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1
9. The capacitance of a capacitor is NOT influenced by
a. plate thickness c. plate area
b. plate separation d. nature of the dielectric
2
16. Which of the following materials does not have permanent
magnetic dipole
a. paramagnetic c. diamagnetic
b. antiferromagnetic d. ferromagnetic
22. Those magnetic materials are best suited for making armature
and transformer cores which have _______ permeability and
_______ hysteresis loss
a. low, high c. low, low
b. high, low d. low, high
3
b. conductor d. any of a, b, or c
4
31. Hysteresis losses can be reduced by
a. Using grain-oriented silicon steel
b. Increasing the frequency of the field
c. Laminating the core
d. None of these
5
its
a. current value c. acid content
b. specific gravity d. voltage output
6
48. Electric dc generators have normally, an overall efficiency of
the order of
a. 60-80% c. 80-90%
b. 75-85% d. 85-95%
7
a. does not effect the performance characteristics of the
original load
b. employs series resonance
c. increases the active power drawn by the load
d. increases the reactive power taken by the load
8
62. The torque of a motor is
a. the force in N-m acting on the rotor
b. the product of tangential force on the rotor and its radius
c. the electrical power in kW
d. the power given to load being driven by the motor
65. For both lap and wave windings, there are a many commutator
bars as the number of
a. poles c. slots
b. armature conductors d. winding elements
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b. armature d. external
74. Shunt generators are most suited for stable parallel operation
because of their ________ voltage characteristics
a. identical c. linear
b. drooping d. rising
10
75. Two parallel shunt generators will divide the total load equally
in proportion to their kilowatt output ratings only when they
have the same
a. rated voltage c. internal laRa drops
b. voltage regulation d. both (a) and (b)
11
a. to earth c. in reverse
b. to an arc source d. to a dc source
12
89. Under constant load conditions, the speed of a dc motor is
affected by
a. field flux c. back emf
b. armature current d. both (b) and (c)
95. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an
alternator will be
a. demagnetizing c. cross magnetizing
b. square wave form d. none of these
13
b. number of poles
c. strength of the magnetic field
d. maximum heat dissipation
14
b. the motor will run in the reverse direction
c. the motor will stop
d. the winding of the motor will burn
110. Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find
out
15
a. the transformation ration of the impedance motor
b. power scale of circle diagram
c. copper losses in the induction motor
d. all of the above
113. If a single phase induction motor runs slower than normal, the
more likely defect is
a. improper fuses c. open starting winding
b. shorted running winding d. worn bearings
114. A permanent split single-phase capacitor motor does not have
a. centrifugal switch c. squirrel-cage rotor
b. starting winding d. high power factor
16
b. contactor d. governor
17
124. An electric device designed to receive electrical power from a
dc source and deliver alternating power without the aid of
external source of alternating voltage
a. amplifier circuit c. rectifier circuit
b. oscillator circuit d. integrated circuit
128. When the emfs in the two windings of the transformer are
opposite in direction, the polarity is
a. positive c. additive
b. negative d. subtractive
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b. short circuit test d. polarity test
132. It is the ration of lumens reaching the work plane by the total
lumens generated by lights
a. maintenance factor c. coefficient of utilization
b. room ratio d. room index
19
138. Of the lighting arresters sold in the market, which can handle
much surge current and excessive contamination of dirt a.
distribution arrester c. station arrester
b. line arrester d. intermediate arrester
142. The fault current that exists immediately after the fault is
known as
a. transient current c. subtransient current
b. steady state current d. sustained current
20
145. To test the accuracy of a kilowatthour meter an electrician used
a wattmeter. He found out that the meter makes 5 revolutions
in 18 seconds. The meter constant is 3.2. What is the percent
error if the wattmeter reading is 3,368?
a. 8% slower c. 5% slower
b. 8% faster d. 5% faster
146. A 100 MW power plant burns 0.4 kg of coal with heating value
of 7.2 x 106 calories per kg to produce 1 KwHr. If the power
plant acts as a base load, how many tons of coal per day is
consumed if the power plant operates 24 hours per day?
a. 530 c. 830
b. 960 d. 260
149. The basis where the flow of current is from positive to negative
was derived from _____
a. superstition c. scientific
b. tradition d. convention
150. A 220 volts dc series motor when running at 800 rpm draws a
current of 100 amperes. The combined resistance of the
armature and the field is 0.1 Ω. What is the speed when the
motor develops one – half of the original torque?
a. 1,600 rpm c. 1,147 rpm
b. 1,690r pm d. 1,225 rpm
151. The fault current that exists immediately after the fault is
known as:
a. sub – transient current c. steady – state current
b. transient current d. sustained current
21
152. Its primary function is to provide ground source
a. zig – zag transformer c. surge arrester
b. sectionalizer d. tertiary transformer
22
158. A solenoid having an inductance of 12 henry is impressed
across a voltage source such that the current through it is 3
amperes. What is the average voltage at t = 0.2 sec?
a. 150 volts c. 120 volts
b. 180 volts d. 220 volts
23
165. A 100 watts 230 volts gas fitted lamp has a mean spherical
candlepower of 92. Find its efficiency in lumens per watt.
a. 11.56 c. 115.6
b. 1.156 d. 1,156
166. Charges that are both positively and negatively charged are
called:
a. negatron c. neutron
b. neutraton d. positron
167. With the primary of CT energized, the secondary must never
be made open to prevent this to happen. a. build up of
magnetic bias
b. burning of primary winding
c. burning of secondary winding
d. absence of induced voltage
168. A 25 miles (40 km), 3Φ, 3 wire sub transmission line with an
impedance per conductor of (7.65 + j16.52) Ω is supplying a
balanced 3Φ load of 4,000 kw, 33,500 volts line to line, 60 hz
at 0.8 p.f. lagging. The conductors used in the line are 336.4
MCM, ACSR, 26/7 strands vertically spaced 4.5 ft apart. If a
2,100 kvar, 3Φ pure capacitor bank is installed across the load,
what is the voltage dip maintaining 33,500 volts at the
receiving end?
a. 735 V c. 585 V
b. 635 V d. 485 V
169. A symmetrical cable with 200 meters span has a unit weight of
2 kg-force per meter uniformly distributed along the horizontal.
