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MORPHOLOGY /PHYSIOLOGY/ INFECTION, ANTIBIOTICS, GENETICS,/ RESPIRSTORY

INF./ ENTEROBACTERIACEA/ CLOSTRIDIA / SPIROCHETACEAE/ VIRUSIS/


PROTOZOA/ MYCOSES.
Test N1
Which of the following structures found external to the bacterial cell wall are involved in bacterial attachment to cell surface?

A. capsule;
B. flagella;
C. mesosomes;
D. pili;
E. none of above.
Test N2
Bacteria reproduce by:

A. spore formation; /
B. bud formation;
C. binary fission;
D. host cell synthesis of bacterial components;
E. elaborate mitotic division.
Test N3
Which of the following statements about bacterial division is true:

A. it is a partial mitotic process;


B. it has stages analogous to prophase and telophase;
C. it has stages analogous to prophase, metaphase, and telophase;
D. it lacks a truly mitotic cytological process;
E. it is used for the transport of amino acids.
Test N4
Cocci, that are usually arranged in grape – like irregular clusters:

A. micrococci;
B. streptococci;
C. tetracocci;
D. staphylococci;
E. sarcinae.
Test N5
L forms:

1. are rather stable formations;


2. they posses growth ability;
3. they are very active metabolically;
4. they can synthesize cell wall components.
Test N6
Spirochete are:

1. observed by darckfield microscopy;


2. easily stained;
3. observed in native smears;
4. eukaryotic organisms.
Test N7
Cocci that are arranged in cubical bundles are called:

A. diplococci;
B. streptococci;
C. tetracocci;
D. sarcinae;
E. staphylococci.
Test N8
Some of bacteria can synthesize additional structural elements:

1. capsule;
2. flagella;
3. spore;
4. chorionalantoic membrane.

PAGE 1
Test N9
Microorganisms, that have only part of the cell wall are called:

A. protoplasts;
B. plasmids;
C. episomes;
D. spheroplasts;
E. ribosome.
Test N10
Bacteria differ from human cells in that they lack:

1. a nuclear membrane;
2. a well - defined mitotic apparatus;
3. mitochondria;
4. ribosome.
Test N11
Protoplasts are:

A. Plactridia;
B. L – form bacteria;
C. Clostridia;
D. Episomes;
E. R – plasmides.
Test N12
Pili are correctly described as:

1. carrying receptor sites for phages;


2. antigenic;
3. proteinous surface appendages;
4. organs of locomotion.
Test N 13
Teichoic acids

A. are found in the walls of many gram – positive bacteria;


B. make up the outer wall of gram – negative bacteria;
C. provide receptors for phages;
D. cover receptors for phages;
E. influence the permeability of the membrane.
Test N14
Concerning bacterial capsule:

1. it is synonymous with Glicocalyx;


2. it contributes to invasiveness of pathogenic bacteria;
3. it plays a major role in adherence of bacteria to surfaces in their environment;
4. it protects the organism from phagocytoses.

Test N15
The cell wall

1. is thinner in gram – positive bacteria than in gram – negative one;


2. is thinner in gram – negative bacteria than in gram – positive one;
3. contains large number of teichoic acids in gram – negative bacteria;
4. contains teichoic acids in gram – positive bacteria.
Test N16
Which of the following statements is true for mycoplasmas?

A. they are intracellular parasites;


B. are transmitted by ticks or lice;
C. are cell wall less organisms;
D. are viruses;
E. are eukaryotic microorganisms.

PAGE 2
Test N17
The bacterial cell wall

1. is outer, surface structure of the cell;


2. contains peptidoglycan;
3. provides stability of microbial cell shape;
4. protects the microorganism from outer factors.
Test N18
Actinomycetes family Streptomycetaceae:

1. are pathogenic for humans;


2. remain fully mycelial;
3. reproduce by externally borne asexual spore;
4. produce wide array of antibiotics.
Test N19
Cocci, that divide in one plane and are usually arranged in chain:

A. micrococci;
B. diplococci;
C. staphylococci;
D. streptococci;
E. tetracocci.
Test N20
Rickettsia:

1. are gram – positive rods;


2. are gram – negative organisms;
3. are transmitted by interpersonal contact;
4. most of rickettsial diseases are transmitted by ticks and insects.
Test N21
Which of the following contains peptidoglycan in the cell wall?

1. Pneumococci;
2. Streptococci;
3. Actinomycetes;
4. Mycoplasma.
Test N22
The classification of a microbe reveals a great deal about the organism because:

1. it is based on the historic background of the organism;


2. it is based on readily observable properties of significance to the organism;
3. it groups pathogenic bacteria in different genera, from nonpathogenic bacteria;
4. the primary criterion for classification cell wall structure is a significant factor clinically.
Test N23
Confers a characteristic shape on bacterium:

A. cell wall;
B. cytoplasm membrane;
C. pills;
D. flagella;
E. plasmid.
Test N24
Rickettsia

1. are spore forming bacteria;


2. forms capsule;
3. are motile;
4. are gram – negative rods.
Test N25
Mycoplasma

1. belong to prokaryotes;
2. they cannot pass through pores of filter;
3. have not cell wall;
4. are endospore forming microbes.

PAGE 3
Test N26
Rod – shaped bacteria are:

1. micrococci;
2. diplococci;
3. tetracocci;
4. vibrio.
Test N27
Founder of medical microbiology:

A. Lui Paster
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Genner
D. Koch
E. Mechnicov
Test N28
They are not microorganisms:

1. louse;
2. mosquito;
3. scabies;
4. actynomycets.
Test N29
The aim of fixation:

1. to kill microbes;
2. to fix bacteria to the slide;
3. killed microbes are stained batter;
4. to increase organisms in size.
Test N30
Bacteria with multiply flagella are called:

A. peritrichous;
B. atrichous;
C. amphytrichous;
D. mesosomes;
E. lophotrichous.
Test N31
Bacterial fimbria (pili):

1. are organs of locomotion;


2. participate in adhesion;
3. are organs of reproduction;
4. participate in conjugation of bacteria.
Test N32
L – forms:

1. are target for antibiotics;


2. are produced during treatment with antibiotics;
3. are ciliated bacterial cells;
4. can revert to normal bacterial cell.
Test N33
Overall bacterial cells have:

1. cell wall;
2. ribosome;
3. nucleotide;
4. spore.
Test N34
Gram – positive bacteria:

1. are stained in purple (violet);


2. are stained in red or pink;
3. peptidoglycan contains teichoic acids;
4. peptidoglycan is covered by LPS layer.

PAGE 4
Test N35
Spore forming organisms are:

A. overall bacteria;
B. only pathogenic bacteria;
C. only nonpathogenic bacteria;
D. mainly rod shaped bacteria;
E. mainly cocci.
Test N36
Acid – fast staining is used to reveal:

1. Mycobacteria;
2. capsula;
3. Leprae;
4. Volutine granules.
Test N37
Mesosomes

A. present outer layer of bacterial cells;


B. are in the nucleus;
C. participate in cell division;
D. are antigenic;
E. are organs of locomotion.
Test N38
Choose the correct sequences for Gram – staining:

A. safranin, alkohol, crystal-violet, iodine solution.


B. crystal-violet, alkohol, safranin, mordant;
C. safranin, mordant, decoloriser, crystal-violet;
D. crystal-violet, mordant, decoloriser, safranin;
E. crystal-violet, decolorizer, mordant, safranin.
Test N39
Bacterial capsule is:

1. thick mucous membrane;


2. factor of virulence;
3. protection of the microbe from phagocytes;
4. easy to stain.
Test N40
Mycoplasma

1. belong to prokaryotes;
2. have not cell wall;
3. the cell of mycoplasma is bounded by plasma membrane;
4. is stained by Gram.
Test N41
Bacterial cells have not:

A. ribosome;
B. nucleotide;
C. plasma membrane;
D. cell wall;
E. mitochondria.
Test N42
Bacterial flagella:

1. possess function of defense;


2. have almost all bacterial cells;
3. possess conjugating function;
4. contains protein flagellin.

PAGE 5
Test N43
Cell wall of Gram – negative bacteria:

1. contains large amount of teichoic acids;


2. contains LPS
3. contains volutine granules;
4. is composed of peptidoglycan.
Test N44
Special method of staining for detection of spores is called:

A. Acid – fast;
B. Neisser;
C. Write and Gimsa;
D. Shaeffer – Fulton;
E. none of above.
Test N45
The biggest microorganisms are:

A. viruses;
B. Chlamydia;
C. bacteria;
D. mycoplasma;
E. fungi.
Test N46
Gram positive microorganisms are:

1. streptococci;
2. meningococci;
3. pneumococci;
4. gonococci.
Test N47
The bacterial flagella:

1. is more common among the rod shaped bacteria;


2. is not used for locomotion;
3. can be distributed over the cell surface;
4. cannot be antigenically distinguished from that of the cell proper.
Test N48
Spirochetes have:

1. spiral shape;
2. pili;
3. are bacteria;
4. are monotrichi.
Test N49
Rickettsia

1. produce spores;
2. are gram – negative;
3. are motile;
4. are bacteria.
Test N50
Cocci divided in several planes and arranged in cubical bundles:

A. micrococci;
B. streptococci;
C. tetracocci;
D. staphylococci;
E. sarcinae.

PAGE 6
Test N51
The method of investigation in medical microbiology:

A. physical – chemical;
B. chemical;
C. microscopic;
D. bio – physical;
E. none of above.
Test N52
Microorganisms are:

A. sarcoptes scabies;
B. pubic louse;
C. mosquito;
D. protozoa;
E. tick.
Test N53
Staining is:

A. mechanic process;
B. chemical;
C. physic – chemical;
D. biochemical;
E. biophysical.

Test N54
Volutine granules are revealed by:

A. Gram – staining;
B. Shaeffer – Fulton;
C. simple method;
D. Neisser;
E. none of above.
Test N55
Bacterial spore:

1. is produced inside the cell;


2. is produced externally to the cell wall;
3. is rather stable formation;
4. is easily stained.
Test N56
Extra cellular polymer, which forms well defined layer closely surrounding the cell is called:

A. spore;
B. capsule;
C. cysts;
D. glycocalyx;
E. slime layer.
Test N57
The classification of microbe reveals a great deal about the organism because:

1. it is based on the historic background of the organism;


2. it is based on readily observable properties of significance to the organism;
3. it groups pathogenic bacteria in different genera, from nonpathogenic bacteria;
4. the primary criterion for classification cell wall structure is a significant factor clinically.

Test N58
The biggest microorganisms are:

1. bacteria;
2. rickettsia;
3. mycoplasma;
4. fungi.
Test N59
Structural components of the bacterial cell are:

1. inclusions;
2. protoplasm;
3. mesosomes;
4. differentiated nucleus.

PAGE 7
Test N60
Diplococci are:

1. meningococci;
2. tetracocci;
3. pneumococci;
4. streptococci.
Test N61
The outer layer of the bacterial cell is:

A. cell wall;
B. cuticle;
C. volutine;
D. spore;
E. nucleotide.
Test N62
Spirochetae:

1. makes capsule;
2. makes spore;
3. has differentiated nucleotide;
4. has spiral shape.
Test N63
Rickettsia

1. are gram - negative;


2. are capsulated;
3. are organisms between bacteria and viruses;
4. are gram – positive.
Test N64
Acid fast bacteria are:

A. diphtheria;
B. M. Leprae;
C. E coli;
D. B. anthrax;
E. S. typhi.
Test N65
This of the following statements about bacterial division is true

A. it is a partial mitotic process;


B. it has stages analogous to prophase and telophase;
C. it has stages analogous to prophase, metaphase, and telophase;
D. it lacks a truly mitotic cytological process;
E. it is used for the transport of amino acids.
Test N66
Nonpathogenic cocci are:

1. diplococci;
2. micrococci;
3. streptococci;
4. tetracocci.
Test N67
The smallest microorganisms are:

1. fungi;
2. spirochete;
3. actynomyces;
4. mycoplasma.
Test N68
Rod shaped bacteria are:

1. tetracocci;
2. streptococci;
3. micrococci;
4. vibrio.

