LLM code Ve (475) Question Booklet No. 16P/209/9 (To be filled up by the candidate by blue/black ball-point pen) Set No. 1 Roll No. Serial No. of OMR Answer Sheet ... ( Signature of Invigilator ) INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Use only blue/black ball-point pen in the space above and on both sides of the Answer Sheet) 1, Within 30 minutes ofthe issue of the Question Booklet, check the Question Booklet to ensure that it contains all the pages in correct sequence and that no page/question is missing. In case of faulty Question Booklet bring it to the notice of the Superintendent/Invigilators immediately to obtain a fresh Question Booklet. 2. Do not bring any loose paper, written or blank, inside the Examination Hall except the Admit Card without its envelope. 3. A separate Answer Sheet is given. It should not be folded or mutilated. A second Answer Sheet shall not be provided, Ouly the Answer Sheet will be evaluated. 4. Write your Roll Number and Serial Number of the Answer Sheet by pen in the space provided above. 5. On the front page of the Answer Sheet, write by pen your Roll Number in the space provided at the top and by darkening the circles at the bottom. Aiso, wherever applicable, write the Question Booklet Number and the Set Number in appropriate places. 6. No overwriting is allowed in the entries of Roll No., Question Booklet no. and Set no. (if any) on OMR sheet and Roll No. and OMR sheet no. on the Question Booklet. 7. Any change in the aforesaid entries is to be verified by the invigilator, otherwise it will be taken as unfairmeans. 8. Each question in this Booklet is followed by four alternative answers. For each question, you are to record the correct option on the Answer Sheet by darkening the appropriate circle ini the corresponding row of the Answer Sheet, by pen as mentioned in the guidelines given on the first page of the Answer Sheet. 9. For each question, darken only one circle on the Answer Sheet. If you darken more than one circle cr darken a circle partially, the answer will be treated as incorrect. 10. Note that the answer once filled in ink cannot be changed. If you do not wish fo attempt a Seaton, feave all the circles inthe corresponding row blank (such question will be awarded zero marks), 4. Fors rauah work, use the inner back page of the title cover and the blank page at the end of this let. 12, Deposit only OMR Answer Sheet at the end of the Test. 13. You are not permitted to leave the Examination Hall until the end. of the Test. 414, Ifa candidate attempts to use any form of uniair means, he/she shall be liable o such punishme the University may determine and impose on him/her. ‘able to such punishment as Total No, of Printed Pages: 64 (910 Fe fe 9 an arr ey 4% Day and Date16P/209/9 ROUGH WORK ward16P/209/9 No. of Questions : 150 weit at der: 150 Time : 2 Hours Full Marks : 450 wae: 2 ve yurig : 450 Note :(1) Attempt as many questions as you can. Each question carries 3 (Three) marks. One mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. Zero mark will be awarded for each unattempted question. aftranfies seit a wer acl an wast 1 ees wet 3 (a) sist ar 81 ade mee aa F hie oe oie wer APT! waa orga wet ar orci ger rT (2) If more than one alternative answers seem to be approximate to the correct answer, choose the closest one. af centres Sefeaes sax ae Sat a Prewe sete a, ath Peper wet oF) 01. ‘Leviathan’ is written by: (1) Hobbes (2) Locke (3) Rousseau (4) Montesquie “afaert’ feret ag @ : () eee ant (2) ate are (3) Sat arr (4) areeRL arr 3 P.T.O,16P/209/9 02. Which of the following jurist has accepted the minimum content of morality in law ? (1) Fuller (2) Stammelar (3) Dwarkin (4) Hart Prefect F @ fre fafeerett 3 faite H sre Afaear ar eiere feat & 2 (1) Gare Q) era (3) gaa (4) we 03, Who is said to be the 'Darwinian before the Darwin ? (1) Ihering (2) Savigny (3) Maine (4) Pound feet ett & ye ar siffrarét wer oem & ? (1) gefer (2) afer (3) 3 (4) TBs 04. Encumbrance is an example of : (1) Right in aliena (2) Right in propria (3) Secondary right (4) All the above facies career & (1) Tearakrs after a (2) Sarai atrere a (3) fatten caftreare =r (4) soaat att 05. The correlative of power is : (1) Disability (2) Liability (4) Duty (3) Immunity06. o7. 