QB

QUESTION BANK CHEMISTRY
1. The entropy change during flow of heat from a

higher temperature to a lower temperature is given 6. Which of the following relationships related to H
by is correct
T2 a. H = U + PV
a. S = 2.303 Cplog b. H = TS + VP
T1
qRe v (T2 – T1 ) c. H = U + PV + VP
b. S  d. H = G + TS
T1 T2
(1) a only (2) a and b only
– qRe v qRe v (3) a and d only (4) a, b, c and d
c. and
T2 T1 7. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is mixed with
H 1 mole of an ideal diatomic gas. The molar specific
d. S  heat of the mixture at constant volume is ?
T2
(1) 3 cal (2) 4 cal
(1) a only (2) a, b, c
(3) 8 cal (4) 5 cal
(3) b, and c only (4) d only
8. If P and  are the pressure and density of a gas,
2. The variation of free energy change with
then P/ is proportional to the ?
temperature and pressure is given by
(1) Translational kinetic energy per mole of the
(1) dG = PdV – TdS
gas
(2) dG = VdP – SdT
(2) Mean speed of the molecules
(3) dG = SdT
(3) Mean square speed of the molecules
(4) dG = Vdp
(4) Number of moles of the gas
3. Which of the following statement is correct
9. Which one of the following statements is wrong
(1) A tells us about useful work done
for gases ?
(2) G tells us about useful work done
(1) Gases do not have a definite shape and volume
(3) A tells us about non-useful work done
(2) Volume of the gas is equal to the volume of
(4) G tells us about non-useful work done
the container containing the gas
4. When 0.532 g of benzene (B.point 80ºC) is burnt
(3) Confined gas exerts uniform pressure on the
in a constant volume with an excess of oxygen,
walls of its container in all directions
22.3 KJ of heat is given out. H for the combustion (4) Mass of the gas cannot be determined by
process is given by weighing a container in which it is enclosed
(1) – 21 KJ (2) – 1234.98 KJ 10. A gas approaches an ideal behaviour when ?
(3) – 221 KJ (4) – 3273.26 KJ (1) Compressed to a smaller volume at constant
5. Maximum work is done during a process when the temperature
magnitude of the opposing external pressure (2) Temperature is raised keeping the volume
(1) Is largely different from the pressure of gas constant
(2) Is closer to the pressure of gas system (3) More gas is introduced into the same volume
(3) Exactly equal to the pressure of the gas system at the same temperature
(4) None of these (4) Volume is increased keeping the temperature
constant
[C–1]
AMITY INSTITUTE FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS : Ph. : 24336143/44, 25573111/12/13/14, 95120-2431839/42
QUESTION BANK (CHEMISTRY)
11. If a gas is expanded at constant temperature 15. At 100ºC and 1 atm, if the density of liquid water is
(a) The pressure decreases 1.0 g cm –3 and that of water vapour is
(b) The kinetic energy of the molecules remains 0.0006 g m–3, then the volume occupied by water
the same molecules in 1 litre of steam at that temperature is
(c) The kinetic energy of the molecules decreases (1) 6 cm3 (2) 60 cm3
3
(d) The number of molecules of the gas increases (3) 0.6 cm (4) 0.06 cm3
16. When the temperature of 23 ml of dry CO2 gas is
(1) (a) only
changed from 10º to 30ºC at constant pressure of
(2) (a) and (b) only
760 mm, the volume of gas becomes closest to
(3) (c) only
which one of the following ?
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(1) 7.7 ml (2) 21.5 ml
12. Compare two gases of mol. wt. MA and MB at (3) 24.6 ml (4) 69 ml
temperatures TA and TB. If TA/MA = TB/MB, then 17. 5.3 g of M2CO3 is dissolved in 150 mL of 1 N HCl.
which property has the same magnitude for both The unused acid required 100 mL of 0.5 N NaOH.
the gases? Hence equivalent weight of M is
(1) Density (1) 23 (2) 12
(2) Pressure (3) 24 (4) 13
(3) Kinetic energy per molecule 18. 1 mol of ferric oxalate is oxidised by x mole of
(4) R.M.S. speed MnO4– and also 1 mol of ferrous oxalate is oxidised
13. A gas container observes maxwell distribution law x
by y mol of MnO4– in acidic medium. The ratio y
of speed. If the number of molecules between the
is
speed 5 and 5.1 km sec–1 at 25ºC be ‘n’, what
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
would be number of molecules between this range
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
of speed if the total number of molecules in the
19. 40 mL of 0.05 M solution of sesquicarbonate
vessel are doubled? (Na 2 CO 3 .NaHCO 3 .2H 2 O) is titrated against
(1) 2n2 (2) 2n 0.05 M HCl. x mL of HCl is used when
n2 phenolphthalein is the indicator and y mL of HCl is
(3) (4) 2 n used when methyl orange is the indicator in two
2
separate titrations, hence ( y – x) is
14. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas of
(1) 80 mL (2) 30 mL
fixed volume is increased from 5 × 104 cm s–1 to
(3) 120 mL (4) None of these
10 × 104 cm. s–1. Which of the following statements
20. 10 mL of NaHC2O4 solution is neutralised by
might correctly explain how the change 10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. 10 mL of same
accomplished? NaHC2O4 solution is oxidised by 10 mL of KMnO4
(a) By heating the gas, the temperature is doubled solution in acidic medium. Hence molarity of
(b) By heating the gas, the pressure is made four KMnO4 is
times (1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(c) By heating the gas, the volume is tripled (3) 0.04 M (4) 0.02 M
(d) By heating the gas, the pressure is doubled 21. 10 L of hard water required 0.56 g of lime (CaO)
(1) (a) only for removing hardness. Hence temporary hardness
(2) (b) only in ppm of CaCO3 (parts per million) is
(1) 100 (2) 200
(3) (a), (b) & (d) only
(3) 10 (4) 20
(4) None of the combinations
[C–2]
22. 20 mL of x M HCl neutralises completely 10 mL of 27. 1 mol of real gas is allowed to expand under
0.1 M NaHCO 3 and a further 5 mL of isothermal and reversible condition from volume
0.2 M Na2CO3 solution to methyl orange end point. V1 litre to V2 litre. What is work done ?
The value of x is V 2
(1) 0.167 M (2) 0.133 M (1) 2 .3 0 3 R T lo g V
1
(3) 0.150 M (4) 0.200 M
V1
23. M (molarity) and M (molality) are related to each 2 .3 0 3 R T lo g
(2) V2
other by equation (m = molecular weight of solute,
d = density g/mL)  V  b   1 1 
(3) 2.303 R T log   1 a  

 m 1  V  b 
  2  V 2 V1  
(1) M   d 
 1000 M  
(4) None of these
 1000 M  28. An engine absorb heat of 5,000 kcal from a source
(2) M   
 1000 d – Mm  at 127ºC. Calculate :
(3) Both of these (4) None of these A. Efficiency of the engine
24. In the following reaction B. Useful work
28NO3– + 3As2S3 + 4H2O  6AsO43– C. Heat lost to the sink
+ 28NO + 9SO42– + 8H+ Sink has been placed at 27ºC
equivalent weight of As2S3 (with molecular weight (1) A = 25%, B = 1250 Kcal, C = –375 Kcal
M) is (2) A = 75%, B = 1260 Kcal, C = 3750 Kcal
(3) A = 25%, B = –1250 Kcal, C = + 3750 Kcal
M M
(1) (2) (4) None of these
2 4
29. In what ratio by mass, SO3 and N2 should be mixed
M so that partial pressure exerted by each gas is
(3) (4) None of these
28 same.
25. 100 mL of 1 M KMnO4 oxidised 100 mL of H2O2 (1) 7 : 20 (2) 7 : 40
in acidic medium (when MnO4– is reduced to (3) 20 : 7 (4) 40 : 7
Mn2+); volume of same KMnO4 required to oxidise 30. 1 mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed
100 mL of H2O2 in basic medium (when MnO4– is container under one atm. It is heated to 600 K when
reduced to MnO2) will be 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g).
100 500 The resultant pressure is
(1) mL (2) mL (1) 1.2 atm (2) 2.4 atm
3 3
(3) 2.0 atm (4) 1.0 atm
300
(3) mL (4) 100 mL 31. A hypothetical reaction A2 + B2  2AB follows
3
the following mechanism :
26. Sulphuryl chloride, SO2Cl2, reacts with H2O to give
A2  A + A (fast)
mixture of H2SO4 and HCl. Aq-solution of 1 mol A + B2  AB + B (slow)
SO2Cl2 will be neutralised by A + B  AB (fast)
(1) 3 mol of NaOH The order of the overall reaction is
(2) 2 mol of Ca(OH)2 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) both (a) & (b)
3
(4) none of these (3) (4) 2
2
[C–3]
32. The rate constant (K) for the reaction

2A + B  product was found to 2.5  10–5 litre mol–
1 38. A cubic crystal possesses :
sec–1 after 15 sec, 2.60  10–5 litre mol–1 sec–1
(1) 9 plane of symmetry
after 30 sec and 2.55  10–5 litre mol–1 after 50
(4) 13 axis of symmetry
sec. The order of reaction is :
(3) 1 centre of symmetry
(1) Zero (2) 3
(4) All of these
(3) 1 (4) None of these
39. The ratio of closed packed atoms to tetrahederal
33. The activation energy for a reaction is 9.0 k cal/
hole in cubic close packing is :
mol. The increase in the rate constant when its
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
temperature is increased from 298 K to 308 K is :
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 1
(1) 10% (2) 100%
40. Carnot’s cycle operates between T and 300 K
(3) 50% (4) None of these
(T > 300 K). It is 25% efficient when temperature
34. The rate of first order reaction A  products, is
of the source (T) is
7.5  10–4 mol litre–1 sec–1. If the concentration of (1) 350 K (2) 400 K
A is 0.5 mol litre–1. The rate constant for the (3) 450 K (4) None of these
reaction is k1
(1) 3.75  10–4 sec–1 (2) 2.5  10–5 sec–1 41. In the reversible reaction 2NO2 k2
N2O4, the
(3) 1.5  10–3 sec–1 (4) 8.0  10–4 sec–1 rate of disappearance of NO2 is equal to
35. An endothermic reaction A  B has an activation (1) k1 [NO2]2
energy of 15 kcal/mol and the heat of the reaction (2) 2k1 [NO2]2 – 2k2[N2O4]
is 5 kcal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction (3) 2k1 [NO2]2 – k2 [N2O4]
B  A is : (4) None of these
(1) 20 kcal/mol (2) 15 kcal/mol 42. The graph of t½ vs. initial concentration of reactions
(3) 10 kcal/mol (4) Zero (A) for a II order reaction is
36. Inversion of a sugar follows first order rate equation
which can be followed by noting the change in
t½ t½
rotation of the plane of polarization of light in the (1) (2)
polarimeter. If r, rt and r0 are the rotations at t =
(A) (A)
, t = t and t = 0, then, first order reaction
expression can be written as :
t½ t½
1 rt  r 1 r0  r (3) (4)
(1) K = loge r  r (2) K = ln r  r
t 0  t t 
2
(A) (A)
1 r  r0
(3) K = ln r  r (4) None of these 43. Five grams of each of the following gases at 87ºC
t  t
and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them
37. The density of KBr is 2.75 g cm–3. The length of
will have least volume
the unit cell is 654 pm. If mass number of K is 39
(1) HF (2) HCl
and that of Br is 80. What is true about the predicted
(3) HBr (4) HI
nature of the solid ?
44. For the first order reaction A(g)  2B(g) + C(g)
(1) Solid has fcc system with Z = 4
the initial pressure PA =90 mm Hg, the pressure
(2) Solid has simple cubic system with Z = 1
after 10 minute is found to be 180 mm Hg. The
(3) Solid has bcc system with Z = 2
rate constant of the reaction is
(4) None of these
(1) 1.15  10–3 sec–1 (2) 2.3  10–3 sec–1
(3) 3.45  10–3 sec–1 (4) None of these
[C–4]
45. A binary solid A+B– has a zinc blende structure 52. When CH 3 COONa is added to aqueous
with B– ions constituting the lattice and A+ ions CH3COOH solution
occupying 25% tetrahedral holes. Formula of the (1) pH value decreases
solid is (2) pH value increases
(1) A2B (2) AB (3) pH value remains unchanged
(3) AB2 (4) AB4 (4) pH value becomes zero
46. In the Schottky defect 53. A buffer solution of pH 9 can be prepared by mixing
(1) Some of lattice sites are vacant (1) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
(2) An ion occupies interstitial positions between (2) NaCl and NaOH
lattice point (3) NH4Cl and NH4OH
(3) A lattice site is occupied by electron (4) KH2PO4 and K2HPO4
(4) The ratio r+/r– is low 54. Ka for HCN is 4 × 10–10 at 25ºC. For maintaining
47. The hydrogenation of vegetable ghee at 25º C at constant pH of 9, the volume of 5 M KCN
reduces the pressure from 2 atm to 1.2 atm in solution required to be added to 10 ml of 2 M HCN
50 minutes. Then rate of reaction in molarity per solution is
sec. (1) 4 ml (2) 1.6 ml
(1) 1.6  10–2 (2) 1.09  10–5 (3) 2 ml (4) 9.3 ml
(3) 2.09  10–2 (4) None of these 55. A certain buffer solution contains equal
48. A crystal in which dipoles align themselves in an concentration of X– and HX. The Ka for HX is 10–8.
orderly way so as to give some net dipole moment,
The pH of the buffer is
on applying a field the direction of polarization
(1) 3 (2) 8
changes. Such crystals are called
(3) 11 (4) 14
(1) Ferrielectric crystals
56. When ammonium carbonate is dissolved in water
(2) Ferroelectric crystals
(1) There is no hydrolysis
(3) Antiferroelectric crystals
(2) Hydrolysis is due to NH4+ ions
(4) Piezo electric crystals
(3) Hydrolysis is due to CO3– ions
49. Potassium has bcc structure with nearest neighbour
(4) Hydrolysis is due to both NH4+ and CO3–2 ions
distance 4.52Å. Its atomic mass is 39 g mol–1. Its
57. A salt of strong acid and a weak base is dissolved
density will be
in water. Its hydrolysis in solution is ?
(1) 454 kg m–3
(1) Not affected by heating
(2) 804 kg m–3
(2) Increased by adding the strong acid
(3) 852 kg m–3
(3) Suppressed by adding strong acid
(4) 908 kg m–3
(4) Suppressed by dilution
50. The mode of energy constituting both kinetic energy
58. If Kb for NH4OH is 1.8 × 10–5, then degree of
and potential energy is
hydrolysis of ammonium chloride in its 0.01 M
(1) Nuclear energy
(2) Translational energy solution will be
(3) Rotational energy (1) 5.6 × 10–8 (2) 3.28 × 10–5
(4) Vibrational energy (3) 2.35 × 10–6 (4) None of these
51. By adding 20 ml of 0.1 N HCl to 20 ml of 0.001 N 59. If Ka of HCN = 4 × 10 , then the pH of 2.5 × 10–1
–10
KOH, the pH of the solution obtained will be molar HCN (aq) is

