Test 02 - Solution PDF

TEST - 2 (MOCK TEST - 2) Total Marks : 200
1 Tata Motors has recently unveiled India’s first Bio-CNG (bio-methane) bus. Chemically, bio-methane is
identical to natural gas, however, natural gas is classified as a fossil fuel, whereas bio-methane is
called as a renewable source of energy. This is because
1. Nature of production process of bio-methane reduces its emissions of greenhouse gases into the air.
2. Bio-methane is produced from fresh organic matter, unlike natural gas which is obtained from
decomposition of fossils.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Justification: Statement 1: Biomethane is produced by ‘anaerobic’ digestion of organic matter such

as dead animal and plant material.
This gas when produced out of natural degradation process, escapes into the atmosphere
unused.
But, if produced under controlled conditions, the impact on environment can be significantly
reduced.
Statement 2: Methane is produced from thousands or millions of years old fossil remains of organic
matter that lies buried deep in the ground.
Production of fossil fuel derived methane, therefore, depends exclusively on its natural
reserves which vary greatly from one country to another and are not available in limitless
amounts.
Biomethane, on the other hand, is produced from “fresh” organic matter which makes it a
renewable source of energy that can be produced worldwide.
Since biomethane is chemically identical to natural gas, it can be used for the same applications as
natural gas.
Q Source: As mentioned above
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2 What would happen if the Earth stopped spinning immediately?

1. The atmosphere would come to a complete standstill instantly.
2. Objects on top of the earth would be thrown away with great speed.
3. Every spot in the Earth would have permanent daytime or night time all year long.
4. It would freeze in a very short period of time.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: If the Earth stopped spinning suddenly, the atmosphere would still be
in motion with the Earth's original 1100 mile per hour rotation speed at the equator.
Statement 2: All of the land masses would be scoured clean of anything not attached to bedrock.
This means rocks, topsoil, trees, buildings, animals, and so on, would be swept away into the
atmosphere.
This is because earth’s spin provided a centrifugal (a pseudo force) force towards the centre of the
earth. When this vanishes, there is a sudden jerk and due to your inertia (as you were moving with
the earth) you would be thrown away at great speed.
Statement 3: No, if the earth kept revolving (even if it stopped spinning), all places will see day and
night. But, the duration of 24 hours would turn into months.
Statement 4: We cannot conclude anything about the temperature drop for the entire earth.
However, those parts would freeze which fail to get abundant sunlight.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 19: 6th NCERT Geography
3 With reference to Araghatta or Persian wheels, consider the following statements.

1. It was a water lifting device used to irrigate small fields.
2. Babur Nama mentions the existence and use of Araghatta.
3. There is evidence of the use of Araghatta in Kolar, Karnataka.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: It's a simple water lifting device, where a number of small pots are
attached to a long chain.
It is believed that the technology originated in Egypt and as world shrunk through extensive
trading, it spread to India and China.
Statement 2: One of the earliest mentions of the Persian Wheel occurs in the Babur's memoirs, the
Babur Nama (1526-30).
Statement 3: However, despite that evidence, several factors have also contributed to the
disappearance of the Persian Wheel from Kolar town.
This is because the biggest drawback of Persian wheels was its inability to draw water when the
level is low.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 3: 9th NCERT Economics
4 Which of these geographical features is most likely to have the lowest mean elevation?
A. Plateaus
B. Islands
C. Deltas
D. Plains
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Option A: They are elevated land tops, and maintain a rugged high profile of terrain.
Option B: Islands although situated at sea level can acquire higher elevation due to presence of
features like mountains, volcanoes etc.
Option C: Deltas occur near the sea mouth, i.e. very close to Mean sea level, which can be the
lowest elevation possible.
Option D: Rivers flow further from plains to join the sea. So, plains are usually at a higher elevation
than delta.
Q Source: Page 39 (Figure 6.1): 6th NCERT Geography
5 With reference to High-yielding varieties (HYVs) crops, consider the following statements.
1. Such crops do not require any reliance on irrigation and fertilizers.
2. Yield can be high in these varieties only if they are allowed to mature later than normal crops.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: High-yielding varieties (HYVs) of agricultural crops are usually characterized by a

combination of the following traits in contrast to the conventional varieties:
higher crop yield per area (hectare)
dwarfness
improved response to fertilizers
high reliance on irrigation and fertilizers - see intensive farming
early maturation
So, both 1 and 2 are wrong.
Most important HYVs can be found among wheat, corn, soybean, rice, potato, and cotton.
HYVs become popular in the 1960s and play an important role in the green revolution.
6 What is/are Castor seed plants generally known for?

1. They are a bio-indicator of pollution because they do not grow in areas where groundwater is
polluted.
2. They are an exotic species to India, and were introduced by the French.
3. They form components of many cosmetics.
4. High percentage of ricinoleic acid in its residues has anti-microbial properties.

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: It is one of the sturdiest plants that can grow in areas where the soil is
highly polluted, including in areas where mining is carried out.
Statement 2: Castor is indigenous to the southeastern Mediterranean Basin, Eastern Africa, and
India.
Statement 3: It is a popular medicine as well as used in cosmetics.
Statement 4: Castor seed is the source of castor oil, which has a wide variety of uses. The seeds
contain between 40% and 60% oil that is rich in triglycerides, mainly ricinolein. The acid and its
derivatives, inhibits many microbes, whether viral, bacterial or fungal.
Learning: The use of castor bean oil ("eranda") in India has been documented since 2000 BC in
lamps and in local medicine as a laxative, purgative, and cathartic in Unani, Ayurvedic, siddha and
other ethnomedical systems.
Q Source: Additional Research:

http://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/hyderabad/2017/jul/17/castor-oil-can-reduce-soil-pollution-
1629688.html
7 With reference to the International Date Line, consider the following statements.
1. It was established in response to Cold war situations after the second World War.
2. It passes through the mid-Atlantic Ocean
3. It functions as a ‘line of demarcation’ separating two consecutive calendar dates.
4. It has no legal international status and countries are free to choose the dates that they observe.

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: Established in 1884, it passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean and
roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude north-south line on the Earth.
It is located halfway round the world from the prime meridian—the zero degrees longitude
established in Greenwich.
Statement 3: When you cross the date line, you are virtually time travelling! Cross to the west and
it’s one day later; cross back and you are a day behind.
Statement 4: Despite its name, the International Date Line has no legal international status. While
the date line generally runs north to south from pole to pole, it zigzags around political borders
such as eastern Russia and Alaska’s Aleutian Islands.
8 Most of the cultivable land in India is owned by
A. Small and marginal farmers

B. Medium and Large farmers
C. Scheduled tribes
D. land share is nearly equally divided among all.
Correct Answer : B
Justification: A pie-chart from NCERT:
These are some of the important agricultural statistics:
The average holding in India is tiny and often split into scattered pieces. Five major categories of
land holding are: marginal (below 1 ha), small (1-2 ha), semi-medium (2-4 ha), medium (4-10 ha),
large (10ha and above).
According to Census 2011, 67 per cent of holdings were classified as marginal (less than one
hectare) and 18 per cent were classified as small (one-two hectare).
Nearly 80% of the farmers are small and marginal farmers, yet they hold a tiny fraction of the
total landholding.
Q Source: Chapter 1: Graph 1.1: 9th NCERT Economics

9 Rich countries are rich because
A. All of them have greater reserves of natural resources than any developing country.
B. They have made adequate investment in the health, education and training of their workforce.
C. All rich nations are democratic.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Option A: Africa is resource rich whereas, many rich nations like Scandinavian
countries are not resource rich.
Option B: Human capital (through education, training, medical care) yields a return just like
investment in physical capital.
This can be seen directly in the form of higher incomes earned because of higher productivity of the
more educated or the better trained persons, as well as the higher productivity of healthier people.
Option C: Many poor nations are democratic, e.g. Zimbabwe, whereas many rich nations like Saudi
Arabia are monarchies.
Q Source: Chapter 1: 9th NCERT Economics
10 What is ‘seaspeak’?
A. Official language of navigators across the globe

B. A standardized GPS system installed in every marine vessel
C. A NGO that works towards marine sustainability
D. SONAR system developed by India that works without the use of electromagnetic waves
Correct Answer : A
Learning: A ship's crew comes from a number of different countries. Not everyone has English as
first language or can communicate very clearly in English.
Misunderstood communication can lead to serious and even dangerous situations.
To avoid such confusion, in 1983 a new system of communication called Seaspeak was devised.
English was chosen as the principle lexicon for Seaspeak because it was the most common
language spoken on ships at that time, and, importantly, it was also the language of civil
aviation.
In 1988, the International Maritime Organization made Seaspeak the official language of the
seas.
Seaspeak defines the rules of how to talk on a ship's radio. The number of words is limited to
ensure that messages and conversations are short and clear.
Eight words, called message markers, precede each sentence. These words are Advice,
Answer, Information, Instruction, Intention, Question, Request, and Warning.
An important rule of Seaspeak is that numbers made up of two or more digits are spoken in
single digits. For example, the number 33 is spoken as "three three" and the time 9:33 a.m. is
spoken as "zero nine three three."
Q Source: Additional Research: Based on Chapter 5: 6th NCERT Geography
11 Consider the following statements about Malaria and its incidence in India.
1. The majority of malaria reporting districts are in India’s eastern and central parts.
2. The Government has set malaria elimination deadline as 2027.
3. Malaria is most commonly transmitted by a male mosquito or female sand-flies.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: According to the World Malaria Report 2016, India accounts for 89% of the incidence
of malaria in the South-East Asia region.
Statement 1: In India, malaria parasites are found more in the forest areas and plains.
Most malaria cases are mainly concentrated in tribal and remote areas of the country.
Six states — Odisha (40%), Jharkhand (20%), Chhattisgarh (20%), Meghalaya, Arunachal
Pradesh and Mizoram (5-7%) report most of the malaria cases in India.
These states, along with tribal areas of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for 90% of
India’s malaria burden.
Statement 2: The Union Health Ministry and Family Welfare for first time has unveiled National
Strategic Plan (NSP) for Malaria Elimination (2017-22). It has set malaria elimination deadline as
2027, three years ahead of the global deadline (under SDGs).
Statement 3: Malaria is a vector borne disease caused by parasitic protozoans belonging to the
Plasmodium type. It is most commonly transmitted by an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q Source: National Strategic Plan (NSP) for Malaria Elimination (2017-22)
12 With reference to various initiatives of the Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD),
consider the following statements.
1. E-pathshala is a single point repository of e-resources such as NCERT text-books and various other
learning resources.
2. Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat focuses on digital literacy.
3. National Reading Initiative intends to organize regular book fairs in major Indian languages.
4. Saransh is an online self-review tool for schools affiliated to the Central Board of Secondary
Education (CBSE).