The tension at the lowest point is 2,000 kg-force.
Find the tension at the supports in kg-force.
a. 2,010 c. 4,080
b. 2,040 d. 2,000
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171. A voltmeter rated 150 volts has an internal resistance of 10 kΩ.
What resistance should be added in series to the internal
resistance so that the voltmeter will register full scale deflection
across 450 V?
a. 6.67 kΩ c. 40 kΩ
b. 30 kΩ d. 20 kΩ
176. These are high intensity discharged lamps which are usually
installed in outdoor and wide areas and are mounted on poles
whereas for indoors these are used for high ceiling applications.
a. surfaced c. low mount
b. recessed d. high bay
25
177. What do you call an insulated conductor that can be used only
up to 300 volts and is considered having no insulation base on
general rating?
a. insulated conductor c. enameled conductor
b. base conductor d. covered line wire
179. A limit switch is used to shut off the power when _____ a
definite limit.
a. current exceeds c. the travel reaches
b. voltage falls below d. frequency exceeds
180. A magnetic circuit consists of silicon steel of 2000 permeability
of 10 cm length and cross sectional area and of 1 centimeter
length. A one – ampere current flows through 500 turns of coil.
Calculate the field intensity across the air gap.
a. 622 Oersted c. 590 Oersted
b. 755 Oersted d. 350 Oersted
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b. 9 d. 11
187. A 200 kva transformer has an impedance of 15% and the power
factor of the load is 85%. The primary voltage is 6,000 volts
while the copper loss is 15 kw. Find the percentage voltage
regulation.
a. 13.49% c. 8.91%
b. 15.78% d. 23.67%
27
190. This is a device projected vertically upward above structures to
serve as the lighting rod.
a. air connector c. air terminal
b. lightning bowl d. air rod
28
197. What is the synchronous speed in rpm of a 6 - pole 60 cycle
induction motor?
a. 1,200 c. 3,600
b. 1,800 d. 900
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b. parallel – series d. parallel
207. On full – load a 500 volt series motor takes 100 amperes and
runs at 840 rev/min. The armature resistance is 0.1 ohm and
field resistance is 0.04 ohm. Find the speed when developing
half of full – load torque but with a 0.08 ohm diverter in parallel
with the field winding. Assume flux is proportional to the field
current.
a. 640 rpm c. 1,464 rpm
b. 1,020 rpm d. 1,360 rpm
30
210. Three 100 µF capacitors are connected in delta to a 500 volt,
three phase, 50 Hz supply. Find the line current.
a. 15.71 A c. 31.83 A
b. 27.21 A d. 8.66 A
31
a. 1.62 x 103 Ω c. 25.3 x 106 Ω
b. 202.4 x 103 Ω d. 16.2 x 103 Ω
220. The most common type of the conductor used for overhead
transmission lines consisting of electrical grade aluminum
conductor overlaying strands of high carbon galvanized steel is
called:
a. ACAR c. COMPACT STAND AL
b. ACSR d. AAC
32
223. Three capacitors of 50 µF, 30 µF, and 10 µF are connected in
parallel. What is the total capacitance in microfarad?
a. 15 µF c. 100 µF
b. 90 µF d. 115 µF
225. If a fault occurs near a generating station, how long does the
transient component of the fault last?
a. 10 to 15 sec c. 3 to 5 sec
b. 5 to 10 sec d. 1 to 3 sec
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a. 0.74 c. 0.84
b. 0.7 d. 0.8
233. A four pole, lap wound armature when driven at 600 rpm
generates 120 V. If the flux per pole is 25 mWb, find the
number of armature conductors.
a. 120 c. 480
b. 240 d. 720
235. What are the three colors which when mixed equally together
will produce white and the combination of any two will produce
different colors and intensities?
a. red, blue, green c. black, red, pink
b. yellow, magenta, cyan d. red, blue, yellow
34
237. A circuit having a resistance of 20 Ω and an inductance of 0.5
H is connected suddenly across a 220 V supply. Find the rate
of increase of current at the instant of closing the switch.
a. 440 A/s c. 120 A/s
b. 220 A/s d. 480 A/s
The reserve carried over and above the peak load is 8,900kw.
What is the installed capacity?
a. 20,700 kW c. 25,900 kW
b. 29,600 kW d. 40,000 kW
35
a. 750 V c. 375 V
b. 500 V d. 417 V
248. A copper wire has a diameter of 0.032 inch. What is the area
in circular mils?
a. 1,288 c. 810
b. 1,024 d. 1,624
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a. 20.45 c. 18.58
b. 22.39 d. 17.22
250. A signal occupies the spectrum space from 1.115 to 1.122 GHz.
The bandwidth is____.
a. 0.007 MHz c. 237 MHz
b. 700 MHz d. 7 MHz
251. Two condensers of 3 and 5 µF respectively are connected in
parallel. The combination is charged with 0.0056 coulomb.