(1) 2 (2) 1.3 (1) 2 × 10–5 (2) 4.7
(3) 0 (4) 7 (3) 2.0 (4) 5.0
[C–5]
60. For an hypothetical reaction of the kind 66. One mole of ethyl alcohol was treated with one
AB2(g) + ½ B2(g) AB3(g) ; H = x kJ mole of acetic acid at 25ºC. Two-third of the acid
More AB3 could be produced at equilibrium by changes into ester at equilibrium. The equilibrium
(a) Using a catalyst constant for the reaction will be ?
(b) Removing some of B2 (1) 1 (2) 2
(c) Increasing the temperature (3) 3 (4) 4
(d) Increasing the pressure 67. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g) the
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
relation connecting the degree of dissociation ()
(3) (c) only (4) none of these
of N2O4(g) with the equilibrium constant KP and
61. The vapour density of PCl5 is 104 but when heated
the equilibrium pressure  is
to 230ºC its vapour density is reduced to 62. The
Kp / p Kp
degree of dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature
(1) α  (2) α 
will be 4  K p /p 4  Kp
1/ 2 1/ 2
(1) 6.8% (2) 68%  Kp / p   Kp 
(3) 46% (4) None of these (3) α    (4) α   
4  K /p  4K 
 p   p 
62. For the reaction I2(g) 2I(g), KC = 37.6 × 10–6
68. The equilibrium constant Kp for a homogeneous
at 1000 K. If 1.0 mole of I2 is introduced into a 1.0
gaseous reaction is 10–8. The standard Gibbs free
litre flask at 1000 K at equilibrium ?
energy change Gº for the reaction
(1) The concentration of I2(g) is more than that
(using R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1) at 25ºC is
of I(g)
(1) 10.98 kcal
(2) The concentration of I2(g) is less than that of
(2) – 1.8 kcal
I(g)
(3) – 4.1454 kcal
(3) [I2] = [I]
(4) + 4.1454 kcal
(4) [I2] = ½[I]
69. At 350 K, the molar concentration of Ag+, NH3
63. The equilibrium constants for the reactions,
and [Ag(NH3)2]+ at equilibrium are 10–1, 10–2 and
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) and
10–3 respectively in the reaction :
NO(g) + ½O2(g) NO2(g) are K 1 and K 2
Ag+ + 2NH3 [Ag(NH3)2]+.
respectively. Then the equilibrium constant for the
The value of equilibrium constant is
equilibrium N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2(g) is ?
(1) 102 (2) 2 × 10–2
(1) K1/K2 (2) K1K2 –3
(3) K1K2 2
(4) K12K2 (3) 2 × 10 (4) 5 × 10–3
64. For the decomposition reaction 70. Which of the following is not correct for ideal
NH2COONH4(s) 2 NH3(g) + CO2(g) solution?
the Kp = 2.9 × 10–5 atm3. The total pressure of (1) Smixing = 0
gases at equilibrium when 1.0 mol of (2) Vmixing = 0
NH2COONH4(s) was taken to start with would (3) Hmixing = 0
be (4) It obeys Raoult’s law
(1) 0.0194 atm (2) 0.0388 atm 71. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is
(3) 0.0582 atm (4) 0.0766 atm 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm whose radius and length are 7 Å
65. In a chemical equilibrium A + B C + D when and 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find
one mole each of the two reactants are mixed, molecular weight of virus.
0.6 mole each of the products are formed. The (1) 15.4 kg/mol
equilibrium constant is ? (2) 15.4 × 104 kg/mol
(1) 1 (2) 0.36 (3) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol
(3) 2.25 (4) 4/9 (4) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol
[C–6]
72. The beans are cooked earlier in pressure cooker 78. Which of the following solution will have the highest
because boiling point ?
(1) Boiling point increases with increasing pressure (1) 1% solution of glucose in water
(2) Boiling point decreases with increasing (2) 1% solution of sucrose in water
pressure (3) 1% solution of sodium chloride in water
(3) Extra pressure of pressure cooker softens the (4) 1% solution of calcium chloride in water
beans 79. Which of the following does not show positive
(4) Internal energy is not lost while cooking in deviation from Raoult’s law ?
pressure cooker (a) Benzene–Chloroform
73. In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of (b) Chloroform–Acetone
toluene in vapour is (c) Benzene–Ethanol
(1) Equal to pressure of barometer (d) Benzene–Carbon tetrachloride
(2) Less than pressure of barometer (1) a and c only (2) a only
(3) Equal to vapour pressure of toluene in simple (3) a and b only (4) d only
80. Let the solubility of AgCl in water, in 0.02 M CaCl2,
distillation
in 0.01 M NaCl and in 0.05 M AgNO3 be S1, S2, S3
(4) More than vapour pressure of toluene in simple
and S4, respectively. The correct order of these
distillation
solubilities
74. The vapour pressure of a solvent decreases by
(1) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 (2) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
10 mm of mercury when a non-volatile solute was
(3) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 (4) S1 > S2 > S4 > S3
added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute
81. The solubility product of BaF2 has the value of
in the solution is 0.2. What should be the mole
1.7 × 10–6. If V1 ml of BaCl2 (10–1 M) and V2 ml
fraction of the solvent if the decrease in vapour
of NaF solution (10–2 M) are mixed. What is the
pressure is to be 20 mm of mercury ?
ratio V1 : V2 so that a precipitate may be obtained
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.6
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
(3) Both of these (4) None of these
75. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 82. Dust storm is ?
K when 10 g glucose (P1), 10 g urea (P2), and 10 g (1) Dispersion of solid in gas
sucrose (P3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is ? (2) Dispersion of a gas in solid
(1) P1 > P2 > P3 (2) P3 > P1 > P2 (3) Dispersion of solid in solid
(3) P2 > P1 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) Dispersion of a gas in liquid
76. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal 83. Which of the following electrolytes will be most
to the ratio between the number of ? effective in the coagulation of gold sol.
(1) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules (1) NaNO3 (2) K4 [Fe(CN)6]
(2) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the (3) Na 3PO4 (4) MgCl2
solution 84. Peptizing agent is
(3) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the (1) Always an electrolyte
solution (2) Always a non-electrolyte
(4) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions (3) May be an electrolyte or a non-electrolyte
of the solute (4) A lyophilic colloid
77. The Van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution 85. A dilute solution of litmus becomes colourless on
is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is ? shaking with charcoal. This is due to
(1) 91.3% (2) 87% (1) Absorption (2) Absorption
(3) 100% (4) 74% (3) Chemical reaction (4) Both (1) and (2)
[C–7]
86. Soap essentially forms a colloidal solution in water 92. Standard electrode potential data are useful for
and removes grease by understanding the suitability of an oxidant in a redox
(1) Adsorption titration. Some half cell reactions and their standard
(2) Emulsification potentials are given below :
(3) Coagulation MnO4–(aq) + 8H+(aq)
(4) None of these + 5e–  Mn2+(aq) + 4H2O(I), E0 = 1.51 V
87. The coagulation if 103 cm of Gold sol is completely Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq)
prevented by addition of 0.025 g of starch to it. + 6e–  2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(I), E0 = 1.38 V
The gold number of starch is Fe3+(aq) + e–  Fe2+(aq) E0 = 0.77 V
– –
(1) 0.025 (2) 0.25 Cl2(g) + 2e  2Cl (aq) E0 = 1.40 V
(3) 2.5 (4) 25 Identify the only incorrect statement regarding the
88. Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a quantitative estimation of aqueous Fe(NO3)2
gas on surface of solid? (1) MnO4– can be used in aqueous HCl
(1) On increasing temperature adsorption (2) Cr2O42– can be used in aqueous HCl
increases continuously (3) MnO4– can be used in aqueous H2SO4
(4) Enthalpy and entropy change is negative (4) Cr2O72– can be used in aqueous H2SO4
(3) Adsorption is more for some specific 93. A current of 2.0 A passed for 5 hours through a
substance molten metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal
(At. wt. = 177). The oxidation state of the metal in
(4) It is a reversible reaction
the metal salt is
89. Emulsifier helps in
(1) + 1 (2) + 2
(1) Stabilising the emulsion
(3) + 3 (4) None of these
(2) Destabilising the emulsion
94. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(3) Forming the emulsion
With dilution, the equivalent conductance of
(4) Breaking the emulsion
(1) Both strong and weak electrolytes decreases
90. For the electrochemical cell, M | M+ II X– | X,
(2) Strong electrolyte increases while that of weak
Eº(M+/M) = 0.44 V and Eº(X/X–) = 0.33 V. From
electrolyte decreases
this data, one can deduce that
(3) Strong electrolyte decreases while that of
(1) M+ X  M+ + X– is the spontaneous reaction
weak electrolyte increases
(2) M+ X–  M + X is the spontaneous reaction
(4) Both strong and weak electrolyte increases
(3) Ecell = 0.77 V
95. The protection of steel by chrome plating is due to
(4) Ecell = – 0.77 V
(1) Cathodic protection
91. Electrode potential data are given below :
(2) Anodic protection
Fe+3 (aq) + e–  Fe2+ (aq) ; Eº = + 0.77 V
(3) Covering of steel surface
Al+3 (aq) + 3e–  Al (s) ; Eº = – 1.66 V
(4) Formation of alloy with iron
Br2 (aq) + 2e–  2 Br– (aq) ; Eº = + 1.08 V
96. The standard electrode potential (Eº) for OCl–/Cl–
Based on the data, the reducing power of Fe2+,
1
Al and Br– will increase in the order and Cl – / Cl respectively are 0.94 V and
2 2
(1) Br– < Fe2+ < Al 1
–1.36 V. The Eº value for OCl–/ Cl2 will be
(2) Fe2+ < Al < Br– 2
(3) Al < Br– < Fe2+ (1) – 0.42 V (2) – 2.20 V
(4) None of these (3) 0.52 V (4) 1.04 V
[C–8]
97. The conductivity of a saturated solution of BaSO4 102. The Ksp of PbCO3 and MgCO3 are 1.5 × 10–15
is 3.06 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1 and its molar conductor and 1 × 10 –15 respectively at 298 K. The
at infinite dilution 1.53 ohm–1 cm2 equiv–1. The Ksp concentration of Pb2+ ions in a saturated solution
for BaSO4 will be containing MgCO3 and PbCO3 is
(1) 4  10–12 (2) 2.5  10–9 (1) 1.5 × 10–4 M (2) 3 × 10–8 M
(3) 2.5  10–13 (4) 4 × 10–6 (3) 2 × 10–8 M (4) 2.5 × 10–8 M
98. Eº of Fe/Fe2+ is + 0.44 V ; Eº of Cu/Cu2+ is
103. A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at
– 0.32 V. Then in the cell
pH = 3.58 that efficiently resists a change in pH
(1) Cu oxidises Fe2+ ion
yet contains only small concentration of the
(2) Cu2+ oxidises Fe2+ ion
buffering agents. Which one of the following weak
(3) Cu reduces Fe2+ ion
acid together with its sodium salt would be best to
(4) None of these
99. Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode is given use
by? (1) m-chloro benzoic acid (pKa = 3.98)
RT 1/2
(2) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 4.41)
(1) E H 2  ln pH 2 (3) 2, 5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97)
F
RT (4) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)
(2) E H 2  ln a H 
F 104. The best explanation for the solubility of MnS in
RT dil. HCl is that
(3) E H 2 – ln a H 
F (1) Solubility product of MnCl2 is less than that of
RT PH 21 / 2 MnS
(4) E H 2 – ln
F a H (2) Concentratioin of Mn2+ is lowered by the
100. The standard potentials at 25ºC for the following formation of complex ions with chloride ions
half reactions are given against them. (3) Concentration of sulphide ions is lowered by
Zn2+ + 2e  Zn, Eº = –0.762 V oxidation to free sulphur
Mg2+ + 2e  Mg, Eº = –2.37 V (4) Concentration of sulphide ions is lowered by
When zinc dust is added to the solution of MgCl2? formation of the weak acid H2S
(1) ZnCl2 is formed
105. Weak electrolytes are only partly dissociated in
(2) Zinc dissolves in the solution
solutions. The extent to which they are dissociated
(3) No reaction takes place
in a given solution is known as the ‘Degree of
(4) Mg is precipitated
dissociation’. Which of the following statements
101. Acetic acid and propionic acid have Ka values
for this degree of dissociation in aqueous solution
1.75 × 10–5 and 1.3 × 10–5 respectively at a certain
temperature. An equimolar solution of a mixture is true
of the two acids is partially neutralised by NaOH. (a) It is inversely proportional to the square root
How is the ratio of the contents of acetate and of initial concentration of the electrolyte
propionate ions related to the Ka values and the (b) It is directly proportional to the initial
molarity concentration of the electrolyte
   1.75    (c) It is independent of the initial concentration of
(1)      , 0 where  and 
1   1.3  1    the electrolyte
are ionised fractions of the acids (d) It depends on the equilibrium constant of the
(2) The ratio is unrelated to the Ka values electrolyte
(3) The ratio is unrelated to the molarity (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (d) only
(4) The ratio is unrelated to the pH of the solution (3) (d) only (4) (b) only
[C–9]
106. A buffer solution helps in maintaining the 112. A carnot engine operates between temperature
(1) Alkalinity of solution T and 400 K (T > 400 K). If efficiency of engine is
(2) Acidic nature of solution 25%, the temperature T is
(3) pH of medium (1) 400 K (2) 500 K
(4) None of these (3) 533.3 K (4) 600 K
107. For NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g), the observed 113. A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume
pressure for reaction mixture in equilibrium is and its temperature rises from 27ºC to 37ºC. The
1.12 atm at 106ºC. The value of Kp for the reaction E of reaction is
is (1) 100 kJ (2) 10 kJ
(1) 3.136 atm2 (2) 0.3136 atm2 (3) Zero (4) 1 kJ
(3) 31.36 atm2 (4) 6.98 atm2 114. Work done by a gas in reversible isothermal process
is equal to _______ in magnitude
108. Sulphide ions in alkaline solution react with solid
V2 nR
sulphur to form polyvalent sulphide ions. The (1) 2.303 RT log V (2) (   1) (T2  T1 )
1
equilibrium constant for the formation of S22– and
V1
S32– from S and S2– are 1.7 and 5.3 respectively. (3) 2.303 RT log V (4) None of these
2
Equilibrium constant for the formation of S32– from
115. For the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas
S22– and S is
(1) PV = constant (2) TV–1 = constant
(1) 1.33 (2) 3.11
(3) TV1– = constant (4) All of these
(3) 4.21 (4) 1.63
116. The temperature coefficient of e.m.f. of a cell can
109. At temperature T, a compound AB2(g) dissociated be given by
according to the reaction
 E  S
2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g) (1)  T   nF
 p
with a degree of dissociation x, which is small
 E   E2  E1 
compared with unity. The expression for Kp, in (2)  T    T  T 
terms of x and the total pressure, P is p  2 1 p
Px 3 Px 2  E   H  1
(1) (2) (3)  T    nF  E  · T
2 3  p  
(4) All of these
Px 3
(3) (4) None of these 117. Boiling point of a liquid is 50 K at 1 atm and
3
Hvap.= 460.6 cal mol–1. What will be its b.pt. at
110. A reaction P 2Q is taking place in a two litre
10 atm.
container. If the degree of dissociation is 0.4, the
(1) 150 K (2) 75 K
equilibrium constant is
(3) 100 K (4) 200 K
(1) 0.53 (2) 5.3
118. In a second order reaction, first order in each
(3) 53 (4) 530
reactant A and B, which one of the following
111. Kc for reaction
reactant mixtures will provide the highest initial rate
[Ag(CN)2]– Ag+ + 2CN–, (1) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 0.1 litre
the equilibrium constant at 25ºC is 4.0 × 10–19, then solvent
the silver ion concentration in a solution which was (2) 0.2 mole of A and 0.2 mole of B in 0.1 litre
originally 0.1 molar in KCN and 0.03 molar in solvent
AgNO3 is (3) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 1 litre
(1) 7.5 × 1018 (2) 7.5 × 10–18 solvent
(3) 7.5 × 1019 (4) 7.5 × 10–19 (4) 0.1 mole of A and 0.1 mole of B in 0.2 litre
solvent
[C–10]
1 124. A first order reaction is carried out with an initial

