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Amendment is a matter of right if made BEFORE the other party has served a responsive pleading. Msut
be made only once.
AFTER a responsive pleading has been served, amendment must be with leave of court. It may be
denied if intended for delay or no longer a matter of right. It becomes a matter of judicial discretion.
12. what if D cannot file an answer because of ambiguity in material allegations in the complaint?
- D is not under obligation to out rightly file an answer. The D may file motion for bill of particulars to clarify the
ambiguities and for him to file an intelligent answer.
- If the motion is granted, the party directed to submit a bill of particulars must comply with the order within 10 days
from notice.
13. Grounds for dismissal which the court will recognize on its own motion; reasons for the court to effect a motu propio
a. Lack of jurisdiction over the SM
b. litis pendencia
c. res judicata
d. prescription
14. what if the D fails to file an answer?
- failure to file an answer entitled the P to file motion to declare him in default. When he is declared in default, the D
loses his standing in court and the latter may proceed to render the judgment granting the P such relief as his complaint
may warrant UNLESS in its discretion, the court requires the P to submit evidence on his claim.
NOTE: A judgment rendered against a party declared in default shall not exceed or be different in kind from that
prayed for nor award unliquidated damages.
- A party declared in default shall be entitled to notice of subsequent proceedings and is accorded a relief from the order
of default. REMEDY:
A. at any time after notice and before judgment, file a motion to set aside the order of default.
B. The motion must show that his failure to answer was due to FAME and that he has a
M. Defense.
15. A default will not be issued in cases of:
a. Annulment of marriage
b. declaration of nullity of marriage
c legal separation
16. Rules on specific denials in the answer to a complaint
1. answer to the complaint must specifically deny the material averments in the complaint because material
averments not specifically denied are deemed admitted.
2. if answer admits the material averments in the complaint, the answer is deemed to have failed to tender
issue. Since no triable issue, a trial is completely unnecessary. (P may then file a motion for J on the pleadings)
17. Rules on pretrial:
1. After last pleading has been served and filed, it is the duty of the P to promptly move ex parte the case be set
for pretrial.
2. Pre-trial is mandatory and failure to appear thereat by either party will result in adverse consequences for the
absent party.
3. In pre- trial, the parties consider amicable settlement or submission for ADR.
4. during pre-trial, and generally at any time before pre-trial or trial, the parties may obtain information from
each other through modes of discoveries like depositions, interrogatories to parties, request for admission, production
and inspection of documents and PME.
18. During trial, the D believes that the P is not entitled to such relief, what is his remedy
- instead of presenting his evidence, he may file demurrer to evidence after the P rests his case.
NOTE: Trial is not an indispensable stage of civil action.
19. What are the possible effect of Demurrer to evidence:
a. Granted: dismissed. However, if on appeal, the dismissal is reversed, the D is deemed to have waived his right
to present evidence.
b. Denied: D may still present his evidence.
20. what is judgment?
- It is the decision of the court and represents its official determination of the respective rights and obligations of the
parties to the case.
- there is no oral judgment. It has to be in writing, personally and directly prepared by the judge, stating clearly the facts
and the law on which it is based, signed by him and filed with the clerk of court.
21. what are the remedies before the judgment becomes final and executory?
1. MR
2. MNT
3. Appeal
22. what are the remedies after the judgment has become final and executory?
- Extraordinary remedies:
1. petition for relief
2. action to annul the judgment
3. certiorari
4. or even an attack against the judgment collaterally when the nullity of the judgment is plain and evident on its
face.
23. what is remedial law?
- is the traditional term given to the rules which prescribe the procedure for the protection and enforcement of all
claims arising from the rights and duties created by law.
24. substantive law distinguished from remedial law
- substantial law creates, defines and regulates rights and duties concerning liberty or property. The violation of which
gives rise to cause of action. Remedial law prescribes the methods of enforcing those rights and obligations created by
substantive law.
25. neypes vs Ca
- standardized the period for appeal by allowing a fresh period of 15 days within which to file the notice of appeal in the
RTC, counted from receipt of the order dismissing a motion for a NT or MR.
26. what is equity jurisdiction? Application of equity
- EJ used to descrive the power of the court to resolve issues presented in a case, in accordance with the natural rules of
fairness and justice. Equity, however, is not to be applied in all cases. It does not apply when there is a law applicable to
a given case.
27. what is the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
- where courts have concurrent jurisdiction over a SM, the doctrine of hierarchy of courts should be observed. Under
this doctrine, a case must be filed before the lowest court possible having the appropriate jurisdiction, except if one can
advance a special reason which would allow a party a direct resort to a higher court.
28. what is the doctrine of non-interference of judicial stability?
- this principle holds that courts of equal and coordination jurisdiction cannot interfere with each other’s orders. Hence,
RTC has no power or authority to nullify or enjoin the enforcement of a writ of possession issued by another RTC. Co-
equal courts are also barred from reviewing or interfering with the judgment of another RTC.
29. distinguish courts of general vs special jurisdiction
a. Courts of GJ are those with competence to decide on their own jurisdiction and take cognizance of all cases.
