Only the Answer Sheet will be evaluated, Wane pour. Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. 3. On the front the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provised on the bp ie by darkening the circles a the bottom. Aiso, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet No. and Set No. (ifany)on OMK sheet attd also Rall No. and OMR sheet No. on the Question it Any changes in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfairmeans, } Each question in this Booklet is followed by four altemative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Shect by darkening the appropriate circle in the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by ball-point pea as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Shect, 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken moze than one circle or darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish to a question, leave all the circles in the corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marks). TH. For totigh work, use the inner back page ofthe title caver and the blank page at the end of 12. Deposit only the OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test 33. Youarenot permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end of the ‘Lest, 14, If a candidate attempis to use any form of unfair means, he/she shall be |i bie c] punishment a the Unversity may detertine and tmpecr ca varareat PF lable to such Corre Prete fied 4 after oreerage oy fat aa fy | Total No. of Printed Pages : 40 SP eoFOR ROUGH WORK /%> ari & fag17U/103/31(Set - I) No. of Questions : 170 weit af vem : 170 Time :2 Hours } [Full Marks : 450 Waa i 2 wee] Uyrg: 450 Instruction : Rea: This paper consists of Objective Type Questions and is divided into Two Sections (I & I) as under : We per-oy asefteata vei oe anenfta 8 cen at evel (f aon ID % Peer &, seer fe Ne afta 8: {a) Section - I consists of 130 Objective Type Questions on General Awareness, Current Affairs, Common Legal Knowledge, Aptitude and Mental Abil ty. wes - 1 4 130 aghtecha me er am, emits Ave war Ae Sore, aPrefe ve refers atract oy oenita F (b) Section - I consists of 20 Objective Type Questions on (1) English Language and (11) Hindi Language. Wrs - 1 4 20 agteoda oe () si am oi GD Rah asl 3 aA safer & A candidate is required to attempt as many questions as he/she can of Section- Land Questions on ANY ONE of the TWO Language papers (I) English OR (2) Hindi in Section - 11. sree atte 2 PR arg ~ TaeT we — 11S (D atte aT UD RS are aS often vedt at ga ay Notel7te: (1) Answer as:many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unaitempted question, sftette sett ot gg ot ar WITT aHfOME | wes GET 3 (fF) sink ot BA sede mere Ger # Fee cor stp emer arta se aeaERRT st gh oretie ear erm (1) P.T.0.17UN03/31 (Set - 1) (2) If more than one allernative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. a vee tet eR HA ues} Aare wT Sioa Seen wet WR a] (3) Each question is followed by Four alternative answers (D, Q), (3) ane (4). Only one of these answers is correct. Select the correct answer anc record it against the relevant question by darkening the cizcle with Ball Point Pen in the Answer-Sheet, as per guidelines. sae we oan dois oR Ge 7a 2 HED, Q, @ ww qidat & aefer rr 2) SA A dea WH see A wel a) wel TTR HT TH Atre aa sad dda B saETA A aaa yer dt aT faterqene ata Fa (rte) BY are whigoe Ia gieT wT weed TAT SECTION -1 avs -1 4. The H.C-B. of two numbers is 11 and their L.C.M. is 7700. IF one of the number is 275, then the other is: 2h demaH a Fomoue 11 8 Ske Sar Towo%o 7700 B] HN TH WaT 27 ft aut den ert: (1) 279 (2) 283 (3) 308 (4) 318 2. The sumof two numbers is 528 and their H.CF. is 33. The number of such pairs is ze demal a ar 5288 ale Gra Boot 3381 Ta ws H Fert a qy2 Q) 3 (3) 4 ws 3. The largest number which divides 7147 and 252 to leave the same remainder in each caseis : ae ah weed ORGS 777 ats 252. A ar BH me ate GFT A HG A cee & ae er a9 Q) 15 @) 2 (35 4, What is the least number which when divided by 5, 6,8, 9, 12 gives remainder 1 ineach case and is completely divisible by 13? ae aah od Tem a, Bae 5, 6, 8, 9, 12. Rasa wea Om Be ATT A 1 ay xem ‘ es gas BAGS feats 8 . (1) 362 (2) 721 (3) 1801 (4) 3604 (2)17U/103/31{Set - 1) A boy was asked to multiply a number by 12. By mistake he multiplied the number by 21 and got his answer 63 more than the correct answer, The number was : We aed wh ye Ce wt 12 Syn eet oS ed wer Te) Te) a ae oe SET B21 Fan oem 8) a wa) wae S 63 ais omer ere Uhm & at ae Ke age: : () 7 . 