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat is a sub-programme of Sarva Shiksha

Abhiyan launched in 2014 with special focus on improving language development and to create
interest in mathematics.
Statement 2: As a follow up to the above foundational programme, in 2015-16 a programme called

the National Reading Initiative was launched to develop and promote the habit of reading among
students in elementary schools, thereby extending the programme up to class 8.
You may read details here

http://mhrd.gov.in/sites/upload_files/mhrd/files/document-reports/Padhe-Bharat-Badhe-Bharat.pdf
Statement 3: As a part of the Digital India Campaign, the Ministry of HRD has launched ‘e-
pathshala’ which is a single point repository of e-resources containing, NCERT text-books and
various other learning resources.
CBSE prescribes textbooks published by National Council of Educational Research and Training
(NCERT) for classes IX to XII.
Statement 4: It helps the schools to look at their performance online at an aggregate level and at
the level of each student. It is an online self-review tool.
It allows schools to identify areas of improvement in students, teachers & curriculum and take
necessary measures to implement change.
It also provides schools with a view of overall and individual student’s performance in
academic & extra-curricular activities.
This is a comprehensive compilation of MHRD initiatives:

http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=134056
Q Source: Additional Research: PIB Releases: 24th July
13 Which of these is the most accurate ratio of MMR and IMR numbers, with respect to India?
A. Six
B. One by seven
C. One by ten
D. Four
Correct Answer : D
Justification: IMR is 40 as of 2013, and MMR is 167. So, D is the right answer. We had covered the
concepts of IMR and MMR in the last test.
You can find state specific data here

http://niti.gov.in/content/maternal-mortality-ratio-mmr-100000-live-births
http://niti.gov.in/content/infant-mortality-rate-imr-1000-live-births
Learning: Other key parameters:
Death rate (%): 7
Neo Natal Mortality Rate (NMR) (per 1000 live births): 28
Total Fertility Rate (TFR) (Birth/ woman): 2.3
Under 5 Mortality Rate (U-5MR) (per 1000 live births): 25
Q Source: Page 22: 9th NCERT Economics
14 Consider the following about Microplastics.

1. They are small plastic pieces less than a nanometer long.
2. Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has classified them as unsafe for consumer products.
3. Microbeads are a type of microplastic that are sometimes found in toothpastes.
4. If dumped in oceans, these pose a potential threat to aquatic life.

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1 and 4: These are plastic pieces less than five millimeters long which if
engulfed by marine life can pose grave danger to them. Possibilities are even more since they easily
pass through water filtration systems.
Microplastics come from a variety of sources, including from larger plastic debris that degrades into
smaller and smaller pieces
Statement 3: Microbeads have emerged as a new form of threat. First patented in 1972 for use in
cleansers.
Due to abrasive nature, microbeads began to replace natural material like ground almonds, oatmeal
and sea salt in the area of cosmetics, e.g. as exfoliating agents in facewash or in toothpaste.
Q Source: www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/20/insights-daily-current-affairs-20-july-2017/
15 In case of India we have unemployment both in rural and urban areas. However, the nature of
unemployment differs in both with respect to
1. Year-round availability of employment
2. Disguised unemployment that is more prevalent in urban areas

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: In case of rural areas, there is seasonal and disguised unemployment. Urban areas
have mostly educated unemployment.
Statement 1: Seasonal unemployment happens when people are not able to find jobs during some
months of the year, mainly due to agriculture.
Statement 2: In case of disguised unemployment people appear to be employed. They have

agricultural plot where they find work.
This usually happens among family members engaged in agricultural activity. The work requires the
service of five people but engages eight people. This reduces productivity per person.
16 India had recently decided to celebrate a spiritual practice named Falun Gong, a system that is
banned in the country of its origin. The system belongs to
A. China
B. Cambodia
C. North Korea
D. Russia
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Falun Gong is a Chinese spiritual practice that combines meditation and qigong
exercises with a moral philosophy centred on the tenets of truthfulness, compassion, and
forbearance.
It was celebrated in India on July 15 with a parade and Human Word Formation in the capital.
The event highlighted the persecution against the practitioners in China.
Through moral rectitude and the practice of meditation, practitioners of Falun Gong aspire to
eliminate attachments, and ultimately to achieve spiritual enlightenment.
There are elements of Buddhist and Taoist tradition in this practice.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-to-celebrate-falun-gong/article19259165.ece
17 Poverty line in India is calculated based on which of these bare minimum parameters?
1. Minimum level of food requirement
2. Clothing and footwear
3. Absence of land ownership
4. Educational and medical requirements
5. Fuel and light

A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : A
Justification: While determining the poverty line in India, a minimum level of food requirement,
clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical requirement etc. are determined for
subsistence. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in rupees.
Statement 1: The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based
on the desired calorie requirement.
The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural
areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas.
Statement 3: A person is not declared poor if he does not possess land. However, if he has land, he
will be automatically excluded from the poverty line.
Q Source: Page 34-35: 9th NCERT Economics
18 Indian Railways (IR) plans to procure several loco sets of Common Rail Electronic Direct Injection
Fuel System (CReDI). What is/are the advantages of CReDI over normal engines?
1. Fuel savings
2. Reduced noise in operations
3. Lower emissions

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: CReDI is a two-stage fuel distribution system which offers greater flexibility than a
normal engine.
It is electronically controlled through an electronic engine management System.
It reduces particulate/soot and gaseous emissions (e.g. (NOx emission) because the efficacy of the
catalytic converter (device that filter pollutants) is increased under this method. You will read about
catalytic converters in higher classes NCERT.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=168628
19 Human Development Report and World Development Indicators are published by which of these
organizations respectively?
A. Both by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

B. UNDP and World Bank
C. World Bank and UNICEF
D. Oxfam and UNECOSOC
Correct Answer : B
Learning: HDR is an annual milestone published by the Human Development Report Office of the
UNDP. India ranked 131 in 2016 Human Development Index.
World Development Indicators is the primary World Bank collection of development indicators,
compiled from officially-recognized international sources.
It presents the most current and accurate global development data available, and includes
national, regional and global estimates.
We will cover such and other reports in detail in upcoming tests.
20 What is/are the contributions of Amartya Sen to India?

1. He was the Chairman of Nalanda mentor group.
2. He serves as the Director in charge of all Indian Statistical Institutes (ISI).
3. He was awarded Bharat Ratna for his work in welfare economics.
4. He has established Johan Skytte Centre for Political Research in India that receives endowments
directly from Harvard University.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: In 2007, he was appointed as chairman of Nalanda Mentor Group to

examine the framework of international cooperation, and proposed structure of partnership, which
would govern the establishment of Nalanda International University Project to revive the ancient
Nalanda.
Statement 3: He is currently a Professor at Harvard University and member of faculty at Harvard

Law School.
He was awarded the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 and India's Bharat Ratna
in 1999 for his work in welfare economics.
Statement 4: In 2017, Sen was awarded the Johan Skytte Prize in Political Science for most valuable
contribution to Political Science.
21 Geographically speaking, which of these countries is most likely to have at least three to four time
zones?
A. Countries that stretch extensively from east to west.

B. Countries located near the sea.
C. Countries that have a large latitudinal stretch.
D. Countries that are located farthest from Greenwich.
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Larger the longitudinal extent, larger the number of time zones.
15 degrees of longitude covers nearly 1 hour of time zone. So, a country like Russia which is spread
across 165 degrees of longitude is likely to have around 11 time zones.
Latitudinal stretch does not matter much if longitudinal stretch is lower.
The USA and Canada have six time zones extending from the Pacific coast to the Atlantic coast.
Q Source: Page 47: 6th NCERT Geography
22 With reference to agricultural statistics in India, Consider the following statements.

1. The production of foodgrains in India has steadily increased post green revolution since the 1960s.
2. India has presently turned out to host the largest land area certified as organic wildculture in the
world.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Graph below:
Statement 2: India has 4 million hectares of land certified as organic wildculture, which is third in
the world (after Finland and Zambia). We are yet to realize the full potential of organic culture.
North-eastern states, especially Sikkim, have covered it up well. In fact, Sikkim has become India's
first fully organic state.
23 E-GRAINS is an initiative of the
A. Food Policy Foundation (FPF)

B. Down to Earth
C. Food Corporation of India (FCI)
D. Akshay Patra
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It is the IISFM (Integrated Information System for Foodgrains Management for Food
Corporation of India).
It provides the online Stock Position of buffer and procurement by FCI.
The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers in states where there is surplus production to
ensure food security. E-grains improves accountability and transparency in this operation.
24 Assist Focus export promotion programmes have been launched in specific regions abroad by the
Government. It includes
1. Africa
2. ASEAN
3. Latin American countries
4. Commonwealth of Independent States

