UG Question Papers & Answer Keys (Paper 1 & 2)

ROLL NO.
: UG1CSE14
A COMPUTER SCIENCE& ENGINEERING/COMPUTER ENGINEERING/

COMPUTER SCIENCE
I
C Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
T PAPER-I
E
Instructions:
i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total 120
questions.
ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q1 to Q. 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q71 to Q. 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each and Q111 to Q120
A of 2 (two) marks each.
v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
I wrong answer.
C vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
programmable scientific calculator.
T vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
E blue ball point pen.
viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
examination before leaving the examination hall.
PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)

A
1. On multiplication of (10.10) and (01.01), we get
I (a) 101.0010
C (b) 0010.101
(c) 011.0010
T (d) 110.0011
E
2. What is the minimum number of 2 input NAND gates required to implement the function
F= (x' + y')(z + w)
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
A
3. Odd parity of word can be conveniently tested by
I (a) OR gate
(b) AND gate
C
(c) NAND gate
T (d) XOR gate
E 4. How many AND, OR, and EXOR gates are required for the configuration of full adder
(a) 1, 2, 2
(b) 2, 1, 2
(c) 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 0, 1
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A 5. How many 1-of-16 decoders are required for decoding a 7-bit binary number?
(a) 5
I
(b) 6
C (c) 7
(d) 8
T
E 6. If the number of n selected input lines is equal to 2^m then it requires _________ select
lines.
(a) 2
(b) m
(c) n
(d) None of the Mentioned
A 7. If we record any music in any recorder, such types of process is called

I (a) Multiplexing
(b) Encoding
C (c) Decoding
T
E 8. With regard to a D latch, _____________.
(a) the Q output follows the D input when EN is LOW
(b) the Q output is opposite the D input when EN is LOW
(c) the Q output follows the D input when EN is high
(d) the Q output is HIGH regardless of EN's input state
9. In J-K flip-flop, "no change" condition appears when

A (a) J = 1, K = 1
I (b) J = 1, K =0
(c) J = 0, K = 1
C (d) J = 0, K = 0
T
10. The only difference between a combinational circuit and a flip-flop is that
E (a) The flip-flop requires previous state
(b) The flip-flop requires next state
(c) The flip-flop requires a clock pulse
11. The storage element for a static RAM is the______________.

(a) diode
A (b) resistor
I (c) capacitor
(d) flip-flop
C
T 12. Applications of PLAs are
(a) Registered PALs
E (b) Configurable PALs
(c) PAL programming
(d) All of the Mentioned
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A 13. The set {1,2,3,5,7,8,9} under multiplication modulo 10 is not a group. Given below are
four plausible reasons. Which one of them is false?
I
(a) it is not closed
C (b) 2 does not have an inverse
(c) 3 does not have an inverse
T (d) 8 does not have an inverse
E
14. Let G = { (a, b) : a ≠ 0, b belongs to R} and * be a binary composition defined by
(a,b)*(c,d) = (ac, bc + d). The identity element of this group is
(a) (0,0)
(b) (1,1)
(c) (0,1)
(d) (1,0)
A
15. Which one of the following languages over the alphabet {0.1} is described by the regular
I expression:(0 + 1)*0(0 + 1)*0(0 + 1)*?
C (a) The set of all strings containing the substring 00.
(b) The set of all strings containing at most two 0's.
T (c) The set of all strings containing at least two 0's.
(d) The set of all strings that begin and end with either 0 or 1.
E
16. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {v1, v2,.... vn} such that the
weight of the edge (vi, vj) is 2|i-j|. The weight of minimum spanning tree of G is
(a) n-1
(b) 2n-2
(c) (n/2)
A (d) n2
I 17. Let G be a simple undirected planar graph on 10 vertices with 15 edges. If G is a

connected graph, then the number of bounded faces in any embedding of G on the plane
C is equal to
T (a) 3
(b) 4
E (c) 5
(d) 6
18. What is the chromatic number of an n-vertex simple connected graph which does not
contain any odd-length cycle? Assume n>=2.
(a) 2
(b) 3
A (c) n-1
I (d) n
C 19. If G is a forest with n vertices and k connected components, how many edges does G
have?
T
(a) floor(n/k)
E (b) ceil(n/k)
(c) n-k
(d) n-k+1
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A
I
20. Chromatic number of tree with n vertices is:
C (a) 2
(b) 1
T (c) n-1
E (d) n
21. Let G be a complete undirected graph on 6 vertices. If vertices of G are labeled, then the
number of distinct cycles of length 4 in G is equal to
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
A (d) 90
I
22. Consider an array consisting of -ve and +ve numbers. What would be the worst time
C comparisons an algorithm can take in order to segregate the numbers having the same
sign altogether i.e. all +ve on one side and then all -ve on the other?
T
(a) N-1
E (b) N
(c) N+1
(d) (N*N-1))/2
23. How many stacks are needed to implement a queue. Consider the situation where no
other data structure like arrays, linked lists is available to you.
(a) 1
A (b) 2
I (c) 3
(d) 4
C
24. A function f is defined on stacks of integers satisfies the following properties. f(Ø) = 0
T and f(push (S,i)) = max (f(S), 0) + i for all stacks S and integers i. If a stack S contains
E the integers 2, -3, 2, -1, 2 in order from bottom to top, what is the value of f(S)?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
25. The minimum number of nodes in AVL tree of height 11 is (assume root at height 1)
A (a) 230
(b) 231
I (c) 232
C (d) 233
T 26. A complete n-ary tree is a tree in which each node has n children or no children. Let I be
the number of internal nodes and L be the number of leaves in a complete n-ary tree. If L
E
= 41, and I = 10, what is the value of n?
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
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A
27. The number of leaf nodes in a rooted tree of n nodes, with each node having 0 or 3
I
children is:
C (a) n/2
(b) (n-1)/3
T (c) (n-1)/2
E (d) (2n+1)/3
28. Consider the following nested representation of binary trees: (X Y Z) indicates Y and Z
are the left and right sub tress, respectively, of node X. Note that Y and Z may be NULL
or further nested. Which of the following represents a valid binary tree?
(a) (1 2 (4 5 6 7))
(b) (1 (2 3 4) 5 6) 7)
A (c) (1 (2 3 4)(5 6 7))
I (d) (1 (2 3 NULL) (4 5))
C 29. The preorder traversal sequence of a binary search tree is 30, 20, 10, 15, 25, 23, 39, 35,
42. Which of the following is the post order traversal sequence of the same tree?
T
(a) 10, 20, 15, 23, 25, 35, 42, 39,30
E (b) 15, 10, 25, 23, 20, 42, 35, 39, 30
(c) 15, 20, 10, 23, 25, 42, 35, 39, 30
(d) 15, 10, 23, 25, 20, 35, 42, 39, 30
30. A multi-way search tree has n items. The number of external nodes is Select one:
(a) n2
(b) logn
A (c) n
I (d) n+1
C 31. Using bubble sort, find out the number of swapping needed to sort the numbers 8, 22, 7,
9, 31, 19, 5, 13 in ascending order.
T
(a) 12
E (b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15
32. The minimum number of comparisons required to determine if an integer appears more
than n/2 times in a sorted array of n integers is
(a) n
A (b) logn
I (c) logn2
(d) 1
C
T 33. The language, L = {bn² : n≥1} is
(a) CFL but not DCFL
E (b) DCFL but not CFL
(c) Only DCFL
(d) Not CFL
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A
34. Context free languages are closed under
I
(a) Union, Intersection
C (b) Union, Kleene closure
(c) Intersection, Complement
T (d) Complement, Kleene closure
E
35. The language L = { aib ci | i>=0 } over the alphabet {a, b, c} is:
(a) a regular language
(b) not a deterministic context free language but a context free language
(c) recursive and is a deterministic context free language
(d) not recursive
A 36. For ∑ = {a, b} the regular expression r = (aa)*(bb)*b denotes

I (a) set of strings with 2a's and 2b's
(b) set of strings with 2a's and 2b's followed by b.
C (c) set of strings with 2a's followed by b's which is a multiple of 3.
(d) set of strings with even number of a's followed by odd number of b's
T
E 37. L and 𝐿is recursively enumerable then L is
(a) regular
(b) context free
(c) context-sensitive
(d) recursive
38. The lexical analysis for a modern computer language such as java needs the power of
A which one of the following machine models in a necessary and sufficient sense?
I (a) Finite state automata
(b) Deterministic pushdown automata
C (c) Non Deterministic pushdown automata
(d) Turning machine
T
E 39. Which one of the following is FALSE?
(a) There is unique minimal DFA for every regular language.
(b) Every NFA can be converted to a equivalent PDA
(c) Complement of every context free language is recursive.
(d) Every non deterministic PDA can be converted to equivalent deterministic PDA.
40. The logic of pumping lemma is an example of ________________.

