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GENETICS 6. A woman with blood type IAi and a man with blood
genotype IBi have two children, both type AB. What is the
(PART 2) probability that a third child will be blood type AB?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 50% d. 66%
1. Specialized cells that no longer divide generally locked
in which stage of the cell cycle? 7. In humans, the allele for black hair (B) us dominant to
a. G1 phase c. G0 phase the allele to brown hair (b), and the allele for curly hair
b. G2 phase d. S phase (C) is dominant to the allele for straight hair (c). When a
person of unknown genotype is crossed against a straight-
2. Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive genetic disorder in and brown-haired individual, the phenotypic ratio is
which blood fails to clot properly due to gene mutations. A 25% curly black hair 25% curly brown hair
person with hemophilia may experience easy bruising and 25% straight black hair 25% straight brown hair
sudden bleeding. The pedigree diagram below shows the
inheritance of hemophilia. What is the genotype of the unknown parent?
a. BBCC b. BbCC c. bbCc d. BbCc

8. Assuming classical Mendelian inheritance, how can one

differentiate between a homozygous dominant individual
and one who is heterozygous for the dominant trait?
a. By crossing the individuals in question
b. By crossing each individual with a known homozygous
recessive and examining the offspring
c. By crossing each individual with a known heterozygote
and examining the offspring
d. Both B and C

9. If a male hemophiliac (XhY) is crossed with a female

carrier of both color blindness and hemophilia (XcXh), what
is the probability that a female child will be phenotypically
normal?
a. 0% c. 50%
b. 25% d. same as for a male child

For questions 10-16, fill in the blanks with the appropriate

stage of mitosis. Choose from the following:
a. Prophase c. Anaphase
b. Metaphase d. Telophase

10. During ______, the chromosomes separate and move

What could be the possible genotypes and phenotypes of to opposite poles of the cell.
the parents?
a. XHY (normal male) and XHXh (female carrier) 11. The nuclear membrane begins to dissolve during
b. XhY (hemophilic male) and XHXH (normal female) _______.
c. XhY (hemophilic male) and XhXh (hemophilic female)
d. XhY (hemophilic male) and XHXh (female carrier) 12. The centromeres of the replicated chromosomes have
completely split by __________.
3. If a DNA stand has a nitrogenous base sequence of
AATGC, what is its complimentary strand? 13. During _______, nucleoli disappear.
a. AATGC b. CGTAA c. TTACG d. TATCG
14. Chromosomes condense, shorten, and coil during
4. A cross between black and gray roses produces black _______.
and gray roses in equal numbers. The gray color is most
likely a result of 15. Centromeres line up at the equatorial plate during
a. dominance c. mutation ________.
b. recessiveness d. incomplete dominance
16. During _______, a cleavage furrow is formed.
5. In cattle, black coat is dominant over yellow coat. Two
cows are crossed, 50% of the offspring have black coat 17. Upon ovulation, the oocyte is released into the
while 50% have yellow coat. Which of the following are a. fallopian tube. c. follicle.
the possible genotypes of the parent cows? b. ovary. d. abdominal cavity.
(Symbols: y = yellow coat ; Y = black coat)
a. YY and yy c. yy and yy
b. Yy and Yy d. Yy and yy

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18. The chromosome number of offspring produced via
parthenogenesis is
a. diploid c. 2N
b. haploid d. both A and C
19. Given the following single strand of DNA sequence
- 5’-GAATTG-3’ – what is the sequence of the opposite
strand?
a. 5’-CAATTC-3’ c. 5’-CTTAAG-3’
b. 5’-CTTAAC-3’ d. 5’-GAATTG-3’
20. Which of the following does not occur in plant-mitosis?
a. The movement of centrioles to form asters
b. The production of two daughter cells
c. The separation of chromatids into identical
chromosomes
d. The formation of a cell plate
21. What is the major difference between messenger RNA
molecules and the transfer RNA molecules?
a. Messenger RNA molecules contains ribose while transfer
RNA molecules contains deoxyribose
b. Messenger RNA molecules carry coded information to the
ribosomes while transfer RNA molecules carry amino acids
to the ribosomes
c. Messenger RNA molecules contain thymine while transfer
RNA molecules contain uracil
d. Messenger RNA molecules function when they are
double-stranded while transfer RNA molecules function
when they are single-stranded.
22. Chromosomes become most distinct during cell…
a. Reproduction c. Metabolism
b. Respiration d. Transpiration
2. Which of the following is not achieved by the cell after
cleavage?
a. formation of blastula
b. increase in cell number
c. development of the neural crest
d. increase in the amount of the genetic material
3. Which of the following developmental stages has the
greatest nuclear-to-cytoplasmic material ratio?
a. Four-celled zygote c. Morula
b. Eight-celled zygote d. Blastula
4. Which is the best statement regarding the role of the
embryo in hormone production?
a. the embryo breaks down proteins in the endospermal
cells to produce auxins
b. the embryo converts tryptophan into indoleacetic acid
c. the embryo releases gibberellin which triggers the
synthesis of enzymes that break down the endosperm
d. the embryo produces enzymes which break down
the endosperm cells
5. Which of the following is true for identical twins?
a. They are derived from a single egg cell.
b. There can only be one gender, either both male and
both female.
c. They are derived from a single sperm cell.
d. All of the above
6. The archenteron develops into…
a. Mouth in protostomes
b. Blastocoel
c. Endoderm
d. Lumen of the digestive tracts

23. In which pair of organelles are light and chemical 7. Which embryonic membrane is closest to the shell in a
energies transformed? bird egg?
a. Centriole and ribosome a. Allantois c. Amnion
b. Chloroplast and lysosome b. Chorion d. Yolk Sac
c. Chloroplast and mitochondrion
d. Golgi apparatus and microtubule 8. An amphibian embryo, a band of cells called the neural
crest…
24. Which stages of cellular division have exactly opposite a. Rolls up to form the neural tube
characteristics? b. Develops into the main section of the brain
a. Prophase and telophase c. Produces amoeboid cells that migrate to form teeth,
b. Prophase and anaphase skull bones, and other structures in the embryo.
c. Metaphase and telophase d. Induces the formation of the embryo
d. Metaphase and anaphase
9. The specific arrangements of tissues and organs in a
DEVELOPMENTAL BIOLOGY body part such a leg is called:
a. Pattern formation
b. Induction
1. A female animal that forms eggs, hatches in the body, c. Differentiation
and then younglings are born alive is known as what type
d. Determination
of offspring production?
a. Oviparous c. Ovoviviparous
b. Viviparous d. Marsupials

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10. Which of the following is a feature in fetal

development?
I. Ductus arteriosus
II. Foramen ovale
III. Fetal haemoglobin with a higher affinity for
oxygen than adult haemoglobin
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and III only
d. I, II, and III

11. Which of the following associations most closely

corresponds to that of ectoderm : endoderm?
a. heart : stomach
b. retina : lungs
c. skeletal muscles : liver
d. skin : stomach muscles

12. Which of the following has a chambered heart and a

dorsal notochord during development?
a. cardinal
b. sea urchin
c. snail
d. praying mantis

13. How many sets of cell division are there between the
zygote stage and the eight-cell embryonic stage?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

14. Which likely to happen if the amphibian zygote is

experimentally manipulated so that the first cleavage
plane misses the gray crescent instead of bisecting it?
a. there will be 2 undifferentiated ball of cells
b. 2 normal tadpoles will develop
c. 2 abnormal tadpoles will develop
d. only the blastomere that gets the grey crescent will
develop into normal tadpole

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