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : D
Justification: To stimulate and diversify the country's export trade, Marketing Development
Assistance (MDA) Scheme is under operation through the Department of Commerce to support the
under mentioned activities:
Assist exporters for export promotion activities abroad
Assist Export Promotion Councils(EPCs) to undertake export promotion activities for their
product(s) and commodities;
Assist approved organization/trade bodies in undertaking exclusive nonrecurring innovative

activities connected with export promotion efforts for their members;
Assist Focus export promotion programmes in specific regions abroad like FOCUS (LAC),
Focus (Africa), Focus (CIS) and Focus (ASEAN 2) programmes; and
Residual essential activities connected with marketing promotion efforts abroad.
Q Source: PIB 13th July: Parliamentary questions
25 From the point of view of commerce, the Atlantic Ocean is the busiest Ocean in the world. This is
because
1. It is the largest ocean in the world.
2. It connects major continents.
3. Its coastline is indented that favours formation of natural harbours and ports.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Pacific is the largest, Atlantic is second largest.
Statement 2: It connects the South America to North America (Panama Canal), Africa to Europe and
Europe to Asia (through Gibraltar Strait connecting Mediterranean Sea).
Statement 3: The coastline of Atlantic Ocean is highly indented. This irregular and indented
coastline provides ideal location for natural harbours and ports that favours commerce related
activities.
26 What are the functions and objectives of the National Employment Service (NES)?
1. Compile and disseminate information on vacancies notified on employment in various industries
2. Assessment of demand and supply of labour in the Labour Market and adjust them
3. Provide Career Counselling and Vocational Guidance
4. Generate internal revenue to finance young entrepreneurs in their ventures

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It is operated by the Directorate General of Employment and Training, Ministry of

Labour, and it runs several Employment Exchanges in order to bring about a better matching of
supply-demand of work opportunities.
The other objective is to create a requisite data base for manpower planning and management,
career counselling and vocational guidance with a view to effectively guiding the job-seekers.
Functions (other than those mentioned in the question):
Collect comprehensive Employment Market Information on a quarterly basis
Conduct area specific specialised study/surveys to have an assessment of skills available and
the marketable skills required for encouraging the job-seekers for self-employment
particularly in rural informal sector
Learning: Some of the State Governments arrange disbursement of unemployment allowance to

certain specific categories of jobseekers out of their own resources through the employment
exchanges as registered with them.
Q Source: PIB 24th July on Rationalisation of Labour Laws: http://labour.gov.in/nes
27 Which of these authorities approves the sale of government stake in the Public Sector Units (PSUs)?
A. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)

B. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
C. Finance Secretary, Ministry of Finance
D. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Recently, the CCEA has approved sale of government’s more than 51% stake along
with management control in HPCL (Hindustan Petroleum) to ONGC. HPCL will continue as PSU
after the acquisition.
Learning: A majority stake sale, if offered to a private enterprise, is termed as a strategic sale that
usually involves shedding management control by the government.
On the other hand, in a minority stake, only part of the stake is offered, and the government retains
both the ownership and the management control.
Q Source: PIB 24th July
28 For his contribution to Indian space technology, he was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma
Vibhushan. He is the first Indian space scientist to be inducted into the prestigious ‘Satellite Hall of
Fame’ and also first in ‘International Astronautics Federation (IAF) Hall of Fame’. He is
A. APJ Abdul Kalam

B. Satish Dhawan
C. G. Madhavan Nair
D. Udupi Ramachandra Rao
Correct Answer : D
Justification: He is an internationally-renowned space scientist and former chairman of ISRO. He

recently passed away.
He is credited with having played an instrumental role in building up Indian satellite programmes
right from nation’s first satellite Aryabhatta.
Learning: The Society of Satellite Professionals International or SSPI is a non-profit organization,

made up of members who worked as professionals in the satellite industry throughout their careers.
It inducts members into its Satellite Hall of Fame.
29 USS Gerald R Ford, recently seen in news, is
A. World’s largest nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

B. Stealth defence drone that runs entirely on solar power
C. A triad of ballistic, continental and nuclear missiles
D. The smallest submarine in the world that is being used for intelligence operations
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The United States (US) Navy has recently officially inducted USS Gerald R Ford (CVN
78), the world’s largest nuclear-powered aircraft carrier.
It is the most advanced aircraft carrier in the world.
USS Gerald Ford is first in the series of three of the futuristic ships of the Ford-class carriers
ordered by US Navy.
Q Source:
http://www.businessinsider.com/sailors-on-gerald-ford-aircraft-carrier-learning-to-operate-on-the-job
-2017-7?IR=T
30 Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) is the world’s largest conference on cyber space and
related issues. What is special about the 2017 edition of GCCS?
1. The conference is being hosted by India.
2. This is the first time a GCCS conference is hosted outside OECD nations.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: The GCCS is a prestigious international conference that aims at encouraging

dialogue among stakeholders of cyberspace, including governments and private sector, incepted in
2011 in London.
It discusses norms for responsible behaviour in cyberspace and to enhance cyber capacity
building.
The theme for the GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: An Inclusive, Sustainable, Developmental, Safe
and Secure Cyberspace‘.
India will host GCCS 2017. The cyber security will be one of the major focus areas in GCCS
2017.
Q Source: www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/24/insights-daily-current-affairs-24-july-2017/
31 Consider the following about the efforts of Ministry of AYUSH to promote Yoga in India and abroad.
1. It has constituted a National Board for Promotion and Development of Yoga & Naturopathy
(NBPDYN).
2. It has developed a scheme for voluntary certification of Yoga professionals in association with
Quality Council of India (QCI).

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: This is for regulation of education & practice of Yoga & Naturopathy.
Statement 2: As per QCI records, in a span of just one year, the scheme has received over eight
thousand registrations from yoga professionals across India.
The council has roped in eminent yoga personalities like Sri Sri Ravi Shankar, Baba Ramdev,
H R Nagendra and O P Tiwari, who helped design the scheme to ensure that even a basic
trainer evolves into a guru.
The certification will provide overseas and local employment opportunities across government
schools, colleges, yoga institutions and other government recruitments in yoga stream.
Q Source: PIB Releases: 18th July
32 Which of the following best defines the Biosphere?
A. It is the upper region of lithosphere.

B. It is the is the narrow zone where land, water and air come together to contain life forms.
C. It is the lower atmospheric region near the hydrosphere.
D. It is the abiotic component of all forms on earth.
Correct Answer : B
Learning: The solid portion of the earth on which we live is called the Lithosphere.
The gaseous layers that surround the earth, is the Atmosphere, where oxygen, nitrogen,
carbon dioxide and other gases are found.
Water covers a very big area of the earth’s surface and this area is called the Hydrosphere.
The Hydrosphere comprises water in all its forms, that is, ice, water and water vapour.
The Biosphere is the narrow zone where we find land, water and air together, which contains
all forms of life.
33 Consider the following matches of mountains or mountain ranges with the region they are found in.
1. Mount Kosciuszko: Europe
2. Appalachian Mountains: North America
3. Atlas Mountains: Asia
4. Ural Mountains: Russia

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: It is the highest mountain of Australia located in New South Wales.
Statement 2: They are the great highland system of North America, the eastern counterpart of the
Rocky Mountains.
Statement 3: They are in North Africa.
Statement 4: They run across Western Russia, and form the border of Asia with Europe.
34 With reference to Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY) which is a pension scheme
exclusively for senior citizens aged 60 years and above, consider the following statements.
1. Senior citizens will get a market dependent rate of interest.
2. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL) has been given the sole privilege to operate the
scheme.
3. It is exempted from goods and services (GST) tax.
4. The scheme offers loan to senior citizens.
5. It does not allow for premature exit.

A. 1, 2 and 5 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Under this scheme, senior citizens will get a guaranteed interest of 8%
for 10 years depending upon the investment made by them.
Statement 2: Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has been given the sole privilege to operate
the scheme. It can be purchased offline as well as online through LIC.
Statement 4: The scheme also offers loan up to 75% of the purchase price after 3 policy years (to
meet the liquidity needs). Loan interest will be recovered from the pension instalments and loan will
be recovered from claim proceeds.
Statement 5: The scheme allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical terminal illness
of self or spouse.
Q Source:
http://www.businesstoday.in/buzztop/buzztop-personal-finance/8-pension-scheme-pradhan-mantri-va
ya-vandana-yojana-to-be-launched-today-heres-all-you-need-to-know/story/256858.html
35 An Exchange Traded Fund (ETF)

1. Is traded at a fixed price in the market
2. Cannot be used to trade commodities
3. Must be bought over a futures contract

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: ETF is like a mixture of funds that is trade in the stock market.
It can be based on an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket of assets like an index fund;
similar to a mutual fund.
Unlike mutual funds, an ETF trades like a common stock on a stock exchange. ETFs
experience price changes throughout the day as they are bought and sold.
Statement 3: There is no such condition.
ETFs can be easily bought / sold anytime during market hours like any other stock on the exchange.
Learning: The CCEA has recently authorized taking a call on an Alternative Mechanism on
divestment through Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) out of all the listed CPSEs.
Q Source: PIB AKT/VBA/SH (Release ID :168679)
36 With reference to coronal explosions, consider the following:

1. It produces large radiations and particles which may significantly influence the atmosphere of the
star.
2. It has been observed only in the Sun.
3. If the flare from such an explosion reaches earth, it can damage electrical equipment and power
grids.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : B
Justification & Learning: Coronal explosion is an unusually large release of plasma and magnetic
field from the solar corona.
They often follow solar flares and are normally present during a solar prominence eruption.
The plasma is released into the solar wind.
Statement 2: Recently, India’s first dedicated space observatory AstroSat along with other space
and earth-based observatories have detected a massive coronal explosion on Proxima Centauri,
sun’s closest star neighbour.
Statement 3: The massive coronal explosion has sent out powerful solar flare having energy about
100 times a typical solar flare.
If such a massive flare occurs in our Sun, it might have a devastating effect on power grids,
interrupt broadcasts and electricity, affect electronic instruments, and cause excess UV radiation in
space.
Statement 1: Such powerful flaring may have produced large radiations and particles which may
significantly influence the atmosphere of the Proxima Centauri b and affect its habitability.
Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/technology/science/astrosat-chandra-and-hubble-jointly-detect-mass
ive-cosmic-explosion-4759870/
37 Central Counterparty (CCP) is an entity that exists in European countries to

#919
A. Facilitate trading done in derivatives and equities markets

B. Guard joint borders of European Union
C. Coordinate defence equipment related export production
D. Fund mining investments in Least Developed Countries (LDCs)
Correct Answer : A
Learning: CCP is a corporate entity that helps facilitate trading done in European derivatives and
equities markets.
CCP bear most of the credit risk of buyers and sellers when clearing and settling market
transactions.
So, it reduces counterparty, operational, settlement, market, legal and default risk for traders.
It provides efficiency and stability to the financial markets in which they operate.
If you can’t understand the concepts mentioned here (such as credit risk etc.), don’t worry, we will
be covering them up in coming tests.
Q Source: SEBI has entered into a MoU with the European Securities and Markets Authority
(ESMA) on exchange of information regarding CCPs
38 Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana (AGEY) will leverage
A. Community monitored rural transport services