A (a) Iteration
I (b) Recursion
(c) the divide and conquer principle
C (d) the pigeon-hole principle
T
41. Let N be an NFA with n states. Let k be the number of states of a minimal DFA which is
E equivalent to N. Which one of the following is necessarily true?
(a) k≥2
(b) k≥n
(c) k≤n2
(d) k≤2n
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A
42. If L1 and L2 are context free languages and R a regular set, one of the languages below
I
is not necessarily a context free language, which one?
C (a) L1.L2
(b) L1 ∩ L2
T (c) L1 ∩ R
E (d) L1 ∪ L2
43. Pumping Lemma is generally used for proving

(a) Only context free grammar
(b) Given grammar is not regular
(c) Any unambiguous grammar
(d) Any grammar
A
I 44. In computers, subtraction is generally carried out by
(a) 9's complement
C (b) 10's complement
(c) 1's complement
T
(d) 2's complement
E
45. Virtual memory consists of
(a) Static RAM
(b) Dynamic RAM
(c) Magnetic Memory
(d) ROM
A 46. Computers use addressing mode techniques for________________________.

I (a) Giving programming versatility to the user by providing facilities as pointers to
memory counters for loop control.
C (b) To reduce number of bits in the field of instruction
(c) Specifying rules for modifying or interpreting address field of the instruction.
T
(d) All of the above
E
47. The most common addressing techniques employed by a CPU is
(a) Immediate
(b) Direct
(c) Indirect
(d) Register
A 48. Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to which of the following instructions
I (a) CALL and RET
(b) PUSH and POP
C (c) STA and LDA
T (d) MOV and JMP
E 49. An interface that provides I/O transfer of data directly to and from the memory unit and
peripheral is termed as
(a) DDA
(b) Serial interface
(c) BR
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A (d) DMA
50. A microprogram written as string of 0's and 1's is a
I
(a) Symbolic microinstruction
C (b) Binary microinstruction
(c) Symbolic microprogram
T (d) Binary microprogram
E
51. Generally Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as it
(a) Consumes less power
(b) Has higher speed
(c) Has lower cell density
(d) Needs refreshing circuitry
A 52. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of
I (a) Program counter
(b) Status register
C (c) Instruction register
(d) Program status word
T
E 53. A collection of lines that connects several devices is called................
(a) Bus
(b) Peripheral connection wires
(c) Both a and b
(d) Internal wires
54. How many number of comparisons are required in insertion sort to sort a file if the file is
A already sorted?
I (a) N2
(b) N
C (c) N-1
(d) N/2
T
E 55. We use dynamic programming approach when
(a) It provides optimal solution
(b) The solution has optimal substructure
(c) The given problem can be reduced to the 3-SAT problem
(d) It's faster than greedy.
56. Given a directed graph where weight of every edge is same, we can efficiently find
A shortest path from a given source to destination using?
I (a) Breadth First Traversal
(b) Dijkstra's Shortest Path Algorithm
C (c) Neither Breadth First Traversal nor Dijkstra's algorithm can be used
T (d) Depth first search
E 57. Assuming P != NP, which of the following is true?

(a) NP-complete = NP
(b) NP-complete ∩ P = Ø
(c) NP-hard = NP
(d) P = NP-complete
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A
58. Let X be a problem that belongs to the class NP. Then which of the following is TRUE?
I
(a) There is no polynomial time algorithm for X.
C (b) If X can be solved deterministically in polynomial time, then P = NP.
(c) If X is NP-hard, then it is NP-complete
T (d) X may be undecidable.
E
59. What is the worst case time complexity for search, insert and delete operations in a
general Binary Search Tree?
(a) O(n) for all
(b) O(Logn) for search and insert, and O(n) for delete
(c) O(Logn) for all
(d) O(Logn) for search, and O(n) for insert and delete
A
60. Which of the following algorithms can be used to most efficiently determine the
I presence of a cycle in a given graph?
(a) Depth First Search
C
(b) Breadth First Search
T (c) Prim's Minimum Spanning Tree Algorithm
(d) Kruskal' Minimum Spanning Tree Algorithm
E
61. Consider the polynomial p(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x^2 + a3x^3, where ai ! = 0, for all i. The
minimum number of multiplications needed to evaluate p on an input x is:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 9
A
I 62. A unit of storage that can store one or more records in a hash file organization is denoted
as
C (a) Buckets
(b) Disk pages
T
(c) Blocks
E (d) Nodes
63. Which of the following protocols ensure conflict serializability and safety from
deadlocks?
(a) Two-phase locking protocol
(b) Time-stamp ordering protocol
(c) Graph based protocol
A (d) None of the mentioned
I 64. The basic data type char(n) is a ______ length character string and varchar(n)
C is___________ length character.
(a) Fixed, equal
T (b) Equal, variable
(c) Fixed, variable
E
(d) Variable, equal
65. Which of the following is used to store movie and image files?
(a) Clob
(b) Blob
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A (c) Binary
(d) Image
I
66. In SQL, the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to
C (a) Select * from R natural join S.
(b) Select * from R cross join S.
T (c) Select * from R union join S.
E (d) Select * from R inner join S.
67. Consider the following transaction involving two bank accounts x and y.
read(x); x:= x - 50; write(x); read(y); y:= y + 50; write(y)
The constraint that the sum of the accounts x and y should remain constant is that of
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
A (c) Isolation
(d) Durability
I
C 68. A file is organized so that ordering of data records is the same as or close to the ordering
of data entries in some index. Then that index is called
T (a) Dense
(b) Sparse
E
(c) Clustered
(d) Unclustered
69. Shadow Paging has

(a) no redo
(b) no undo
A (c) redo but no undo
(d) neither redo nor undo
I
70. Selecting the victim to be roll backed to the previous state is determined by the minimum
C cost. The factors determining cost of rollback is
T (a) How long the transaction has computed, and how much longer the transaction will
computer before it completes its designated task.
E (b) How many data items the transaction has used
(c) How many more data items the transaction needs for it to complete
(d) All of the mentioned
PART-B (30X2=60 Marks)

A 71. How many 3-to-8 line decoders with an enable input are needed to construct a 6-to-64
I line decoder without using any other logic gates?
(a) 7
C (b) 8
(c) 9
T
(d) 10
E
72. Using a 4-bit 2's compliment arithmetic, which of the following additions will result in
an overflow? (i) 1100 + 1100 (ii) 0011 + 0111 (iii) 1111 + 0111
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
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A (c) (iii) only