119. Figure shows a graph in log10 K vs where K is
T concentration of 10 mole per litre and 80% of the
rate constant and T is temperature. reactant changes into the product. Now if the same
B
reaction is carried out with an initial concentration
of 5 mol per litre the percentage of the reactant
log10K changing to the product is
 C (1) 40
(2) 80
(3) 160
A (4) Cannot be calculated
1
T 125. A hypothetical reaction, A2 + B2 — 2AB follows
1 the mechanism as given below
The straight line BC has slope, tan   
2.303 A2 A + A ......... (fast)
and an intercept on y-axis. Thus Ea, the energy of A + B2  AB + B ............(slow)
activation is A + B  AB .............(fast)
2 The order of the over all reaction is
(1) 2.303 × 2 cal (2) cal (1) 2 (2) 1
2.303
(3) 2 cal (4) None of these 1
(3) 1 (4) zero
120. The order of a gaseous phase reaction for which 2
rate becomes half if volume of container having 126. The activation energies of two reactions are Ea
same amount of reactant is doubled is and E'a with Ea > E'a. If the temperature of the
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 reacting systems is increased from T1 to T2, predict
(3) 2 (4) 1/3 which alternative is correct, k' are rate constants
121. A drop of solution (volume 0.05 mL) contains at higher temperature. Assume A being same for
both the reactions :
3.0 × 10–6 mole of H+. If the rate constant of
k k 2
disappearance of H+ is 1.0 × 107 mol litre–1 sec–1. (1) k  k
1 2
How long would it take for H+ in drop to disappear
(2) k1 < k2 and k'1 < k'2
(1) 6 × 10–8 sec. (2) 6 × 10–7 sec.
(3) k1 > k2 and k'1 > k'2
(3) 6 × 10–9 sec. (4) 6 × 10–10 sec.
k 2 k 2
122. The rate constant is numerically the same for three (4) k  k
1 2
reactions of first, second and third order 127. In acidic medium the rate of reaction between
respectively. Which one is true for rate of three (BrO3)– and Br– ions is given by the expression.
reaction, if concentration of reactant is greater than d (BrO 3– )
1M –  K [BrO 3– ] [Br – ] [H  ]2
dt
(1) r1 = r2 = r3 (2) r1 > r2 > r3 It means
(3) r1 < r2 < r3 (4) All of these (1) Rate constant of overall reaction is 4 sec–1
123. The rate constant for the reaction : (2) Rate of reaction is independent of the
2N2O4 — 4NO2 + O2, is 3.0 × 10–5 sec–1 concentration of acid
if the rate is 2.40 × 10–5 mol litre–1 sec–1, then the (3) The change in pH of the solution will not affect
concentration of N2O5 (mol litre–1) is the rate
(1) 1.4 (2) 1.2 (4) Doubling the concentration of H+ ions will
(3) 0.04 (4) 0.8 increase the reaction rate by 4 times
[C–11]
128. The rate of the elementary reaction 136. For the reaction, PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g),
2NO + O2 — 2NO2, the forward reaction at constant temperature is
when the volume of the reaction vessel is doubled favoured by
(1) Will grow eight times of its initial rate (a) Introducing an inert gas at constant volume
(2) Reduce to one-eight of its initial rate (b) Introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
(3) Will grow four times of its initial rate (c) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
(4) Reduce to one-fourth of its initial rate (d) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
129. Which curve represents zero order reaction (e) Increasing volume of container
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
[Product]
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c), (d) and (e)
[Product]
(1) (2) 137. The conductivity of an aqueous solution of strong
t t electrolyte
(1) Bears no relationship with concentration
(2) Decreases with increase in dilution
[Product] [Product]
(3) (4) (3) Remains constant at all concentration
t t (4) Increases slightly with dilution
130. A fcc element (atomic mass = 60) has a cell edge 138. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous
of 400 pm. Its density is solution gives blue colour. These are separated by
(1) 6.23 g cm–3 (2) 6.43 g cm–3 a semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due
(3) 6.53 g cm–3 (4) 6.63 g cm–3 to osmosis there is
131. CsBr has bcc structure with edge length 4.3. The A
0.1 M
shortest inter ionic distance in between Cs+ and K4Fe(CN)6
Br– is
(1) 3.72 (2) 1.86
(3) 7.44 (4) 4.3
132. At room temperature, sodium crystallizes in a body Side X Side Y
centered cubic lattice with a = 4.24 Å. The (1) Blue colour formation in side X
theoretical density of sodium (At. wt. of Na = 23) (2) Blue colour formation in side Y
is (3) Blue colour formation in both of the sides X
(1) 1.002 g cm–3 (2) 2.002 g cm–3 and Y
(3) 3.002 g cm–3 (4) None of these (4) No blue colour formation
133. Which of the following statements are true? 139. Mixture of volatile components A and B has total
(1) Piezoelectricity is due to net dipole moment vapour pressure (in torr)
(2) Ferro electricity is due to alignment of dipoles P = 254 – 119 xA
in same direction where xA is mole fraction of A in mixture. Hence
(3) Pyroelectricity is due to heating polar crystals p0A and p0B are (in torr)
(4) All of these (1) 254, 119 (2) 119, 254
134. Frenkel defect is noticed in (3) 135, 254 (4) 154, 119
(1) AgBr (2) ZnS 140. Pt (H2) | pH = 2 | | pH = 3 | Pt (H2)
(3) AgI (4) All of these 1 atm 1 atm
135. Schottky defect is noticed in The cell reaction for the given cell is
(1) NaCl (2) AgCl (1) Spontaneous (2) Non-spontaneous
(3) Both of these (4) None of these (3) Equilibrium (4) None of correct
[C–12]
141. Zn | Zn2+ (C1) | | Zn2+ (C2) | Zn. For this cell G is 146. Equivalent weight of H 3 PO 2 when it
negative if disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 mL of (mol.
(1) C1 = C2 (2) C1 > C2 wt. = M)
(3) C2 > C1 (4) None of these M
142. Which of the following changes will increase the (1) M (2)
2
EMF of the cell M 3M
Co (s) | CoCl2 (M1) || HCl (M2) | Pt (H2, g) (3) (4)
4 4
(a) Increase in the volume of the CoCl2 solution 147. 100 mL of a mixture of NaOH and Na2SO4 is
from 100 mL to 200 mL neutralised by 10 mL of 0.5 M H2SO4. Hence
(b) Increase M2 from 0.01 M to 0.5 M amount of NaOH in 100 mL mixture is
(c) Increase the pressure of the H2 (g) from 1.00 (1) 0.2 g (2) 0.4 g
to 2.00 atm (3) 0.6 g (4) None of these
(d) Increase M1 from 0.01 M to 0.50 M 148. For the non zero volume of the molecules, ideal
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
gas equations for n moles of the gas will be
(3) (b) only (4) (a) only
PV = nRT + nbP. The actual graph for the given
 d(G ) 
143. G = H – TS and G = H + T   parameters will be
 dT  P II
 dE cell 
then   is III
 dT  PV
I
S nE
(1) (2) 
nF S
(3) – nFEcell (4) + nFEcell
144. Zn + Cu2+ (aq) Cu + Zn2+ (aq)
P
[ Zn 2  ] (1) I, III (2) I, II
Reaction quotient is Q  . Variation of Ecell
[Cu 2 ] (3) II (4) I
with log Q is of the type with OA = 1.10 V. Ecell 149. I, II, III are three isotherm respectively at T1, T2
will be : 1.1591 V when and T3. Temperatures will be in order
Ecell P
I
II
III
O log Q
V
(1) [Cu2+] / [Zn2+] = 0.01 (1) T1 = T2 =T3 (2) T1 < T2 < T3
(2) [Zn2+] / [Cu2+] = 0.01 (3) T1 > T2 > T3 (4) T1 > T2 = T3
(3) [Zn2+] / [Cu2+] = 0.1
150. The IUPAC name of
(4) [Zn2+] / [Cu2+] = 1
OHCCH = CH – CH – CH = CH2
145. For a given mixture of NaHCO3 and Na2CO3, is
volume of a given HCl required is x mL with CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
phenolphthalein indicator and further y mL required
(1) 5-Vinyloct-3-en-1-al
with methyl orange indicator. Hence volume of HCl
for complete reaction of NaHCO3 is (2) 4-Butyl-2, 5-hexadien-1-al
(1) 2x (2) x/2 (3) 3-Vinyloct-5-ene-8-al
(3) y (4) (y – x) (4) 3-Butyl-1, 4-hexadien-8-al
[C–13]
151. Indicate the wrongly named compound 155. The correct IUPAC name for the following
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
CH3 compound CH3

(4 – Methyl – 1 – pentanal)
(2) CH3 – CH – C  C – COOH

(1) 1, 1, 5-Trimethyl-1, 6-hexadiene
CH3 (2) 2, 6-Dimethyl-2, 6-heptadiene
(4 – Methyl – 2 – pentyn – 1 – oic acid) (3) 3, 4-Dimethyl -2-buten-4-ol
(4) 2, 6-Dimethyl-1, 5-heptadiene
(3) CH3 CH2 CH2 – CH – COOH
156. Tautomerism is exhibited by
CH3
(2 – Methyl – 1 – pentanoic acid) (a) CH = CH – OH
O (b) O O
(4) CH3 CH2 – CH  CH – C – CH3
(3 – Hexen – 5 – one) (c) O
152. The IUPAC name of the compound given below O

CH3 – CH – CH2 CH2 CH3 (d) O
CH(CH3)2 O
(1) (a) only (2) (a), (c), (d) only
(1) 2-isopropyl pentane (3) (d) only (4) (c) only
(2) 2, 3-Dimethylhexane 157. The structure of cis-bis (propenyl) ethene
(3) Isononane 
(4) 2, 4-Dimethylhexane (1) (2)

  
153. IUPAC name for the compound
Cl CH2CH3 (3) (4)

C=C is
H3C l CH3 CH3
(1) E-2-Chloro-3-iodopent-2-ene 
158. (I)  (II)  
(2) Z-2-Chloro-3-iodo, pent-2-ene    
(3) E-3-iodo-4-chloro, pent-3-ene
C2H5 C2H5
(4) Z-3-iodo-4-chloro, pent-3-ene
154. The IUPAC name for the compound Structure (I) and (II) are best termed as
(a) enantiomers
CH3
COOC2H5 (b) mesomers
(c) diastereoisomers
(d) erythrose and threose forms respectively
(1) 3-Methyl, ethyl, but-3-en-1-oate
(1) (c) and (d) only
(2) Ethyl-3-methyl, but-3-en-1-oate
(2) (a) and (b) only
(3) Ethyl aceto ethenoate (3) (a) and (d) only
(4) Ethyl-(3-methyl but-3-one) (4) (c) and (b) only
[C–14]
159. One among the following will show optical activity 162. The two compounds shown in the figure below are
H H O O
(a) C=C CH3
H C=C and
H CH(Cl)CH3
(1) Diastereomers (2) Enantiomers
CH3 H (3) Epimers (4) None of these
(b) C2H5
C=C 163. The maximum number of isomers for an alkene
H CH CH3
C=C with molecular formula C4H8 is
CH3 H
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
CH3 CH3 164. How many cyclic isomers of C5H10 are possible ?
(c) C=C CHCl2
H (1) 4 (2) 3
C=C
CH3 CH3 (3) 2 (4) 5
165. The correct stereochemical name of
CH3 H
CH3 CH2Cl
C=C H
(d) C=C CH2CH3 H
H C–C
C=C
H CH – CH3
H CH2Cl2
COOCH3
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) Methyl 2-methylhept (3E, 5E) dienoate
(3) (c) and (d) (4) All of these
(2) Methyl 2-methylhept (3Z, 5Z) dienoate
160. Which of the following have asymmetric carbon
(3) Methyl 2-methylhept (3E, 5Z) dienoate
atom
(4) Methyl 2-methylhept (3Z, 5E) dienoate
H Cl H Cl 166. How many  electrons are there in following
..
(a) H – C – C – D (b) H – C – C – Cl
H H H H H H
H H
H H Cl Br (1) 2 (2) 4
H – C – C – CH3 H–C–C–H (3) 6 (4) 8
(c) (d)
Br OH H H 167. Which of the following statement is correct
+
(1) Allyl carbonium ion (CH2 = CH – C H2) is
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (a) and (d)
more stable than propyl carbonium ion
(3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
(2) Propyl carbonium ion is more stable than allyl
161. The stability of the compounds
carbonium ion
(3) Both are equally stable
(4) None of these
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) CH 3
+
(1) (iv) > (iii) > (i) > (ii) 168. The carbocation CH 3 – C – CH 2 stabilizes itself by
(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) CH 3
(3) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (1) H (2) CH shift
3
(4) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)

(3) H+ (4) CH3 shift
[C–15]
169. Most stable carbonium ion is 175. A A 

Alc. KOH
 CH3 – CH = C = CH2

C H2 ‘A’ in the above reaction is
(1)
(a) CH3CH = C = CH2
 (b) H2C = C = C = CH2
(2) CH3O C H2
(c) CH3C  C – CH3
 (d) CH3 – CH2 – C  C – H
(3) Cl C H2
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (4) None of these

(4) O2N CH2 176. In the reaction
CH 2 = CH – CH = CH 3 + Br 2 –  the
40 º C
170. Which among the following is aromatic ?
predominant product is

(1) 3, 4-dibromo-1-butene
(2) 1, 4-dibromo-1-butene
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
(3) 1, 2, 3, 4-tetrabromo butane
(1) I and II (2) III and V
(3) II and IV (4) All of these (4) None of these
171. Nucleophilic order is correctly represented by 177. The treatment of (CH3)2 C = CH2 with NalO4 or
(1) CH3– < NH2 < HO– < F– boiling KMnO4 produces
(2) CH3– • NH2– > HO– • F– (1) CH3COCH3 + CH2O
(3) CH3– < NH2– > HO– > F– (2) CH3CHO + CH3CHO
(4) NH2– > F– > HO– > CH3– (3) CH3COCH3 + CO2
172. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest (4) CH3COCH + HCOOH
with H2 under catalytic hydrogenation conditions 178. One mole of alkene. C4H8 on ozonolysis forms one
R R R H mole each of acetone and formaldehyde
(1) (2) (1) 1-Butene
H H R H
(2) 2-methyl-2-butene
R R R R (3) 2-Butene
(3) (4) (4) 2-methyl-1-propene
R H R R
179. H3C – C  C – CH3 
Ni / Liq . NH 3
 X
173. The most stable carbanion among the following is
(1) H3C – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
CH2 – CH2– CH – 2
H3 C CH3
(1) (2) (2) C=C
H H
CH2– CH2– H3C H

(3) C=C
H CH3
(3) (4)
(4) Both (2) and (3)
OCH3 NO2
174. Among the following alkenes: 180. Ammonical cuprous chloride gives red precipitate
(a) 1-butene (b) cis-2 butene with
(c) trans-2-butene (1) CH3 – C  C – CH3
the decreasing order of stability is (2) CH3 – CH = CH2
(1) (c) > (b) > (a) (2) (c) > (a) > (b) (3) CH3 – C  CH
(3) (a) > (b) > (c) (4) (b) > (a) > (c) (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
[C–16]
181. n-butane reacts with bromine at 130ºC, the product 185. Arrange the following compounds in increasing
formed mainly would be order of reactivity towards the addition of HBr
(a) RCH = CHR
Br
(b) CH2 = CH2
(a) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
(c) R2C = CHR
(b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br (d) R2C = CR2,
(e) R2C = CH2
Br (1) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) > (e)
(c) CH3 – C – CH3 (2) (c) > (a) > (b) > (e) > (d)
CH3
(3) (d) > (c) > (a) > (e) > (b)
(4) (c) > (b) > (d) > (a) > (e)
186. The conversion of 2, 3-dibromobutane to 2-butene
CH2 – Br
with Zn and alcohol is
(d) CH3 – C – CH (1) Redox reaction
CH3 (2) -Elimination
(3) -Elimination
(1) (a) only
(4) Both -elimination and redox reaction
(2) (b) only
187. Two organic compounds A and B both containing
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
only carbon and hydrogen, on quantitative analysis
(4) None of these
gave the same percentage composition by weight
182. In methyl alcohol solution bromine reacts with C = (12/13) × 100%, H = 1/13 × 100%
ethylene to yield BrCH2CH2OCH3 in addition to A decolourises bromine water but B does not. A
1, 2-dibromoethane because and B respectively are
(1) The ion formed initially may react with Br– or (1) C2H2 and C6H6
CH3OH (2) C6H6 and C2H2
(2) The methyl alcohol solvates the bromine (3) C2H4 and C2H6
(3) The reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule (4) C2H2 and C2H6
(4) this is a free-radical mechanism 188. Which one of the following compounds would have
183. Addition of HI to double bond of propene yields the highest heat of hydrogenation ?
isopropyl iodide and not n-propyl iodide as the major (1) CH2 = CH2
product, because addition proceeds through (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2
(3) CH3CH = CHCH3
(1) A more stable carbonium ion
(4) (CH3)2C = C(CH3)2
(2) Markownikov rule
189. Cyclohexane, C6H12 floats on water because ?
(3) A more stable free radical
(1) It is immiscible in water
(4) Homolysis
(2) Its density is less than water
184. Identify a reagent from the following list which can
(3) It is non-polar
easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne (4) It is immiscible and lighter than water
(1) Bromine, CCl4 190. A gas decolourises bromine in CCl4 and forms a
(2) H2, Lindlar catalyst precipitate with ammonical AgNO3. The gas is ?
(3) Dilute H2SO4, HgSO4 (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
(4) Ammonical Cu2 Cl2 solution (3) C2H2 (4) C2H6
[C–17]
191. Which of the following characteristics apply both HCl

197. CH2 = CH – Cl A A is
to ethene and ethyne ?
(1) Explode when mixed with chlorine CH3 – CH – Cl CH2 – CH2
(1) (2)
(2) Decolourise Baeyer’s reagent giving brown Cl Cl Cl
precipitate (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH3 (4) None of these
(3) Rapidly absorbed by cold conc. H2SO4 198. Identify the set of reagents/reaction condition s’X’
(4) Form white precipitate with AgNO3 solution and ‘Y’ in the following set of transformations :
192. The compound ‘X’ (C6H10) does not react with
x y
ammonical AgNO 3 but gives a mixture of CH3–CH2–CH2Br Product CH3–CH–CH3
CH 3COOH and CH3 – CH – COOH on reaction Br

CH3 (1) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20ºC ;
with excess of KMnO4 ‘X’ is Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20ºC
CH3 (2) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80ºC ;
(1) CH3 – CH – C  CCH3 Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20ºC
(2) CH3 – CH2 –CH2 – CH2 – C  CH (3) X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 20ºC ;
(3) C2H5 – CH – C  CH Y = Br2/CCl4, 0ºC
CH3 (4) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80ºC ;

