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Sl. No Ultimate Environmental Planning Reviewer No. 2A Answer Correct


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Answer
This describes a portion of the workforce where part-time workers prefer to be full-time and where
high- skilled workers have low-paying or low-skill jobs.
A. Employment
1
B. Unemployment
c Correct
C. Underemployment
D. Mismatch
The labor force is defined as
A. The employed and self-employed part of the population
B. The employed and self-employed part of the population, and those who are unemployed but
2
seeking work
c Correct
C. The population aged 15-64
D. The employed and self-employed part of the population
In international environmental law, the principle that „the burden of proof in demonstrating that a
particular technology, practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the
general public and that the producer must answer for any environmental damage such technology
has create‟ is called
3
a. Extended Producer Responsibility
b Correct
b. Polluter Pays Principle
c. Principle of Externalities
d. Precautionary Principles
What are the administrative levels of government that RA 7160 LGC describe and makes provisions
for?
a. National, regional, district, city/town, village
4
b. Provincial, city/municipal, barangay
c. Local, supra-local, inter-local, sub-local
d. Macro, meso, mela and micro
This plan is the overall basis in the planning and management of the country‟s land and other
physical resources at the national and sub-national levels.
a. Medium Term Physical Development Plan
b. National Physical Framework Plan
5
c. Philippine Development Plan
d. Regional Physical Framework Plan
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
The Urban Development and Housing Act defined as the rationale approach of
allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among competing user groups and for
different functions consistent with the development plan of the area and the program. a. Land
Use Plan
6 b. Site Plan
c. Development Plan
d. Boundary delineation
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning
of "inclusive growth‟
a. Compromise
7 b. Transactional
c. Equality
d. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
e. Only for the Yellow Army
Which of the following is not a „thematic‟ map?
a. Political-administrative boundaries
8 b. NPAAAD map
c. Slope map
d. Forest cover map
All of these are principles and approaches suggested for reference by the enhanced CLUP Process
except one.
a. Watershed as a platform
b. Exclusive, expansive governance
9
c. Gender responsiveness and sensitivity
d. Highest and best use of land
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
_____________ is the implementation instrument of the Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP).
a. Local Development Investment Program
b. Executive & Legislative Agenda
10 c. Annual Investment Program
d. Annual Budget
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
_______________ is the implementation instrument of the Comprehensive Land Use Plan
(CLUP) a. Settlement Policies
b. Comprehensive Development Plan
11 c. Zoning ordinance
d. Multi-sectoral development plan
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
This republic act defined land use plan as of the rational approach of allocating available land
resources as equitably as possible.
a. RA 7279
12
b. RA 7160
c. RA 9729
d. RA 7161
CLUP formulation should be in consonance and consistent with the following frameworks and
guidelines except one.
a. Philippine Agenda 21
b. National Framework for Physical Planning
13
c. Sustainable Development Goals
d. National Climate Change Action Plan (NCCAP)
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
_________________ maybe viewed as subsets of a goal and therefore contribute to the attainment
of a statement goal.
a. sub-goal
b. objectives
14
c. Strategy
d. activities
e. all of the above
f. none of the above
In case of Quality-Cost Based Evaluation, the financial proposal shall be given the following weights:
a. Minimum of 15% up to maximum of 40%
b. Minimum of 15% up to maximum of 50%
15
c. Minimum of 10% up to maximum of 40%
d. Minimum of 10% up to maximum of 50%
e. None of the above
The Chairman of the Bids and Awards Committee in the Regional Office of the Department of Health
is at least:
a. Second-ranking permanent official
16 b. Secretary
c. Fourth-ranking permanent official
d. Third-ranking permanent official
e. Division Chief
The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of education institutions
offering courses in environmental planning is the responsibility of the
a. Commission on Higher Education
17
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. Board of Environmental Planning
d. School of Urban and Regional Planning
Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the Philippine Census of Population and Housing
in 1990, central districts of municipalities and cities have a population density of at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer
18
b. 250 persons per square kilometer
c. 500 persons per square kilometer
d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
Metro Manila is considered a primate city because
a. It is the largest urban center o the country
19 b. It contains the country‟s primary central business district
c. It has a very large population compared to all other urban centers of the country
d. It is a metropolitan center
Per EO 72, ____________ reviews land use plan and zoning ordinance for highly urbanized cities
and independent component cities.
a. Regional Land Use Committee
b. Provincial Land Use Committee
20
c. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
d. National Economic and Development Authority
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Mandated by Section 5, Article II of EO 648 to formulate land use planning guidelines and standards.
a. NEDA
b. HLURB
21 c. LGU
d. MMDA
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
This principle/approach in CLUP Preparation Process discusses meaningful participation of the state,
civil society, and the private sector and promotes collaborative partnerships. a. Co-
management
22 b. Gender responsiveness and sensitivity Inclusive, expansive governance
c. Watershed as platform
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
In the eCLUP process, _________ serves as physical reference for the formulation of sectoral
development plans.
a. Integrated watershed management framework
b. National Physical Development Plan
23
c. Zoning Ordinance
d. Medium term physical development plan
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Step 10 refers to the following enhanced CLUP Process:.