(d) (i) and (iii) only
I
73. What is the bit storage capacity of ROM with a 1024 x 8 organization?
C (a) 1024
(b) 4096
T (c) 2048
E (d) 8192
74. We want to design a synchronous counter that counts the sequence 0-1-0-2-0-3 and then
repeats. The minimum number of J-K flip-flops required to implement this counter is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
A (d) 5
I 75. A modulus-10 counter must have
C (a) 10 flip-flops
(b) Flip-flops
T (c) 2 flip-flops
(d) Synchronous clocking
E
76. There are two types of people on an island:
Knight: Always tell truth.
Knave: Always lie.
A says: "The two of us are both knight" and B says "A is a knave"
The types of A and B are:
A (a) both are knight
(b) A is knight and B is knave
I (c) A is knave and B is knight
C (d) both are knave
T 77. Which of the following is the most appropriate logical formula to represent the
statement? "You can fool all of the people some of the time."
E The following notations are used: person(x): x is a person, time(t): At time t, can-
fool(x,t): One can fool person x at time t.
(a) ∀x ∃t (person(x) time(t)∧ can-fool(x,t))
(b) ∀ x ∃t (person(x) ∧ time(t)  can-fool(x,t))
(c) ∀ x ∃t (person(x) ∧ time(t) ∧ can-fool(x,t))
(d) ∀ x (person(x) ∧∃t (time(t) ∧ can-fool(x,t)))
A
78. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {v1, v2,.... vn} such that the
I weight of the edge (vi, vj) is 3|i-j|. The weight of minimum spanning tree of G is
(a) 3n-1
C (b) 3n
T (c) 3n-3
(d) 3n-2
E
79. The maximum degree of a tree T is 5 and let n i(T) denote the number of vertices of
degree i. If n1(T)=50 and n2(T)=n3(T)=n4(T)=n5(T), the number of vertices in T.
(a) 78
(b) 90
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A (c) 82
(d) 86
I
80. Nineteen students plan to have a dinner together for several days. They will be seated at
C a round table, and plan calls for each student to have different neighbors at different
dinners. Number of days this can be done is
T (a) 10
E (b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 19
81. Assume that the operators +, -, x are left associative and ^ is right associative. The order
of precedence (from highest to lowest) is ^, x, +, -. The postfix expression corresponding
to the infix expression a + b x c -d ^ e ^ f is
A (a) abc x + def ^ ^ -
(b) abc x + de ^ f ^ -
I (c) ab + c x d - e ^ f ^
C (d) - + a x bc ^ ^ def
T 82. The preorder and postorder traversal of a strictly binary tree are as given as follows {1, 2,
4, 8, 9, 5, 3, 6,7} and (8, 9, 4, 5, 2, 6, 7, 3, 1} respectively. What is the inorder traversal
E of that tree?
(a) 9,4,8,2,6,5,1,3,7
(b) 9,8,5,7,6,1,4,3,2
(c) 8,4,9,2,5,1,6,3,7
(d) Not possible to predict
83. Consider a completed undirected graph with vertex set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. Entry Wij in the
A matrix W below is the weigth of the edge {i,j}. What is the minimum possible weight of
I a spanning tree T in this graph such that vertex 0 is a leaf node in the tree T?
C W= 0 1 8 1 4
T 1 0 12 4 9
8 12 0 7 3
E 1 4 7 0 2
4 9 3 2 0
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
A 84. The minimum number of interchanges needed to convert the array 89, 19, 40, 17, 12, 10,
I 2, 5, 7, 11, 6, 9, 70 into a heap with maximum element at the root is
(a) 0
C (b) 1
(c) 2
T
(d) 3
E
85. Consider the grammar, S  SS | a. To get a string of n terminals, the number of
productions to be used is
(a) n2
(b) n
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A (c) 2n+1
(d) 2n-1
I
86. The solution for the system of post correspondence problem, A = {ba, abb, bab} B =
C {bab, bb, abb} is
(a) 1312212
T (b) 15234434
E (c) 1311322
(d) No solution
87. A CFG G is given with the following productions where S is the start symbol, A is non-
terminal and a and b are terminals.
S aS|A
A aAb| bAa | ϵ
A Which of the following strings is generated by the grammar above?
I (a) aabbaba
(b) aabaaba
C (c) abababb
(d) aabbaab
T
E 88. A context free grammar is ambiguous if
(a) The grammar contains useless nonterminals
(b) It produces more than one parse tree for same sentence
(c) Some production has two non terminals side by side on the right hand side
(d) None of the above
89. The language accepted by push down automata in which stack is limited to 10 items is
A best described as
I (a) Context free
(b) Regular
C (c) Deterministic context free
(d) Recursive
T
E 90. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It uses
associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be
(a) 11 bits
(b) 21 bits
(c) 16 bits
(d) 20 bits
A 91. Suppose that a bus has 16 data lines and requires 4 cycles of 250 nsecs each to transfer
data. The bandwidth of this bus would be 2 Megabytes/sec. If the cycle time of the bus
I
was reduced to 125 nsecs and the number of cycles required for transfer stayed the same
C what would the bandwidth of the bus?
(a) 1 Megabyte/sec
T (b) 4 Megabyte/sec
E (c) 8 Megabyte/sec
(d) 2 Megabyte/sec
92. (2FAOC)16 is equivalent to

(a) (195 084)10
(b) (001011111010 0000 1100)2
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A (c) Both (A) and (B)

(d) None of these
I
93. Logic X-OR operation of (4ACO)H & (B53F)H results__________.
C (a) AACB
(b) 0000
T (c) FFFF
E (d) ABCD
94. Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions p × q, q × r, r × s and s × t

respectively can be multiplied several ways with different number of total scalar
multiplications. For example, when multiplied as ((M1 × M2) × (M3 × M4)), the total
number of multiplications is pqr + rst + prt. When multiplied as (((M1 × M2) × M3) ×
M4), the total number of scalar multiplications is pqr + prs + pst. If p=10, q=100, r=20,
A s=5 and t=80, then the number of scalar multiplications needed is
I (a) 248000
(b) 44000
C (c) 19000
(d) 25000
T
E 95. Match the following
Group A Group B
x) Dijkstra's single shortest path algo p) Dynamic Programming
y)Bellman Ford's single shortest path algo q) Backtracking
z) Floyd Warshell's all pair shortest path algo r) Greedy Algorithm
(a) x - r, y - q, z - p
(b) x - p, y - p, z - p
A (c) x - r, y- p, z - p
I (d) x - p, y - r, z – q
C 96. What is recurrence for worst case of QuickSort and what is time complexity in Worst
case?
T
(a) Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)
E (b) Recurrence is T(n) = T(n-1) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n^2)
(c) Recurrence is T(n) = 2T(n/2) + O(n) and time complexity is O(n logn)
(d) Recurrence is T(n) = T(n/10) + T(9n/10)+ O(n) and time complexity is O(n logn)
97. Consider the relation R(ABCDE)

FD1: ABC, FD2: CD, FD3: DE, FD4: EA
Relation R is in
A (a) 1NF
I (b) 2NF
(c) 3NF
C (d) BCNF
T
98. Consider a relation R (A, B, C, D, E) with the following dependencies: {ABC,
E CDE, DEB}. What is the candidate key for this relation?
(a) AB
(b) ABD
(c) CD
(d) CDE
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A
99. Which of the following is a key factor for preferring B+ trees to binary search trees for
I
indexing database relation?
C (a) Database relations have a large number of records
(b) Database relations are sorted on the primary key
T (c) B+ trees require less memory than binary search trees
E (d) Data transfer from disks is in blocks.
100. Given a relation R ( ABCDEFGHIJ) having functional Dependencies

{ABC, ADE, BF, FGH, DIJ}
Identify the prime attributes.
(a) A, G
(b) A, B
A (c) B, D, I, J
I (d) C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J
C
PART –C
T
Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)
E
101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then
𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable

(c) 𝑀 is not invertible (d) Determinant of 𝑀 is 5
A 102. Which one is not true?

I
(a) An orthogonal matrix is always non-singular
C (b) 𝐴 is orthogonal then 𝐴𝑇 is also orthogonal
(c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
T
(d) Determinant of an orthogonal matrix is ±1
E
103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then 𝑎
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is

I (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
C (c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
T 𝑥 𝑦
105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
E (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
(a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
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A (c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function
I
C 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
T 𝑘 𝑙−𝑥 ; ≤𝑥≤𝑙
2
E 𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 +𝑦 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
(a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3

A (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
I 109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
C probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
T (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32

E 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
111. If function 𝑢 = cos−1 , then it satisfies the following
𝑥+ 𝑦
A 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
I 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 cot 𝑢 = 0
C
T ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
112. The Integral 𝑑𝑥 is
2 𝑥2
E
(a) Divergent (b) Convergent
(c) Limit does not exists (d) None
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
A (a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
I
C 2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
114. The singular solution of the differential equation 𝑦 = − , 𝑥 > 0 is
3 𝑑𝑥 3𝑥 𝑑𝑥
T 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
E
115. Particular integral of 𝑥 2 𝐷2 − 3𝑥𝐷 + 5 𝑦 = sin (log 𝑥) is
1
(a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
8
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A (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥

