ASSORTED Questions Manwong

EXAMINATION IN
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS
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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Criminologist states that crime is directly proportional to

subject's criminal tendencies plus his total environmental
situation and inversely to subject's
A. responses C. resistance
B. health D. mentality
C. A and C
2. The "Multi-Casual Theory on Crime" which is the most
acceptable reason on why people commit crime simply meant that
A. There are multiple factors causing the commission of crime
B. There are multiple ideas in the minds of the criminal
C. There are many unknown causes why may men commit crime as
that moment
D. There are extra-ordinary factors to include ESP why a person
commits crime.
E. All of these
3. Increasing today are "white collar crimes", those committed by
top-placed personnel in business. This statement is
A. true C. false
B. unfounded D. speculation only
4. What is the combination of personal and social factors which
creates an utterly unique physical structure human being?
A. crime situation C. Social Pathology
B. juvenile delinquency D. A causation of mal-judgment
5. What are the three existing factors to develop criminal and
anti-social behavior?
A. Biological, psychological and environment
B. Biological, cultural and environment
C. Sociological, psychological and education
D. Socio-economic, political and cultural
6. Which of these refers to the study of mental processes of
criminals in action; the study of the genesis, development,
and motivation of human behaviour that conflicts with accepted
norms and standards of society; this study concentrated on the
study of with respect to their general criminal behaviour?
A. Criminal psychodynamics C. Cultural conflict
B. Criminogenic process D. Cretinism
7. A reported instance of a crime recorded in a systematic
classification is known as
A. Crime statistics C. Crime index
B. Cultural conflict D. Contumacy
8. Who studied the case history of 2,000 convicts and found that
heredity is more influential as a determiner of criminal
behaviour than environment?
A. Charles Darwin C. Charles Goring
B. Dr. Cesare Lombroso D. Alphonse Bertillon
9. Who advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness” inherited as

Mendalian unit, cause crime for the reason that feeble-minded
person is unable to appreciate the consequences of his
behavior, or appreciate the meaning of the law?
A. Walter Bromberg C. R.H. Goddard
B. Richard Dugdale D. W. F. Ogburn
Scoutfortypayb/P.S.C.C.J./PCcr09 1
10. What is the code after a person’s name which adopted the
principle “an eye for an eye and tooth for a tooth” in the
imposition of punishment, in about 1875 B.C?
A. Code of Kalantiao C. Code of Maragtas
B. Hammurabi’s Code D. Dewey code
11. What is the branch of criminology that deals with prison
management and treatment of offenders especially with regards
to their rehabilitation?
A. reformation D. Ethics
B. rehabilitation E. all of these, except b
C. Penology
12. Who cited in his book that hereditary is one of the causes of
crime?
A. Donald Taft C. Cesare Lombroso
B. West D. W. A. Bonger
13. Abu Sayaf means
A. sword bearer D. rebels in Mindanao
B. Jalandoni Janjalani E. Abu Sabaya
C. Commander Robot
14. Which of the following term is the same as instigator?
A. induce C. precipitation
B. vulnerability D. investigation
15. What is the disease associated with prenatal thyroid
deficiency and subsequently thyroid inactivity, marked by
physical deformities arrested development, goiter, and various
forms of mental retardation, including imbecility?
A. Cretinism C. Criminogenic process
B. Cultural conflict D. Crime statistics
16. Which of these may refer to the transmission of physical
characteristics, mental traits, and tendency manifest by an
organism to develop in the likeness of a progenitor due to the
transmission of genes in the reproductive process?
A. Heredity C. Heredity and environment
B. Environment D. Hallucination
17. What is the statement which says “we have no crime if we had
no criminal laws and that we could eliminate all crime merely
by abolishing all criminal law?”
A. Discrimination C. Abolish legislative body
B. Logomacy D. All of the above
18. Which of the following includes the assessments of those
forces resulting from man’s collective survival effort with
emphasis upon his institution, economic, financial,
educational, political, religion as well as recreational?
A. Economic approach
B. Ecological
C. Sociological and Cultural approach
D. All of these
19. What school of Criminology maintained that while the classical
school was correct in general, it should be modified in
certain details; since children and lunatics cannot calculate
pleasures and pains, they should not be regarded as criminals
or to be punished?
A. Classical school C. Neo-classical school
B. Positive school D. Punitive reaction to crime
20. What nation pioneered banishment as a form of punishment?

A. Ancient Rome B. England C. China D. Spain
21. What study includes the science of behavior and mental
processes of the criminal and is focused on the individual
behavior- how it is acquired, evoked, maintained, and modified
is called?
A. Criminal Psychology C. Criminal Sociology
B. Criminal Psychiatry D. Criminal Etiology
22. Which of these refers to the scientific analysis of the causes
of crime?
A. Criminal Psychology C. Criminal Sociology
B. Criminal Psychiatry D. Criminal Etiology
23. Criminology changes as social condition changes. This means
the progress of criminology is concordant with the advancement
of other sciences that has been applied to it. It connotes
that criminology is
A. Dynamic C. Excellent
B. Progressive D. None of these
24. Which of the following maintains that children and lunatics
should not be regarded as criminals and free from punishment?
A. Classical C. Pre-classical
B. Neo-classical D. Positive
25. The tendency to seek pleasure and avoid pain is the concept of
A. Hedonism C. Heredity
B. Born Criminal D. Environmental
26. What is the term describing all the instrument and methods
used by the society to control crime?
A. social justice D. social wall
B. social tools E. social defense
C. A and B
27. Who is the head of the "Katarungang Pambarangay?"
A. Barangay Captain D. Barangay Pook leader
B. Barangay Co-Chairman E. Barangay Secretary
C. Representative of DILG
28. The administration of all the courts in the country is under
A. Chief Justice of SC D. Solicitor General
B. Secretary of Justice E. Ombudsman
C. Tanodbayan
29. Which of he following institutions is the least crowded?
A. Bilibid Prison municipality
B. City Jails
C. Correctional Institute for Women Club
D. Penal colonies
30. An accusation in writing charging a person with an offense
subscribed by public prosecutor and filed with the court is
known as
A. Complaint C. Information E. All of these
B. Warrant D. Subpoena
31. How many justices composed the Supreme Court including the
Chief Justice?
A. 10 b. 12 c. 14 d. 15
32. Arbitrary Detention is a crime against
A. Person c. Fundamentals laws of the state
B. Law of nation D. National security
33. Who serves as the lawyer of the state in criminal cases?
A. Prosecutor B. Lawyer C. Counsel D. Judge
34. The following are the officers authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation, except
A. Provincial Fiscal
B. Judges or Municipal Trial Courts
C. Judges or Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
D. Judges or Metropolitan Trial Courts
35. What pillar of the Criminal Justice System is responsible in

evaluation of evidence?
A. Police B. Prosecution C. Court D. Correction
36. Among the following, which one is not a component of American
concept of Criminal Justice System?
A. Prosecution B. Police C. Court D. Correction
37. Whose exclusive original jurisdiction the violation of city
and municipal ordinances?
A. Barangay B. MTC C. RTC D. Supreme Court
38. How many members compose the “Pangkat?”
A. 1 member C. 2 members
B. 3 members D. 4 members
39. Which of the following has the same meaning as respondent?

A. Complainant C. Offended
B. Plaintiff D. Accused
40. The authority vested in a court to the exclusion of other
courts or other kind of courts is
A. exclusive C. concurrent E. none of the above
B. appellate D. general
41. A complaint was filed against Gabriel, a swindler. After
preliminary examination, the judge issued a warrant to arrest
him. PO1 Kim went to the house of Gabriel and arrested him.
When Gabriel demanded to see the arrest warrant, PO1 Kim
replied that it will be shown later. What did PO1 Kim conduct?
A. a warrantless arrest C. an illegal arrest
B. an illegal detention D. a legal arrest
42. Which of the following means a lien or property given as
security for the amount of the bail?
A. recognizance C. cash deposit
B. property D. corporate surety
43. Who is the forgotten man in the criminal justice system?
A. police C. judge E. criminal
B. prosecutor D. victim
44. All are the basic causes of crime, except
A. passion C. personal gain E. poverty
B. pride D. none of these
45. The fact that the roles constructed by the State as a
corporate body is a feature of criminal law which is
A. Penal Sanction C. Uniform E. Neither
B. Specificity D. Politically
46. Which of the following does Prosecution belong?
A. Executive C. Judiciary
B. Legislative D. either
47. When a person charged with a criminal offense is said to be
informed of the nature and cause of the accusation?
A. Trial C. Judgment E. B and D
B. Arraignment D. Pre-trial
48. What is the form of government where only one man rules?
A. Unitary D. Dictatorship
B. Aristocracy E. Monarchy
C. Monocracy
49. Which of the following best defines Right of Suffrage?
A. Right to be elected C. Right to vote
B. Right to hold public office D. Right to go abroad
50. What is the law that re-imposes the death penalty for heinous
crimes?
A. RA 6075 B. RA 6195 C. RA 8177 D. RA 7659
51. Which of the following literally means “to produce the body?”
A. Habeas Corpus C. Corpus Delicti
B. Corpus Christi D. Habeas Causa
52. What is the compulsory process to insure the attendance of

witnesses and presentation of evidence before the court?
A. Summons C. Affidavit
B. Subpoena D. Writ of Execution
53. Juvenile delinquency is not directly caused by poverty as
claimed by the conditions created by poverty like slums, bad
environment, broaden homes, drugs, etc. to prevent
delinquency, the best solution would be
A. Eliminate the causes C. Beef up the police force
B. Arrest the offenders D. Abolish poverty
54. Lack of Education is a factor in juvenile delinquency and is
also caused by poverty which creates other conditions that
breed delinquency like poor housing, bad neighborhood, etc.
Education is a part of what kind of environment?
A. psycho –social C. economic
B. political D. military
55. Policeman can not jail a drug dependent, addict or user. The
rationale behind this is that these users are victims of the
drug scourge and are not criminal person except the peddles or
sellers. These violations have to be turned over to –
A. Reformatory C. half-way homes
B. barangay center D. rehabilitation centers
56. How many absences of the parents or guardians before a child
can be considered an abandoned child?
A. 3 absences C. 10 absences E. Neither
B. 15 absences D. 20 absences
57. When the state become the father, this is termed as
A. parents protector C. parens curue
B. prebona parentis D. parents patriae
58. A legally emancipated minor aged seventeen, accused and
convicted of homicide is referred to as
A. Criminal C. Juvenile offender
B. Juvenile delinquent D. youthful offender
59. Which of these pertains to a family with in Laws and relatives
in the first degree?
A. nuclear family C. broken family
B. normal family D. extended family
60. Which of the following does not belong to status offenses?
A. Prostitution C. Begging
B. drug addiction D. drug pushing
61. What is the difference between the crime of murder and
homicide?
A. revenge C. premeditation
B. victim is dead D. insanity
62. Eric Pecson committed a theft as he said his family needs food
and he can not find a job. What factor is he citing?
A. socio-political D. socio-economic
B. political military E. cultural and traditional
C. All of these
63. Piolo Askal killed Mario Bangkay as the latter murdered his
father. What was the motive of the former?
A. nationalism C. jealousy E. patriotism
B. remuneration D. revenge
64. Which of the following pertains to the planned used of
communication techniques designed to effect the fine/s emotion
of a given target group on certain issues?
A. Opinion C. Rumors E. all of these
B. Propaganda D. Information
65. What is the Uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn
anything without motivation?
A. Kleptomaniac C. Arsonist E. B and D
B. Pyromania D. Fire Addicts
66. What is the collective term for mental disorders that begin at
or shortly after puberty and usually lead to general failure
of the mental faculties, with the corresponding physiological
impairment?
A. Delirium C. Demetia Praecox E. None of these
B. Demaphobia D. Delusion
67. Peter, a German national obtains sexual gratification from
various forms of sexual intimacies with the young. He is
considered as
A. Sex maniac C. Pedophilia E. Child-like
B. Masochism D. Homosexual
68. What is the type of multiple murder which kills at two or more
locations with almost no time to break between murders?
A. Mass murders C. Attempted murder
B. Serial murder D. Spree murder
69. What is the symptom if a person shows his intention to commit

suicide and threat others?
A. crime commission D. homicidal threat
B. violent discharge E. fantasy of violence
C. B and A
70. Mrs. Enriquez buys only the nearly spoiled foods for her
children despite that she could afford to buy nutritious
foods. What abuse does Mrs. Enriquez show?
A. physical abuse C. A or B E. sexual neglect
B. physical neglect D. emotional abuse
71. When an individual member of the family becomes disorganized
thus affecting others, there is
A. individual crisis C. A or B E. adolescent crisis
B. physical crisis D. family crisis
72. Which of the following is not a common sign of moral
disturbances?
A. thrill seeking behavior C. failure to alter behavior
B. pathological lying D. dramatic attention seeking
73. When an individual experience tension and anxiety increases
making him/her helpless, there is
A. crisis C. frustration E. All of these
B. conflict D. hallucination
74. Among the following, who is the most vulnerable group to abuse
and threats?
A. police C. parents E. B and D
B. children D. animals
75. Which of the following best defines the term Costa Nostra?
A.one thing D. two things
B.crime confederation E. none of these
C.organized syndicate
76. What is the strict code of conduct that governs the organized
crime group behavior?
A.Omerta C. Camorra E. Secret code
B.Mob D. Tamero
77. Which of these is not one of the characteristics of an
organized crime group?
A. Economic gain is the primary goal.
B. Economic gain is achieved through illegal means
C. Employs predatory tactics such as intimidation, violence and
corruption.
D. Organized crimes include terrorist dedicated to political
change.
E. None of these
78. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by