PAGE 8
Test N69
Microorganisms that have not cell wall are called:

A. protoplasts;
B. plasmids;
C. spheroplasts;
D. episomes;
E. ribosomes.
Test N70
Bacterial fimbria (pili):

1. are organs of locomotion;


2. participate in adhesion;
3. are organs of reproduction;
4. participate in bacterial conjugation.
Test N71
Acid – fast bacteria are:

A. diphtheria;
B. Tubercculosis;
C. E. coli;
D. B. anthrax;
E. S. typhi.
N72
The pathogenic protozoa, according to modern classification belong to:

A. Kingdom Vira;
B. Family Enterobacteriace;
C. Class Molicutes;
D. Kingdom Prokaryote;
E. Kingdom Eukaryote.
N73
Microbial culture isolated, from special source is called:

A. Etalon
B. Clone
C. Strain
D. Culture
E. Colony.
N74
Micro capsule

1. possess polysaccharide structure;


2. is not stained;
3. possess protective function;
4. is not seen via light microscope.
N75
Gram positive bacteria:

1. contains teichoic acids in its peptidoglycan ;


2. is stained into pink, during Gram staining;
3. contains multi layer peptidoglycan;
4. peptidoglycan is surrounded by lipopolysaccharides.
N76
In human organism actinomicets produse:

A. Gumma
B. Erythema
C. Druses
D. Papilomas;
E. Pustules.

PAGE 9
N77
Mesosomes

1. are in cytoplasm;
2. participate in protein synthesis;
3. participate in spore formation
4. are nuclear equivalents.
N78
Prokaryotes have

1. mitochondria;
2. complex Goldgi;
3. chloroplasts;
4. Ribosome.
N79
Teichoic acids

A. Provides viral receptor sides;


B. Presents in the cell wall of Gram positive bacteria;
C. Presents the receptor site for bacteriophage;
D. Determines tinctorial properties of gram-positive bacteria;
E. Influence the permeability of plasma membrane.
N80
Volutine granules

1. Presents DNA molecule;


2. C. diphtheria contains them;
3. Are revealed during Gram staining;
4. Possess differential- diagnostic effect.
N81
Bacteria, that is surrounded by flagella, is called:

A. Peritrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Atrichous
D. Amphytrichous
E. Mesosomes.
N1 The pathogenic protozoa, according to modern classification belong to:

A. Kingdom Vira;
B. Family Enterobacteriaceae;
C. Class Molicutes;
D. Kingdom Prokaryote;
E. Kingdom Eucaryote. N1E
N2
Microbial culture isolated, from special source is called:

A. Etalon
B. Clone
C. Strain
D. Culture
E. Colony. N2C
N3 Micro capsule

1. possess polysaccharide structure;


2. can not be stained;
3. Possess protective function;
4. Is not seen via light microscope. N3E
N4 Gram positive bacteria:

1. peptidoglycan contains teichoic acids;


2. is stained into pink, during Gram staining;
3. contains multi layer peptidoglycan;
4. peptidoglycan is surrounded by lipopolysaccharides.
N4B

PAGE 10
N5 In human organism actinomicets produce:

A. gumma
B. erythematic swelling
C. druses
D. papilomas;
E. pustules. N5C
N6 Mesosomes

1. are protoplasmic invaginations;


2. participate in protein synthesis;
3. participate in spore formation
4. are nuclear equivalents. N6B
N7 Prokaryotes possess

1. mitochondria;
2. complex Goldgi;
3. chloroplasts;
4. ribosome. N7D
N8 Teichoic acids

A. Provides viral receptor sides;


B. Presents in the cell wall of Gram positive bacteria;
C. Presents the receptor site for bacteriophage;
D. Determines tinctorial properties of gram-positive bacteria;
E. Influence the permeability of plasma membrane. N8D
N9 Volutine granules

5. Presents DNA molecule;


6. C. diphtheria contains them;
7. Are revealed during Gram staining;
8. Possess differential- diagnostic effect. N9C
N10 Bacteria, that is surrounded by flagella, is called:

A. Peritrichous
B. Lophotrichous
C. Atrichous
D. Amphytrichous
E. Mesosomes. N10A

MORPHOLOGY ANSWERS
1 D 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 E 51 C 61 A 71- B 81-A
2 C 12 A 22 C 32 C 42 D 52 D 62 D 72- E
3 D 13 A 23 A 33 B 43 B 53 C 63 B 73- C
4 D 14 E 24 D 34 B 44 D 54 D 64 B 74- E
5 C 15 C 25 B 35 D 45 E 55 B 65 D 75- B
6 B 16 C 26 D 36 B 46 B 56 B 66 C 76- C
7 D 17 E 27 B 37 C 47 B 57 C 67 D 77- B
8 A 18 E 28 A 38 D 48 B 58 D 68 D 78- D
9 D 19 D 29 A 39 A 49 C 59 A 69 A 79- D
10 A 20 C 30 A 40 A 50 E 60 B 70 C 80- C

PAGE 11
Morphology Tests (The rest)

1. Pathogenic mycoplasmas belong to

A. Kingdom Eukaryote
B. Family Enterobacteriacea
C. Genus Treponema
D. Kingdom Eukaryote
E. Class Molicutes
2. Microbial culture isolated from special source is called:

A. Clone
B. Etalon
C. Strain
D. Colony
E. Gazone
3. Prokaryote cell poses

1. Presence of mitochondria
2. Chloroplasts
3. Complex Goldgi
4. Ribosomes
4. Bacteria by shape can be

1. spiral
2. triangle
3. rod
4. star
5. Cocci, that divide in one plane can produce

A. Staphylococci
B. Sarcinae
C. Tetracocci
D. Diplococci
E. None of above
6. Which of the following belongs to rod shaped bacteria?

1. Streptococci
2. Sarcinae
3. Pneumococci
4. Streptobacteria
7. The ultra structure of bacteria is determined by

A. Immobilization reaction
B. Agglutination reaction
C. Allergic method
D. Electron microscopy
E. Serologic method
8. Which of the following belongs to curved (rod shaped) bacteria?

A. Vibrio cholera
B. Micoplasma
C. Sarcinae
D. Spirochetae
E. None of above

PAGE 12
9. The outer layer of bacterial cell contains

A. Cell wall
B. Cuticle
C. Volutine
D. Spora
E. Nuclei
10. Bacterial cell has

1. Macrocapsule
2. Microcapsule
3. Flagella
4. Pili
11. Bacterial cell has not

A. Ribosome
B. Nucleotide
C. Plasma membrane
D. Cell wall
E. Mitochondria
12. Bacterial capsule

1. Is stained well
2. Is seen through light microscope
3. Has lipid consistence
4. Surrounds cell wall
13. Cell wall

1. Is compound biopolymer
2. All bacteria have the same structure of cell wall
3. Gives shape to bacterial cell
4. Is not permeable
14. Gram positive bacteria

1. have multilayer peptidoglycan


2. during Gram staining are stained into pink
3. peptidoglycan contains teichoic acids
4. peptidoglican s covered by outer layer
15. Bacteria, hat have part of the cell wall, are called

A. plasmids
B. spheroplasts
C. protoplasts
D. protozoa
E. actinomycetes
16. L form bacteria

1. are different bacteria with same morphology


2. are produced under the influence of antibiotics
3. possess different spherical form
4. do not reproduce

PAGE 13
17. Bacteria surrounded with multiply flagella are called

A. Peritrichous
B. Lophotrichi
C. Atrichous
D. Amphytrichous
E. Mesosomes
18. Bacterial pilli

1. are organs of locomotion


2. provide adhesion of bacteria
3. are organs of reproduction
4. participate in the process of conjugation
19. Plasma membrane

1. consists of three layers


2. its structure is seen well through light microscope
3. damage of plasma membrane causes death of bacteria
4. Not all bacteria have plasma membrane.
20. Mesosomes

1. participate in cell division & DNA replication


2. participate in protein syntheses
3. participate in spore formation
4. are nuclei
21. The characteristic structural components of bacterial cell are:

1. cell wall
2. ribosome
3. nuclei
4. spore
22. Volutine granules

1. present DNA molecule


2. has diphtheria rods
3. are revealed during Gram staining
4. have diagnostic important
23. Spore formation

A. is characteristic for all bacteria


B. is characteristic for only pathogenic bacteria
C. is characteristic for only non pathogenic bacteria
D. is characteristic feature for small number of pathogenic and non pathogenic bacteria
E. majority of cocci produce spore
24. Bacterial spore is stained by

A. Gram’s method
B. Neisser’s method
C. Simple method of staining
D. Shaeffer-Fulton’s method
E. Negative staining

PAGE 14
25. The Spore

A. is located external to the bacterial cell wall


B. is organ of locomotion
C. is characterized by active metabolism
D. is not resistant to environment
E. is an adaptive feature of bacteria to the environment
26. Germination of spore takes

A. 72 hours
B. 18-20 hours
C. 4-5 hours
D. 1 hour
E. 10 minutes
27. Which of the following belongs to spirochete?

A. Genus Mycobacterium
B. Family Actynmicetacea
C. Family Leptospira
D. Genus Mycoplasma
E. Genus Ureaplasma
28. Acid-fast staining is used for

1. for Mycobacterium tuberculoses


2. to reveal capsule
3. for Mycobacterium Leprae
4. to reveal volutine granules

29. To carry out Neisser’s method is used

1. Neisser 1
2. mordant
3. methylen blue
4. acid alcohol
30. The magnification of light microscope is

1. magnification of objective lens


2. magnification of objectives lateral lens
3. magnification of ocular lens
4. Magnification of ocular & objective lenses multiply by.

ANSWERS
1. E 11 E 21 A
2. C 12 D 22 C
3. D 13 B 23 D
4. B 14 B 24 D
5. D 15 B 25 E
6. A 16 A 26 C
7. D 17 A 27 C
8. A 18 A 28 B
9. A 19 B 29 A
10. E 20 B 30 D

PAGE 15
PHYSIOLOGY

Test N1
Bacteria have a variety of growth requirements. Balanced bacterial growth is influenced by:

1. oxygen tension;
2. inorganic ions;
3. partial pressure of carbon dioxide;
4. the nature of organic compounds.
Test N2
Bacteria that grow at temperature as high as 50 - 55ºC are known:

A. psychrophils;
B. thermophils;
C. mesophils;
D. cryophils;
E. halophils.
Test N3
The rate of growth of bacterial culture is:

1. zero, at the lag phase;


2. constant and positive during the exponential phase;
3. constant and negative at the phase of decline (death phase);
4. declining at the stationary phase.
Test N4
During the log phase

1. viable bacteria can be determined by plate counts;


2. bacterial cells are most sencitive to antibiotics and desinfectants;
3. bacteria increase in size;
4. bacteria devide synchronously.
Test N5
Functions of cytoplasm membrane of motile bacteria include:

1. ATP generation;
2. osmotic regulation;
3. chemotactic sensing;
4. protein synthesis.
Test N6
Heterotrophs

1. creatures – do not require organic nutrients for growth;


2. use inorganic substances – hydrogen or carbon dioxide as a carbon source;
3. employ the ions as a terminal electron acceptors;
4. require organic carbon for growth, and must be in a form that can be assimilated.
Test N7
Phase, when the number of deaths soon exceeds the number of new cells:

A. log. phase;
B. telophase;
C. lag. phase;
D. stationary phase;
E. death phase.
Test N8
Culture media used only for special species:

A. selective media;
B. reducing media;
C. differential-diagnostic media;
D. transporting media;
E. preserving media.

PAGE 16
Test N9
The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to superoxide is due to

A. lack of cytochrome C oxydase


B. The presence of cytochrome C oxydase
C. Lack of peroxydase
D. The presence of superoxyde dismuthase and catalase
E. Inability to form superoxyde radical
Test N10
Lysogenic phage cannot:

A. adsorbe on the bacterial cell;


B. penetrate bacterial cell;
C. couse lysis of bacterial cell;
D. cause lysogeny of the bacterial cell.
Test N12.
Carbohydrate activity of bacterial cells are detected on media:

1. Endo;
2. Ploskirev;
3. Levin:
4. Chistovich's
Test N13
Organisms that can use only molecular oxygen as their final acceptor, since they lack the enzymes of other reductive pathways are
reffered as:

A. obligate anaerobes;
B. facultative anaerobes;
C. obligate aerobes;
D. strict anaerobes;
E. none of above.
Test N14
Bacteria reproduce by:

A. sexual way;
B. division;
C. spore formation;
D. fragmenting;
E. dissociation.
Test N15
Ions are transported into bacterial cell by:

1. passive transport;
2. active transport;
3. facilitate transport;
4. conjugation.
Test N16
Facilitate transport is achieved by the aim of:

1. phage;
2. toxins;
3. conjugation;
4. permeases.

Test N17
Microorganisms synthesize:

1. endoenzymes;
2. exoenzymes;
3. costitutial enzymes;
4. inductive enzymes.
Test N18
Growth factors are:

1. vitamins;
2. lipids;
3. purines and pirimidins;
4. interferon.

PAGE 17
Test N19
Microorganisms, that synthesize all components they need from CO2 are called:

1. organotrophs;
2. chemoautotrophs;
3. heterotrophs;
4. autotrophs.