What is the charge in the 3 µF condenser in coulombs?
a. 0.01 c. 0.0021
b. 0.005 d. 0.0035
37
257. What is the value of Rx in kohms to be connected in parallel to
a 75 kohms to reduce the value of total resistance to 10
kohms?
a. 11.7 c. 7.5
b. 15.7 d. 12.7
258. What is the burning hours that should be used in the design
consideration of incandescent bulb?
a. 1,500 c. 850
b. 1,800 d. 650
262. What do you call an impedance that when a line to ground fault
occurs, produces fault currents that are equal and in – phase?
a. positive sequence c. negative sequence
b. third sequence d. zero sequence
263. If 14,000 maxwells emanate from a pole, what must be its area
to have a flux density of 7,000 gauss?
a. 3 cm2 c. 2 cm2
b. 4 cm2 d. 1 cm2
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a. Xc is 1/10 of XL c. Power factor angle is 90°
b. XL is 1/10 of XC d. Xc = XL
39
272. An ideal full wave rectifier with non inductive load has zero
transformation losses. What is the efficiency?
a. 100 c. 80
b. 90 d. 70
273. A 750 Hp, 2,400 volts three –phase motor has a power factor
90% and efficiency of 95% is to be operated to a 13.2 kV utility
service thru a wye – delta connected transformer. What is the
total kVA of the transformer bank?
a. 575 c. 595
b. 654 d. 615
40
a. 0.144 c. 0.12
b. 0.15 d. 0.13
285. A 3Φ, 220 volt, 10hp induction motor having a power factor of
0.8 has 3% losses. Determine the current drawn by the motor.
a. 25.23 amps c. 20.18 amps
b. 43.69 amps d. 14.56 amps
41
286. The three phase unbalanced currents are:
Ia = 10 cis (-30°)
Ib = 0
Ic = 10 cis (150°)
42
292. A three phase squirrel cage motor is started by a wye – delta
starter. What shall be its starting torque relative to its rated
voltage starting torque?
a. 33.3% c. 57.7%
b. 42.3% d. 100%
299. V12 = 100 cis 30° and V23 = 50 cis 120°. Evaluate V12 - V23.
43
a. 62 cis 6.2° c. 111.8 cis 3.4°
b. 127.3 cis 40° d. 62 cis (-6.2)°
44
b. 75.76 A d. 25.25 A
311. It is desired to step down the three phase voltage from 6,600
to 460 volts using Y - ∆ transformer connection. What should
be the ratio of transformation of each transformer?
a. 1:8.3 c. 1:14.3
b. 14.3:1 d. 8.3:1
45
313. A power customer is applying for source and listed the following
loads:
5 – 15 Hp motors
3 – 5 Hp motors
Lighting loads – 8 kW
Miscellaneous loads 3 – 5 kW
The demand factor is 65%, load factor is 46% and the power
factor is 80%. What is the maximum kW demand of the
customer?
a. 78 c. 69
b. 64 d. 57
46
potential difference measured across this standard resistance
being 0.035 V.
a. 7.7% c. 6.7%
b. 7.1% d. 5.1%
47
b. Translay relay d. Buchholz relay
48
b. (41.22 – j31.23) Ω d. (-10 + j30) Ω
49
337. An open delta bank delivers a balanced three – phase load of
60 kVA at 460 volts. What current flows in the secondary of
each transformer?
a. 65.2 A c. 150.6 A
b. 130.4 A d. 75.3 A
50
Coefficient of utilization = 0.60 No. of rows = 5
Maintenance factor = 0.70
51
350. The power factor of an alternator is determined by its ______.
a. speed c. excitation
b. load d. prime mover
52
356. Two 100 watt, 200 volt lamps are connected in series across a
200 volt supply. The total power consumed by each lamp will
be ___ watts.
a. 25 c. 100
b. 50 d. 200
357. A conductor cuts 1 weber of flux per sec. The average voltage
generated in the conductor is _____.
a. 108 mV c. 100 mV
b. 1000 mV d. 10 V
361. The gas inside the inner discharge tube of a sodium vapor lamp
is
a. argon c. nitrogen
b. neon d. helium
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b. 1 and 9 d. 3 and 13
364. The transients w/c are produced due to sudden but energetic
changes from one steady state of a circuit to another are called
____ transients.
a. initiation c. transition
b. relaxation d. subsidence
369. A non sinusoidal emf having the equation v = 141.4 sin (ωt -
60 ) – 56.6 sin (ωt - 30 ) + 35.4 sin (5ωt - 90 ) is impressed
upon a circuit. If the current has the equation I = 28.3 sin (ωt
- 30 ) + 17 sin (3ωt - 90 ), calculate the power factor of the
circuit.
a. 0.857 c. 0.785
b. 0.578 d. 0.958
54
370. A diesel power plant has an overall efficiency of 30%. If the
calorific value of diesel is 18,000 BTU/1b and cost Php6.00 per
liter, how much is the fuel cost of production per kwhr of
energy? Take the density of diesel as 900 grams per liter.
a. Php1.91/kW-hr c. Php2.12/kW-hr
b. Php1.85/kW-hr d. Php2.45/kW-hr
374. The CT ratio and PT ratio used to protect a line are 240 and
2000, respectively. If the impedance of each line is 10 , what
is the relay impedance to protect the line from fault?
a. 83.33 c. 48,000
b. 1.2 d. 12
55
375. What is the most probable per unit transient reactance for an
alternator rated 100 MW?