Y = Br2/CCl4, 0ºC
(4) CH3 – CH2 – C  C C2H5
199. The reaction of
193. In the addition of HBr to propene in the absence of
peroxides the first step involves the addition of
CH3–CH=CH— — OH
(1) H + (2) Br–
with HBr gives
(3) H . (4) Br +
194. Reactivity of hydrogen atoms attached to different
(1) CH3CH BrCH2 — — OH
carbon atoms in alkanes has the order
(1) Tertiary > Primary > Secondary
(2) Primary > secondary > Tertiary
(2) CH3CH2 CHBr — — OH
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
195. Which of the following is the predominant product
in the reaction of HOBr with propene ? (3) CH3CHBrCH2 — — Br
(1) 2-Bromo-1-propanol
(3) 2-Bromo-2-propanol (4) CH3CH2 CHBr — — Br
196. Two gases, P and Q decolourise aqueous bromine 200. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl
but only one of them gives a white precipitate with halides of a SN2 reaction
aqueous ammonical silver nitrate solution. P and Q (1) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
are likely to be (2) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
(1) Ethane & ethyne (2) Ethane & but-2-yne (3) RCl > RBr > RF > RI
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these (4) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
[C–18]
201. Consider the following reaction 205. For the following reactions :
H3C – CH – CH – CH3 + Br.  'X' + HBr CH3Cl  CH3+ + Cl– H1º
CH3CH2Cl  CH3CH2 + Cl + – H2º
D CH3
(CH3)2CHCl  (CH3)2CH + Cl + – H3º
Identify the structure of the major product ‘X’
(CH3)2CCl  (CH3)3C + Cl + – H4º
. (1) H1º > H2º > H3º > H4º
(1) H3C – CH – CH – CH2
(2) H1º < H2º < H3º < H4º
D CH3
(3) H1º > H2º > H4º > H1º
. (4) H1º > H3º > H4º > H2º
(2) H3C – CH – C – CH3 206. When CH3CHClCH2CH3 is treated with alcoholic
D CH3 KOH, the major product is
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
.
(3) H3C – C – CH – CH3 (2) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3
(3) CH3 – CHOH – CH2 – CH3
D CH3
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
. 207. The product of the following reaction is
(4) H3C – CH – CH – CH3 (i) BH3/THF/ºC
CH3 (ii) H O , OH–
2 2
(1) 1-Pentanol (2) 2-Pentanol
202. For the reaction
(3) Pentane (4) 1, 2-Pentanediol
ZnCl2
C2H5OH + HX C2H5X 208. The product of the following reaction,
The order of reactivity is HI > HBr > HCl > HF CH3
(i) Hg(OAc)2, H2O
This is because CH3 – C – CH = CH2
(ii) NaBH4 is
(1) Bond energy of HX is HF > HCl > HBr > HI CH3
(2) Nucleophillicity of X– is I– > Br– > Cl– > F– CH3
(3) Both of these
(1) CH3 – C – CH – CH3
(4) None of these
CH3 OH
203. In the reaction : CCl3CHO + NaOH  X + Y. CH3
What are X and Y ?
(2) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 OH
(1) CHCl3, HCOOH
CH3
(2) CHCl3, HCOONa OH
(3) CCl2H3, CO2 + NaCl
(3) CH3 – C – CH – CH3
(4) None of these
CH3 CH3
204. The C–Cl bond distance is minimum in : CH3
(1) CH2 = CH – Cl
(4) HOCH2 – C – CH2 CH3
(2) (CH3)3C – Cl
CH3
(3) CH3CH2Cl
209. Mild oxidation of glycerol with H2O2/FeSO4 gives
Cl (1) Glyceraldehyde only
(2) Dihydroxyacetone only
(4) (3) Glycerose
(4) None of these
[C–19]
210. Which of the following will give iodoform test ? 214. In the reaction sequence
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH Hypochlorous CH2OH
CH2 = CH2 Y
(2) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 X
acid CH2OH
CH3 – CH – CO – CH2 – CH3
X and Y are respectively
(3)
CH3 O
(1) CH – CH
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3 2 2
(4) (2) CH3CH2Cl and NaOH
OH
211. The order of reactivity of the following alcohols (3) CH3CH2OH and H2SO4
towards conc. HCl is (4) CH2ClCH2OH and NaHCO3
215. What is Z in the following sequence of reactions ?
CH3 CH3
PCl5 Alc. KOH (i) Conc. H2SO4
Z X Y Z
OH (ii) H2O ; boil
F F OH
(I) (II) X and Y respectively are :
(a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b) (CH3CH2)2CHOH
CH3 CH3
(c) CH3CHOHCH3 (d) CH3CH = CH2
Ph OH (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
OH
(III) (IV) (3) (a) and (d) (4) None of these
(1) I > II > III > IV 216. An alkene, obtained by dehydration of an alcohol
(2) I > III > II > IV (A), on ozonolysis gives two molecules of
(3) IV > III > II > I acetaldehyde for every molecule of alkene. The
alcohol (A) is :
(4) IV > III > I > II
(1) CH3CH2CH2OH
212. The reaction of CH2 – CH2 with RMgX followed
(2) CH3CH2OH
O
(3) CH3–CH = CH–CH2OH
by treatment with H2O leads to the formation of
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
(1) RCHOHR
OH
(2) RCHOHCH3
(3) R2CHCH2OH 217. Decreasing order of boiling points of n-pentanal,
(4) RCH2CH2OH (A), n-pentane (B), 3-pentanol (C) and 2, 2-dimethyl
213. Which one/ones of the following reactions will yield propane (D) is :
(1) A, C, D, B (2) B, D, C, A
2-propanol ?
(3) C, A, D, B (4) None of these
I. CH2 = CH–CH3 + H2O H+
218. In the reaction involving the cleavage of C–OH
(i) CH3Mgl bond, the decreasing order of reactivity is
II. CH3–CHO (ii) H2O (1) 1º > 2º > 3º (2) 3º > 2º > 1º
(i) C2H5Mgl (3) 2º > 3º > 1º (4) None of these
III. CH2O (ii) H2O 219. Which of the following reactions shows acidic
nature of alcohol ?
IV. CH2 = CH–CH3 Neutral KMnO4 (1) ROH + RCOOH  RCOOR + H2O
Choose the right answer from (1) (2) (3) and (4) (2) 2ROH + 2Na  2RONa + H2
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) ROH + ClOCR  RCOOR + HCl
(3) III and I (4) II and IV (4) None of these
[C–20]
220. Sodium reacts readily with 226. Which of the following structures correspond to
(1) R – NH2 (2) R – O – R the product expected, when excess of C6H6 reacts
(3) R – CHO (4) RCH2OH with CH2Cl2 in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
221. The bond energy of covalent bond O–H in water
— CH —
is? (1)
(1) Equal to bond energy of hydrogen bond Cl
(2) Greater than bond energy of hydrogen bond —CHCl2

(2)
(3) Less than bond energy of hydrogen bond
(4) None of these Cl
222. Pyroligneous acid contains —C— —CHCl2
(3)
(1) CH3COOH (10%), CH3OH (2.5%), Cl
CH3COCH3 (0.5%)
(4) — CH2 —
(2) C2H5OH (10%), CH3OH (5%),
CH3COCH3 (2%) 227. Which chloroderivative of benzene among the
(3) CH3COCH3 (10%), C2H5OH (5%), following would undergo hydrolysis most readily
CH3OH (2%) with aqueous sodium hydroxide to furnish the
(4) None of these corresponding hydroxy derivative ?
223. The correct decreasing order of ease of acid
catalyzed esterification is NO2
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH > (1) O2N — — Cl

CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 >
CH3C(CH3)(OH)CH3 NO2
(2) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 >
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH >
(2) O2N — — Cl
CH3C(CH3)(OH)(CH3)
(3) (CH)3C(CH3)(OH)CH3 >
CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 > (3) Me2N — — Cl
CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(4) None of these (4) C6H5Cl
224. In trans esterification 228. 1-Phenyl-2-chloropropane when treated with
(1) An alcohol reacts with an ester to form a new alcoholic potash gives mainly
alcohol and a new ester (1) 1-Phenyl propan-2-ol
(2) An acid reacts with an ester to form an alcohol (2) 1-Phenyl propan-3-ol
and a new acid (3) 1-Phenyl propene
(3) An ester on heating forms a new ester (4) 3-Phenyl propene
(4) All the above are correct 229. Aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides
225. During dehydration of alcohols, the ease of because of?
formation of carbonium ions follows the order : (1) Longer bond length of C – X than alkyl halides
(1) 1º > 2º > 3º (2) Shorter bond length of C – X than alkyl halides
(2) 3º > 2º > 1º (3) Equal bond length of C –X as that of alkyl
(3) 2º > 3º > 1º halides
(4) None of these (4) None of these
[C–21]
230. In Libermann’s test, when a nitrite is added to 234. Phenol can be distinguished from acetic acid by
phenol dissolved in conc. H2SO4 , a red colour is (1) Blue litmus test
obtained which is due to the formation of Indophenol (2) Sodium bicarbonate test
having the structure (3) Tollen’s reagent test
(4) All the above
(1) HO – –N=N– =O 235. The correct order of decreasing acidic strength is
(1) Metamethoxy phenol > Phenol >
Orthomethoxyl phenol > Paramethoxy phenol
(2) O = =N– =O (2) Phenol > Orthomethoxyphenol > Meta methox
yphenol > Para methoxy phenol
(3) Phenol > Metamethoxy phenol >
(3) HO – –N=N– =O
Orthomethoxyphenol > Paramethoxy phenol
(4) None of these
236. Which of the following undergoes dehydration most
(4) HO – =N– =O
readily ?
(1) 1-phenyl-1-butanol
231. The correct order of relative acidic strengths of
phenol, water and ethyl alcohol (2) 1-phenyl-2-butanol
OH (3) 2-phenyl-2-butanol
(4) 4-phenyl-1-butanol
(1) C2H5OH > H2O > 237. State the correct order for the decreasing reactivity
to ring mono bromination of the compounds
OH I. C6H5CH3 II. C6H5COOH
III. C6H5 IV. C6H5NO2
(2) H2O > > C2H5OH (1) I > III > II > IV
(2) I < II < III < IV
OH (3) II < III > IV > I
(4) III > I > II > IV
(3) C2H5OH > > H2O
238. Benzene is a resonance hybrid mainly of two
Kekule structures. Hence
OH
(1) Half of the molecules correspond to one
(4) > H2O > C2H5OH
structure, and half to the second structure
(2) At low temperatures, benzene can be
separated into two structures
232. The correct order or decreasing acidic strength is
(3) Two structures make equal contribution to
(1) Phenol > p-Cresol > m-Cresol > o-Cresol
(2) Phenol > o-Cresol > m-Cresol > o-Cresol resonance hybrid
(3) Phenol > m-Cresol > p-Cresol > o-Cresol (4) An individual benzene molecule charges back
(4) None of these and forth between two structures
233. Anisole reacts with HI at 373 K to give 239. Indicate the expected structure of the organic
(1) Phenol and methanol product when ethyl magnesium bromide is treated
(2) Iodobenzene and methanol with heavy water (D2O)
(3) Iodomethane and phenol (1) C2H5–C2H5 (2) C2H5OD
(4) Iodobenzene and iodomethane (3) Sodium benzoate (4) C2H5D
[C–22]
Peroxide Me
240. CH3– C = CH2 + HBr the product is Me
CH3 245. When is reacted with O3 followed by
(1) CH3– CH–CH2Br (2) CH3– CHBr–CH2 treatment with Zn/H2O. One of the following is
CH3 CH3 not obtained
(3) CH3– CH–CH3 (4) None of these (a) CH 3–C–C–CH 3 (b) CH – CH
CH3 O O O O
241. The principal organic product formed in the reaction,
(c) CH3–C–CHO (d) CH – C – CH
CH2 = CH – COOH + HBr 
 A is
O O O O
(1) CH3– CH – COOH
(1) (c) only (2) (d) only
Br
(3) (c) and (d) (4) All of these
(2) CH2– CH2–COOH 246. When cis 2-butene is treated with Br2 in the
Br presence of CCl4 then the product formed
(3) Both of these (1) Me2 2, 3-Dibromonobutane
(4) None of these (2) (+) 2, 3-Dibromobutane
242. In the reaction, (3) (–) 2, 3-Dibromobutane
(i) X (4) (+) and (–) 2, 3-Dibromobutane 50% each
CH3–C  C–CH3 (ii) H O/Zn 247. The nucleophilicity order in polar protic solvent for
2
CH3– C – C – CH3 . X is
halide ions is
(1) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–
O O
(2) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
(1) HNO3 (2) O2
(3) Cl– > Br– > F– > I–
(3) O3 (4) KMnO4
(4) None of these
243. Arrange the following compounds in increasing
248. The reactivity order of SN–1 reactions for alkyl
order of reactivity towards the addition of HBr
halides
RCH = CHR, CH2 = CH2, R2C = CHR, R2C =
CH2 – Cl
CR2 (a)
(1) CH2 = CH2 < RCH = CHR < R2C = CHR
< R2C = CR2 (b) CH3 – CH2 – Cl
(2) R2C = CHR < RCH = CHR < CH2 = CH2 (c) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
< R2C = CH2 CH3
(3) R2C = CR2 < R2C = CHR < RCH = CHR (d) CH3 – C – CH3
< CH2 = CH2 Cl
(4) R2C = CR2 < CH2 = CH2 < RCH = CHR
(e) CH3 – CH – CH3
< R2C = CHR
244. Propyne when treated with excess of HOCl gives Cl
(1) 1, 1, 2, 2-Tetrachloropropane (1) (a) > (d) > (c) ~ (e) > (b)
(2) Chloral (2) (d) > (c) > (a) > (e) > (b)
(3) Both of these (3) (d) > (a) > (c) ~ (e) > (b)
[C–23]
249. The 2nd most stable structure for vinyl chloride is H

i) Hg(OAc)2 + CH3COOH
.. 254. A
(1) CH2 = CH – Cl : Me ii) NaBH4
..
 H
(2) CH2 – CH = Cl
..
: i) H2SO4
B
Me ii) H2O
 ..
(3) CH2 – CH = Cl : Here A and B represents
..
(4) All have same stability H OH
250. The most acidic among the following H and
OH (a) Me Me
(1) OH
(2) H2 O H H
(3) CH3–OH H and HO
(b) Me
(4) H2CO3 Me
OH H
251. Alcohols are less acidic than carboxylic acids
because H OH
(A) Alkoxide ions are more stable than carboxylate HO and
(c) Me
ions Me
H
(B) –O– gp is less stable than –COO– gp
(C) The conjugate base of alcohol i.e. RO– is less H H
stable than RCOO– H and H
(1) A only (d) Me Me
OH OH
(2) B and C only
(3) A, B & C (1) (a) or (c) (2) (b) or (c)
(4) None of these (3) (a), (b), or (c) (4) None of these
252. Markonikoff's rule provides guidance for addition 255. Which of the following would not be formed when
of HBr on CH3CH2Cl is treated with Na in the rescue of ether
(1) CH2 = CH2 (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH3CH2CH2CH3
(2) CH3CH2CH3 (3) CH3CH3 (4) CH3CH2CH3
(3) CH3CH = CHCH3 256. The reactivity order of carboxylic acids for with
(4) CH2 = CHBr Br2 in the form of silver salts to form, alkyl bromides
253. When CH 2 = CH2 is reacted with Br 2 in the follows the order
presence of Conc. NaCl gives predominantly
(1) p > s > t (2) t > s < p
(1) CH2 – CH2 (3) s > p > t (4) p > t > s
Cl Cl 257. During Kolbe’s electrolytic decarboxylation of
(2) CH2 – CH2 carboxylic acids to form alkanes. Alkanes are
Br Cl formed according to free radical mechanism. Then
the substance which cannot be formed when
(3) CH2 – CH2
CH3CH2COONa is electrolysed to form CH3CH2
Br Br
CH2CH3
(4) CH2 – CH2 (1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH3CH3
OH Br (3) CH3CH2CH2OH (4) CH3CH2OH
[C–24]
262. Ethylene dichloride and ethylidene dichloride are