Test N20
Microorganisms, that can live and grow in the area with presence, as well as absence of O2 we call:

1. microaerophils;
2. obligate anaerobes;
3. litotrophs;
4. facultative anaerobes.
Test N21
Obligate intracellular bacteria include

1. Chlamydia trachomatis
2. Rickettsia prowazeki
3. Chlamydia psittaci
4. Legionella micdadei

Test N22
Following are cultivated on culture media in laboratory:

1. rickettsia;
2. chlamidia;
3. virusis;
4. spirochetae.
Test N23
Bacteriological diagnosis of infection process means all, EXCEPT

A. Inoculation of material on culture media;


B. Study of cultural properties of microorganisms on solid and liquid media;
C. Isolation of pure culture;
D. Determination of tinctorial properties only;
E. Identification of pure cultures morphological, cultural, and biochemical properties
Test N24
Virions are differentiated from prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells by:

1. one type of nucleic acid;


2. have not typical cell structure;
3. have no metabolic machinery for protein synthesis;
4. can integrate into host cell genome and replicate with them synchronously.
Test N25
Active transport is achieved by:

1. by permeases;
2. needs energy;
3. when ion concentration outside the cell is lower then inside:
4. by IFN (interferon).

Test N26
Facilitate diffusion:

1. is produced by hormones;
2. very small number of substances enter bacterial cell;
3. by the transformation;
4. by the aim of permeases.
Test N27
Microorganisms, which cannot live in the presence of O2 are called:

1. heterotrophs;
2. autotrophs;
3. facultative anaerobes;
4. obligate anaerobes.

PAGE 18
Test N28
The rate of growth of a bacterial culture is:

1. zero at the lag phase;


2. constant and positive during exponential phase;
3. constant and negative at the phase of decline;
4. declining at the stationary phase.
Test N29
All the following statements about viruses are true except that:

A. viral genome is composed of either DNA or RNA, but not both;


B. the protein capsid may be covered by a lipid membrane;
C. the protein capsid is taken into the cell and then disassembled, liberating the viral genome;
D. viruses replicate by a gradual increase in size followed by division;
E. virion components are synthesized and then assembled into progeny within the infected cell.
Test N30
During the log phase:

1. viable bacteria can be determined by plate counts;


2. bacterial cells are most sensitive to antibiotics;
3. bacterial number increases;
4. bacteria divide synchronously.
Test N31
Enzymes that are encoded in bacterial cell genome and always present there in the same amount are called:

1. multienzymes;
2. inductive enzymes;
3. substrate influenced enzymes;
4. constituent enzymes.
Test N32
Microorganisms are cultivated on:

1. Selective culture media;


2. differential-diagnostic media;
3. compound solid or liquid media;
4. non of above.
Test N33
Chistovich's media (egg yolk + solt)

1. contains exceeding numbar of NaCl;


2. is selective for M.tuberculosis;
3. is selective for staphylococci;
4. is used for cultivation of anaerobic bacteria.
Test N34
On solid media bacteria produce:

A. gumma;
B. druses;
C. colonies;
D. chancre;
E. none of above.

Test N35
Facultative anaerobes

1. grow and reproduce in the presence as well as absence of O2;


2. need ATP for oxidation-reduction reaction;
3. need ATP for substrate phosphorilation;
4. grow and reproduce only under presence of O2.
Test N36
Viruses are cultivated:

1. in culture media;
2. in cell cultures;
3. Endo's media;
4. transplanted tissues and experimental animals.

PAGE 19
Test N37
For taxonomic classification of viruses we use:

1. type of nucleic acid;


2. morphologic and structure traits;
3. strategy of replication;
4. production of lysogenic cultures.
Test N38
Viral and host cell interaction is resulted in:

1. productive forms;
2. abortive forms;
3. integrative forms;
4. gumma.
Test N39
Metabolic ions enter microorganisms by following ways:

1. passive diffusion;
2. by the aim of bacteriophage;
3. facilitate diffusion;
4. by the aim of transposons.
Test N40
Facilitate diffusion is developed by:

A. hormones;
B. bacteriophages;
C. toxins;
D. permeases;
E. translation.
Test N41
In liquid culture media bacterial cells produce:

1. opasification;
2. panniculus;
3. fall outs;
4. colonies.
Test N42
Culture media are classified in:

1. compound;
2. selective;
3. differential-diagnostic;
4. inductive.
Test N43
Fermentative activity of microorganisms is studied on:

1. Endo's media;
2. Ploskirev's media;
3. Levin's media;
4. Gelatinous media.
Test N44
Phages penetrate bacterial cells by following ways:

1. insertion of their genetic material through pores, produced in plasma membrane by lisosym;
2. head and capsid proteins are leaved outside the host cell;
3. injaction of nucleic acid;
4. none of above.
Test N45
Anaerobic microorganisms are cultivated:

1. on Kitta-Taroci media;
2. in anaerostate;
3. by physical method;
4. in chemically defined media.
Test N46
Colonies are differentiated by:

1. size;
2. shape;
3. surface transperance;

PAGE 20
4. edges.

Test N47
The amount of enzymes increases under the influence of special substanses, they are called:

1. endoenzymes;
2. multyenzymes;
3. exoenzymes;
4. inductive enzymes.
Test N 48
Organisms that can use only molecular oxygen as the final acceptor, since they lack the enzymes of other reductive pathways, are
reffered to as:

A. obligate anaerobes;
B. facultative anaerobes;
C. obligate aerobes;
D. strict anaerobes;
E. none of above.
Test N49
During lag phase

A. is negative growth rate of bacteria;


B. zero growth rate of bacteria;
C. decreasing growth rate of bacteria;
D. constant groth rate of bacteria;
E. increasing growth rate of bacteria.
Test N50
Bacteria that grow at ph as low as 4 are known as:

1. alkalophils;
2. halophils;
3. psichrophils;
4. acidophils.
Test N51
All of the following statements are true regarding bacterial cell division EXCEPT

A. the cell elongates;


B. a transverse cell membrane and subsequently a new cell wall are formed;
C. the new transverse membrane and wall grow outward from outer layers;
D. the nuclei double preceding the division;
E. the nuclei are distributed equally to two daughter cells.
Test N52
During phase of decline there is:

A. negative growth rate of bacteria;


B. zero growth rate of bacteria;
C. decreasing growth rate of bacteria;
D. constant growth rate of bacteria;
E. increasing growth rate of bacteria.

Test N53
During maximum stationary phase:

A. negative growth rate of bacteria;


B. zero growth rate of bacteria;
C. decreasing growth rate of bacteria;
D. constant growth rate of bacteria;
E. increasing growth rate of bacteria.
Test N54
Animal viruses may be placed into all of the following classes EXCEPT:

A. single-stranded DNA viruses;


B. double- stranded DNA viruses;
C. triple- stranded DNA viruses;
D. single-stranded RNA viruses;

PAGE 21
E. double- stranded RNA viruses.

Test N 55
All of the following statements concerning transduction are true EXCEPT,

A. a large fragment of the donor`s chromosome is carryed to the recipient by a temperate bacteriophage;
B. a small fragment of the donor`s chromosome is transferred to the recipient;
C. trunsduction occures in many bacteria;
D. trunsduction may be generalized;
E. trunsduction may be restricted.
Test N56
Regarding transduction:

1. it involves the transfer of bits of genetic material from bacterium carried by bacteriophage;
2. some bacteriophages mediate generalized trunsduction;
3. some bacteriophages mediate specialized trunsduction;
4. it is more reproducible than transformation.
N57
Obligate anaerobes

1. produce ATF during oxidation-phosphorisation reaction;


2. they can grow and reproduce in the absence of molecular oxygen;
3. their end acceptor is molecular oxygen;
4. during process of their biologic oxidation minimal energy is released.
N58
Bacteria reproduce ;

A. fragmenting;
B. cross division;
C. by dissociation;
D. spore formation;
E. sexually.
N59
The simple culture media are:

1. beef-extract peptone agar;


2. blood agar;
3. nutrition gelatin;
4. sugar broth.
N60
Facilitate diffusion processes:

1. by conjugation;
2. by phage conversion;
3. by toxins;
4. by permeases.
N61
Phase of bacterial multiplication, when the number of cells doesn't increase, is called:

A. logarithmic phase;
B. negative speeding;
C. maximal stationary phase;
D. initial stationary phase;
E. acceleration bacterial death phase.
N62
The RNA containing viruses are:

1. Arenaviridae;
2. Rabdoviridae;
3. Buniaviridae;
4. Paramixoviridae.
N63
Microorganisms, that can grow and reproduce in the presence, as well as absence of oxygen, are called:

A. obligate anaerobes;
B. microaerophilus;
C. facultative anaerobes;
D. obligate aerobes;
E. auxotrophs.

PAGE 22
N64
For growth of special type of bacteria is used:

A. simple media;
B. elective media;
C. synthetic media;
D. differential-diagnostic media;
E. transport media.
N65
As a result of virus and host cell interaction develops:

1. productive form;
2. abortive form;
3. integrated form;
4. dissociation form.
N66
For cultivation of anaerobes is used:

1. Kitta-Tarotsi's media;
2. Vilson-Bler's media;
3. biologic method;
4. chemical method.
N67
In simple viruses:

1. structural proteins present capsid;


2. capsid presents protective layer for nucleic acid;
3. capsid consistence are proteins, that carry recognition function of host's cells specific receptors;
4. capsid proteins can adsorbe virus onto host cells and enter them.
N14 Facilitate diffusion processes:

1. by conjugation;
2. by phage conversion;
3. by toxins;
4. by permeases. N14D
N15 Phase of bacterial multiplication, when the number of cells doesn't increase, is called:

A. logarithmic phase;
B. negative speeding;
C. maximal stationary phase;
D. initial stationary phase;
E. acceleration bacterial death phase. N15D
N16 The RNA containing viruses are:

1. Arenaviridae;
2. Rabdoviridae;
3. Buniaviridae;
4. Paramixoviridae. N16E
N17 Microorganisms, that can grow and reproduce in the presence, as well as absence of oxygen, are
called:

A. obligate anaerobes;
B. microaerophilus;
C. facultative anaerobes;
D. obligate aerobes;
E. auxotrophs. N17 C

PAGE 23
N18 For growth of special type of bacteria is used:

A. simple media;
B. elective media;
C. synthetic media;
D. differential-diagnostic media;
E. transport media. N18 B
N19 As a result of virus and host cell interaction develops:

1. Productive form;
2. Abortive form;
3. Integrated form;
4. Dissociation form. N19 A
N20 For cultivation of anaerobes is used:

1. Kitta-Tarotsi's media;
2. Vilson-Bler's media;
3. biologic method;
4. chemical method. N 20 E
N21 In simple viruses:

1. structural proteins present capsid;


2. capsid presents protective layer for nucleic acid;
3. capsid consistence are proteins, that carry recognition function of host's cells specific receptors;
4. capsid proteins can adsorbe virus onto host cells and enter them. N21E

1. E
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. E
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. D
17. E
18. B
19. C
20. D
21. E
22. D
23. D
24. E
25. A
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. D
30. A
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C

PAGE 24
35. A
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. D
41. A
42. A
43. E
44. A
45. E
46. E
47. D
48. C
49. B
50. D
51. C
52. A
53. B
54. C
55. CA
56. E
57. C
58. B
59. B
60. D
61. D
62. E
63. C
64. B
65. A
66. E
67. E

PAGE 25
INFECTION, ANTIBIOTICS, GENETIC
N22 Change of phenotype by one or more features of microorganism is called:

A. Mutation
B. Modification
C. Lysogeny
D. Dissociation
E. Reparation. N22B
N23 Special reconstruction systems, of genetic material of bacterial cells are called:

A. Recommendations
B. Reparation
C. Recombination
D. Reorganization
E. Modification N23B
N24 Choose the correct answer regarding transduction:

1. There are three types of transduction: non specific, specific, abortive;


2. The genetic material is transferred by the aim of phages;
3. The fragment of DNA carried by bacteriophage is inserted into host's cell chromosome;
4. The process belongs to recombination. N24E
N25 In the human organism sterile are:

A. naso-pharings;
B. small intestines;
C. parenchyma of lungs;
D. skin;
E. vagina. N25C
N26 Choose the correct answer regarding levomycetine:

1. Resistance against levomycetine is acquired slowly;


2. It affects well M. tuberculoses;
3. Has not effect on anaerobe microorganisms;
4. Affects protozoa. N26B
N27 The mechanisms of resistance of microorganisms is caused by several factors:

1. Transfer of active antibiotic into non active;


2. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis;
3. Inhibition of special transport system, for entering the substance inside the cell;
4. Development of alternative pathway, for synthesis of important, vital metabolite. N27E
N28 If material for sterilization is destroyed on high temperatures, for sterilization, we use:

1. Autoclave;
2. Koch's apparatus;
3. Anaerostate;
4. Filtration. N28D
N29 To detect the statute of limitation of soil contamination, the following microorganisms must be isolated:

1. E. coli;
2. Citrobacter;
3. Cl. perfingens;
4. Iersinia pestis. N29A
N30 Choose the correct answer for endotoxins:

1. They are week immunogenes;


2. After treatment with formalin are transferred into anatoxins;
3. Are thermo stable;
4. Are proteins. N30B
Test N1
The tetracycline is identical in their overall mechanism of action to:

A. sulfonamides;
B. penicillin;
C. ionized;
D. chloramphenicol;
E. aminoglicosides.
D1

PAGE 26
Test N2
The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as:

A. transduction;
B. transcribtion;
C. transformation;
D. recombination;
E. conjugation.
B2
Test N3
Penicillin G

1. is active against gram – positive bacteria;


2. active against gram – negative bacteria;
3. both;
4. neither.
A3
Test N4
Regarding transduction:

1. it involves the transfer of bits of genetic material from bacterium carried by bacteriophage;
2. some bacteriophages mediate generalized transduction;;
3. some bacteriophages mediate specialized transduction;
4. it is more reproducible than transformation.
E4
Test N5
The most serious disadvantage of clinical use of chloramphenicol is:

A. that it causes severe nausea and vomiting;


B. its slow and incomplete absorption from gastrointestinal tract;
C. its ineffectiveness when given orally;
D. that it can cause bone marrow suppression;
E. its ineffectiveness against rickettsia.
C5
Test N6
Antibiotic affecting cell membrane:

A. Mitomycin;
B. Actinomycin;
C. Penicillin;
D. Streptomycin;
E. Polymixin.
E6
Test N7
Microbes might exhibit resistance to drugs by which of the following mechanisms?

