(i)

ZOOLOGY
1 Protozoa
2 Porifera
3 Coelenterate
4 Helminthes
5 Annelida
6 Arthropoda
7 Mollusca and Echinodermata
8 Chordate
9 Embryology
_________

PROTOZOA
(FIRST ANIMALS)

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Chief function of contractile vacuole in Protozoa is
(a) Respiration (b) Nutrition
(c) Circulation (d) Osmo-regulation
2. If a protozoan has two contractile vacuoles instead of one it suggests that it
(a) Drinks more water
(b) Excretes more nitrogenous wastes
(c) Its respiratory rate is high
(d) The temperature of environment is very low
3. The class of phylum Protozoa to which Amoeba belongs is
(a) Rhizopoda (b) Flagellata
(c) Sporozoa (d) Ciliata
4. Which of the following has only one host?
(a) Plasmodium vivax (b) Entamoeba histolytica

i
 (ii)
(c) Taenia solium (d) Amoeba proteus
5. Members of class Sporozoa are generally characterized by
(a) Flagella (b) Chlorophyll
(c) Parasitism (d) Cilia
6. Eitglena moves with the help of
(a) Cilia (b) Undulating membrane
(c) Pseudopodia (d) Flagellum
7. Pseudopodia are formed in Amoeba
(a) When it comes in contact with food particle
(b) By movement of surrounding water
(c) By exchange of salt with the medium
(d) By sol-gel transformation of cytoplasm
8. Nitrogenous wastes in Amoeba are expelled out through
(a) Contractile vacuole (b) Hyaline cap
(c) Plasmalemma (d) Pseudopodia
9. An Amoeba living in fresh water respires by means of
(a) Contractile vacuole (b) Food vacuole
(c) Piasnialemma (d) Pseudopodia
10. Which organeile of Amoeba corresponds to the kidney of man?
(a) Plasmalemrna (b) Food vacuole
(c) Contractile vacuole (d) Nucleus
11. The method of food intake of Amoeb-i is called
(a) Holophytic (b) Holozoic
(c) Saprozoic (d) Sapropbytic
32. If Amoeba is placed in salt water its contractile vacuole will
(a) Enlarge (b) Multiply
(c) Disappear (d) Burst
13. Contents of food vacuole in Amoeba are
(a) First acidic and then alkaline
(b) First alkaline and then acidic
(c) Acidic throughout
(d) Alkaline throughout
14. In favourable conditions reproduction in Amoeba is through
(a) Encysimect (b) Binary fission
(c) Conjugation (d) Endomixis
15. Food vacuole of Amoeba is analogous to
(a) Living rabbit
(b) Almentary canal of rabbit

ii
 (iii)
(c) Stomach of rabbit
(d) Mouth of rabbit

16. Amoeba is
(a) Parasitic (b) Heterotrophic
(c) Saprophytic (d) Autotropic
17. A full grown Amoeba undergoes binary fission. The total surface area of one daughter
amoeba soon after division is likely to be
(a) Same as that of parent amoeba
(b) Equal to half of the parent amoeba
(c) Only slightly less than half of parent amoeba
(d) Slightly more than half of parent amoeba
18. Entamoeba histolyiica is found in
(a) Rectum of man (b) Intestine of man
(c) Oral cavity of man (d) Stomach of man
19. Amoebic dysentry is caused by
(a) Amoeba proteus (b) Entemeoba histolytica
(c) Plasmodium vivax (d) Taenia sol turn
20. Entamoeba histolytica is a kind of amoeba living in the human intestine. It will soon die if
kept in freshwater because
(a) It has no contractile vacuole
(b) It has no food vacuole
(c) It has no pseudopodia
(d) It will have no food
21. Entamoeba histolytica is
(a) A blood parasite (b) An intestinal parasite
(c) A free-living flagellate
(d) Malarial parasite
22. Entamoeba gingivalis lives in the
(a) Intestine of man (b) Human gums
(c) Liver of sheep (d) Stomach of frog
23. How many amoebae are hatched from a single cyst of Entamoeba histolytica
(a) 8 (b) 4
(c) 2 (d) 1
24. Entamoeba histolytica does not have
(a) Nucleus (b) Food vacuole
(c) Cbromatin material (d) Contractile vacuole
25. If Entamoeba histolytica is kept in fresh water it will begin to
(a) Multiply (b) Shrink

iii
 (iv)
(c) Form cyst around it
(d) Increase in size until it bursts
26. Trophozoites of Entomoeba reproduce by
(a) Binary fission (b) Conjugation
(c) Autogamy (d) Budding
27. Transmission and infection of Entamoeba histolytica is through
(a) Insect bite (b) Bird droppings
(c) Sweat
(d) Food or water contaminated with faucal mailer containing
28. Life-history of malarial parasite is
(a) Monogenetic (b) Digenetic
(c) Polygenetic (d) Independent
29. Infective stage of Plasmodium vivax is known as
(a) Schizoint (b) Merozoite
(c) Sporozoite (d) Ookinete
30. Completion of life-cycle of malarial parasite needs
(a) Culex mosquito (b) Bed-bug
(c) Anopheles mosquito (d) Tse-tse fly
31. Relationship between malaria and mosquito was discovered by
(a) Ronald ross (b) Rossenhof
(c) Pasteur (d) Harvey
32. Liver cells of man are infected by Plasmodium at
(a) Pre-ers throcytic cycle (b) Erythrocytic cycle
(c) Gamogony (d) Sporogony
33. Micro—and megagametes in Plasmodium form
(a) Oocysts (b) Ookinetes
(c) Zygotes (d) Sporozoites

34. Schizont is a stage in the life-history of malarial parasite occurring in

(a) RBC of man
(b) Stomach of Anopheles
(c) Salivary glands of Anopheles
(d) Blood of Anopheles
35. Development of gametocytes of malarial parasite takes place
(a) In the stomach of female anopheles mosquito
(b) In the stomach of male anopheles mosquito
(c) In the blood of man

iv
 (v)
(d) In the salivary gland of anopheles mosquito
36. Erythrocytic phase of life-cycle of malarial parasite occurs in
(a) Blood of man
(b) Liver of man
(c) Reticulo-endothelial cells of man
(d) Malpighian tubules of mosquito
37. Asexual reproduction during schizogony of malarial parasite is a kind of
(a) Binary fission (b) Budding
(c) Fragmentation (b) Multiple fission
38. Exflagellation in the life-history of malarial parasite takes place in the
(a) Human host
(b) Lumen of the stomach of female mosquito
(c) Stomach wail of female mosquito
(d) Salivary glands of mosquito
39. In the life-history of malarial parasite trophozoite stage is represented in
(a) Sporogony
(b) Salivary glands of mosquito
(c) RBC (d) none of the above
40. Which form of Plasmodium escapes during digestion in the alimentary caaal of mosquito?
(a) Sporozoite (c) Trophozoite
(b) Gametocyte (d) Merozoite
41. In Plasmodium an oocyst is formed in the
(a) Blood of man
(b) Stomach wall of female mosquito
(c) RBC of man (d) liver cells of man
42. Sexual phase in the life-history of Plasmodium occurs in the
(a) Body cavity of mosquito
(b) Blood of man
(c) Gut of mosquito
(d) Salivary glands of mosquito
43. Resultant cells of schizogony in the life-cycle of malarial parasite are
(a) Schizonts (b) Merozoites
(c) Ookinetes (d) Sporozoites
44. Malarial parasite could best be obtained from a patient
(a) One hour before the rise of temperature
(b) When temperature rises with rigor
(c) When temperature comes normal
(d) Five hours after the temperature reaches normal