B. Strengths of a Self-help group (SHGs)
C. Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It is a sub-scheme, to be launched by MoRD, under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana –

National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM).
AGEY aims to provide an alternative source of livelihood to members of SHGs by facilitating

them to operate public transport services in backward rural areas.
AGEY will provide safe, affordable and community monitored rural transport services like e-
rickshaws, 3 and 4 wheeler motorised transport vehicles to connect remote villages.
These transport vehicles will connect villages with key services and amenities including
access to markets, education and health for the overall economic development of the area.
The scheme will be implemented on a pilot basis.
Under it, Community Based Organisation (CBO) is proposed to provide interest free loan from
its own corpus to SHG member for purchase of the vehicle.
39 In India, which of these regions have the most developed canal system of irrigation?
A. Central India
B. Southern Deccan plateau
C. Northern plains
D. North-eastern India
Correct Answer : C
Learning: This is the rough irrigation map of India.
You can clearly note that central India lacks good irrigation facilities.
Not all regions in India have high levels of irrigation. Apart from the riverine plains, coastal
regions in our country are well-irrigated. The eastern and northern belt have good canal
irrigation facilities.
In contrast, plateau regions such as the Deccan plateau have low levels of irrigation.
Of the total cultivated area in the country a little less than 40 per cent is irrigated even today.
In these areas, farming is largely dependent on rainfall.
40 An Institute of National Importance (INI) is

1. Recognized by Government of India
2. Any international parent institution of a child institution located in India
3. Generally supported financially by the government
4. Restricted to the domains of engineering and medical institutions

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: An Institute of National Importance, in India is defined as one which serves as a

pivotal player in developing highly skilled personnel within the specified region of the country/state.
Only a chosen few institutes make it to this coveted list and are usually supported by the
Government of India or even any other international institutes to develop centres of
excellence in research, academics, and other such elite schools of education.
In India, all of the IITs, NITs, AIIMS, NIPERs, ISI and some other institutes as Institutes of
National Importance.
It is also proposed to add to the list IIMs, IISERs, IIESTs and the new AIIMS under PMSSY
scheme of GOI once they are empowered by the Government of India by enacting an act in the
Parliament.
Q Source: Conferment of INIs status on IIITs recently
41 At equinox
A. Neither of the poles is tilted towards the sun

B. Sun’s rays do not fall directly over the equator
C. A solar eclipse is necessarily impending
D. A larger portion of the Southern Hemisphere gets light
Correct Answer : A
Justification: There are three major events: summer solstice, winter solstice and equinox.
In both solstice, either northern or southern pole is inclined towards the Sun. This causes
continuous daylight for about six months at either of the poles depending on the kind of solstice.
On 21st March and September 23rd, direct rays of the sun fall on the equator. At this position,
neither of the poles is tilted towards the sun; so, the whole earth experiences equal days and equal
nights. This is called an equinox.
42 India-Canada ‘IMPACTS’ centre focuses on
A. Clean Water technology

B. Uranium testing
C. Skilled labour immigration services
D. Shipping transport development
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Department of Biotechnology and Department of Science and Technology are
collaborating with Canada through the India-Canada Centre for Innovation Multi-disciplinary
Partnerships to Accelerate Community Transformation and Sustainability (IC-IMPACTS), on
programme focusing on Clean Water technology.
Technologies that are being developed are:
Bio-sensors for detection of toxins
Heavy metal detection and removal
Bio-recovery from waste water
These technologies are currently being developed with the aim that these technologies will be used
in India.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/mbErel.aspx?relid=168936
43 Adivasi Mahila Sashaktikaran Yojana provides for

1. Grant of mandatory land pattas to tribal women
2. Loans at concessional rates for income generation activities to tribal women
3. Improving basic and digital literacy among tribal women

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : C
Justification: National Scheduled Tribes Finance and Development Corporation (NSTFDC), an

apex organisation under Ministry of Tribal Affairs is implementing this exclusive scheme for tribal
women.
Under the scheme, ST women can undertake any income generation activity.
Loans upto 90% for scheme costing upto Rs.1 lakh are provided at a concessional rate of interest of
4% per annum.
44 Which of these are nearly of equal length?

1. Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
2. Equator and both tropics
3. Prime Meridian and other longitudes

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 only
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Latitudes equidistant from equator will have more or less equal length.
Statement 2: Length of latitudes goes on decreasing towards poles. So, equator is the longest
latitude (imaginary line).
Statement 3: Unlike parallels of latitude, all meridians are of equal length.
Learning: Facts about lines of latitude:
Are known as parallels.
Run in an east-west direction.
Measure distance north or south from the Equator.

Are parallel to one another and never meet.
Cross the prime meridian at right angles.
Lie in planes that cross the Earth's axis at right angles.
45 With reference to governance of the Public Distribution System (PDS) system, consider the following
statements.
1. The central and state governments share the joint responsibility of regulating the PDS.
2. State governments are responsible for distributing grains to the consumers through a network of
Fair Price Shops (FPSs).
3. The grain quota of Below poverty Line (BPL) and above poverty line families has been fixed at the
same level to control leakages.
4. States/UTs are forbidden to distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS
outlets such as edible oils or iodized salt.

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: While the central government is responsible for procurement,
storage, transportation, and bulk allocation of food grains, state governments distributes the same
through the FPSs.
State governments are also responsible for operational responsibilities including allocation and
identification of families below poverty line, issue of ration cards etc.
Statement 3: A below poverty line (BPL) card holder should be given 35 kg of food grain and the
card holder above the poverty line should be given 15 kg of food grain as per the norms of PDS.
However, there are concerns about the efficiency of the distribution process.
Statement 4: Under the PDS, presently the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene are
being allocated to the States/UTs for distribution.
Some States/UTs also distribute additional items of mass consumption through the PDS outlets such
as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices, etc.
46 Which of the following best describes the shape of our Milky way galaxy?
A. Geoid
B. Sphere
C. Cylinder
D. Barred spiral
Correct Answer : D
Learning: A barred spiral galaxy is a spiral galaxy with a central bar-shaped structure composed of
stars.
Unlike a regular spiral, a barred spiral contains a bar across its center region, and has two major
arms.
The Milky Way also contains two significant minor arms, as well as two smaller spurs. One of the
spurs, known as the Orion Arm, contains the sun and the solar system.
The Orion arm is located between two major arms, Perseus and Sagittarius.
Q Source: Additional Research: Figure 1.6: Page 6: 6th NCERT Geography
47 With reference to the India-UN Development Partnership Fund, consider the following statements.
1. It will be utilized to carry out country-level projects catalytic towards achieving the SDGs.
2. The Partnership fund would be managed by UN Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC).

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: This will be the first time that India has entered into a partnership with the UN in a
triangular cooperation with fellow developing countries
The establishment of the fund is aimed at reducing poverty and hunger, improving health,
education, water, energy and equality etc. in LDCs and other developing countries.
Learning: The United Nations Office for South-South Cooperation (UNOSSC) is a knowledge hub
providing advisory and consulting services to all stakeholders on South-South and triangular
cooperation.
It enables developing countries to effectively face their development challenges and harness
opportunities to address them.
48 With reference to Radiation processing of foods, consider the following statements.

1. It does not make the food radioactive in controlled conditions.
2. It increases the nutritional value of food significantly.
3. It easily reverses the spoilage of good.
4. It can be used for sterilization of medical and packaging products.

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Radiation processing is controlled application of energy of short wave length

radiations of the electromagnetic spectrum known as ionizing radiations and includes gamma rays,
accelerated electrons and X-rays to have desired effect on the product.
Statement 1: Gamma rays, X-rays and electrons prescribed for food irradiation do not induce any
radioactivity in foods.
The food itself never comes in contact with the radioactive material.
Statement 2: In comparison to other food processing and preservation methods, the nutritional
value is least affected by radiation.
Statement 3: Like any other food treatment, radiation processing cannot reverse the spoilage
process and make food good.
Statement 4: Some of the major objectives of radiation processing are:
Sterilization of medical and packaging products
Phytosanitation to overcome quarantine barriers in fruits and vegetables
Insect disinfestations of food products
Learning: BRIT is an independent unit of department of atomic energy which provides products
and services based on radiation & isotopes for applications in healthcare, agriculture, research and
industry.
http://www.britatom.gov.in/htmldocs/faqs_ec1.html
Q Source: Additional Research: PIB 19th July (Release ID :168647)
49 Areas lying between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole in the Northern Hemisphere are very cold.
It is because
1. Earth’s effective radius is lesser at these points.
2. Sun rises above the horizon at these areas almost the entire year.
3. Air pressure at these locations is much lesser as compared to lower latitudes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: This is also the case with the area between Antarctic Circle and the South Pole in the
Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 1: An absurd statement.
Statement 2: Here the sun does not rise much above the horizon. Therefore, its rays are always
slanting. So, these areas receive much lesser solar insolation (heat) and remain cold. They are,
therefore, called Frigid Zones.
Statement 3: It is actually higher. Colder the air higher is its pressure.
50 The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has recently released a National Policy on Thalassemia.
What is ‘thalassemia’ related to?
A. Anaemia
B. HIV
C. Tobacco Control
D. Surrogacy
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Thalassemia are inherited blood disorders characterized by abnormal haemoglobin

production.
The Ministry has prepared and issued comprehensive guideline for Haemoglobinopathies
(Thalassemia, Sickle cell anaemia and other variant anaemia) for prevention and management
of Haemoglobinopathies.
The guidelines provide for screening of every pregnant woman during ANC, pre-marital
counselling at the college level and onetime screening for variant anaemia for all children in
class VIII.
There is no proposal to make carrier testing compulsory for relatives of thalassemia patients
as it should be voluntary and not cause stigmatisation of the family.
Q Source: PIB MV/LK (Release ID :168524)
51 Government of India has voluntarily contributed to various UN Funds and Programmes at the UN
Pledging Conference for the year 2017. Consider the following funds and the Ministry/Department
that made contribution to that fund.
1. UNDP: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
2. UNICEF: Ministry of Women & Child Development
3. United Nations Population Fund (UNFP): Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
4. UNEP: Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: We will cover most of these agencies in upcoming tests.
52 Consider the following statements.