Courts of SJ are those which have a special jurisdiction only for a particular purpose or are clothed with special
powers for the performance of specified duties beyond which they have no authority of any kind.
b. a court is also considered G if it has the competence to exercise jurisdiction over cases not falling within the
jurisdiction of any court, tribunal, person or body exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
30. Error of jurisdiction versus error of judgment
1. E. jurisdiction is one where the act complained of was issued by the court without or in excess of jurisdiction.
It occurs when the court exercises a jurisdiction not conferred by the law. Such judgment is void, it may be
struck down at any time, even on appeal.
2. E. of judgment presupposes that a court has jurisdiction over the SM, but in the process of exercising, it
committed mistakes in the appreciation of the facts and evidence leading to erroneous judgment. Such
judgment is not void.
31. what are the aspects of jurisdiction?
1. jurisdiction over the SM- the power of the court to hear the type of case that is then before it. Following this
definitions, RA, PA or actions of incapable of PE are to be considered as SM.
- J. over SM is conferred by the law.
- determined in the allegations of the complaint.
SUMMARY PROCEDURE
39. what are civil cases subject to Summary Procedure
a. all cases of FE and UD irrespective of the amount of damages or unpaid rentals
b. all other cases where the total amount of the P’s claim does not exceed 100k (outside MM) or 200k (w/in
MM) exclusive of interest and costs.
NOTE: 1. All pleadings covered by SP shall be verified.
2. Answer: within 10-D from service of summons, the D shall file an answer to the complaint and serve
a copy thereof on the P.
3. Effect of failure to answer: the court, motu proprio, or on motion of the P, shall render judgment as
may be warranted by the facts alleged in the complaint.
4. Appeal: judgment/ FO of the MTC is appealable to RTC. The RTC decide on the basis of the entire
record of the proceedings. The decision of RTC is appealable to CA by petition for review on an error of
facts or law.
40. What are Prohibited pleadings and motion in SP?
1. MD except: failure to comply with the Brgy conciliation proceedings and lack of jurisdiction
2. MBP
3. MNT/MR
4. PRJ
5. motion for extension of time to file pleadings, affidavits
6. Memoranda
7. petition for CPM against any interlocutory order
8. Motion to declare defendant in default
9. Dilatory motions for postponement
10. reply
11. 3rd part complaint
12. intervention
NOTE: ALLOWED: C,CCC, CC, Answer to these pleadings
60. Entity without a juridical personality as a defendant, how are they sued?
- when 2 or more persons not organized as an entity with juridical personality enter into a transaction, they may be sued
under the name by which they are generally or commonly known.
61. what is the effect when a party impleaded is not authorized to be a party?
a. where a P is not a N/J/E a motion to dismiss may be filed on the ground that “the P has no legal capacity to
sue”.
b. where the D who is not N/J/E, the complaint may be dismissed on the ground that the “pleading asserting the
claim states no COA” or “failure to SCOA”
62. what is citizen suit?
- may be filed by any Filipino citizen in representation of others, including minors or generations yet unborn, to enforce
rights or obligations under environmental laws.
63. who is an indispensable party?
- is a real party in interest without whom no final determination can be had of an action
64. who is a necessary party?
- One who is not indispensable but who ought to be joined as a party to case if complete relief is to be accorded.
65. what is the duty of pleader if a necessary party is not joined; effect
- the pleader shall set forth the name of the NP, if his name is known, and state why such party is omitted.
66. when court may order joinder of a necessary party?
- if the reason given is found by the court to be unmeritorious, it may order the omitted party if jurisdiction over his
person may be obtained.
67. what is the effect of failure to comply with the order of the court?
- the failure to comply with the order of the court to include a NP, without justifiable cause shall be deemed a waiver of
the claim against such party.
68. unwilling co-plaintiff
- if he refuses to be a party, he may be a.) made a defendant and, b.) the reason therefor shall be stated in the
complaint.
69. alternative defendant
- where the P cannot identify among 2 or more persons should be impleaded as a D, he may join all of them as
defendant in the alternative.
70. what if the identity or name of D is unknown?
- he may be sued as the unknown owner, heir, devisee or by such other designation as the case may require; when his
identity or true name is discovered, the pleading must be amended accordingly.
71. action of court upon notice of death; effect of death of the case
a. if the claim survives, the court shall order the legal representatives of the deceased to appear within 30-D from notice.
b. if the heirs of the deceased may be allowed to be substituted for the deceased, there is no more need for executor or
administrator.
c. it is possible that the court may order the opposing party to procure the appointment of an E/A for the estate of the
deceased. This may happen when: 1.) The counsel does not name a legal rep; 2.) there is a representative named but
failed to appear within specified period.
72. what are the requisites for the class suit?
a. the SM of the controversy must be of common or general interest to many persons
b. the persons are so numerous that it is impractical to join all as parties
c. the parties actually before the court are sufficiently numerous and representative as to fully protect the interests of all
concerned; and
d. the representatives sue or defend for the benefit of all.
73. what is ultimate facts?
- the facts essential to a party’s COA or defense, or such facts as are so essential that they cannot be stricken out.
74. significance of signature of a counsel
- his signature constitutes a certificate by him that:
a. he has read the pleading
b. to the best of knowledge and belief, there is a good ground to support it
c. it is not interposed for delay