08, 16P/209/9 fact ar aeadt & : QQ) Peaaar (2) wafer (3) Safer (4) ater Time barred debt is an example of : (1) Perfect right (2) Imperfect right (3) Right in aliena (4) Negative right are aft ae Saree B : (1) get srftepre ar (2) syet after ar (3) Tearafter ofteare ar (4) aerate aftrenre eT Who said that certainty in law is myth ? (1) Frank (2) Gray (3) Holmes (4) Spencer fae eer fe fat F PRadc cH fren & ? (1) 3 (2) 3 (3) aa (4) aa Which theory of corporate personality is also known as the symbolic theory ? (1) Bracket theory (2) Fiction theory (3) Realist theory (4) Purpose theory Pati afta & fee fram at ote Rear & a a aft oT oer & ? (1) thea rere (2) Prete frert (3) aefcen fear (4) order Rea P.T.O,16P/209/9 09. In which of the following case Supreme Court has decided that Gurugranth Sahib is a legal person ? (1) Shiromoni Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee V. Somnath Das (2) Shiromoni Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee V. Pramath Nath Malik {3) Baljeet Singh V. Union of India (4) Kuldeep Kaur V. State of Punjab Prafafaa 4% 8 fa ae 4% sear =a A geie asa a fafer cafecr efter Pear ? (1) Rear qearr gees aa a. aearer are 2) Prada geared sera wre a. ore arr Hie (3) aerita Rie a. aa ae @) emda ae 4. deta THT 10. The concept of ‘Jus tertii’ is related to : (1) Ownership (2) Possession (3) Right (4) Duty () waa a Q) wera (3) siferenre & (4) waa 11, Who said that ‘jurisprudence is Lawyer's extroversion’ ? (1) Allen (2) Paton (3) Julius stone (4) Laski12. 13. 14. 16P/209/9 fret ser fe ‘fate ones fate aceit area (1) Revocation by surety (2) Death of the debtor (3) Death of the surety (4) Discharge of the principal debtor frafetad arrt 4 & frat ofeey ot saeafar @ saya et Ba 2 ? (1) Siig, are seer (2) seh at ey (3) airy at Ay (4) caret a oyfad Which of following is not a void agreement ? (1) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings (2) Agreement in restraint of marriage (3) Agreement affected by undue influence (4) Agreement by way of wager Prafatad HB Sr ya Hae vee: (1) fatten aaetenfedt cratered arere (2) frawe % ordered wae (a) srererg srt & srfrer aeTe (a) or after & oe Fore 2016P/209/9 46. Who of the following can not make pledge of goods ? (1) a mercantile agent (2) a person in possession under voidable contract (3) a person in possession under void contract (4) @ person with a limited interest Prafataa % & at aria at Pret oe set ta waa e : () afi ofterat Q) (aries ater} sari ary at are saat (3) Wt Aer seria are a are aafeRT (4) dita fea ar afer : 47. Which of the following provisions of the contract Act deals with vicarious liability of the principal ? (1) Section 227 (2) Section 229 (3) Section 238 (4) Section 230 Ra afetrear at Preafetea aris F @ feat aes S of Pres abit ar ae Peer rer & ? (1) at 227 (2) at 229 (3) art 238 (4) art 230 48. When a person making a false statement believes the statement to be true and does not intend to mislead to the other party to the contract, it is known as ? (1). Mistake (2) Fraud (3) Misrepresentation (4) Undue influence af ag aaet ae ara ea Pe ae aero wet B, TIT aay Zar Boh ae Mer ea oer at fr adh arco mea 8, (1) vert (2) we (3) "ert Seger (4) ARR yee 21 P.T.O.16P/209/9 49. The issue in Paradine V. Jane, 82ER897, was : (1) Mistake (2) Fraud (3) Frustration (4) Undue influence tases sary SH, 82ER897 H APT A ger 2 : Q) et (2) are art (3) er (4) orate 50. All innocent promises collateral to the main illegal promise contained in a contract will be regarded as : (1) Valid (2) Void (3) Voidable (4) Mlegal Ref der X orathe ata wax a gs ga Pete ae aM oat: (yaa Q) Ta (3) grea (4) seer 51. Which one of the following is a contract ? (1) An agreement to do a lawful act by unlawful means (2} An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay the time-barred debt (3) An agreement in restraint of lawful trade (4) An agreement to pay rupees one thousand without consideration frafatiaa % at at cw wfaar e ? ql) aaa aaa & aa ar HA aT TH ATT Q) arent HT ST PTET HAY BT BTATT Gat fer Gare (3) Je are FT Hardt BEY ara HT 4) feat afaret B CH BOE BTA YT TL FT HUTT 2216P/209/9 52. 'C’ let a music hall to 'X' for a series of music concerts for certain days. The hall was completely destroyed by fire before the scheduled date of concerts. In this case : (1) ‘c' cannot be discharged from performance of the contract (2) the contract becomes voidable at the option of ‘x’ (3) the contract is discharged by impossibility of performance (4) the contract is void of initial a, ‘cae’ a aBre eet frat oe tar 8 BRA ge Re efi aren arehfirt Pra on 31 aft ater & Pree fay @ yt ae et art FM FS BT ae a ona Bi sa aa F : Q) ar ater oer & seit wa a apa F (2) ‘Cea? aH gear ae efear grrEeite epi (3) We at oeraad o¢ dfaer Gane a oer (4) afer sree @ et ger aft 53. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) Third party can always sue for breach of contract (2) Wagering agreements are illegal (3) When consent is not free, agreement will always be voidable (4) Catalogue is an invitation to offer rafter aerit 3 8 ate ar at B ? (1) ater & sir SF oe gate ger ata ae area ae wan & 2) ant $ wax ste & (8) Wa went eis ae 8, at tar ata grate ah (4) gates secre at omriaoy & 23 P10.16P/209/9 . 