isomeric compounds. Identify the statement which
258. Br2/CCl4 A product
Me Me is not applicable to both of them
The product is (1) React with alcoholic potash
(2) React with aqueous potash and give the same
Me Br + Br Me product
(1) (3) Are dihalides
Br Me Me Br
(4) Respond Beilstein’s test
263. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400ºC,
Br Br + Me Me
(2) which of the following is formed ?
Me Me Br Br (1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl
(2) CH3 – CH – CH3
Me Br + Br Br
Cl
(3)
Br Me Me Me (3) Both of these
264. SN1 reaction of alkyl halides leads to
259. HBr Product (1) Retention of configuration
(2) Racemisation
Me Me
(3) Inversion of configuration
the products is mainly (4) None of these
265. The process of chelation is observed in
Me Br Me Me
(1) (2) (1) Salicyl aldehyde (2) o-nitro phenol
H Me H Br (3) o-nitro phenol (4) Both (1) and (3)
(3) Both of these (4) None of these 266. 1-propanol and 2-propanol can be distinguished by
260. The compound (A) of formula C3H6Cl2 on reaction (1) Oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by
with alkali can give (B) of formula C3H6O or (C) reaction with Fehling solution
of formula C3H4. (B) on oxidation gave a compound (2) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by
of the formula C3H6O2. (C) with dilute H2SO4 reaction with Fehling solution
containing Hg2+ ion gave (D) of formula C3H6O, (3) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by
which with bromine and alkali gave the sodium salt reaction with Fehling solution
of C2H4C2. Then A is ? (4) Oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed
(1) CH3 CH2 CHCl2 by reaction with Fehling solution
267. Glycerol reacts with excess of HI to give
(2) CH3 CCl2 CH3
(1) 1-Iodopropane (2) 1, 2, 3-Tri-iodopropane
(3) CH2 (Cl) CH2 CH2 (Cl)
(3) 2-Iodopropane (4) Ally iodide
(4) CH3 CH(Cl) CH2 (Cl)
268. In the following sequence of reactions,
261. Which of the following reactions will yield 2, (i) CH3 Mgl
HNO2 Oxidation
2-dibromopropane ? CH3 – CH – CH3 A B C
(ii) H+ / H2O
(1) HC  CH + 2 HBr — NH2
(2) CH3 C  CH + 2 HBr — the compound C formed will be
(3) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr — (1) Butanol-1 (2) 2-Methylpropanol-2
(4) CH3 CH = CHBr + HBr — (3) Butanol-2 (4) 1, 1-Dimethylethanol
[C–25]
269. Alcohols behave as weak acids. The acidic nature 275. What is Z in the following reaction
of alcohols is in the order CH2 – CH2 + C2H5OH  Z
(1) P > S > T
O
(2) T > S > P
(1) HO – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(3) S > T > P
(2) HO – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(4) T > P > S
(3) HO – CH2 – CH2 – C2H5
270. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
(4) HO – CH2 – CH2 – OC2H5
alcohol ?
276. Diethyl ether when treated with K 2Cr 2 O7 in
(1) Lower members are insoluble in water and
presence of H2SO4 gives ?
organic solvents but solubility regularly
(1) Diethyl oxonium
increases with molecular weight
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(2) They are lighter than water (3) Acetaldehyde
(3) Lower members have a pleasant smell and (4) Highly explosive peroxide
burning taste, higher members are odourless 277. Diethyl ether on reaction with CO under specific
and tasteless condition yield
(4) Their b.p. rise fairly uniformly with rising (1) Acetyl chloride
molecular weight (2) Acetic acid
271. Power alcohol is a mixture of petrol and alcohol in (3) Ethyl ethanoate
the ratio of (4) None of these
(1) 1 : 4 278. Which of the following statement is false in case
(2) 4 : 1 of epoxides ?
(3) 1 : 2 (1) Epoxides are very reactive compounds due to
(4) 2 : 1 the ease of opening of highly strained three
272. When glycerol is added to a litre of water, the membered ring
following is observed (2) The C – O bonds in expoxides are weaker
(1) Water evaporates more easily than in ordinary ethers
(2) The temperature of water is increased (3) Epoxides are less stable than aliphatic ether
(3) The freezing point of water is lowered molecule
(4) The viscosity of water is lowered (4) Epoxides are inert as compared to ethers
273. In its reaction with sodium, 1 mol of a compound X 279. When diethyl ether is treated with excess of Cl2 in
gives 1 mol of H2. Which one of the following the presence of sunlight, then the product formed
compounds might be X? is
(1) CH3CH2CH = CH2 (1) CH3CHCl–O–CH2CH3
(2) CH3COOCH2CH3 (2) CH3CHCl–O–CHClCH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2OH (3) CCl3CCl2OCCl2CCl3
(4) CH2OHCH2CH2CH2OH (4) CH3CCl2–O–CHClCH3
274. When diethyl ether is heated with dil. H2SO4 under 280. Identify a reagent from the following list which can
pressure, it forms easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne
(1) Propanoic acid (1) bromine, CCl4
(2) Acetic acid (2) H2, Lindlar catalyst
(3) Ethyl alcohol (3) Dilute H2SO4, HgSO4
(4) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate (4) Ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution
[C–26]
281. The nodal plane in the -bond of ethene is located (3) CH3CHCH3 in all cases
in OD
(1) The molecular
(4) CH3CHCH2D in all cases
(2) A plane parallel to the molecular plane
OD
(3) A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane
286. CH3CH = CHCH3 + CHCl3 + t-BuOK 
 A
which bisects the carban - carbon -bond at
is :
right angle
(4) A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane CH3CH – CHCH3
(1) CH3CH – CHCH3 (2)
which contains the carbon-carbon -bond C
CH2
282. An organic compound on treatment with Br2 in Cl Cl
CCl 4 gives a bromoderivative alkene. The
CH3CH – CHCH3 CH3CH – CHCH3
compound will be (3) (4)
OBuO Cl O
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 OsO4 Br2
287. (B) (A); A and B are :
(3) HC  CH H2O4
(4) H2C = CH2 Br OH
283. In methyl alcohol solution bromine reacts with
(1)
ethylene to yield BrCH2CH2OCH3 in addition to 1, Br OH
2-dibromoethane because OH
Br
(1) The ion formed initially may react with Br– or
(2)
CH3OH Br OH
(2) The methyl alcohol solvates the bromine
Br OH
(3) The reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule
(4) This is a free-radical mechanism (3)
Br OH
284. At low temperature the slow addition of bromine
to CH2 = CH – CH2 – C  CH gives ? Br OH
(1) CH2 = CH–CH2–C(Br)=CHBr (4)
(2) BrCH2–CH(Br)–CH2–CCH Br OH
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–CH2CBr3 A
288. Cl A is
(4) CH3–CBr2–CH2–CCH
285. Identify end products A, B and C of the following (1) Et3N (2) NH3
(i) D+ (3) Alcoholic KOH (4) All of these
CH3CH = CH2 A
(ii) H2O
(i) H+ POCl3
CH3CH = CH2 B
(ii) D2O 289. CH3 A (major), A is :
(i) D+ OH
CH3CH = CH2 C
(ii) D2O
(1) CH3 (2) CH3
(1) CH3CHCH3 in all cases
Cl
(2) CH 3 CH(OH)CH 2 D, C 3 CH(OD)CH 3 , (3) CH3 (4) CH3
CH3CH(OD)CH2D
[C–27]
D H2/Pt O3/H2O/Zn
295. A ( C 4 H 6 ) B ( C 4H 8) C
H Br NaI
290. H Br A, A is HCN
D
in acetone
D D has chiral carbon and can be hydrolysed to lactic
acid. Hence A, is :
H D H D (a) H3CC  CCH3
(1) (2) (b) CH2 = CHCH = CH2
H D D H
(c)
H Br D Br
(3) (4) (d) CH3

H Br D Br
(1) a only
Cl2 (2) b only
291. H2O A, A is (3) a and b only
(4) a, b, c only
Cl OH
OH Cl 296. Which are correct statements
(1) (2)
(a) O and O are enantiomers
OH
O O
(3) (4)
OH Cl Cl Cl CH3
(b) CH3 – C – CH2CH3 and Cl – C – H are
292. Cl Cl Cl
H CH2CH3
I II III
same structure
Which one is most easily dehydrohalogenated ?
(c) Argol (sodium potassium tartrate) will show
(1) I (2) II
optical isomerism
(3) III (4) All with same case
(d) CH3CHO on reaction with HCN gives racemic
O O mixture
C9H14 ozonolysis
293. Hence A is (1) (a) & (b)
(A)
(santene) (2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(1) (2) 297. An organic compound contains hydrogen and
oxygen and a single carbon atom and respond
positively to Tollen’s reagent. The compound is?
(3) (4)
(1) HCHO (2) CH3OH
294. Which will form geometrical isomers ? (3) CH3CHO (4) None of these
Cl 298. When propyne is heated with dilute H2SO4 in
presence of HgSO4, the major product is ?
(1) (2) CH3CH = NOH
(1) Propanal
Cl
(2) Ethanone
(3) (4) All of these (3) Acetone
(4) Propyl alcohol
[C–28]
299. The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones lie in 304. Base catalysed aldol condensation occurs with
between alkanes and alcohols of comparable (1) Benzaldehyde
masses because ? (2) 2-Methylpropionaldehyde
(1) Alkanes are polar (3) 2, 2-Dimethylpropionaldehyde
(2) Aldehydes and ketones are non-polar (4) None of these
(3) Alkanes are non-polar and aldehydes and 305. (CH 3 ) 2 C = CHCOCH 3 can be oxidised to
ketones contain polar > C = O group and lower (CH3)2 C = CHCOOH by
alcohols have H-bonding (1) Chromic acid (2) NaOl
(4) Alkanes are held together by weak Vander (3) Cu at 300º C (4) KMnO4
Waal’s forces (being non-polar), aldehydes and O
ketones contain polar > C = O group and held SeO2
306. CH3 – C – CH3 X + Se + H2O
together by strong dipole-dipole attraction, and
lower alcohols have H bonding, which is O O O
stronger than dipole-dipole attraction (1) CH3 – C – C – H (2) CH3 – C – OCH3
300. Which of the following will not be formed when
O
calcium acetate is distilled with calcium formate?
(3) CH3 – C – CH2OH (4) None of these
(1) Acetone (2) Propanal
(3) Ethanal (4) Methanal 307. Which of the following aldehydes undergoes
301. A dihaloalkane on alkaline hydrolysis produces a Cannizzaro’s reaction ?
ketones with formula C3H6O. The dihaloalkane can (1) CH3CH2CHO
be (2) CH3CH2 – CH(CH3)CHO
(1) 2, 2-Dichloropropane (3) (CH3)3C – CHO
(2) 1, 1-Dichloropropane (4) (CH3)2CH – CH(CH3) – CHO
(3) 1, 2-Dichloropropane 308. An organic compound, C3H6O does not give a
(4) 1, 3-Dichloropropane precipitate with 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine reagent
302. The major product of the following reaction. and does not react with metallic sodium. It could
OH be
H2SO4
CH3 – C – CH2OH ? is (1) CH3–CH2–CHO (2) CH2=CH–CH2OH
(3) CH3–CO–CH3 (4) CH2=CH–O–CH3
CH3
309. Propanal on reaction with dilute NaOH forms
OH (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CHO
(1) CH3 – C – COOH (2) CH3 – CH – CH = O (2) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2CH2CHO
CH3 CH3 (3) CH3CH2(OH)CH(CH3)CHO
(4) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)CHO
O OH 310. Which of the following will be most readily
(3) CH3 – C – CH2CH3 (4) CH3 – C – CHO dehydrated in acidic conditions
CH3 O OH OH
303. Acetone when treated with conc. H2SO4 gives a (1) (2)
compound with the formula
O O
(1) (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3
(2) (CH3)2C(OH) CH2COCH3 (3) (4)
(3) 1, 3, 5 Trimethylbenzene OH OH
(4) None of these
[C–29]
311. CH3CHO + H2NOH  CH3.CH = NOH 315. What is the end product of the reaction
The above reaction occurs at Ca(OH)2 Dry
(1) pH = 1 CH3COOH A distillation B

(2) pH = 4.5 (i) Zn /BrCH2COOEt
C
(3) Any value of pH (ii) H2O / H+
(4) pH = 12
312. Identify Z in the series H
MnO2 SOCl2 CH3COONa (1) CH3 – C – CH2COOEt

CH3CHO X Y Z
dil H2SO4 Heat OH
O C2H5
O
CH3 – C
CH3 – C O (2) CH3 – C – CH2 – COOEt
(1) (2) CH3 – C OH
CH2COONa
O
CH3
O O
ClCH2 – C Cl2CH – C
(3) CH3 – C – CH2 – COOH
O O OH
(3) CH3 – C (4) CH3 – C
O O (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH – COOH
313. 2-pentanone and 3-pentanone can be distinguished OH
by one of the following reagents/tests in simple test 316. Acrylic acid reacts with HBr to give
tube? (1) Br – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
(1) Tollen’s reagent Br
(2) Fehling’s solution (2) Br – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
(3) Schiff’s test (3) CH2 = CHCOBr
(4) Iodoform test (4) CH3 – CH – COOH
314. In the reaction
Br
CH3CH2 (i) KCN/H2SO4
C=O A 317. Which of the following orders of relative strengths
H (ii) LiAlH4 of acids is correct ?
Identify A (1) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
(1) CH3CH2 – CH – CH2NH2 (2) ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
OH (3) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
(4) ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
(2) CH3CH2CH2 – CH – NH2
318. An organic compound gives NH3 on heating. When
OH
the residue is treated with NaOH and CuSO4
(3) CH3 – CH – CH2CH2NH2 solution, violet colour is produced. The compound
OH is?
OH (1) Urea
(2) Acetamide
(4) CH3CH2 – C – NH2
(3) Primary amine
CH3
(4) Secondary amine
[C–30]
O
326. Which one of the following is least soluble in water
319. Reaction of R – C – NH2 with Br 2/KOH gives (1) C2H5OH (2) C2H5NH2
R – NH2 as the main product. The intermediate (3) C2H5–NH–C2H5 (4) C2H5 – N – C2H5
involved in this reaction are C2H5
O
327. In aqueous solutions, the basic strength of amines
(a) R – C – NHBr (b) R – N = C = O decreases in the order
O N (1) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N
(2) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH2NH2
(c) R – NH – Br (d) R – C – Br – Br
(3) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (b) & (c) only (4) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (4) None of these 328. The correct increasing order of basic strengths of
320. On bromination, propionic acid gives two isomeric RCN, RNH2 and RN = CHR is
2-bromopropionic acids. This pair will be an example (1) RCN, RN = CHR, RNH2
of (2) RCN, RNH2, RN = CHR
(1) Optical isomers (2) Cis-trans isomers (3) RNH2, RCN, RN = CHR
(3) Chain isomers (4) Position isomers (4) RN = CHR, RNH2, RCN
321. Boiling point is more for 329. Ethylamine undergoes oxidation in presence of
COOH KMnO4 to form
(1) HCOOH (2)
COOH (1) An aldehyde (2) An acid
(3) C3H7OH (4) glycerol (3) An alcohol (4) An N-oxide
322. On treatment of citric acid with conc. H2SO4, 330. The acidic character of primary nitro alkanes is
which of the following is produced due to
(1) Acetone (1) Metamerism (2) Conformation
(2) Citraconic anhydride (3) Tautomerism (4) Hydride shift
(3) Dihydroxy acetone 331. An amine C3H9N on exhaustive methylation yields
(4) None of these ethylene. The amine is
323. Which of the following gives oxalic acid (1) (CH3)3N
(1) Heating of acetic acid (2) CH3CH2NHCH3
(2) Action of nitric acid on glucose (3) CH3(CH2)2NH2
(3) Acidic hydrolysis of cyanogen (4) None of these
(4) Strong heating of sodium formate 332. Which of the following will give white precipitate
324. Which of the following will not yield tartaric acid with an aqueous solution of ethyl amine :
(1) Hydrolysis of glyoxal cyanohydrin (1) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (2) Ferrous sulphate
(2) KMnO4 oxidation of fumaric acid (3) ZnSO4 (4) CuSO4
(3) Strong heating of cream of tartar 333. The active species produced in Hoffmann’s bromide
(4) Treatment of argol with Ca(OH)2, CaCl2 and reaction is ?
finally H2SO4 (1) Br– (2) Br2
(3) OBr – (4) OBr2
325. The boiling points of amines and their corresponding
alcohols and acids vary in the order 334. Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating
(1) R – CH2NH2 < RCOOH < RCH2OH (1) Propyl alcohol with KCN
(2) RCH2NH2 < RCH2OH < RCOOH (2) Butyl alcohol with KCN
(3) RCH2NH2 > RCH2OH > RCOOH (3) Butyl chloride with KCN
(4) RCOOH > RCNH2 > RCH2OH (4) Propyl chloride with KCN
[C–31]
335. Hydrolysis of CH3CH2NO2 with 85% H2SO4 gives 340. Which of the following represents correct state of
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) C2H6 existence of sulphanilic acid ?
(3) CH3CH = NOH (4) CH3COOH
336. A nitrogenous substance X is treated with HNO2 (1) H2N – – SO3H
and the product so formed is further treated with