1. Ursa Major constellation is most clearly visible from Southern Hemisphere as against a partial
obstruction from Northern Hemisphere.
2. Pole Star is a rough indicator of the direction toward the geographic north pole.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Ursa Major is visible throughout the year from most of the northern
hemisphere, and appears circumpolar above the mid-northern latitudes. From southern temperate
latitudes, the main asterism is invisible, but the northern parts of the constellation can still be
viewed.
Statement 2: North Star has the property of remaining in a fixed position throughout the course of
the night and its use in celestial navigation.
It is virtually fixed, and its angle of elevation can also be used to determine latitude.
53 Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and Ministry of Women and Child Development have jointly
developed Mother and Child Protection card. Consider the following about it.
1. Every pregnant woman is to be given this Card at the time of registration of pregnancy in all public
or private health facilities.
2. The card would help monitor stages of child development and growth till three years of age.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: This is mandatory only in public health facilities.
Statement 2: It is for documenting and monitoring services for antenatal, intra natal and post-natal
care to Pregnant women.
It includes information on free transport facility to hospital, institutional delivery, preparation

in case of home delivery for the pregnant women, new born care, immunization and, stages of
child development and growth monitoring of child till 3 year of age.
Funds for printing of MCP card are provided to all the states/UTs in the annual Programme
Implementation Plan.
54 India and Bangladesh have agreed to develop round the year navigation of Sirajganj – Daikhowa
stretch of Jamuna river. This has the potential to
1. Facilitate critical connectivity between National Waterways related to rivers Ganga and
Brahmaputra
2. Stop all flood occurrences in the states of Bihar, Jharkhand and Odisha

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It has the potential to facilitate critical connectivity between National
Waterway-1 (River Ganga) and National Waterway-2 (River Brahmaputra) and enable movement of
larger vessels from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh to Sadiya in Assam via Bangladesh.
Costs will be shared in the ratio of 80:20 between India and Bangladesh respectively.
Statement 2: Major drainages of Narayani, Bagmati, and Koshi rivers causes floods in Bihar.
Jamuna is not related here.
Q Source: PIB NP/MS (Release ID :168504)
55 In many areas, the introduction of Green Revolution was associated with

1. Loss of soil fertility
2. Depletion of groundwater table
3. Widespread fungal infections in surrounding crops
4. Reduction of Seed replacement ratio to zero

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: This was due to increased use of chemical fertilizers. Also,
continuous use of groundwater for tubewell irrigation has reduced the water-table below the
ground.
Statement 3: An absurd statement. In fact, many HVVs helped reduce fungal infections.
Statement 4: Seed Replacement Ratio is a measure of how much of the total cropped area was sown
with certified seeds in comparison to farm saved seeds.
This has certainly increased post green revolution as farmers started using certified seeds more and
more.
56 The magnetic compass is the most familiar compass type. However, recently Gyrocompass is also
being used as a modern compass. What is/are its advantages over a magnetic compass?
1. They are able to find the true north, as opposed to magnetic north.
2. They are not affected by ferromagnetic metal as they do not require electricity to operate.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Concept: A gyrocompass is similar to a gyroscope. It is a non-magnetic compass that finds true

north by using an (electrically powered) fast-spinning wheel and friction forces in order to exploit
the rotation of the Earth.
Gyrocompasses are widely used on ships. They have two main advantages over magnetic
compasses:
Justification: Statement 1: They find the true north, i.e., the direction of Earth's rotational axis, as
opposed to magnetic north.
So, large ships typically rely on a gyrocompass, using the magnetic compass only as a backup.
Statement 2: No compass is affected by nonferromagnetic metal, although a magnetic compass will

be affected by any kind of wires with electric current passing through them.
Gyrocompass is not affected by ferromagnetic metal (including iron, steel, cobalt, nickel, and
various alloys) in a ship's hull.
However, they are electrically operated. So, 2 is wrong.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page 25 (image of compass): 6th NCERT Geography
57 With reference to planets of the solar system and their orbital characteristics, consider the following
matches:
1. Uranus: Made entirely of rocks
2. Saturn: Longest spin time on own axis
3. Mars: Highest number of Moons
4. Mercury: Shortest orbital period around Sun

A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 4 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: Planets beyond Mars are gaseous planets, not terrestrial. They are
made of gases.
Statement 2: It is Venus, with 243 days.
Statement 3: Saturn has the highest number of moons – about 18.
Statement 4: It takes only 88 days.
Picture from NCERT for informative purposes:
58 He worked on the approximation for pi and found out the area of a right-angled triangle. He also
worked on the motions of the solar system and calculated the length of the solar year correctly. A
legendary mathematician of the Gupta Era, he is
A. Brahmagupta
B. Aryabhatta
C. Varahamihira
D. Yativṛṣabha
Correct Answer : B
Learning: He wrote Aryabhattiya at the age of 23 years and later, Arya-Siddhanta.
Aryabhatiyam sketches his mathematical, planetary, and cosmic theories.
Aryabhatta deduced that earth is a rotating sphere: the stars do not move, it is the earth that
rotates.
Aryabhatta also deduced that: “The moon eclipses the sun, and the great shadow of the earth
eclipses the moon.”
59 North America is linked to South America by
A. A very narrow Isthmus of Panama

B. A sea overbridge constructed by the USA government
C. Only air and ship travel through coastal regions
D. An international highway constructed jointly by Mexico and Brazil
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Isthmus is narrow strip of land connecting two large land bodies.
A strait is a narrow passageway of water, usually between continents or islands, or between two
larger bodies of water, e.g. the Strait of Gibraltar.
A marginal sea is a sea partially enclosed by islands, archipelagos, or peninsulas. For e.g. Arabian
Sea, Baltic Sea, Bay of Bengal etc.
60 Government has approved formation of a Rail Development Authority (RDA) comprising Chairman
and three Members. Consider the following reference to it.
1. RDA will decide pricing of major rail services commensurate with costs.
2. It will suggest measures for enhancement of Non-Fare Revenue.
3. RDA will focus on protection of consumer interests by ensuring quality of service and cost
optimization.
4. It will approve non-discriminatory open access to the Dedicated Freight Corridor (DFC)
infrastructure for all MNCs

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: The objective underlying the setting up of RDA is to get expert advice on (RDA is not
the apex level decision making body it is an advisory body, which is why statement 1 and 4 are
wrong):
Encouraging market development and participation of stakeholders in the rail sector and for
ensuring a fair deal to the stakeholders and customers.
Benchmarking of service standards against international norms and specify and enforce
standards with respect to the quality, continuity and reliability of services provided by them.
Providing framework for non-discriminatory open access to the Dedicated Freight Corridor
(DFC) infrastructure and others in future.
Suggesting measures to absorb new technologies for achieving desired efficiency and
performance standards.
Statement 2 and 3 (objectives of RDA) are omitted in the above explanation.
Q Source: PIB Releases 19th July
61 The mid-day sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on
A. All latitudes excluding the polar latitude

B. All latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn
C. Only the equator
D. All latitudes beyond both tropics
Correct Answer : B
Learning: This is because earth is tilted at 23.5 degrees on its axis and keeps revolving around the
Sun. Due to this, sun’s rays do not always fall vertically above these latitudes. See diagram below.
Thus, the area between both tropics receives the maximum heat and is called the Torrid Zone.
62 Indian Army is planning to have a total of five regiments of Medium Range Surface to Air Missiles
(MRSAM) defence system. Consider the following with reference to it.
1. It is an amphibian system.
2. It is capable of engaging multiple aerial targets.
3. It is a mobile all-weather system.
4. It will be deployed opposite to China and Pakistan.

A. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Justification: MRSAM is a land-based variant of the long-range surface-to-air missile (LRSAM) or

Barak-8 naval air defence system, which is designed to operate from naval vessels.
Statement 1 and 3: MRSAM is an advanced, all weather, mobile, land-based air defence system.
Statement 2: It can shoot down enemy ballistic missiles, aircraft, helicopters, drones, surveillance
aircraft and AWACS aircraft.
Statement 4: This is what the Indian army is guarding against, all the time.
Learning: In April this year, India had inked a nearly $2 billion missile defence contract with Israel
for supplying advanced medium-range surface-to-air missile systems (MRSAM) to India.
Q Source:
http://indianexpress.com/article/india/narendra-modi-israel-visit-benjamin-netanyahu-mrsam-missile
s-deal-4734693/
63 Tropic of cancer does NOT pass through which of these Indian states?
A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Bihar
Correct Answer : D
Learning: Other states that it passes through are: Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura,
Mizoram.
Q Source: Map based questions: India
64 Welfare schemes for textile workers are being implemented by the Ministry of Textiles in which of
the following areas?
1. Health and accident insurance of weavers and artisans
2. Credit Gaurantee Fund for Micro and small enterprises for the coverage of handicraft artisans
3. Mudra loan for Handicraft Artisans in line with Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Insurance schemes are:
Rajiv Gandhi Shilpi Swasthaya Bima Yojana for Health Insurance, currently under merger
with Rashtriya Shilpi Swasthya Bima Yojana
Aam Admi Bima Yojana, providing for life insurance and accident Insurance
Statement 2 and 3: The National Handloom Development Programme (NHDP) is being implemented
in the country.
Main components of NHDP are Concessional Credit, Handloom Marketing Assistance, and Block
Level Clusters.
65 Consider the following statements. Chemical fertilizers:

1. Provide minerals that are retained in the soil forever
2. Help in the rapid growth of bacteria and other microorganisms to restore the natural fertility of soil

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: They provide minerals which dissolve in water and are immediately
available to plants. But these may not be retained in the soil for long. They may escape from the soil
and pollute groundwater, rivers and lakes.
Statement 2: Chemical fertilizers can also kill bacteria and other microorganisms in the soil. This
means some time after their use, the soil will be less fertile than ever before.
The continuous use of chemical fertilizers has led to degradation of soil health.
66 What is the highest point on Earth as measured from ‘Earth's centre’?
A. Top of Mount Chimborazo