a. 0.02 c. 1.0
b. 0.30 d. 0.1
56
382. A generator rated 15 MVA, 13.2 kV has 8% impedance is
connected to a step – up transformer of 20 MVA, 13.8/230 kV
for transmission. What is the new per unit impedance using
transformer ratings as base value?
a. 0.146 c. 0.098
b. 0.102 d. 0.107
385. A flux of 1,500,000 maxwells links a coil having 350 turns. This
flux through the coil is decreased to zero at a uniform rate in
0.2 sec. Determine induced emf during this time interval.
a. 1 volt c. 26.25 volts
b. 857 volts d. 8.57 volts
57
389. What is the work done in moving a 50 C electric charge
through a distance of 50cm in the direction of a uniform electric
field of 50 kV/m?
a. 2.5 joules c. 1.25 joules
b. 500 joules d. 125 joules
392. A round wire has 250,000 CM. Find its diameter in inches.
a. 1/2 c. 0.16
b. 1/4 d. 0.08
58
a. 9.52 x 104 c. 8.57 x 104
b. 9.82 x 104 d. 9.12 x 104
399. A voltage wave is given by v = 100 sin 314t. How long does it
take this waveform to complete one – fourth cycle?
a. 20ms c. 5 ms
b. 10 ms d. 1 ms
401. The voltages across two series connected circuit elements are
V1 = 50 sin ωt volts and V2 = 30 sin (ωt - 30°) volts. What is
the rms value of the applied voltage?
a. 54.77 V c. 56.57 V
b. 80 V d. none of the above
59
403. A series RL circuit has the following data:
R = 10 ohms L = 0.02 H
e = 150 + 100 sin ωt + 50 sin 3 ωt volts w
= 500 rad/sec
t – time, seconds
406. A 100 liter of water is heated from 20°C to 40°C. How many
kWHr of electricity is needed assuming no heat loss?
a. 4.2 c. 5.6
b. 2.3 d. 3.7
408. The difference between the front pitch and the back pitch of a
retrogressive lap winding is 2. If the front pitch is 21, what is
the back pitch?
a. 19 c. 21
b. 23 d. 21.5
60
phase. What is the fault current if a three phase fault occurs at
the breaker?
a. 8000 A c. 6000 A
b. 5000 A d. 1200 A
410. V12 = 100 cis 30° and V23 = 50 cis 120°. Evaluate V12 - V23.
a. 62 cis 6.2° c. 111.8 cis 3.4°
b. 127.3 cis 40° d. 62 cis (-6.2°)
414. In a certain circuit analysis, the bases chosen are 34.5 kV and
100 MVA. What is the base impedance?
a. 11.9 Ω c. 23.8 Ω
b. 7.5 Ω d. 5 Ω
61
417. A 50 MW coal – fired power plant has an average heat rate of
11,000 BTU per kWHr. Coal has a heating value of 13,000 BTU
per pound. The plant has a load factor of 80%. How much coal
is burned per day?
a. 8.2 x 106 lb c. 1.2 x 105 lb
b. 7.2 x 106 lb d. 8.1 x 105 lb
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a. 505 c. 450
b. 437 d. 473
63
424. The flux density emanating from a pole of a generator is 20,000
gauss. A conductor one meter long cuts the flux perpendicularly
at a speed of 40 m per second. What voltage is developed?
a. 800 volts c. 230 volts
b. 80 volts d. 8 volts
429. A 3 phase bank serves four customers with the following loads:
Customer A = 80 kW at 65% p.f.
Customer B = 60 kW at 85% p.f.
Customer C = 100 kW at 90% p.f.
Customer D = 120 kW at 70% p.f.
a.
b.
64
What is the equivalent power factor?
82.16% c. 76.66%
79.21% d. 84.37%
65
one transformer is removed for repair, what is the minimum
amount in kVAR of capacitor bank needed to prevent the
overloading of the remaining units?
a. 86.73 c. 63.78
b. 96 d. 73.86
a.
b.
66
b. 1.5 d. 1.75
445. The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can
complete its operation is
a. 3 to 8 c. 20 to 30
b. 10 to 18 d. 40 to 50
67
448. A fully – charged lead – acid cell has an open circuit voltage of
about ____ volt.
a. 2.1 c. 2.3
b. 2.2 d. 2.5
454. What is the most probable per unit transient reactance for an
alternator rated 100 MW?
a. 0.02 c. 1.0
b. 0.3 d. 0.1
a.
b.
68
456. Which of the following source of energy is not commercially
used?
a. wind c. geothermal
b. solar d. biogas
69
a. Scott c. double Scott
b. star/star d. star/double – delta
465. As referred to the Proposed Omnibus Power Act, IPP stands for:
a. Internal Power Plant
b. Individual Power Plants
c. Individual Power Protectors
d. Individual Power Producer
466. The PTR and CTR used to protect a line are 2,000 and 240,
respectively. If the reactance as seen on the relay side is 1.41
Ω, what is the reactance of each line?
a. 12.2 Ω c. 14 Ω
b. 11.75 Ω d.16 Ω
a.
b.