NaOH solution, which produces blue colouration. (2) H2N – – SO3
Which of the following can X be
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2NO2 +
(3) H3N – – SO–3
(3) CH3CH2ONO (4) CH3 CHNO3
CH3 (4) None of these
337. Which is true statement 341. Which of the following will show the properties of
(a) Ph – NH2 is a weaker base than Et – NH2 alkyl halide ?
(b) A secondary amine is stronger base than a (1) o-Chlorotoluene (2) m-Chloro toluene
tertiary amine (3) Benzyl chloride (4) p-Chlorotoluene
(c) Alkaline nitrile on hydrolysis with caustic potash 342. Ethylbenzene with bromine in presence of FeBr3
solution gives potassium alkanoate and predominantly gives
ammonia Br
(d) Alkyl isocyanate on alkaline hydrolysis gives (1) – CH2CH3
a primary amine
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (a) & (b) only (4) (d) only – CH2CH3
(2)
338. In the Cannizzaro reaction given below Br
OH–
2 Ph – CHO Ph – CH2OH + PhCO2– is – CH2CH3
(3) Br –
slowest step is
(1) The attack of OH– at the carbonyl group
(4) – CH2CH2Br
(2) The transfer of hydride ion to the carbonyl
group 343. 2-Phenylethanol may be prepared by the reaction
(3) The abstraction of a proton from the carboxylic of phenylmagnesium bromide with
acid (1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(4) The deprotonation of Ph – CH2OH O
(3) CH3COCH3 (4)
339. Acidic strength is more for
344. The binding energy of an element is 64 MeV. If
(1) H3C – – COOH BE/nucleon is 6.4, the number of nucleons are :
(1) 10 (2) 64
(3) 16 (4) 6
(2) CH3O – – COOH
345. If 5 g of a radioactive substance has t1/2 = 14 hr, 20
g of the same substance will have a t1/2 equal to :
(3) O2N – – COOH (1) 56 hr
(2) 3.6 hr
– COOH (3) 14 hr
(4)
(4) t1/2 depends upon initial conc.
[C–32]
346. If 75% quantity of a radioactive isotope 353. The radioactivity of a sample is R1 at a time T1 and
disintegrates in 2 hour, its half life would be R2 at a time T2. If the half life of the specimen is T,
(1) 1 hour (2) 45 hour the number of atoms that have disintegrated in the
(3) 30 minute (4) 15 minute time (T2 – T1) is proportional to
347. A radioactive substance has a constant activity of (1) (R1T1 – R2T2) (2) (R2 – R1)
(3) (R2 – R1)/T (4) (T2 – T1)T/0.693
2000 disintegrations/minute. The material is
354. In a nuclear chain reaction
separated into two fractions, one of which has an
(1) All neutrons produced by the initial fission event
initial activity of 1000 disintegrations per second
are captured
while the other fraction decays with t1/2 = 24 hour.
(2) Each fission event produces ten or more
The total activity in both samples after 48 hour of neutrons
separation is : (3) Each fission event produces two to three
(1) 1500 (2) 1000 neutrons
(3) 1250 (4) 2000 (4) Each fission fragment fissions into a smaller
348. The number of -particles emitted during the change fragment
c b
aX — dY is 355. In the four statements given below the only one
correct statement is
ab a  b
(1) (2) d   c (1) -radioactivity is the process in which an
4  2 
electron is emitted from an unstable atom
c b a b whose atomic number Z remains unchanged
(3) d   –a (4) d   –c
 2   2  (2) -radioactivity is the process in which the
349. If the masses of hydrogen atom and a neutron are daughter nucleus has atomic number 1 unit
1.0078 and 1.0087 amu respectively, then the total more than that of the parent nucleus
binding energy of 7N14 would be (3) -radioactivity is the process in which an
unstable atom emits the nucleus of a helium
(Given 7N14 = 14.0031 amu and 1 amu = 93 MeV)
atom
(1) 95.4 MeV (2) 100.5 MeV
(4) -radioactivity is the process in which a heavy
(3) 104.6 MeV (4) 119.4 MeV
atom emits electromagnetic radiations of very
350. The activity of a radionuclide (X100) is 6.023 curie. high frequency
If the disintegration constant is 3.7 × 104 sec–1, the 356. An isotope, which has too high a neutron-proton
mass of radionuclide is ratio, can gain stability by
(1) 10–14 g (2) 10–6 g (1) Beta emission (2) Gamma emission
(3) 10–15 g (4) 10–3 g (3) Proton emission (4) K-capture
Isotopic atomic weight - mass number 357. The decay constant  of a radioactive sample
351. × 104 = P..
Mass number (1) Decreases as the age of atoms increase
P is called (2) Increase as the age of atoms increases
(1) Binding energy (2) Mathematical fraction (3) Independent of the age
(3) Aston’s fraction (4) Packing fraction (4) Depends on the nature of activity
358. Radioactive radiations are harmful to the living
352. Which nuclear reaction is not correct
organs. To avoid harm during storage, radioactive
63
(1) 29 Cm ( p. 1H 2 ) 62
29 Cu samples are stored in lead boxes. Lead is used
(2) 9
Be (α. 1n1 ) 6 C12 because it is
4
(1) Heavy
10
(3) 5 B (α, 0 n1 ) 7 N13 (2) Strong
(4) 59
Co ( 0 n1 , 1H 2 ) 56
Mn (3) Bad conductor
27 25
(4) Good absorber of radiation
[C–33]
359. The decay of a radioactive element follows first 364. If S1 be the specific charge (e/m) of cathode rays
order kinetics. Hence and S2 be that of positive rays then which is true
(a) Half life period = constant/, where  is decay (1) S1 = S2 (2) S1 < S2
constant (3) S1 > S2 (4) Either of these
(b) The rate of decay is independent of 365. The mass of an electron is m, its charge e and it is
temperature accelerated from rest through a potential difference
(c) The rate can be altered by changing chemical V. The kinetic energy of the electron in joules will
conditions be
(d) The element will be completely transformed (1) V (2) eV
into a new element after expiry of two half (3) MeV (4) None of these
life periods 366. If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d) energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a
(3) (a) only (4) (d) only proton each having same de Broglie wavelength
360. Which statement is correct : then
(1) Volume of proton is approximately (4/3 r3) (1) E1 > E3 > E2 (2) E2 > E3 > E1
1.5 × 10–38 cm3 (3) E1 > E2 > E3 (4) E1 = E2 = E3
(2) The radius of electron is 42.8 × 10–13 cm 367. In photoelectric effect, the photo-current,
(3) The density of nucleus is 1014 g/cm3 (1) Increases with increase of frequency of
(4) All of these incident photon
(2) Decreases with increase of frequency of
361. When greater number of excited hydrogen atoms
incident photon
reach the ground state, then
(3) Does not depend on the frequency of photon
(1) More number of lines are found in Lyman
but depends only on the intensity of incident
series
light
(2) The intensity of lines in Balmer series increases
(4) Depends both on intensity and frequency of
(3) The intensity of lines in Lyman series increases
the incident photon
(4) Both the intensity and number of lines in Lyman
368. The photoelectric effect is described as the ejection
series increases
of electrons from the surface of a metal when
362. The potential energy of the electron present in the
(1) It is heated to a high temperature
ground state of Li2+ ion is represented by the
(2) Electrons of suitable velocity impinge on it
expression
(3) Light of suitable wavelength falls on it
3e 2 3e (4) It is placed in a strong magnetic field
(1)  (2) –
4π 0 r 4 π 0 r 369. The total energy of the electron revolving round
3e 2 3e 2 the nucleus is
(3) – (4) –
4π 0 r 2 4π 0 r (1) zero
363. The ratio of e/m, i.e., specific charge for a cathode (2) more than zero
ray, (3) less than zero
(1) Has the smallest value when the discharge (4) may be less or more than zero
tube is filled with H2 370. The frequency of first line of Balmer series in
(2) Is constant hydrogen atom is v 0 . The frequency of
(3) Varies with the atomic number of gas in the corresponding line emitted by singly ionised helium
discharge tube atom is
(4) Varies with the atomic number of an element (1) 2v0 (2) 4v0
forming the cathode (3) v0/2 (4) v0/4
[C–34]
371. For an electron in a hydrogen atom, the wave 379. A ball of mass 200 g is moving with a velocity of
function, is proportional to exp–r/a0, where a0 is the 10 m sec–1. If the error in measurement of velocity
Bohr’s radius. What is the ratio of the probability is 0.1%, the uncertainty in its position is
of finding the electron at the nucleus to the (1) 3.3 × 10–31 m (2) 3.3 × 10–27 m
probability of finding it at a0? (3) 5.3 × 10–25 m (4) 2.64 × 10–32 m
(1) e (2) e2 380. The radii of two of the first four Bohr’s orbits of
(3) 1/e2 (4) Zero the hydrogen atom are in the ratio 1 : 4. The energy
372. The mass of electron moving with velocity of light difference between them may be
is (1) Either 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV
(1) 2me (2) 3 me (2) Either 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV
(3) Infinite (4) Zero (3) Either 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV
373. The electronic velocity in the fourth Bohr’s orbit (4) Either 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV
of hydrogen is v. The velocity of the electron in the 381. In the Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio
first orbit would be of the kinetic energy to the total energy of the
(1) 4 v (2) 15 v electron in a quantum state n is
(3) v/4 (4) v/16 (1) 1 (2) 2
374. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom the ratio (3) – 1 (4) – 2
between the period of revolution of an electron in 382. When photons of energy 4.25 eV strike the surface
the orbit n = 1 to the period of revolution of the of a metal A, the ejected photoelectrons have
electron in the orbit n = 2 is maximum kinetic energy, TA (expressed in eV) and
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 the Broglie wavelength A. The maximum kinetic
(3) 1 : 4 (4) None of these energy of photoelectrons liberated from another
375. The maximum wavelength of light that can excite metal B by photons of energy 4.20 V is
an electron from first to third orbit of hydrogen atom TB = TA – 1.50 eV. If the de-Broglie wavelength
is of these photoelectrons is B = 2A, then which is
(1) 487 nm (2) 170 nm not correct
(3) 103 nm (4) 17 nm (1) The work function of A is 2.25 eV
376. Oxygen consists of O , O17 and O18 isotopes and
16 (2) The work function of B is 3.70 eV
carbon consists of isotopes of C12 and C13. Total (3) TA = 2.00 eV
number of CO2 molecules possible are (4) TB = 2.75 eV
(1) 6 (2) 12 383. The bond length in O2+, O2, O2– and O22– follows
(3) 18 (4) 1 the order
+
377. What transition in He ion shall have the same wave (1) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
number as the first line in Balmer series of hydrogen (2) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
atom, (3) O2 > O2– > O22– > O2+
(1) 3  2 (2) 6  4 (4) O22– > O2– > O2+ > O2
(3) 5  3 (4) 7  5 384. BCl3 is a planaer molecule because in this molecule
378. Atomic radius is of the order of 10–8 cm and nuclear boron is ?
radius is of the order of 10–13 cm. The fraction of (1) sp3 hybridised
atom occupied by nucleus is (2) sp2 hybridised
(1) 10–5 (2) 105 (3) sp hybridised
(3) 10–15 (4) None of these (4) Unhybridised
[C–35]
385. Mark the incorrect statement in the following 392. Which among the following molecules is not flat ?
(1) The bond order in the species O2, O2+ and (1) C6H6 (2) C2H4
O2– decreases as O2+ > O2 > O2– (3) SO2 (4) BF4
(2) The bond energy in a diatomic molecule always 393. A molecule XY2 contains two , two  bonds and
increases when an electron is lost one lone pair of electron in valence shell of X. The
(3) Electrons in antibonding M.O. contribute to arrangement of lone pair as well as bond pairs is?
repulsion between two atoms (1) Square pyramidal (2) Linear
(4) With increase in bond order, bond length (3) Trigonal planar (4) Unpredictable
decreases and bond strength increases 394. CH3CHO + LiAlH4  CH3CH2OH
The nucleophile added in this reaction is
386. In piperidine NH , the hybrid state
(1) AlH4– (2) Li+
assumed by N is (3) H + (4) H–
(1) sp (2) sp 2 (i) CH3MgBr
395. CH3CCH2CH2CH2Cl A, A is
(3) sp 3 (4) dsp2
387. The correct order of increasing ionic character is O
(1) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2 CH3
(2) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2 (1) CH3CCH2CH2CH2Cl
(3) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
OH
(4) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2
388. Specify the coordination geometry around and (2) CH3CCH2CH2CH2CH3
hybridization of N and B atoms in 1 : 1 complex of O
BF3 and NH3
(1) N : tetrahedral, sp3., B : tetrahedral, sp3 CH3
(2) N : pyramidal, sp3., B : pyramidal, sp3 (3)
O CH3
(3) N : pyramidal, sp3., B : planar, sp2
(4) N : pyramidal, sp3., B : tetrahedral, sp3 H3C CH3
389. The pair having similar geometry is ?
(1) BF3, NH3 (2) H2O, C2H2 (4) O
H3C
(3) CO2, SO2 (4) NH3 and PH3
390. The molecules BF3 and NF3 both are covalent O
compounds. But BF3 is non-polar and NF3 is polar. 396. + (CH3)2NH — A, A is
The reason is that?
(1) Boron is a metal and nitrogen is a gas in N(CH3)2
uncombined stage
(1)
(2) BF bonds have no dipole moment whereas NF
bonds have dipole moment N(CH3)2
(3) Atomic size of boron is similar than that of (2)
nitrogen
N(CH3)2
(4) BF3 is planar but NF3 is pyramidal in shape
391. In XeF4 molecule, lone pairs of electrons ? (3)
(1) Occupy equatorial positions
N(CH3)2
(2) Occupy both equatorial and axial positions
(3) Occupy axial positions (4)
(4) Are present
[C–36]
COOH COOH COOH

Br 2 NaOH
1. Mg/ether +
Product (s)
400. CH2OH COONa
: It is :
397. CHO
2. CH3CH CH2CH
(1) Crossed Cannizzaro reaction
OH O (2) Intermolecular Cannizzaro reaction
3. H3O+
(3) Intramolecular Cannizzaro reaction
Select the product from the following : (4) None of these
D
(a) 401. 2D–C=O + OH–  X and Y (Y is alcohol, D is
deuterium) X and Y will have structure
(b) CH3CHCH2CH
O D
OH O –
(1) D–C–O , D–C–OH
(c) CH3CHCH2CH D
O D
OH OH
(1) (c) (2) (a) & (c) (2) D–C–O–, D–C–OH
(3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (c) H

O
O D
CH3MgBr (excess)
398. O X, X is
H 3 O+ (3) H–C–O–, D–C–OH
D
H3 C OH
OH (4) None of these
(1)
H3 C 402. CH2–CHCH3 +PCl5  A,
O
HO
CH3CH2CHO + PCl5  B.
(2) OH
H3 C A and B are
(1) vic halides
O OH
(2) gem halides
(3) CH3
(3) A gem halide, B vic halide
(4) A vic halide, B gem halide
O
O
(4) HgSO4/H2SO4
403. —C  CH A, A is
399. Find the end product in the following sequence of O
reaction is
—C—CH3
(1)
O3/H2O Ca(OH)2  NH2–NH2 O
OH–/glycol O
(2) —CH2—CHO
(1) (2) O
O (3) — COOH
OH
(3) (4)
(4) —CH2CHO
[C–37]
404. Consider reduction of 2-butanone 407. Which of the following compounds would be
NaBD4 expected to decarboxylate most readily when heated
A
NaBD4 H 2O O O
B 2-butanone
D 2O NaBH4 A, B and C are
C (1)
D 2O
OH
(1) CH3CHCH2CH3 in all cases O O
(2)
OH
O
OH OD OD OH
(2) CH3CCH2CH3, CH3CCH2CH3, CH3CCH2CH3 (3) HO
D D H O
OH
OH OH OD (4) HO
O
(3) CH3CCH2CH3, CH3CCH2CH3, CH3CCH2CH3 O O
D H H 408. CH3–C–Cl + Nu– CH3–C–Nu + Cl–
OH Reactivity order of different nucleophiles (NH2–,

(4) CH3CCH2CH3 in all cases CH3COO–, OH–) is in order
D
(1) NH2– < CH3COO– < OH–
(2) CH3COO– < OH– < NH2–
405. Acidic hydrolysis is least in case of
(3) NH2– < OH– < CH3COO–
O
(4) CH3COO– < NH2– < OH–
(1) CH3CO— — OCH3
O
O
NaBH4 O LiAlH4
(2) CH3CO— 409. B A, A and B are
— NO2 CH3OH
O respectively O
(3) CH3CO— O
O NO2 O
in both cases
(4) CH3CO— (1)
OH
O O
406. NaBH4 H3 O+ A, OH
in both cases
OH OH
A is (2)
O OH
O O
O
(1) (2)
OH O
O
OH
O O (3)
OH OH
O O
(3) (4) (4) Formation of A and B is not possible
[C–38]
410. Consider following comparision of basicities of 413. What is the binding energy in 5B11 nucleus if its
amines mass defect is 0.08181 a.m.u. ?
(1) 1.2 × 10–4 ergs/nucleus
I. NH is more basic than (2) 8.2 × 10–4 ergs/nucleus
(3) 10.2 × 10–4 ergs/nucleus
(4) None of these
N 414. Sulphur-35 (24.96903 amu) emits a -particle
H but no -ray. The product is Chlorine-35
(34.96885 a.m.u.) The maximum energy emitted
II. N >N NH > by the -particle is ?
H N (1) 16.758 MeV (2) 1.6758 MeV
O O (3) 0.16758 MeV (4) 0.016758 MeV
415. A count rate meter gives a count of 16 per hour
III. NH > NH > from a given radioactive sample. Five hours later,
the count rate meter gives 0.5 count per hour. The
O
half life of the sample is ?
NH
(1) 30 mins (2) One hour
(3) 2 hours (4) 5/4 hours
Correct comparisons are
416. In the carbon cycle from which hot stars obtain
(1) I, II and III (2) I and II
their energy, 6C12 nucleus is ?
(3) II and III (4) I and III
(1) Completely converted into energy
411. Hofmann’s elimination product of (A) is
(2) Regenerated at the end of the cycle
H3 C
(3) Combined with oxygen to form carbon
 monoxide
(A) N
OH (4) Broken up into its constituent protons and
H3 C CH3
neutrons
417. Which of the following pairs represents isobars ?
H3 C H3 C
49 40
(1) 19 K and 18 Ar
(1) N (2) N (2) 3
He and 42 He
2
H 3C CH3 H 3C CH3 24 25
(3) 12 Mg and 12 Mg
H3 C 49 41
(4) 19 K and 19 K
H3 C
N 418. An element is isobaric with the inert gas atom.
(3) (4)
40
H 3C CH3 18 Ar . The electronic arrangement of the element
412. Radium has at. wt. 226 and a half-life of 1600 years. is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2. How many neutrons
The number of disintegrations produced per second does each atom of the element carry in its nucleus?
from one gram are (1) 22 (2) 20
(1) 4.8 × 1010 (3) 18 (4) 16
(2) 9.2 × 105 419. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is ?
(3) 3.7 × 1010 (1) 6C12, 7N14, 8O16 (2) 14Si30, 15P31, 16S32
(4) zero (3) 1H1, 1D2, 1T3 (4) 2He4, 3Li6, 4Be8
[C–39]
420. Nuclear power reactors are operated at low 426. A hockey ball weighing 200 g after hitting attained
temperatures and consequently with lower a speed of 3 × 103 cm s–1 has a de-Broglie’s wave
efficiency because length of (h = 6.60 × 10–27 g cm2 sec–1)
(1) Nuclear heat is carried by ordinary steam (1) 0.55 × 10–32 cm (2) 11.0 × 10–32 cm
(2) Uranium is difficult to heat (3) 2.21 × 10–32 cm (4) 1.1 × 10–32 cm
(3) The walls of nuclear reactors cannot withstand 427. If the speed of electron in the Bohr’s first orbit of
high temperature hydrogen atom is x, the speed of the electron in the
(4) High pressure inside the reactor reduces the third Bohr’s orbit is ?
temperature (1) x/9 (2) x/3
421. A chain fission reaction is always possible because (3) 3x (4) 9x
of ? 428. A proton and an alpha particle are both accelerated
through the same potential difference. If the de
(1) The splitting of the nucleus into two or more
Broglie wavelength of -particle be , that of
fragments
proton will be
(2) The large energy released per fission
(3) The liberation of secondary neutrons (1)  (2)  2
(4) The radioactive nature of the fragments (3) 2 (4) None of these
422. The binding energy per nucleon is ? 429. The hydrogen spectrum from an incandescent
(1) Largest for high mass numbers source of hydrogen is
(2) Largest for low mass numbers (1) A band spectrum in emission
(3) Largest for intermediate mass numbers (2) A line spectrum in emission
(4) Almost the same for all mass numbers (3) A band spectrum in absorption
(4) A line spectrum in absorption
423. The order of penetration of three radioactive rays
430. In the emission of photo-electrons, the number of
through metal sheet is ?
photo-electrons emitted per unit time depends upon
(1)  >  >  (2)  >  > 
the
(3)  >  >  (2) none of these
(1) Energy of incident radiations
424. Oxidation of toluene with CrO3 in the presence of
(2) Frequency of incident radiations
(CH 3 CO) 2 O gives a product (A) which on
(3) Intensity of incident radiations
treatment with aqueous NaOH produces
(4) None of the above facts
(1) C6H5CHO
431. The increase in wavelength , termed as compton
(2) (C6H5CO)2O
shift, produced as a result of collision of X-rays is
(3) C6H5COONa given by
(4) 2, 4-Diacetyltoluene
2h  2h 
425. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the (1)   sin (2)   sin 2
mc 2 mc 2
nuclear beam of
(1) - particles, which impinged on a metal foil 2h h 
(3)   sin2  (4)   sin
and got adsorbed mc mc 2
(2) -rays, which impinged on a metal foil and 432. In the discharge tube, emission of cathode rays
ejected electrons requires ?
(3) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil (1) Low potential and low pressure
and got scattered (2) Low potential and high pressure
(4) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil (3) High potential and high pressure
(4) High potential and low pressure
and got scattered1
[C–40]
e 437. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol

433. according to Thomson’s method is given by requires drastic conditions but chlorine of
m
2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene is readily replaced. This
e V e V is because
(1)  (2)  2
m rH 2 m r H (1) NO2 makes the ring electron rich at ortho and
para positions
e V e 2V
(3)  2 2 (4)  2 2 (2) NO2 withdraws e– from meta-position
m r H m r H
(3) NO2 donates e– at m-position
434. If electron, hydrogen, helium and neon nuclei are
(4) NO2 withdraws e– from ortho/para-positions
all moving with the velocity of light, then the
438. Which of the following is least alkaline ?
wavelengths associated with these particles are in
the order
(1) Electron > hydrogen > helium > neon (1) NO2 NH2
(2) Electron > helium > hydrogen > neon

(3) Electron < hydrogen < helium < neon NH2
(2) CH3O
(4) Neon < hydrogen < helium < electron
435. Aniline is reacted with bromine water and the
resulting product is treated with an aqueous solution (3) C3H5 NH2
of sodium nitrite in presence of dilute HCl. The
compound so formed is reacted with
tetrafluoroborate which is subsequently heated and (4) EtO2C NH2
dried. The final product is
439. The strongest acid among the following is ?
(1) p-Bromofluorobenzene
(2) p-Bromoaniline (1) o-nitrophenol (2) p-chlorophenol
(3) 2, 4, 6-Tribromofluorobenzene (3) p-nitrophenol (4) m-nitrophenol
(4) 1, 3, 5-Tribromobenzene 440. What amount of bromine will be required to convert
436. Which will undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation 2g of phenol into 2, 4, 6-tribromonophenol ?
reaction ? (1) 2.0 (2) 5.0
(3) 10.22 (4) None of these
CH 3 CH2CH3 441. Aniline reacts with phosgene and KOH to form
OH O
(a) (b)
C – Cl
(1) (2)
NO2
COOH OH NHCOCl NCO