v
 (vi)
45. A fertilized egg of malarial parasite on the outside of mosquito’s stomach is known as
(a) Oocyst (b) Ookinete
(c) Sporocyst (d) Garnetocyst
46. Spraying of oil on stagnant water controls malaria because
(a) Water becomes impure for mosquito
(b) Mosquito larvae cannot breathe
(c) Oil kills malarial parasites inside the body of mosquito
(d) Specific gravity of water increases
47. Shivering characteristic of malaria occurs when
(a) Merozoites are liberated from RBC with toxin
(b) Schizonts enter the RBC
(c) Schizonts are on the reticulo-enothelial cells
(d) Signet-ring is formed
48. Which is the most widely accepted theory of locomotion in Amoeba?
(a) Walking movement theory
(b) Rolling movement theory
(c) Sol-gel theory
(d) Surface tension theory
49. Which type of pseudopodium is found in Amoeba?
(a) Rhizopodium (b) Actinopodium
(c) Reticulopodiura (d) Axopodium
50. A contractile vacuole in protozoans is chiefly concerned with the process of
(a) Digestion (b) Osmo-regulation
(c) Excretion (d) Assimilation
51. Trypanosoma gambiense causes the disease
(a) Beriberi (b) Scurvy
(c) Sleeping sickness (d) Malaria
52. What is a trichocyst?
(a) Spindle-shaped structure below pellicle
(b) Inter-lacing of adja, cent pseudopodia
(c) Fusion of cilia and flagella
(d) Modification of the contractile vacuole a structure concerned with photosynthesis
53. Movement of food vacuole in Paramecium along a definite path is known as
(a) Cytokinesis (b) Cyclosis
(c) Endomixis (d) Metagenesis
54. What is a vector?
(a) A crease transmitting host
(b) A natural reservoir of disease

vi
 (vii)
(c) A human parasite
(d) A non-pathogenic protozoa
55. Function of the neuro-motor system of Paramecium is the
(a) Co-ordination of ciliary beat
(b) Co-ordination of various stimuli
(c) Control of digestion
(d) Co-ordination of respiratory movement
56. What disease is caused by Entamoeba histolytica 1
(d) Amoebic dysentry (b) Gambia fever
(c) Typhoid (d) Kala azar
57. Example of a phototrophic flagellate is
(a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium
(c) Euglena (d) Plasmodium
58. Malarial parasite is introduced into the blood of man as
(a) Metacryptozoites (b) Cryptozoites
(c) Schizonts (d) Sporozoites
59. Asexual reproduction is of common occurrence in Protozoa because
(a) Sexes have not been differentiated
(b) Large numbers can exploit efficiently localised source of food
(c) Majority of protozoa are parasites
(d) It helps to multiply rapidly
60. One-called animals reproduce by
(a) Budding (b) Splitting
(c) Cutting (d) Regeneration

ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b)
16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (a)
36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (b)

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 (viii)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (a)
56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)

PORIFERA
(SPONGES PORE-BEARERS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Ascon type of canal system is found in
(a) Grantia (b) Leucosolenia
(c) Hyalonema (d) Euspongia
2. alcareous spicules are formed by
(a) Calcoblasts (b) Scleroblasts
(c) Silicoblasts (d) Spongoblasts
3. An example of the class Hexactinellida is
(a) Spongilla (b) Euplectella
(c) Grantia (d) Leucosolenia
4. In the body of a sponge, mesenchyme contains
(a) Pinacocytes (b) Choanocytes
(c) Amoebocytes (d) None of the above
5. Symmetry in an ascon sponge is
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Bilateral
(c) Radial (d) Biradial

6. Ability of replacing lost parts is

(a) Regeneration (b) Reproduction
(c) Budding (d) Autotomy
7. Which one of the following is the most distinctive character of sponges?
(a) They are unicellular (b) They are all marine
(c) They possess special cells called choanocytes
(d) They reproduce asexually
8. Which of the following is not a major function of the canal system in sponges?
(a) It serves for the purpose of nutrition
(b) It helps in gaseous exchange
(c) It takes part in the development of gemmules
(d) It increases the surface area of the animal exposed to water
9. Which of the following cells maintain a current of water in sponges?

viii
 (ix)
(a) Pinacocytes (b) Forocytes
(c) Myocytes (d) Choanocytes
10. The cells of Porifera which form spicules are known as
(a) Collencytes (b) Archeocytes
(c) Osteoblasts (d) Scleroblasts
11. Spicules of sponges are named according to their
(a) Form (b) Size
(c) Colour (d) Number of spines
12. Which of the following gives the most appropriate meaning of choanocytcs?
(a) Reproductive cells (b) Nutritive cells
(c) Spicule-forming cells (d) Excretory cells
13. Pareuchymula is
(a) A free-swimming larva of a sponge
(b) An asexual reproductive bud
(c) The body cavity of a sponge
(d) An opening in the body of a sponge
14. Glass sponges belong to the class
(a) Hyalospongiae (b) Calcispongiae
(c) Demospougiae (d) Sclerospongiae
15. Which of the following is a freshwater sponge?
(a) Leucosolenia (b) Spongilla
(c) Sycon (d) Euplectlla
16. Rhagon type of larva is found in
(a) Spongilla (b) Leucosolenia
(c) Sycon (d) All sponges
17. Which type of canal system is present in the olynthus-stage of a sponge?
(a) Ascon type (b) Sycon type
(c) Leucon type (d) Rhagon type
18. Which of the following systems is absent in sponges?
(a) Nervous (b) Digestive
(c) Excretory (d) Reproductive
19. Choanocytes are present in a sponge
(a) Lining the outer surface
(b) Lining the inner surface
(c) Lining all of the internal cavities
(d) Lining some of the internal cavities
20. Reproductive ceils are formed in the multicellular gonads in sponges. These gonads are
generally formed from
(a) Choanocytes (b) Amoebocytes

ix
 (x)
(c) Pinacocytes (d) Myocytes
21. Which of the following is detrimental to the pearl industry?
(a) Chalina (b) Cliona
(c) Euspongia (d ) Sycon
22. Scientific name of Venus flower basket is
(a) Euplectella (b) Euspongia
(c) Spongilla (d) Leucosolenia
23. Most complicated type of canal system in sponges is the
(a) Euryphylous leuconoid type
(b) Aphodal leuconid type
(c) Diplodal leuconoid type
(d) Rhagon type
24. Skeleton in Demospongiae class is in the form of
(a) Calcareous spicules (b) Siliceous spicules
(c) Spongin fibres (d) All of the above
25. In the process of evolution sponges
(a) Originated from protozoa and gave origin to coelenterata
(b) Originated from protozoa and gave origin to flatworms
(c) Originated from protozoa and gave origin to no other group
(d) Originated independent to protozoa
26. Path of water-current in a syconoid sponge is
(a) Outside  ostia  incurrent canals  prosopyle  radial canal  apopyle  excurrent
canal  spongocoel-» osculum
(b) Outside  ostia  incurrent canal  apopyle  radial canal  prosopyle  excurrent
canal  spongocoel  osculum
(c) Utside  ostia  radial canal  apopyle  incurrent canal  prosopyle  excurrent canal
 osculum
(d) Outside  ostia  incurrent canal  prosopyle  radial canal  apopyle  excurreut
canal sculum
27. Sponges have
(a) Sub-cellular level of organisation
(b) Cellular level of organisation
(c) Tissue level of organisation
(d) Organ level of organisation
28. Which of the following groups is a blindend in the process of evolution?
(d) Porifera (b) Annelida
(c) Echinodermata (d) None of the above
29. Glass-rope sponge is scientifically called
(a) Euplectella (b) Hyalonema

x
 (xi)
(c) Spongilla (d) Scypha
30. Ostia in which of the following sponges are the pore canals through their porocytes?
(a) Sycon (b) Leticosolenia
(c) Spongilla (d) Euplectella
31. Middle layer of bodyll of a sponge is called
(a) Mesonyl (b) Mesogloea
(c) Mesenchyme (d) Mesoderm
32. Gut in sponges is
(a) Absent
(b) Incomplete
(c) Complete
(d) In the form of ostia, spongo coel and osculum

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a)
________

COELENTERATA
(GNI0ARIA)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Alternation of generation in Coelenterata is known as
(a) Metamerism (b) Metaboly
(c) Metagenesis (d) Metacoel
2. Which of the following is not a polyp type of zooid?
(a) Gastrozooid (c) Gonozooid
(b) Dactyizooid (d) Gonophore
3. Sexas are separate in
(a) Hydra (c) Ohelia

xi
 (xii)
(b) Jelly fish (d) most coelenterates
4. Fringing corals belong to the class
(d) Anthozoa (b) Hydrozoa
(c) Scyphozoa (d) Demospongiae
5. Sea-anemones belong to the class
(a) Actinozoa (b) Hydrozoa
(c) Scyphozoa (d) None of the above
6. Siphonoglyphs are present in
(a) Coral polyps (b) Sea-anemones
(c) Jelly fishes (d) Obelia
7. Which of the following is not a coelenterate?
(a) Sea-fur (b) Sea-pansy
(c) Sea-pen (d) Sea-feather
8. Coelenterates have
(a) Neither head nor brain and nerves
(b) Neither head nor brain but nerves are present
(c) No head but brain and nerves are present
(d) Head, brain and nerves
9. Budding is a form of asexual reproduction. These must rate from the parent body in case of
(a) Coral polyps (b) Hydra
(c) Sea-anemones (d) All of the above
10. Coelenterates are
(a) Diploblastic acoelomates
(b) Triploblastic acoelomates
(c) Diploblastic coelomates
(d) Diploblastic pseudocoelomates
11. Which of the following larvae is not met in the phylum Coelenterata?
(a) Planula (b) Actinula
(c) Ephyra (d) Nauplius
12. Which of the following types of cells are present only in the epidermis and not in the
astrodermis of a coelenterate coenosare?
(a) Glandular cells
(b) Nerve cells and sensory cells
(c) Stinging cells and germ cells
(d) None of the above
13. Main contributors to the coral reefs are