70
467. When a bird lands on transmission lines, it is not electricuted
because
a. no potential difference
b. bird‟s feet has high dielectric
c. no path for electric flow
d. bird‟s feather is an insulation
472. The line currents in a three – phase four – wire system are Ia
= (300 + j400) A, Ib = (200 + j200) A and Ic = (-400 – j200)
A. Determine the positive sequence component of Ia.
a. 276 25.6° A c. 276 265.6° A
b. 276 145.6° A d. 0
71
473. A system is consists of three equal resistors connected in delta
and is fed from a balanced 3 – phase supply. By how much
power is reduced if one of the resistors is disconnected?
a. 33% c. 50%
67% d. 25%
474. A balanced wye – connected load consisting of ZY = (3 + j4)
Ω/phase and a balanced delta – connected load having ZA = (9
+ j12) Ω/phase are connected to a 220 V three – phase source.
On a per – phase basis, calculate the line current Ia.
a. 50.8 53.13 A c. 5.08 173.13 A
b. 50.8 173.13 A d. 5.08 53.13 A
b.
72
What is the negative sequence component of line voltage VC?
a. 8.24 cis (-156.2 ) c. 8.24 cis (-276.2 )
b. 8.24 cis (-36.2 ) d. 0
480. The initial rate of current rise in an RL circuit is 300 A/sec when
120 V is suddenly impressed. If the circuit resistance is 30 Ω,
what is the rate of current change when the current is 2.6 A?
a. 300 A/sec c. 10 A/sec
b. 105 A/sec d. 0.4 A/sec
483. A 5:1 ratio ideal transformer has a rated primary line voltage
of 230 V. If a load impedance of 4 Ω is connected across the
secondary, what will be the primary impedance?
a. 20 Ω c. 1.25 Ω
b. 100 Ω d. 80 Ω
73
484. A 500 kVA, 13,200/240 V, three – phase transformer with an
impedance of 4.2% is connected to an infinite bus and without
load. If a three – phase fault occurs at the secondary terminals,
the fault current in amperes is
a. 26,040 A c. 24,680 A
b. 26,840 A d. 28,640 A
b.
74
490. Two 1 , 25 kVA transformer are connected in open – delta
bank. Determine the maximum kW the bank can supply
without overloading at 0.8 p.f. lagging
a. 43.3 c. 40
b. 34.64 d. 50
495. In circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of fault to
the instant of energizing of the trip coil is known as
a. lag time c. protection time
b. lead time d. operation time
75
a. 147 c. 163
b. 136 d. 174
b.
76
503. The dc armature winding resistance between terminals of a 750
kVA, 4400 volt, three – phase alternator is 0.9 ohm.
Calculate the copper loss in the winding at the full –load.
a. 13,075 W c. 26,149 W
b. 16,343 W d. 10,800 W
77
509. What is the minimum number of magnetic contactors to allow
forward – reverse control in the rotation of a motor?
a. 4 c. 2
b. 3 d. 1
511. What is the element of the transmission line that supports the
cable at the bottom of the suspension insulator?
a. parallel clamp c. dead end clamp
b. suspension clamp d. strain clamp
78
515. Which one of the following switchgear assemblies would most
probably be used in a large industrial plant having several 600
volt meters, an air-conditioning system, and an extensive
lighting system?
a. a low-voltage metal-enclosed switchgear
b. switchgear with SF6 circuit breakers
c. a station-type switchgear
d. a metal-clad switchgear
79
b. an access door is at the end of the structure
c. no equipment is mounted on the front panel
d. energized parts are not exposed on the front panel
522. A circuit breaker that can be closed against a fault and operated
at once, although the solenoid mechanism may continue
through its closing operation, is said to be:
a. selective c. fully-rated
b. trip-free d. direct current operated
523. A large electric power distribution system is protected against
surges and faults by:
a. protective gaps crossing drain coils
b. high-speed relays detecting the trouble
c. protective relays operating without a time delay
d. radio communication systems using flow frequency
80
527. The impedance which when connected to one pair of terminals
of a transducer produces a like impedance at the other pair of
terminals:
a. characteristics impedance c. iterative impedance
b. input impedance d. surge impedance
529. The product of the total voltage to the total current is:
a. total power c. reactive power
b. real power d. apparent power
81
a. 1 c. 1.732
b. 2 d. 1.5
82
542. The total input to the armature at no load minus the armature
resistance loss is:
a. power developed in the armature
b. stray load
c. stray power
d. shunt field loss
546. The ratio of the average load on the plant for the period of time
to the aggregate rating of all generating equipment: a. plant
use factor c. power factor
b. capacity factor d. maintenance factor
83
548. In parallel operation of alternators, if the excitation of one
alternate is changed it will only change: a. real power taken by
the machine
b. reactive power taken by the machine
c. apparent power taken by the machine
d. synchronizing power of the machine
553. A 15A fuse is found open, but the services do not have a
replacement and has a choice between a 10A and 30 A fuse.
Use the:
a. 10A fuse c. 40A fuse
b. 30A fuse d. 20A fuse
84
555. What type of overload operates on the principle of
electromagnetism?
