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1. Infective endocarditis
a. Commonly associated with ASD F
b. Commonly associated with structural defect with low tubulent flow F
c. Splenomegaly is uncommon F
d. Commoner in less than 5yrs than in adults F
e. Microscopic hematuria is a common lab findings T
2. Concerning VSD
a. Left to right shunt increases the risk of cerebral abscess F
b. Pan systolic murmur which is loudest at the mitral area F
c. The systolic murmur increases with pulmonary HTN T
d. Risk of Iron deficiency anaemia F
3. Concerning the catarrhal phase of pertussis
a. Frequently prolonged episode of cough F
b. Paroxysmal whoop F
c. Blotted eye F
d. Stringy sputum F
e. Inspiratory whoop F
4. Concerning bronchopneumonia
a. Staph aureus T
b. Strept pneumo T
c. Adenovirus T
d. Rhinovirus T
e. GBS in toddlers F
5. Varicella infection
a. Is an RNA virus F
b. Incubation period is 11-21days F
c. May occur in newborn babies T
6. Tetanus spasm is stimulated by
a. Noise T
b. Touch T
c. Constant intensity of light F
d. Change of posture T
e. Draught of air T
7. The vaccine for protection of acute epiglottitis
a. Pneumococcal
b. Hib
c. DTap
d. Influenza
e. Measles
8. These are gram negative cocci
a. Bordettela pertusis F
b. H. influenza F
c. S. aureus F
d. Neisseria meningitis T
e. E.coli F
9. …,,
a. Brittleness of the nail
b. Growth retardation
c. Hepatosplenomegaly
d. Poor concentration
e. Severe anaemia
10. The following are typical of Erb’s palsy
a. Always a defect as a result of T1 and T2 F
b. Inability to feel sensation on the affected limb F
c. Due to inadequate obstetric delivery T
d. Usually as a result of breech delivery F
e. In this patient the forearm is proned and fingers are flexed F
11. Generalized muscle ache is most severe is what stage of polio
a. Incubation period as a result of rapid dividing viral cells
b. Abortive stage
c. Non-paralytic
d. Paralytic
e. In apparent
12. Features of congenital rubella syndrome
a. Blindness T
b. Deafness T
c. Patent ductus arteriosus T
d. Ventricular septal defect F
e. Hydrocephalus F
13. Which of the following are typical causative agents of bronchopneumonia
a. GBS in toddlers F
b. Adenovirus T
c. Rhinovirus T
d. Strept pneumonia T
e. Staph aureus T
14. Clavicular fracture in newborn in evident in
a. 3days
b. 5days
c. 7days
d. 10days
e. 14days
15. A patient was said to have sudden loss of consciousness lasting about 10-20secs. This
was said to have affected his performance at school. The patient had
a. Grand mal
b. Petit mal
c. Infantile spasm
d. Breath holding spells
e. Simple partial seizures
16. Child of 2years, 11kg, PCV is 12%
a. IV fluid are given
b. Serum E,U,Cr is needed
c. Give frusemide to decrease work load
d. Give dextrose…..
e. ..
17. Acute lysis syndrome
a. Hyperkalaemia T
b. Hypouricaemia F
c. Metabolic alkalosis F
d. Hypocalcemia T
18. Right to left shunt
a. ASD F
b. PDA F
c. Partial anomalous PVD T
d. Ebsten anomaly F
e. TOF T
19. Exanthema of measles
a. Fleeting of small papules, macules and vesicles F
b. Presence of papules, macules and large vesicles simultaneously F
c. Presence of dusty-red maculopapular rash T
d. Conglomeration of papules, macules and vesicles T
20. Infectivity period of varicella
a. 1 week before appearance of exanthema to 1 week after
b. 24hrs before appearance of exanthema and crusting of the last lesion
c. From appearance to one day after
d. From appearance of the 1st lesion to the appearance of the last lesion
e. From appearance of the 1st lesion of the disappearance of the last lesion
21. A 2year old child was brought to the emergency, on acct of passage of watery stool
and vomiting of 2days, he was restless, irritable and skin retract about 1sec after
pinching
a. He has some dehydration T
b. Ringers lactate should be given at 20ml/kg immediately F
c. Assessment of electrolyte and creatinine should be done T
d. ORS is the treatment of choice T
e. Zinc is given to protect further occurrence for 2-3months T
22. A 3year old child was brought to emergency by her grandmother on account of
failure to gain weight. He was pale, had spoon shaped nails with bilateral pitting
edema. Weight is 7.5kg, height is 80cm.