28 QB) 9 @) 12 Ram went to a shop to buy 50'kg of rice, He buys.fwo varieties of rice which cost him Rs. 4.50 per kg and Rs. 5 per kg. He spends a total of Rs. 240. What was the quantity of cheaper rice bought by him ? (1) 20kg (2) 2kg 3) 30kg (4) 40 kg WR WS GaTF we S50 feet aa SHA ne) ase) wOR TAC wical 8 Ue 4.50 THE ft Prat afte gen 5 OR OR Rass ae aE Para 240 wrk ol ET 2) we oF She aren Pree ara eter 7 Q) 20 fret (2) 25 Pret (3) 30 fait (4) 40 fret) How many digits are required for numbering the pages of a book having 300 pages? S00 gst aA Gera d wel at geiot wey A Hel Sai a aneratsa BAB? (1) 299 (2) 492 (3) 789 (4) 792 | A man purchased 147 stamps of 60-paise and 35-paise. The total amoint he Spent was Rs. 68.20. How many 35-paise stamps were purchased by him ? Ge aver 7 60 ote 95 48S 147 Wid WES! GE FG 68.20 Bo ae fara | Bar 35 tS fart win WHE? Ooo ean (3) 76 (4) 80 Price of 5 chairs and 2 tables is Rs, 1350. Twrd chairs cost ae much as one table. What is the price of one chair and one table ? () Rs.350 (2) Rsi450 (3) Rs. 500 (4) Rs, 550 Beer 5 UR a aheertssagg ad, 21 aR or aR ae rf ue as 5 ART Hi an Her 8? (1) 350 69d (2) 450 wat @) S00 eat @- 550 er) {3} Pro.17UN03/31(Set - |) 10. The average of all odd numbers upto 100is : 100 Ht den gH AS ey tenet a stad & (a) Bi 2) 50 8) 495 (49, 44) The average of 100 numbers is 44. The average of these 100 numbers and four other new numbers is 30. The average of the four new numbers will be: 100 aia ae ohare 44 81-g7 100 stat ar ate ae GRR A sia arr ste 50 81 AR ae steel a7 othe ete: (a) 800 (2) 200 (3) 176 (4) 24 12. The average age of 5 members of a committee is the same asit was 3 years 280, because an old member has been replaced by a new member, The difference between the ages of ald and new member is : Q) 2 years (2) 4 years (3) 8 years (4) V5 years reo ged weer ah ad acer S athena oer S ore TH waa FS Tet A afer wah 8 wel eet Ah a a wee ah eA Tee oR AA eae wa A wo ci 8? @) 28 ) aah 3) 8a @) bas 13. Average of 15 numbers is 7, Out of them, the average of first 8 numbers is 605, and the average of last 8 numbers is 9.5. The middle numbers is: 15 vianot a ofa 7-81 ED yet 8 ceanett wr shea 605 & ote aiff 8 oT sitet 9.58, dh vex eer ah: @) 2 (2) 22 @B) B (4) 4 44. The average of 50 numbers is-28. If two numbers, namely 25 and 35 are discarded, then the average wf the remaining numbers is nearly : 50 gansta stree 28 81 ome al HEAR 25 aie 55 a wer 8a 8 ah iy teens a others ee: (1) 27.29 (2) 27.92 3) 29.27 ( 29.72 (4)16. 18. 19. 17UNOY31(Set - |) ‘Three-fourth of a number is more than two-third of the number by 5. The number is : feat aon wr dts cheng aed oy res a 5 aie wirer 8, a ae teen 2: (1) 72 (2) 62 (3) 84 (4) 48 A number is as much greater than 22 as is less than 72. Then the number is: Ue Hem 22 8 wend a omer 8 feet at 72-8 wm, ch ae eee q) 47 “ (2) 50 @) 52 (4) 104 + The sum of two numbers is 29 and the difference of their squares is 145. The difference between the numbers is : 3 efemait or ahr 29 & ote oad come a oF 145 2] Senator # RR an ‘ () 13 (2) 5 G8) 8 4) u Two numbers are less than a third number by 30% ahd 37% respectively. How much percent is the second number less than the first ? werd chet Fen 8 aa 30% ate 97% HH S| GRR Wear wert tear 2 ad afta a eh ? Bow () 10% (2) 15% (3) 20% (4) 25% If the price of eraser is reduced by 25%, a person can buy J more erasers for a Tupee. How many erasers are available for a rupee ? oe wae wh are 25 wit am aR ora ot we afd oe wed A a eas ore wat wat 817 wel F fert was ameter #? m8 Q 6 B)4 (4) 2 . A-number is first increased by 20% and then reduced by 20%. What would be the percentage change in theswmber 7 (2) 0% 2) 2% decrease 3) 4% decrease (A) 4% inexeage ve trom FY sect 20 afters Tyrer crear & ate fhe 20 wie ere . stom 3 Rest aes REIT TH? Sarg: a Q) 0% @) 2% wt (3) 4% A (2 4% ae (s ) PTO.17U/103/31 (Sat - I) 2. 22, 23. 24, An ore contains 12% copper. How many kg of ore are required to get 69 kg of copper ? (1) 424kg (2) 575kg (3) 828kg (4) 1736 kg em aren #12 wrens car 2) 69 fara afar gre wer S fey fare Root see FT orerara Bel? (1) 424 Reel @) 375 Rect 3) 828 Pra (4) 1736 Peat ‘A man sells an article at a loss of 10%. If he bought it at 20% less and sold it for Rs. 85 more, then he could have gained 40%. What is the cost price of thearticle ? (1) Rs.200 (2) Rs, 225 (3) Rs. 250 (4) Rs. 270 ew wafer CH RE BY 10 Pers a a awe G1 OAR ae 20 wie wm F wee She $0 Soa Sore # der @ ah S40 vided or gare eer B) oe NG aT ET wre? (1) 200 Sea Q) 225 ort (3) 250 waa (4) 270 ea ‘A man cells tea at 10% profit and ases a weight which is 20% Jess than the actual measure. His gain percent is : Tw afte 10 wider an S er aT eet 8 oe wee gor A 20 wT HT aan Hr game weer 8 dr ad Gah ar gfe ST (Q) 30% (2) 35% 3) 37.50% (4) 39%. A shopkeeper bought pens at the rate of 8 pens for Rs, 34 and sold therm at 12 pens for Rs. 57. The number of pens, that he should sell to have a protil of Rs. 900, must be: gw Goren BAH we A yO eater FA 1H 97 wR a a eg sh 0 GON OT HAT GHG fg Ars BT SH a? ny 1400 (2) 1600 @) 1800 (@) 2000 (8)25. 27. 