I. Review of CLUP and ZO
II. Adoption of CLUP and ZO
III. Approval of CLUP and ZO
IV. Implementation of CLUP and ZO
24
a. I, II, and IV
b. II, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
Which of the following statement(s) are true:
I. Goals are more specific statement, short-range desired outcomes or results
II. Goals are broad statement of desired outcome in medium or long term
III. Objectives aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as derived from the
situation analysis
IV. Objectives may be viewed as subsets of a goal and therefore contribute to the attainment of a
25 statement goal.
a. I and III
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. II and IV
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
__________describes the role of state to regulate acquisition, ownership, use and disposition of
property and its increments.
a. 1987 Constitution
b. RA 7160
26
c. RA 7279
d. EO 72
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
The comprehensive development plan is ideally subdivided into ______ sectors.
a. 2
b. 3
27 c. 4
d. 5
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
_________ covering ridge-to-reef land features serves as the vertical and horizontal platform and
framework in land use preparation and management strategies and policies. a.
Watershed
b. Land Use
28
c. Geographical boundaries
d. Political boundaries
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
This step in the eCLUP process discusses the formulation or enhancement of the vision statement.
a. Step 1
b. Step 2
29 c. Step 3
d. Step 4
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
________________ chairs the Provincial Land Use Committee.
a. National Economic and Development Authority
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
30 c. Provincial Planning and Development Coordinator
d. Metro Manila Development Authority
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
_______________ chairs the Regional Land Use Committee.
a. National Economic and Development Authority
b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
31 c. Provincial Planning and Development Coordinator
d. Metro Manila Development Authority
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
________ are result or changes expected from a local condition or LGU level of development. It can
be a series of interventions delivered by an LGU or NGA, or activities done in a particular sector.
a. Output
b. Outcome
32
c. Activities
d. Strategies
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
It is the action plan utilized by every local administration to develop and implement priority sectoral
and cross sectoral programs and projects in the proper locations.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
33
b. Comprehensive Development Plan
c. Comprehensive Development Planning
d. All of the Above
What are the two basic components of the Comprehensive Development Plan?
a. Political Component and Policy Component
34 b. Policy Component and Social Component
c. Economic Component and Technical Component
d. Political Component and Technical Component
Which of the following is not part of the core technical working group of the social development
sectoral committee?
a) MPDO/CPDO staff
35 b) SWDO
c) POSO
d) NSO
e) CSO
Which of the following is part of the expanded technical working group of the economic development
sectoral committee?
a) Transport Organizations
36 b) Agriculturist
c) Coop Development Officer
d) LDC Rep CSO
e) Sanggunian Rep
Which of the following are members of the Physical/Land Use Development sectoral committee that
must be there?
a) Electric Coop Representative
37 b) Municipal Architect
c) Academe
d) Telecommunications Companies
e) Real Estate Developers
Which of the following is not a member of the expanded technical working group of the environmental
management sectoral committee?
a) Sanitary Inspector
38 b) CENRO
c) PENRO
d) LG-ENRO
e) BFAR Representatives
LGUs shall prepare the CLUP enacted through zoning ordinances as primary bases for future use of
land resources, as stipulated in _________
a. Section 21(a), RA 7160
b. Section 20(c), RA 7160
39
c. Section 20(c), Ra 7279
d. Section 21(a), 7279
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Among the steps in the enhanced CLUP Process, these may be carried out interchangeably. a.
Step 1 and Step 2
b. Step 2 and Step 3
40 c. Step 3 and Step 4
d. Step 4 and Step 5
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
Which of the following is not a suggested member of a full blown institutional development sectoral
committee?
a) HRDO
41 b) Religious Groups
c) Good Governance Advocates
d) Other interested groups and individuals
e) LDC Rep. Brgy.
Which of the following statements is not part of preparing a comprehensive development plan?
a) Formulation of sectoral goals, objectives and targets.
b) Prioritization of sectoral programs, projects and activities
42
c) Preparation of the local development investment program
d) Identification of new legislation needed to carry out the sectoral plans.
e) Preparation of institutional staffing requirements.