a. melting alloy c. magnetic
b. bimetallic d. fuse
563. The device that controls the flow of air back into chamber of
the pneumatic time relay is the:
85
a. diaphragm c. shading coil
b. needle valve d. all of the above
564. If the motor runs but fails to stop, the problem may be:
a. open fuse
b. welded holding circuit interlock
c. jogging or plugging duty overload
d. none of the above
565. If the motor runs at half speed or “sits and hums”, look for
________ in the magnetic controller: a. an open phase
b. welded holding circuit interlock
c. both (a)and (b)
d. none of the above
569. The minimum ampere capacity panel box used today is:
a. 30 c. 100
b. 60 d. 150
86
a. nonmetallic cable c. conduit
b. flexible metallic cable d. armored clad cable
87
b. rapid heat d. all of the above
88
b. mica d. all of the above
588. Most cordless electric slicing knives use a charge unit and:
a. rectifier c. diode
b. battery pack d. none of the above
89
b. replace both of them d. none of the above
90
605. This device converts as to dc:
a. inverter c. compensator
b. rectifier d. transformer
608. Burrs on sharp edges in the inside of a rigid steel conduit end
are removed with the use of:
a. reamer c. knife
b. wrench d. plier
613. 30A is one of the five special branch circuits rating with a circuit
conductor of:
a. 2 mm2 c. 5.5 mm2
b. 3.5 mm2 d. 8 mm2
91
614. The unit of an electrical system which is intended to carry but
not utilize electrical energy is:
a. device c. serving drop
b. branch circuit d. service equipment
616. In switch gear application, the term “dead front” means that:
a. the front and rear panels are hinged
b. an access door is at the end of the structure
c. no equipment is mounted on the front panel
d. energized parts are not exposed on the front panel
619. When the primary and secondary windings take the form of a
common ring which is encircled by two or more rings of
magnetic material distributed around its periphery, the
transformer is termed as: a. grounding transformer
b. regulating transformer
c. core type transformer
d. shell type transformer
92
620. When alternating current is passing through a conductor here
is a tendency for the current to crows near the surface of the
conductor. This is known as:
a. corona c. resistivity
b. skin effect d. magnetization
621. Ratio of lumens reaching the work plane divided by the total
lumens generated by the lights: a. coefficient of utilization
b. illumination factor
c. maintenance factor
d. room ratio
625. A complete path over which an electric current can flow is:
a. load c. circuit
b. transmission line d. resistance
93
a. fused c. placed in conduit
b. insulated d. mechanically protected
635. Ampacity of No. 14AWG TW, three wire copper conductor cable
at 30° ambient is:
a. 15 amperes c. 25 amperes
94
b. 20 amperes d. 30 amperes
95
a. magnetic starter c. compensator
b. capacitor d. rectifier
96
b. voltmeter d. test lamp
659. What are used on the outside of the box whenever the
conduit enters an outlet box
a. bushing c. couplings
b. locknuts d. elbows
97
661. It refers to the circuit conductors between the service
equipment and the branch circuit over current device: a.
service drop c. service entrance
b. feeder d. secondary
98
668. The value of joules mechanical equivalent of heat J, is equal
to:
a. 4.2 calories per joule
b. 4.2 calories per calorie
c. 2.4 joules per calorie
d. 4.2 joules
99
b. thermocouple d. thermo-galvanometer
677. In the list below, which is not a type of present day nuclear
power plant?
a. boiling water reactor
b. low pressure reactor
c. fusion fission reactor
d. fast breeder reactor
100
a. ration V/l should be constant
b. current should be proportional to voltage
c. the temperature should remain constant
d. the temperature should vary
682. When current flows in a conductor, heat is produced because:
a. heat a l2 c. of interatomic collision
b. of electronic collision d. of Joule‟s law
101
690. A material commonly used for shielding or screening
magnetism is:
a. brass c. copper
b. aluminum d. soft iron
694. The current carrying capacity of a Cu wire having the twice the
diameter of another Cu wire as _____ as great:
a. twice c. half
b. four times d. three times
695. For a given line voltage, four heating coils will produced
maximum heat when connected: a. all in parallel
b. all in series
c. with two parallel pairs in series
d. one pair in parallel with the other two in series
102
b. transformer d. battery connections
701. For testing insulation between the heating element and the
body of an electric iron, you would preferably use:
a. ohmmeter c. megger
b. lamp and battery tester d. capacitor bridge
103
705. When the magnetic flux (Ø) and the area (A) under its influence
are known, the magnetic flux density (B) can be given as:
a. B = Ø X A c. B = A / Ø
b. B = Ø / A d. B = Ø x A2
104
711. The relative permeability u for iron is:
a. 5000 c. 3000
b. 7000 d. 1000
105
718. Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is induced in
that conductor. Above statement is due to:
a. Joule‟s law c. Faraday’s law
b. Coulomb‟s law d. Weber and Ewings theory
721. The law that induces emf and current always opposes the cause
producing them was discovered by:
a. Lenz c. Maxwell
b. Farady d. Ohm
106
724. Air-gap in the iron core of an inductor prevents:
a. core saturation c. flux leakage
b. hysteresis loss d. transformer
107
a. large B /H loop area
b. high resistivity
c. high retentivity
d. low hysteresis coefficient
108
738. The electrical equipment occasionally connected across relay
contacts for minimizing arcing is a/an:
a. resistor c. carbon tip
b. inductor d. capacitor
739. A charge of 100 coulombs are transferred I a circuit by a
current of 1A. Time taken by this current is ______ seconds:
a. 1 c. 100
b. 10 d. 1000
740. One of the best ways to check for an open electrolytic capacitor
in a circuit is to:
a. temporarily connect a known good capacitor across it
b. remove it and insert a good one
c. measure d voltage across it
d. use capacitor checker
109
b. decrease the capacitance
c. reduce the working voltage
d. increase the distance between the plates
110
a. Gauss‟ theorem c. Weber and Ewing‟s theory
b. Laplace law d. Law of electrolysis
111
c. lead, lead peroxide and dilute sulfuric acid
d. none of the above
112
764. When liquid level in a lead-acid cell is low, the proper remedy
is to
a. add only distilled water
b. add weak acid solution
c. empty out the cell and replace the entire solution
d. do nothing till plates becomes fully exposed
766. A lead acid battery should not be left in discharged state for
long otherwise
a. acid will evaporate
b. plates will become sulfated
c. electrolyte will start attacking the plates
d. terminals will get corroded
768. A battery:
a. always absorbs water
b. always delivers power
c. can absorb or deliver power depending upon the circuit to
which it is connected
d. absorbs power when the internal resistance is non-zero but
delivers power when the internal resistance is zero
a.
b.
c.
d.