a person of respectability and high social status in the
course of his or her occupation?
A. E. Sutherland C. R. Quinney E. None of these
B. E. Durkheim D. C. Darwin
79. Which of the following best explains the phrase, “carnal
knowledge of a woman against her will?”
A. sexual abuse C. Sexual assault E. None of these
B. Homosexuality D. A and C
80. What is the type of violent offender who live in culture in
which violence is an acceptable problem mechanism?
A. Culturally Violent Offender
B. Criminally Violent Offender
C. Pathological Violent Offender
D. Situational Violent Offender
E. None of these
81. Paul likes to buy stolen cellular phones. His act is
A. Fencing C. Forgery E. Accessory to theft
B. Larceny D. None of these
82. What is the act of bartering of sex favor for monetary
consideration, either gift or cash, with out emotional
attachment between partners?
A. Pornography C. Prostitution E. Sex for hire
B. Homosexuality D. all of these
83. In the Organized crime world, who bribes, buys, intimidates
and negotiates into a relationship with the police or public
official?
A. Enforcer C. Reporter E. Instigator
B. Corrupter D. Corruptee
84. For an effective or successful PCR program -
A. each community must be studied carefully in its many social,
economic and cultural aspects.
B. no study is needed as the PCR package applies to all
C. the community is secondary to police objectives
D. as long as there is cash, OK is the word
E. All of these
85. A police unit performing its job efficiency and effectively
will
A. require minimal PCR program
B. require more intense program
C. require off and on program
D. need no program at all
E. none of these
86. The best PCR a police officer can do to the community is
A. harass the people D. perform his job well
B. dress well E. none of these
C. run after crooks
87. Which of the following is not one of the duties of a public
relation officer?
A. He shall issue press releases, which are of public concern.
B. He shall plan and carry out programs.
C. He shall evaluate public opinion with respect to the
policies of police station.
D. He shall inform the rights of a person under investigation.
88. What is the planned used of public or mass communication for
the public purpose?
A. television C. courtesy E. All of these
B. propaganda D. information
89. IDEAL is synonymous to:
A. perfection D. intelligent
B. courteous E. A and B
C. All of these
90. What is the program designed to harmony and mutual support

between the police and the community?
A. Public Information D. Civic Action
B. Public Relation E. Psychological
C. A and B
91. Which of the following is not a principle of police community
relation?
A. public support must be maintained
B. public resentment must be encouraged
C. public goodwill must be developed
D. none of these
92. Which of the following is the basic political unit of the
Filipino nation that implements the policies of the national
and local government?
A. family C. society E. A and A
B. community D. barangay
93. What is the formal act or a set of formal acts established by
custom or authority as proper to special occasion in the PNP?
A. custom D. tradition
B. courtesy E. ceremony
C. D and E
94. Which of these has the same meaning as Pariah complex?
A. social gathering D. social understanding
B. social behavior E. social outcast
C. None of these
95. An old woman approached PO3 Gomez asking the police officer to
run after an unidentified young man who allegedly snatched her
mobile phone. PO3 Gomez declined claiming that the man was
already a block away from them and besides the police officer
alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent matter at home.
The officer’s refusal to help the old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance C. malfeasance E. None of these
B. misfeasance D. misconduct
96. One of the Canons of Police Ethics is the observance of the
Primordial Police Responsibility which is the prevention of
crime. Canon means
A. conduct C. guideline E. rules
B. standard D. none of these
97. Among the following Core Values of the Philippine National
Police, which is the most supreme?
A. Love of God.
B. Respect for authority.
C. Respect for women
D. Respect for sanctity of marriage.
E. Stewardship over material things.
98. P/Supt. Calderon went to Criminal Justice College and punched
Prof. Ramos in the stomach after berating the professor for
scolding the police official’s son who is a Criminology
student. P/Supt. Calderon’s act should be condemned because
it is an act
A. of irregularity in the performance of duty
B. of incompetence
C. of misconduct
D. of malfeasance
E. B and C are correct
99. Which of the following aims to address the flaws on the human
resources development system of the PNP?
A. Career Management the Key in Professionalism
B. Police Management Leadership
C. Observance of Delicadeza
D. Equality in the Service
E. Political Patronage
100.Police Officers are duty bound to observe the constitutional

rights of every citizen. Among those rights, which is the
topmost priority?
A. right of life D. right to liberty
B. right in property E. right of freedom of speech
C. suspects’ rights
101.Every PNP officer shall observe Commitment to Democracy which
includes
A. emphasis on “Public office is a public trust”
B. upholding public interest over and above personal interest.
C. proper use and disposal of government properties
D. providing service to everyone without discrimination
E. All of these
102.All PNP officers and members shall conduct themselves at all
times in keeping with the rules and regulations of the
organization as mandated by the PNP Tenets of Discipline.
Tenets means
A. doctrine C. standard E. core
B. rules D. policies
103.Police officers should have a feeling of devotion, duty, or
attachment to the PNP organization. Such attitude is an
example of
A. integrity D. honesty
B. loyalty E. A and D
C. obedience to superior
104.Following a logical procedure in accomplishing task assigned
to minimize waste in the use of time, money and efforts is an
example of
A. morality D. reasoning
B. judicious use of authority E. perseverance
C. orderliness
105.The formal act or set of formal acts established by custom or
authority as proper to special occasion as observed in the PNP
is known as
A. tradition D. customs
B. courtesy call E. All of these
C. ceremony
106.When a policeman steers away any occasion to humiliate,
embarrass, annoy or cause inconvenience to any individual, he
is applying the principle of PCR which is
A. Public support must be maintained.
B. Public resentment must be avoided.
C. Public goodwill must be developed.
D. The public must be kept informed on regulations and
policies.
107.The peace officer’s relations with the officers and men of
his own department, his supervisor, the station commander, as
well as the city/municipal mayor where he is assigned is an
example of
A. intra-departmental relations D. professional relations
B. colleagues’ relations E. none of these

C. inter-departmental relations
108.When a leader manifest faith to his self, he is showing
A. Self Sacrifice D. Self Confidence
B. Paternalism E. Fairness and Honesty
C. Dependability and Punctuality
109.Which of these is a concrete manifestation of an ideal home?
A. hate C. respect E. All of these
B. problems D. desires
110.What is present when there is neglect when the child is
malnourished, ill, clad and without proper shelter?
A. neglected child D. emotional neglect E. A and B
B. physical neglect E. none of the above
111.Youth problems to include juvenile delinquency, welfare and

rehabilitation are part of the functions of
A. DSWD B. DECS C. D OJ D. DOH
112.Which of these is an offender who is less than nine years of
age?
A. irresponsible offender D. responsible offender
B. exempted offender E. privilege offender
C. All of these
113.The benefits of P.D. 603 shall not apply to youthful offender
who
A. once enjoyed suspension of sentence
B. escapes from the institution
C. commits another crime
D. all of the above
114.The decision of the court denying an application for the
suspension of sentence shall
A. not be appealable D. motion for reconsideration
B. be appealable E. none of the above
C. A or B
115.Upon reaching the age of 18, the court shall pronounce
judgment of conviction, if he violates the conditions, Which
of the following could he avail?
A. P.D. 968 D. P.D. 1568 E. A or B
B. P.D. 603 E. P.D. 12
116.Records of the proceedings shall be considered as privilege
and
A. not be disclosed directly or indirectly
B. be disclosed only to close friends
C. be considered top secret
D. all of the above
117.Which of the following is called a minor probation law?
A. P.D. 1068 C. P.D. 968
B. P.D. 603 D. P.D. 1612
118.A child whose parents are not legally married or the child is
born out of wedlock.
A. legitimate child C. abandoned child
B. illegitimate child D. neglected child
C. B or A
119.To whom does the provision of P.D. 968 apply?
A. to all people D. to non-offenders
B. to first time offenders E. all of the above
C. To matured offenders
120.Why are youthful offenders scooped out of the probation law?
A. they require different treatment than adult offenders
B. they are too aggressive
C. they are still minors
D. none of the above
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
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MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the Executive Department that supervises and controls

the numerous Correctional Institutions nationwide?
a. Department of Justice
b. Department of Interior and Local Government
c. Department of Social Welfare and Development
d. Department of National Defense
2. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code as
amended is known as -
a. Correction Law c. Jail Management Law
b. Prison Law d. Parole and Probation Law
3. The Head of the Bureau of Corrections is known as -
a.Chief of the Bureau of Corrections
b.Director of the Bureau of Corrections
c.Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections
d.none of these
4. What Bureau under the DILG is responsible for the supervision
and control of Jails?
a. BJMP c. Bureau of Corrections
b. Provincial Jail d. City/Municipalities
5. What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?
A. Provincial and Sub-Provincial Jails
B. City and Municipal Jails
C. District Jails
D. Insular Jails
6. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the
American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the
said jails?
a. BJMP b. DOJ c. Provincial Government d. LGU
7. Who is the Head of the Provincial Jail?
a. Provincial Jail Director c. Provincial Administrator
b. Provincial Jail Warden d. Governor
8. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?
a. Rehabilitation and Reformation c. to stand trial
b. Punishment d. Socialization
9. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or court
action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences
or penalty of imprisonment is known as
a. Jail c. Lock-up
b. Penitentiary d. Detention Cells
10. The act of prisoner trying to convert or induce another to
change his religious beliefs, sect or the like to another
while under confinement is referred to as
a. Proselytizing c. Initiation
b. Fraternization d. Inducement
11. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature
of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to
receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention is known as -
a. Mittimus c. Detention Mittimus
b. Sentence Mittimus d. Detention Warrant
12. The entrusting for confinement or an offender to a jail by
competent court or authority for investigation, trial and or
service of sentence is referred to as
a. Commitment c. Detention
b. Imprisonment d. Recognizance
13. The mechanical device or contrivance, tools or implement used
to hold back, keep in check or under control is the
a. Instrument of Restraint c. Iron leg Lock
b. Handcuffs d. metallic chains
14. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who
by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation
of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to
serve judgment is called -
a. custody c. Safe-Keeping e. Protection
b. Classification d. caring
15. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of
offenders according to their sentence, gender, age,
nationality, health, criminal record, etc?
a. Classification c. Custody
b. Security d. Safe Keeping
16. Where a newly committed insular prisoner undergoes diagnosis
and treatment as part of the classification process?
A. Reception and diagnostic center (RDC)
B. Medical Center
C. treatment Center
D. Diagnostic and Treatment Center
17. Who is tasked with the gathering and collecting of
information and other data of every prisoner into a case study
to determine the work assignment, the type supervision and
degree of custody and restriction under which an offender must
live in jail?
a. Classification Board c. Board of Custody
b. Diagnostic Board d. Treatment Board
18. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as
the
A. NBP
B. Maximum Security Institution
C. Medium Security Institution
D. Minimum Security Institution
19. The Bureau of Correction has an admission program for newly
committed offenders to remain in the reception and diagnostic
center for a period of -
a. 30 days c. 20 days e. 45 days
b. 60 days d. 10 days
20. How many days that a national offender be confined at the
Separation Center before the actual release?
a. 30 c. 10 e. 15
b. 60 d. 45
21. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in
the state which exempts an individual from the punishment
which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by
the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole
and Pardon?
a. Amnesty c. Parole
b. Pardon d. Probation
22. The form of Executive Clemency which reduces the sentence of

a convicted person to shorter term is referred to as -
a. Amnesty c. Probation
b. Commutation d. shortening
23. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of
prison uniform for maximum security prison is-
a. Orange c. Yellow e. Strife Orange
b. Blue d. Pink
24. Who is the executive officer in charge of each correctional
institution?
A. Correctional or custodial officer
B. Warden or Superintendent
C. Commissioner or Director
D. Chief Warden
25. The end purpose of classification is -
a. To orient new inmates for prison life
b. To prepare inmates for prison life
c. To develop integrated and realistic program for prison
d. all of these
26. When an inmate is given a "shakedown" before admission it
meant
a. Process of identification, record, fingerprint and
photograph
b. Examination for contraband
c. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
d. All of these
27. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for
adjustment process from life in prison to life in free
community within -
A. 60 days prior to release
B. 30 days prior to release
C. 90 days before release
D. 15 days prior to release
28. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has
undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent to the maximum
imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with
a. B.P. Blg. 85 c. PD 29
b. B.P. 22 d. PD 968
29. An inmate maybe granted parole if he -
a. earned good conduct time allowance credit
b. serve minimum sentence
c. earned good behavior while serving prison term
d. all of these
30. Who prescribes minimum standard of security, hygiene,
recreational, work program to provincial and/or city jails?
a. Secretary of Justice c. Custodial Officer
b. Director of Prison d. Director for Good Behavior
31. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its
latest objective, the -
a. reformation of offenders c. Deterrence
b. Segregation of offender d. Confinement of Offenders
32. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are
confined at -
a. NBP main prison c. Camp Bukang Liwayway
b. Camp Sampaguita d. Medium Security Prison
33. Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in
prison?
a. Classification Board c. Parole Board
b. Administrative Board d. Disciplinary Board
34. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate

of PhP8.00 a day subject to certain rules, for failure to pay
a fine and if ordered to do so by the judgment is referred to
as
a. Subsidiary imprisonment c. Secondary Imprisonment
b. Preventive Imprisonment d. None of the above