54, ‘A’ agrees with 'B' to discover treasure by magic : (1) The agreement is valid (2) The agreement is illegal (3) The agreement is void because it is an agreement to do an impossible act (4) The agreement is voidable at the option of 'B' ‘aa } ara ong & woe SSA a wae Hear 2 = (\) wae are (2) wy saa & (3) are ger @ waite ae ores ard Het aT aK e (4) ae ‘a’ & freer oe gereetia & 55. When the parties to the contract agree to substitute the existing contract with new contract, it is called : (1) Alteration in contract (2) Rescission of contract (3) Novation of contract (4) All of the above ra eiftear a career aft are ater at ae fear aren serene Hey & faa aera ae 8, dt ae. wear @ = 1) ater # ofeach (2) efaer ar feavet (3) afer amr aero @) sedate 56. It a person who finds goods, belonging to another takes them into his custody, then he : (1) Can sell the goods (2) Can pledge the goods (3) Can gift the goods (4) Is subject to the some responsibility as a bailee 2487. 16P/209/9 frat ora afta ar are om aren ata, af GS ora ora wa Sar %, tae: () a are at aa ear & (2) Sa are at fet ca wae B (3) Sa are at sae wag t aaa z (4) set crear $ orenie & ct op softer at at & Which one of the following pairs does not match ? (1) Exemplary Damages (2) General Damages (3) Liquidated Damages (4) Nominal Damages Damages awarded to set on example Damages fixed by the court in ordinary circumstances Pre-estimated amount of damages as adequate compensation Damages for loss arising in special circumstances Prefer & & git ar ger gate at 8 2 (1) Pera & ara yeah (2) ara grart 3) Waite gear 4) aE gear 25 Feri wa & fa A aM art grant wearer oat A =a art Raat gaartt . a Pratite quart ot fer goras ARre oRRafeat F et gma & fa gaantt P.T.O,16P/209/9 58. 59. 60. ‘N offers to sell his car to 'B' for Rs. 50,000/. 'B' agree to buy the car offering Rs 45,000/. The reply of ‘B' amounts to : (1) Offer (2) Counter-offer (3) Invitation to offer (4) Standing offer ‘a’, ‘a Bt orl are & 50,000/ % BA ar wea aa 81 ‘a’ ae wqaet ar sit Har & ae & 45,000/ FA ar Wea HAT 1 ‘a’ HT TET QQ) sear (2) afei-aet (3) We aT ora (4) erg sree Where law prescribes that a contract must be in writing, it is necess~ ary that it must by in writhing. Non-fulfilment of the condition renders it: (1) Void (2) Invalid (3) Unenforceable (4) Voidable ret fatty Pret after & Parftuer a at fate axa 8, get ae oT & fee ae Fear G1 ale ae sich eT et ehh B ath eit afar et out e: (Q) a QQ) afar (3) aR (4) eect Injustice would manifest itself if a person as held responsible for all consequences of his act. Therefore he is responsible only for consequences not too : (1) Remote (2) Near (3) Inand around (4) For sighted 2661. 62. 16P/209/9 SPs ot a rene ao ae afer ora art a cred afer | faa creer sewer ora B1 aa: ae fas sar oe FH fea srart &, oft ofa : (1) yer wae (2) wate wat & (3) strecra wet (4) aeaif wae Which of the following pairs do not match ? (Principal) (Associated case) (1) Damanum Sine injuria Glocester Grammer School (2) Injuria Sine Damanum Ashby v. White (3) Absolute Liability Ryland v. Fletcher (4) Ineritash accident Haynes v. Harwood Pret gait % ata gate wet 8? (Principal) (Associated case) Q) Sem aga gafar TAIT AT BRT BT ATS (2) sraftar ag Sean aga oa age 3) 3h afer Waers AT RAT (4) sTaRerd gdear era MT erge The propoundes of Pigeon-hole theory is : (1) Salmond (2) Winfield (3) Clerk and Lindsell (4) Austin Far-art Rrert $ ofa & Q) ars (2) Penis (3) Herb we Piste (4) ster 27 P.T.O.16P/209/9 63. ‘Respondent Superior’ means : (1) Respondent is Superior that plaintiff (2) Master is superior (3) Servant is not liable (4) Master is vicariously liable ‘Wes Fra’ ar aes ze : (1) at at gern A ofa aes & (2) wari ares B (3) Gan varate wet & (4) wart ofafat wa & sara te & 64, Which one of the following is not an example of vicarious liability ? (1) Liability of the Principal for the tort of his agent (2) Liability of Partners for each other’ tort (3) Liability of the master for the tort of his servant (4) Liability of the parents for the tort of the children frafaica 3 8 vfafifte after ar serecr a ar vet 7 (1) Sto arftenal B orgy & fart afore ar cater (2) afer an cr gat B orrqes & fer cafes (3) Say Fae orager % fea wart ar afer (4) Feat B crag & fea oftrrerst ar caer 65. Supreme Court decision in M. C. Mehta V. Union of India 1987 SCR (1) 819 (Commonly known as Oleum Gas Leak ease) is related to : (2) Rescue Case (1) Absolute liability (4). Tortious liability of State (3) Strict Liability 28