113
769. Which of the following gives best indication of a fully-charged
battery?
open-circuit cell voltage
level of electrolyte specific
gravity temperature of the
electrolyte 770. A battery is
said to be „floating‟ on the
battery-bus when
a. its supplied at the load
b. its voltage is higher than the bus voltage
c. charger is shut down
d. battery voltage equals the charger voltage
a.
b.
c.
d.
114
775. The specific gravity of a lead-acid cells is often used as a
measure of its:
a. rate of discharge c. state of charge
b. operating temperature d. life expectancy
a.
b.
c.
d.
115
d. the distance between the plates
a.
b.
c.
d.
116
786. A fuel cell converts _______ energy into electrical energy:
a. mechanical c. chemical
b. magnetic d. solar
117
793. Electric dc generators have normally, an overall efficiency of
the order of:
a. 60-80% c. 80-90%
b. 75-85% d. 85-95%
118
a. to neutralize the reactance voltage and help in commutation
process
b. to neutralize the cross-magnetizing effect of armature
reaction
c. to neutralize the demagnetizing effect of the armature
d. (a) and (b)
119
806. DC generator preferred for charging automobile batteries is:
a. shunt generator
b. series generator
c. long shunt compound generator
d. none of the above
120
813. The speed of a DC motor is:
a. directly proportional to back emf and inversely proportional
to flux
b. inversely proportional to back emf and directly proportional
to flux
c. directly proportional to emf as well as flux
d. inversely proportional to emf as well as flux
815. If the speed of the DC shunt motor increases, the back emf:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remain constant
d. decreases and then increases
121
d. also runs as a motor
822. The power stated on the name plate of any motor is always:
a. the output power at the shaft
b. the power drawn in KVA
c. the power in KW
d. the gross power
122
a. its field winding consists of thicker wire and less turns
b. it an run easily without load
c. it has am almost constant speed
d. it has poor torque
123
832. When the electric train is moving down a hill the DC motor acts
as:
a. DC series motor
b. DC shunt motor
c. DC series generator
d. DC shunt generator
124
d. turn on and off 60 times per second
839. The greatest value attained during one half of the cycle is called
the:
a. peak value c. RMS value
b. average value d. effective value
842. The value form factor for pure sine wave is:
a. 1.414 c. 0.637
b. 0.707 d. 1.110
843. The value of peak factor for a pure sine wave is:
a. 1.414 c. 0.637
b. 0.707 d. 1.110
844. If the current and voltage are out of phase by 90°, the power
is:
a. 1.10 Vl c. minimum
b. maximum d. zero
845. RMS value and the mean value is the same in case of:
a. square wave
b. sine wave
c. triangular wave
d. half wave rectified sine wave
125
a. infinite c. 0.5
b. Zero d. unity
847. When the sole purpose of an alternating current is to product
heat, the selection of conductor is based on:
a. average value of current c. RMS value of current
b. peak value of current d. any of the above
849. The phase angle of a series RL circuit is the angle between the
______ phasor and the ______ phasor: a. resistance, inductive
reactance
b. resistance, impedance
c. inductive reactance, impedance
d. none of these
852. The resistance phasor for a series RC circuit points to the right.
The capacitive reactance phasor points _______ while the
diagonal of the rectangle having there two phasors as sides
represent the _______: a. up, impedance
b. down, impedance
c. left, current
126
d. up, total voltage
858. Which of the following statements is true for a series RLC circuit
tuned at resonant frequency?
a. the voltage across C> applied voltage
b. the voltage across L> applied voltage
c. the voltage across L and C> the applied voltage
d. the voltage across both L and C< the applied voltage
127
b. equal d. different
128
866. The advantages of star connections over delta connections for
same phase voltage is that it gives:
a. step down current c. extra step up current
b. extra step up voltage d. extra step up power
867. Power in a three phase delta system with balanced load is equal
to:
a. √3 x VL x lL x power factor
b. √3 x VPH x lPH x power factor
c. √3 x VPH x lL x power factor
d. 3 x VL x lL x power factor
868. Power in star connected system is:
a. equal to that of delta system
b. √2 times the delta system
c. √3 times the delta system
d. 3 times of a delta system
129
c. the power factor of at least one of the phase must be leading
d. the power factor of each phase maybe different
874. The capacitor of power factor correction are rated in terms of:
a. Voltage c. KW
b. VA d. KVAR
877. For the same load, if the power factor of load is reduced, it will
draw:
a. more current
b. less current
c. same current but less power
d. less current but more power
878. One of the reasons for improving the power factor is:
a. to increase the reactive power
b. to decrease the reactive power
c. to increase the real power
d. none of the above
130
880. An ideal current source has zero:
a. voltage on no load c. internal conductance
b. internal resistance d. none of the above
886. Open circuit voltage is the pd between two when the impedance
between these points is:
a. infinity c. zero
131
b. reactive d. capacitive
132
d. a constant current source and an impedance in series
133
a. zero reactance of windings
b. zero resistance of windings
c. no leakage flux
d. no saturation of core
134
906. What type of core is used for a high frequency transformer?
a. air core c. aluminum core
b. closed iron core d. open iron core
135
b. increase the output current
c. increase the output voltage
d. none of these
913. Two transformers when operating in parallel will share the load
depending upon their:
a. magnetizing current c. per unit impedance
b. leakage reactance d. efficiency
136
d. don‟t obey Ohm‟s law
919. In huge alternators, the moving part is:
a. brushes c. poles
b. armature d. none of these
926. For two alternators in parallel, if the load shared by one of them
is:
137
a. To be strengthened keeping input torque same
b. To be weakened keeping input torque same
c. To be kept constant but input torque should be increased
d. None of these
927. When the power factor of load is unity, the armature flux of an
alternator will be:
a. demagnetizing c. cross magnetizing
b. square wave form d. none of these
931. High voltage alternators are usually of the rotating field type.
This means the generated voltage is connected: a.
through slip rings to the load
b. through slip rings to the rotating field
c. directly to load
d. directly to rotor
138
933. Synchronous impedance of an alternator is defined as the ratio
of:
a. short circuit voltage to short circuit current
b. open circuit voltage to short circuit current
c. short circuit current to no load current
d. open circuit voltage to short circuit current for same value
of excitation
934. Pitch factor is defined as the ratio of the emf‟s of:
a. distribution winding to full pitch winding
b. short pitch coil to full pitch coil
c. full pitch winding to short pitch winding
d. full pitch winding to concentrated winding
139
a. lagging power factor only
b. leading power factor only
c. lagging and leading power factor
d. none of these
940. When the stator windings are connected in such a fashion that
the number of poles are made half, the speed of the rotor of a
synchronous motor
a. decreases to half the original value
b. remains same as the original value
c. increases to two times the original value
d. tends to become zero
945. The motor in which stator and rotor magnetic field rotate at the
same speed is:
a. induction motor c. universal motor
b. reduction motor d. synchronous motor
140
946. In a synchronous motor, the torque angle is:
a. the angle between the rotating stator flux and rotor poles
b. the angle between the magnetizing current and back emf
c. the angel between the supply voltage and the back emf
d. none of the above
947. In a synchronous motor, which loss does not vary with load?
a. copper losses c. windage losses
b. hysteresis losses d. none of the above
141
c. both low and high excitation
d. none of the above
953. The type of the motor that does not have a commutator is the:
a. repulsion motor c. DC shunt motor
b. induction motor d. universal motor
955. The induction motor differs from the synchronous motor is that
its:
a. requires a DC source for its rotor
b. does not require a rotating magnetic field
c. current is induced in its rotor
d. current is conducted in rotor
956. Squirrel cage induction motor differs from the slip ring type in
that it has no:
a. slip rings c. windings on the stator
b. rotor windings d. rotating part
142
b. increases the torque
c. increases the current
d. increases the torque and decreases the current due to
increased impedance
962. Short circuit test on the induction motor can be used to find
out:
a. the transformation ratio of the induction motor
b. power scale of circle diagram
c. copper losses in the induction motor
d. all of the above
963. Which of the following is a correct relation for an induction
motor?
actualspeedof rotor
a. rotorefficiency
synchronous speed
b. rotor copper loss = slip x rotor input
c. rotor input = 2 x x gross torque x synchronous speed
d. all of the above relations are correct
143
c. the power factor will decrease
d. none of the above
144
c. millivoltmeter and multiplier
d. current transformer and ammeter
145
a. very high c. low
b. high d. none of the above
978. The meter that is suitable for direct current only is:
a. moving iron type c. electrodynamic type
b. permanent magnet type d. hot wire type
982. You have been told by your foreman to measure the resistance
of some feeders. For this purpose, your would use: a. magneto
test c. a bell test
b. a megger d. none of the above
146
985. For increasing the range of DC ammeters, you would use a/an:
a. inductance c. shunt
b. capacitor d. current transformer
147
991. A hot wire ammeter when used to measure the output current
of full wave rectifier will register _______ of the maximum
value of the rectified current:
a. 1.0 c. 0.353
b. 0.707 d. 0.637
148
997. A megger is generally used to:
a. determine the speed of an electrical motor
b. measure resistance of a lightning cable
c. test a lighting circuit for ground
d. measure the amount of illumination
998. To measure the emf of a Weston standard cell, one would use
a/an:
a. moving coil voltmeter c. galvanometer
b. electrostatic voltmeter d. potentiometer
1002. If one of the two wattmeters used for measuring power taken
by a balanced three phase reads zero, then pf of the load is:
a. 0.866 lagging c. unity
b. 0.5 d. zero
149
c. its scale is even
d. its coil needs unmanageably large number of turns
1005. The instrument often used for checking the degree of motor
shaft misalignment is:
a. a voltmeter c. dial indicator
b. a clamp on an ammeter d. megohmeter
1006. The frequency stability of a crystal oscillator depends upon:
a. crystal
b. tuned circuit
c. crystal as well as the tuned circuit
d. all of the above
150
b. high d. all of the above
151
b. full-scale deflection
c. one-fourth of full scale deflection
d. one-tenth of full scale deflection
152
c. decrease the voltage drop
d. increase the meter resistance
153
c. a coil of high inductance
d. gear box generator
1036. While selecting a gas for circuit breaker, the property of gas
that should be considered is a. high dielectric strength
b. non-inflammability
c. non-toxicity
d. none of the above
1038. Which of the following is not a type of the contactor for circuit
breakers?
a. electro-magnetic c. pneumatic
154
b. electro-pneumatic d. vacuum
155