35. Placing a person to custodial coercion is to place him into
physical jeopardy, thus drastically narrowing his access to
sources of personal satisfaction and reducing his self –
esteem. This is true in:
a. Managerial aspect c. Restorative aspect
b. Humanitarian aspect d. None of the above is correct
36. The form of conditional release that is granted after a
prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a
correctional institution is known as:
a. conditional pardon c. probation
b. parole d. commutation
37. The Bureau of Correction is under the Department of:
A. Interior and Local Government
B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
C. Justice
D. National Security
38. The kind of pardon under which the convict is required to
comply with certain requirements is referred to as the
a. conditional pardon c. amnesty
b. probation d. parole
39. The act of the president changing and reducing a heavier
penalty sentence or longer term into a shorter term is known
as the
a. Commutation c. Pardon
b. Amnesty d. Probation
40. The meaning of the word oblivion is
a. forgetting completely c. class of persons
b. abolish d. community based treatment
41. The principle of separating homogeneous type of prisoners
that requires special treatment and custody is called:
a. classification d. distinction
b. diversification e. differentiation
c. quarantine
42. The process of determining the needs and requirements of
prisoners for assigning them to programs according to their
existing resources is called:
a. classification c. quarantine
b. diversification d. quality control
43. The formulation of tentative treatment program suited for
the prisoner is known as :
a. medical officer c. treatment planning
b. classification board d. treatment program
44. The lowest in rank assigned to sentinel post such as guard
houses and gates are:
a. Prison guards c. PO1
b. Senior prison guards d. NUP
45. The Custodial Division is charged with the security of
prisoners, which of the following is considered as the
commanding officers?
a. security officers c. senior prison guards
b. supervisor prison guards d. prison guards
46. Which of the following is the function of the Custodial
Division?
a. supervision of prisoners c. escort
b. keep records d. all of the above
47. The most used factor for diversification is:

a. degree of custody c. minimum security
b. maximum security d. graveness of crime
48. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of
protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them
by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment
program is referred to as:
a. imprisonment b. conviction c. Trial d. Detention
49. Prisoners sentenced from one day to three years or a fine of
not more than one thousand pesos are categorized as-
a. Insular Prisoner c. City Prisoner
b. Provincial Prisoner d. none of these
50. Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:
a. public execution b. social degradation
c. banishment d. public trial
51. During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent
away from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against
a specified territory. This is an ancient form of punishment
called:
a. exile c. transportation
b. banishment d. public trial
52. The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment
gives lesson to the offender and the would be criminals is
called:
a. deterrence c. reformations
b. incapacitation d. public safety
53. One of the following represents the earliest codification of
the Roman law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
a. Twelve Tables c. Burgundian Code
b. Code of Draco d. Hammurabic code
54. Municipal prisoners are those sentenced to suffer a term of
imprisonment from _____.
a. 1 day to 3 years c. 1 day to 30 days
b. 1 day to 6 months d. none of these
55. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary
in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in _____.
a. Palawan b. Davao c. Zamboanga d. Occ. Mindoro
56. In the history of correction, thinkers during the reformatory
movement were the major influences of today’s correctional
system. Alexander Mochanochie was the one who introduced the:
a. Solitary system b. Irish System
c. Marked System d. Congregate system
57. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction
during the Aquino administration in the Philippines?
a. E. O 727 b. E.O 292 c. E.O 645 d. E. O 104
58. The generic term that includes all government agencies,
facilities, programs, procedures, personnel, and techniques
concerned with the investigation, intake, custody,
confinement, supervision, or treatment of alleged offenders
refers to:
a. Correction b. Penology
c. criminal Justiced c. base pillar
59. Retaliation is the earliest remedy for a wrong act to any one
(in the primitive society). The concept follows that the
victim’s family or tribe against the family or tribe of the
offender, hence “blood feuds” was accepted in the early
primitive societies. Retaliation means:
a. Personal Vengeance c. Tooth for a tooth
b. Eye for an Eye d. all of these
60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code

prescribing savage punishment but in fact.
a. Hammurabic code c. Sumerian Code
b. Justinian code d. Code of Draco
61. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property
with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for
boys’ training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now
being used as the Manila City Jail, famous as the :
a. “ May Halique Estate” c. “Tandang Sora State”
b. New Bilibid Jail d. Muntinlupa Jail
62. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as
correctional treatment for major offenders.
a. Charles Montesiquieu c. Jeremy Bentham
b. William Penn d. Cesare Beccaria
63. The sheriff of Bedsfordshire in 1773 who devoted his life and
fortune to prison reform. After his findings on English
Prisons, he recommended the following: single cells for
sleeping, segregation of women, segregation of youth,
provision of sanitation facilities, abolition of fee system by
which jailers obtained money from prisoners.
a. John Howard c. Robert Peel
b. William Penn d. Manuel Montesimos
64. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means
that:
a. the guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
b. no one must escape its effect
c. it must be equal for all persons
d. the consequences must be in accordance with law
65. The duration of arresto menor as a penalty is from ____
imprisonment.
a. 1 day to 1 month c. 1 day to 31 days
b. 1 day to 30 days d. either A or C
66. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days
from the promulgation of the sentence, he escaped from his
place of confinement. He is:
a. liable for evasion of service of sentence
b. not liable for evasion of service of sentence
c. considered as an escaped prisoner
d. none of these
67. Ms. Banta was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After
serving her sentence she committed again the same crime. Ms
Banta is a:
a. recidivist c. quasi-recidivist
b. habitual delinguent d. mentally retarded person
68. Mr. Manny was convicted for the crime of homicide. While
serving his sentence, he committed the crime of rape. Manny is
considered a:
69. Ms. Tipan was convicted for the crime of adultery for three
times and with in a period of ten years. Tipan is considered
as:
70. Mr. Pande is a barangay tanod in their barangay. He arrested
Mike for some legal ground but he failed to file a complaint
against the latter with in the prescribed period of filing.
What crime did Pande committed?
a. arbitrary detention c. illegal Detention
b. illegal arrest d. no crime committed
71. Mr. Santos is a private individual. He conspired with PO1

Juan in detaining X. What crime did Santos committed?
a. Arbitrary detention c. Illegal detention
b. Illegal arrest d. none of these
72. PO1 Juan arrested Dino Santos by virtue of a warrant of
arrest. He failed to deliver the latter to the proper judicial
authorities with in the prescribed hours of delivery. What
crime did the policeman committed?
a. Arbitrary detention
b. Delaying Release
c. Delay in the delivery of detained person
d. Illegal arrest
73. The Camp Sampaguita in Muntinlupa houses:
a. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
b. Medium Security Prisoners
c. Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
74. The only early Roman place of confinement which is built
under the main sewer of Rome in 64 B.C.
a. Bridewell Workhouse c. Wulnut Street Jail
b. Burgundian House d. none of these
75. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction
is violated, to afford the society or individual the
opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment
as might be enforced. Offenders should be punished because
they deserve it. This is one justification of punishment
called:
a. Atonement c. Incapacitation e. a or b
b. Deterrence d. Retribution
76. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means
that:
a. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
b. No one must escape its effect
c. It must be equal for all persons
d. The consequence must be in accordance with law
77. The program which is conducive to change behavior and moral
by changing prisoner’s attitude for a useful education refers
to:
a. Vocational education c. Prison education
b. Work programs d. Recreational Programs
78. The purpose of commutation of sentence is to:
a. do away with the miscarriage of justice
b. break the rigidity of the law
c. restore the political and civil rights of the accused
d. all of the above
79. The following are the aims of diversification in prison or
jail, except:
a. more effective execution of treatment programs
b. to prevent physical contamination of one group another
c. to prevent unnecessary custodial risk
d. none of the above
80. The following are the duties of the custodial force in
prison, except:
a. Censor offender’s inmate
c. Escort inmates
b. Inspect security devices
d. Conduct disciplinary hearing
81. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves

the frisking of the prisoner.
a. Identification c. Searching
b. Briefing/Orientation d. minimum security prisoners
82. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just
been perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control
centers shall immediately:
a. sound the alarm
b. notify the nearest police precinct
c. locked prisoners in their respective cells
d. call the warden or the director
83. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force
shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical
posts to:
a. plug off the escape routes c. to shoot the escape
b. protect the other inmates d. to give warning shots
84. If the warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
command or the _______ officer present shall assume the
command.
a. Veteran b. assistant c. most senior d. custodian
85. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which
grants probation to prisoner sentenced to term in prison of
not more than six (6) years -
a. PD 603 b. PD 869 c. RA 6127 d. PD 698 e. PD968
86. Which of these is known as the release on Recognizance Law
providers for the release of offender charged with an offense
whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and/or a fine of
P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible person in
the community, instead of a bail bond -
a. RA 6036 b. RA 6127 c. PD 603 d. R.A. 3660
87. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for
probation, the offender applying for probation -
a. Must stay in prison as a detainee
b. May be set free without bail
c. May be released on bail or recognizance
d. all of these
88. The continuing relationship between probation officer and
probationer is known as -
a. Affiliation guidance c. Pre-sentenced investigation
b. Supervision d. Probation guidance
89. The court may grant probation only -
a. After arraignment b. After conviction
c. Before conviction d. all of these
90. The investigation report of an officer shall be submitted to
the court not later than-
a. 15 days from receipt of the order
b. 30 days from receipt of the order
c. 60 days from receipt of the order
d. 45 days from receipt of the order
91. Upon receipt of the probation officer investigation report,
the court shall resolve the application for probation not
later than-
a. 60 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 45 days
92. A private person who, in 1669, established a workhouse in
Hamburg at his own expense because he had observed that
thieves and prostitutes were made worse instead by better by
the pillory and he hoped that they might be improved by work
and religious instruction in the workhouse. He is:
a. August Vollmer
b. Peter Rentzel c. Bishop Ridley d. Garofalo
93. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method

that if the offender is solvent, his property should be
attached at the time of proceedings when started, so that he
can be compelled by order of the court to make restitution.
a. Bonneville de Marsangy c. John Howard
b. Garofalo, Ferri and Fioretti d. Orlando Wilson
94. Who is the Father of Philippine Probation?
a. Jose Lacson c. Juan Ponce Enrile
b. Teodulo Natividad d. Antonio Torres
95. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation
Law:
a. are qualified to apply for probation
b. are disqualified to apply for probation
c. may be granted for another probation
d. should be confined in prison
96. The quasi-judicial body which was created under Act no. 4103
otherwise known as the Indeterminate Sentence Law or the
Parole Law., the agency that grants parole to any prisoner who
is qualified to enjoy its benefit refers to:
a. The Probation and Parole Administration
b. The Board of Pardon and Parole
c. The Bureau of Correction
d. all executive clemencies
97. What is the country, whose early schemes for humanizing the
criminal justice under its common law, originated probation?
a. England b. United States c. Greece d. France
98. What is the country who first legally established probation?
a. Germany b. England c. Rome d. USA
99. Which of the following does not belong to the common law
practices to which the emergence of probation is attributed?
a. Recognizance c. Reprieve
b. Benefit of the Clergy d. Penance
100.Among the different common law practices, it is considered as
the earliest device for softening brutal severity of
punishment?
a. Benefit of the Clergy c. Penance
b. Recognizance d. Reprieve
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION IN CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE
=================================================================
===

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which one is an exception to the territorial application of