116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
I
balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the ball is
C red and the other is blue will be
T (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
E
117. In a binomial distribution 𝐵(𝑛, 𝑝) the mean is 100 and the variance is 80. Then the value
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the remaining
A eigenvalue is
I 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
C
T 119. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑧 2 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 + 2, then ∇. ∇𝜑 is equal to
E
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
A
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
I (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG COMPUTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING / COMPUTER SCIENCE / COMPUTER ENGINEERING
Code 14-Paper 1
Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 D
2 C 32 B 62 A 92 C
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 C
4 B 34 B 64 C 94 C
5 D 35 C 65 B 95 C
6 B 36 D 66 B 96 B
7 B 37 D 67 B 97 D
8 C 38 A 68 C 98 B
9 D 39 D 69 A 99 D
10 C 40 D 70 D 100 B
11 D 41 D 71 C 101 A
12 D 42 B 72 B 102 C
13 C 43 B 73 D 103 A
14 D 44 D 74 C 104 D
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 D
16 B 46 D 76 C 106 A
17 D 47 A, B, C, D 77 A 107 A
18 A 48 C 78 C 108 B
19 C 49 D 79 C 109 D
20 A 50 D 80 B 110 B
21 C 51 B 81 A 111 D
22 A 52 A 82 C 112 B
23 B 53 A 83 D 113 B
24 A 54 C 84 C 114 B
25 C 55 B 85 D 115 B
26 D 56 A 86 D 116 C
27 D 57 B 87 D 117 B
28 C 58 C 88 B 118 C
29 D 59 A 89 B 119 B
30 D 60 A 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
A COMPUTER SCIENCE& ENGINEERING/COMPUTER ENGINEERING/

COMPUTER SCIENCE
I
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
C PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
A vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
I blue ball point pen.
vii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
C viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
T
E
1. IPv6 addresses have a size of

(a) 32 bits
(b) 64 bits
(c) 128 bits
A (d) 265 bits
I 2. A circledrawn on the screen appears to be elliptical as-

(a) The screen has a rectangular shape
C
(b) The CRT is not completely spherical
T (c) It is due to aspect ratio of monitor
(d) D.Our eyes are not at the same level as the screen
E
3. The cross product of two vectors (I-K) and (2I +J) is-
(a) 2I
(b) I-3J -K
(c) 3I + J -K
(d) 3I -J +K
A 4. The maximum number of control points for drawing B-spline curve is-
(a) 4
I (b) 8
(c) 10
C (d) Could be anything
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
A
5. The format for storing digital audio in multimedia application is-
I (a) JPEG
(b) TIFF
C (c) WAV
(d) BMP
T
E 6. One of the following does not represent point lying on the y axis at infinity-
(a) [0 1 0 0]
(b) B. [1 0 0 0]
(c) C. [0 5 0 0]
(d) D. [0 10 0 0]
7. 90 degree clockwise rotation about X axis would transfer point-

(a) on X axis to Z axis
A (b) on Y axis to Z axis
I (c) on Y axis to X axis
(d) on Z axis to Y axis
C
8. ______is a dynamic mapping protocol in which a physical address is found for a given
T logical address.
(a) ARP
E (b) RARP
(c) Both a and b
9. Which one of the following protocol is not used in internet?

(a) HTTP
(b) DHCP
A (c) DNS
(d) None of the mentioned
I
10. Which device is required for the Internet connection?
C
(a) Joystick
T (b) Modem
(c) CD Drive
E (d) NIC Card
11. The result of midpoint subdivision algorithm is to perform-

(a) Breadth First Search
(b) Depth First Search
(c) Logarithmic Search
(d) Best First search for intersection point of the line with the window edge
A
12. Computer jargon, WWWW stands for
I (a) WORLD WIDE WEB WORM
(b) WORLD WIDE WILDLIFE WEB
C (c) WORLD WIDE WOMEN'S WEB
(d) WORLD WIDE WOMEN'S WEEK
T
E
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13. Hypermedia
A
(a) is another media like graphics, text etc.
I (b) provides links between two media
(c) is a facility to permit two media to be played together
C (d) is another name for multimedia
T 14. What is Artificial intelligence?
E (a) Making a Machine intelligent.
(b) Programming with your own intelligence
(c) Putting your intelligence into Computer
(d) Putting more memory into Computer
15. Which of the following term is least related to Artificial Intelligence?

(a) E-commerce
(b) Game playing
A (c) Reasoning and Logic
I (d) Expert System
C 16. What are you predicating by the logic: x: y: loyalto(x, y).
(a) Everyone is loyal to some one
T (b) Everyone is loyal
(c) Everyone is loyal to all
E
(d) Everyone is not loyal to someone
17. A* Algorithms is based on:

(a) Breadth-First-Search
(b) Best-First-Search
(c) Depth-First-Search
(d) Hill Climbing
A
18. Natural language processing is divided into the two sub-fields of:
I (a) Algorithmic and heuristic
(b) Time and motion
C
(c) Symbolic and Numeric
T (d) Understanding and generation
E 19. Different learning methods does not include

(a) Deduction
(b) Analogy
(c) Memorization
(d) Introduction
20. What is the name of the computer program that simulates the thought processes of
A human beings?
(a) Decision Support System
I (b) Inference
(c) Expert System
C (d) Knowledge Base
T
E
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21. What is a heuristic function?

A
(a) A function that maps from problem state descriptions to measures of desirability
I (b) A function which takes parameters of type string and returns an integer value
(c) A function to solve mathematical problems
C (d) A function which returns an object
T 22. A perceptron is a
E (a) Back-propagation algorithm
(b) Feed Forward-backward algorithm
(c) Feed-forward neural network
(d) Back-tracking algorithm
23. The symbols used in describing the syntax of a programming language are
(a) [ ]
(b) <>
A (c) { }
I (d) “ ”
C 24. In an Unsupervised learning

(a) Specific output values are given
T (b) Both inputs and outputs are given
(c) Specific output values are not given
E (d) Neither inputs nor outputs are given
25. Which Nobel Laureate is also known one of the Fathers of Artificial Intelligence?
(a) Herbert A. Simon
(b) Howard Aiken
(c) Charles Babbage
(d) Alan Turing
A
26. In AI the statement “All dogs has tail” is represented as
I (a) x: has_tail(x)→ dog(x)
(b) IF dog THEN has tail
C
(c) Dog→ has_tail
T (d) x: dog(x) → has_tail(x)
E 27. Decision support programs are designed to help managers make:

(a) Budget decisions
(b) Schedule decisions
(c) Profit margin decisions
(d) Business decisions
28. In tuple relational calculus P1 →P2 is equivalent to

A (a) ¬P1 P2
(b) P1 P2
I (c) P1 P2
(d) P1 ¬P2
C
T
E
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29. Suppose that two relations R(A,B) and S(A,B) have exactly the same schema. Which of
A
the following equalities hold in relation algebra?
I I. R∩S=R-(R-S)
II. R∩S=S-(S-R)
C III. R∩S=R EQUIJOIN S
(a) I Only
T (b) I and II Only
E (c) I, II, and III
30. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:

(a) REMOVE FROM CUSTOMER ...
(b) DROP FROM CUSTOMER ...
(c) DELETE FROM CUSTOMER WHERE ...
(d) UPDATE FROM CUSTOMER …
A
I 31. Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
(a) Base table
C (b) Index
(c) View
T (d) None of the above
E 32. It is possible to define a schema completely using …
(a) VDL and DDL.
(b) DDL and DML.
(c) SDL and DDL.
(d) VDL and DML.
33. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

A (a) Primary key
(b) Secondary Key
I (c) Foreign Key
(d) None of these
C
T 34. The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that
transforms a file key into a record location is :
E (a) B-Tree File.
(b) Hashed File.
(c) Indexed File.
(d) Sequential file.
35. Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples,
then the maximum size of join is:
A (a) Mn
(b) m+n
I (c) (m+n)/2
(d) 2(m+n)
C
T
E
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36. The techniques used to handle the phantom problems are

A
(a) Predicate locking
I (b) Index Locking
(c) Timestamping
C (d) Both A. and B.
T 37. Which of the following timestamp is not associated with a transaction T?
E (a) Start(T)
(b) Validation(T)
(c) Read(T)
(d) Finish(T)
38. UNDO/NO-REDO recovery algorithm uses _______ approach for writing the modified
buffers to the database on the disk
(a) Steal/force
A (b) No-Steal/force
(c) No-steal/No-force
I (d) Steal/No-force
C 39. Aries algorithm is not based on the principle of _______
T (a) Write-ahead logging
(b) Logging changes during undo
E (c) Deferred update
(d) Repeating history during Undo
40. A Trigger is _________________

(a) A statement that enables to start any DBMS.
(b) A statement that is executed by user when debugging an application program.
(c) A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user.
(d) A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of
A modification of the system
I 41. Constraints that cannot be directly expressed in schema of the data model, and hence
must be expressed and enforced by the application programs is known as
C
(a) Application Based
T (b) Semantics Constraints
(c) Business Rule
E (d) All of these
42. The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

(a) Creating and processing forms
(b) Creating databases
(c) Processing data
(d) Administrating databases
A 43. Every time attribute A appears, it is matched with the same value of attribute B, but not
I the same value of attribute C. Therefore, it is true that:
(a) A → B
C (b) A → C
(c) A → (B,C)
T (d) (B,C) → A
E
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44. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

A
(a) Second normal form
I (b) Third normal form
(c) Fourth normal form
C (d) Domain/key normal form
T 45. The primary key is selected from the:
E (a) Composite keys
(b) Determinants
(c) Candidate keys
(d) Foreign keys
46. When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in
another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):
(a) Transitive dependency
A (b) Insertion anomaly
I (c) Referential integrity constraint
(d) Normal form
C
47. Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists
T in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as
part of its own identifier?
E (a) Weak entity
(b) Strong entity
(c) ID-dependent entity
(d) ID- independent entity
48. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?