1. produce enzymes that destroy the active drug;


2. change their permeability to the drug;
3. develop an altered structural target;
4. develop an altered metabolic pathway.
E7
Test N9
Bacteriophages may be involved in all of the following EXCEPT

A. transferring genetic information between different strains of bacteria


B. changing the traits of bacteria, when they become lysogenized
C. transferring genetic information between male and female bacteria of the same species
D. causing all plasmids to replicate faster upon infection
E. expressing their genes in a temporally controlled fashion
N9 D
Test N10
Match quinolon with its appropriate mode of action:

A. inhibites cellwall synthesis;


B. alters cell membrane function;
C. inhibites protein synthesis by affecting the ribosomal 30S subunits;
D. inhibites protein synthesis by affecting the ribosomal 50S subunits;
E. alters nucleic acid synthesis or function. E10

PAGE 27
Test N11
The process of sexual exchange in bacteria involves plasmids, about which it can be said that

1. sex factors all are conjugative plasmids


2. conjugative plasmids all are sex factors
3. F’ plasmids are sex factors with bacterial DNA
4. transfer genes (tra genes) are present only in conjugative plasmids, but missing in sex factors
B11
Test N12
One of the following inhibits transmitter at the inhibitory synapsis in spinal cord, causes hyperrefflexia and spasm of skeletal muscles:

A. botulinum toxin;
B. cholera toxin;
C. diphtheria toxin;
D. tetanus toxin;
E. staphylococcal exfoliation.
D12
Test N13
The infection process:

1. depends on type of microbe;


2. on condition of microbe;
3. on environmental factors;
4. it is a type of parasitism.
E13
Test N14
Disease that occurs after recovery of patient; and that is caused by the same agent (as the primary infection) and not by exposure to a
new infective agent, is called:

A. reinfection;
B. endoinfection;
C. exoinfection;
D. relapse (reccurence) infection;
E. secondary infection.
A14
Test N15
Microbial mutation is due to:

1. substitutions;
2. additions;
3. deletions;
4. rearrangements.
E15
Test N16
Phenotypical changes in microorganisms are called:

A. mutation;
B. modification;
C. lisogeny;
D. dissociation;
E. reparation.
B16
Test N17
Exotoxins have not

A. lethal effect;
B. cytotoxic effect;
C. neurotoxic effect;
D. hemolytic effect;
E. antimicrobial effect.
E17
Test N18
Infection process is characterized by:

1. prodromal period;
2. stationary phase;
3. incubation period;
4. phase of decline.
B18

PAGE 28
Test N19
ß lactam group antibiotics are:

1. group penicillin;
2. nistatin;
3. cephalosporins;
4. streptomycines.
B19
Test N20
Plasmides, transposons and IS – sequences:

1. change traits of bacterial cells;


2. are RNA molecules;
3. are DNA molecules;
4. all are self replicated molecules.
B20
Test N21
Criteria for air safety is determined:

1. by presence of microorganisms in 1cm³ of air (closed building);


2. by presence of pathogenic microorganisms in 1mm³ of air (closed building);
3. by the presence of E.coli in 1m³ of air (c. b.);
4. by the presence of S. aureus and hemolytic streptococci in 1m³ of air (c.b.).
D21
Test N22
Antibiotics are received from:

1. fungi;
2. plants;
3. actynomyces;
4. protozoa.
A22
Test N23
Type of symbioses, when one organism is benefited and another is harmed , is called:

A. neitralism;
B. synergism;
C. commensalism;
D. antagonism;
E. parazitism.
E23
Test N24
In human organism sterile are:

1. alveoli;
2. bronchi (small);
3. parenchima of lungs;
4. nose and mouth.
A24
Test N25
Penicillinase

1. belongs to ß - lactam group enzymes;


2. belongs to adaptive enzymes;
3. belongs to R plasmids;
4. Their synthesis is controlled by bacterial chromosome.
B25
Test N26
Antibiotics are classified:

1. by their chemical composition;


2. by the spectrum of action;
3. by their mechanism of action;
4. by the persistence inside organism.
A26

PAGE 29
Test N27
All following is correct regarding plasmids, EXCEPT:

A. they are virulence factors of bacterial cells;


B. they are encoded for F – fertility factor;
C. they determine resistance against some drugs;
D. they are encoded for R – genes;
E. there is immune response of organism on them.
A27
Test N28
Chronic infections:

1. last from several days to 2 – 3 weeks;


2. last during years;
3. cannot persist in the organism;
4. are caused by Adenoviruses, Herpes virus, HV, Varicella zoster virus.
C28
Test N29
Type of interaction, when one organism is inhibited by another, among the population is called:

A. neitralism;
B. commensalism;
C. mutualism;
D. antagonism;
E. parasitism.
D29
Test N30
Representatives of normal microbial flora, bifidumbacteria and lactobacilli:

1. involve antagonism, against pathogenic organisms;


2. prevent development of tumor cells;
3. have beneficial effect;
4. Trigger allergic reactions.
B30
Test N58
Types of infection are:

1. sepsis;
2. reinfection;
3. septicopiemya;
4. Mix infection.
E58
Test N59
Antibiotics are produced from:

1. plants;
2. fish;
3. bacteria;
4. protozoa.
B59
Test N60
Complications of antibiotic therapy are:

1. allergy;
2. disbacteriosis;
3. teratogenic effect;
4. septicopiemya.
A60
Test N37
Endotoxins

1. are produced (synthesized) in the environment;


2. present within bacterial cell in the cytoplasm;
3. are produced by gram – positive and gram – negative bacterial cells;
4. are gram – negative bacterial cell wall's LPS. D37

PAGE 30
Test N38
Antibiotics, by their mechanism of action can be:

1. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis;


2. inhibitors of plasma membrane function;
3. inhibitors of protein synthesis;
4. inhibitors of pigment producing.
A38
Test N39
Non chromosomal genetic factors are:

1. plasmids;
2. transposons;
3. IS – sequences;
4. haptens.
A39
Test N49
Plasmides are correctly described as:

1. carrying resistance genes for antibiotics, called R plasmids;


2. vehicles for the dissemination of antibiotic – resistance traits among bacteria;
3. conjugative when they are in some cases with sufficient genetic information able to mediate their own transfer by conjugation;
4. non – conjugative when they lack sufficient genetic information to bring about their transfer by conjugation.
E49
Test N50
Lysogeic coversion, which can change the properties of a bacterium,

1. is usually due to specialized transducing phage


2. is responsible for Salmonella flagellar antigenic switching (from H1 to H2, and so on )
3. usually requires phage lytic genes
4. usually requires a phage lysogenic gene product

D50
Test N51
Organisms that are inhibited but not killed by penicillin, because they have defective autolytic enzymes, are called:

A. tolerant;
B. sensitive;
C. non sensitive;
D. resistant;
E. indifferent.
A51
Test N43
The gene transfer in bacteria can be accomplished by:

1. cell conjugation;
2. transduction;
3. transformation;
4. matting.
E43
Test N44
Enterotoxins are:

1. diphtheria toxin;
2. erythrogenic toxin;
3. tetanus toxin;
4. cholera toxin.
D44
Test N45
Antibiotic affecting cell membrane is:

A. mitomycin;
B. actinomycin;
C. penicillin;
D. polymixin;
E. streptomycin.
D45
Test N40
F – plasmid

PAGE 31
1. determines resistance against some drugs;
2. is self replicated molecule and transferred during conjugation to another recipient cell;
3. is factor of pathogenicity;
4. is fertility factor, and is controlled by sex pili.
C40
Test N41
Exotoxins are:

1. Botulinum toxin;
2. Staphylococcal toxin;
3. Tetanus toxin;
4. Diphtheria toxin.
E41
Test N42
Periods of infection process are:

1. incubation;
2. logarithmic;
3. prodromal;
4. stationary.
B42
Test N55
Toxins

1. are proteins and LPSs;


2. are produced by all bacterial cells;
3. are virulent factors;
4. are not factors of virulence.
B55

Test N56
Chronic infections

1. are not characterized by prolong persistence of causative agent in the human organism;
2. can be classified as primary and secondary infections;
3. can be result of genetic recombination;
4. are characterized by prolong persistence of causative agent in the human organism.
D56
Test N57
Exotoxins are classified as:

1. cytotoxins;
2. neurotoxins;
3. enterotoxins;
4. cell wall LPSs.
A57
Test N31
Soil is referred as contaminated, if there are detected:

1. E. coli;
2. Str. piogens;
3. C. perfringens;
4. C. diphtheria.
B31
Test N32
Factors of virulence are:

1. adhesion;
2. colonization;
3. penetration;
4. invasion.
E32
Test N33
Exotoxins have not:

A. lethal effect;
B. cytotoxic effect;

PAGE 32
C. neurotoxic effect;
D. hemolytic effect;
E. antimicrobial effect.
E33
Test N46
R plasmids are accurately described as:

1. having the ability to evolve from other plasmids by acquiring drug resistance transposons;
2. found in both gram – positive and gram – negative bacteria;
3. usually transferable between bacteria of the same species;
4. able to undergo mutation as result of antibiotic usage.
A46

Test N47
The process, in which DNA released by lyses of one bacterium is taken up by a second one, leading to a change in phenotype of the
second bacterium, is called:

A. transduction;
B. sexduction;
C. conjugation;
D. transformation;
E. transfection.
D47

Test N48
The process in which, any bacterial gene can be packaged inside a phage particle and introduced into another bacterium, by infection
of that cell with the phage, leading to a change in the phenotype of the recipient cell, is called:

A. generalised transformation;
B. specialised trunsduction;
C. generalised transfection;
D. sexduction;
E. generalised transduction.
E48
Test N52
Possible target sites of activity of antibacterial drugs include:

1. enzymes in the nuclear membrane;


2. enzymes in cytoplasm;
3. enzymes in flagella;
4. ribosome.
C52
Test N53
A bacterial antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis:

A. benzylpenicillin;
B. streptomycin;
C. vancomycin;
D. ketocanazole;
E. levorin.
B53
Test N54
Plasmids, that mediate antibiotic resistance are correctly described as:

1. transferred by transformation;
2. transferred by conjugation;
3. transferred by transduction;
4. not mobile.
A54
Test N34
When genetic material is transferred from one bacteria to another, is called:

A. transduction;
B. conjugation;
C. modification;

PAGE 33
D. transformation;
E. transcribtion.
D34
Test N35
Pathogenic factors are controlled under the:

1. chromosome genes;
2. antigens;
3. plasmid genes;
4. antibodies.
B35
Test N36
The virulence factor of some intracellular parasites – chlamydia and protozoa is determined by:

A. toxins;
B. plasmids;
C. spore formation;
D. multiplication inside host cells;
E. transposons.
D36

Test N37
Complications of antibiotic therapy are:

1. allergy;
2. disbacteriosis;
3. teratogenic effect;
4. septicopiemya.
A37

Test N38
Endotoxins

1. are produced (synthesized) in the environment;


2. present within bacterial cell in the cytoplasm;
3. are produced by gram positive and gram negative bacterial cells;
4. are gram negative bacterial cell wall's LPS.
C38

Test N39
Antibiotics, by their mechanism of action can be:

1. inhibitors of cell wall synthesis;


2. inhibitors of plasma membrane function;
3. inhibitors of protein synthesis;
4. inhibitors of pigment producing.
A39

Test N40
Nonchromosomal genetic factors are:

1.plasmids;
2.transposons;
3.IS – sequences;
4.haptens.
A40

Test N41
Plasmides are correctly described as:

1. carrying resistance genes for antibiotics, called R plasmids;


2. vectors for the dissemination of antibiotic – resistance traits among bacteria;
3. conjugative when they are in some cases with sufficient genetic information able to mediate their own transfer by conjugation;
4. non – conjugative when they lack sufficient genetic information to bring about their transfer by conjugation.
E 41