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 (xiii)
(a) Hydrozoans (b) Scyphozoans
(c) Anthozoans (d) Sponges
14. Which of the following has no anus but mouth present?
(a) Hydra (b) Aurelia
(c) Sea-anemones and coral polyps
(d) All of the above
15. Function of a dactylozooid in a polymorphic colony is
(a) Nutrition (b) Reproduction
(c) Locomotion (d) Offence and defence
16. Polymorphism is found in
(a) Halistemma (b) Leucernaria
(c) Zoanthus (d) Alcyonium
17. Which of the following inhabits freshwater bodies?
(a) Hydra (b) Hydractinia
(c) Obelia (d) Tubularia
18. Gastro-vascular cavity is divided into compartments in
(a) Hydrozoa (b) Scyphozoa
(c) Anthozoa (d) none of the above
19. Which of the following is an example of soft corals?
(a) Tubipora (b) Heliopora
(c) Alcyonium (d) Gorgonia
20. Which of the following corresponds to the skeleton of each polyp of a coral?
(a) Coenosarc (b) Corallite
(c) Hydrocaulus (d) Corallum
21. Scientific name of the precious red coral is
(a) Tttbipora (b) Fungia
(c) Heliopora (d) Coraltium
22. Chlorohydra viridissima appears green in colour due to the presence of
(a) Chlorophyll in its body
(b) Some other green colouring pigments
(c) Zoochlorella algae in the gastroderm
(d) None of the above
23. Body of Hydra is
(a) Asymmetrical (b) Bilaterally symmetrical
(c) Radially symmetrical (d) Biradially symmetrical

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 (xiv)
24. Hydra is the first multicelluar animal possessing.
(a) Tissues, organ and systems
(b) A mouth
(c) No tissues and organs
(d) Many cells differentiated to perform only one set of function in the body
25. Contraction and relaxation of the body of Hydra is brought about by
(a) Nutritive muscular cells
(b) Epithelio-muscular cells
(c) Interstitial cells
(d) Sensory and nerve cells
26. Most sensitive region of the body of Hydra is
(a) Hypostome (b) Mouth
(c) Basal disc (d) Stalk
27. Nerve cells of Hydra differ from neurons of higher animals of in that they conduct impulses
in
(a) All directions (b) Definite directions
(c) Mesogloea only (d) Gastrodermis only
28. Undifferentiated reserve or formative cells that give rise to any of the other kind of cells in
Hydra are known as
(a) Cnidoblasts (b) Nematocysts
(c) Interstitial cells (d) Sensory cells
29. Nematocysts in Hydra are found inside
(a) Interstitial cells
(b) Cnidoblasts
(c) Epithelio muscular cells
(d) Sensory cells
30. Nematocysts in Hydra are more numerous
(a) On the stalk of the body
(b) On the tentacles
(c) At the basal disc
(d) In the gastrodermis
31. Projecting from the cnidoblast on the outer surface is seen a hair-like process known as
(a) Lasso (b) Cnidocil or trigger
(c) Cnidome (d) Stylet
32. On stimulation the nematocysts shoot out
(a) Within 4 to 5 seconds

xiv
 (xv)
(b) Within 1 to 2 seconds
(c) Within 0.3 to 0.5 second
(d) None of the above
33. Nematoblasts, cnidoblasts or stinging cells are found scattered
(a) Throughout the epidermis except the basal disc
(b) Throughout the gastrodermis
(c) At the basal disc
(d) Throughout
34. Large number of batteries (cnidomes) in Hydra are formed by a group of
(a) Interstitial cells in the epidermis
(b) Cnidoblasts on the tentacles
(c) Cnidoblasts at the basal disc
(d) None of the above
35. The mouth of Hydra opens into the cavity of hypostome which leads into a large spacious
cavity known as
(a) Coelenteron (b) Coelom p
(c) Haemoceol (d) Pseudocoel
36. Proximal end of Hydra bears an adhesive disc which secretes a sticky substance for
(a) Protection (b) Defence from enemies
(c) Sexual attraction (d) Attachment
37. Cells of blastula in Hydra divide repeatedly and tangentially forming many cells which
migrate inwards from all directions (multipolar migration) and fill in the blastocoel. This
process is called
(a) Imagination (c) Involution
(c) Immigration (d) Delamination
38. In Hydra, between the epidermis and gastrodermis an intermediate structureless layer is
found. This is known as
(a) Mesogloea (b) Musculo-endothelium
(c) Mesohyl (d) Endodermis
39. Hydra is negatively chemotropic because it
(a) Moves away from strong light
(b) Prefers weak illumination
(c) Moves to water of low temperature
(d) Avoids chlorinated water
40. Digestion of food within the gastro-vascular cavity of Hydra is called
(a) Intercellular digestion
(b) Intracellular digestion

xv
 (xvi)
(c) Cellular digestion
(d) Extra corporeal digestion
41. Which of the following types of movement is shown by Hydra?
(a) Looping (b) Wriggling
(c) Amoeboid (d) Flagellar
42. If Hydra has to propagate successfully in a drying pond what method of reproduction will it
adopt?
(a) Parthenogenesis
(b) Budding
(c) Sexual (encystment of embryo)
(d) Sporogony
43. What happens to Hydra when it is cut transversly into two halves?
(a) Building up of the lost parts by each piece
(b) Re-union of the two halves
(c) Wound healing (d) Death
44. Process of digestion in Hydra is
(a) Purely extracellular (b) Purely intracellular
(c) Both extra-and intracellular
(d) None of the above
45. Spermatogonia in Hydra develop from
(a) Interstitial cells
(b) Gastrodermis
(c) Musculo-endothelial cells
(d) Gland cells
46. Hydra is a small solitary animal and is generally found
(a) Free-floating in sea water
(b) Attached to some objects in sea water
(c) Attached to some objects in ponds and lakes
(d) Free-floating in ponds and lakes
47. Attachment of Hydra is brought about by a sticky secretion produced by the
(a) Stalk (b) Basal disc
(c) Hypostome (d) Tentacles
48. Hydra is an acoeloraate because
(a) It has a dipioblastic body
(b) Gastrovascular cavity is not derived from mesoderm
(c) No space occurs between body wall and enteron

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 (xvii)
(d) Animals have only tissues
49. Nitrogenous waste matter of Hydra is
(a) Ammonia (b) Creatine
(c) Uric acid (d) Urea
50. Hydra is
(a) Ureotelic (b) Uricotelic
(c) Ammonotelic (d) Osmoconformer

ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (b)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a)
36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (a)
46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)