17u/103/31(Sat - 1) 6 men and 8 boys can do a piece of work in 10 days while 26 men and 48 boys finish it in 2 days. 15 men and 20 boys will finish it in : () 4 days Q) 5days @) 6 days @ 7 days 6 Yeu ote § aed ye ori ai 10 fer an wa & cal 26 ger ole 48 ted TY 2 fea HE eet 81 15 gee ay 20 aed arr wt fa? ae BT wR? (1) 4f& Q SR @) of (4) 7 fat A car covers four successive 3 km stretches at 10 km/hr, 20 km/he, 30 km/hr and 60 km/hr respectively. Tis average speed over this distance is: @) 10 km/hr Q) 20 km/hr 3) Bkm/he . @) 30 km/br yo on dit Petter & ae gas wr: 10 fries afte, 20 Pradtee wftrict, 30 Rotter miter ate 60 fraviex wfttier A sa ax yore a ge Qh A stu wR an 2? . (1) 10 teeter after (2) 20 ferctter steer 3) 25 feraitter sfeerer Gyo Rattie wieder A train without stoppages travels at the rate of 50 km/hr and with stoppages it travels at 45 km/hr. How many minutes does the train stop on an average per hour ? «2 (1) Sminutes (2) 6minutes (3) Smimutes: (4) 10 minutes wm tert for ward @ 90 Pothex Wier S ste seat B are 45 Panter sfteicr Si creel 81 tran heer yer we Heme want £7 () 58 2. gfe @) 8 frac 4) 10P RE The total cost of flooring a room at Rs, 8.50 per square metér ts Rs, 510. if the length of the room is BIN Theegadith is: (75m Q) 85m 3) 105m 44) 125m 2 eR} we we BD OT UR ee Heese ed a BRA wad Bex tO OHM stag eo, Fo & om (1) 75 Ate 2) 85 ay (3) 10544 (7) (4) 125 ste P19,17U/103/31 (Set - 1) 29. aw. 32. 33. 34. Af the radius of a circle is increased by 6%, then its area is increased by : aR Ye ge} Pear A owt ap Rar ard, a saw Aner er TET > (1) 036% {2} 3.6% Q) 12.36% (4) 36% The length of a rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it may be able to graze an area of 9856 m? is (1) 56m (2) 64m (3) 88m () 168 m ye ra By era TAR wa 2 der a firm oe 9356 mi ob dawe A wet ara al ora? (1) 56 Aee (0) 64 tex (3) 88 eR (4) 168 Hex The earth isat the largest distance from the sun on (i) June21" (2) Jamuaty 3” (3) July 4" (4) September 23" godt wah 8 Pre fe eed corer a) we att 87 Q) 2am ar QO) 3 aaa er (3) Axgend BY (A) 23 Reeve iY Which o/ the following is an example of Midlatitade desert ? (1) Sahara desert (0) Arabian desert (3) Thar desert (@) Patagonia desert fre 4S aca nea seit aT TeTeeT z 7 (Q) TERT eye (2) sRfaes EAA aR wy (4) terran rey Molten rock below the surface of the earth is called : (i) Basalt (2) Laccolith (3) Lava (4) Magma gpa a ae A Rd gE ert eer ; Q) aware 2) wranfeer Q) err 4) St «the following rivers, which one ig the longest ? a a Krishna (3) Mahanadi 4) Narmada Oe x a rat aad THE? fae Re 2 3) Fea ater yy sree oem 8 * (8)37. 38. 17U/103/31(Set - 1) Diesel locomotives are manufactured at : (1) Kapurthala (2) Perambur @) Varanasi @) Jamshedpur Rat & Storer Fort a wey wei eee? (1) Ree Q) tray @) aRPRI . @ TRAE The special paper required for printing of currency notes by the Security Presses in the country in manufactured at: (1) “Hyderabad Q) Kolkata (3) Hoshangabad @ Dewas eee Ser grey se wT ra APE armor wr Fer A al acer wher #? () tere 0) Beret @) deimare () a The central banking functions in India are performed by the (1) Central Bank (2) State Bank of India (9) Reserve Bank of India (4) Both (2) and (3) oeare Se wT oR aT A fad ae rar rare? Q) ota te Q) Re des ate afteur (3) Rord de site efter (4) ster (2) atte (3) dst The existence. of a Parallel Economy of Black Money: (1) Makes the economy more competitive (2) Makes the monetary policies less effective (3) Ensures a better distribution of income and wealth (4 Ensures increasing productive investment BRM Bl TAMIR skeaaen gr afk () sefarner ot vatat oT wrt & 2) aie A at wet & 3) amr ate a & deere Reve BT homer sect 2 (4) Serra # PRETO RE BP RaT ate. {9} Pro,17U/103/31(Set - 1) 3. 40. at. The ‘Uruguay Round! negotiations resulted in the establishment of : () NAIO (2) OECD (3) WHO @) WTO Voy wavs’ Sarat F aRorerE flea RTT BE ? (1) eo Go fo site “(atte go to Sto (3) Ip Tao sito (4) seyp go ato Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India? (1) DrBNRao ” @) DrBRAmbedkar (3) KM Munshi (8) MC Setalvad aga Gt tert war & Prey 4 ahs eaaPa GereeTR Ft ? (1) Zo Ho To Ta (2) So lo aiRo arASTT (3) bo Wao Bet (Q qo He Uwars India became a Sovereign democratic republic ont (1) Aug. 15,1947 2) Jan. 30, 1948 (3) Jan. 26, 1950 (4) Nov. 26, 1929 eRe wa UREA clef WeRTE TAT? (L) 15 oT, 1947 a (2) 30 srr, 1948 aT G) 26 s7=%, 1950 #T (4) 26 Faraz, 1929 @I Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States ? (1) Third (2) Fifth (3) Seventh (4) Ninth saree eftare vat fret orgeett 4 RAH Tat A gah ofa SHEET TF fram reat) Pass saat & ? Q) qa (2) srt (3) sredt (4) aay Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of (1) religion (2) caste (3) population (4) colour ches Hs SETA fre eve TE HURT BCT? (4) af () safe Q) SHEe (Qe (10)44, 47. 17U/103/31(Set - 1) Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's Rule promulgated on any State in India? Wer 3 fra agate A cea At ft wor. a ages ees ar yar Ben oT a? ) 356 2) 352 (@) 360 (@) 370 Which of the following appointments is xot made by the President of India ? (1)' Speaker of the Lok Sabha (2) Chief Justice of India @). Chief of the Air Force (4) Chief of the Army fra a a aaah Pye aa B reoh ar ae A ant 8? (1) deren ar eee Q) ARE ar ger sant @) weet or gfe (4) or on gaan ‘The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by: () indirectly 2) mostly nominated (3) directly as well as indirectly (4) the members of the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of State TeRMT & Yoel or gre sare: (1) aircuer Prater err Q) Sarre weer aRT (3) sancaey Ta emer Pata eet (4) Tot BT Rerrerat of FET Ree & wee Ere The time gap between two,Sessions of the Parliament should not exceed : (1) 3:months (2} 6months (3) Smonths (4) year ane & ot wal & dhe or serra Pree corer aa thn Ba 2 (1) oa a (ome a @) 97S @ rae (ny PTO.17U/103/31(Set - I) 48. 