(a) The cells of the table must contain a single value
A (b) All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind
(c) The columns must be ordered
I (d) No two rows in a table may be identical
C 49. In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity
instances of another type?
T (a) One-to-One Relationship
(b) One-to-Many Relationship
E
(c) Many-to-Many Relationship
(d) Composite Relationship
50. To sort the results of a query use:
(a) SORT BY.
(b) GROUP BY.
(c) ORDER BY.
A (d) None of the above is correct.
I 51. Protocol which assigns IP address to client connected in internet is

(a) DHCP
C (b) IP
(c) RPC
T (d) HTML
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
A
52. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?
I (a) 2NF
(b) 3NF
C (c) 4 NF
(d) BCNF
T
E 53. If a relation is in BCNF, then it is also in
(a) 1 NF
(b) 2 NF
(c) 3 NF
54. Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the
contents of a database during a certain period of time?
A (a) report writer
I (b) query language
(c) data manipulation language
C (d) transaction log
T 55. The natural join is equal to:

(a) Cartesian Product
E (b) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
(c) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
(d) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
56. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

(a) parsing of the program
(b) the code generation
A (c) the lexical analysis of the program
(d) dataflow analysis
I
57. The output of a lexical analyzer is
C
(a) A parse tree
T (b) Intermediate code
(c) Machine code
E (d) A stream of tokens
58. Match all items in Group 1 with correct options from those given in Group 2.
Group 1 Group 2
P. Regular expression 1. Syntax analysis
Q. Pushdown automata 2. Code generation
R. Dataflow analysis 3. Lexical analysis
A S. Register allocation 4. Code optimization
(a) P-4. Q-1, R-2, S-3
I (b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
C (d) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
59. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

A
(a) Recursive descent parser.
I (b) Operator precedence parser.
(c) An LR(k) parser.
C (d) An LALR(k) parser
T 60. Which of the following is the most powerful parsing method?
E (a) LL(1)
(b) Canonical LR
(c) SLR
(d) LALR
61. Type checking is normally done during

(a) Lexical analysis
(b) Syntax analysis
A (c) Syntax directed translation
I (d) Code optimization
C 62. In a resident- OS computer, which of the following system software must reside in the
main memory under all situations?
T (a) Assembler
(b) Linker
E (c) Loader
(d) Compiler
63. The number of tokens in the following C statement is

printf("i = %d, &i = %x", i, &i);
(a) 3
(b) 26
A (c) 10
(d) 21
I
64. Dynamic web page
C (a) is same every time whenever it displays
T (b) generates on demand by a program or a request from browser
(c) both A. and B.
E
(d) none of the mentioned
65. Common gateway interface is used to

(a) generate executable files from web content by web server
(b) generate web pages
(c) stream videos
A (d) none of the mentioned
I 66. XLL definition is used along with XML to specify

C (a) The data types of the contents of XML document
(b) The presentation of XML document
T (c) The links with other documents
(d) The structure of XML document
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
67. This method ensures that each XML element type and attribute name has a unique
A
identity.
I (a) namespace
(b) fully-qualified domain name
C (c) Multiprotocol Label Switching
(d) named pipe
T
E 68. What technology is being referred to as Web 3.0?
(a) Open Source Technology
(b) The Semantic Web
(c) Read Write Web
(d) Social Networking
69. An attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users is called
(a) denial-of-service attack
A (b) virus attack
I (c) worms attack
(d) botnet process
C
70. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories as
T (a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
(b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
E (c) Frame firewall and packet firewall
71. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

(a) You can control where traffic goes in three networks
(b) You can do stateful packet filtering
(c) You can do load balancing
A (d) Improved network performance
I 72. Which one of the following is NOT desired in a good Software Requirement
Specifications (SRS) document?
C
(a) Functional Requirements
T (b) Goals of Implementation
(c) Non Functional Requirements
E (d) Algorithms for Software Implementation
73. In the context of modular software design, which one of the following combinations is
desirable?
(a) High cohesion and high coupling
(b) Low cohesion and high coupling
(c) High cohesion and low coupling
A (d) Low cohesion and low coupling
74. The spiral model was originally proposed by
I (a) IBM
(b) Barry Boehm
C (c) Pressman
(d) Royce
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
75. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

A
(a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model
I (b) Users can see the system early in Incremental Model
(c) Changing requirements can be accommodated in Incremental Model
C (d) All of the mentioned
T 76. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
(a) Maintainability
E (b) Robustness
(c) Portability
77. What are the types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment (QFD)?
(a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
(b) Functional, Non-Functional
A (c) User, Developer
(d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
I
78. A chemical plant system may detect excessive pressure and open a relief valve to reduce
C these pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of dependability and security
issue the example states?
T (a) Hazard avoidance
(b) Hazard detection
E (c) Hazard detection and removal
(d) Damage limitation
79. Management information systems (MIS)
(a) create and share documents that support day-today office activities
(b) process business transactions (e.g., time cards, payments, orders, etc.)
(c) capture and reproduce the knowledge of an expert problem solver
(d) use the transaction data to produce information needed by managers to run the
A
business
I 80. A task of developing a technical blueprint and specifications for a solution that fulfils the
C business requirements is undertaken in the following phase of the system development
process
T (a) system initiation
(b) system implementation
E (c) system analysis
(d) system design
PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
81. If
−2 1 0
A
A= 1 2 0 ,b = [ 10 6 1 ]
I 0 0 1
(a) b.Acan not be determined as dimensions do not match
C (b) A.b is same as b.A
T (c) b.A = [-14 2 1]
(d) b.A= [22 -14 1]
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
82. In 2D graphics, the transformation

A
I 1 0 0
0 1 0
C -1 2 1
T will result in :
E (a) Scaling
(b) Translation
(c) Rotation
(d) Mirror Reflection
83. If (a,b,c) x (1,3,1) = (2,1,6) where x denotes the vector product, then (a,b,c) is given by
(a) (0,1,1)
(b) (k,0,1-k) for any real k
A (c) (-1,2-7)
I (d) there exists no solution
C 84. A line connecting the points (1,1) and (5,3) is to be drawn, using the DDA algorithm.
Find the value of x and y increments.
T (a) x-increment=1 ; y-increment=1
(b) x-increment=0.5 ; y-increment=1
E (c) x-increment=1 ; y-increment=0.5
(d) none of the above
85. The end points of a given line are (0,0) and (6,18). The slope and y intercept are
computed as
(a) 3,3
(b) 0,3
A (c) 3,0
(d) 3, -3
I
86. A plan that describe how to take actions in levels of increasing refinement and specificity
C
is
T (a) Problem solving
(b) Hierarchical plan
E (c) Inheritance
(d) Planning
87. An AI technique that allows computers to understand associations and relationships
between objects and events is called:
(a) Heuristic Processing
(b) Cognitive Science
(c) Pattern Matching
A (d) Relative Symbolism
I 88. Which value is assigned to alpha and beta in the alpha-beta pruning?
(a) Alpha=max and beta=min
C
(b) Alpha=max and beta=max
T (c) Alpha=min and beta=max
(d) Alpha=min and beta=min
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
89. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