HELMINTHES
(WORMS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. In man Ascaris is found in
(a) Blood vessels (b) Intestine
(c) Muscles (d) Body cavity
2. In Ascaris lumbricoides
(a) Male is larger than female
(b) Excretion is carried out by nephridia
(c) Body cavity is a true coelom
(d) None of the above

xvii
 (xviii)
3. Cuticle in Ascaris is an adaptation for
(a) Parasitism (b) Growth
(c) Reproduction (d) Locomotion
4. Ascaris is
(a) Unisexual (b) bisexual
(c) Non-sexual (d) sexual
5. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
(a) Mosquito bite
(b) Tse-tse fly
(c) Contaminated vegetables and water
(d) Imperfectly cooked meat
6. Which of the following has no intermediate host
(a) Taenia (b) Asciris
(c) Plasmodium (d) Fasciola
7. Roundworm Ascaris can be called as specialized and not degenerate (with reference to
parasitism) because
(a) It is dioecious
(b) Its respiratory organs are absent
(c) Its cuticle over the body wall is resistant to the host’s digestive juices p
(d) It has in uncoiled alimentary canal
8. Male Ascaris is identified by its
(a) Curved tail (b) Short and thinner body
(c) Paired pineal setae (d) All of the above
9. In Ascaris the ectodermis is known as
(a) Syncytial ectodermis (b) Tubular ectodermis
(c) Segmented ectodermis (d) None of the above
10. Lips of Ascaris are
(a) Cartilaginous (b) Bony
(c) Denticulate (d) Horn
11. A proglottid is called gravid proglottid when it has
(a) Both male and female reproductive units well developed
(b) Only female reproductive unit well developed
(c) Only male reproductive unit well developed
(d) Branched uterus filled with fertilized eggs
12. Trematodes are usually described as
(a) Blood flukes (b) Flukes

xviii
 (xix)
(c) Worms (d) Flatworms
13. Mature proglottids of tapeworm are
(a) Longer than broad (b) Very long
(c) Broader than long (d) Squarish
14. Disease in man caused by the infection of bladderworm’s is known as
(a) Schistosomiasis (b) Teaniasis
(b) Cysticercosis (d) Enterobiasis
15. Excretory organs of Platyhelminthes are
(a) Kidneys (b) Nephridia
(c) Flame cells (d) Solenocytes

16. Blood-fluke (Schistosoma) belongs to the class

(a) Trematoda (b) Turbellaria
(c) Cestoda (d) Ctenophora
17. There is only a single host in the life-history of
(a) Roundworm (b) Tapeworm
(c) Schistosoma (d) Fasciola
18. The scientific name of roundworm is Ascaris lumbricoides. The name lumbricoides refers to
the
(a) Species (b) Subspecies
(c) Genus (d) Family
19. In Ascaris lumbricoides, the males and females can be identified externally by certain
characters. This phenomenon is called
(a) Polymorphism (b) Dimorphism
(c) Anisogamy (d) Regeneration
20. Pseudocoelom is a body cavity found in
(a) Hydra (b) Ascaris
(c) Pheretima (d) Sycon
21. Rhabditid form larva is a stage in the life-history of
(a) Fasdola (b) Ascaris
(c) Taenia (d) Schistosoma
22. Outer layer of the body wall of Fasdola has a
(a) Smooth cuticle (b) Ciliated epidermis
(c) Non-ciliated epidermis (d) Spiny cuticle
23. Fasdola hepatica is a parasite that lives in the
(a) Intestine of sheep (b) Liver of sheep

xix
 (xx)
(c) Spleen of sheep (d) Pancreas of sheep
24. In Fasdola the germ cells of the redia give rise to
(a) Daughter cercaria (b) Daughter sporocysts
(c) Daughter redia (d) Daughter metacercaria
25. In tapeworm fertilization is affected by
(a) Self-fertilization in a segment
(b) Fusion of gametes between two parasites
(c) Fusion of gametes between adjacent segments
(d) A combination of both ‘a’ and ‘b’
26. In helminths flame cells are units of
(a) Excretory system (b) Reproductive system
(c) Vascular system (d) Respiratory system
27. Miracidium is one of the stages in the development of
(a) Fasdola hepatica (b) Taenia solium
(c) Ascaris lumbricoides (d) Planaria
28. Spines are seen in the cuticle of
(a) Planaria (b) Taenia
(c) Echinococcus (d) Fasdola
29. Females of Ascaris are
(a) Smaller than males (b) Equal in size to males
(c) Larger than males (d) Rarely found
30. Epidermal chords of Ascaris contain
(a) Excretory canals (b) Uterus
(c) Nerves (d) Blood vessels
31. Body organisation of Ascaris represents
(a) Cellular plan
(b) Tissue-grade of construction derived from three layers
(c) organ-system grade of construction derived from two Layers
(d) Organ-system grade of construction derived from three layers
32. Number of ganglia associated with circumenteric ring around the pharynx of Ascaris is
(a) Five (b) Ten
(c) Six (d) Seven
33. Excretory pore of Ascaris is located
(a) Mid-dorsally (b) Mid-ventrally
(c) Antero-posteriory (d) Laterally
34. Double post-anal papillae of Ascaris assist in

xx
 (xxi)
(a) Tangoreception (b) Photoreception
(c) Chemoreception (d) Copulation
35. Fertilization of eggs in Ascaris takes place in
(a) Vagina (b) Proximal end of uterus
(c) Oviduct (d) Distal end of uterus
36. Mouth in Ascaris is
(a) Posterior and terminal (b) Anterior and terminal
(c) Median and terminal (d) Ventral in position
37. Excretory pore in Ascaris is located very near to the
(a) Anterior end dorsally (b) Posterior end dorsaily
(c) Anterior end ventrally (d) Posterior end ventrally
38. After batching the juvenile Ascaris first reaches
(a) Hepatic portal circulation by boring through the intestinal epithelium
(b) Heart through the post caval vein
(c) Lungs through the pulmonary arteries
(d) Blood capillaries supplying the alveoli of lungs
39. Juvenile Ascaris becomes adult
(a) After the fourth moult
(b) As it reaches the lungs
(c) After the third moult in blood capillaries of lungs
(d) After 4—6 days of free-living existence
40. Average life-span of Ascaris lumbricoides in the host is
(a) Two years (b) Ten years
(c) 9-12 months (d) 4-6 months
41. Disease caused by Ascaris
(a) Is ascariasis
(b) Results in extensive haemorrhage
(c) Is indicated by high temperature, anaemia leucocytosis and eosinophilia
(d) All of the above
42. Ascaris receives food through
(a) Contents of host intestine
(b) Sucking blood from intestinal wall
(c) Using metabolites present in the blood and intestinal bolus of host
(d) All of the above
43. Toxins produced by Ascaris in the host cause
(a) Convulsions

xxi
 (xxii)
(b) Delirium [light-headedness]
(c) Coma [deep sleep] and nervousness
(d) All of the above
44. Children suffering from the infection of Ascaris exhibit stunted growth because
(a) They don’t eat well
(b) A substance produced by Ascaris combines with trypsin of host causing interference with the
utilization of proteins
(c) All the proteins of the host are used up by Ascaris
(d) Acute hormonal disturbances are caused by toxins of Ascaris
45. Infection of Ascaris can be diagnosed by
(a) Examining stool for Ascaris eggs
(b) Making blood test
(c) Estimating total proteins
(d) Urine test
46. Gamete formation in Ascaris is
(a) By budding off gametogonia from the gonads
(b) Telogonic
(c) Accomplished through a zonated sequence consisting of germinal, growth and maturation
zones
(d) All of the above
47. Spermatozoa of Ascaris are
(a) Amoeboid (b) Ciliated
(c) With a long flagellum (d) With 2 flagella
48. Copulation in Ascaris takes place
(a) In the small intestine of host
(b) In the stomach of host
(c) In the rectum of host
(d) Outside the body of host
49. During copulation
(a) Male orients its body at right angle to the female
(b) Cloacal aperture of male is apposed to the vulva of female
(c) Penial setae of male help to open the vulva
(d) All of the above
50. Second maturation division of ova in Ascaris occurs
(a) As the ova migrate from the proliferation to maturation zone
(b) After fertilization

xxii
 (xxiii)
(c) After deposition of sperms in the vagina
(d) None of the above

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (b)
36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (a)
46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (d) 50. (a)