50. 51. 52. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir? () Chief Minister of the State (2) Chief Justice of the High Court of the State (3) President (4) Prime Minister area 3 aero a Paget Br oe F ? (1) Toa or RE at Q wed wea amas oF get arent @) wee (4) wea The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the States for the first time after the elections of fora gata} arg sem ae aha A Toe A yaa INA wt Ta? (1) 1967 @) 1971 (3) 1977 (4) 1985 Which one of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India deals with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? ay aan Q) 44" @) 73" (a) 86" feed @ aren dian a veka darth } geile & fry oF wate 2? () 42 (2) dact (3) 738 (4) sect Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in ada iftara ¥ veer Fehrs Ga aT? (1) 1950 (2) 1951 (3) 1952 (4) 1953 Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor crossing in the Parliament ? a (2) 44" (3) 52" (4) 53 ae 8-3 ns es ae mT eA ART FR WR ST? (a) azef Q) saat (3) Sua (a) 53a (42)17U/103/31 (Set - 1) Directions (For Q. Nos. 53 to 62) ; In the questions given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, select the correct answer %y using the codes given below statement : Prt (ver Wo 53 #62 @ form) : Pri vet FO oer, UE REIT @) sik GRU ST (ar) fear wear 8) ge A wel S eet A wad A fay ae aE aT Mehr aR ay WAT BAR ST wae afte : 53. Assertion (A): The power of amendment under Article 368 does not include : the power to alter the basic structure of the Constitution. Reason (R): The right to equality does not form part of basic structure of the Constitution. zs Codes : . Q) Both ‘A’ and 'R’ are true and 'R is the correct explanation of ‘A’. Q) Both ‘A’ and 'R’ are true-but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A. (3) A’ is true but 'R is false. - (4) ‘A'is false but'R is true. STEAM (G): spwe 368 F sea eet Toad A any Soya Ga a ees ot erect enter Hei &) SRO GI): wT or ter afer S ya gd at ar ty Re: () 8 ote eae a wet & ote one yar GET RTT | Q) 0 SR om St wh 8 afr any ar ad eee ae a) O) V8 8 afer ae Hem BI 4) -¥ we 8 Of ore we By 54. Assertion (A): The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together. Reason (R): _ Indiais e Union of States. + Codes: (1) Both 'A' and 'R’ are true and 'R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’. (2) Both ‘A’ and 'R' are true but 'R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’ (3) ‘A'fs true bur'R'is false.’ (4) 'A‘is false but R'is true. areETT (Q) : RT ST RTT TA ast ab sige LAT A veey ay SRT GR): URI Worl wy Tra, me: () yok are ae we oor y at wa eto dt) (2) 0 ate ae SAE 8 Py ore yo ah eater 3B 3 3) V ae @ Aiea ae Tete, Trae 8 aia ae AA a (13) PTO17U/103/31 (Set - I) 55, Assertion (A) : The President of India is not a part of Parliament. Reason (R): A bill passed by the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without President's assent. Codes: () Both 'A’ and 'R’ are true and 'R is the correct explanation of 'A’. (2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true but 'R’ is not the correct explanation of "A’. 3) ‘A’is true but'R is false. (4) 'A'is false but R'is true pReMa @) saa wreath ae HT MT ae Bh erent (ar) = aiere Berea gran aftr Aker ereaAR al fear Eto w TET AE wT ¥ea| = (1) U ate one at wf & othe ore Yor ast ETT FT Q) vote one atti @ afr ore gow wet west A AL @) V wes afr a’ Te F) @) -U Heid 8 ARO OTR ABT B) 56. Assertion (A): The judges of a High Court cannot be transferred. Reason (R): The independence of the judges of High Courts is sought to be maintained by the Constitution. Codes: (1) Both ‘A’ and Rare true and 'R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’. (2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R' are true but 'R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’. (3) ‘Ais true but'R is false. (a) ‘Avis false but R'is true. wrens (8) : oa eet & sani a wereceer ae fem aT Bera ort cary er ger cere sete Sea SY eek Ss area e | Fa ac Fe RHE Eat ae A I @ gate on’ Sl wh F Aa one’ Vom RO UR ee] 6) og eh 8 air OE TATE! @) ent & afin ER FAB (14)87, 58. 59. 17U/103/31(Set - 1) Assertion (A) : India is a democratic republic. Reason (R): ‘The Head of the State is elected directly by the people. Codes : (1) Both ’A' and 'R' are true and 'R’is the correct. ‘explanation of ‘A’. (2) Both ‘A’ and 'R' are true but 'R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’. (3) ‘A'is true but R'is false. (4) 'A'is false but R'is true. Wear @): sea ye Tone steaar 3) BROT (SR) : Tr wr aT Gee zr MNT | ore f1 e: @) Wak on ahi at € oh oe Yom ae eT) 2) 7 oie ‘sng’ SFY ae & Bar one yar we easter a 8 @) URE 8 Ais ‘oN Tare] (4) V Tae 8 Ota oe we 8) Assertion (A) ; Dry battery cannot be recharged. Reason (R): The chemical reaction is reversible. Codes: (2) Both 'A'and 'R are true and 'R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’. (2) Both ‘A’ and 'R’ are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of 'A’. Q) ‘A’ is true but 'R is false. (4) ‘A's false’but 'R'is true. wrens (Q) : ae dee gerant adi Aon eet TSR (SR) : eae Bien waite 21 We: : () ole an’ art att 8 ote ae ve ered wetter 2] (2) 0 dR on’ dei wa & Se one ‘U or ad edie #8 3 (3) ‘YBa @ Att one Ter ay (4 'U Tea 2 Afar an’ wa 2) Assertion (A): Ventilators are provided neat the root, Reason (R): Conduction takes place better near the roof. Codes:" (1) Both'A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘Ris the currect explanation of AY, (2) Both 'A' and ‘Rigse-true but 'R' is not the. correct explanation of 'A’ 3) 'A’is true but 'R is false. : (4) ‘A’is false but 'R’is true. 15 iy PTO.17U/103/31(Set - !) 