a. Scurvy F
b. Iron deficiency T
c. Vitamin D def. F
d. Kwashiorkor T
e. Stunting F
23. Parvovirus is more indicated in the following
a. Acute splenic sequestration
b. Functional asplenia
c. Aplastic crises
d. Recurrent hemolytic crises
e. Vasooclusive crises
24. About burkit lymphoma
a. Commoner in people near sea level T
b. It shows high propensity for the mandible than the maxilla F
c. This is associated with loosening of tooth T
d. There is loss of dental lamina dura on physical examination F
e. It is poorly treated with cyclophosphamide F
25. Features not typical of bronchiolitis
a. Cough
b. Temp of 40C
c. Coryza
d. Wheezing
e. Crepitation
26. Tracheotomy is required in
a. Diphtheria T
b. Acute epiglottitis T
c. Inhalated foreign body T
d. Ludwid angina T
e. Inhalational pneumonitis F
27. Unilateral absence of moro reflex is found in the following
a. Severe birth asphyxia F
b. Clavicle fracture T
c. Erb’s palsy T
d. Humerus fracture T
e. Shoulder dislocation T
28. Which of the following is most implicated in bronchiolitis
a. H.inflenza
b. Strept pneuma
c. Rotal virus
d. RSV
e. Rhinovirus
29. A 10month old child presents with fever, cough and labored breathing. On
examination there was subcostal and intercostals recession and wheezing. The likely
disease is
a. Bronchial asthma F
b. Inspiratory volume is a little less than expiratory volume F
c. Hyper-inflated lung fields on radiograph T
d. Dull percussion note F
e. Vocal fremitus is reduced T
30. This is more associated with lobar pneumonia than bronchopneumonia
a. Occurs in adolescent T
b. Bronchial breath sound T
c. Chest painT
d. More virulent organism T
31. Causes of heart failure in neonatal periods are
a. Severe birth asphyxia
b. Bronchopneumonia T
c. Small VSD F
d. TGA T
32. Clinical features of PDA are
a. Small pulse F
b. Wide pressure T
c. Small pressure F
d. L-R shunt T
33. Which is the correct sequence
a. Congestion, red hepatization, gray hepatization, and resolution,,,.,
b. ,,.
34. Abortive poliomyelitis symptoms present with
a. Stiffness of the neck F
b. Back muscle ache F
c. Abdominal pain T
d. Sore throat T
e. Spinal rigidity F
35. Congenital rubella syndrome present with
a. Cataract T
b. Deafness T
c. PDA T
d. Microcephaly T
e. Mental retardation T
36. First stage of vitamin A defiency
a. Bitot spot
b. Corneal xerosis
c. Nyctalopia
d. Conjunctival xerosis
e. Corneal ulceration
37. Risk factors for necrotizing enterocolitis
a. Hypertonic milk/drugs T
b. Too rapid increase in volume of feed T
c. Polycythaemia T
d. Birth asphyxia T
e. Infection T
………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………
Phosphate=0.8
Na=140
K=4
PTH=
Urea
Diagnosis
a. Hypothyroidism
b. Antitrypsin deficiency
c. Rickets
27. What other investigation will you do
a. x-ray of wrist
b. LDH
c. LFT
d. Calcitonin
e. Thyroid function test
Best option
28. A child is
a. 0-5 yrs
b. 0-6yrs
c. 0-12yrs
d. 0-16yrs
e. 0-18yrs
29. Which of the anti TB drug is not hepatotoxic
a. Rifampicin
b. Parazinamide
c. Isoniazid
d. Streptomycin
30. Haemophilia A
a) it is autosomal recessive
b) cannot occur in female
c) factor IX deficiency
d) bleeding can occur into large joints
e) platelets can be reduced
31. A normal 1 year old boy
a) Can climb staircase F
b) Can feed himself with cup and spoon F
c) Can make two word phrase T
d) Can walk F
e) Get dry during the day F
32. Burkitt’s lymphoma
a) It is a T Lymphocyte F
b) Translocation is between 8 and 2 T
c) Affects more female than male F
d) It is highly chemosensitive T
e) It is rapidly dividing T
33. Infertile spasm
a) Phenobarbitone is the drug of choice F
b) EEG trading is a spiky wave form
c) It has a good prognosis
34. Children
a) 0-5
b) 0-18
c) 0-12
d) 3-9
35. Cardinal feature of heart failure
a) Tachypnoea T
b) Non tender hepatomegaly F
c) Oedema F
36. A boy with cyanosis first noticed at Emontas, always squatting, woke up that
morning crying and was noticed to be blue.
What condition is this?
a) VSD
b) ASD
c) PDA
d) TOF
e) TAVPD
37. Which of the following is not indicated in the treatment
a) Oxygen
b) Morphine
c) Iv fluids
d) Propanolol
e) Antibiotics
38. Which of the following will be given when going home
a) Frusemide
b) Digoxine
c) Propranolol
d) Spironolactone
39. Lobar pneumonia
a) Tactile fremitus and vocal resonance are accentuated T
b) Organism are less virulent F
c) Percussion note is hyper-resonance F
40. ASD
a) Diastolic murmur T
b) Systolic murmur during rapid ventricular filling F
c) Flow over the less turbulent
d) Ejection murmur at the left upper sternal border T
e) Fixed wide split S2 T
41. Concerning TOF
a) Full blood count
b) Chest radiograph
c) ECG
d) Echocardiograph
e) CT scan