Criminal Law?
A. Law is given retroactive effect.
B. Law of preferential application.
C. Bill of Attainder.
D. While being public officers or employees, should commit an offense in the exercise
of their functions.
E. All of these
2. When an accused is on trial for a new crime and has previously served sentence for
another crime to which the law attaches an equal greater penalty, or for two or more
crimes to which the law attaches a lighter penalty, there’s an aggravating
circumstances of
A. abuse of Confidence C. treachery or alevosia
B. reiteracion or habituality D. unlawful Entry
3. Lando is an employee of Baltik Trade Corp. As an employee thereof, he was able to
learn the safety vault combination. One Saturday evening he went to their Office to
steal the money placed in the safety vault. He found it empty. For what crime is he
liable of:
A. Attempted Theft C. Frustrated Theft
B. Impossible Crime D. Attempted Robbery
4. The legal term “DELITO COMPUESTO” is best described as
A. Two acts producing two or more grave or less felony.
B. A crime as a necessary means of committing another crime.
C. A single act producing two or more grave or less felony.
D. A single act producing two or more light felonies.
5. Jorge is under detention for violation of RA 6425. One day he was involved in a fight
with e fellow inmate. He killed his fellow inmate, thus a case of homicide was also
filed. Is Jorge a recidivist?
A. Yes, because his second crime is considered as felony.
B. Yes, because he is already convicted of the first crime.
C. No, because he is convicted of his first crime.
D. No, because he is not yet convicted of his first crime.
6. Berto unlawfully shot to death Facundo while the latter was at his brother’s house.
What aggravating circumstance is present?
A. Disregard of sex C. Nighttime
B. Dwelling D. Superior strength
7. Which of the following is composed of three distinct penalties each forming a period?
A. Complex crime C. Complex Penalty
B. Complex Law D. Complex term
8. Caleb saw Mark attacking his own (Mark’s) wife with a Rambo knife. Caleb approached
Mark and struggled for the possession of the weapon, in the course of which Caleb
killed Mark. What justifying circumstance is present?
A. Defense of Stranger C. Defense of Relative
B. Self-Defense D. Avoidance of Greater Evil of Injury
9. The penalty to be imposed to an accused over 9 year of age but below 15 year old will
be lowered by -
A. Two degrees C. One degree
B. Three degrees D. Four degrees
10. Rudy killed Dick out of rivalry for the love of Dina. What mitigating circumstance is
present?
A. Passion and Obfuscation C. Confession of guilt
B. Vindication of grave offense D. Provocation of threat
11. Rino introduced himself as the Municipal Mayor as he was pacifying Bruno and Kulas
who were fighting inside a beer joint. Notwithstanding his presence, Bruno and Kulas
continued to fight until Bruno succeeded in killing Kulas. What aggravating
circumstance is present?
A. In contempt or with insult to the public authority.
B. Disregard of Rank
C. Abuse of confidence
D. Band
12. Before killing his victim, Abel drank gin to make him bolder in the commission of the
crime. What alternative circumstance is present?
A. Age and Rank C. Education
B. Intoxication D. Relationship
13. Banong, thinking that the person walking in a dark alley was Erap, his bitter enemy,
fired at that person, who was killed as a result. It turned out that the victim was
Banong’s own father. There was ____________.
A. Error in personae C. Praeter intentionem
B. Aberratio ictus D. Complex crime
14. Death and Reclusion Perpetua prescribe in ___________.
A. 30 years C. 20 years
B. 40 years D. 10 years
15. Criminal liability is partially extinguished by _____________.
A. Serving completely the sentence C. Conditional Pardon
B. Amnesty D. Parole
16. What kind of penalty is imposed when an accused was sentenced to pay a fine of
exactly PhP200.00.
A. Correctional Penalty C. Less grave felony
B. Grave felony D. Light penalty
17. Which of the following statements best defines “IMPUTED NEGLIGENCE?”
A. Negligence that was cut-off.
B. That the parents of the minor are presumed negligent if the minor staying with
them commits a crime.
C. Crime that can be avoided.
D. Felony committed through negligence.
18. Which of the following is not a source of Phil. Penal Laws?

A. Rev. Penal Code C. Special Penal Laws
B. Penal Pres. Decrees D. Legislative Decrees
19. Philippine Penal Law is applicable within the Philippine
territory to include
A. All of these C. interior waters
B. its atmospheres D. maritime zone
20. Which of the following is the best example of obligation and
securities issued by the Philippine Government?
A. money bills C. coins
B. Government Bonds D. Letter of Credit
21. Who among the following persons is not exempted from criminal
liability?
A. Ambassadors C. ministers
B. changes d' affraires D. consuls
22. What are the criminal acts punished by the Revised Penal Code?
A. Felonies C. Crimes
B. Offenses D. Misdeameor
23. What will a judge do if the acts done by a person being tried
in court is not covered by law?
A. Convict the accused C. Place the accused under probation
B. Acquit the accused D. Give the accused Parole
24. A swift attack on a military installation by elements of the
AFP or police is the same as
A. promoting rebellion C. Rebellion
B. coup de ‘etat D. Insurrection
25. What is the legislative action that punishes without trial?
A. Ex-post facto law C. bill of attainder
B. Unconstitutional law D. penal attainder
26. What is the stage of the commission of a felony when all the
elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are
present?
A. attempted C. consumated
B. frustrated D. enumerated
27. This is incurred by a person committing a felony although the
wrongful act done by different from what he intend to do.
A. Felony C. offense
B. criminal liability D. civil liability
28. This is committed when a person who decided to commit a felony
proposes its execution to another person.
A. Accessory C. accomplice
B. conspiracy D. proposal
29. Which of the following refers to the power of the state to
define and punish crime?
A. power of eminent domain C. legislative power
B. notice power D. executive power
30. Rebellion treason and sedition are crimes against -
A. public security C. national government
B. public service D. national security
31. If an offense was committed by a Japanese national on board a
Singapore Airlines plane abort to land at the NAIA. What
penal law will apply -
a. Singapore Law b. Philippine Law
c. Japanese Law d. International Law
32. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word
deceit?
A. dolo B. culpa C. fault D. negligence
33. A chief of Police of a municipality, believing in good faith
that a prisoner serving a ten-day sentence in the municipal
jail, would not escape, allowed said prisoner to sleep at the
latter’s house because the municipal jail was so congested and
there was no bed space available. Accordingly, the prisoner went
home to sleep every night but returned to jail early each
morning, until the ten-day sentence had been fully served. What
crime was committed by the chief of police?
A. infidelity of public officer
B. dereliction of duty
C. illegal detention
D. consenting on conniving to evasion
34. Pascual operated a rice thresher in Barangay Napnud where he
resided. Renato, a resident of the neighboring Barangay
Guihaman, also operated a mobile rice thresher which he often
brought to Barangay Napnud to thresh the Palay of the farmers
there. This was bitterly resented by Pascual. One afternoon
Pascual, and his two sons confronted Renato and his men who were
operating their mobile rice thresher along a feeder road in
Napnud. A heated argument ensued. A barangay captain who was
fetched men tried to appease Pascual and Renato to prevent a
violent confrontation. However, Pascual resented the
intervention of the barangay captain and hacked him to death.
A. Homicide with assault upon a person is authority
B. Direct assault
C. Homicide with assault upon an agent of a person in authority
D. indirect assault
E. Homicide
35. Suspecting that Juan was a drug pusher, SPO2 Mercado, leader of
the NARCOM team, gave Juan a P100-bill and asked him to buy
some marijuana cigarettes. Desirous of Pleasing SPO2 Mercado,
Juan went inside the shopping fifteen minutes, Juan returned
with the sticks of marijuana cigarettes which he gave to SPO2
Mercado who thereupon placed Juan under arrest and charged him
with violation of placed Juan under arrest and charged him with
violation of The Dangerous Drug Law by selling marijuana
cigarettes. Is Juan guilty of any offense punishable under the
Dangerous Drugs Act?
A. No, Juan is Not guilty of any offense
B. Yes, Juan is guilty of under the Dangerous Drugs Act.
C. Yes, for illegal possession of marijuana
D. Yes, for Illegal selling of marijuana
E. c and d only
36. PO1 Guzman saw Gorio, an inmate, escaping from jail and ordered
the latter to surrender. Instead of doing so, Gorio attacked PO1
Guzman with a bamboo spear. Gorio missed in his first attempt to
hit PO1 Guzman and before he could strike again. PO1 Guzman shot
and killed him. Is PO1 Guzman criminally liable?
A. yes self defense was proper
B. No, crime of murder was committed
C. No, there was treachery
D. No Crime, of homicide was committed
E. Yes, because Filemon was a criminal
37. CINSP Menor, while patrolling Bago-Bago community in a Police

car with SPO3 Caloy Itliong, blew his whistle to stop a Nissan
Sentra car which wrongly entered a one-way street. After
demanding from Linda Lo Hua, the driver, her driver’s license,
Menor asked her to follow them to the police precinct. Upon
arriving there, he gave instructions to Itliong to guard Lo Hua
in one of the rooms and not to let her out of sight until he
returns; then got the car key from Lo Hua. In the meantime, the
latter was not allowed to make any phone calls but was given
food and access to a bathroom. When Menor showed up after two
days, he brought LO Hua to a private house and told her that he
would only release her and return the car if she made
arrangements for the delivery of P5,000.00 in a doctor’s pad at
a certain place within the next twenty-four hours. When Menor
went to the designated spot to pick up the bag of money, he
suddenly found himself surrounded be several armed civilians who
introduced themselves as NBI agents. What crime was committed
by Major Menor?
A. arbitrary detention D. incriminatory machinations
B. illegal detention E. forcible abduction
C. Kidnapping
38. Rudy is an informer who told the Police authorities that Aldo is
a drug pusher. PO2 Cruz then posed as a buyer and persuaded Rudy
to sell marijuana worth P10.00 to the Aldo. Rudy agreed. He
delivered the goods and so Aldo was apprehended with the marked
money. Aldo is now prosecuted for violation of the Dangerous
Drugs Act. Is the act of the police officer proper?
A. No, because there was investigation
B. Yes, because Aldo is a pusher
C. Yes, because there was entrapment
D. A and C
E. No, because it was the policeman
himself who acted as pusher buyer
39. Amy was apprehended and arrested by PO1 Bart for illegal
parking. She was detained at the police precinct, underwent
investigation, and released only after 48 hours. What crime was
committed by PO1 Bart?
A. unlawful arrest
B. arbitrary detention
C. illegal arrest
D. illegal detention
E. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper
judicial authorities
40. Ador, a policeman, was cleaning his service pistol inside his
house when it fell from his hand and fired. The bullet hit a
neighbor on the stomach and a second neighbor on the leg. The
injuries sustained by the two neighbors required thirty-five(35)
days and nine (9) days of medical attendance, respectively.
What crime should be filed against Ador?
A. Frustrated homicide and slight physical injuries
B. 1 count of frustrated homicide
C. 1 separate crime of serious physical injuries and slight
physical injuries
D. a separate crimes of serious physical injuries and slight
physical injuries, both through reckless imprudence
E. serious physical injuries
41. Edgardo, a policeman, accompanied by Florencio went to serve a