Which of the following statements is false?
a) A CLUP and ZO are deemed compliant when it covers the entire territorial jurisdiction of the LGU,
including its waters.
b) A CDP is deemed non-compliant if it includes all the development sectors – social,
43 economic, environment, and institutional.
c) The entire CDP preparation is estimated to take at least four months and 2 weeks, assuming that
the planning process is targeted to also yield a CLUP.
d) A vision is stated in the form of an infinitive
e) A vision is a desired state or scenario of the LGU and its people.
In setting the vision of LGU, a good vision statement should posses the following characteristics
except one?
a) Achievable
44 b) Thoughtful
c) Inspiring
d) Easily Understood
e) Distinctive
Which of the following is not a descriptor for a local economy vision element?
a) Competitive
b) Self-reliant
45
c) Diversified
d) Environment friendly
e) Balanced
A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contract out the building of an infrastructure
facility to a private entity such that the contractor build the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost
overrun, delay and specified performance risks. a. Build, transfer
46 and operate
b. Build own and operate
c. Build and transfer
d. Build, operate and transfer
Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
a. Indigenous people
47 b. Stakeholders
c. Squatters
d. Proponent
Which of these projects requires an EIS?
a. Gold courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares
48 b. Drugstores and backyard piggery
c. Projects under Kalakalan 20
d. All of the above
It embodies what the local government intends to do to create a favorable climate for private
investments through a combination of policies and public investments to enable business and
industry to flourish.
a) Social development plan
49
b) Economic development plan
c) Institutional development plan
d) Environmental development plan
e) Infrastructure development plan
How many sections does a sectoral development plan have?
a) 4
b) 5
50
c) 6
d) 7
e) 8
The planning tool that analyzes success indicators of how much or to what extent are these desired
future states are already attained.
a) Problem Solutions Matrix
51 b) Goals Achievement Matrix
c) Vision Reality Gap Analysis
d) Overlay
e) Visioning
The translation of an organization‟s vision into more concrete and measurable terms. Simply clearer,
they are the end toward which design or action tends.
a) Sectoral Goal
52 b) Goals
c) Objectives
d) Targets
e) Strategies
Which of the following is not a suggested source of development goals?
a) Universal concept of public interest
b) General welfare goals
53
c) Regional Physical Framework Plans
d) Local Chief Executive
e) Local Communities
Type of regulatory measure that gives encouragement or rewards for acts that are socially desirable
and that help promote the general welfare.
a) Zoning Ordinance
54 b) Positive Regulation
c) Services
d) Programs
e) Projects
Which of the following does not define a program?
a) A cluster of projects
b) 3 to 6 year time frame
55
c) Comprises the operational components of a long term plan
d) A cluster of activities
e) Specific but complex effort
The planning tool that is essentially a listing of the LGUs social and political goals, weighed according
to the local administration‟s priorities and commitments.
a) Problem Solutions Matrix
56 b) Goals Achievement Matrix
c) Vision Reality Gap Analysis
d) Overlay
e) Visioning
How long is the process to prepare an Executive – Legislative Agenda?
a) 1 to 4 months
57 b) 4 to 6 months
c) 3 to 6 months
d) 2 to 5 months
It is a continuous process of data collection and analysis to check whether a project running
according to plan and to make adjustments if required.
a) Monitoring
58 b) Evaluation
c) Advocacy
d) Learning
e) Research
_______________ aims to address a general problem situation of a municipality/city as derived
from the situation analysis.
a. objectives
b. sub-goal
59
c. Goals
d. activities
e. all of the above
f. none of the above
____________________ a logically consistent set of individual actions, combined to create a
comprehensive plan or policy response.
a. Strategy
b. Activities
60
c. Goals
d. Objectives
e. All of the above
f. None of the above
APP in RA 9184 stands for
a. Annual Procurement Plan
b. Annual Project Plan
61
c. Annual Physical Plan
d. Annual Plans and Programs
e. None of the above
Under the IRR of RA 9184, what is one of the evaluation procedures may be used for Consulting
Services?
a. Direct Contracting
62 b. Quality-Cost Based
c. Shopping
d. Repeat Order
e. Limited Source Bidding
The Umbrella Organization of Consultants recognized by the GPPB.
a. COFIC
b. COFILCO
63
c. CECOPHIL
d. PICPA
e. PCAB
Recognized as „father of landscape architecture,‟ he also began the „Parks and Conservation
Movement‟ in the United States which advanced the idea that city parks and greenways can
structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen class conflict, heighten family and religious
values and serve as aid to social reform.