60, 61. wer (0): Bao oe ater wad F1 RM IR): va B Ute Sas Heal we 8 eT Bh ae: . Q) ¢ six oe Oi a 8 ak oY ar ee slat 3] Q) ‘9 oh an ari wa 8 after oe Ya aa weioet =e t: 3) ae 8 Afar ome Tet B (4) vam 8 Afra ‘one we EL Assertion (A) Tt is easiet to start a car engine ona warm day thanona chilly day. Reason (R):; The intemal! resistance of a car battery increases with increase in temperature. Codes: (1) Both ‘A’ and 'R’ are true and 'R ‘is the correct explanation of ‘A (2) Both 'A' and 'R’ are true but ‘R! is not the correct explanation of ‘A’. Q) Ais true bul 'R is false. (4) ‘Avi faye but 'R' is trae. rears (G) of RRR are a gras do RR AY Garr A wre HEAT STATA E&I BR GM) : GR eed or arake atte EET) ATT Bet B wey weet 81 . Soe () Uae ow oe ue 8 otk oe Y aT ad eter F1 Q) Uatk oR ert we 2 afr Be YT ar wet erect tS Q) ‘0 Ba 8 Bite ON WoT EI (4) Yat 2 Afr SIE aE eT ‘Assertion (A) : Nitrogen is increasing in the atmosphere. Reason (R): Plants need nitrogen for their growth. Codes + (1) Both’A’and'R are true and 'R’ js the correct explanation ofA’. (2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R' are true but 'R' is not the correct explanation of ‘A’. @ ‘Ais tre put R'is false. (a) ‘A's false but R'is true. (16)17U/103/31(Set - 1) wreat @) : aTEHESe A tephra as wh 8) orem (one) = chit at ars rq aaggtory anfea aE: (1) '¥ she ‘one’ et wah & oie ore yw wet RET BY @) yak on’ Set wet 8 BR oY Te Moet TT S| Q) 'Y Bars ater ‘a’ we 2) 4) 'U Tar? afer “ane we 2) . Assertion (A) : Long distanee radio broadcasts use short wave bands, Reason (R) : The ionosphere reflects waves in these bands. Codes: . (1) Both 'A'and 'R are true and 'R' is the correct explanation of 'A'. (2) Both 'A' and 'R’ are truc but ‘R'is not the correct explanation of ‘A’. (3) ‘A's true but 'R’is false. . 4) (A false but X is true. ‘Wea (R) : HR Gel & Your steer wid aa eq aT UIT AKA ze) PT GR) sr Fee F angdhottay tay at wfeAftae ae #1 Ge: (1) °y ste sae art 8 & of ae ye or at wactow 2) (2) 0 oh ‘one’ cht wae Stier one yar eet wate vet a Q) ‘we 2 afm aN naa 8] (A) 'Y rreret-& Afr one’ wet BY Dishonour of a cheque is an offence under the : (1) Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (2) Indian Conwact Act, 1872 (3) Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (4) Indian Penal Code Ws G1 SER ogee G, arene - (2) rere fered afefray, 1881 3 (2) anda eT oA, 187 & (3) és wibar dtm, 1973 & @) ret dette g a) PTO,17U/103/31(Set - I) 64. 65, 66. e. ‘When a Court sends someone in judicial custody, then it means that a person is: (1) Sent to jail (2) Sent to police lockup @) Sent home under judicial protection, (4) None of these ra rarerere fret wt afte often A Aor 8 ch gwen area ater BH (1) Stat Aw Poor aren 2 Q) yferr earata Yat Ren oT F 3) Autres eer F arate oe Aw Rar ore e (a) sat a a aa , Which Courts in India are empowered to issue writs as provided in the Constitution of India ? (1) Supreme Court (2) High Courts (3) District Courts (4) Only (1) and (2) er ama & alert A Rear ve @, aa F fr wnat ay Re ore feed aA a afte 2? (1) wake saree (2) er “area (3) rat =raree (4) daa {1) 3 (2) Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket? Q) Nylon 6.6 (2) Rayon 3) Kevlar (4) Daeron Fie Ag Fw MRO HARUE 1 CHAT gee Shire Te H Fe aot e ? (1) aagdts 66 (2) tas (3) Saar (4) Sart Where is Salar Jung Museum situated ? (1) Hyderabad (2) Jaipur @) Lucknow (4) Mumbai cerare oy ora wet Ret @ ? Q) terre Q) FIR Q) Tare (a) BRR, (18)69. 70, Ts I7UNO3I31Set - 1} Who among the following wrote "The Communist Manifesto" along with Karl ‘Marx? fs (1) Emile Durkheim (2) Friedrich Engels (3) Robert Owen (@) Max Weber er AS Reet are aad err “ aogPine abel’ fre 7 Q) safer ght Q) waft Wier 3) dee ote (4) aa tay Who was the first Indian woman to swim across the English Chane! ? (1) Shanta Rangaswami (2) AratiSaha (3) Santosh Yadav (4) Kamaljit Sandhu Sfoer Qa ay dea ow wes are geet ether afar ate at 7 (1) sist ered (2) amet rer (3) Webs area (4) wrentte ag, How much is one barrel of oil approximately equal td? (1) 131 titers (2) 159 liters (3) 257 liters (4) 321 liters, Yo Ra Giger oeoreT feat D ae ela # ? (1) 131 chee (2) 159 hex Q) 257 ster (4) 321 chee The Chairman and other members-of a State Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the: (1) President (2) Governor of the State (3) State Public Service Commission itself (4) Union PublicService Commission . see ats Sar archer & dareter ate ee eee Pred aor Pee fd oT 2 (1) erga (2) wea F Tee (9) ease at Shar eT art Ga (4) Ha che Sar rer (19) PTO17U/103/31(Set - 1) 72. 