warrant of arrest on Emilio, a professional boxer at the
latter’s apartment. Upon seeing Edgardo, not knowing that he was
a policeman immediately boxed him. Edgardo fell flat on the
floor. As Florencio tried to help Edgardo on his feet, Emilio
also boxed Florencio. Edgardo was given medical attendance for
nine (9) days due to his injury. What crime was committed by
Emilio?
A. Direct assault upon a person in authority
B. Resistance or disobedience to an agent of person in authority
C. A and B only
D. slight physical injuries
E. None of these
42. PO1 “A” caught “ B” one night in the act of removing the glass
jalousies of the window of the house of “C” which was closed.
“B” had already detached three glass blades. If A was arrested,
what crime should book against B?
A. Attempted robbery D. consummated theft
B. Attempted trespass to dueling E. consummated the space to
dueling
C. attempted theft
43. X, a police captain, arrested Y on suspicion of robbery. X
interrogated Y but Y denied knowledge and participation in any
crime of robbery. X then ordered Z, his assistant, to torture
Y. As a result of the torture, Y confessed despite his
innocence. What crime, if any, was committed by X?
A. unlawful arrest D. grave threats
B. illegal detention E. arbitrary detention
C. grave coercion
44. X is serving a 6-year prison term. In this fourth year in
prison, he discovered that the judge committed a mistake in
giving him a 6-year sentence when the law he violated called for
3-years imprisonment only. Y, the jail guard and a law student
checked X’s contention and found it correct. X did not want to
go to court anymore as he did not have any money to hire a
lawyer to file habeas corpus and he had lost faith in the
competence of Judges. X then informed Y he would just escape
and the latter did not object. As soon as Y turned his back X
sprinted out of his cell. What crime was committed by Y the
jail guard?
A. Evasion of sentence D. jail house rock
B. dereliction of duty E. no crime
C. infidelity in the custody of prisoner
45. A police officer surreptitiously placed a marijuana cigarette in
the breast pocket of the polo shirt of a student and then
arrested the student for illegal possession of marijuana
cigarette. For what crime or crimes will the police officer be
liable?
A. liable for incriminatory machination
B. liable for the complex crime of incriminatory machination with
unlawful arrest
C. entrapment
D. a and b
46. A, a receiving teller of the Philippine National Bank, taking
advantage of his position, appropriated the amount of P1,000.00
which he had in his possession. What crime was committed by A?
A. theft D. estafa
B. Qualified theft E. Malversation
C. no crime was committed
47. What crime exists when a single act constitutes two or more
grave or less grave felonies or when an offense is a necessary
means for committing the other?
A. complex C. continuing
B. composite D. compound
48. What must be considered in determining whether the crime
committed is only attempted, frustrated or consummated?
A. the elements constituting the felony
B. none of these
C. the nature of the offense
D. the manner of committing the felony
E. all of these
49. What crime is committed when A, while driving a truck, ran
over a girl crossing the street during a torrential rain and
the girl died?
A. homicide
B. reckless imprudence resulting o homicide
C. serious physical injury
D. murder
50. What crime can be charged of one who retains a minor in his
service against the minor's will and under the pretext of
reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by the child's parents?
A. white slavery C. exploitation of child labor
B. inducing a minor to work D. kidnapping
51. A notary public issued a supposed copy of a deed of safe, when
in fact no such deed of sale was prepared by him. A is liable
for
A. estafa C. falsification
B. forgery D. all of these
52. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by which
the existence of one fact is inferred from proof of some other
facts?
A. conclusive B. of law C. disputable D. of fact
53. During the pendency of his criminal case, A died due to heart
attack. His untimely death will result in the
A. termination of the proceedings
B. postponement of the case
C. suspension of the case
D. dismissal of the case for lack of respondent
E. None of these
54. When could an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding the
handwriting of a person?
A. when he has to testify only as to the mental and emotional
state of the one who authorized the handwriting
B. when it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient
familiarity
C. when he is a questioned examiner
D. when he is a graduate of criminology
55. Is the right against self-incrimination automatically
operational?
A. yes, it can be waived C. no
B. no, it must be claimed D. yes
56. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?
A. yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already
abolished
B. yes, under the law she is a competent witness
C. no
D. yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife
against the husband
57. A is a supply officer of a municipality. He entered into an
agreement with B to supply the municipality with some office
forms at a price grossly disadvantageous to the municipality.
The agreement as that part of the purchase price must be given
to A. The transaction did NOT materialize. A is maybe liable
for -
A. attempted estafa C. frustrated estafa
B. attempted fraud D. consummated fraud
58. When can a private prosecutor be allowed to prosecute?
A. under the authority of the Department of Justice Secretary
B. when done under authority of the public prosecutor
C. under the control and supervision of the public prosecutor
D. done under the supervision of the regional prosecutor
59. What crime is committed against mankind, and whose
jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial limits?
a. piracy c. felonies
b. theft d. suicide
60. Heads of State or Ambassadors can NOT be held criminally
liable in another state or place of assignment under the
principles of international law. This is an EXCEPTION to the
general characteristics of Criminal Law which is
A. prospectivity C. generality
B. territorially D. immunity
61. Who represents the People of the Philippines in criminal cases
on appeal before the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court?
A. Private Prosecutor C. City/ Municipal Prosecutor
B. State Prosecutor D. Solicitor General
C. a or c
62. What should the court do when the offense is less serious
physical injuries and the offense proven is serious physical
injuries and the dependant maybe convicted only of the offense
as charged?
A. he appears to be the least guilty
B. he does not appear to be the most guilty
C. not more than two accused can be state witness
D. he seems to be not guilty
63. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility
considered relevant to the issue?
A. when it is not excluded by the rules
B. when it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the
facts and issue
C. when it is not repugnant in taste
D. when it is not immoral
64. What circumstances can be considered aggravating with the
staying of an 80 years old woman?
A. abuse of confidence C. disregard of age and sex
B. neglect of elders D. disrespect of rank
65. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where

the penalty prescribed by law for the offense charged does not
exceed -
A. 3 years C. 6 months imprisonment
B. 6 years D. 4 years and 2 months
66. In a case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only
available witness. Can a priest testify as to the alleged
defamatory words given to him by the accused during
confession?
A. privileged given to a patient to a doctor
B. privileged given to a husband to a wife
C. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
D. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest
E. none of these
67. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the
commission of the rime, without having principally
participated therein, takes part subsequent to the commission,
either in profiting, by the effects of the crime, or by
concealing or destroying the body of the crime?
A. witnesses c. principals E. All of these
B. accessories D. accomplices
68. A, the neighbor of B, shot the pig of B which was eating A's
camote plants. A thereafter cook the pig's meat (pork) and
consumed the same. What is A liable for?
A. violation of Anti-fencing Law D. malicious mischief
B. violation of Anti-Cattle Rusting Law E. theft
C. cruelty to animals
69. What are the infractions of mere rules of convenience designed
to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society?
A. mala prohibita D. felonies
B. violation of ordinances E. mala perse
C. misdemeanor
70. X went to the United States. While he was there, he courted Y
an American. They eventually got married. When X returned to
the Philippines, his wife, Z filed an action against him for
violating their marriage. What is X liable of?
A. crime D. adultery
B. concubinage E. bigamy
C. b or c
71. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B
took possession of the warrant, wrote the name of A, endorsed
it at the back and was able to encash it. B is liable for-
A. estafa C. falsification
B. forgery D. all of these
72. What is that statement made by a wounded person shortly after
he received severe bolo stabs narrating therein the whole
incident to another which is admissible in evidence as part of
-
A. res nullus C. res judicata
B. res ispa loquiter D. res gestae
73. A, B, C are board mates of D. A, B, and C conspire to kill X,
a witch, because he is perceived to cause misery among many in
the barangay. D knew about it all along after conspiracy but
made no move to report to the authorities. In this case , D -
A. is liable for murder D. is an accessory to
murder
B. is a conspirator E. neither
C. incurs no criminal liability
74. "Aberratio ictus" has the same means as

A. mistaken identity D. mistake in the blow
B. results areless than intended E. neither
C. result is greater than intended
75. A, with intent to kill, fired a revolver at B. He inflicted a
fatal wound. A brought B to a hospital, and due to timely
medical assistance, B survived. What crime did A commit?
A. physical injuries C. frustrated felony
B. attempted felony D. no criminal liability
76. Under the New Constitution, who is empowered to order or
change the venue or place of trial in order to avoid
miscarriage of justice?
A. executive judge C. Supreme Court
B. regional trial court D. regional state prosecutor
77. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence
of a writing, the contents of which is the subject matter of
inquiry other than the original itself?
A. secondary evidence D. parol evidence
B. corollary evidence E. best evidence
C. hard evidence
78. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the
convicted person, subject to the three limitations to be
executed by the President?
A. pardon C. reprieve
B. amnesty D. penalty
79. What crime is committed when the offender, acting under a
single criminal resolution, commits a series of acts in the
same place at about the same time and all the overt acts
committed violate one and the same penal provisions?
A. composite C. continuing crime
B. compound D. complex
C. b or d
80. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire
commensurate strength in evidential value?
A. when it changes the burden of proof
B. when evidence for the prosecution is strong
C. where no positive and proper identification has been
satisfactorily made
D. when questions on whether or not accused committed the
offense is clear
E. None of these
81. B is less than three days old. He is a child of X by his
paramour Y. B is killed by X to prevent his discovery by X's
legitimate wife, Z. The crime committed by X is -
A. homicide D. murder
B. infanticide E. b or c
C. parricide
82. What kind of motion may be availed of anytime before
arraignment?
A. motion to dismiss D. motion to review
B. motion for reconsideration E. motion to quash
C. all of these
83. Who is a person in authority among the following:
A. policeman D. MMDA enforcer
B. barangay captain E. barangay tanod
C. All of these
84. A and B, living together as husband and wife, but not married.
A killed B. What crime does A committed?
A. murder only D. murder & homicide

B. homicide only E. parricide only
C. none of the these
85. A and B are board mates. B went out from their boarding
house. A put chair to block the door. Suddenly, a person is
forcing to open the door block with chair. Ask the person
forcing to open the door, the person is not responding. A
went to kitchen to get knife. B forced to open the door.
Then A struck B with the knife. B died. What crime did A
committed?
A. mistake in blow D. mistake in fact
B. error on personae E. mistake of identity
C. none of these
86. A with intent to kill B, burn the house of B. B died. What
crime A committed?
A. arson with M D. murder only
B. arson only E. all of the above
C. homicide only
87. Peter died to tumultuous affray. What should be the proper
case to be filed?
A. all of them will be put on the complaint
B. different charges will be filed to each of them
C. none of the above
D. both A and B
88. John stabbed Steve three times resulting to Steve’s death.
Due to circumstantial evidence presented, it found out that
Steve is John's brother. What crime did X committed?
A. murder C. homicide
B. parricide D. none of these
89. What is the minimum distance imposed to those punished with
“Destiero”?
A. 25 kms D. 50 kms
B. 75 kms E. none of these
C. 95 kms
90. How many days that a child that was born before the second
marriage can become legitimate?
A. 181 D. 180 days
B. 191 days E. 190 days
C. none of these
91. The crime of libel will prescribe how many days?
A. one (1) year D. two (2) years
B. four (4) years E. three (3) years
C. None of these
92. How many days before a Prosecution will issue a subpoena?
A. 10 D. 20
B. 30 E. none of the above
C. 15
93. XX killed his three-year-old child, what crime did he commit?
A. infanticide C. parricide
B. homicide D. none of these
94. A is walking a certain street, on his way, he found P100.00
bill. A went in a certain restaurant and spend the money to
pay the food he ate, what did A committed?
A. Swindling D. thief
B. estafa E. robbery
C. none of these
95. What is the penalty of libel?

a. one year c. three years
b. two years d. four years e. six
years
96. Which of the following evidence is the same, as that which is
already given?
A. Corroborative evidence C. "Factum evidence"
B. Cumulative evidence D. Testimonial evidence
97. The body of a dead person is ___________ if his death is at
issue.
A. real evidence
B. testimonial evidence if testified by a medico legal
C. secondary evidence
D. Corroborative evidence of death
E. None of these
98. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility
considered relevant to the issue?
A. when it is not excluded by the rules
B. when it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the
facts and issue
C. when it is not repugnant in taste
D. when it is not immoral
99. How should the plea to a “complain” or “information” be made
by the accused?
A. personality, in open court and of record
B. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the
accused
C. through counsel in open court and on record
D. personality by written motion
E. None of these
100. A Search Warrant is valid and can only be served once the
date of issuance, within;
A. 40 days B. 15 days C. 10 days D. 30 days
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION IN CRIMINALISTICS
=================================================================
===
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Latent Prints are made through the;

A. Ridge of the skin C. Furrows of the skin
B. Ridge formation D. Perspiration on top of the finger
2. It is the ridge count of the first loop in a set with
fingerprints beginning with right thumb except the little
fingers.
A. Final Classification D. Major Classification
B. Key Classification E. Primary Classification
C. None of these
3. Once a fingerprint has been visualized, it must be preserved
by;
A. lifting the impression D. photocopy
B. developing the latent print E. All of these
C. photography
4. If the ridge counts appearing on the right thumb is 17 and the
ridge counts on the left thumb is 22, what is the Major
Classification?
A. S B. M C. L D. L
L L L M
5. In taking the fingerprint of the dead bodies, were rigor
mortis has not yet started what should the operator do?
A. Little massage of the fingers to make them flexible.
B. Submerging the lower part of the forearm in sufficiently hot
water for a minute and rapidly and continuously moving the
wrist and the fingers.
C. Soak the fingers on a solution of strong ammonia.
D. Air is injected on the edge of the fingers.
6. In ridge tracing of a whorl, 3 or more ridges above the right
delta is considered as whorl pattern with -
A. Meeting Tracing C. Outer Tracing
B. Inner Tracing D. none of these
7. What is the case in U.S.A. which decided that the photograph
of a latent impression taken from a post of a balcony is
sufficient as evidence?
A. People vs. Riser D. People vs. Corral
B. State vs. Conners E. People vs. Jennings
C. Gamble vs. State

8. The right and left little fingers are used exclusively for the
Final Classification. However, they are also considered in
what classification?
A. Primary D. Sub-secondary
B. Secondary E. Key
C. Final
9. In counting ridges in whorl patterns, the count is taken from

A.the left delta to the core in left hand.
B.left delta to the core in the right hand.
C.the right delta to the core in right hand.
D.either deltas to the core in left hand.
E.the core to the left delta in right hand.
10. Which of the following is not represented by numbers –
A. primary C. major E. none of these
B. key D. final
11. If two amputated fingers are opposite each other, both are
given the classification –
A. similar to their counterpart fingers.
B. of whorls with meeting tracings.
C. of whorls with no additional reference.
D. identical to the opposite fingers.
12. In a set of prints containing all whorl type patterns, the
key classification is obtained by:
A. conducting ridge tracing on whorls
B. putting a dash on the numerator
C. conducting ridge counting on whorls
D. leaving it blank
E. None of these
13. The bifurcation which does not remain open but which legs
after along side by side for short distance, come together to
form a single ridge once more is referred to as-
A. enclosure D. converging ridges
B. envelope E. island ridge

C. closed ridges
14. The active substance found on Super Glue, Mighty Bond and
similar products utilized in gas method of developing latent
impression is
A. Victoria Blue D. Ninhydrin
B. All of these E. Cyanoacrylate