B. Karakoram
C. Mauna Kea
D. Summit of Mount Everest
Correct Answer : A
Justification: The answer is contrary to common perception.
Option D: Mount Everest is usually said to be the highest mountain on Earth.
Everest is indeed the highest point above global mean sea level—the average level for the ocean
surface from which elevations are measured. But the summit of Mt. Everest is not the farthest
point from Earth’s centre.
Earth is not a perfect sphere, but is a bit thicker at the Equator due to the centrifugal force
created by the planet’s constant rotation.
Because of this, the highest point above Earth’s centre is the peak of Ecuador’s Mount
Chimborazo, located just one degree south of the Equator where Earth’s bulge is greatest.
The summit of Chimborazo is 20,564 feet above sea level. However, due to the Earth’s bulge,
the summit of Chimborazo is over 6,800 feet farther from the centre of the Earth than
Everest’s peak.
That makes Chimborazo the closest point on Earth to the stars.
Learning: Option C: You may be surprised to learn that Everest is not the tallest mountain on
Earth, either. That honor belongs to Mauna Kea, a volcano on the Big Island of Hawaii. Mauna Kea
originates deep beneath the Pacific Ocean, and rises more than 33,500 feet from base to peak.
67 The committees that have worked or are working towards evolving the National Education Policy
lately are
1. Gadgil committee
2. Kasturirangan committee
3. Subramanium Panel
4. Shome Committee

A. 1 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: This was setup in 2013 to evolve a framework for the sustainable
governance of western ghats.
Statement 2: One such committee was setup on western ghats, and another has been setup on
educational policy recently.
Statement 3: This was setup to give a shape to the draft national education policy 2016. Here are 10
major recommendations of the panel
http://www.livemint.com/Education/UtNYdM0Ng8EZSFGa5l1cXP/10-recommendations-of-Subraman
ian-Committee-on-new-education.html
Statement 4: This was on retrospective tax amendments and GAAR.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/k-kasturirangan-to-head-panel-on-national-education-policy/
article19148853.ece
68 Sea level rise at specific locations may be more or less than the global average due to many factors.
Which of these factors can create differences between local sea level and global sea level?
1. Local land subsidence
2. Ocean currents
3. Variations in land height

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Concept: Global sea level trends and relative sea level trends are different measurements.
Just as the surface of the Earth is not flat, the surface of the ocean is also not flat — in other words,
the sea surface is not changing at the same rate at all points around the globe.
Justification: This is due to many local factors: subsidence, ocean currents, variations in land
height, and whether the land is still rebounding from the compressive weight of Ice Age glaciers.
For e.g. land subsidence involves gradual settling or sudden sinking of the Earth’s surface. This can
short-term changes in local sea levels.
69 Consider the following statements.

1. In the Solar system planets, only Jupiter and Saturn have rings around them.
2. The rings surrounding the solar system planet are large enough to be visible from naked eyes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus have rings around them. These are belts of
small debris.
The rings appear to be created by dust thrown off by impacts on small moons.
Statement 2: These rings may be seen from the earth with the help of powerful telescopes, not with
naked eyes.
70 The Union Ministry of Science and Technology has launched SOHUM. What is it?
A. A drought free breed of rice that can be grown all round the year
B. A family planning kit that will be distributed free of cost in rural areas
C. An indigenously developed low-cost hearing screening device for newborns
D. A compendium of scientific practices from the Vedas and Puranas
Correct Answer : C
Learning: It is a battery-operated non-invasive screening device available across the country to

minimise or reverse the hearing loss damage.
It is a low cost portable device which uses brain-stem auditory evoked response to inform whether
the child can hear or not.
Once deafness is detected at an early age, measures can be taken to prevent it.
Q Source:
http://www.business-standard.com/article/government-press-release/made-in-india-for-global-health-
sohum-an-innovative-newborn-hearing-117071701237_1.html
71 Under National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC)

1. Cent per cent central grant is given to the State Governments for implementing climate change
adaptation projects
2. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and associated agencies have committed to
contributing fifty per cent of the budget

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Under this scheme, Union Government encourages States to come up
with innovative and scalable projects to develop resilience against climate change and mainstream
it in the planning processes.
The objective of the fund is to assist states/UTs that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse
effects of climate change in meeting the cost of adaptation.
Statement 2: There is no such provision.
Learning: It is a flagship Scheme of Union Government launched in 2015.
The Scheme has been designed to fulfill the objectives of National Action Plan on Climate
Change (NAPCC) and operationalize the State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCCs).
NABARD is the National Implementing Entity (NIE) responsible for implementation of

adaptation projects under the NAFCC.
72 Recently a hybrid material was synthesised by scientists from IISER combining polyhedral oligomeric
silsesquioxane (POSS) and diphenylalanine. What is the special property of this hybrid?
A. It is an organic plastic.
B. It is fire and rust resistant.
C. It is a metal that is lighter in density than water.
D. It is a radioactive material with infinite half-life.
Correct Answer : B
Learning: It is an organic-inorganic molecular hybrid material which is fire and rust resistant.
Both POSS and diphenylalanine are naturally water repelling, and when they are combined
together the hydrophobic nature further gets enhanced.
The POSS has unique properties such as high thermal stability and fire retarding ability.
The hybrid material is colourless and does not react with metal.
It also inhibits bacterial growth and make coated material such as wood or paper fire and
flame proof.
Nails coated with the material can resist corrosion even when treated with highly corrosive
aqueous solution of sodium chloride, sodium bromide, potassium chloride and hydrochloric
acid.
It also increases the mechanical strength of the coated paper appreciably. Paper or other
materials coated with it can behave similar to the lotus leaf and keep the surface clean and
completely water-proof.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/iiser-kolkata-develops-fire-retardant-rust-resistant-materi
al/article19285634.ece
73 Which of these have a bearing on inland waterway governance in India?

1. National Waterways Act, 2016
2. Inland Vessels (Amendment) Act, 2007
3. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Inland water traffic amounts to only 0.17% of total inland traffic in India. These acts
and bodies promote such transport.
Statement 1: A national waterway can only be declared by an act of Parliament.
So, this Act merges 5 existing Acts which have declared the 5 National Waterways and proposes
106 additional National Waterways.
Statement 2: It was enacted to facilitate the extension and usage of inland waterways by vessels. It
is an amendment to an original Act passed in 1917.
Statement 3: IWAI is the statutory authority in charge of the waterways in India. It does the
function of building the necessary infrastructure in these waterways, surveying the economic
feasibility of new projects and also administration.
Q Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=26099
74 Consider the following about the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI).
1. It was established as a statutory authority under the provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016.
2. It is an attached office of NITI Aayog.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: Under the Aadhaar Act 2016, UIDAI is responsible for Aadhaar
enrolment and authentication, including operation and management of all stages of Aadhaar life
cycle.
It also focuses on developing the policy, procedure and system for issuing Aadhaar numbers to
individuals and perform authentication and also required to ensure the security of identity
information and authentication records of individuals.
Statement 2: It is under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
Prior to its establishment as a statutory authority, UIDAI was functioning as an attached office of
the then Planning Commission.
Q Source: Frequently in news
75 United States Navy successfully tested the world’s first-ever active Laser Weapons System (LaWS).
Consider the following about it.
1. It operates within an invisible part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
2. It is absolutely silent in its operation.
3. It does not require electrical power and operates by converting sun’s rays into laser beams.
4. Its system has special materials that release photons at the speed of light.

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Justification: It strikes are extremely accurate, silent and invisible. It is primarily intended to take
on drones, aircraft, and small vessels that could be used in an attack.
The system has special materials that release photons at the speed of light. It silently hits the
target, burning it to a temperature of thousands of degrees.
It can even target a single component of an enemy target and disable or destroy it as
necessary.
Each strike of the system travels 50,000 times the speed of an incoming ICBM
(Intercontinental Ballistic Missile).
Its precise nature can also limit collateral damage in wartime. Its cost per use is
approximately $1 per shot.
The system requires electrical power and a three-man team.
Q Source: http://www.insightsonindia.com/2017/07/19/insights-daily-current-affairs-19-july-2017/
76 Article 142 in the Constitution of India was recently in news. This article empowers
A. The supreme court to pass order as necessary for doing complete justice in any cause
B. The Union government to overtake core functions of the state government in case of
President’s rule
C. The Governor of a state to reject claims of government formation if the claim is not bonafide
D. The local bodies to take over the peripheral civic functions of district administration
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Recently, the Supreme Court has allowed the Union Government to replace the oversight
committee set up to supervise the functioning of the Medical Council of India (MCI) with a fresh
panel of five eminent doctors to reduce corruption in the functioning of the body.
SC took this initiative under the powers assigned to it under A142 of the constitution.
Experts comment that this article gives SC extraordinary powers which should be used
sparingly and responsibly.
A very informative article on this issue, a must read

http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/article-142-and-the-need-for-judicial-restraint/article184749
19.ece
77 What s/are the differences between physical capital and human capital?
1. Human capital cannot be used as factor of production whereas physical capital can be.
2. A nation’s physical capital cannot grow over time whereas human capital can.
3. Physical capital cannot be organized unlike human capital.

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
Correct Answer : D
Justification: Statement 1: Every production is organised by combining land, labour, physical

capital and human capital, which are known as factors of production.
Statement 2: Both grow. You may have head of Gross physical capital formation term in economic
surveys often. This essentially means development in roads, bridges, capital good etc that are
helpful in increasing production capabilities.
Statement 3: Physical capital is the variety of inputs required at every stage during production,
such as machinery. They can be very well organized and maintained for e.g. at different factory
locations.
78 “Protection and Preservation of Endangered Languages of India’ (SPPEL) is a government initiative.

Consider the following about it.
1. It was instituted by Ministry of Tribal affairs.
2. It aims to document and archive the country’s languages that have become endangered or are likely
to be.
3. Languages identified under SPPEL will be added to the Eighth schedule of the Constitution.