A
(a) Representational Adequacy
I (b) Inferential Adequacy
(c) Representational Verification
C (d) Inferential Efficiency
T 90. Consider the following relational schema
E Employees( id, name, dept, salary)
Managers( dept, mgr)
The Employees relation gives the employee ID, their name, department, and salary; the
second relation Managers gives for each department, which is the employee ID of the
person managing the department. We wish to constrain the relations so that in the mgr
attribute of a Managers tuple there must appear the ID of an employee in Employees.
Which of the following changes, by itself enforces the constraint?
(a) In the declaration of Managers, add for attribute mgr the attribute based check
A CHECK(EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Employees where id=mgr)).
I (b) In the declaration of Employees, add the constraint FOREIGN KEY id
REFERENCES Managers(mgr).
C (c) In the declaration of Managers, add the constraint FOREIGN KEY mgr
REFERENCES Employees(id).
T (d) More than one of the above
E 91. We have the relations Time_Table(a, b) and also the following trigger exists.
CREATE TRIGGER T
AFTER INSERT ON Time_Table
REFERENCING NEW ROW AS NNN
FOR EACH ROW
WHEN(NNN.a * NNN.b> 10)
INSERT INTO Time_TableVALUES(NNN.a - 1, NNN.b + 1);
A
Which one of the tuples below, inserted into an empty Time_table, would NOT result in
I Time_Table containing exactly 3 tuples?
(a) (3,5)
C
(b) (4,3)
T (c) (3,4)
(d) (3,8)
E
92. Let R(x) is the schema of relation R.
Q1: SELECT x FROM R rr WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM R WHERE x
>rr.x);
Q2: SELECT MAX(x) FROM R;
(a) Q1 and Q2 produce the same answer.

A (b) The answer to Q1 is always contained in Q2.
(c) The answer to Q2 is always contained in Q1.
I (d) Q1 and Q2 produce different answers.
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
93. Consider the following two ER diagrams – ER1 and ER2

A
I
C
T
The statement that the number of entities in entity set P must be greater than or equal to
E the number of entities in entity set Q holds for:
(a) ER1 but not ER2

(b) ER2 but not ER1
(c) Both ER1 and ER2
(d) Neither ER1 nor ER2
94. Which of the following statements about E/R models is/are correct?
A
I I. Many-to-many relationships cannot be represented in E/R-diagrams
II. Relationship sets can have attributes of their own.
C III. All many-to-one relationships are represented by a relationship between a weak and
a non-weak entity set.
T
E (a) II only.
(b) III only.
(c) II and III only.
(d) I and II only.
95. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only if
(a) The SLR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(b) The LR(1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
A (c) The LR(0) parser for G has S-R conflicts
(d) The LALR(1) parser for G has reduce-reduce conflicts
I
C 96. Consider the following C code segment.
T for (i = 0, i<n; i++)

{
E for (j=0; j<n; j++)
{
if (i%2)
{
x += (4*j + 5*i);
y += (7 + 4*j);
}
A }
}
I Which one of the following is false?
(a) The code contains loop invariant computation
C (b) There is scope of common sub-expression elimination in this code
T (c) There is scope of strength reduction in this code
(d) There is scope of dead code elimination in this code
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
97. Which of the following is essential for converting an infix expression to the postfix from
A
efficiently?
I (a) An operator stack
(b) An operand stack
C (c) An operand stack and an operator stack
(d) A parse tree
T
98. Consider the following script:
E <html>
<head><title>JavaScript</title></head>
<body>
<script language="JavaScript">
var a=80
var b=(a==80 ? "pass" :"fail");
document.write(b)
A </script>
</body>
I </html>
What will be the output of the above script?
C
(a) Pass
T (b) Fail
(c) Null
E (d) 80
99. Which of the following statements is false regarding “Cookies”?
(a) Cookies are programs which run in the background of the web-client
(b) Cookies have the potential of being used to violate the privacy of users
(c) Cookies are very helpful in keeping track of users in developing online shopping cart
applications, personalized portals and in advertising on web sites
(d) Cookies cannot contain more than 4Kb of data
A
100. Consider the following script:
I <html>
<head><title>JavaScript</title></head>
C <body>
T <script language="JavaScript">
document.write((125/5)%12);
E </script>
</body>
</html>
What would be the output of the above script?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2.083
(d) 3
A
101. From the following options indicate a correct association of the PROMPT, HEAD and
I RCPT commands with protocols where they are used?
(a) HTTP, SMTP, FTP
C
(b) FTP, HTTP, SMTP
T (c) HTTP, FTP, SMTP
(d) SMTP, HTTP, FTP
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
102. Which one of the following uses UDP as the transport protocol?
A
(a) HTTP
I (b) Telnet
(c) DNS
C (d) SMTP
T 103. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
(a) datagram congestion control protocol
E (b) stream control transmission protocol
(c) structured stream transport
104. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the situation where both the TCP’s issue an active
open is
(a) Mutual open
A (b) Mutual Close
(c) Simultaneous open
I (d) Simultaneous close
C 105. Which of the following is not a business risk?
(a) building an excellent product or system that no one really wants
T (b) losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in
E people
(c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
(d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
106. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in nature.

(a) Black Box
(b) Gray Box
(c) White Box
A (d) Green Box
I 107. The modification of the software to match changes in the ever changing environment,
falls under which category of software maintenance?
C (a) Corrective
(b) Adaptive
T (c) Perfective
E (d) Preventive
108. From the following which quality deals with maintaining the quality of the software
product?
(a) Quality assurance
(b) Quality efficiency
(c) Quality control
A 109. Which tool consist of programming environments like IDE, in-built modules library and
I simulation tools?
(a) Programming tools
C (b) Web development tools
(c) Prototyping tools
T (d) Design tools
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
110. Which aspect is important when the software is moved from one platform to another?
A
(a) Maintenance
I (b) Operational
(c) Transitional
C (d) All of the above
T 111. Measure of reliability is given by ______ .
E (a) Mean Time between success
(b) MTBF
(c) Mean reliable
(d) MTTR
112. Combination checks:

(a) determine data entry errors on primary keys
(b) ensure that the correct type of data is input
A (c) determine whether a known relationship between two fields is valid
I (d) determine whether all required fields of the input have actually been entered
C 113. The process of requirements discovery consists of the following activities, except
(a) sampling of existing documentation, forms and files
T (b) requirements management
(c) requirements discovery
E (d) problem discovery
114. Cause-and-effect analysis is performed in the following phase of systems analysis

(a) logical design phase
(b) requirements analysis phase
(c) physical design phase
(d) problem analysis phase
A
115. Which of the following is NOT a feasibility analysis criterion?
I (a) technical feasibility
(b) resource feasibility
C
(c) operational feasibility
T (d) economic feasibility
E 116. All of the following are examples of requirements problems, except

(a) missing requirements
(b) overlapping requirements
(c) costly requirements
(d) conflicting requirements
117. A complete Binary Tree with 15 nodes contains_______edges

A (a) 15
(b) 30
I (c) 14
(d) 16
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CSE14
118. Determine the order of |V|of the graph G = (V, E) if G has 10 edges with 2 vertices of
A
degree 4 and all other of degree 3.
I (a) 6
(b) 4
C (c) 30
(d) None
T
E 119. Client and Web server have a connection of type
(a) Continuous
(b) Dependent
(c) Permanent
(d) Not Continuous
120. Which of the following statements are true?