PAGE 34
Test N42
Phage conversion is responsible for the production of some toxins of:

1. botulinum;
2. Str. pyogens (erythrogenic toxin);
3. diphtheria;
4. tetani.
A42

Test N43
Plasmids, that mediate antibiotic resistance are correctly described as:

1. transferred by transformation;
2. transferred by conjugation;
3. transferred by transduction;
4. not mobile.
A43

Test N44
The gene transfer in bacteria can be accomplished by:

1.cell conjugation;
2. transduction;
3. transformation;
4. matting.
E44

Test N45
Enterotoxins are:

1. diphtheria toxin;
2. erythrogenic toxin;
3. tetanus toxin;
4. cholera toxin.
D45

Test N46
Antibiotic affecting cell membrane is:

A. mitomycin;
B. actinomycin;
C. penicillin;
D. polymixin;
E. streptomycin.
D46

Test N47
F – plasmid

1. determines resistance against some drugs;


2. is self replicated molecule and transferred during conjugation to another recipient cell;
3. is factor of pathogenicity;
4. is fertility factor, controls production of sex pili.
C47

Test N48
Exotoxins are:

1. Botulinum toxin;
2. Staphylococcal toxin;
3. Tetanus toxin;
4. Diphtheria toxin.
E48

PAGE 35
Test N49
Periods of infection process are:

1. incubation;
2. logarithmic;
3. prodromal;
4. stationary.
B49

Test N50
Toxins

1. are proteins and LPSs;


2. are produced by all bacterial cells;
3. are virulent factors;
4. are not factors of virulence.
B50

Test N51
Chronic infections

1. are not characterised by prolonge persistance of causetive agent in the human organism;
2. can be classified as primary and secondary infections;
3. can be result of genetic recombination;
4. are characterised by prolonge persistance of causetive agent in the human organism.
C51

Test N52
Exotoxins are classified as:

1. cytotoxins;
2. neurotoxins;
3. enterotoxins;
4. cell wall LPSs.
A52

Test N53
Soil is referred as contaminated, if there are detected:

1. E. coli;
2. Str. piogens;
3. C. perfringens;
4. C. diphtheria.
A53

Test N54
Factors of virulence are:

1. adhesion;
2. colonization;
3. penetration;
4. invasion.
E54

Test N55
Exotoxins have not:

A. lethal effect;
B. cytotoxic effect;
C. neurotoxic effect;
D. hemolytic effect;
E. antimicrobial effect.
B55

PAGE 36
Test N56
R plasmids are accuratly described as:

1. having the ability to evolve from other plasmids by acquiring drug resistance transposons;
2. found in both gram – positive and gram – negative bacteria;
3. usually transferrable between bacteria of the same species;
4. able to undergo mutation as result of antibiotic usage.
A56

Test N57
The process, in which DNA released by lysis of one bacterium is taken up by a second one, leading to a change in phenotype of the
second bacterium, is called:

A. transduction;
B. sexduction;
C. conjugation;
D. transformation;
E. transfection.
D57

Test N58
The process in which, any bacterial gene can be packaged inside a phage particle and introduced into another bacterium, by infection
of that cell with the phage, leading to a change in the phenotype of the recipient cell, is called:

A. generalised transformation;
B. specialised trunsduction;
C. generalised transfection;
D. sexduction;
E. generalised transduction.
B58

Test N59
Possible target sites of activity of antibacterial drugs include:

1. enzymes in the nuclear membrane;


2. enzymes in cytoplasm;
3. enzymes in flagella;
4. ribosome's.
D59

Test N60
A bacterial antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis:

A. benzylpenicillin;
B. streptomycin;
C. vancomycin;
D. ketocanazole;
E. levorin.
B60

Test N61
Plasmids, that mediate antibiotic resistance are correctly described as:

1. transferred by transformation;
2. transferred by conjugation;
3. transferred by transduction;
4. not mobile.
A61

Test N62
When genetic material is transferred from one bacteria to another, is called:

A. transduction;
B. conjugation;
C. modification;
D. transformation;

PAGE 37
E. transcribtion.
D62

Test N63
Process of invasiveness is linked to:

1. healuronidase;
2. protein A;
3. neiraminidase;
4. gram-negative bacteria's LPS.
B63

Test N64
The virulence factor of some intracellular parasites – chlamydia and protozoa is determined by:

A. toxins;
B. plasmids;
C. spore formation;
D. multiplication inside host cells;
E. transposons. D64
Test N65
In human organism sterile are:

1. alveoli;
2. bronchi;
3. parenchyma of lung;
4. nose and mouth.
A65
Test N66
Bacterial toxins are:

A. proteins and lipopolysaccharides;


B. immunoglobulins;
C. vitamins;
D. macrophages;
E.  lactamides
A66
Test N67
Functional blockators are:

1.  and  hemolysins;
2. tetanospsmine;
3. leukocydine;
4. botulism toxin.
C67
Test N69
Conserning antiseptics and desinfectants:

A. they are the same;


B. they destroy all bacteria;
C. both are used for living tissue;
D. both are highly toxic to living tissue;
E. antiseptics are bacteriostatic or bactericydal; desinfectants are bactericydal.
E69
Test N70
The transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA is known as:

A. transduction;
B. transcribtion;
C. transformation;
D. recombination;
E. conjugation.
B70
Test N71
Substances, produced by bacteria, fungi, and plants, which have bactericidal effect are called:

A. desinfectants;
B. antiseptics;
C. aseptics;

PAGE 38
D. antibiotics;
E. anatoxins.
D71
Test N72
The most effective method of sterilization by heat is:

A. hot air;
B. boiling;
C. steam under pressure;
D. pasteurisation;
E. none of above.
C72

Respiratory infections
Test N
Staphylococci are:

1. Obligate anaerobes;
2. Strict aerobes;
3. Microaerophyles;
4. Facultative anaerobes.

D1

Test N
Special (elective) media for staphylococci is:

1. media with casein – antracis;


2. with egg yolk – solt;
3. Rapoporte – media;
4. Chistovich – media.

C2

Test N
Patogenic factors of streptococci are:

1. Cytotoxin;
2. healuronidase;
3. streptokinase;
4. streptolisin.
E3

Test N
Serotyping of streptococci is done by:

A. agglutination reaction;
B. reaction of hemolysis;
C. reaction of floculation;
D. neitralization reaction;
E. precipitation reaction.

A4

Test N
Streptococcal infections are treated by:

1. immunoglobulines;
2. antibiotics;

PAGE 39
3. immune serum;
4. sulphanilamides.

C5

Test N
The biotope of pneumococci in human organism is:

A. gatroenteric tract;
B. upper respiratory tract;
C. genital organs;
D. urinary system;
E. large intestines.

B6

Test N
Meningococci ferments:

1. lactose;
2. glucose;
3. suchrose;
4. maltose.

C7

Test N
Meningococcal infections are investigated by:

1. bacterioscopical;
2. serological;
3. bacteriological;
4. biological.

A8

Test N
Gonococci belong to femily:

A. Neiseriaceae;
B. Bordetellaceae;
C. Legionellaceae;
D. Haemophilus;
E. Streptococcus.

A9

Test N
The immunity aquired after gonococcal infection is:

1. strong;
2. not strong;
3. antitoxic;
4. not aquired.

D10

Test N
Klebsiellae

1. are often etiologic factor during sepsis;


2. couse acute enteric infections;
3. can cause post delivery piogenic complicationes;
4. affect junctions.

PAGE 40
E11

Test N
Bordetellae posess following antigens:

1. H – flagellar antigens;
2. protective;
3. Vi – virulent;
4. hemagglutinine.

C12

Test N
For the special profilactic of pertusis is used:

A. chemical vaccine;
B. anatoxine;
C. live vaccine;
D.  globuline;
E. killed vaccine.

E13

Test N
In microbiological investigation of pertusis is used following specimen:

1. sputum;
2. blood serum;
3. mucus from nasopharings;
4. pus.

A14

Test N
Diphtherial rods

1. have volutine granules at the ends;


2. have volutine distributed along the body;
3. are arranged under the angels in specimen;
4. have side by side arrangment in specimen.

B15

Test N
Diphtheria

1. produce spore;
2. microcapsule;
3. flagella;
4. fimbria.

C16

Test N
Microbiological investigation of diphtheria is done by:

1. serological test;
2. bacterioscopical test;
3. biological test;
4. bacteriological test.

PAGE 41
C17

Test N
Expholiative toxins:

1. are produced by staphylococci;


2. result in rash, which is relatively similar characteristic for scarlet fever rash;
3. cause muculo – papular rash;
4. cause coagulation of plasma.

A18

Test N
On blood agar media streptococci cause:

1.  hemolysis;
2.  or no hemolysis;
3.  hemolysis;
4.  hemolysis.

B19

Test N
Enterococci belong to:

A. A group hemolytic streptococci;


B. B group streptococci;
C. A group non hemolytic streptococci;
D. D group;
E. H serotype.

D20

Test N
Pneumococci grow on:

1. agar with serum;


2. agar with telurite;
3. blood agar media;
4. agar with casein.

B21

Test N
Diplococci are:

1. gonococci;
2. pneumococci;
3. meningococci;
4. tetracocci.

A22

Test N
The source of gonococcal infection are:

1. human carryers;
2. arthropods;
3. ill animals;
4. ill person.

PAGE 42
D23

Test N
Causetive agent of whooping caugh belongs to:

A. Neisseria;
B. Shigellae;
C. Bordetellae;
D. Iersinia;
E. Legionella.

C24

Test N
Staphylococci:

1. In liquid media produce panniculus;


2. In broth produce opacification;
3. On solid media gives R colonies;
4. On solid media gives S colonies.

C25

Test N
They are not factores of pathogenicity for staphylococci:

A. lecitinase;
B. fibrinolisine;
C. enterotoxine;
D. erythrogenic toxin;
E. expholiative toxin.

D26

Test N
Plasmocoagulase, of staphylococci:

1. cause coagulation of plasma;


2. is defense factor against phagocytoses;
3. causes decrease of peripheral blood coagulation;
4. causes destroy of organisms hemodinamic.

E27
Test N
The following belong to family Streptococci:

1. S. pyogens;
2. S. faecalis;
3. S. pneumonia;
4. S. enteritidis.

A28

Test N
In development of paradontosis and cariesis are involved:

A. S. pneumonia;
B. S. faecalis;
C. S. mutans;
D. S. pyogens;
E. S. aureus.

C29

PAGE 43
Test N
Streptococci producing erythrogenic toxins can cause:

A. diphtheria;
B. scarlet fever;
C. pertuses;
D. erysipelas;
E. reumatic fever.

B30

Test N
Lancet shaped diplococci are called:

A. pneumococci
B. streptococci;
C. enterococci;
D. gonococci;
E. meningococci.

A31
Test N
They are not factors of pathogenicity for pneumococci:

A. hemolysin;
B. muromidase;
C. peptidase;
D. M – protein;
E. A – protein.

E32

Test N
Meningococci produce:

1. capsula;
2. flagella;
3. fimbria;
4. spora.

B33

Test N
Meningococcal infectiopns are transmitted by:

1. skin contact route;


2. fecal – oral route;
3. transmission;
4. air droplets.

D34

Test N
In treatment of gonorhea is used:

A. serum;
B. live vaccine;
C. antibiotics;
D. bacteriophages;
E.  globuline.

C35

PAGE 44
Test N
Immunity aquired after gonorhea is:

A. not strong;
B. short – lasting;
C. not developed;
D. stable;
E. life long.

C36

Test N
Klebsiellae belong to family:

A. Mycbacteriacae;
B. Actinomycetacae;
C. Bacilacae;
D. Enterobacteriacae;
E. Sreptomycetacae.

D37

Test N
Klebsiellae:

1. affect junctions;
2. affect upper respiratory tract;
3. cause acute enteric infections;
4. cause post delivery complications.

E38

Test N
Bordetellae pertusis:

1. are big gram – negative rods;


2. are motile;
3. produce spora;
4. produce capsula.

D39

Test N
Whooping caugh is transmitted by:

A. air – droplets;
B. alimentary way;
C. transmission pathway;
D. contact way;
E. fecal – oral route.

A40

Test N
The material for microbiological investigation during whooping – caugh is:

1. feces;
2. pus;
3. urine;
4. swab from naso – pharynx.

D50

PAGE 45
Test N
Hystotoxin of C. diphtheria:

1. inhibites protein synthesis;


2. destrys host cells;
3. affects nervous system;
4. affects myocardium.

E51

Test N
Shick test:

1. is used to detect immunity against diphtheria;


2. in non – immune indeviduals developes local inflammation;
3. if antitoxine is present, there is no any change on the skin;
4. positive reaction detects no immunity against diphtheria.

E52

Test N
S. aureus posess:

1. spora;
2. flagella;
3. fimbria;
4. capsula.