64
a. Frederic Law Olmstead Sr
b. John Muir
c. Glifford Pinchot
d. George Perkins Marsh
He proposed the „neighborhood unit‟ (1929) as a self-contained „garden suburb‟ bounded by major
streets, with shops at intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be defined by school‟s
catchment area with a radius of quarter mile or 402 meters. This incorporated Garden City ideas and
attempted at some kind of social engineering.
65
a. Clarence Perry
b. Clarence Stein
c. Clarence Thomas
d. Clarence Mckay
If „World Heritage Day‟ is marked each year on April 18, „World Biodiversity Day‟ is observed on May
22,
„World Ocean Day‟ on June 8, when is the „World Water Day‟ celebrated?
66 a. January 19
b. March 22
c. June 12
d. October 26
Which of the following is not part of the technical component of comprehensive development
planning?
a) Local planning development office
67 b) Local special bodies
c) Civil Society Organizations
d) Local Finance Committee
e) All of the above
Which of the following statements is true about CDP?
I. The comprehensive development plan is the people‟s plan.
II. The comprehensive development plan is implemented through a local zoning ordinance.
III. The comprehensive development plan is delegated to the local development councils
IV. The comprehensive development plan is implemented through the local development
68 implementation plan.
a) I and II
b) I and III
c) III and IV
d) III only
e) None of the above
After two (2) failed biddings, the Approved Budget for the Contract (ABC) may be adjusted up to what
percentage of the ABC for the last failed bidding.
a. 5%
69 b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 25%
Consultancy Contracts shall be awarded to the bidder with the :
a. Lowest Calculated and Responsive Bid
b. Highest Rated and Responsive Bid
70
c. Highest Responsive Technical Proposal
d. Lowest Responsive Financial Proposal
e. None of the above
Advertisement of Request for Expression of Interest shall not be required for the
procurement of Consulting Services with duration of :
a. Four months or less
71 b. Five months or less
c. Six months or less
d. Seven months or less
e. All of the above
What is the allowable amount of Advance Payment or Mobilization Fee for Consulting Services?
a. 5%
b. 10%
72
c. 15%
d. Any of the above
e. None of the above
Under the IRR of RA 9184, foreign consultants may be hired even when Filipino consultants have the
expertise to render the services.
a. Yes
73 b. No
c. No such provision
d. Not applicable
e. None of the above
Which of the following is part of the “Class A” documents for Consulting Services.
a. DTI Registration
b. Mayor‟s Permit
74
c. Audited Financial Statement
d. Computation of the Net Financial Contracting Capacity
e. All of the above are part of the Class “A” documents
The number of shortlisted firms shall consist of:
a. 3 to 5 Consultants
b. 5 to 7 Consultants
75
c. 3 to 7 Consultants
d. 4 to 6 Consultants
e. None of the above
Pursuant to the revised IRR of the RA 9184, posting of the Advertisement of the Invitation to bid in
the newspaper of general nationwide circulation is required for the procurement with the following
ABC:
a. Above PhP3M for goods; Above PhP2M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for
infrastructure projects
b. Above PhP1M for goods; Above PhP1M for consulting services and Above PhP3M for
76 infrastructure projects
c. Above PhP2M for goods; Above PhP1M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for
infrastructure projects
d. Above PhP3M for goods; Above PhP2M for consulting services and Above PhP5M for
infrastructure projects
e. At least PhP2M for goods; At least PhP1M for consulting services and At least PhP5M for
infrastructure projects
Which of the following are examples of the modes of negotiated procurement:
a. Limited Source Bidding, Emergency Cases and Small Value Procurement
b. Lease of Venue, Small Value Procurement and Agency-to-Agency
77
c. Limited Source Bidding, Direct Contracting and Shopping
d. Repeat Order, Direct Contracting and Agency-to-Agency
e. None of the above
The purpose of post-qualification is to determine:
a. Highest calculated and responsive bid
b. Lowest calculated and responsive bid
78
c. Middle calculated and responsive bid
d. Highest rated bid
e. Lowest rated bid
The Notice of Award is approved/signed by ______ before issuing to the winning bidder by the:
a. Bids and Awards Committee
b. Head of Procuring Entity
79
c. End-user
d. BAC – Technical Working Group
e. BAC Secretariat

An activity aimed to become ready with the advertisement or posting of bid opportunities is .
a. Pre-procurement conference
b. Advertisement
80
c. Pre-bid conference
d. Post-qualification
e. None of the above
Who should not be allowed to attend during the Pre-Procurement Conference?
a. End-user
b. Bids and Awards Committee (BAC) members
81
c. BAC – Technical Working Group
d. Bidders
e. BAC Secretariat
“Refers to activities connected with the management and development of land, as well as
the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment.”
a. RA 9729
82
b. RA 10587
c. PD 1308
d. PD 1096
Which of the following are some transitions in modern planning (after)?