(a) HTTP runs over TCP
A (b) HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL
I (c) HTTP can be used to test the validity of a hypertext link
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG COMPUTER SCIENCE ENGINEERING / COMPUTER SCIENCE / COMPUTER ENGINEERING
Code 14-Paper 2
1 C 31 C 61 C 91 C
2 C 32 B 62 C 92 C
3 Marks to all 33 C 63 C 93 B
4 D 34 B 64 B 94 A
5 C 35 A 65 A 95 B
6 Marks to all 36 B 66 C 96 D
7 D 37 C 67 A 97 A
8 A 38 A 68 B 98 A
9 A, B, C 39 C 69 A 99 A
10 D 40 D 70 A 100 B
11 C 41 D 71 C 101 B
12 A 42 A 72 B 102 C
13 B 43 A 73 C 103 A
14 A 44 C 74 B 104 C
15 A 45 C 75 A 105 C
16 A 46 C 76 D 106 A
17 B 47 A 77 D 107 B
18 D 48 C 78 C 108 C
19 D 49 B 79 D 109 A
20 C 50 C 80 D 110 C
21 A 51 A 81 C 111 B
22 C 52 D 82 B 112 D
23 B 53 D 83 D 113 A
24 C 54 D 84 C 114 D
25 A 55 C 85 C 115 B
26 D 56 C 86 B 116 C
27 D 57 D 87 C 117 C
28 A 58 B 88 A 118 B
29 B 59 A 89 C 119 D
30 C 60 B 90 C 120 C
ROLL NO. UG1INF15
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160

PAPER-I
Instructions:
A i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total 120
questions.
I ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q1 to Q. 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
C iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q71 to Q. 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
T of 2 (two) marks each.
E
wrong answer.
vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
A blue ball point pen.
I ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
C
T PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)
E
1. If the array is already sorted, which of these algorithms will exhibit the best performance
a) Insertion Sort
b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort
A d) Heap Sort
I
2. A balance factor in AVL tree is used to check
C a) what rotation to make.
b) if all child nodes are at same level.
T
c) when the last rotation occurred.
E d) if the tree is unbalanced.
3. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

a) Processor and memory
b) Complexity and capacity
A c) Time and space
d) Data and space
I
C 4. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?
a) Arrays
T b) Linked lists
E c) Both of Arrays and Linked lists
d) None of above.
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
5. Which data structure is used in breadth first search of graph to hold nodes?
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Tree
d) Array
A 6. Which of the following data structures are indexed structures?

a) Linear arrays
I b) Linked lists
c) Graphs
C
d) Trees
T
7. The time complexity of quick sort is……….
E a) O(n)
b) O(n2)
c) O(n log n)
d) O (log n)
A
8. Which of the following is non-liner data structure?
I a) Stacks
b) List
C c) Strings
T d) Trees
E 9. State True or False

i) Binary search is used for searching in a sorted array.
ii) The time complexity of binary search is O (logn).
a) True, False
b) False, True
A c) False, False
I d) True, True
C 10. Breadth First Search is equivalent to which of the traversal in the Binary Trees?
a) Pre-order Traversal
T
b) Post-order Traversal
E c) Level-order Traversal
d) In-order Traversal
11. Time Complexity of Breadth First Search is?

(V – Number of Vertices, E – Number of Edges
A a) O (V + E)
b) O (V)
I c) O (E)
C d) None of the mentioned
T 12. What is the time complexity for finding the height of the binary tree?
E a) h = O (loglogn)
b) h = O(nlogn)
c) h = O(n)
d) h = O (log n)
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
13. Which of the following methods can be used to solve the Knapsack problem?
a) Brute force algorithm
b)Recursion
c) Dynamic programming
d)All of the mentioned
A 14. What is the worst case time complexity of searching for an element in a circular linked
list?
I a) O(n)
b) O (nlogn)
C
c) O(1)
T d) None of the mentioned
E 15. In simple uniform hashing, what is the search complexity?
a) O (n)
b) O (logn)
c) O (nlogn)
d) O(1)
A
I 16. In simple chaining (Hash Tables), what data structure is appropriate?
a) Singly linked list
C b) Doubly linked list
T c) Circular linked list
d) Binary trees
E
17. What is the worst case complexity of selection sort?
a) O (nlogn)
b) O (logn)
c) O (n)
A d) O (n2)
I
18. Which of the following requires a device driver?
C a) Register
b) Disk
T
c) Main memory
E d) Cache
19. In Distributed system, the capacity of a system to adapt the increased service load is
called__________.
a) Scalability
A b) Tolerance
c) Capability
I d) Loading
C
20. A cache memory needs an access time of 30 ns and main memory 150 ns,
T what is the average access time of CPU (assume hit ratio = 80%)?
E a) 60
b) 30
c) 150
d) 70
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
21. Amplitude modulation is

a) Change in amplitude of the carrier according to modulating signal
b) Change in modulating signal according to the carrier signal
c) The change in phase of the modulating signal according to the carrier signal
d) Change in phase of the carrier signal according to modulating signal
A 22. The modulation technique that uses the minimum channel bandwidth and transmitted
power is
I a) FM
b) VSB
C
c) SSB
T d) DSB-SC
E 23. Number of satellites required for full global coverage in Geostationary Earth Orbits
(GEO) is
a) 48-66
b) 10-12
c) 3
A
d) 8
I
24. Optical fiber operates on the principles of
C a) Photo-electric effect
T b) Laser technology
c) Total internal reflectance
E d) All of the above.
25. In digital receivers, which codes are used to designate the sampled analog signals after
their quantization into discrete levels?
a) Binary
A b) Decimal
I c) ASCII
d) Excess-3
C
26. Huffman coding technique is adopted for constructing the source code with---------
T
redundancy.
E a) Constant
b) Unpredictable
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
A 27. Which of the following conversion is not possible?

a) Regular Grammar to CFG
I b) Nondeterministic Finite State Machine (FSA) to Deterministic FSA
C c) Nondeterministic PDA to Deterministic PDA
d) Nondeterministic TM to Deterministic TM
T
E 28. Grammar that produce more than one parse tree for the same sentence is:
a) Ambiguous
b) Unambiguous
c) Complementary
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
d) Regular Grammar
29. Finite automata accept the following language:

a) Regular languages
b) CFG
c) Context Sensitive
A d) All of the above
I 30. Grammars that can be translated to DFAs:

a) Left Linear Grammars
C
b) Right Linear Grammars
T c) Generic Grammar
d) All of the above
E
31. Which of the following is true while converting CFG to LL (I) grammar?
a) Remove left recursion
b) Factoring the grammar
c) Both of the above
A
d) None of the above
I
32. Which of the following is the most general phase structured grammar?
C a) Regular
T b) Context free
c) Context sensitive
E d) None of the above
33. All strings having equal number of a and b can be recognized by

a) DFA
b) NFA
A c) PDA
I d) All of the above
C 34. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting
the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called
T
a) Assembly
E b) Parsing
c) Relocation
d) Symbol resolution
35. What is the ready state of a process?

A a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
I c) when process is using the CPU
C d) none of the mentioned
T 36. A process stack does not contain

E a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) Process ID of child process
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
37. A process Control Block (PCB) does not contain which of the following:
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
A 38. Thrashing occurs when

a) When a page fault occurs
I b) Processes on system frequently access pages not memory
c) Processes on system are in running state
C
d) Processes on system are in waiting state
T
39. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is called:
E a) boot program
b) boot loader
c) initializer
d) bootstrap program
A
40. Time quantum is defined in
I a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
C c) priority scheduling algorithm
T d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
E 41. Which one of the following cannot be scheduled by the kernel?

a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
d) none of the mentioned
A
I 42. With single resource deadlock occurs
a) if there are more than two processes competing for that resources
C b) if there are only two processes competing for that resources
c) if there is a single process competing for that resources
T
d) none of these
E
43. Which of the following memory allocation scheme suffers from external fragmentation?
a) Segmentation
b) Pure demand paging
c) Swapping
A d) Paging
I 44. In round robin CPU scheduling as time quantum is increased the average turnaround
C time
a) increases
T b) decreases
E c) remains constant
d) varies irregularly
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1INF15
45. Which operating system implementation has to focus on the issue of Good response time
a) Batch Processing
b) Multiprogramming
c) Distributed
d) Time sharing
A 46. What is a shell?