C. Tetramethyl Benzidine (TMB)
15. Which of the following cases held that the introduction into
evidence of fingerprint impressions taken without the consent
of the defendant is not an infringement of the constitutional
rights against self-incrimination?
A. Commonwealth Vs. Albright C. People Vs. Coral
B. Schmerber Vs. California D. Lamble Vs. State
16. The little white lines that are found on a fingerprint that
looks like scars of blisters and burns are referred to as –
A. scars B. warts C. furrows D. creases
17. The light from a pinhole will form -
A. a halo effect C. an inverted image
B. a photographic emulsion D. an emergent ray
18. A practical application of the use of a fast lens would be at
A. race track C. football game
B. nightclub D. all of these
19. The amount of light passing through a lens is controlled by
the aperture, or diaphragm. As succeeding smaller apertures
are used, the amount of light passing through the lens is
A. doubled C. increased one-fourth
B. reduced one-fourth D. reduced one-half
20. What is the process of converting the exposed image on the
film into the actual image?
A. developing D. fixing bath
B. stop bath E. none of these
C. washing
21. When light passes through an object, it is said to be:
A. transmitted C. diffracted E. a or c
B. refracted D. absorbed
22. The third layer in a color film is known as:
A. red emulsion C. blue emulsion
B. carey lea D. green emulsion
23. Do not leave the film in the direct sunlight because high
temperature can affect the
A. emulsion layer C. anti-halation layer
B. top coating D. film base
24. The higher the rating of the film, the
A. higher the number indicated.
B. more sensitive it will be.
C. lesser sensitive it will be .
D. light needed is also higher for proper exposure.
25. Non-chromatic films are sensitive to –
A. ultra-violet and blue colors only.
B. UV rays, blue and green colors but not to red.
C. infrared and ultra-violet radiation
D. ultra-violet rays and all colors in the visible spectrum.
E. None of these
26. Which of these layers of the emulsion which is sensitive to
blue and green lights, but not to red?
A. blue C. green E. none of these
B. yellow D. red
27. In photographing or recording unseen objects, or objects
located in dimly lighted or dark areas, you need –
A. infrared rays C. ultraviolet rays
B. gamma rays D. X-rays
28. The complementary color of red is –
A. cyan D. green
B. magenta E. yellow
C. blue
29. The bouncing or deflection of a projectile from its normal
path after striking a resistant surface is known as –
A. recoil C. rebound E. a or b
B. ricochet D. deflection
30. What is the phenomenon that occurs when a cartridge fails to
explodes on time or when is delayed in firing? This is mostly
caused by faulty function of the primer or faulty ignition of
the propellant.
A. misfire D. hangfire
B. none of these E. alibi
C. failure of explosion
31. Which of these is the accumulation of dirt or residue in the
interior surface of gun barrel caused by solid by-products
when a cartridge is fired?
A. erosion C. corrosion
B. filthy D. fouling
32. The arbitrary index of the quickness that burning propellant

changes into gas is referred to as
A. burning rate C. expansion rate
B. explosion rate D. sectional density
33. What is the device that fits over the muzzle of the barrel to
muffle the sound of a gunshot?
A. muffler C. sound eradicator E. b and c
B. silencer D. muzzle device
34. There are three (3) types of firearms, the rifle, the pistol
and revolver. When you’re recovered fired cartridge cases your
suspicion is focused to
A. Revolver D. Pistol
B. Shotgun E. Pistol or Rifle
C. All of these
35. European make firearms are usually referred to in English

measurement as millimeter in determining the caliber, when you
talk of 9mm the equivalent in caliber is;
A. Caliber .22 D. Caliber .25
B. Caliber .45 E. Caliber .30
C. Caliber .38
36. Jacketed and pointed bullets are also designed to be fired
from;
A. Pistol C. Shotgun
B. Revolvers D. Rifles
37. The pitch of rifling is the number of inches traveled by
bullet to make a spin;
A. 4 complete turn D. 3 complete turn
B. 180 degree angle E. 1 complete turn
C. 2 complete turn
38. The prober was able to collect rimmed cartridge case at the
crimes scene. What could be the firearm used if the
perpetrator discarded the said cartridge case?
A. pistol or rifle D. revolver
B. pistol E. All of these
C. machine gun
39. The term double action with reference to revolver means most
nearly that
A. the projectile explodes upon hitting the target
B. it has more knocking power
C. pulling the trigger will automatically cock the firearm
D. the shell of a fired shot is ejected and fresh cartridge
E. is pushed from the magazine at the same time.
40. Rifling in the bore of small arms is designed to
A. increase the sped of the bullet
B. decrease the amount of recoil
C. prevent the bullet from turning and over end in the air
D. increase the damage to the object hit by the bullet.
41. Who was the Tartar leader who used artillery in Liegnitz when
he defeated the Poles, Hungarians and Russians?
A. Gen Batu D. Mohammad
B. Tartaglia E. Kijiro Nambu
C. None of these
42. The pitch or rate of twist in the rifling of a pistol of
rifle barrel is called:
A. land C. lead E. none of the above
B. groove D. gauge
43. Of the following, the best method to use in firing a handgun
is to keep:
A. both eyes closed D. only the right eye is open
B. both eyes open E. only the left eye is open
C. All of these
44. The marks left on a bullet by a gun barrel are different from
those left by any other gun barrel. This fact is most useful
in directly identifying -
A. direction from which a shot was fired
B. person who fired a particular gun
C. gun from which a bullet was fired
D. bullet which caused a fatal wound.
45. At least three bullets are used in test firing, the second
test fired bullet is for
A. evaluation D. comparison
B. confirmation E. none of the above
C. None of these
46. Which of the following used in measuring "pitch of riflings"
of firearms
A. caliper D. taper gauge
B. helixometer E. micrometer
C. A and D
47. When a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal
A. the empty shell remains within the chamber
B. the shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing
C. the shell is rarely found at the crime scene
D. the shell is usually disposed by the perpetrator
E. None of these
48. What is the rounded outside of the top of the bend stroke in
small letters "m", "n", and "h"?
A. shoulder D. hump
B. arc E. None of these
C. arch
49. Which of the following refers to any major long downward
stroke of a letter like the long downward stroke of the letter
"b" , "g"?
A. descender D. staff
B. stem E. all of the above
C. shank
50. The widening of the ink strokes is caused by
A. added pen pressure D. when using a fountain pen
B. hesitation E. all of the above
C. stopping of the pen
51. The imitation of the style of writing by another person
becomes difficult because the other person
A. cannot by mere will power reproduce in himself all the
muscular combination from the habit of the first writer.
B. has entirely different psychological condition.
C. learned an entirely different fundamentals of writing.
D. has different experience in work, school and other
environmental factors.
E. all of the above
52. Which of these refers to the relationship between the heights

of the short letters with the tall letters?
A. slant C. position E. all of the above
B. ratio D. slope
53. The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper
surfaces is known as:
A. pen pressure C. shading E. none of the above
B. pen emphasis D. pen force
54. What is the probable shape of a gunshot wound if the target
is hit on 90 degrees angle
A. spherical D. rotund
B. circular E. all of these
C. None of these
55. Which of the following is the primary determinant of writing
speed?
A. Indicates speed writing C. Natural writing
B. Rhythm D. The written strokes
56. Which of the following refers to the irregular thickening of
ink which is found when writing slows down or stop while the
pen take a stock of the position?
A. shading D. hesitation
B. pressure E. none of these
C. knob
57. The rudimentary initial up stroke of a letter is referred to
as:
A. blunt C. spur E. goatee
B. beard D. tick
58. What is the term referring to any part of a stroke which is
super imposed upon the original stroke?
A. retouching C. patching E. all of the above
B. retracing D. reweigh
59. Which of the following refers to the fraudulent signature
which was executed by actually following the outline of a
genuine signature with a writing instrument?
A. simulated C. simple E. spurious signature
B. traced D. facsimile
60. The gap on a continuous stroke which maybe regarded as a
special form of pen lift is known as
A. pen lift C. hiatus E. none of the above
B. ball gap D. pen stop
61. Who is the Hungarian journalist inventor and printer who made
the first practical ball pen?
A. John H. Loud C. Bryon Donkin E. none of these
B. Milton Reynolds D. Lazlo Biro
62. The creative combination of printing and cursive writing is
called
A. printscript C. cursive E. none of these
B. scripted D. calligraphy
63. The author of a typewritten document can be identified
through
A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar composition, and
paragraphing.
B. individual characteristics of the typewriter machine.
C. design and style of the typewriter’s character.
D. brand and model of the typewriter.
E. none of these
64. What is the frequently encountered forgery of signatures?
A. Traced Forgery C. Simulated Free-hand
B. Simple Forgery D. Computer scanning
65. The branch of medical science which deals with the
application of medical knowledge for the purposes of law and
justice is referred to as -
A. forensic medicine D. legal medicine
B. medical jurisprudence E. medical forensic
C. All of these
66. When the wounded body part is the heart, the wound is
A. non-mortal D. deep wound
B. mortal E. fatal wound
C. all of these
67. The following are wounds brought about by a blunt instrument,
except
A. contusion D. lacerated wound
B. hematoma E. incised wound
C. none of these
68. A sharp-pointed instrument can caused
A. incised wound C. punctured wound
B. stab wound D. lacerated wound
69. As to the manner of infliction, how will you classify those
wound inflicted by means of bolo, blunt instrument and axe?
A. thrust or stab C. rubbing or abrasion
B. sliding D. hit
70. The pain on account of the involvement of the sensory nerve
is called –
A. dolor C. rubor E. None of these
B. calor D. loss of function
71. Which of these refers to the physical incapacity of either
sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate sexual
gratification?
A. impotency C. senility E. All of these
B. sterility D. pregnancy
72. The tearing or rupture of muscle fibers is known as –
A. sprained D. dislocation
B. strained E. simple fracture
C. A or E
73. The healing time of extensive tear hymenal laceration is
A. 2 – 3 days C. 7 – 10 days E. 30 – 60 days
B. 4 – 6 days D. 14 – 21 days
74. Children conceived by prostitutes are called
A. manceres C. adulterous E. illegitimate
B. sacrilegious D. incestuous
75. When the temperature of the dead’s body suddenly rises due to
rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal changes,
it is undergoing –
A. post-mortem caloricity C. post-mortem rigidity
B. rivor mortis D. post-mortem flaccidity
76. Which of the following terms refers to the injury found at
site of the application of force?
A. coup injury D. coup contre coup
B. extensive injury E. locus minoris resitancia

C. contre coup
77. When a woman is physically untouched, she is considered –
A. moral virgin D. virgo-intacta
B. demi-virgin E. physical virgin
C. None of these
78. Which of these is designed to prove whether the polygraph

subject possesses information regarding the identity of the
offender, location of the evidence or other secondary element
of the offender under investigation?
A. Control Question C. Interrogation
B. Knowledge question D. Evidence Connecting question
79. Which of the following causes physiological changes in the
body of the subject –
A. peak of tension test C. irrelevant question
B. relevant question D. the fear relation
80. Which of the following polygraph channels records the blood
pressure changes and pulses rate of the examinee?
A. Cardiograph channel C. Pneumograph channel
B. Galvanograph channel D. Kymograph channel
81. polygraph examination is -
A. Irrelevant question C. Mixed question
B. Relevant question D. Padding question
82. Administration of truth serum, as one method of lie detection
which uses a drug called
A. sodium amytal C. sodium penthotal
B. hyosine hydrobromide D.scopolamine
83. Intoxication of alcohol use the latin maxim “ In vino
veritas” as underlying principle. This latin maxim is
literally translated as
A. there is wine in truth C. In truth, there is wine
B. there is truth in wine D. In wine, there is truth
84. Etymologically speaking, the polygraph literally means
A. Lie detection D. deception in graph
B. many writings E. scientific diagnostic instrument
C. All of these
85. A well phrased question designed to cause a response from a
subject is technically called -
A. accusatory statement C. specific stimulus
B. symptomatic D. irrelevant question
86. When should you perform chart probing?
A. During the onset of the polygraph exam
B. At the end of each specific polygraph test
C. By the end of the polygraph exam
D. Anytime once the polygraph exam begun
87. If polygraph tracing of a subject indicates that he is
truthful, the examiners finding should be -
A. conclusive C. Inconclusive
B. negative D. Positive
88. Forensic evidence usually overlooked by the investigators in
the scene of the crime known as matters in the wrong place is:
A. flammable substance C. impressions E. Neither
B. dust and air D. smoke
89. Gaseous poison which emanates from the incomplete combustion
of fuels causes death on the victim by preventing the normal
transportation and supply of oxygen to the cells forming
Carboxyhemoglobin,
A. Carbon Dioxide C. Carbon Monoxide
B. Sulfur Dioxide D. Ammonia
90. Poisons are more absorbed rapidly through the body when in
the form of -
A. Liquid C. aerosol E. None of these
B. gaseous D. solid state

