1. Misstatement in the financial statements can arise from fraud or error.
The distinguish factor
between fraud and error is whether underlying action that the results in the misstatement of the financial statements is I. Intentional or unintentional II. Rational or irrational a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II 2. Fraudulent financial reporting involves intentional misstatement including omissions of amounts or disclosures in financial statements to deceive financial statements users. It may be accomplished in a number of ways ,including a. Embezzling of receipts b. Stealing physical assets or intellectual property c. Using an entity’s assets for personal use d. Manipulation, falsification, or alteration of accounting records or supporting documentation form which the financial statements are prepared 3. Which of the following statements best describe an auditor responsibility regarding misstatement? a. An auditor should obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements taken as a whole are free from material misstatement ,whether caused by fraud or error b. An auditor should obtain absolute assurance the material misstatement in the financial statement will be detected c. An auditor is responsible to detect material errors but has no responsibility to detect material fraud that is concealed through employee collusion or management override of internal control d. An auditor failure to detect a material misstatement result from fraud is an indication of noncompliance with the requirements of the PSAs 4. The following are examples of fraud risk factors relating to misstatements arising from misappropriation of assets except a. Recurring negative cash flows from operating activities while reporting earnings from earning growth b. Inadequate physical safeguards over cash investments, inventory or fixed assets c. Inadequate segregation of duties or independent checks d. Adverse relationship between the entity and employees with access to cash or other assets susceptible to theft created by recent changes made to employees compensation or benefit plans 5. PSA230 requires the auditor to document matters which are important in providing evidence to support the auditor opinion m and states that the working papers include the auditor’s reasoning on all significant matters which require the auditor’s judgment , together with the auditor’s conclusion thereon. Which of the following should be documented by the auditor? a. Fraud risk factors identified as being present during the auditor’s risk assessment process b. Auditor’s response to identified fraud risk factors c. Both fraud risk from identified as being present during the auditor’s risk assessments process and the auditor’s response to any such factors d. The standard does not require documentation of the identified fraud risk factors and the auditor’s response to them 6. In connection with the element of assignment , a CPA firm’s system of quality control should ordinarily establish procedures that a. Provide adequate supervision at all levels. Considering the training, ability and experience of the personnel assigned b. Encourage personnel to sue authoritative sources on complex or unusual matter c. Require preparation of time budgets for audits to determine manpower requirements and to schedule d. Establish qualifications deemed necessary for various levels of responsibility within the firm 7. The primary purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding whether to accept new client is to a. Enable the CPA firm to attest to the integrity of the client management b. Satisfy the CPA firm’s duty to the public concerning the acceptance of new clients c. Minimize the likelihood of association with clients whose management lacks integrity d. Anticipate before performing any field work whether an unmodified opinion can be expressed 8. Fraud involving one or more members of management or those with governance is referred to as a. Management fraud b. Employee fraud c. Fraudulent financial reporting d. Misappropriation of assets 9. Which of the following conditions are generally present when misstatements due to fraud occur? I. Incentive or pressure II. Perceived opportunity III. Rationalization a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. I,II,III 10. Which of the following conditions or events may create incentives/ pressures to commit fraud? a. Inadequate system of authorization and approval of transactions b. Lack of mandatory vacations for employee performing key control function c. Excessive pressure on management or operating personal to meet financial targets established by those charge with governance, including sales of profitability incentive goals d. Inadequate access controls over automated records 11. Adequate planning of the audit work help to ensure that I. Appropriate attention is devoted to important areas of audit II. Potential problems are identified III. The work is completed expeditiously a. Yes,yes,no b. No,yes,yes c. Yes,yes,yes d. No,no,no 12. The auditor should plan the audit work so that the audit will be performed in an effective manner. The extent of planning will vary according to the I. Size of the entity II. Complexity of the audit III. Auditor’s experience with the entity and knowledge of the business a. Yes,yes,yes b. Yes,no,yes c. No,yes,yes d. No,no,no 13. Statement 1: obtaining knowledge of the entity’s business is an important part of planning the audit work Statement 2: the auditor’s knowledge of the entity’s business assists in the identification of events, transactions and practices which may have material effect on the financial statements a. Both statements are true b. Both statements are false c. True,false d. False,true 14. A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially misstated after the audit is completed and an unmodified opinion has been is issued is the a. Inherent risk b. Acceptable audit risk c. Control risk d. Detection risk 15. One of the conditions that give rise to a demand for an external audit of financial statements is expertise. Which of the following best describes the meaning of expertise as used in this context a. Auditors usually rely on work of an expert as a basis for evaluating some assertions embodied in the financial statements b. The readers of the financial statements must possess the necessary expertise to be able to understand the financial statements c. Users usually lack the necessary expertise to verify the reliability of the financial information