73. “74, 75. 76. Who is known as the father of International Law ? (1) Austin (2) Oppenheim (3) Bentham (4) Grotus apeeleter a a7 fer ats weer & ? Q aa @ arate 3) werd (4) der Theory of Social Engineering is given by Q) Duguit (2) Ehrlich (3) Pound (4) Ihering wmmrs ater aret wr Graney feet fea ? Q) Se Q) wef 3) uss (4) se The essentials of a valid custom does not include + (1) Consistency (2) Obligatory force (3) Unreasonableness ~ (4) All of the above fey FS Sr ara gen } oraeaey er A enter TAFE? Q) aft (2) arene wet 3) sefiaqenr 4) Re eh” The opposite of liberty is : () duty (2) no claim (3). disability (4) slavery area ar Paes em B QQ) sag (2) ah arr _ ®) ordaeiy (4) aR The word ‘Tort’ is of : (1) French origin (2) Roman origin (3) Latin origin (4) Commonwealth origin am ce waa: . @ tae @) aq @) ease (a) Fire eT (20)17UA03/31(Set - 1) 77, Which one of the following is not a iibel ? 78. 79. (1) A defamatory matter in printing or writing (2) ‘Taking’ cinematograph film (3) Signs or pictures (4) Sounds or gestures Pret a a ahaa amaa-der ae t 2 (1) Oar gan ser Rem ger seater Rea Q) Revere fea a aarT (3) Fede aM Pret (4) eafrat opera era-are The essential ingredients of a crime are : (2) motive, mens rea, and actus reus (2) motive, intention and knowledge (3) actus reus and mens rea (4) knowledge, intention and action SRT a SHTRTD TTS : Q) By omits aaftete ote Gageh at 2) By anara aie ara 3) Steet art ste snout arf (4) SI, anerr ate are The word Instigate! means: (1) to cheat (2) todo unlawful act (3) toproyoke (4) to promote Saray wR aT ae: (1) oo wet 2) staente ort aes (3) 4SeRT a) sth ae (a1) Pt0.17U/103/31(Set - 1) 80, Otfence Bt. wit js related to Jt) maovable property only (2) immovable property only (4) All of the above 3) propa att a1 sizer frend safe 2 ? (Ard wer erat & (2) Re ora wate S (3) Fes waft & (4) sacra wh B Which of the iollowing is used as a lubricant in heavy machines ? (2) Bauxite (2) Phosphorus ) Graphite (4) Silicon oil Pra tant mint } oats & fed ew asa &? () alee (2) RENE (3) TOE (4) Peftraits aitger Phe filament of a haldgen lamp is an alloy of : (1) Tungsten and iodine (2) Tungsten and bromine 3) Tungsten and sodium (4) Molybdenum and sodium dares oes or og Pr FS fore eg aT Fez? fy tees wa ora QQ) dees a a vn dees ad fem (4) Sfafter wd afer Furo Norms place limits on the amount of an emission of 2 gas in automobiles The gas is: (1) Carbon dioxide (2) Carbon monoxide 3) Nibroge (4) Methane * ah aed wa ae &owe ty at versa oor at thn Bar oer 2) aE gata SETI (2) ods artes @) FRE (22)85. 37. T7UNea/a1 (Set - 1) . The softest mineral, Talc (Soap stone) is mainly : (1) Manganese silicate (2) Sodium silicate (3) Sodium phosphate (4) Magnesium silicate afergerr afi tee (arr wer) gene: 8: (L) Serta freee: (2) difear free (3) Seay aitede 4) Sefer fide Correct order of colours in a rainbow is : (i) Blue, green, violet (2 Violet, green, blue (3) Blue, yellow, green (4) Blue, green, yellow wange 8 tat ar wet wee: (1) rer, eer, rt (2) dah, eer, Aer 3) ater, then, oe (4) shen, wa, tor Which of the following fights with infection in the body ? (1) RBC (2) W.B.C. (3) Blood plasma (4) Hemoglobin ath 4 Pea 8S Siar aa B Fant wen weer B? () ao fo to Q) Bayo do He @) wa IT (4) Srinchios ‘The pair of rivers draining into the Black Sea, is: @) Volga-Danube. © Q) Dnieper - Volga (3) Dnieper - Dniester (4) Ural- Volga Bre aR § Peat wet TE () dren - ae 2) Ae - aren @) Ae - tree . (®) ara - dre Kwanto plain is in: (1) China (2) Cambodia (3) New Zealand ® Japan ware} fara fore er 4 8, ae: () a4 Q) weber, 3) seins © om (23) P.O,17U/103/31(Set - 1) 89. Kandhar is located in : a1. 92. (1), Southern Afghanistan (2) Northern Afghanistan (3) Eastern Iraq (4) Western Pakistan wane fier 3 (1) SRI senna 2) set optics 4% (3) Sat gee a (4) feet onfarcan # “Zulu is a tribe associated with : (1) New Zealand. (2) South Africa G) Zimbabwe (4) Mexico ‘apt ye art 8 Beever ere Pr 1 a Pres 2? () spies (2) aftror ontaer (3) fara (4) feet Who amongst the following first used the word 'Swaraj' and accepted Hindi as the national language ? (i) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (2) Swami Dayanand (3) Swami Vivekanand (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Bre fd Pre ate 4 ednerr care at ot wet fren otk feet at ee RT? () WaT a Ae er Q) wnt care 3) var Pater (@) wa ite Reve ‘Green Revolution’ means : (i) Useof green manure Q) Grow more crops (3) High yield variety programme (8 Green vegetation -efta we Oates 8 : Q) ett aig a 7T Q) se we SIT gy sea srare age HTH 4) & ars (24)95. 