D53

Test N
Factors of pathogenicity for staphylococci are:

1. enterotoxine;
2. exfoliative toxin;
3. plasmocoagulase;
4. hyaluronidase.

E54

Test N
Immunohlobuline Fc receptor of streptococci:

1. inhibites process of phagocytosis;


2. binds with IgG Fc fragment;
3. affects complement;
4. cause disbalances of immunoglobulines.

E55

Test N
For profilactic of meningococcal infections are used:

1. live vaccines;
2.  globuline;
3. immune serum;
4. special chemical vaccine.

D56

Test N
Biovarietis of diphtheria are:

PAGE 46
1. Gravis;
2. Inaba;
3. Mitis;
4. Ogava.
B57
Test N
The factors of pathogenisity for diphtheria are:

1. hyaluronidase;
2. hystotoxin;
3. fibrinolysine;
4. neiraminidase.

E58

Test N
A protein of S. aureus:

1. binds with Fc fragment of IgG;


2. is antigen;
3. inactivates complement;
4. is factor of pathogenicity.

E59

Test N
By the growth characteristic on blood agar media streptococci are differentiated on:

1.  hemolytic;
2. non hemolytic;
3.  hemolytic;
4.  hemolytic

A60

Test N
A group streptococci O – streptolysin:

1. is termolable protein;
2. causes lysis of erythrocytes;
3. has cardiotoxic effect;
4. is antigen.

E61

Test N
Enterococci belong to:

A. A group hemolytic streptococci;


B. B group streptococci;
C. A group non hemolytic streptococci;
D. D serogroup streptococci;
E. H serogroup streptococci.

D62

Test N
Pneumococci grow on media with:

1. blood serum;
2. telurite;
3. blood agar;

PAGE 47
4. simple.

B63

Test N
Gonococci ferments:

A. sachrose producing acid;


B. lactose producing acid;
C. lactose producing acid and gas;
D. glucose producing acid;
E. maltose producing acid and gas.

D64

*Test N
Diagnostic methods used during pneumococcal infections:

1. sputum;
2. bacteriologic method;
3. biologic;
4. Vasserman serologic test.

A65

Test N
Diphtheria toxin is correctly described as:

1. produced by C. diphtheria in vitro and in vivo;


2. immunogenic;
3. the active agent in the Shick test;
4. used to vaccinate infants.

A66

Test N
Klebsiellae:

1. produce endotoxin;
2. its virulense is detected by capsular polysaccharide;
3. it produces endotoxin – thermolable polypeptide;
4. produce strong neiro – exotoxin.

A67

Test N
S.epidermidis:

1. is coagulase negative;
2. contains protein A;
3. contains teichoic acids in its cell wall;
4. ordinarelly forms golden colonies.

B68

Test N
Source of streptococcal infections are:

1. healthy carriers;
2. reconvalescents;
3. patients;
4. arthropods.

PAGE 48
A69

Test N
Pneumococci:

1. is motile;
2. forms capsula;
3. forms spora;
4. grow on media with blood or serum.

C70

Test N
Neisseria are:

1. Gram – positive bacteria;


2. They have spherical Shape;
3. Acid – fast;
4. ferment glucose.

C71

Test N
Klebsiellae

1. have O antigen;
2. is gram – negative;
3. causes ozena;
4. immunity after infection is strong life long.

A72

Test N
Virulent str. pneumonia:

1. produce  hemolysin;
2. are acid – fast;
3. are lancet shaped;
4. contain A protein.

B73

Test N
The following bacteria may be found on eye mucous:

1. staphylococci;
2. gonococci;
3. Corynebacterium xerosis;
4. proteus vulgaris.

A74

Test N
Components of N. gonorrhea contributing to its virulence:

1. are axial filaments;


2. pili;
3.  lactamase;
4. lypopolisaccharids.

PAGE 49
C75

Test N
Gonococcal infections are treated by:

1. antitoxic serum;
2. vaccine;
3. gamma – globuline;
4. antibiotics.

D76

Test N
The Shick test is positive, therefore:

A. the infecting organism is non toxigenic;


B. circulating diphtheria antitoxin is present;
C. adequate amounts of neutralizing diphtheria antitoxin are absent;
D. circulating scarlet fever antitoxin is present;
E. circulating scarlet fever antitoxin is absent.

B77

Test N
Endotoxin is heat stable toxin that is:

1. cleared from plasma by C1;


2. a potent activator of C1;
3. an inhibitor of C1;
4. a potent activator of the alternative pathway of complement.

D78

Test N
Sequelae of group A hemolytic streptococci infection include:

1. pharyngitis;
2. migratory arthritis;
3. endocarditis;
4. acute glomerulonephritis.
C79
Test N
All the following are true about s. aureus EXCEPT:

A. it clots mammalian plasma;


B. it causes erysipelas;
C. it causes carbunculs;
D. it causes furunculs;
E. its cell wall conteins teichoic acids.
B80
Test N
A gram – positive coccus that grows in pairs or short chains:

A. Str. pyogens;
B. Str. agalacticae;
C. Str. faecalis;
D. S. aureus;
E. Str. pneumonia.a
81E
Test N
The organism most commonly causing subacute bacterial endocarditis is:

A. staphylococcus;
B. pneumococcus;

PAGE 50
C.  hemolytic str.
D.  hemolytic str.
E. gram – negative organisms resistant to penicilline.
D82
Test N
Group B streptococci are of clinical significance because of their association with:

1. rheumatic fever;
2. scarlet fever;
3. impetigo;
4. neonatal meningitis.
D83

Test N
B. pertusis:

1. has flagella;
2. gives growth of colonies after 10 days;
3. is characterised by effective ferment activity;
4. produces endotoxin.
D84

D1 C2 E3 A4 C5 B6 C7 A8 A9 D10 E11 C12 E13 A14 B15 C16 C17 A18 B19 D20 B21 A22 D23 C24
C25 D26 E27 A28 C29 B30 A31 E32 B33 D34 C35 C36 D37 E38 D39 A40 D50 E51 E52 D53 E54 E55
D56 B57 E58 E59 A60 E61 D62 B63 D64 A65 A66 A67 B68 A69 C70 C71 A72 B73 A74 C75 D76 B77
D78 C79 B80 E81 D82 D83 D84

ENTEROBACTERIACEA

Test N1

The patient get into the clinic with following symptoms: malaise, bradicardia, myalgia, high fever (39ºC - 40ºC), nausea. A month
before he was in the village, there he used water for drink from the well. During investigation physician observed rose spots on the
abdomenant chest. The causative agent of the disease is:

1. A. Str. pneumonia;

PAGE 51
B. S. typhi;
C. E. coli;
D. Staphylococcal enterotoxin;
E. Shigellae dysentery.

2. The microorganism:
1. is sphere shaped;
2. is gram – positive cocci;
3. forms spora;
4. is peritrichous.

3. The microorganism has:


1. O antigen;
2. H antigen;
3. Vi antigen;
4. protective antigen.

4. This microorganism
1. enters organism via oral rout;
2. has prolonged incubation period (more than 1 month);
3. multiplies inside macrophages;
4. bacteriemya is not characteristic.

5. For the treatment of the disease is used:


1. antitoxic serum;
2. IFN;
3. gamma – globulin;
4. antibiotics.

Test N6
E.coli

1. is gram – positive;
2. has pili;
3. forms spora;
4. is characterized by high ferment activity.
Test N7
Cholera lives

1. antimicrobial immunity;
2. is characterized by unfinished phagocytoses;
3. antitoxic immunity;
4. is characterized by delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

Test N8
V. cholera is:

1. sphere shaped;
2. gram – positive rod;
3. obligate anaerobe;
4. has one polar flagella.

Test N9
Causative agent of Salmonelloses has:

1. O antigen;
2. Vi antigen;
3. K antigen;
4. S antigen;

Test N10
The average case of gastroenteritis of salmonella origin is associated with:

A. short incubation, vomiting, and diarrhea;


B. a prolonged course with septicemia;
C. a long incubation period with diarrhea, but no vomiting;
D. a disease resembling typhoid fever;
E. true intoxication.

PAGE 52
Test N11
The cholera vibrio:

1. is pathogenic for humans;


2. is comma shaped bacteria;
3. is gram – negative bacteria;
4. has peritrichous flagella.

Test N12
E.coli posses:

1. O antigen;
2. Vi antigen;
3. K antigen;
4. S soluble antigen.

Test N13
Salmonella differs from Shigella in which of the following properties:

A. gram – stain reaction;


B. motility;
C. presence of capsule;
D. spore formation;
E. one is obligate aerobe.
Test N14
Causative agent of cholera:

A. produce erythrogenic toxin;


B. the source of infection are birds;
C. produce endotoxin and enterotoxin;
D. is transmitted via respiratory route;
E. is oxydase – negative.

Test N15
Which is true statement about Shigella:

A. is motile;
B. is characterized by invasiveness;
C. produce expholiative toxin;
D. does not have fimbria;
E. does not produce exotoxin.

Test N16
A 50 years old businessman develops diarrhea 24 hour, after leaving the Orient. The diarrhea is intense. The stool is thin and watery,
containing flakes. Stool culture reveals rapid growth of an almost pure culture at the surface of alkaline peptone broth. The colonies
are small, colorless and incubated on TCBS agar media.

The probable diagnosis is:


A. typhoid fever;
B. cholera;
C. stapylococcal food poisoning;
D. shigellosis;
E. amebiasis.
Test N17
Assume that a non motile gram – negative rod is isolated from the stool, the probable diagnosis would be:

A. typhoid fever;
B. cholera;
C. staphylococcal food poisoning;
D. shigellosis;
E. amebiasis.
Test N18
Assume that the disease was transmitted by infected row eggs. Which of the following organisms would be the most likely pathogen?

A. Salmonella;
B. V. cholera;
C. S. aureus;
D. Sh. sonnei;
E. E. coli.

PAGE 53
Test N19
Assuming that the etiologic agent is V. cholera, which of the following characteristics would be observed?

A. It grows poorly at 37ºC;


B. It grows well at alkali pH;
C. It grows at acid pH;
D. It forms spore;
E. It is peritrichous.
Test N20
The most important therapy for cholera is:

A. penicillin;
B. streptomycin;
C. water and electrolyte replacement;
D. antitoxin;
E. sulfonamides.
Test N21
Invasion of the intestinal mucous by the organism occurs with:

1. enterotoxigenic E. coli;
2. V. cholera;
3. S. typhi;
4. Sh. dysentery.
Test N22
Pathogenic mechanisms described in diarrhea – producing E. coli:

1. invasiveness;
2. enterotoxicity;
3. cytotoxicity;
4. tight adhesiveness.
Test N23
V cholera produce:

1. enterotoxin;
2. cytotoxin;
3. activate AMP;
4. inhibite AMP.

Test N24
The best specimen for diagnosis of typhoid fever in the first week of illness is:

A. sputum;
B. blood;
C. stool;
D. urine;
E. bone marrow.
Test N25
The reservoirs of S. typhi are:

A. dogs;
B. cats;
C. cattle;
D. pigs;
E. humans.
Test N26
Prevention of Salmonellosis means:

1. water sanitation;
2. prior cooking of food;
3. detection of carriers;
4. refrigeration of food.

Test N27
The best specimen for the diagnosis of typhoid fever during second weak of illness:

A. sputum;
B. blood;
C. stool;
D. liquor;
E. bone marrow.

PAGE 54
Test N28
Which of the following statements correctly describe enterotoxins?

A. they are not produced by Salmonella species;


B. they are not produced by E. coli;
C. they stimulate AMP;
D. they are not antigenic;
E. they contain lipid A.
Test N29
Activity of cholera toxin is associated with:

1. disturbed ion exchange;


2. suppressed AMP activity;
3. enhanced chloride secretion;
4. inhibited glucose metabolism.
Test N30
Activation of AMP is the biochemical event leading to diarrhea mediated by:

1. cholera toxin;
2. shigella dysentery toxin;
3. heat label toxin of E. coli;
4. heat stable toxin of E. coli.
Test N31
E.coli has

1. O antigen;
2. Vi antigen;
3. H antigen;
4. S antigen.
Test N32
In treatment of Salmonellosis is used:

1. antitoxic serum;
2. auto vaccine;
3. IFN;
4. antibiotic.

Test N33
Pathogenic mechanisms described in diarrhea producing E. coli:

1. invasiveness;
2. enterotoxicity;
3. cytotoxicity;
4. tight adhesiveness.

Test N34
Cholera toxin:

1. causes invasiveness of intestinal mucous;


2. activate AMP;
3. produce necrotizing ulcers in gastrointestinal mucous;
4. causes accumulation of electrolyte – rich fluids and watery diarrhea.