ANNELIDA
(SEGMENTED WORMS/METAMERIC WORMS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Role of typhlosole in the intestine of earthworm is to
(a) Control the flow of blood
(b) Increase absorptive surface
(c) Increase digestive surface
(d) Increase both digestive and absorptive surface
2. Locomotion in earthworm is directly facilitated by
(a) Mucous secreted by epithelium
(b) Segmentation of the body
(c) Rhythmic contraction of individual segments
(d) Setae
3. In earthworm chloragogen cells perform
(a) Digestive function (b) Excretory function

xxiii
 (xxiv)
(c) Reproductive function (d) Sensory function
4. Earthworm respires through
(a) Clitellum (b) Ctenidia
(c) Moist skin (d) Typhlosole
5. In Pheretima exonephric excretion takes place by
(a) Integumentary nephridia
(b) Septal nephridia r
(c) Pharyngeal nephridia
(d) Integumentary and pharyngeal nephridia
6. Chloragogen cells have analogy with the vertebrate
(a) Heart (b) Kidney
(c) Liver (d) Brain
7. Blood from seminal vesicles is collected by
(a) Lateral oescphageal vessels
(b) Ventral blood vessel
(c) Ventro-tegumentary vessels
(d) Commissural vessels
8. Blood is red but there are no red blood cells in
(a) Frog (b) Cockroach
(c) Mosquito (d) Earthworm
9. In earthworm sperms are stored in
(a) Spermathecae (b) Prostrate glands
(c) Ovaries (d) Oviduct
10. Cocoon of Pheretima is a
(a) Structure in digestive system
(b) Container for sperms
(c) Container for sperms and ova
(d) Container for ova
11. “Tube within a tube” plan exists in which one of the following?
(a) Frog (b) Scorpion
(c) Earthworm (d) Unio
12. Segment of earthworm in which the mouth is situated is called as
(a) Presoma (b) Prostomium
(c) Peristomium (d) Metasoma
13. Clitellum in Indian earthworm includes
(a) First three segments (b) 14, 15 and 16 segments

xxiv
 (xxv)
(c) Last 3 segments (d) 9, 10 and 11 segments
14. Pharyngeal nephridia of earthworm are situated in the segments
(a) 3, 4, 5 (b) 4, 5, 6
(c) 5, 6, 7 (a) 6, 7, 8
15. Structures typically represented in every body segment of earthworm are
(a) Ganglia (b) Lateral hearts
(c) Genital ducts (d) Septal nephridia
16. A single female genital pore in earthworm is localised in
(a) 14th segment mid-ventrally
(b) 14th segment mid-dorsally
(c) 18th segment mid-venrally
(d) Last segment of postclitellar region near the anus
17. In earthworm chromophil cells are found in
(a) Pharyngeal gland (b) Respiratory cell
(c) Sensory cell (d) Vascular system
18. Blood glands of Pheretima are concerned with
(a) Blood formation (b) Excretion
(c) Digestion (d) None of the above
19. Difference between septal and pharyngeal nephridia in earthworm relates to the
(a) Straight lobe (b) Funnel
(c) Origin (d) Mode of action
20. Spermathecae of Pheretima represent
(a) Coating over sperms
(b) Structures for storing sperms
(c) Male copulatory organs
(d) Female copulatory organs
21. In earthworm typhlosole is a part of
(a) Reproductive tract (b) Intestine
(c) Circulatory system (d) Nephridia
22. Origin of a nephridium is
(a) Germinal (b) Ectodermai
(c) Mesodermal (d) Endodermal
23. In earthworm the Spermathecae are used for
(a) Development of ova (b) Development of sperms
(c) Storing spermatozoa (d) Storing ova
24. In earthworm testes are enclosed in the segments

xxv
 (xxvi)
(a) 17 & 19 (b) 9 & 10
(c) 4 & 8 (d) 10 & 11
25. In earthworm ovaries are situated in the
(a) 18th segment (b) 10th segment
(c) 13th segment (d) 11th segment
26. In Polychaeta the setae are
(a) Numerous
(b) Singly arranged
(c) Arranged in bundles
(d) Fused
27. Presence of coelom and metamerism are the most important characters in
(a) Helminths (b) Arthropods
(c) Annelids (d) Coelenterates
28. Scientific name of lug-worm is
(a) Glycera (b) Neanthes
(c) Artnicola (d) Aphrodite
29. Aphrodite is commonly known as
(a) Lug worm (b) Sand worm
(c) Sea mouse (d) Polalo worm
30. Cuticle of annelids is
(a) Non-chitinous and albuminoid
(b) Chitinous
(c) Chitinous and albuminoid
(d) Non-chitinous
31. Respiration in earthworm is
(a) Cutaneous (b) Pulmonary
(c) Sub-cutaneous (d) All of the above
32. Circulatory system of earthworm is very well developed and
(a) Consists of closed blood vessels without walls
(b) Consists of closed blood vessels with definite walls
(c) Consists of open blood vessels without walls
(d) Consists of open blood vessels with definite walls
33. Body wail of earthworm is devoid of
(a) Cuticle (b) Epidermis
(c) Setae (d) Appendages
34. Excretion in annelids is by

xxvi
 (xxvii)
(a) Kidneys (b) Flame cells
(c) Nephridia (d) Ciliated funnels
35. Phylum Annelida includes segmented worms. Metamerism may be best defined as
(a) Where there is equal distribution of structures in all the segments
(b) External segmentation corresponding with internal segmentation
(c) Segmentation is confined to a particular part
(d) All of the above
36. In Annelida larva is usually absent but when present the larva is called
(a) Pluteus (b) Planula
(c) Trochophore (d) Tornaria
37. Body cavity of earthworm is
(a) Schizocoel (b) Pseudocoelom
(c) Enterocoel (d) None of the above
38. Flow of blood in the dorsal blood vessel of Pheretima is
(a) Backwards (b) Forwards
(c) In both directions (d) Stagnant
39. Lateral hearts in Pheretima are situated in the segments
(a) 12 and 13 (b) 10 and 11
(c) 7 and 9 (d) 17 and 19
40. In earthworm the clitellar region helps in the process of
(a) Copulation (b) Cocoon formation
(c) Digestion (d) Respiration
41. Metamerism is characteristic of
(a) Plalyhelminthes (b) Nemathelminthes
(c) Annelida (d) Nemertinea
42. Function of dorsal pores in earthworm is
(a) Respiration (b) Elimination of wastes
(c) Exudation of body fluids (d) None of the above
43. Which of the following segments possess seminal vesicles in earthworm?
(a) 10 and 11 (b) 13 and 14
(c) 17 and 19 (d) 11 and 12
44. Earthworm makes burrows
(a) In soft soil rich in humus by mere pushing in of the body
(b) In the compact soil by the thin tapering anterior end assisted by hydrostatic pressure of the
fluid-filled coelomic compartment
(c) Due to habit of swallowing soil

xxvii
 (xxviii)
(d) All of the above
45. Setae are organs of locomotion which help the earthworm
(a) As levers while moving
(b) To grip the soil while moving on the surface or in the burrow
(c) In balancing
(d) all of the above
46. In earthworm the film of moisture necessary for the diffusion of gases though body surface is
supplied by
(a) Nephridial excretion
(b) Mucous glands of the epidermis
(c) Coelomic fluid (d) All of the above
47. Alimentary canal of earthworm is a straight tube between mouth and anus and is divided
into
(a) Fore gut, mid gut and hind gut
(b) Oesophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine and rectum
(c) Buccal chamber, pharynx, oesophagus, gizzard, stomach, intestine and rectum
(d) All of the above
48. Buccal chamber of earthworm extends from
(a) 1st to the middle of 3rd segment
(b) 2nd to 3rd segments
(c) 2nd to 4th segments (d) 1st to 4th segments
49. In the body cavity of earthworm intestinal caecae arise in the
(a) 24th segment (b) 25th segment
(c) 26th segment (d) 27th segment
50. A living earthworm constantly keeps protruding and retracting its buccal chamber to
(a) Assist in locomotion (b) help in respiration
(c) Pick up earth panicles (d) Excrete metabolic wastes

ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a)
6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c)
26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (a)

xxviii
 (xxix)

31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d)
46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (c) 50. (c)