97. lronis obtained from: (@) Limestone (2) Pitch-blende (3) Monoaoite sand (4) Hematite he fre wre Par on 8, aE a Bo eR Q Rraes @) Aronge Fe @) Page . Which one of the following is a fruit ? (Q) Potato @) Radish (3) Lady's Finger (@), Sweet potato Pri § 8 ahem ww wad? (1) ore @ Q) fest @) wae ‘The unit of electrical resistance of a conductor is: () Farad Q) Volt (3) Ampere arenes & dae wfeeermen at garg 2 () wre Q) tee 3) tre Study of friction and lubrication is : (1) Cryogenics (2) Selenology (3) Horology wafer gd hee BT Serer B: Q) aries (Bertie 3) eRe Suez Canal connects : (1) Black Sea -Red Sea (2) Black Sea - Mediterraneurrten, (3) Red Sea - Mediterranean Sea (4) Black Sea = Gulf of Stsam—ney- ag a ray cigdl 8 Te: (1) STS BPR — Sree, (2) Wren BPR ~ PET ATR 3) Bret eR — RIA (a) re ae — HH TS (25) 17U/103/31(Set - 1) (4) Ohm @) am (4) Tribology (4), Eigstetich Pro170/103/31(Set - ) 98. 100. 101. 102. 103. Days and nights occur due to: (1) earth's revolution (3) inclination of the earth's axis fer fins arey et ees: (1) ake (3) yeah B oer ar gaa ‘Bibi-ka-Makbara' was built by = (1) Humayun (2), Shabjehan vt amt-rrparr” apr fafa oT (i) Bar, (2) mreseT Chilka Lake is situated at: (1) Karnataka Coast (3) Konkan Coast fcert efter oat fort @, ae 3: () vale Fe (3) sham ae Measles disease is caused by: (1) Virus (3) Bacteria ere Ht aT SB: Q) tae a (3) sary # (2) earth's rotation (4) moon's revolution Q) aft (4) aera ar ORSATT (Q) Akbar IZ (4) Aurangzeb Q) wer fda (4) STR (2) Malabar Coast (4) Uttari Sarkar Coast (Q) AeA Te (4) Tae WER Te (2 Fungi (4) Mycoplasma Q) Fae S (® aeerenaT ee Which one of the following is a true fish ? (a) Star fish @) Jelly fish @) Hag fish (4) Sea horse pra 8a arth areas wr B rut 8? (1) eee OE @) eh Fer Underground *Euro-tunnel’ construc! (i) Holland and England 3) Belgium and Holland (26) 3) re fear (4) eR Ber ted for the fast running trains joins: (2) England and France (4) France and Luxembourg108. 106. 407. 17U/103/31(Set - 1) ater Sot 3 fay Ale: ere agin amr ged ad tee () wets wi iets (2) ts a wie (3) Were wi ais (4) Die Ud crerchrat The number of already known bones in the human skeleton is : ara Bere Fara ve set eeai Ht de & (1) 280 (2) 200 (3) 220 (4) 206 The atmosphere is a mixture of several gases. Near the earth surface it contains mainly: (2) Nitrogen and Oxygen - (2) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide (3) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide’ @) Ethane and Oxygen Res FE wo a Ht a Remy @ unr 8) yet od sorte apres 9 yom weet on & Q) aggre ya oifeetort 2) TRRISH ei ands srystirengs G) stator yi ont sesitrags @ ®ve aitettor Light year is the Unit of : (1) Distance Q) Time (3) Age (® Intensity of light worn af garg 8: () at Q) aH A @) ay a @) senna dam at Ina Wick Stove, Kerpsine rises up the wick due to: (1) Osmosis (2) Diffusion (3) Surface Tension: (4) Plasmolysis aa ae eta Ba 8 ATO ay a OTE: () aE 2 freer Q ys re (4) tamara (27) PTa17U/103/31 (Set - I) 108. 109, 110. 111, 112, 413, Who was the first Governor-General of India ? (1) Robert Clive (2) Warren Hastings (3) Lord Mayo (4) Lord Dalhousie ae & ve THR GPR (1) Yad aorga () ana eRe (3) Gis Rah @) as sett Apiculture is the scientific method related to the production of: (1) Honey (2) Silk (@) Apple (4) Lac daar we tate AD 8 ot feed gamer Serf? () mee (2) Ree @) ¥ @) We Abnormal Weather-conditions presently prevailing in India are attributed to = (1) Ozone-hole @ Airpollution (3) El-Nino (4) Tropical Cyclones ane Y achat A) orerearer tt rene J PSre_sereersh & () SiiF-fox Q) wage GB) ora @ sermertta wre How many nitmbers of Upanishads who are also known as the Vedantas ? softy at derar d a 8 at ore ore @, A soe: (1) 96 2) 105 3) 108 (a) 112 The phrase - “The Light of Asia ~ 1s applied to: (l) Alexander 2), Chandragupta Maurya @) Mahavira (4) Buddha afar — “urge ait vita = fred fre sega Fara careT B ? (1) Werte (2) woe A (Q) 7a 4) g@ According to the Buddhists, who is believed to be the next incarnation of Gautam Buddha? ay Ameya (2) Maitreya (3) Nagarjuna (4) Kalki ate ape & HR aia ge B HTC STR t: (1) 4 Q) #0 Q) ami (@) veh (28)114, 115. 116, 17, 118. 170/103/31(Set - I) Who among the following was a great ruler of Kalinga in andent times? (1) Ajatasatru (2) Bindusara @) Kharavela (4) Meyurasaman rer ret Per A ae aR er awry TTS aT? (2) srarererg 2) fear @) arta @ TE In which century did Ashoka reign ? (1) Second Century B.C. @ Third Century B.C. (3) Second Century A.D. ) Third Century A.D. oretts 4 fiver wat 8 ares Pra ? (1) fate wht fo go Q) Tit eh fo yo (3) facta wet Fer (gee ah at Saka era was founded by : : () Ashoka Q) Harsha 3) Keniebla (@) Vikramaditya wee are Bh eerrn Peery a? (1) site Qa (3) ofre (4) Romer Decimal system was introduced by ; (1) Aryabhatta (2) Brahmagupta (3) Bhaskara (4) Kautilya ‘Seine Ferre) Wore Peay eewiber ah 2 (1) arin 2) aerTsT @) aRaR (4) Deer Which of the following was the Rjor source of royal income in Medieval north India? (1) Jaziyah (2) Kharaj (3) Zakat (4) Kham Bre 4S aha memarctt SA eH rat TT ATTY eh on > (1) afer (2) aera @) Far © am {295 Pro,17U/103/31(Set - I) 119. Mughal dynasty was to Bahadur Shah Zafar as Lodi dynasty was to : (1) Bakalol Lodi (2) Daulat Khan Lodi (3) Sbrahim Lodi (4) Sikandar Lodi SR ret Toe dere ane STOR S faa Aa A GD woe fers fea at? (1) amet ate (2) daa art a ) gales a (4 Pree att 120. Kabir was the disciple of : (1) Chaitanya (2) Shankaracharya (3) Ramananda (4) Vallabhacharya wae fara freq ay? * eae 2) seeart Q) ware (4) aeermrart 421. The difference between the local value and face value of 6 in. the numeral 586723 is: 506723 ape #6 OT wera doy she a tay} ata A gee eh (1) 723 2) 6717 3) 5994 ( 7483 4122, The unit digit in (584 x 428 « 667 « 215) is : (584 x 428 x 667 x 213) A afc Pitic (em) 2: (2 @3 @4 5 423, 7589-2 = S44 (1) 1103 @) 4245 (3) 4155 (4) 11123 420, 5358 x 51 = a) 278 (2) 273258 @) 273348 @ 273358 -t 495, 106% 106-9494 3 (2) 2000 @) 1904 (4) 1906 (1) 2400 (30)126. 