Test N35
Assume that non motile gram negative rod is isolated from the stool, the probable diagnoses would be:

A. typhoid fever;
B. cholera;
C. staphylococcal food poisoning;
D. ameebiases;
E. shigelloses.

Test N36
O antigens of Enterobacteriace:

1. are resistant to heat;


2. are not detected by agglutination;
3. are the most external part of cell – wall polysaccharide;
4. are not resistant to alcohol.

PAGE 55
Test N37
Phage conversion is responsible for the production of some toxins of:

1. C. botulinum (botulism toxin);


2. Str. pyogens (erythrogenic toxin);
3. C. diphtheria (diphtheria toxin);
4. Bacteroides fragile (fragilinum toxin).
Test N38
What bacterial species would an oxydase positive gram – negative rod suggest:

A. Shigellae species:
B. Vibrio species;
C. Enterobacteriacae;
D. Salmonellae Arisona group;
E. Acinetobacter species.
Test N39
What is the most rapid response to gram – negative endotoxin?

A. leukocytosis;
B. neutropenia;
C. hypotension;
D. fever;
E. hypoferrinemia (is a metabolic alteration that typically shows up the endotoxin shock syndrome).
Test N40
For diagnosis of cholera are used all following materials EXCEPT:

A. water;
B. puncture from gumma;
C. vomiting masses;
D. feces;
E. food products.
Test N41
S. typhi belongs to femily:

A. Bacillacea;
B. Vibrionaceae;
C. Pseudomonadaceae;
D. Enterobacteriacea;
E. Neisseriacea.
Test N42
S. typhi:

1. is sphere shaped bacteria;


2. has chain like arrangement in specimen;
3. is gram – positive;
4. is peritrichous.

Test N43
E.coli

1. is gram - positive;
2. has pili;
3. is spore forming;
4. posses high ferment activity.
Test N44
During cholera

1. immunity is antimicrobial;
2. takes place unfinished phagocytosis;
3. immunity is antitoxic;
4. takes place delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

Answers
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. C

PAGE 56
7. B
8. D
9. E
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. C
21. D
22. C
23. B
24. B
25. E
26. E
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. E
31. B
32. D
33. E
34. C
35. E
36. B
37. E
38. B
39. E
40. B
41. D
42. D
43. C
44. B

PAGE 57
CLOSTRIDIA, ZOONOSES

Test N1
The portal of entry for F. tularenses is:

1. Broken skin;
2. Sexual intercourse;
3. Respiratory tract;
4. None of above.
Test N2
One of the following inhibits transmitter at the inhibitory synapses in spinal cord, causes hyperrefflexia and spasm of skeletal
muscles:

A. botulinum toxin;
B. cholera toxin;
C. diphtheria toxin;
D. tetanus toxin;
E. staphylococcal expholiation.
Test N3
Causative agent of tetanus has:

1. O antigen;
2. Vi antigen;
3. H antigen;
4. K antigen.
Test N4
Causative agent of tetanus C. tetani has exotoxin:

1. Which enters the blood stream, from the site of entry;


2. via lymph and blood enters nerve cells;
3. affects synapses at the nerve cell endings;
4. Inhibits nerve impulse transmission.
Test N5
Causative agent of plague, Yersinia pestis belongs to family:

A. Enterobacteriaceae;
B. Mycobacteria;
C. Corynebacteria;
D. Actinomycets;
E. Bordetellae.
Test N6
The major mechanism to host's resistance to TB is;

A. humoral antibodies;
B. delayed hypersensitivity;
C. high level of Ca in serum;
D. increased microbicydal activity of activated macrophages;
E. massive proliferation of PMN leukocytes.
Test N7
Positive tuberculin skin test indicates:

A. no immunity to TB infection;
B. a parasitic infection;
C. prior exposure to TB;
D. active pulmonary TB;
E active non tubercular mycobacterium infection
Test N8
B. anthrax

!. Is coccobacteria;
2. Makes spore;
3. is motile;
4. Produce capsule.
Test N9
The maximal reaction for tuberculin skin test

1. 12 hours;
2. 5 hours;
3. 24 hours;
4. 48-72 hours.

PAGE 58
Test N10
Y. Pestis

A. is sphere shaped bacteria;


B. is gram positive rod;
C. is lanced shaped;
D. is spore forming;
E. is rod-shaped, ovoid bacteria.
Test N11
First line drugs in treatment of TB:

!. Streptomycin;
2. Ethambutol;
3. Isoniazid;
4. Riphampin.
Test N12
Causative agent of tetanus:

1. Possess terminal spore;


2. is gram positive rod;
3. Possess peritrichial flagella;
4. Is gram negative rod.
Test N13
The immunity during TB:

1. is non sterile;
2. is predominantly cell mediated;
3. is acquired;
4. is not acquired.
Test N14
Causative agent of human TB is:

1. M tuberculoses;
2. M. bovis;
3. M. aveum intracellular;
4. M. smegmatis.

Test N15
Gas gangrene is treated by:

1. antitoxic serum;
2. coli-proteinous bacteriophages;
3. antibiotics;
4. IFN.
Test N16
C. tetanus enters human organism via:

1. wound ;
2. umbilicus (among newborn);
3. uterus, (during delivery);
4. puncture and incised infections.
Test N17
Brucella are cultivated on

1. simple media;
2. Kitta-Tarotsi's media;
3. Loeffler's media;
4. some of them grow readily during passage of CO2.
Test N18
Brucella

1. belongs to family Vibrionaceae;


2. are small gram negative rods;
3. possess flagella;
4. produce capsule.

PAGE 59
Test N19
Disease botulism is characterized:

1. by affecting bulbar nerve cells;


2. by short incubation period;
3. by disturb of accommodations;
4. double vision.
Test N20
Antigenic structure of B. anthrax:

1. possess capsular, proteinous antigen localized in capsule;


2. has H flagella antigen localized in flagella;
3. has polysaccharide, somatic antigen localized in its cell wall;
4. has Vi antigen localized in capsule.
Test N21
Disease antracis can be acquired by:

1. contact with infected animal;


2. the wool, or leather of infected animal;
3. meat of infected animal;
4. only through minor skin abrasions.
Test N22
Causative agent of tularemia, enters human organism via;

1. skin;
2. mucous membranes;
3. unbroken skin and mucous;
4. only through affected skin.
Test N23
Plague is transmitted by

1. arthropods;
2. respiratory route;
3. alimentary route;
4. contact.
Test N24
For laboratory diagnosis of plague is used material from:

1. bubon;
2. ulcer;
3. sputum;
4. blood.
Test N25
Tetanus is diagnosed by:

1. bacterioscopic method;
2. bacteriology;
3. biologic method;
4. allergic skin test.
N26 The causative agent of anthrax reproduce

A. In the anaerobe area


B. Only in the compound media
C. In liquid media only
D. In gelatin, causes synchises of it (inverted fir tree)
E. On the agar media, produces red shinning colonies
N27 The transmission route during botulism is

A. Contact
B. Alimentary
C. Air droplets
D. Transmissive
E. Aerosol transmission
N28 The causative agent of tularemia

1. Produces capsule
2. Produce spore
3. Is coccobacteria
4. Is motile.
N29 Botulinum toxin

PAGE 60
1. Is resistant to gut enzymes
2. Presents the most toxic biologic toxin
3. Boiling temperature destroys the toxin in ten minutes
4. Causes blocking of neuron activity
N30 The causative agent of TB belongs to

1. Genus Corynebacterium
2. Acid-fast bacteria
3. Spore forming bacteria
4. Family Micobacterium
N31 Bordetella pertuses

A. Is big rod shaped bacteria


B. Gives colonies in 24 hours
C. Grows easily on simple culture media
D. Is coccobacteria
E. Is strict anaerobe
N32 Clostridium perfingens

1. Produce spore
2. Produce capsule
3. Is Gram-positive
4. Is motile
N33 The route of transmission in plague

1. Is contact
2. Alimentary
3. Transmissive
4. Air droplets
N34 The causative agent of Bruceloses enters organism via

1. Alimentary route
2. Air-droplets
3. Contact
4. Transmissive
N35 Immunity after tularemia

A. Is strong
B. Is not developed
C. Is not strong
D. Is anti-toxic
E. Is short lasting
N36 For prophylaxes of anthrax is used

A. Inactivated vaccine
B. Bacterio phage
C. Live vaccine
D. Anti-toxic serum
E. Anatoxin
N37 The causative agent of tetanus belongs to genus

A. Clostridium
B. Corynebacterium
C. Mycobacterium
D. Francisella
E. Bordetella
N38 Causative agent of Botulism

1. Is big gram-negative rod


2. Is facultative anaerobe
3. Its pathogeneses is determined by the presence of thermolable endotoxin
4. Produce subterminal spore.

N39 Bordetella pertuses is cultivated on

A. Casein-anthrax agar media

PAGE 61
B. Blood-agar media
C. Telluride agar media
D. Sugar-agar media
E. Alkaline media
N40 For prophylaxes of tuberculoses is used

1. Live attenuated vaccine


2. Killed vaccine
3. BCG vaccine
4. Anti-toxin
N41 Plague

1. Is zoonotic infection
2. The only source of infection is ill person
3. Is characterized by transmissive transfer
4. Leaves strong life long immunity
N42 Bruceloses

1. Brucella enters organism via oral route


2. The organism reproduce inside lymphoid-macrophage system
3. Develops delayed hypersensitivity reaction
4. The most severe infection is caused by B. melitenses
N43 For the treatment and prophylaxes of tetanus is used:

1. Anti-toxic serum
2. Anatoxin
3. Immunoglobulin
4. Interferon
N44 For the diagnoses of Botulism is used

1. Vomiting masses
2. Blood
3. Washing waters
4. Food products
N45 Immunity after plague

A. Is strong
B. Passive
C. Short
D. No sterile
E. Anti viral
N46 Brucellin is used

1. For active immunity


2. For immune biologic testing
3. As an antigen in Rait's reaction
4. To reveal allergic reaction
N47 For diagnose of tetanus is used

1. Neutralization reaction with anatoxin


2. Biologic test
3. Bacteriologic analyses - the pathogenic material is inoculated for identification of causative agent
4. Rait's agglutination reaction
N48 Causative agent of botulism

A. Is big gram-negative rod


B. Is facultative anaerobe
C. Produce thermolable endotoxin
D. Produce subterminal spore
E. Produce erythrogenic toxin
N49 The causative agent of Bruceloses enters human organism via

1. Alimentary route
2. Air-droplets
3. Contact
4. Transmissive route

N50 For diagnoses of tularemia

1. Is used biological test with experimental animal

PAGE 62
2. Bacteriologic analyses
3. IFA analyses
4. Serologic test for type of antigen determination
N51 Micobacterium tuberculoses:

1. Contains lipids in its cell wall


2. Reproduce very slowly
3. Is characterized by persistence inside microorganism
4. Is an obligate anaerobe.
Test N52
The reservoir of infection during tuberculosis is:

1. arthropod;
2. human;
3. rodent;
4. animal with active case of TB.
Test N53
Factors of pathogenesis during Brucelosis are:

1. exotoxin;
2. endotoxin;
3. erythrogenic toxin;
4. hyaluronidase.
Test N54
M. tuberculosis

A. produce spore;
B. belongs to Vibrionaceae family;
C. is motile;
D. is acid-fast bacteria;
E. produce capsule.
Test N55
Cord factor of M. tuberculosis is all of the following EXCEPT:

A. glicolipid;
B. factor of pathogenisity;
C. is observed during microscopy of M. tuberculosis;
D. cause lysis of the host cell mitochondria;
E. is protein.
Test N56
Gas-gangrene is identified by:

1. microscopy of the bacteria;


2. cultural properties;
3. biochemical properties;
4. detection of toxin during reaction of neutralization.
Test N57
Which of the following is not correct concerning C. Botulinum?