(3) (4)
(c) (d)
442. A compound of molecular weight 180 is acetylated
(1) (a), (b), and (d) to give a compound of molecular weight 390. The
(2) (a) and (c) number of amino groups in the compound is
(3) (b) and (d) (1) 2 (2) 4
(4) (a) and (b) (3) 5 (4) None of these
[C–41]
443. Which of the following are correct statements? 449. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by
(1) Ca3(PO4)2 is part of bones (1) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate
(2) 3Ca3(PO4).CaF2 is part of enamel on teeth (2) Disproportionation of N2O4
(3) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting (3) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite
(4) All are correct (4) Interaction of hydroxylamine and nitrous acid
444. Arrange the hydrides of group 15 in the correct
450. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
order of reducing nature.
(1) PH3 is more basic than ammonia
(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
(2) PH3 is less basic than ammonia
(2) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(3) PH3 is equally basic as ammonia
(3) PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3 < NH3
(4) PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 > NH3 (4) NH3 is amphoteric and PH3 is basic.
445. The basic strength of hydrides of group 15 elements 451. The yellow precipitate formed in ammonium
vary in the order molybdate test for PO43– ion is
(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 (1) Mo3 (PO4)2
(2) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 (2) (NH4)6Mo(PO4)6
(3) BiH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (3) (NH4)3PO4. 12MoO3. 6H2O
(4) NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > BiH3. (4) (NH4)3PO4. Mo(PO4)2.2H2O
446. Pick out the correct statements among the 452. P4O10 when dissolved in water gives
following (1) H3PO2 (2) H3PO3
(a) NF3 molecule has trigonal pyramidal structure (3) H4P2O6 (4) H3PO4
(b) NF3 is practically insoluble in water and is only
453. Hydrolysis of Pl3 yields
hydrolyzed, when an electric spark is passed
(1) A monobasic acid and a salt
through a mixture with water vapour
(2) A monobasic acid and a dibasic acid
(c) Dipole moment of NF3 is more than that of
(3) A dibasic acid only
NH3
(d) Nitrogen (III) oxide (N2O3) is an acidic oxide. (4) A monobasic acid and a tribasic acid
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b) only 454. That form of phosphorus that is fairly good
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) (c) only conductor of electricity is
447. Arrange the oxides of group 15 elements in (1) Black
decreasing order of their acidity. (2) Violet
(1) N2O5 > P2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5 (3) Scarlet
(2) Bi2O5 > Sb2O5 > As2O5 > P2O5 > N2O5 (4) None of these
(3) P2O5 > N2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5 > Bi2O5 455. Thermal stability of hydrides of group 16 elements
(4) N2O5 > Bi2O5 > P2O5 > As2O5 > Sb2O5. decreases in the following order
448. Pick out the correct statements (1) H2PO > H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(a) Orthophosphorus acid can be obtained by
(2) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2PO
reacting P4O6 with H2O
(3) H2S > H2Se > H2O > H2Te > H2PO
(b) Orthophosphoric acid can be obtained by
(4) H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2O > H2PO
reacting P4O10 with H2O
456. Hydrides of group 16 are weakly acidic in nature.
(c) Pyrophosphoric can be obtained by heating
orthophosphorus acid The correct order of acidity is
(d) Metaphosphoric acid is obtained by the (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
dehydration of orthophosphoric acid at 316ºC. (2) H2Te > H2O > H2S > H2Se
(1) (b) and (d) only (2) (a) only (3) H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
(3) (c) only (4) (a) and (d) only (4) H2Te > H2Se > H2O > H2S.
[C–42]
457. Which of the following statements is incorrect 463. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid
regarding H2O2 ? produces
(1) The concentration of H2O2 is carried out at (1) Two moles of sulphuric acid
lower temperature (<333K) under reduced (2) Two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
pressure (3) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of
(2) H2O2 is a strong oxidizing agent both in acidic
peroxomonosulphuric acid
and alkaline media
(4) One mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of
(3) In oxidizes black PbS to white PbSO4
peroxomonosulphuric acid and one mole of
(4) In alkaline medium, it cannot reduce potassium
hydrogen peroxide
ferricyanide to potassium ferrocyanide.
464. Pick out the correct statements regarding
458. Pick out the incorrect statements.
(1) The tendency for catenation is markedly halogens.
shown by sulphur (a) Chlorine is hydrolysed by water to form
(2) Te = C = Te is unknown hydrochloric acid and hypochlorous acid
(3) The +4 oxidation state is relatively more stable (b) Bromine and iodine react with NaOH solution
for Se, Te and Po than +6 O.S., but opposite to form halide and halate ion
trend holds good for S (c) Chlorine reacts with cold dilute NaOH solution
(4) O2 is diamagnetic to give sodium chloride and sodium chlorate
459. Which trioxide of group 16 elements exists as a (d) Iodine converts S2O32– to sulphur
cyclic tetramer in the solid slate ? (1) (a) only
(1) SO3 (2) SeO3 (2) (a) and (b) only
(3) TeO3 (4) Both SO3 and SeO3 (3) (c) only
460. The reducing nature of hydrides of group 16
(4) (d) only
elements vary as
465. Pick out the incorrect statements regarding
(1) H2PO > H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
hydrogen halides
(2) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2PO
(1) Hydrogen chloride can be prepared by the
(3) H2S > H2Se > H2Te > H2O > H2PO
reaction of NaCl with conc. H2SO4
(4) H2O > H2PO> H2Te > H2Se > H2S
461. Arrange the acidic tendencies of the following non- (2) Reactions of respective ionic halides, i.e.,
metallic oxides in decreasing order NaBr and KI with conc. H2SO4 are employed
(1) SO3>N2O5>SiO2>CO2>H2O to produce HBr and HI
(2) SO3>N2O5>CO2>SiO2>H2O (3) Hydrogen halides are prepared by action of
(3) SO3>SiO2>N2O5>CO2>H2O phosphorus trihalides with water
(4) SO3>CO2>N2O5>SiO2>H2O. (4) A solution of hydrogen chloride in toluene
462. In the reactions : affects blue litmus paper
(i) SO2 + 2H2S 3S + 2H2O 466. Which one of the following sequences represents
(ii) 3SO2 + Cr2O7 + 2H+
2–
the correct increasing order of bond angles in the
2Cr3+ + 3SO42– + H2O given molecules ?
Here SO2 acts as a/an (1) H2O < OF2 < OCl2 < ClO2
(1) Oxidizing agent both in (i) & (ii)
(2) OCl2 < ClO2 < H2O < OF2
(2) Oxidizing agent in (i) & reducing agent in (ii)
(3) OF2 < H2O < OCl2 < ClO2
(3) Reducing agent both in (i) & (ii)
(4) ClO2 < OF2 < OCl2 < H2O.
(4) Reducing agent in (i) & oxidizing agent in (ii)
[C–43]
467. The following oxo acids have been arranged in the 472. The greater reactivity of flourine is due to
order of decreasing acid strength. Identify the (1) Lower energy of F-F bond
correct order. (2) F2 is gas at ordinary temperature
(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (3) It has highest electron affinity and low F-F
(c) HClO3 (d) HClO4 bond energy
(1) (c) > (d) > (b) > (a) (4) High energy of F-F bond
(2) (c) > (b) > (a) > (d) 473. KMnO4 is prepared by
(3) (a) > (b) > (c) > (d) (1) Passing Cl2 through K2MnO4 solution
(4) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a) (2) Passing O2 through K2MnO4 solution
468. Consider the following perhalate ions in acidic (3) Reacting KOH with HMnO4
medium : (4) Fusing KOH with MnO2
(a) CIO4– (b) BrO4– 474. Which statement/(s) according chlorine is false
(c) IO4– (a) Chlorine oxidises Na2S2O3 to Na2S4O6
Arrange these in the decreasing order of oxidizing (b) Chlorine oxidises bromides to bromine
(c) Chlorine is a bleaching agent
power.
(d) Chlorine bleaching action is due to its reducing
(1) (a) > (b) > (c)
power
(2) (a) > (c) > (b)
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) (b) > (a) > (c)
(3) (a) and (d) only (4) All of these
(4) (b) > (c) > (a)
475. NH3 has a much higher b.p. than PH3 because
469. Pick out correct statements regarding polyhalides.
(1) NH3 has a larger molecular weight
(a) The solubility of iodine greatly increases, if
(2) NH3 undergoes umbrella inversion
some iodide ions are present in solution
(3) NH3 forms hydrogen bond
(b) F3– compounds are not known
(4) NH 3 contains ionic bonds whereas PH 3
(c) The trihalides K[I3], K[ICl2] and Cs[IBrF], all
contains covalent bonds
contain linear trihalide ions
476. BiCl3 on hydrolysis forms a white precipitate of
(d) K[BrICl] on heating form KBr and ICl. (1) Bismuthio acid
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a) only (2) Bismuth oxychloride
(3) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (4) None of these (3) Bismuth pentachloride
470. Halogens are coloured, because (4) Bismuth hydroxide
(1) They are strong oxidant 477. There is very little difference in acid strength in
(2) Their molecules are held together by weak van the series H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2 because
der waals forces. (1) phosphorus in these acids exists in different
(3) Their atoms absorb radiations from visible oxidation states
range causing the excitation of valence (2) the relative stabilities of their conjugate bases
electrons to higher energy levels are same
(4) Their molecules absorb light radiation forming (3) phosphorus is not a highly electronegative
the excited states. element
471. Antichlor is a compound which (4) phosphorus oxides are less basic
(1) Absorbs chlorine 478. Phosphorus is manufactured by heating in a furnace
(2) Converts chlorine into hydrochlroic acid (1) Bone ash, sodium chloride and coke
(3) Liberates chlorine from bleaching powder (2) Bond ash, silica and coke
(4) Acts as a catalyst in the manufacture of (3) Bone ash, silica and lime
chlorine (4) Bone ash, coke and limestone
[C–44]
479. The highest bond strength is shown by 489. Which amongst the following reactions cannot be
(1) O – O bond (2) S – S bond used for the preparation of the halogen acid ?
(3) Se – Se bond (4) Te – Te bond (1) 2KBr + H2SO4 (conc.)K2SO4 + 2HBr
480. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional (2) 2NaCl + H2SO4 (conc.) NaHSO4 + HCl
distillation because (3) NaHSO4 + NaCl Na2SO4 + HCl
(1) Oxygen is in a different group of the periodic (4) CaF2 + H2SO4 (conc.) CaSO4 + 2HF
table from nitrogen 490. The reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I2 gives
(2) Oxygen is more reactive than nitrogen (1) Sodium iodide (2) Sodium sulphite
(3) Oxygen has higher b.p. than nitrogen (3) Sodium sulphate (4) Sodium tetrathionate
(4) None of these 491. Conc. HNO3 reacts with I2 to give
481. There is no S – S bond in (1) HI (2) HOI
(1) S2O42– (2) S2O52–
(3) HOIO2 (4) HOIO3
(3) S2O32– (4) S2O72–
492. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce
482. The oxidation state of sulphur in Na2S2O3 is
KMnO4, and HF can reduce
(1) +4 (2) +2, +4
(1) H2SO4 (2) KMnO4
(3) –2, +6 (4) +6
(3) K2Cr2O7 (4) None of these
483. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by
493. Which is main constituent of egg-shell ?
(1) reducing Na2SO4 solution with H2S
(1) CaCO3 (2) CaSiO3
(2) boiling Na2SO3 with S in alkaline medium
1
(3) neutralising H2S2O3 solution with NaOH (3) CaSO4· HO (4) CaSO4·2H2O
4 2
(4) boiling Na2SO3 with S in an acidic medium 494. Out of AgF, CaF2, BeF2, MgF2
484. Hypo is used in photography to (1) AgF and BeF2 are soluble, and CaF2 and MgF2
(1) reduce AgBr grains to metallic silver are insoluble in water
(2) convert the metallic silver to silver salt (2) AgF is soluble, others insoluble
(3) remove undecomposed silver bromide as a
(3) CaF2, BeF2, MgF2 soluble, AgF insoluble
soluble complex
(4) All insoluble
(4) remove reduced silver
495. Li does not resemble other alkali metals in following
485. Ozone with KI solution produces
properties
(1) Cl2 (2) I2
(1) Li2CO3 decomposes into oxides while other
(3) HI (4) IO3
alkali carbonates are thermally stable
486. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in presence
(2) LiCl is predominantly covalent
of
(3) Li3N is stable
(1) Dry air (2) Moisture
(4) All of these
(3) Sunlight (4) Pure oxygen
496. II A (alkali earth metals) and II B (zinc family)
487. Br2 can be liberated from KBr solution by the
action of resemble
(1) Iodine solution (1) MgSO 4 ·7H 2 O is isomorphous with
(2) Chlorine water ZnSO4·7H2O
(3) Sodium chloride (2) II A and II B cations are not precipitated by
(4) Potassium iodide H2S in acidic medium
488. Iodine reacts with liquor ammonia to give (3) II A and II B chlorides do not impart colour in
(1) NH4I and N2 (2) NH4I and HI flame
(3) NI3 and N2 (4) NH3.NI3 (4) Both (1) and (2)
[C–45]
497. Match the compounds (given in X) with their 505. Mg and Zn resemble in following properties
colours (given in Y) (a) Oxides are amphoteric
X Y (b) Carbonates on heating form metal oxides
A. Li3 N I pale yellow (c) Widely used as electrodes
B. K 2O II orange (d) Used to prevent corrosion
C. Cs2O, KO2 III bright yellow (1) (a) only (2) (b), (c) & (d) only
D. Rb2O IV ruby red (3) (b), (c) only (4) (d) only
A B C D 506. Be and Al resemble in all but not in one
(1) IV I II III (1) Both become passive on reaction with HNO3
(2) II III I IV due to formation of oxide layer
(3) I II III IV (2) Their chlorides are Lewis acids
(4) None of these (3) Chlorides exist in polymeric form
498. The deliquescent among the following is (4) Hydroxides are insoluble in alkali but soluble
(1) CaCl2 (2) FeSO4·7H2O in acid
(3) CuSO4·5H2O (4) BaCl2·2H2O 507. Following are the ionisation potential values of
499. Which is used for fixing atmospheric nitrogen? (I1) 889 kJ mol–1, (I2) 1757 kJ mol–1,
(I3) 15000 kJ mol–1
(1) CaCN2 (nitrolim) (2) Li3N
(1) Na (2) K
(3) Mg3N2 (4) All of these
(3) Be (4) Ne
500. Alkali metals resemble I B (copper family) in
508. Alkali metals dissolved in liquid pure NH3, then
following respects
which of the following observation are untrue
(1) +1 valency
(1) H2 gas is liberated
(2) sulphates are water soluble
(2) Solution is blue due to the presence of solvated
(3) oxides are strong base
electrons
(4) oxides are strong acids
(3) Solution is conducting
501. Be and Al show diagonal relationship hence both
(4) It provides a medium for reaction
have
509. Estimation of calcium and magnesium is done by
(1) Same degree of electronegativity
(1) EDTA (2) Oxalate
(2) Atmospheric nature of oxides
(3) Phosphate (4) None of these
(3) Approximately same charge / radius ratio + +
510. Na and Ag differ in
(4) All of these
(a) Na2CO3 is thermally stable while Ag2CO3
502. Which of the following is best CO2 absorber as
decomposes into Ag, CO2 and O2
well as source of O2 in submarines (b) Ag+ forms complexes, Na+ does not
(1) KO2 (2) K2O2 (c) NaCl is water soluble, AgCl is insoluble
(3) KOH (4) LiOH (d) NaCl and AgCl both give colour in flame when
503. The deep colour produced when iodine is dissolved ignited
in a solution of potassium iodide is caused by the (1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (b) & (c)
presence of (3) (c) only (4) (d) only
(1) I2 (2) I 511. Going down to II A group, following properties
–
(3) I3 (4) I2– increase except
504. BaC2 + N2   (A); CaC2 + N2   (B)
  (1) Solubility of sulphates in H2O
(A) and (B) are (2) Hydration energy
(1) BaCN2, CaCN2 (2) Ba(CN)2, Ca(CN)2 (3) Thermal stability of carbonates
(3) Ba(CN)2, CaCN2 (4) None is correct (4) Both (1) and (2)
[C–46]
512. Which is most stable out of the following 520. Which is the major constituent of gun powder
(1) [Be(H2O)4]2+ (2) [Mg(H2O)4]2+ (1) Nitre (2) Sulphur
(3) [Ca(H2O)4]2+ (4) [Sr(H2O)4]2+ (3) Charcoal (4) Chile salt petre
513. Which is/are untrue statements 521. Which will give N2O on heating
(1) The heats of hydration of the dipositive alkaline (1) NH4NO2
earth metal ions decreases with an increase (2) NH4NO3
in their ionize size (3) NaNO3
(2) Hydration of alkali metal ion is less than that (4) LiNO3
of II A
522. Lattice energy (numerical value) of chloride of
(3) Alkaline earth metal ions, because of their
alkali metals is in order
much larger charge to size ratio, exert a much
(1) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
stronger electrostatic attraction on the oxygen
(2) LiCl < NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl
of water molecule surrounding them
(3) NaCl < KCl < LiCl < RbCl < CsCl
(4) Hydration energy of I gp cation is greater than
(4) NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl < LiCl
that of II gp cation.
514. When Cl 2 is passed into moist slaked lime, 523. To an acidified dichromate solution, a pinch of
compound formed is Na2O2 is added and shaken. What is observed
(1) CaO2Cl2 (2) CaO2Cl (1) Blue colour
(3) CaOCl2 (4) CaCl2O4 (2) Red colour changing to green
515. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to (3) Evolution of oxygen
the presence of (4) Bluish-green precipitate
(1) Free electrons (2) Ions 524. Which of the following is preferentially formed on
(3) Na atom (4) Cl atom reaction of oxygen and potassium
516. Lattice energy of II A group compounds (oxides, (1) K2O2 (2) KO2
carbonates, fluorides) (3) K2O (4) K2O3
(1) Decreases as size of the ion increases 525. Gas (X) turns lime water milky. (X) can be
(2) Increases as size of the ion increases (1) CO2 (2) SO2
(3) Constant for a given type of anion (3) Both (4) None of these
(4) All are incorrect 526. Nitrate is converted into metal oxide on heating.
517. NaOH finds use in the This metal is
(1) Paper industry (2) Soap industry (1) Li (2) Na
(3) Rayon industry (4) All of these
(3) Mg (4) Both (1) and (2)
518. 1 mole of a substance (X) was treated with an
527. Which is most stable halide of alkali metal
excess of water. 2 moles of readily combustible
(1) Sodium fluoride (2) Sodium bromide
gas were produced along with solution which when
(3) Sodium chloride (4) Sodium iodide
reacted with CO2 gas produced a white turbidity.
528. Nitrolim is a
The substance (X) could be
(1) Mixture of calcium carbide and nitrogen
(1) Ca (2) CaH2
(3) Ca(OH)2 (4) Ca(NO3)2 (2) Mixture of calcium cyanamide and carbon
519. A colourless solid (X) on heating evolved CO2 and (3) Mixture of calcium cyanide and carbon
also gave a white residue, soluble in water. Residue (4) Mixture of NH4CN and Ca(CN)2
also gave CO2 when treated with dilute acid. (X) 529. When SO 2 gas is passed through acidified
is K2Cr2O7. The whole solution turned
(1) Na2CO3 (2) CaCO3 (1) Red (2) Blue
(3) Ca(HCO3)2 (4) NaHCO3 (3) Green (4) None
[C–47]
530. CO2 gas along with solid (Y) is obtained when 538. A basic refractory material among the following is
sodium salt (X) is heated. (X) is again obtained (1) Al2O3 (2) SiO2
when CO2 gas is passed into aqueous solution (Y). (3) Fe2O3 (4) CaO
(X) and (Y) are 539. Intermediate formed by heating microcosmic salt
(1) Na2CO3, Na2O and which forms coloured bead with coloured cation
(2) Na2CO3, NaOH is
(3) NaHCO3, Na2CO3 (1) NH3 (2) H3PO3
(4) Na2CO3, NaHCO3 (3) Na 3PO4 (4) H2 O
531. When SO2 gas is passed into aqueous Na2CO3, 540. Identify the correct statement
product formed is (1) Gypsum is obtained by heating Plaster of Paris
(1) NaHSO4 (2) Na2SO4 (2) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration
(3) NaHSO3 (4) Na2SO3 of gypsum
532. Choose the correct alternate(s) (3) Plaster of Paris contains higher percentage of
(a) BeCO3 is kept in the atmosphere of CO2 since calcium than does gypsum
it is least thermally stable (4) Plaster of Paris is obtained from gypsum by
(b) Be dissolves in alkali forming [Be(OH)4]2– oxidation
(c) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF when Be 541. Li2CO3 is
goes with cation (1) Added to bauxite in the electrolytic production
(d) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF in which of aluminium
Be goes with anion (2) Used to toughen glass
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (a), (b) & (d) (3) Used as medicine as it affects the balance
(3) (c) & (d) (4) (d) between Na+ and K+, and Mg2+ and Ca2+
533. Which is/are paramagnetic (4) All correct
(1) KO2 (2) K2O2 542. Which one is most volatile
(3) K2O (4) N2O4 (1) HF (2) HCl
534. Which salt can be used to identify coloured cation (3) HBr (4) HI
(1) Borax (2) Microcosmic salt 543. The oxyacid of P2O5 is
(3) Both (4) None of these (1) H3PO4 (2) HPO3
535. Magnesium oxide cannot be obtained by heating (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
(1) MgCO3 (2) Mg(NO3)2 544. The most powerful oxidant among the following is
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) MgSO4 (1) HOCl (2) HClO2
536. Which is/are true statements about s-block (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
elements 545. Alumina is
(1) Metals are obtained by the electrolysis of fused (1) Acidic (2) Basic
chlorides (3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
(2) Only one type of valency, +1 for I A and +2 546. Which does not liberates I2 from KI in acid medium
for II A, is shown (1) NO3– (2) NO2–
(3) All are metals (3) PO43– (4) SO42–
(4) All of these 547. The one which is widely used as aprotic solvent is
537. Baking powder contains (1) Liq. SO3 (2) Liq. SO2
(1) NaHCO3, Ca(H2PO2)2 and starch (3) HF (4) H2SO4
(2) NaHCO3, Ca(H2PO2)2 548. Which hydride has maximum reducing property
(3) NaHCO3, starch (1) NH3 (2) CH4
(4) NaHCO3 (3) SiH4 (4) HF
[C–48]
549. The compound used as fire extinguisher and in dry 563. The solubility of I2 in water is increased in the
cleaning is presence of
(1) C6H6 (2) CCl4 (1) CCl4 (2) CHCl3
(3) Petrol (4) SiCl4 (3) KCl (4) KI
550. Red lead is 564. Glass is a
(1) PbO (2) PbO2 (1) Liquid
(3) Pb2O3 (4) Pb3O4 (2) Supercooled liquid
551. Which is used as lubricant (3) Solid
(1) SnCl2 (2) SiO2 (4) Transparent organic polymer
(3) Graphite (4) Quartz 565. The chemical used for cooling in refrigeration is
552. The element which forms a solid acidic oxide is (1) CO (2) NH4OH
(1) Na (2) P (3) NH4Cl (4) Liquid NH3
(3) S (4) K 566. In solid argon, the atoms are held together by
553. In comparison to NH3 phosphine is (1) Ionic bonds (2) Vander Waal’s forces
(1) More basic (2) Less basic (3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Hydrophobic forces
(3) Neutral (4) None of these 567. Hydrogen halide with the highest boiling point is
554. The metalloid among the following is (1) HI (2) HCl
(1) Si (2) As (3) HBr (4) HF
568. Duralumin is an alloy of
(3) Bi (4) Al
(1) Al and Mg (2) Al, Mg, Mn and Cu
555. NH3 is dried with
(3) Al, Mg, and Ni (4) Al and Ni
(1) Conc. H2SO4 (2) P2O3
569. The most acidic of the following compounds is
(3) P2O5 (4) CaO
(1) P2O3 (2) As2O3
556. Which one is used as anaesthetic
(3) Sb2O3 (4) Bi2O3
(1) NH3 (2) NO2
570. Which is the anhydride of nitric acid
(3) N2 O (4) NO
(1) NO (2) N2O5
557. Which one is most acidic
(3) N2 O (4) N2O3
(1) N2O5 (2) N2O3
571. The starch test is used to detect the presence of
(3) N2O4 (4) NO2
(1) Br2 (2) I2
558. The phosphorus vapours are composed of
(3) Cl2 (4) None of these
(1) P (2) P 2
572. Anion that reacts with HCl to yield pungent gas is
(3) P 3 (4) P 4
(1) SO3–2 (2) CO32–
559. Which oxide of N is formed when NH4NO3 is
(3) Cl– (4) SO42–
heated 573. Etching of glass is done by the use of
(1) N2 O (2) NO (1) HCl (2) HF
(3) NO2 (4) N2O5 (3) H2SO4 (4) Aqua-regia
560. Ozone is an/a..... of O2 574. Producer gas is essentially a mixture of
(1) Compound (2) Allotrope (1) H2O + C (2) H2 + CO
(3) Isotope (4) None of these (3) H2SO4 (4) CO + N2
561. The most powerful oxidant among halogens is 575. When HCl is passed through a saturated BaCl2
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 solution
(3) Br2 (4) I2 (1) Barium chloride is precipitated
562. The strongest reducing agent is (2) Chlorine is liberated
(1) F– (2) Cl– (3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Br– (4) I– (4) None of these
[C–49]
576. The element which catches fire in air at 30ºC and 586. Solution of SO2 in water is known as
is stored under water is (1) Sulphurous acid
(1) Ca (2) Na (2) Thiosulphuric acid
(3) White phosphorus (4) Sr (3) Hydrosulphuric acid
577. Carbon dioxide is used for extinguishing fire (4) Thiosulphurous acid
because 587. Which burns to form an oxide which is gas at room
(1) It has a relatively high critical temperature temperature
(2) In the solid form it is called dry ice (1) Hydrogen (2) P
(3) It is a colourless gas (3) Sodium (4) S
(4) It is neither combustible nor supporter of 588. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to
combustion (1) Reduction (2) Hydrolysis
578. NaCl is heated with conc. H 2 SO 4 and solid (3) Oxidation (4) Its acidic nature
K2Cr2O7 to give 589. Which has the smallest atom
(1) Chromic chloride (1) F (2) Cl
(2) Chromyl chloride (3) Br (4) I
(3) Chromous chloride 590. In the preparation of chlorine from HCl, MnO2 acts
(4) Chromic sulphate as
579. The noble gas forming maximum number of (1) Oxidant (2) Catalytic agent
(3) Reductant (4) Dehydrating agent
compound is
591. Cl2 gas is dried over
(1) Ne (2) Xe
(1) CaO (2) NaOH
(3) Kr (4) Rn
(3) KOH (4) H2SO4
580. Which noble gas is most abundant in air +
592. Na+ and Ag differ in
(1) He (2) Xe
(1) Na2CO3 is thermally stable while Ag2CO3
(3) Ar (4) Kr
decomposes into Ag, CO2 and O2
581. (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating gives
(2) Ag+ forms complexes, Na+ does not
(1) N2 (2) NH3
(3) NaCl is water soluble, AgCl is insoluble
(3) O2 (4) N2 O
(4) Both (1) and (3)
582. The butter of antimony is
593. Some of alkali metal salts are coloured. Na2CrO4–
(1) SbCl3 (2) SbCl5
yellow, KMnO4–pink, K2MnO4–green. It is due to
(3) Sb2O3 (4) Sb2O5
(1) Cations are coloured ions
583. Dry powder extinguishers contain
(2) Anions are coloured ions
(1) Sand
(3) Both correct
(2) Sand and baking soda
(4) None is correct
(3) Sand and Na2CO3
594. Which is most stable out of the following
(4) Sand and K2CO3 (1) [Be(H2O)4]2+ (2) [Mg(H2O)4]2+
584. A depolarizer used in dry cell batteries is (3) [Ca(H2O)4]2+ (4) [Sr(H2O)4]2+
(1) Ammonium chloride 595. Which of the following statements are true about
(2) Potassium hydroxide II A group elements
(3) Manganese dioxide (1) Calcium has higher melting point than
(4) Sodium phosphate magnesium
585. H2S on passing through acidified KMnO4 gives (2) Berilliyum oxide is amphoteric
(1) K2SO3 (2) MnO2 (3) MH2 is ionic ‘salt-like’ hydride
(3) KHSO3 (4) S (4) All of these
[C–50]

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QUESTION BANK CHEMISTRY

1. The entropy change during flow of heat from a

32. The rate constant (K) for the reaction

KOH, the pH of the solution obtained will be molar HCN (aq) is

1 124. A first order reaction is carried out with an initial

CH3 compound CH3

(2) CH3 – CH – C  C – COOH

152. The IUPAC name of the compound given below O

(4) 2, 4-Dimethylhexane (1) (2)

Cl CH2CH3 (3) (4)

169. Most stable carbonium ion is 175. A A 

CH2– CH2– H3C H

191. Which of the following characteristics apply both HCl

CH 3COOH and CH3 – CH – COOH on reaction Br

CH3 (4) X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 80ºC ;

(2) Greater than bond energy of hydrogen bond —CHCl2

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH > (1) O2N — — Cl

249. The 2nd most stable structure for vinyl chloride is H

262. Ethylene dichloride and ethylidene dichloride are

(3) (4) (d) CH3

(1) pH = 1 CH3COOH A distillation B

MnO2 SOCl2 CH3COONa (1) CH3 – C – CH2COOEt

and the product so formed is further treated with

COOH COOH COOH

(3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (c) H

OH Reactivity order of different nucleophiles (NH2–,

e 437. Replacement of Cl of chlorobenzene to give phenol

(2) Electron > helium > hydrogen > neon

COOH OH NHCOCl NCO

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