127. 128, 190, T7U/1N3/21/Set - I) If 3 of 60% of a number i 36, the number is : Sere es Beam 60 afters oer F Year 368, at ae ter ehh. (1) 100 @) 80 3) 75 (4) 90 ‘The frst prime mumberis : ery omar ter 8: ao Qa @)2 14) 3 The largest four digit number exactly divisible by each ef 12, 15,18 and 27 is aR aint at aed ah sen ah 12,15, 18 sR 278 prey a Prrsta a, ay, (2) 9690 2) 9720 (9939 14) 9960 Ina question on division with zero remainder, a candidate took 12 ws sliviewe instead of 21. The quotient obtained by him was 35. The correct qnatient is : We wer ot ORY te Bana an en F 21 gt Ge 12 wr fT A. wae ee FR] TAT ANTES 35 Srey BRT REY APTS Ren? a0 @ 12 (3) 13 (4) 20 LCM. of 22,54,108,135,196 8 : ‘22, $4, 108, 135, 198 Bt Howdte why (1) 330 Q) 1980 @) 5940 (a) 4880 SECTION - Hl ers 2 Either Englteh Language, Note : Four altertiatives @f@"gteenag poccible answers {0 each Bestion, Coy tk | Give the correct choice as an answer. Direction (Q. Nos. 191 t0.288) ; Selact the word nearest in meaning to the 131. Ste ward : Fastened: . a oo (34) om ) Ques PTO,17U!103/31(Set - 1) 132. Curbed: (1) Controlled (2) Round 3) Turn (4) Fear 133, Merely: (1) Miserly (2) Nearly (3) Poorly (4) Only Direction (Q. Nos. 134 to 136) : Select the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word 134. Advanced: (1) Syllabus Q) Rough (3) Study (4) Elementary 135. Ancient: QQ) New (2) Modern (3) Fresh (4) Early 136, Complicated: (2) Simple (2). Several @Q) Straight (a) Comply Direction (Q. Nos. 197 ve 199): Select the right word to fillin the blanks 497. think that he is getting, ........... up with the constant demands of his boss. (1) bored (2) fed (3) angry (4) tit 498, He decided to build the house from v.10 (1) scratch (2) solids 3) one (4) beginning, go to that restaurant from time to .. 139, We = (2) all (3) always (4) time () aftes 4 ' Nos, 140 to 142): Choose the word which caw be substituted for the pirection (Q- pot the given sentences > underlined words (a) The git jooks attractive, 440. 8 pictre onthe wall is stunning: Oe (2) good 6) soothing (4) beauties Q) tare -17UN03/31(Set - 1) 141. (a) The show was quite hilarious.“ (b) Some scenes from the movie were comical, (1) funny (2) sad (3) engaging (4) captivating 142, (a) India need a stable government. (b) The rope that held the boat was tough. (1) majority (2) strong "@) good (4) reliable Direction (Q..Nos. 143-to 146) : The underlined part of each of the given sentences contains an error, Choose the option which will improve the sentence : 143. All of # sudden it became cloudy and beginning to rain, (Q) began 2) begun, @) begin (4) is begin 144, [tried to catch her eye but she didn't listen me. , (1) hear (2) tell (3) come (A) notice 145. The profit was ehared in the shareholders. 7 (1) for (2) all (3) among (4) together 146. A jitter of elephants destroyed the plants, Q) collective: (2) group (3) pack (4) heard Direction (Q. Nos. 147 to 150) : In the given sentences, identity the parts of speech of the underlined words ; 147, The plane flies above the clouds. @) Noun @) Ravers @) Exepasition 4) Adiective 148. She moved slowly down the aisle. (1) Verb (2) Preposifion — (3)abdowmnrmcs, 4) Adverb 149. Torun's overworked computer exploded ina upraPU apes, () Verb “@,psliactive (3) Noun ) Adverb 180. havea fast car, batany friend bas a faster car. (1) Verb (2) Adfecthen ——(@p-newnet @) Adverb (33) Pio17U/103/31(Set -1) SECTION -II urs — ll OR aut fed are Préer: Prafettea we S (4), (2), G) Ter 4) HIG F ara wehas Tea BA THF, 1541. 182. 153. 154. 155. 156. fra S att ew ot ah 2) veh ae GR aT BT: aren & Prost & agente oer wy en Het & ? () aenfrs ara (2), wafers Art QB) SIRUTET ATT (4) are AST Afrch om fra at S GPT e? (y ot Re (2) fret @) eer (4) are ‘eal fear fe ATES a aia art B 7 (1) 14 aire (0) 14 Rrra (Q) 14 waeRe (@) 14 FoR BRD DARD terre eters af flor qe B argu vig Ge ? (i) 343 Q) 346 3) 344 (a) 345 ae we. aha Hire Q) wart 2) BaBRT @) ror (4) sen qe we ha GA ret) Rew) RE (4) Besse (a4)157. 158. 159. 161. 162, 163. 164. 165. 17U/103/31 (Set - 1) cpt eee or a ary (1) segfer 2) Prafte (3) wafer (4) We ster ‘gah + egpre arcten fren — aaa ¥ order Fh arate we eB? () wer fren @) Faeteoy @) aa ‘fore set or 8? — are F Paw ot coreefires aN ae 7 QQ) ter Q) wr (3) fisteer (4) aay chery ue § ae were 8? () fey Q we @) were 4) eae ‘orohitan aime ar 8g qe Ris wer waa aioe (1) terme Q) Rent wag @) serge @) safe fq or wel, BF fag orar — vfs 3 Beer sia 2? Q) Ar 2) Soten 8) we (4) feererr FET wr aS Rena ar 8 2 (1) RIG @) wrogr 3) wR (4) aarp “afta wer 4 eter gerd ar aA ant ae t? wer (2) Aer aT 3) wonfse aT (4) wae 2 arar ‘cre Fira cere a reepht & ? . (1) were (2) format 3) aera are (4) tes aah (35) PTO.