d. As experts, auditors are expected to detect all material misstatements in the financial statements 16. Pronouncements issued by AASC may be in the form of I. Philippine Standards on Auditing II. Philippine Standards on Assurance Engagements III. Philippine Standards in Review Engagements IV. Philippine Standards on Related Services a. Yes, yes,yes,yes b. Yes,no,yes,no c. No,yes,yes,no d. No,yes,no,yes 17. Hill, CPA has been retained to audit the financial statements on Monday Co. Mondays predecessor auditor was Post, CPA who has been notified by Monday that Post’s services have been terminated. Under these circumstances, which party should initiate the communication between Hill and Post ? a. Hill, the incoming auditor b. Post ,the predecessor auditor c. Mondays controller of CFO d. The chairman of Monday’s board of directors 18. The relationship between materiality and risk is ordinarily a. Direct b. Parallel c. Inverse d. None 19. In making a preliminary judgment about materiality, the auditor initially determine the aggregate (overall) level of materiality for each statement. For planning purpose the auditor should used the a. Level separately b. Average of these levels c. Largest aggregate level d. Smallest aggregate level 20. This consists of checking the mathematical accuracy of documentation or records a. Reperformance b. Confirmation c. Recalculation d. Inspection 21. The auditor may accept or continue an audit engagement only when the basis upon which it is to be performed has been agreed, through I. Establishing whether the precondition for an audit are present II. Confirming that there is a common understanding between the auditor and management , and where appropriate, those charged with governance of the terms of the audit engagement a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II 22. He auditor who at the request of the group engagement team, performs work on financial information related to a component for the group audit is a a. Group auditor b. Component auditor c. Component engagement team d. Group engagement team 23. An audit is conducted on the premise the management and where appropriate, those charged with governance , have acknowledge and understand that they have responsibilities that are fundamental to the conduct of an audit in accordance with PSAs. Which of the following is not one of those responsibilities? a. The preparation of the financial statements in accordance with relevant pronouncements issued by the AASC. b. The establishment and maintenance of adequate internal control system that is necessary to enable the preparation of financial statements that are free from material misstatements, whether due to fraud or error c. To provide the auditor with access to all information that is relevant to preparation of the financial statements such as records, documentation, and other matters d. To provide the auditor unrestricted access to persons within the entity from which the auditor determine it necessary to obtain auditor audit evidence 24. Which of the following statements concerning group audit is incorrect? a. The group engagement team has the responsibility to establish an overall group audit strategy and audit plan b. The group engagement team shall determine the materiality for the group of financial statements as a whole when establishing the overall group audit strategy c. The component engagement team partner shall review the overall audit strategy and group audit plan d. The group engagement partner shall agree on the terms of the group audit engagement on accordance with PSA 210. 25. In the planning stage of an audit engagement the auditor is required to perform audit procedures to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment including its internal control. These procedures are called a. Risk assessment procedures b. Substantive tests c. Tests of control d. Dual purpose test 26. Which of the following matters would an auditor most likely consider when establishing the scope of the audit? a. The expected audit coverage, including the number and locations of the entity components to be included b. The entity’s timetable for reporting such as at interim and final stages c. The discussion with entity’s management concerning the expected communication on the status of audit work throughout the engagement and the expected deliverables resulting from the audit procedures d. Audit areas where there is a higher risk of material misstatement 27. In performing an audit financial statements, the auditor should obtain a sufficient knowledge of clients business and industry to a. Develop an attitude of professional skepticism concerning managements financial statements assertions b. Make constructive suggestions concerning improvement to the clients internal control c. Evaluate whether the aggregate of known misstatements causes the financial statements taken as a whole to be materially misstated d. Understand the events and transactions that may have an effect on the clients financial statements 28. As defined in the standard, ______ means the amount or amounts set by the auditor at less than materiality for the financial statements as a whole to reduce to an appropriately low level the probability that the aggregate of uncorrected and detected misstatements exceeds materiality for the financial statements as a whole a. Performance materiality b. Materiality c. Low materiality d. Lesser materiality 29. Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining a preliminary judgment about materiality? a. The contents of the managements representations letter b. The anticipated sample size of the planes substantive tests c. The entity’s annualized interim financial statements d. The results of internal control questionnaire 30. In designing written audit programs, an auditor should establish specific audit objectives that relate primarily to the a. Selected audit technique b. Cost benefit of gathering audit evidence c. Timing of audit procedures d. Financial statements assertions 31. Audit programs are modifies to suit the circumstances of particular engagements. A complete audit program should be developed a. When the engagement letter is prepared b. After obtaining an understanding of the control environment and control activities components of the entity’s internal control c. After the auditor has obtained an understanding of the entity and its environment , including its internal control and assessed risk of material misstatement d. Prior to beginning the actual audit work 32.