I. Bottom-up
II. Integrated
III. Process-Oriented
IV. Open Participation
83
a. I, II
b. II, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. I, II, III
e. None of the Above
“Whatever it takes to kill the cat.”
a. Socrates
b. Daniel Burnham
84
c. Peter Calthorpe
d. Niccolo Machiavelli
e. Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris
The output of the first stage activities in the preparation of a development plan. It consists of an
overall growth pattern, strategy, sectoral policies and population and employment target and
forecasts.
a. Project
85
b. Concept Plan
c. Program
d. Goals
e. Objectives
It is a self-contained unit of investment aimed at developing resources and facilities within a limited
area within a given time period. It deals with goods and services significant to the accomplishment of
national, regional and local development plans.
a. Project
86
b. Concept Plan
c. Program
d. Goals
e. Objectives
It is a broad, long-term ends towards which a collectivity should aim; always related to
community/group situation or organizational structure.
a. Project
87 b. Concept Plan
c. Program
d. Goals
e. Objectives
It is a major school of thought in planning wherein [planning] is a State function that aims to create
purposive change by directing human behavior through a combination of persuasive and coercive
strategies.
a. Planning as Social Physics
88
b. Critical or Radical Planning
c. Planning as Social Engineering
d. Systems Theory of Planning
e. Planning and Social Darwinism
“Plan is determined through politics; Planner acts as mediator to determine common interest.”
a. George Chadwick
b. Norbert Weiner
89
c. Peter Calthorpe
d. Charles Lindbloom
e. Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris
Activist/Advocacy Planning
a. Daniel Burnham
b. Paul Davidoff
90
c. Peter Calthorpe
d. Charles Lindbloom
e. Sir Patrick Geddes
A sphere of citizen groups, civic institutions, civic values; facilitates political and social interaction by
mobilizing groups to participate in economic, social, political activities
a. People Power
91 b. Revolution
c. Forum
d. Civil Society
e. Academe
“Urban and Regional Planning refers to the scientific, orderly, and aesthetic disposition of land,
buildings, resources, facilities and communication routes, in use and in development, with a view to
obviating congestion and securing the maximum practicable degree of economy, efficiency,
convenience, sound environment, beauty, health and well-being in urban and rural communities"
92 a. Board of Environmental Planning
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. American Institute of Certified Planners
d. Canadian Institute of Planners
e. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
“URP is the unified development of urban communities and their environs and of states, regions, and
the nation as a whole, as expressed through determination of the comprehensive arrangement of
land uses and land occupancy and their regulation.”
a. Board of Environmental Planning
93
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. American Institute of Certified Planners
d. Canadian Institute of Planners
e. American Planning Association
Which of the following is an example of a medium-term plan?
a. CLUP of San Mateo, Rizal
94 b. Philippine Development Plan
c. Local Development Investment Plan
d. Resort Masterplan
Under what Article of the 1987 Philippine Constitution stipulates that the protection and advancement
of the right of the people to a balanced and healthful ecology in accord with the rhythm and harmony
95
of nature
a. Article I b. Article II c. Article III d. Article IV e. Article V
The topography of the forest land not allowed for pasture purposes, as stipulated in Revised Forestry
Code
96
a. 50% slope and above b. 18% and above c. 50% and below
d. 50% and below e. None of the Above
This plan may include proposals for the redevelopment of old and declining sections of the locality
opening up new settlement areas or development of new growth centers in conformity with the
chosen spatial strategy.
a) Institutional development plan
97
b) Comprehensive development plan
c) Infrastructure development plan
d) Social development plan
e) Economic development plan
It embodies programs for maintaining cleanliness of air, water, and land resources and rehabilitating
or preserving the quality of natural resources to enable them to support the requirements of
economic development and ecological balance across generations.
a) Social development plan
98
b) Economic development plan
c) Institutional development plan
d) Environmental development plan
e) Infrastructure development plan
Executive Order No. 26 series of 2011 required the planting of _________ million trees
a. 1.0
b. 1.5
99
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
e. 3.0
It is the classification and administration of all designated protected areas to maintain essential
ecological processes and life-support systems, to preserve genetic diversity, to ensure sustainable
use of resources found therein, and to maintain their natural conditions to the greatest extent
100
possible
a. Protected Area b. National Park c. NIPAS d. Natural Park
e. Strict Nature Reserve

Engr. Juanito C. Ricohermoso, CE, EnP, ASEAN Eng.


Total
3.00% Score:
3

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