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1 and 2: An initiative of MHRD, it is being implemented by Central

Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL), Mysore.
Statement 2: This scheme aims at protection, preservation and documentation of all the mother
tongues/languages of India which are spoken by less than 10,000 people.
Dialects being part of a language are covered under this programme.
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has a Scheme for “Establishment of Centres for
Endangered Languages” under which centres were approved in respect of nine Central
Universities.
Presently, 117 languages have been listed for the documentation.
Statement 3: Eighth schedule contains around 22 languages that are officially recognized by the
Government of India to be an inseparable part of cultural heritage. It isn’t a list of endangered
languages.
79 Consider the following statements. Assertion (A): The literacy rates in India have increased from
nearly 50% in 1951 to about 75% in 2010-11. Reason (R): Public expenditure on education as a
percentage of GDP has consistently increased from 1951 levels in India.
In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.
B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.
C. A is incorrect, but R is correct.
D. Both A and R are incorrect.
Correct Answer : D
Justification: The literacy rates in 18% in 1951 was only 18% which has increased to 74% in
2010-11.
The expenditure on education as a percentage of GDP rose from 0.64% in 1951–52 to 3.3% in
2013–14 (B.E.)
However, there have been many ups and downs. See the attached graph (Source: World Bank). Y
axis shows percentage of GDP, and X axis shows the years.
80 As per the various existing State Land Record databases, which of these are local units of land
measurement in India?
1. Guntas
2. Sarsaai
3. Biswansi
4. Dugurum
5. Marla

A. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Different traditional units like Kanal, Marla, Cents, Guntas, Bigha, Biswa, Biswansi,
Sarsaai are used for recording the area of a land parcel.
Area units are different within the state and sometimes same unit may have different
conversion factors when used in different states.
For example, Bigha is used in practice in both Assam and also in some states like Delhi,
Rajasthan, Haryana etc.
Both the Bigha units have different conversion factors to hectares. At present, it is
represented as a numeric data type up to three decimal places.
It is now recommended to have the area only in Metric Units
You can find conversion factors here http://dolr.nic.in/dolr/mpr/mastercodes/areaunitcodes.pdf
81 Which of these are held by voting via Secret Ballot, as against open ballot, in the Parliament?
1. Election of the office of President and Vice-President
2. Election of members to Rajya Sabha
3. Voting on motions and resolutions in the house

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: This is because in such cases anti-defection rules do not apply. Voters
are free to register their choices independently from the party’s view.
Statement 2: A five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court upheld introduction of open
ballot, instead of secret ballot, for elections to the Rajya Sabha.
Read here
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/open-ballot-for-rajya-sabha-polls-upheld/article30
94555.ece
This was to prevent instance of horse trading, where candidates voted for cash.
Statement 3: There is an open voting, either by voice or by buttons.
Learning: During an 'open' voting period in the house, the individual results are shown by the
three characters 'A', 'N' and 'O' on the Individual Result Display Panel.
Secret voting, if any, is on similar lines except that the Light Emitting Diode (LED) on the Individual
Result Display Panel shows a sign in amber light to show that the vote has been recorded.
Q Source: Presidential election
82 Which of the following description best suits Himalayan mountains?
A. Young fold mountains

B. Old block mountains
C. Rugged and young block mountains
D. Rounded volcanic mountains
Correct Answer : A
Learning: There are three types of mountains- Fold Mountains, Block Mountains and the Volcanic
Mountains.
Option A: The Himalayan Mountains and the Alps are young fold mountains with rugged relief and
high conical peaks.
Fold mountains are created when two plates collide which is the case with Himalayas.
The Aravali range in India is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world.
Option B: Block Mountains are created when large areas are broken and displaced vertically. This
didn’t happen with Himalayas.
83 The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MOHFW), Government of India, designated which of
these as the nodal agency, responsible for providing coordination and technical guidance for the
National Family Health Survey (NFHS)?
A. International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS)

B. United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
C. NITI Aayog
D. Directorate General of Health and Nutrition, MoHFW
Correct Answer : A
Justification: NFHS is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in a representative sample of

households throughout India.
NFHS is a collaborative project of IIPS, Mumbai and others institutions like.
NFHS was funded by the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) with
supplementary support from United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF).
84 Technology and Innovation Support Centre (TISC) are being setup by Department of Industrial policy
and promotion (DIPP). Services offered by TISCs include:
1. Access to online patent resources and intellectual property (IP)-related publications
2. Assistance in searching and retrieving technology information
3. Design, incubation and execution support and finance for start-ups
4. Plug and play special economic zones (SEZs) inside TISC

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : A
Concept: The objective of the TISC is to stimulate a dynamic, vibrant and balanced IPRs to promote
entrepreneurship and enhance social, economic and cultural development by establishing a network
of TISCs in India.
It provides innovators in developing countries with access to locally based, high quality technology
information and related services, helping them to exploit their innovative potential and to create,
protect, and manage their IPRs.
Justification: Statement 3 and 4: There are no such provisions, however, other services given by
TISC include:
Monitoring technology and competitors.
Basic information on industrial property laws, management and strategy, and technology
commercialization and marketing.
85 The SDG Index and Dashboard collect available data for countries to assess where each country
stands in a particular year with regard to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It is
published by
A. UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)

B. World Bank
C. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
D. A consortium of NGOs chosen by party countries for independent assessment
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It has been operating since 2012 under the auspices of the UN Secretary-General.
SDSN mobilizes global scientific and technological expertise to promote practical solutions for
implementation of the SDGs and the Paris Climate Agreement.
SDSN works closely with United Nations agencies, multilateral financing institutions, the private
sector, and civil society.
India is ranked 116th on the index for 2017.
Q Source:
http://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/indicators/india-ranks-116-out-of-157-nations-o
n-sdg-index/articleshow/59582186.cms
86 CRISPR, recently seen in news, is a
A. Powerful gene editing technique

B. Space probe to Jupiter
C. Electronic storage device capable of very large data storage
D. Supercomputer inducted by India
Correct Answer : A
Concept: CRISPR, short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats, was named
“2015 Breakthrough of the Year” by the U.S. journal Science.
It allows scientists to selectively edit genome parts and replace them with new DNA stretches.
Cas9 is an enzyme that can edit DNA, allowing the alteration of genetic patterns by genome
modification.
CRISPR is a collection of DNA sequences that direct Cas9 where to cut and paste.
Application: Scientists have successfully encoded a movie in the DNA of a living cell, where it can
be retrieved at will and multiplied indefinitely as the host divides and grows.
It is the latest and perhaps most astonishing example of the genome’s potential as a vast
storage device.
The geneticists ended up with a sequence of DNA molecules that represented the entirety of
the film.
Then they used a powerful new gene editing technique, Crispr, to slip this sequence into the
genome of a common gut bacteria, E. coli.
Despite the modification, the bacteria thrived and multiplied. The film stored in the genome was
preserved intact with each new generation of progeny.
Q Source: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/the-future-of-white-gold/article18447840.ece
87 With reference to poverty related statistics in India, Incidence of poverty is higher in

1. Rural areas as compared to urban areas
2. Eastern states as compared to Southern states

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Nearly, every fourth person in India is poor. This means, roughly 270
million (or 27 crore) people in India live in poverty 2011-12.
Only old estimates are available, new ones will be available after the updated results of sample
surveys.
Statement 2:
Q Source: Page 34-35: 9th NCERT Economics
88 Consider the following about the Modified Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation Scheme (MIIUS).
1. All States are covered under the scheme.
2. It focuses on providing quality infrastructure through public private partnership.
3. Greenfield Projects are undertaken in backward areas and North Eastern Region (NER).

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : D
Background: Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation Scheme (IIUS) was launched in 2003 with the
objective of enhancing industrial competitiveness of domestic industry.
This is a modified version of the scheme (started in 2013).
Justification: Under MIIUS, projects have been undertaken to upgrade infrastructure in existing
Industrial Parks/ Estates/ Areas.
Projects are being implemented by the State Implementing Agency (SIA) of the State
Government.
Central Grant upto 50% of the project cost with a ceiling of Rs.50 crore is provided under
MIIUS with at least 25% contribution of State Implementing Agency.
In case of North Eastern States, the central grant and minimum contribution of the SIA are up
to 80% and 10% respectively.
Q Source: It was in news due to Parliamentary questions on PIB:

http://dipp.nic.in/programmes-and-schemes/infrastructure/industrial-infrastructure-upgradation-sch
eme-iius
89 The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is declared by the government every year
A. Before the sowing season

B. Every week at all major mandis
C. At the end of every month
D. After the sowing season
Correct Answer : A
Learning: MSP is like a price signal to provide incentives to the farmers for raising the production
of particular crops whose MSP has been set higher.
MSP is decided by Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
However, a buffer stock is created by the government to distribute foodgrains in the deficit areas
and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price also known as Issue
Price.
90 India has not ratified some of the core or fundamental International Labour Organisation (ILO)
Conventions, namely Freedom of Association and Protection of the Right to Organise Convention,
1948 and Right to Organise and Collective Bargaining Convention, 1949. This is because
1. Accepting this convention would allow government servants to work for foreign organizations
freely.
2. The conventions would give government servants a right to openly criticize Government policies.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: In India, we ratify an ILO Convention only when the national laws are brought fully
into conformity with the provisions of the Convention in question.
The main reason for non-ratification of ILO Conventions is due to certain restrictions imposed
on the Government servants.
As communicated by Department of Personnel & Training (DOPT), the ratification of these

conventions would involve granting of certain rights that are prohibited under the statutory
rules, for the Government employees.
These are: to strike work, to openly criticize Government policies, to freely accept financial
contribution, to freely join foreign organizations etc.
Learning: India has ratified six out of the eight core ILO Conventions. These are the
Forced Labour Convention, 1930
Abolition of Forced Labour Convention, 1957
Equal Remuneration Convention, 1951
Discrimination (Employment and Occupation) Convention, 1958
Minimum Age Convention, 1973
www.insightsias.com Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999 95

Q Source: PIB AK (Release ID :168889)
91 LCU Mark-IV vessels have been designed for multipurpose amphibious operations jointly carried out
Indian Navy and Indian Army to ensure maritime security of
A. Andamans and Lakshadweep islands