A. It is lysed by gut enzymes;


B. Is the strongest toxin;
C. Neuro toxin determines its clinic;
D. Produce exotoxin;
E. Is not lysed by gut enzymes.
Test N58
Tetanus toxin

1. is neurotoxin;
2. consists of two fractions: tetanolysin and tetanospasmin;
3. causes contraction and spasm of skeletal muscles;
4. is used for infants vaccination.
Test N59
Tetanus anatoxin:

1. Is live tetanus microorganism;


2. Is inactivated tetanus toxin;
3. Is used for passive immunization;
4. Is used for active immunization in trivalent vaccine.
Test N60
C. tetani is:

PAGE 63
1. gram positive spore forming rod;
2. gram negative non spore forming rod;
3. gram positive obligate anaerobe;
4. gram positive obligate aerobe.
Test N61
Clinical forms of anthrax are:

1. Bubonic;
2. Skin form;
3. Liver form;
4. Pulmonary form.
Test N62
The virulence and pathogenicity of F. tularensis is determined by:

A. Presence of neurotoxin;
B. Production of exotoxin;
C. Synthesis of bacteriocines;
D. Release of endotixin;
E. Production of erythrogenic toxin.
Test N63
The pathogenesis of Y. pestis is determined by:

1. F1, V and W antigens;


2. production of protective antigens;
3. production of lethal toxin, "poison of mice";
4. production of cord factor.
Test N64
For diagnosis of tularemia, the following specimen is used:

1. Puncture from bubon;


2. Sputum;
3. Blood;
4. Animal organs.
Test N65
Causative agent of anthrax:

1. Is gram negative small rod;


2. has central arrangement of spore;
3. is motile bacteria;
4. In human, and animal organism produce capsule.
Test N66
Immunity during anthrax:

1. Is acquired;
2. is not strong;
3. depends upon reaction of phagocytes;
4. Doesn’t depend on protective antibodies.
Test N67
Gas-gangrene is caused by:

1. C. novii;
2. C. botulinum;
3. C. hystolyticum;
4. C. tetanus.
Test N68
Causative agent of disease anthrax belongs to family:

A. Enterobacteriaceae;
B. Neisseriaceae;
C. Bacilaceae;
D. Vibrionaceae;
E. Brucellae.
Test N69
Pathogenesis of C. tetani is determined by:

1. Production of strong endotoxin;


2. Presence of A protein;
3. Production of exfoliative toxin;
4. Production of strong exotoxin.

PAGE 64
Test N70
Prevention measures against Tularemia are:

1. Deratisation;
2. Live attenuated vaccine;
3. Vaccination of animals;
4. Anatoxin.
Test N71
Botulism is caused by:

A. C. Botulinum;
B. C Perfingens;
C. C. Tetani;
D. C. Novii;
E. C. Septicum.
Test N72
Gas gangrene is

1. Wound infection;
2. Anaerobe infection;
3. Caused by clostridia;
4. Respiratory infection.
Test N73
The methods of investigation during gas gangrene:

1. bacterioscopic;
2. bacteriologic;
3. biologic;
4. allergic.
Test N74
The route of entry for brucella is:

1. Alimentary;
2. Contact;
3. Respiratory;
4. By milk.
Test N75
During diagnosis of brucelosis the investigable specimen is:
1. Blood;
2. Fecal masses;
3. Urine;
4 Liquor.
Test N76
M. tuberculoses

1. Is gram-positive slightly curved rod;


2. Is gram negative rod;
3. Contains large number of lipids in its cell wall;
4. Is gram negative coccobacteria.
1 A 67 B
2 D 68 B
3 B 69 C
4 E 70 A
5 A 71 A
6 D 72 A
7 C 73 A
8 C 74 E
9 D 75 E
10 E 76 A
11 E
12 B
13 A
14 A
15 B
16 E
17 D
18 C
19 E
20 B

PAGE 65
21 A
22 A
23 E
24 E
25 A
26 D
27 E
28 B
29 E
30 C
31 D
32 A
33 E
34 A
35 A
36 C
37 A
38 D
39 A
40 B
41 B
42 E
43 A
44 E
45 A
46 E
47 A
48 D
49 A
50 A
51 A
52 C
53 C
54 D
55 A
56 E
57 A
58 A
59 C
60 B
61 C
62 D
63 B
64 E
65 C
66 B

PAGE 66
SPIROCHETAE, CHLAMYDIA, MYCOPLASMA, RICKETTSIA

Test N
Chlamydia:

1. are intracellular microorganisms;


2. are transmitted by ticks or lice;
3. are transmitted by interpersonal contact;
4. are the biggest microorganisms.
B1
Test N
Spirochetae involve:

1. cell wall;
2. cell membrane;
3. axial filaments;
4. differentiated nucleus.
A2
Test N
Causetive agent of NGU (non gonococcal uretritis) are:

1. Borrelia;
2. Leptospira;
3. Rickettsia;
4. Chlamydia.
D3
Test N
Most organisms that cause urinary trackt infections come from:

A. toilet seats;
B. the environment;
C. sexual partners;
D. normal bowel flora;
E. normal skin flora.
D4
Test N
The body louse is the vector of transmission for:

A. Leptospirosis;
B. meningitis;
C. endemic relapsing fever;
D. Q fever;
E. trachoma.
C5
Test N
In treatment of Brill-Cilsner`s disease are used:

PAGE 67
1. sulfonamids;
2. bacteriophages;
3. antitoxic serum;
4. tetracycline.
D6
Test N
Pathogenic spirochetae belong to:

1. Kingdom – Virae;
2. Family – Leptospira;
3. Class – Mollicutes;
4. Genus – Borrelia.
C7

Test N
In treatment of syphillis are used:

1. cephalosporins;
2. bacteriophages;
3. bismuth preparates;
4. antitoxic serum.
B8

Test N
A painful lesion on the genitals is:

1. lymphogranuloma venerium;
2. chancr;
3. genital herpes;
4. syphillis.
B9

Teast N
The following belong to pathogenic spirochetae for humans:

A. Neisseriae;
B. Shigellae;
C. Yersinia;
D. Leptospirae;
E. Bordetellae.
D10

Test N
Spirochetae

1. are aerobes;
2. anaerobes;
3. facultative anaerobes;
4. microaerophills.
A11

Test N
In the second period of syphillis:

1. Treponema enter blood stream;


2. Appears rash on skin and mucous;
3. Treponema are in rash lesions;
4. Patient is not contagious.
A12
Test N
Immunity after syphillis:

1. is not acquired;
2. after recovery reinfections never occur;
3. after recovery reinfections occur;
4. after recovery relapses never occur.
B13
Test N
Epidemic relapsing fever is transmitted by:

PAGE 68
A. ticks;
B. lice;
C. mosquito;
D. flea;
E. louse.
E14
Test N
Epidemic relapsing fever is treated by:

1. penicillin;
2. levomycetin;
3. chlortetracycline;
4. Novarselone.
E15
Test N
Immunity after Leptospirosis is:

1. strong;
2. not acquired;
3. typospecific;
4. mainly T cell mediated.
B16

Test N
Humans acqure Leptospirosis by:

1. infected (contaminated with animal urine) water;


2. bite of ticks;
3. during taking care of ill, infected animals;
4. sexual intercourse.
B17

Test N
Laboratory diagnoses of leptospira is done by:

1. cultivation of patient`s blood in liquid media (on 4-5 days from infection);
2. cultivation of patient`s urine in liquid media (on 7-8 days from infection);
3. incubation at 28ºC;
4. observing colonies on 5-7 th day.
E18

Test N
Chlamydia

1. are gram positive microorganisms;


2. are obligate parasites;
3. characterized by independent syntheses of ATP;
4. have special development cycle.
C19

Test N
Chlamydia psittaci causes:

1. pneumonia;
2. gastroenteritis;
3. meningoencephalitis;
4. polyartritis.
E20

Test N
Mycoplasma reproduce by:

1. binary fission;
2. badding;
3. fragmenting;
4. producing reticular bodies.
A21
Test N
Mycoplasma are:

PAGE 69
1. ovoid;
2. sphere shaped;
3. rod shaped;
4. needlelike.
E22
Test N
Reservoir of Q fever are:

1. domastick animals;
2. birds;
3. rodents;
4. reptile.
B23

Test N
The body louse is vector for:

A. Leptospirosis;
B. pinta;
C. epidemic relapsing fever;
D. bejel;
E. meningitis.
C24

Test N
Rickettsia:

1. are endospore forming organisms;


2. produce capsula;
3. are motile;
4. are gram – negative organisms.

D25

Test N
Mycoplasma:

1. causes pneumonia;
2. causes scarlet fever;
3. are cell wall less organiosms;
4. are not cultivated on artificial media.
B26

Test N
Spirochetae, that is slightly coiled, thin and has a hook at both endings is:

A. Borrelia, causetive agent of relapsing fever;


B. Treponema pallidum, causetive agent of syphillis;
C. Leptospira, causetive agent of leptospirosis;
D. Treponema pertenue, causetive agent of yaws;
E. Treponema carateum, causetive agent of pinta.
C27

Test N
Syphillis is caused by:

A. Treponema carateum,
B. Borrelia dutonii;
C. Treponema pertenue;
D. Treponema pallidum;
E. Treponema vincentii.
D28

Test N
Epidemic relapsing fever is treated by:

1. penicillin;
2. levomycetin;
3. chlortetracycline;

PAGE 70
4. novarselon.

A29

Viruses, protozoa, mycoses.

Test N88
True statements regarding infections by VZV (Varicella Zoster virus) include which of following?

1. Primary infection usually occurs in epidemic form;


2. Primary disease is most common in summer period;
3. Transmission route is respiratory;
4. Relapses are more common in winter period.
B
Test N89
Infectious virus can be isolated from stool during 3-4 weeks following infection, with which of the following viruses?

A. Herpes simplex;
B. Polio virus;
C. Smallpox;
D. Influenza virus;
E. Hepatitis virus.
B
Test N90
The primary route of transmission is parenteral, in which of following viruses?

1. NANB hepatitis;
2. HBV;
3. HDV;
4. HAV.
A
Test N91
Which of the following viruses contains an RNA dependent DNA polymerase as a structural component of virion?

A. Adenoviruses;
B. Orthomixoviruses;
C. Rabdoviruses;
D. Retroviruses;
E. Reoviruses.
D
Test N92
Rubeolla vaccine is:

A. toxoid;
B. toxin;
C. live attenuated microorganism;
D. killed virulent microorganism;
E. none of above
C
Test N93
Measles virus has all of following traits, EXCEPT;

A. has spiral shaped nucleocapsid;


B. tendency to persist;
C. can agglutinate RBC;
D. produce neiraminidase;
E. has hemolytic activity.
D
Test N94
Laboratory diagnoses of amebiasis is done by:

A. Vasserman CF reaction;
B. Viral agglutination test;
C. microscopy of native smears;
D. inoculation of fecal masses;
E. biologic lab. test by inoculation of experimental animals

PAGE 71
C

Test N95
The source of infection during lambliosis is:

A. infected animal;
B. bird;
C. human;
D. insect;
E. rodent.
C
Test N96
Which of the following disease is characterized by the presence of Negri bodies in host cell:

A. Rabies;
B. infectious mononucleosis;
C. congenital rubella;
D. mumps;
E. Varicella.
A
Test N97
Virogeny is characterized by:

1. production of new viral cells;


2. integration of viral DNA into host's chromosome;
3. occasional interruption of viral replication on definite stage;
4. virogeny of phages is called lysogeny, or lysogenic cycle.
C
Test N98
The purified genome of which of the following viruses are infectious?

1. rubella;
2. polio;
3. FLU;
4. variolla
D
Test N99
RNA containing viruses are:

1. Picornaviruses;
2. Orthomyxoviruses;
3. Paramixoviruses;
4. Retroviruses.
E
Test N100
The route of trichomoniases transmission is:

1. transmissive;
2. by objects;
3. fecal-oral;
4. sexual contact.
C
Test
Viruses are:

1. rod shaped;
2. sphere shsped;
3. spermatozoid shaped;
4. icosahedron shaped.
E
Test
Dna containing viruses are:

1. Herpes virus;
2. poxviruses;

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3. Adenoviruses;
4. Orthmyxoviruses.
A

Test
They are not DNA viruses:

A. Adenoviruses;
B. Togaviruses;
C. Herpes viruses;
D. Poxviruses;
E. Parvoviruses.
B

Test
They belong to enteroviruses

1. Coxacki;
2. Echo;
3. Polio;
4. Rabies.
A
Test
The main route of polio virus transmission:

A. transmissive;
B. fecal-oral;
C. sexual;
D. by objects (toys, tools, books, towels...);
E. wound.
B
Test
HIV

1. affects mainly TH cells;


2. its target are CD4 cells;
3. affects macrophages;
4. can survive inside vacuols of macrophages.
E
Test
Viruses outside the cell are called:

A. nucleoid;
B. capsule;
C. capsomer;
D. virion;
E. alantois.
D
Test
The source of infection during amebiases:

1. are birds;
2. rodents;
3. insects;
4. humans.
D
Test
VZV is best described:

A a number of the poxvirus group;


B the cause of parotids;
C. latent for years following primary infection;
D. associated Koplic's spots;
E treated with metizasone
C
Test
The source of infection during malaria are:

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1. birds;
2. insects;
3. rodents;
4. humans.
D

Test
FLU virus is present in:

1. feces;
2. blood;
3. both;
4. none.
D

Test
Vaccine used for poliomyelitis :

1. Sabin - oral vaccine, which contains live attenuated microbes;


2. Salk - oral live attenuated microbes;
3. Salk - parenteral, killed microbes;
4. Salk - oral, killed viruses.
B
Test
Regarding hepatitis B virus:

1. it is transmitted by blood transfusion and infected body fluids;


2. is transmitted via fecal-oral route;
3. it affects all ages;
4. is not transmitted into chronic disease.
B
Test
True statements regarding infections by VZV include which of the following?

1. primary infection usually occures in epidemic form;


2. disease is most common in summer period;
3. is transmitted via respiratory route;
4. relapses are more common in winter period.
B

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