ARTHROPODA ANNELIDA
(JOINT-FOOTED ANIMALS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Limbs in arthropods are basically +
(a) Uniramous (b) Biramous
(c) Triramous (d) Absent
2. Basal piece of an arthropod limb is unbranched and is called
(a) Protopodite (b) Endopodite
(c) Exopodite (d) none of these
3. Exoskeleton in arthropods is made of
(a) Conchiolin
(b) Albumen
(c) Chitin
(d) Hard dead brown protein
4. Chitinous plates making the exoskeleton in arthropods are called
(a) Tergites (b) Sternites
(c) Pleurites (d) Sclerites
5. Chitinous exoskeleton in arthropods is present
(a) Covering the body on outerside
(b) Lining the stomodaeum on innerside
(c) Lining the proctodaeum on innerside
(d) All of the above
6. Casting off the exoskeleton in arthropods is called
(a) Moulting (b) Metamorphosis
(c) Ecdysis (d) All of the above
7. Body of an insect is divisible into
(a) Cephalothorax and abdomen
(b) Head, trunk and abdomen

xxix
 (xxx)
(c) Prosoma and opisthosoma (mesosoma and metasoma)
(d) Head, thorax and abdomen
8. Which of the following arthropods have usually two pairs of antennae?
(a) Myriapods (b) Crustaceans
(c) Insects (d) Arachnids
9. Which of the following arthropods have usually one pair of antennae?
(b) Crustaceans (a) Myriapods
(c) Insects (d) Arachnids
10. A variable number of abdominal appendages are mostly found in
(a) Myriapods and crustaceans
(b) Insects and arachnids
(c) Myriapods, crustaceans and arachnids
(d) Insects
11. General body cavity of an arthropod is called a
(a) Haemocoel (b) Pseudocoel
(c) Coelom (d) Gastrocoel
12. Which of the following respiratory organs are not met amongst arthropods?
(a) Tracheae (b) Gills and book-gills
(c) Book-lungs (d) None of the above
13. Which of the following is lined by the chitin?
(a) Proctodaeum and stomodaeum
(b) Mesenteron
(c) All of the above (d) None of the above
14. Which of the following is incorrect for excretion in arthropods?
(a) A pair of nephridia opening on the bases of second antennae
(b) Malpighian tubules in insects and many others
(c) Malpighian tubules and coxal glands in arachnids
(d) None of the above
15. From which phylum onwards sexes are always separate?
(a) Nemathelminthes (b) Annelida
(c) Arthropoda (d) Protozoa
16. Wood-lice belong to the class
(a) Crustacea (b) Arachnida
(c) Insecta (d) Myriapoda
17. Of all the known species of animals, insects are about
(a) 20% (b) 50%

xxx
 (xxxi)
(c) 70% (d) 90%
18. On the underside of the labrum in the mouth parts of insects-there is a small membranous
structure. This bears the organ of taste and is called
(a) Mandiblle (b) Epipharynx
(c) Hypopharynx (d) Labrum-epipharynx
19. Labium is greatly expanded for imbibing liquid food in
(a) Housfly (b) Butterfly
(c) Mosquito (d) Honeybee
20. Legs in insects are
(a) Always 5-jointed (b) Usually 5-jointed
(c) Numerously jointed (d) Unjointed
21. Hssinais
(a) Oviparous (b) Larviparous
(c) Pupiparous (d) Viviparous
22. Different stages separated by ecdyses in insects are called
(a) Stadia (b) Instars
(c) Nymphs (d) Larvae
23. Pupa of a butterfly is known as
(a) Chrysalis (b) Imago
(c) Caterpillar (d) Nymph
24. Five pairs of prolegs are present on the abdomen of
(a) Polypod larva (b) Oligopod larva
(c) Apodous larva (d) All of the above
25. Larvae of housefly and all other Diptera are apodous and are called maggots. These larvae
have
(a) No legs on thorax (b) No legs on abdomen
(c) Reduced head (d) All of the above
26. Larvae of beetles are called
(a) Maggots (b) Naids
(c) caTerpillars (d) Grubs
27. Pupae of housefly are called
(a) Exarate (free) type (b) Obtectate type
(c) Coarctate type (d) Chrysalis
28. In the pupae of mosquitoes legs and wings are bound down to the body by moulting fluid but
they can be seen externally. Such pupae are
(a) Exarate type (b) Obtectate type
(c) Coarctate type (d) Chrysalis

xxxi
 (xxxii)
29. Pupae are most active in case of beetles and are called
(a) Exarate type (b) Obtectate type
(c) Coarctate type (d) Chrysalis
30. Metamorphosis in lice is
(a) Complete (b) Incomplete
(c) Absent (d) None of the above
31. Croton bug is the other name for
(a) American cockroach (Periplaneta americana)
(b) German cockroach (Blatella germanica)
(c) Oriental cockroach (Blatta orientalis)
(d) Black beetle
32. Wings are vestigial in the females of
(a) Blatta orientalis
(b) Blatella germanica
(c) Periplaneta americana
(d) None of the above
33. Wings are shorter and thus do not reach the tip of the abdomen in
(a) Females of all cockroaches
(b) Males of all cockroaches
(c) Females of oriental cockroach
(d) Males of oriental cockroach
34. Eggs of human lice are called
(a) Nits (b) Tumblers
(c) Wrigglers (d) Maggots
35. Plant lice are close associates of
(a) Biting lice (b) Sucking lice
(c) Bugs (d) Fleas
36. Trypanosoma cruzi cww chagas disease or South American trypanosomiasis and is
transmitted by
(a) Kissing bugs (b) Cone-nosed bugs
(c) Assassin bugs (d) Reduvid bugs
37. Eggs are laid in masses or egg-rafts in the case of
(a) Culex (b) Anopheles
(c) Aedes (d) All of the above
38. Egg is boat-shaped and is provided with a float on Cither side in case of
(a) Anopheles (b) Culex

xxxii
 (xxxiii)
(c) Aedes (d) All of the above
39. Mosquito larvae moult
(a) 3 times (b) 4 times
(c) 5 times (d) Many times
40. Rift valley fever of man in Southern Africa is transmitted by
(a) Mosquitoes (b) Anopheles
(c) Culex (d) Aedes
41. Encephalitis in man is a viral disease and is transmitted by
(a) Culex (b) Anopheles
(c) Aedes (d) Aedes and Culex
42. Number of segments in the abdomen of a mosquito is
(a) 9 (b) 6
(c) 10 (d) 11
43. Carrion’s disease (Oroya fever) is transmitted by
(a) Owl midge
(b) Sand fly
(c) Phlebotomus
(d) any of the above as all are the same
44. The first and second pairs of appendages in Arachnids are called respectively as
(a) Chelicerae and pedipalps
(b) Pedipalps and chelicerae
(c) Antennae and antennules
(d) Antennules and antennae
45. The life-cycle of a tick can be represented as
(a) Egg  larvae  adult
(b) Egg  nymph  adult
(c) Egg  larva  nymph  adult
(d) Egg  adult
46. The larva of a tick or a mite has
(a) 3 pairs of legs (b) 4 pairs of legs
(c) No legs (d) Numerous legs
47. Some arthopods like blister beetles contain irritant or poisonous body fluids. Such animals
are called
(a) Nettling species (b) Stinging species
(c) Piercing species (d) Cryptotoxic species
48. In which of the following the sting with the whole poison apparatus breaks during stinging?

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(a) Bees (b) Bumble bees
(c) Wasps (d) Hornets
49. Nettling species of arthropods are
(a) Caterpillars of some moths
(b) Bees, wasps and ants
(c) Scorpions and centipedes
(d) Ticks, mites and spiders
50. Cryptotoxic species of arthopods are
(a) Blister beetles (Spanish flies)
(b) Caterpillars of cabbage butterfly (Pieris brassica)
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (c)
36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (c)

MOLLUSCA & ECHINODERMATA

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Soft and unsegmented coelomate bilaterians, usually with a foot and shell belong to the
phylum
(a) Arthropoda (b) Mollasca
(c) Echinodermata (d) Chordata
2. Mollusc with a metamerically segmented body is

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(a) Pila (b) Sepia
(c) Umax (d) Neopilina galatheae
3. Blood in Mollusca is not red because
(a) Haemoglobin is dissolved in the plasma
(b) Blood plays no role in O2 transport
(c) Plasma contains haemocyanin
(d) Neither of the above
4. The total number of known species of the phylum Mollusca as compared with other phyla is
(a) Largest (b) Smallest
(c) Second largest (d) Neither of the above
5. The largest invertebrate is 6-metre long and belongs to the phylum Mollusca. Mark the
correct answer.
(a) Tridacna deresa (giant clam)
(b) Amicula (chiton)
(c) Hemifusus (Australian spindle-shell)
(d) Architeuthis (giant squid)
6. Mollusca is a sharply defined phylum because
(a) It is a homogenous phylum preserving a remarkable uniformity in the body organisation
(b) It is the largest phylum of the animals after phylum Arthropoda
(c) It has high economic value
(d) Its representatives are harmless to mankind
7. Echinoderms have
(a) Schizocoelous spacious coelom
(b) Enterocoelous spacious coelom
(c) Schizocoelous reduced coelom
(d) Enterocoelous reduced coelom
8. Echinodcrm fossils first appeared in
(a) Cambrian period
(b) Ordovician period
(c) Silurian period
(d) Devonian period
9. Though adult echinoderms are radially pentamerous their larvae are
(a) Irregular (b) Radially pentamerous
(c) Bilaterial (d) Neither of the above
10. Phylum Echinodermat is of great significance because its representatives have
(a) Great economic importance