91. Tools marks which are produced by a single application of the
tool in one area of contact is called
A. Striation mark C. compression marks E. Neither
B. Friction marks D. identification
92. Protein found in human hair is referred to as
A. fibrinogen C. keratin E. None of these
B. lecithin D. choline
93. Black and smokeless gunpowder contains an oxidizing agent
called
A. chlorates C. carbonates E. None of these
B. nitrates D. sulfates
94. The poisonous substance derived from the bullfrog is
A. picrotoxin C. bufotoxin E. None of these
B. dilantin D. Dexedrine
95. The amount of blood alcohol considered dangerous to life is -
A. 5.0% B. 0.15% C. 2.5% D. 0.05%
96. The most popular preliminary test fort the presence of blood
is
A. Acid phophatase C. benzidine
B. millions test D. guaiacum test
97. The test use to extract gunpowder residues from the hands of
a person suspected to have fired a gun is
A. fingerprint C. diphenylamine
B. swabbing D. dermal nitrate
98. Methamphetamine is a secondary amine substance, therefore it
will respond to
A. Marquis test C. Fast blue salt test
B. Simon’s test D. Ruybals’s test
99. The confirmatory test for the presence of blood in an alleged
bloodstain specimen is:
A. Phenolphthalein C. Takayama
B. Benzidine D. Luminal
100.In moulage casting of impression, the most ideal substance
added to plaster to Paris to harden faster is -
A. Calcium carbonate C. sodium chloride
B. sodium hydroxide D. hydrochloric acid
DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATION IN
CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION AND DETECTION
=================================================================
===
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A criminal investigator who is discreetly listening to the

conversation of the subjects while the former is seated on a
table near the former’s table is applying:
A. eavesdropping C. discreet listening
B. bugging D. wiretapping
2. The word investigation is taken from the Latin word
“investigare” which means to:
A. determine C. solve E. All of these
B. prove D. trace
3. The person who popularized the employment of “a thief to catch
a thief” was:
A. William Henry Talbot C. Thomas Byrnes
B. Charles Dickens D. Jonathan Wild
4. Which of the following best describes corpus delicti:
A. the body of the victim in case of homicide or murder.
B. essential parts of the body of the crime or the body of the
crime itself.
C. the recovered stolen properties in case of theft or robbery.
D. any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed weapon.
5. All but one govern Criminal Investigation as an art:
A. Intuition D. Rigid Rules
B. Chance or luck E. None of these
C. Felicity of Inspiration
6. What type of reasoning is used in reconstruction of the crime
whereby the detective assumes a theory based on collected
information?
A. Deduction D. Inductive approach
B. Logical reasoning E. None of these
C. Positive approach
7. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant,
except
A. Appellate Judge D. Presiding Judge of MCTC
B. Chief Prosecutor E. None of these
C. RTC Judge
8. Physical evidence which identify the criminal by means of
clues, personal properties or the characteristics pattern of
procedure deduced from the arrangement of objects at the crime
scene is referred to as:
A. Circumstantial evidence C. Modus operandi
B. Associative evidence D. Corpus Delicti
9. If the purpose of the informer in giving information to the

police is merely to gain a pecuniary material, then his motive
is
A. Remuneration C. Repentance of sins
B. Revenge D. Vanity
10. Which of these is a statement of the suspect directly
acknowledging his criminal guilt?
A. Admission C. Confession
B. Acknowledgement D. Deposition
11. The New York Chief of Detectives who introduce the Modus
Operandi system in the field of Criminal Investigation was:
A. Thomas Byrnes C. Sir Richard Henry
B. Sir Francis Galton D. Dr. Paul Kirk
12. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as:
A. Heel C. Butt E. None of these
B. Bed ladder D. Fly ladder
13. What is the simpler method of computing the distance between
the heel of the ladder and the building?
A. Divide the length of ladder by 4 and add 2
B. Divide the length of the ladder by 4
C. Divide the ladder by 5 and add 2
D. Divide the ladder by 6 and add 2.
14. Which of the following restricts the spread of the fire to
the point of origin or at least to the area involved?
A. Extinguishments C. Suppression
B. Confinement D. Control
15. The technique used in clearing a building of smoke and with
the use of smoke ejector is:
A. Smoke ejector C. Forced ventilation
B. Horizontal ventilation D. Vertical ventilation
16. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point
of the roof is referred to as:
A. Vertical ventilation C. Cross ventilation
B. Forced ventilation D. Combination of cross
horizontal
17. Which of the following occurs when a room is heated enough
that flame sweep over the entire surface?
A. Backdraft C. Flashover
B. Oxidation D. Combustion
C. All of these
18. Who was the French Chemist who proved in 1777 that burning is
the result of rapid combination of oxygen with other
substance?
A. Antoine Lavoisier C. Thomas Alva Edison
B. John Walker D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit
19. The piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass
a safety device in an electrical system is called
A. Jumper C. damper E. wiring
B. explosive D. metal piece
20. The sudden burning of accumulated radical gases resulting to
the production of a fireball is called:
A. Flash fire C. bite back E. explosion
B. back draft D. flashover
21. A blue flame is an example of
A. Flames C. luminous E. laminar
B. non-luminous D. diffusion
22. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good

indicator of the intensity of the fire and an important factor
in determining incendiarism?
A. Size of fire C. smoke marks E. color of
flame
B. Direction of travel D. color of smoke
23. The presence of chlorine is indicated by
A. Black smoke C. biting smoke
B. reddish smoke D. white smoke
24. What is the lowest temperature of a liquid in an open
container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to support
continuous combustion?
A. Boiling point C. vapour pressure E. velocity
B. flashpoint D. fire point
25. Spontaneous heating is an example of what kind of reaction?
A. Exothermic reactions D. Flame
B. endothermic reaction E. kindling point
C. oxidation
26. A person who burns a building and pretends to discover it or
turn the alarm or make some works to appear as the center of
attraction is a form of pyromania called
A. Alcoholics and addicts D. Abnormal youth
B. sexual perverts E. Hero types.
C. pyromania
27. The rising movement of heat, which is also deemed as the
normal behavior of fire is called:
A. Thermodynamics C. Thermal imbalance E. thermal
balance
B. fire behavior D. wavering
28. What is the law amending the law on arson?
A. PD No. 1613 B. RA 6975 C. RA 1813 D. RA 8551
29. If the offender had tried to burn the premises by gathering
jute sacks laying this inside the room. He lighted these, and
as soon as the jute sacks began to burn, he ran away. The
occupants of the room put out the fire, what crime is
committed?
A. Attempted stage D. none of the above
B. frustrated arson E. any of the above
C. consummated
30. What is the act that when performed will neutralize a fire
hazard?
A. Offense C. incendiary act E. accident
B. abatement D. delinquent act
31. DNA stands for:
A. DEOXYREBONUCLEIC ACID C. DEOXIRIBONOCLIEC ACID
B. DEOXYRIBUNOCLIEC ACID D. DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID
32. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however
examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of
carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation
under such circumstance?
A. The person died because of the burning
B. The person died of asphyxia
C. The person was killed before it was burned
D. The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
E. The person died because of the autopsy
33. The official inquiries made by the police on the facts and
circumstance surrounding the death of a person that is
expected to be unlawful is referred to as
A. official investigation D. homicide investigation
B. death investigation E. post-mortem investigation
C. murder investigation
34. Legally, in order to establish a case of arson –
A. The fire must have been started by the suspect with his own
hand.
B. The property does not belong to the suspect of the crime.
C. The evidence of incendiarism must be direct and positive,
not circumstantial.
D. The presumption that the fire was accidental in origin must
be overcome.
35. In arson case, it is necessary to introduce evidence to prove
all but one of the following is not necessary to prove –
A. That the fire actually occurred at a specified time and
within the jurisdiction of the court.
B. That the building was burned by a criminal design and by a
person who is criminally responsible.
C. That the fire was applied by the hand of the defendant of
the case.
D. None of the above is applicable.
36. The different changes that take place in the body after death
are referred to as D. pos-mortem rigidity
A. post-mortem signs E. post-mortem flaccidity
B. post-mortem changes
C. none of these
37. The part of the body most affected to by heavy drinking are:
A. digestive system and nervous system
B. brain and veins of the body
C. the lungs and heart
D. None of the above
38. The stage of alcohol addition where there is the loss of
control becomes more complete is known as:
A. slight inebriation D. trouble on the road
B. crucial phase E. alcoholic

C. slight ineberation
39. Which alcohol is also known as wood alcohol?
A. ethyl B. methanol C. grain D. ethanol E. A or
C
40. A kind of beverage which are fermented from fruits such as
grapes and contain from 8% to 12% when fortified by adding
alcohol is called
A. tapey C. basi E. whisky
B. wine D. gold eagle
41. These are also known as the selective prostitute. These are
called
A. professional D. call girl
B. pick-up girls E. occasional
C. street girls
42. The annual crime prevention week is celebrated every 1st week
of
A. August C. July E. June
B. April D. September
43. The state of psychic a physical dependence or both an

dangerous drugs arising in a person following the use of drugs
on periodic or continuos basis is known as
A. physical dependence C. drug dependence
B. physical sickness D. psychological dependence
44. The physical characteristics brought about by the repeated
use of drugs having the tendency to increase the dosage is
called
A. convulsion C. delirium
B. tolerance D. over dose
45. Generally, the drugs that produces a relaxing state without
impairment of high facilities or the inducement of sleep are
known as
A. barbiturates C. tranquilizers E. None of these
B. stimulants D. narcotics
46. What is the first natural stimulant discovered?
A. nicotine C. caffeine
B. ephedrine D. epinephrine
47. What is the term used to describe the intoxicating effect of
a drug in the lingo of the drug users?
A. Stoned B. Rush C. High D. Trip
48. What is the method of introduction of drugs into the deeper
layer of the skin by means of special electric current?
A. Topical method C. Injection method
B. Iontophoresis D. Oral method
49. Among the following, who was the German pharmacist who
discovered the morphine drug?
A. Allan Heithfield C. Troy Mcweigh
B. Freidrich Serturner D. Alder Wright
C. None of these
50. What is the chemical name of the Heroin drug?
A. Amphetamine Sulfate C. Diacetylmorphine
B. Acetonyl Dioxide D. Methamphetamine
51. The drug heroin was chemically synthesized from
A. Morphine C. Codeine E. None of these
B. Opium juice D. Coca paste
52. What country in Middle East became the transit point for
cocaine from South America to European illicit drug markets?
A. Lebanon B. Iraq C. Kuwait D. None of these
53. What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms
of cocaine?
A. South East Asia C. South America
B. Middle East D. South West Asia
54. Shabu originated in China while Cocaine originated in
A. Columbia B. India C. Mexico D. France
55. All are narcotics, except:
A. Synthetic Opiate C. Morphine E. Cocaine
B. Heroin D. None of these
56. What is the group of drugs that are considered to be mind
altering and gives the general effect of mood distortion?
A. Sedatives C. Hallucinogens
B. Hypnotic D. Tranquillizers
57. Cocaine is a stimulant drug while LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen C. Solvent
B. Narcotic D. Depressant
58. What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
A. Heroin B. Marijuana C. Cocaine D. Shabu
59. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of

drugs that causes serious physical illness?
A. Psychological dependence C. Physical dependence
B. Addiction D. Withdrawal syndrome
60. The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of
hypodermic needles is mostly addicted to
A. liquid amphetamine C. shabu
B. heroin D. freebase cocaine
61. What is the psychological desire to repeat the use of drugs
intermittently or continuously?
A. Addiction C. Habituation
B. Potency D. Toleration
62. Psychologically speaking, in terms of motives and functions
of drug use, the more a drug is used the more it tends to
A. reduce the need for the drug
B. satisfy more than one motive or need
C. increase the satisfaction of use
D. give sense of well being
63. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out
smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person
is under the influence of
A. Amphetamine drug C. Hallucinogens
B. Barbiturates D. Narcotics
64. Which of the following drugs produces the effect of mood
elevation, heightened alertness, and increase energy?
A. Solvents B. LSD C. Shabu D. Narcotics
65. The death penalty is imposed upon a person who sell or
possess any of the following, except
A. 200 grams of shabu C. 38 grams of heroin
B. 40 grams of cocaine D. 800 grams of Marijuana
66. One of the following statements that best indicates the main
purpose of traffic law enforcement is to
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic
67. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the

following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. point of impact
C. the driver under the influence of liquor
D. vehicle has break failure
68. The occurrence in a sequence of events which usually produces
unintended injury, property damage or even death is called
A. accident C. damage E. None of these
B. key event D. fatal
69. The traffic sign that is triangular in shape and have a red
colored border is known as:
A. information sign C. instruction sign
B. direction sign D. caution sign
C. None of these
70. Mr. Cruz was issued a student driver’s permit on January 25,
2001. When can he be qualified to apply for a Non-
professional driver’s license?
A. after June 25, 2001 C. on or after June 25, 2001
B. after May 25, 2001 D. after February 25, 2001
71. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant

is:
A. 16 B. 17 C. 18 D. 21
72. Professional drivers are those who operate cars
A. with excellent maneuvering and controlling skills.
B. with professional driver’s license.
C. with excellent maneuvering and controlling skills whether
his/her license is non-rofessional or professional.
D. for purposes of earning a living.
73. When cruising on a four-lane two-way highway, slow moving
vehicles should use the
A. lanes 2 and 3. C. outer lanes.
B. inner lanes. D. either the inner or outer lanes.
C. A or C
74. As a general rule, you should overtake on the left side,
except when
A. the oncoming traffic is free from any obstruction.
B. the opposite traffic is free from oncoming motor vehicles.
C. traversing on a two-way two-lane highway.
D. cruising along a four-lane two-way traffic way.
75. The double solid white line:
A. doesn’t allow lane changing. C. allows overtaking
B. allows lane changing D. allows parking
76. Which of the following is a safe place for overtaking:
A. commercial places C. rural highways
B. expressways D. dry paved
77. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference on
the road should be anything which are fixed or permanent in
nature, while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of
reference should be:
A. corner of the edges of the vehicle
B. corner of the rear and front bumper
C. edge of the tire
D. center of the axle
78. When the vehicles in the collision are damaged, the
photograph should emphasize the
A. the direction of the motor vehicles
B. close-up view of the damage
C. the general view of the road or intersection
D. none of the above
79. As a traffic investigator, what is the immediate action to be
undertaken at the scene:
A. check for casualties C. check for hazards
B. interview witnesses D. call for assistance
80. The marks left on the road surface left by metal parts of the
vehicle and may serve as a clue in investigation are referred
to as
A. scuff marks C. scratches and gouges
B. skid marks D. flat tire skid marks
81. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the
brakes?
A. braking distance C. reaction distance
B. reaction time D. braking reaction
82. The color of the background for regulatory sign is:
A. blue C. green E. None of these
B. yellow D. white
83. The color of the traffic light which is on after the green
light is
A. amber C. red E. None of these
B. brown D. green
84. When the facts in the report are presented with appropriate
words and is free of propaganda, it said to be
A. complete C. relevant E. A and D
B. factual D. accurate
85. Which of these modifies a verb?
A. noun C. adjective
B. pronoun D. adverb
86. “Ibid.” means –
A. in the same place C. in the work cited
B. in the place cited D. none of these
87. “Loc. Cit.” means –
A. in the same place C. in the work cited
B. in the place cited D. none of these
88. What should be used after salutation?
A. coma C. colon
B. semi-colon D. period
89. What is the record needed to keep all members of the force
informed concerning police operation, assignments, and
administrative instructions?
A. Accident report C. Technical report
B. Daily record of event D. Continuation report
90. To avoid repetitions of nouns, we use a
A. verb C. pronoun
B. common noun D. proper noun
91. SPO1 Solomon Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his
Commanding Officer, on the strength of his recommendation. He
gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months passed and he
was still receiving the same salary. What form of
communication is missing?
A. memorandum C. special order
B. approval by his CO D. written confirmation
92. Which of these have the same meaning, but of different sound
and spelling?
A. vocabularies C. homonyms E. Antonyms
B. synonyms D. words
93. What is the safest practice to use if fire occurs in a flow
of liquefied petroleum gas storage tank and the flow cannot be
checked?
A. use foam to put off the fire
B. permit the fire to burn itself
C. use fog to extinguish the fire
D. use sand to smother the flame
E. None of these
94. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?
A. 20 B. 10 C. 30 D. 15
95. Which of the following is considered the most scientific
approach of noticing that there is loss of public funds?
A. By inspection and audit
B. By information
C. By accident
D. Disappearance of the embezzler
96. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical

evidence will be centered on which of the following?
A. undercarriage and hood of car
B. Tool marks
C. Fingerprints nail and clothing
D. Weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of
contact between victim and assailant.
97. What kind of driver is one who shows a complete disregard for
others, aggressive, impatient, demanding and thoroughly
selfish in his actions affecting other drivers?
A. Vociferous C. Defensive
B. Egotists D. Emotional
98. In hostage survival, how do we increase the odds for hostage
takers?
A. Stay alert, collect and store information
B. All of these
C. Control instinctive behavior and get small or non-
threatening
D. Analyze route of travel and don’t volunteer information
99. What is called of that self-incriminatory statement by the
subject falling short of an acknowledgement of guilt?
A. admission C. confession
B. informant D. deposition
100.How can a wound caused by bomb explosion be identified?
A. All of these
B. Sharpnels all inner the body
C. Presence of powder burns in the body
D. Severe tearing of clothing
ANSWER
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE
1. D 21. D 41. D 61. B 81. B

2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A 82. E
3. B 23. B 43. C 63. B 83. B
4. C 24. A 44. C 64. C 84. B
5. D 25. C 45. A 65. C 85. D
6. B 26. C 46. E 66. D 86. D
7. B 27. B 47. A 67. B 87. A
8. A 28. D 48. E 68. D 88. B
9. A 29. B 49. B 69. C 89. A
10. A 30. D 50. C 70. E 90. D
11. A 31. D 51. C 71. A 91. C
12. B 32. A 52. C 72. D 92. A
13. A 33. A 53. D 73. D 93. C
14. C 34. E 54. B 74. D 94. D
15. C 35. E 55. B 75. C 95. D
16. D 36. A 56. D 76. C 96. B
17. B 37. C 57. C 77. A 97. A
18. D 38. C 58. C 78. A 98. B
19. A 39. B 59. A 79. C 99. A
20. A 40. E 60. C 80. C 100. C
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1. C 21. A 41. A 61. B 81. A
2. B 22. C 42. C 62. B 82. C
3. A 23. B 43. D 63. C 83. A
4. B 24. B 44. C 64. B 84. D
5. C 25. C 45. D 65. A 85. A
6. B 26. D 46. A 66. B 86. D
7. A 27. C 47. D 67. B 87. A
8. B 28. B 48. C 68. B 88. E
9. A 29. B 49. A 69. A 89. B
10. C 30. C 50. E 70. A 90. B
11. E 31. D 51. A 71. D 91. B
12. C 32. A 52. D 72. C 92. C
13. D 33. B 53. E 73. C 93. A
14. A 34. A 54. E 74. B 94. A
15. C 35. B 55. C 75. A 95. A
16. B 36. D 56. A 76. A 96. C
17. D 37. D 57. D 77. C 97. A
18. C 38. B 58. C 78. B 98. A
19. B 39. C 59. C 79. D 99. A
20. B 40. B 60. C 80. C 100. C
CRIMINALISTICS
1. D 21. A 41. A 61. A 81. NONE

2. B 22. A 42. C 62. A 82. B
3. A 23. A 43. B 63. A 83. D
4. A 24. B 44. C 64. B 84. B
5. A 25. A 45. B 65. D 85. C
6. C 26. C 46. B 66. B 86. B
7. B 27. A 47. B 67. E 87. B
8. A 28. A 48. D 68. C 88. B
9. B 29. B 49. D 69. A 89. C
10. C 30. D 50. A 70. A 90. B
11. B 31. D 51. E 71. A 91. C
12. C 32. A 52. B 72. B 92. C
13. E 33. B 53. B 73. C 93. B
14. E 34. E 54. E 74. A 94. C
15. C 35. C 55. D 75. A 95. B
16. D 36. D 56. D 76. A 96. C
17. C 37. E 57. B 77. D 97. B
18. B 38. D 58. B 78. C 98. D
19. A 39. C 59. B 79. B 99. B
20. A 40. C 60. C 80. A 100. C
CRIMINAL DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION
1. A 21. B 41. A 61. A 81. B
2. D 22. E 42. D 62. C 82. D
3. D 23. C 43. C 63. B 83. A
4. B 24. D 44. B 64. C 84. B
5. D 25. B 45. C 65. E(NONE) 85. D
6. D 26. E 46. C 66. D 86. A
7. B 27. E 47. A 67. B 87. B
8. B 28. A 48. B 68. A 88. C
9. A 29. C 49. B 69. E 89. B
10. C 30. B 50. C 70. D 90. C
11. A 31. D 51. A 71. C 91. C
12. B 32. C 52. A 72. D 92. C
13. B 33. D 53. C 73. D (OUTER) 93. D
14. B 34. D 54. A 74. D 94. A
15. C 35. D 55. E 75. A 95. A
16. A 36. B 56. C 76. B 96. D
17. A 37. C 57. A 77. D 97. A
18. A 38. E 58. B 78. B 98. B
19. A 39. B 59. D 79. A 99. A
20. D 40. B 60. B 80. C 100. A
CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS
1. C 21. A 41. C 61. C 81. A

2. A 22. D 42. B 62. D 82. C
3. A 23. A 43. D 63. D 83. B
4. C 24. B 44. C 64. B 84. A
5. A 25. A 45. C 65. B 85. A
6. A 26. A 46. A 66. C 86. D
7. A 27. A 47. A 67. C 87. D
8. C 28. A 48. D 68. D 88. B
9. C 29. D 49. C 69. B 89. A
10. B 30. C 50. D 70. C 90. B
11. C 31. D 51. A 71. D 91. B
12. C 32. C 52. B 72. C 92. D
13. A 33. A 53. A 73. C 93. E
14. A 34. D 54. A 74. E 94. E
15. A 35. B 55. D 75. A 95. A
16. A 36. A 56. B 76. A 96. B
17. B 37. B 57. D 77. D 97. A
18. C 38. B 58. D 78. A 98. C
19. C 39. D 59. D 79. D 99. A
20. A 40. A 60. C 80. B 100. A
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION & PROBATION
1. B 21. B 41. B 61. A 81. C
2. B 22. B 42. A 62. B 82. A
3. B 23. A 43. D 63. A 83. A
4. A 24. B 44. A 64. B 84. C
5. B 25. D 45. C 65. B 85. E
6. C 26. B 46. D 66. A 86. A
7. B 27. B 47. A 67. A 87. C
8. A 28. A 48. A 68. C 88. B
9. A 29. B 49. C 69. B 89. B
10. A 30. C 50. B 70. C 90. C
11. A 31. A 51. B 71. A 91. C
12. A 32. B 52. A 72. C 92. B
13. A 33. D 53. A 73. B 93. B
14. A 34. A 54. B 74. D 94. B
15. A 35. B 55. D 75. D 95. B
16. A 36. B 56. C 76. B 96. B
17. A 37. C 57. B 77. C 97. A
18. D 38. A 58. A 78. D 98. D
19. B 39. A 59. A 79. D 99. D
20. E 40. A 60. A 80. D 100. A

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EXAMINATION IN

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS AND HUMAN RELATIONS

1. Criminologist states that crime is directly proportional to

9. Who advocated the theory that “feeblemindedness” inherited as

20. What nation pioneered banishment as a form of punishment?

35. What pillar of the Criminal Justice System is responsible in

39. Which of the following has the same meaning as respondent?

52. What is the compulsory process to insure the attendance of

69. What is the symptom if a person shows his intention to commit

78. Who defined White-collar crime as a criminal act committed by

90. What is the program designed to harmony and mutual support

100.Police Officers are duty bound to observe the constitutional

B. colleagues’ relations E. none of these

111.Youth problems to include juvenile delinquency, welfare and

1. What is the Executive Department that supervises and controls

22. The form of Executive Clemency which reduces the sentence of

34. The imprisonment a convicted offender may serve, at the rate

b. Preventive Imprisonment d. None of the above

47. The most used factor for diversification is:

60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code

71. Mr. Santos is a private individual. He conspired with PO1

81. One of the following is an admission procedure which involves

93. The foremost advocate of reparation and restitution method

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

1. Which one is an exception to the territorial application of

18. Which of the following is not a source of Phil. Penal Laws?

37. CINSP Menor, while patrolling Bago-Bago community in a Police

41. Edgardo, a policeman, accompanied by Florencio went to serve a

65. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where

74. "Aberratio ictus" has the same means as

A. murder only D. murder & homicide

95. What is the penalty of libel?

1. Latent Prints are made through the;

C. Gamble vs. State

9. In counting ridges in whorl patterns, the count is taken from

B. envelope E. island ridge

B. All of these E. Cyanoacrylate

32. The arbitrary index of the quickness that burning propellant

35. European make firearms are usually referred to in English

52. Which of these refers to the relationship between the heights

B. extensive injury E. locus minoris resitancia

78. Which of these is designed to prove whether the polygraph

B. gaseous D. solid state

1. A criminal investigator who is discreetly listening to the

9. If the purpose of the informer in giving information to the

22. Which one of the following items enumerated below is a good

B. crucial phase E. alcoholic

43. The state of psychic a physical dependence or both an

59. Which of the following refers to acute cases of withdrawal of

67. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the

71. The minimum age for professional driver’s license applicant

96. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical

1. D 21. D 41. D 61. B 81. B

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. D 21. A 41. A 61. A 81. NONE

CRIMINAL DETECTION, INVESTIGATION AND PREVENTION

CRIMINAL SOCIOLOGY, ETHICS & HUMAN RELATIONS

1. C 21. A 41. C 61. C 81. A

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION & PROBATION

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