B. Sundarban Delta
C. High seas near Gujarat oil fields
D. Gulf of Mannar Reserve
Correct Answer : A
Learning: It has 90% indigenous content.
It is capable of carrying two tanks or four special vehicles and over hundred troops for landing at
remote beach heads.
It can be deployed for multiple activities like operations for landing troops ashore, humanitarian aid
and disaster relief operations and evacuation of personnel from distant islands.
Q Source: http://indianexpress.com/article/india/grse-hands-over-2nd-lcu-mark-iv-vessel-4760302/
92 The recent passing of The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (Amendment) Bill,
2017 by Lok Sabha was centred on
A. Teacher training
B. Infrastructure development
C. Digitization of schools
D. No detention provision
Correct Answer : A
Learning: The Bill amends the RTE, 2009 to extend the deadline for teachers to acquire the
prescribed minimum qualifications for appointment.
It will enable the in-service untrained elementary teachers to complete their training and ensure
that all teachers at the elementary level have certain minimum standard of qualifications.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliament-live-updates-monsoon-session-day-5-july-21-201
7/article19322975.ece
93 The only continent through which the Tropic of Cancer, the Equator and the Tropic of Capricorn pass
is
A. Asia
B. South America
C. Australia
D. Africa
Correct Answer : D
Learning: South America misses Tropic of Cancer, Australia misses both equator and tropic of
cancer.
94 As meteoroids come near the earth and tend to drop upon it, we often see a flash of light. This is
caused due to
A. Air induced friction borne by meteoroids

B. Charged particle emission by meteoroids
C. Destruction of ozone layer by meteoroids
D. Ion exchange between Ionosphere and meteoroids
Correct Answer : A
Justification & Learning: The small pieces of rocks which move around the sun are called
meteoroids.
Sometimes these meteoroids tend to drop upon it. During this process due to friction with the air
they get heated up and burn.
It causes a flash of light. Sometimes, a meteor without being completely burnt, falls on the earth
and creates a hollow.
Q Source: Additional Research: Page : 6th NCERT Geography
95 With reference to the Palk Strait, consider the following statements.

1. It connects the state of Tamilnadu in India to Sri Lanka.
2. No river flows into the strait.
3. The popular Ram Setu is located near the strait.
4. The deep waters and reefs of the strait makes it a much-sought alternative shipping route for large
cargo.

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : A
Justification: Statement 1: It is a strait between Tamil Nadu and the Mannar district of the
Northern Province of Sri Lanka. It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with the Palk Bay in
the southwest.
Statement 2: Several rivers flow into it, including the Vaigai River of Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3: Palk Bay is studded at its southern end with a chain of low islands and reef shoals that
are collectively called Adam's Bridge, since ages it is popularly known in Hindu Mythology as "Ram
Setu" i.e. The Bridge of Rama.
Statement 4: The shallow waters and reefs of the strait make it difficult for large ships to pass
through, although fishing boats and small craft carrying coastal trade have navigated the strait for
centuries. Large ships must travel around Sri Lanka.
Learning: Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project is a proposed project to create a shipping route
in the shallow straits between India and Sri Lanka.
The channel would be dredged in the Sethusamudram sea between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka,
passing through the limestone shoals of Adam's Bridge (Ram Setu). Hence, it has been opposed by
religious groups.
96 CORDEX is a
A. Regional climate change modelling programme

B. Food standardization programme
C. Vaccination programme run by UNICEF
D. Internet sea cable laying programme of the WTU
Correct Answer : A
Learning: Coordinated Regional Climate Downscaling Experiment (CORDEX) is a World Climate

Research Programme (WCRP) sponsored program to produce regional climate change scenarios
globally, contributing to the IPCC Assessment reports and to the climate community.
CORDEX will produce an ensemble of multiple dynamical and statistical downscaling models
(regional details).
Option B: Codex Alimentarius Commission is related to food standards, not CORDEX.
Need for CORDEX: A Global Climate Model (GCM) can provide reliable prediction information on
scales of around 1000 by 1000km covering what could be a vastly differing landscape (from very
mountainous to flat coastal plains for example) with greatly varying potential for floods, droughts or
other extreme events.
Regional Climate Models (RCM) applied over a limited area and driven by GCMs can provide
information on much smaller scales supporting more detailed impact and adaptation assessment
and planning, which is vital in many vulnerable regions of the world.
Q Source: http://www.pib.nic.in/newsite/erelcontent.aspx?relid=101508
https://www.wcrp-climate.org/
97 With reference to the India-Japan Agreement for Cooperation in the Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy,
consider the following statements.
1. India is the only non-Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty (NPT) signatory country with which Japan
has entered into a civil nuclear deal.
2. The deal would enable Japan to export nuclear power plant technology as well as provide finance
for nuclear power plants in India.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: This gives recognition for India’s impeccable non-proliferation record.
Till now, India has also signed civil nuclear deal with 10 other countries viz. Russia, United States,
France, South Korea, Mongolia, Namibia, Argentina, Canada, Kazakhstan and Australia.
Statement 2: It will also assist India in nuclear waste management and could undertake joint
manufacture of nuclear power plant components under the Make in India initiative.
This was signed in during the visit of Indian PM to Japan in 2016. Subsequently, the Japanese
government also got approval from the Diet (Japanese Parliament) for the nuclear deal with India.
Q Source:
http://www.thehindu.com/news/national/india-japan-civil-nuclear-deal-comes-into-force/article19320
024.ece
98 Acute mountain sickness or altitude sickness is usually caused due to

1. Increase in air pressure and density
2. Low levels of oxygen at high altitudes

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : B
Justification: Statement 1: The density of the atmosphere varies with height. It is maximum at the
sea level and decreases rapidly as we go up, so does the air pressure.
Statement 2: Higher altitudes have lower levels of oxygen and decreased air pressure.
When you travel in a plane, drive or hike up a mountain, or go skiing, your body may not have
enough time to adjust. This can result in acute mountain sickness.
So, many have to carry with them oxygen cylinders to be able to breathe at high altitudes.
99 A straight line joining Dehradun to Vijayawada will pass through how many states, excluding the
origin and destination?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Correct Answer : C
Justification: It will pass through UP, MP, Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh and Telangana apart from
UK and AP. We will keep covering India map based questions in upcoming tests.
Q Source: Map based questions: India
100 The Department of Biotechnology has initiated two farmer-centric programmes Biotech Kisan and
Cattle Genomics. Consider the following about them.
1. Cattle Genomics programme intends to select elite breeding animal at an early age by identifying
genetic worth of animals.
2. Biotech Kisan programme focuses on creating strong scientists-farmers interactive platform to solve
problems of farmers with technology.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None
Correct Answer : C
Justification: Statement 1: Biotech Kisan hubs have been recommended to be setup in seven agro-
climatic zones under this programme.
These Biotech Kisan hub’s will understand problems of farmers related to water, soil, seed
and marketing and provide solutions with validated technologies.
Under the programme thematic farmer fellowship as well as fellowships to women farmers
(Mahila Kisan Biotech Fellowship) will be awarded.
Statement 2: The cattle genomics programme is being implemented by National Institute of Animal
Biotechnology, an autonomous Institute funded by the Department.
It is currently in research mode. The main objective is to predict breeding values of animal, using
DNA level information with performance record, more accurately and identify genetic worth of
animal (elite animal) at an early age.
The ability to select elite breeding animal at an early age will help in enhancing productivity at
farmer’s level in future.

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TEST - 2 (MOCK TEST - 2) Total Marks : 200

Which of the above is/are correct?

Justification: Statement 1: Biomethane is produced by ‘anaerobic’ digestion of organic matter such

Q Source: As mentioned above

2 What would happen if the Earth stopped spinning immediately?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 19: 6th NCERT Geography

3 With reference to Araghatta or Persian wheels, consider the following statements.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 3: 9th NCERT Economics

Q Source: Page 39 (Figure 6.1): 6th NCERT Geography

Which of the above is/are correct?

Justification: High-yielding varieties (HYVs) of agricultural crops are usually characterized by a

higher crop yield per area (hectare)

improved response to fertilizers

high reliance on irrigation and fertilizers - see intensive farming

So, both 1 and 2 are wrong.

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 4: 9th NCERT Economics

6 What is/are Castor seed plants generally known for?

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Statement 3: It is a popular medicine as well as used in cosmetics.

Q Source: Additional Research:

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Additional Research: Page 14: 6th NCERT Geography

8 Most of the cultivable land in India is owned by

A. Small and marginal farmers

Justification: A pie-chart from NCERT:

These are some of the important agricultural statistics:

Q Source: Chapter 1: Graph 1.1: 9th NCERT Economics

9 Rich countries are rich because

Q Source: Chapter 1: 9th NCERT Economics

A. Official language of navigators across the globe

Misunderstood communication can lead to serious and even dangerous situations.

Q Source: Additional Research: Based on Chapter 5: 6th NCERT Geography

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: National Strategic Plan (NSP) for Malaria Elimination (2017-22)

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Justification: Statement 1: Padhe Bharat Badhe Bharat is a sub-programme of Sarva Shiksha

Statement 2: As a follow up to the above foundational programme, in 2015-16 a programme called

You may read details here

This is a comprehensive compilation of MHRD initiatives:

Q Source: Additional Research: PIB Releases: 24th July

You can find state specific data here

Learning: Other key parameters:

Death rate (%): 7

Neo Natal Mortality Rate (NMR) (per 1000 live births): 28

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) (Birth/ woman): 2.3

Under 5 Mortality Rate (U-5MR) (per 1000 live births): 25

Q Source: Page 22: 9th NCERT Economics

14 Consider the following about Microplastics.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Which of the above is/are correct?

Statement 2: In case of disguised unemployment people appear to be employed. They have

Q Source: Page 25: 9th NCERT Economics

The event highlighted the persecution against the practitioners in China.

There are elements of Buddhist and Taoist tradition in this practice.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

Q Source: Page 34-35: 9th NCERT Economics

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

It is electronically controlled through an electronic engine management System.

A. Both by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

We will cover such and other reports in detail in upcoming tests.

Q Source: Page 36: 9th NCERT Economics