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(b) A top position amongst all invertebrates
(c) Oldest fossil records
(d) Larvae of great phylogenetic significance
11. The scientific study of Mollusca is known as
(a) Marine biology
(b) Conchology
(c) Aquaculture
(d) Malacology
12. Name of the invertebrate group having both exo-and endo-skeleton
(a) Protozoa
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Mollusca
13. Which of the following is a cephalopod?
(a) Nautibes (b) Octopus
(c) Architeuthis (d) All of the above
14. Glochidium is the larva of
(a) Mussels (b) Snails
(b) SIQUIDS (d) Chitons
15. A myogenic heart and closed circulatory system is present in
(a) Octopus (b) Pila
(c) Dentalium (d) Chiton

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (d)

6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (a)
________

CHORDATE
(JOINT-FOOTED ANIMALS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A dorsal tubular nerve cord is found in

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(a) All chordates (b) Some chordates
(c) All invertebrates (c) Some invertebrates
2. The greatest problem for the primitive vertebrates reaching fresh waters, was
(a) Absorption of too much water through their skin
(b) Loss of water through their skin
(c) Availability of less food
(d) Encountering new predators
3. Camel differs from other mammals in having
(a) No sweat glands (b) Nucleated RBC
(c) More than 7 cervical (d) Sub-cutaneous fat
4. Pharyngeal gill-slits are found in
(a) Flying fish (b) Silver fish
(c) Cray fish (d) Cuttle fish
5. When the lens is removed in a newt, a new lens is regenerated from
(a) Connective tissue of eye ball
(b) Muscle of eye ball
(c) Material at the dorsal border of the iris
(d) All of the above
6. Common Indian hare is
(a) Lepus ruficaudatus (b) Rattus rattus
(c) Tachyglossus (d) Camelus
7. Which of the following animals has both endoskeleton and exoskeletoii?
(a) Cockroach (b) Earthworm
(c) Snake (d) Frog
8. Exoskeleton of rabbit consists of
(a) Hair (b) Hair and claws
(c) Hair, horns and claws
(d) Hair, horns and hoofs
9. Which of the following is a cold-blooded animal?
(a) Duck (b) Hippopotamus
(c) Penguin (d) Tortoise
10. Elephant is an inhabitant of hot climate. This is suggested by its
(a) Huge size (b) Fleshy feet
(c) Almost hairless skin (d) Small eyes
11. Whale is a warm-blooded creature that can survive in very cold seas. The main device for
keeping the body warm is

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 (xxxviii)
(a) Thick layer of fat (b) Thick hairy coat
(c) Thick blood vessels (d) Thick muscles
12. Which mammal lays eggs?
(a) Scaly ant-eater (b) Hedge hog
(c) Spiny ant-eater (d) Bat
13. Ciliary muscles are found in
(a) Ciliated epithelium (b) Mammalian diaphragm
(c) Vertebrate eye (d) Mammalian heart
14. The bear has very thick hair while the elephant has very scanty. This suggests that the bear
(a) Has more natural enemies than elephant
(b) Has more sexual dimorphism than elephant
(c) Has not been domesticated
(d) Lives in cold climate
15. The hairy and milk producing duckbill platypus lays eggs and has a common aperture for
rectal, reproductive arid excretory products. It suggests that
(a) This is a degenerate mammal
(b) This is a stage between birds and mammals
(c) This is a reptile that gives rise to mammals
(d) This is a primitive mammal retraining some of the reptilian features
16. EndoIymph is a fluid present in the
(a) Cnidoblast cells
(b) Posterior chamber of eye
(c) Internal ear
(d) Synovial cavity
17. Chordates are distinguished from the non-chordates by the presence of
(a) Ventral nerve cord (b) Dorsal nerve cord
(c) Brain (d) Dorsal heart
18. Whale is a mammal because it has
(a) A 4-chambered heart
(b) A pair of testes
(c) A pair of lungs
(d) A diaphragm between the thorax and abdomen
19. Adult gnathostomes with paired fins and gills but without scales are grouped under the class
(a) Elasmobranchii (b) Holocephali
(c) Dipnoi (d) Teleostomi
20. Fishes with bony exoskeleton and operculum are grouped under the class

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 (xxxix)
(a) Elasmobranchii (b) Holocephali
(c) Dipnoi (d) Teleostomi
21. Neoteny is exhibited by some
(d) Amphibia (b) Reptilia
(c) Aves (d) Mammalia
22. A limbless amphibian is
(a) Ambystoma (b) Amphiuma
(c) Necturus (d) Ichthyophis
23. Which of these is known to have the largest RBC amongst all known animals?
(a) Ambystoma (c) Necturus
(b) Amphiuma (d) Ichthyophis
24. Congo eel is
(a) Fish (b) Bird
(c) Reptile (d) Amphibian

25. The only poisonous lizard is

(a) Heloderma (b) Ophisawus
(c) Phrynosoma (d) Hemidactylus
26. The flying lizard is
(a) Hetoderma (b) Ophisaurus
(c) Draco (d) Hemidactylus
27. Which one of these is a blind snake?
(a) Typhlops (b) Hydrophis
(c) Enhydrina (d) Zamenis
28. Which one of these is a non-poisonous sea-snake?
(a) Typhlops (b) Hydrophis
(c) Enhydrina (d) Zamenis
29. Which one of these is a poisonous sea-snake?
(a) Typhlops (b) Hydrophis
(c) Enhydrina (d) Zamenis
30. Which one of these is the Himalayan pit viper?
(a) Ancistrodon (b) Hydrophis
(c) Enhydrina (d) Zamenis
31. Animals that give rise to more or less well developed young are called as
(a) Coclomate (b) Triploblastic
(c) Viviparous (d) Oviparous

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 (xl)
32. Epiphysial discs are found in
(a) Fingers (b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Short bones (d) Long bones
33. In mammals sacral vertebrae fuse to form
(a) Odontoid process (b) Synsacrum
(c) Xiphisternum (d) Omosternum
34. Whales are included in the same taxonomic class as a
(a) Shark (b) Sea-horse
(c) Crocodile (d) Gorilla
35. Type of teeth in frog is
(a) Acrodont (b) Pleurodont
(c) Thecodont (d) Heterodont
56. The most highly advanced character in crocodiles amongst reptiliesis the
(a) Presence of four-chambered heart
(b) Capacity to come on land
(c) Capacity to lay hard-shelled eggs
(d) Presence of powerful jaw muscles
37. The greatest evolutionary change enabling the land vertebrates to be completely free from
water habitat is the development of
(a) Four legs (b) Lungs
(c) Four-chambered heart (d) Shelled eggs
38. Which of the following birds sucks nectar from flowers?
(a) Parrot (b) Red vented bulbul
(c) Sunbird (d) Mynah
39. Lions now-a-days are found in
(a) Only Pakistan
(b) Only Africa
(c) Both Pakistan and Africa
(d) Only zoological gardens
40. Lions in India are now found in
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Jungles of Madhya Pradesh
(c) Forests of western gnats
(d) Girl forests
41. Which of the following evolved first?
(a) Fishes (b) Reptiles

xl
 (xli)
(c) Amphibians (d) Birds
42. Branch of zoology dealing with the study of fishes is known as
(a) Herpetology (b) Ichthyology
(c) Mammalogy (d) Ornithology
43. Bats belong to the order
(a) Mammalia (b) Cbiroptera
(c) Aves (d) Protothena
44. Passage connecting middle ear with the pharynx is
(a) Eustachian tube (b) Tympanic canal
(c) Cochlear canal (d) Vestibular canal
45. The major constituent of a vertebrate bone is
(a) Calcium phosphate
(b) Calcium and magnesium phosphate
(c) Calcium carbonate
(d) Sodium chloride
46. A common cloacal chamber is found in
(a) Prototherians (b) All mammals
(c) Marsupials (b) Eutherians
47. Sebaceous glands secrete substance to
(a) Make the body surface smooth and mater proof
(b) Help in temperature regulation
(c) Keep body warm
(d) Keep body cool
48. Gestation period in elephant is about
(a) 11 months (b) 15 months
(c) 10 months (d) 22 months
49. The name of structure in mammals which divides the body into two parts is called as
(a) Diaphragm (b) Ileum
(c) Trachea (d) Liver
50. Intercostal muscles extend between
(a) Digits of fingers (b) Thoracic ribs
(c) Femur and tibia (d) Radius and ulna

ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

xli
 (xlii)

11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (a)
26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a)
36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)

EMBRYOLOGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Metamorphosis is regarded as
(a) Part of embryogenesis
(b) Being a stage which begins with the end of embryo-genesis
(c) The commencement of embryogenesis
(d) All of the above
2. Which of the following structures are responsible for metamorphosis in frog?
(i) Anterior hypophysis (ii) Thymus
(iii) Thyroid (iv) Parathyroid
(a) i and ii (b) ii and iv
(c) i and in (d) iii and iv
3. Which of the following hormones bring about the changes seen as result of metamorphosis?
(a) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the anterior hypophysis
(b) Thyroxine secreted by the thyroid
(c) Parathormone secreted by the parathyroid
(d) Corticosteroids secreted by the adrenals
4. The changes that occur during metamorphosis are
(a) Mainly morphological
(b) Mainly biochemical
(c) Mainly molecular
(d) All of the above
5. A hen’s egg is large because

xlii
 (xliii)
(a) It contains large quantities of yolk
(b) It is made up of large number of cells
(c) It is fertilized
(d) It contains uniformly distributed yolk
6. Ontogeny means
(a) Embryology (b) Evolution
(c) Biogenesis (d) Endocrinology
7. Zona pellucida is located
(a) Beneath the cerebral hemispheres
(b) At the junction of dermis and epidermis
(c) In the submucosa of the mammalian gut
(d) Around a mammalian egg
8. Influence exerted by one embryonic tissue on the differentiation of another is
(a) Activation (c) Domination
(b) Correlation (d) Induction
9. Three germ layers of triploblastic animals are clearly evident
(a) In the fertilized egg stage
(b) In the blastula
(c) After the gastrula
(d) In the gastrula
10. Which of the following is derived primarily from the ectoderm?
(a) Brain (b) Liver
(c) Bones (d) Muscles and blood
11. Which pair of structures does not have the same embryological origin?
(a) Penis and clitoris (b) Liver and spleen
(c) Lung and pancreas (d) Brain and finger nails
12. In humans the extra-embryonic membrane in contact with the uterus is the
(a) Allantois (b) Yolk-sac
(c) Amnion (d) Chorion
13. Amnion in mammals is most useful in
(a) Cushioning shocks
(b) keeping the fetus clean
(c) Regulating temperature
(d) Transporting oxygen from the placenta
14. Gastrula is a stage in the development of frog which possesses
(a) An ectodermal layer surrounding the blastocoel

xliii
 (xliv)
(b) Ecto-and endodermal, mesodermal layers
(c) Ecto-and endodermal layers forming the archenteron
(d) None of the three layers
15. Nerve cells originate from the embryonic
(a) Ectoderm (b) Endodenn
(c) Mesoderm (d) Both endo- and mesoderm
16. Acrosome is formed by
(a) Chromosomes (b) DNA or RNA
(c) Golgi bodies (d) Mitochondria
17. In many embryos excretion is the primary function of
(a) Chorion (b) Amnion
(c) Umbilical cord (d) Allantois
18. Archenteron of the gastrula is lined by
(a) Ectoderm (b) Endodenn
(c) Both mesoderm and endoderm
(d) Mesoderm
19. Somatopleure of an embryo is the ectoderm together with
(a) Somatic mesoderm (b) Splanchnic mesoderm
(c) Mesenchyme (d) Vitelline membrane
20. Early divisions of a zygote are known as
(a) Fission (b) Cleavage
(c) Morphogenesis (d) Differentiation
21. During mammalian ovulation eggs are released into the
(a) Body cavity (b) Peritoneal cavity
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Graffian follicle
22. Yolk of a bird’s egg is actually
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Non-living reservior of food
(c) Food-filled blastocoel
(d) A single cell
23. Correct sequence in the development of sperms is
(a) Spermaiogonium  spermatid  primary spermatocyte  sperm
(b) Primary spermatocyte  sec. spermatocyte  spermatid  sperm
(c) Spermatogonium  primary spermatocyte  sec. spermatocyte  spermatid  sperm
(d) Primary spermatocyte  sec. spermatocyte  spermatogonium  spermatid  sperm
24. Human ovulation ordinarily occurs near which day after the start of menstruation?

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 (xlv)
(a) 1st (c) 14th
(b) 5th (d) 28th
25. Correct term for the outer layer of gastrula is
(a) Skin (b) Epithelium
(c) Epidermis (d) Ectoderm
26. Holoblastic equal cleavage is illustrated by a
(a) Sea-urchin (b) Frog
(c) Chicken (d) Turtle
27. Placenta in humani is derived from the
(a) Amnion (b) Chorion
(c) Chorion and uterus (d) Umbilical cord
28. At birth which vein loses its former function?
(a) Hepatic (b) Umbilical
(c) Phrenic (d) Brachial
29. The fetus is immediately surrounded by the
(a) Amnion (b) Allantois
(c) Yolk-sac (d) Chorion
30. Lining of testicuiar tubules consists of
(a) Primordial germ cells (b) Spermatogonia
(c) Primary spermatocytes
(d) Sec. spermatocytes
31. Reduction division in mammals occurs in the production of
(a) Gametes
(b) Primordial germ cells
(c) Germinal epithelium
(d) Pr. oocytes and spermatocytes
32. Which term is used for the change of position of cells as they move over the surface of a
growing embryo?
(a) Epiboly (b) Involution
(c) Invagiuation (d) Eraboly
33. Of the following which is derived largely from the endoderm?
(a) Brain (b) Liver
(c) Kidney (d) Heart
34. Mammalian sperm lysin is known as
(a) Puromycin (b) Hyaluronidase
(c) Parathormone (d) Nicotin

xlv
 (xlvi)
35. Mitochondrial spiral is found in a
(a) Egg (b) Sperm
(c) Zygote (d) Gastrula
36. Mitochondrial clouds are found in
(a) Primary oocyte (b) Spermatogonuim
(c) Secondary oocyte (d) Egg
37. Spermiogenesis is termed as
(a) Differentiation process that converts a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte
(b) Differentiation process that converts a primary sperma-tocyte into a secondary spermatocyte
(c) Differentiation process that converts a spermatid into a sperm
(d) Diffeientation process that converts a primordial germ cell
38. Zona radiata is the zone present between
(a) Primary oocyte and Graffian follicle
(b) Primary oocyte and vitelline membrane
(c) Vitelline membrane and cumulus oophorous
(d) Vitelline membrane and Graffian follicle
39. Zona pellucida is laid down between
(a) Egg and ovary
(b) Primary oocyte and ovary
(c) Primary oocyte and Graffian follicle
(d) Graffian follicle and 6vary
40. Lampbrush chromosomes are found in
(a) Primary oocytes
(b) Primary spermatogonia
(c) Salivary glands of insects
(d) Spennatids
41. Secondary egg membranes are laid down when the egg passes through
(a) Fallopian tube (b) Oviduct
(c) Uterus (d) None of the above
42. Insect eggs are
(a) Oligolecithal (b) Telolecithai
(c) Microlecithal (d) Centrolecithal
43. Enzyme essential for yolk formation is found in
(a) Liver (b) Pancreas
(c) Mitochondria (d) Golgi bodies
44. An egg is activated as a result of

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(d) Sperm releasing sperm lysins
(b) Acrosomal filament touching the egg
(c) Sperm penetrating the egg
(d) Cortical reaction
45. Perivitelline space is the space between
(a) Plasmalemma and egg
(b) Plasmalemma and fertilization membrane
(c) Fertilization membrane and ovary
(d) Graffian follicle and primary oocyte
46. When the sperm penetrates the amphibian egg the nucleus is
(a) Haploid (b) Diploid
(c) Triploid (d) Lost
47. During cleavage the size of an egg
(a) Decreases (b) Remains same
(c) Increases (d) Doubles
48. Larva is a stage in the life-history of frog which
(a) Grows in the uterus of frog
(b) Is different in structure and behaviour as compared to the adult frog
(c) Has notochord and nerve cord in the tail
(d) Has both ‘b’ and ‘c’
49. A fully grown tadpole of frog breathes by means of
(a) Lungs (b) Skin and gills
(c) Skin and lungs (d) Gills
50. During metamorphosis the tail of the tadpole gets
(a) Resorbed
(b) Broken off
(c) Pinched off and eaten up by other tadpoles
(d) Dries up and falls off

ANSWERS

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a)

6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (d)

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26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b)
36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)

xlviii