a) is a hardware component
I b) It is a command interpreter
c) It is a part in compiler
C
d) It is a tool in CPU scheduling
T
47. What is Page stealing?
E a) It takes page frames from other working sets
b) To increase the capacity of main memory
c) To speed up main memory read operation
d) None of above
A
48. A process executes the code
I fork ();
fork ();
C fork ();
T
The total number of child processes created is
E a) 3
b) 4
c) 7
d) 8
A 49. How many digits of the Data Network Identification Code (DNIC) identify the country?
I a) First Four
b) First Three
C c) First Five
d) First Six
T
E 50. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output
queue. What routing algorithm is being used?
a) Hot Potato Routing
b) Flooding
c) Static Routing
A d) Delta Routing
I 51. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
C a) Router
b) Bridge
T c) Repeater
E d) Modem
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
52. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60
new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of
host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
a) 255.240.0.0
b) 255.248.0.0
c) 255.252.0.0
A d) 255.254.0.0
I 53. To use a ………………network service, the service user first establishes a connection,
uses the connection, and terminates the connection
C
a) Connection-Oriented
T b) Connection-Less
c) Service-Oriented
E d) Service-Less
54. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

a) 127.0.0.1
b) 255.0.0.0
A
c) 255.255.0.0
I d) 255.255.255.0
C 55. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?
T a) Slower Data Transmission
b) Higher Error Rate
E c) Interference of Transmissions from different computers
d) All of the above.
56. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

a) allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts
A b) provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and
I the Internet Protocol Software on another
c) reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to
C individual application programs and take action to correct the problem
d) All of the above
T
E 57. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic?
mail messages from one machine to another?
a) FTP
b) SNMP
c) SMTP
A d) ICMP
I 58. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted
C is known as
a) Frame Check Sequence
T b) Error Detecting Code
E c) Checksum
d) Flow Control
59. The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1INF15
at a time is
a) Simplex
b) Duplex
c) Half Duplex
d) Multiplex
A 60. In Computer Network Nodes are:

a) The Computer that Originates the Data
I b) The Computer that Routes the Data
c) The Computer that Terminates the Data
C
d) All of the Mentioned
T
61. Communication Channel is shared by all the machines on the network in:
E a) Broadcast Network
b) Unicast Network
c) Multicast Network
d) None of the Mentioned
A
62. FTP stands for
I a) File transfer protocol
b) File transmission protocol
C c) Form transfer protocol
T d) Form transmission protocol
E 63. In……………………….…service, each message carries the full destination

address, and each one is routed through the system independent of all others.
a) Connection-Oriented
b) Connection-Less
c) Service-Oriented
A d) Service-less
I
64. …………………..entities are entities in the same layer on different machines.
C a) Software
b) Service
T
c) Peer
E d) Interface
65. The……………layer change bits onto electromagnetic signals.

a) Physical
b) Transport
A c) Data Link
d) Presentation
I
C 66. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the
type of medium?
T a) Logical Link Control Sublayer
E b) Media Access Control Sublayer
c) Network Interface Control Sublayer
d) None of These
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67. Which of the following algorithms has the lowest worst case asymptotic?
runtime?
a) Mergesort
b) Quicksort
c) Bubble sort
d) Selection sort
A
68. To implement Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm on unweighted graphs so that
I it runs in linear time, the data structure to be used is
a) Queue
C
b) Stack
T c) Heap
d) B-Tree
E
69. The problem 3-SAT and 2-SAT are
a) Both in P
b) Both NP complete
c) NP-complete and in P respectively
A
d) Undecidable and NP – complete respectively.
I
70. Which of the following is TRUE?
C a) To prove that a problem X is NP – Hard, we take a known NP-Hard problem
T Y and reduce X to Y.
b) To prove that a problem X is NP-complete, we take a known Np-complete problem
E Y and reduce Y to X.
c) NP-Hard problems is the class of problems that are harder than all problems in NP.
A
I PART-B(30x2=60 Marks)
C 71. What is the lowest time complexity of the Build Heap operation that builds a maximum
(or minimum) Binary heap from an array of n unsorted elements?
T
a) O (nlogn)
E b) O(n)
c) O(logn)
72. Which of the following sorting algorithms is the most efficient to sort an ‘almost sorted’
A array of elements, that is, an array where only a few elements are not in their sorted
position?
I a) Quicksort
C b) Merge sort
c) Insertion sort
T d) Selection sort
E
73. Worst-case performance of binary search algorithm is
a) O (n)
b) O (nlogn)
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
c) O (logn)
d) O (n2)
74. Convert the infix expression ( (a + b) * c) – d into postfix expression

a) ab + c * d -
b) ab c+ * d -
A c) a + b c * d –
d) None of these
I
75. Convert the infix expression ( (a + b) * c) – d into prefix expression
C
a) - * + a b c d
T b) - + a b * c d
c) + a – b * c d
76. Solve the recurrence relation 2n T (n/2) + nnusing Master Theorem

a) O (n)
b) O (n logn)
A
c) Not possible
I d) Θ (n3)
C 77. The space complexity of the following algorithm A
T A (N)
{
E If (N > 1)
{
A (N-1);
Print N;
}
A }
I O (N)
a) O (N)
C b) O (N2)
c) O (1)
T
E
78. The space complexity of the following algorithm A
A (N)
{
If ( N> 1)
A {
A (N-1);
I Print N;
C A (N-1);
}
T }
E a) O (N)
b) O (N2)
c) O (1)
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79. The worst case Space complexity of AVL tree is

a) O (n)
b) O (n2)
c) O (2 n)
d) None of the Above
A
80. Prefix notation is also known as
I a) Reverse Polish Notation
b) Reverse Notation
C
c) Polish Reverse Notation
T d) Polish Notation
E 81. The main difference(s) between a CISC and a RISC processor is/are that a USC
processor typically:
1. has fewer instructions
2. has fewer addressing modes
3. has more registers
A
4. is easier to implement using hardwired control logic
I a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
C c) 1 and 4 d
T d) 1,2,3 and 4
E 82. A computer has a 256 Kbyte, 4-way set associative, write back data cache with block
size of 32 Bytes. The processor sends 32 bit addresses to the cache controller. Each
cache tag directory entry contains, in addition to address tag, 2 valid bit, 1 modified
bitand 1 replacement bit. The size of the cache tag directoryis
a) 160 Kbits
A b) 136 bits
I c) 40 Kbits
d) 32 bits
C
T
83. A phase modulation system operates with a modulation index of 1.5. What is the
E maximum phase shift in degrees?
a) 25.6 degrees
b) 85.9 degrees
c) 72.3 degrees
d) 35.6 degrees
A
84. A thread is usually defined as a ‘light weight process ‘because an operating system (OS)
I maintains smaller data structures for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which
C of the followings is TRUE?
a) On per-thread basis, the OS maintains only CPU register state
T b) The OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread
E c) On per-thread basis, the OS does not maintain virtual memory state
d) On per thread basis, the OS maintains only scheduling and accounting
information
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
85. A computer has twenty physical page frames which contain pages numbered 101
Through 120. Now a program accesses the pages numbered 1, 2, …, 100 in that order,
and repeats the access sequence THRICE. Which one of the following page replacement
policies experiences the same number of page faults as the optimal page replacement
policy for this program?
a) Least-recently used
A b) First-in-first-out
c) Last-in- first-out
I d) Most–recently-used
C
86. If link transmits 4000 frames per second, and each slot has 8 bits, the transmission rate of
T circuit this TDM is
a) 32 kbps
E b) 500 bps
c) 500 kbps
d) None of the mentioned
87. IEEE project 802 divides the data link layer into an upper __________sublayer and a
A
lower______sublayer.
I a) HDLC, PDU
b) PDU, HDLC
C c) MAC, LLC
T d) LLC, MAC
E 88. How long is an IPv6 address?

a) 32 bits
b) 64 bits
c) 128 bit
d) 128 bytes
A
I 89. PURE ALOHA
a) Does not require global time synchronization
C b) Does require global time synchronization
c) Both (a) and (b)
T
d) None of These
E
90. The number of elements that can be sorted in Θ (log n) time using heap sort is
a) Θ (1)
b) Θ (log n)
c) Θ (n)
A d) Θ (log n / (log log n) )
I 91. Let G be a complete undirected graph on 4 vertices, having 6 edges with weights being
C 1,2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. The maximum possible weight that a minimum weight spanning tree of
G can have is
T a) 5
E b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
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92. Consider the weighted undirected graph with 4 vertices, where the weight of edge {i, j}
is given by the entry Wij in the matrix W.
{ 0 28 5
W= 2 05 8
A 8 5 0 x
5 8 x 0
I
The largest possible integer value of x, for which at least one shortest path between some
C
pair of vertices will contain the edge with weight x is
T a) 8
b) 10
E c) 12
d) 15
93. G = (V, E) is an undirected simple graph in which each edge has a distinct weight, and e
is a particular edge of G. Which of the following statements about the minimum
A
spanning trees (MSTs) of G is/are TRUE?
I
I) If e is the lightest edge of some cycle in G, then every MST of G includes e
C II) If e is the heaviest edge of some cycle in G, then every MST of G excludes e
T a) I only
b) II only
E c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
94. Given below are some algorithms, and some algorithm design paradigms.
1. Dijkstra’s shortest path (i) Divide and Conquer
A 2. Floyd-Warshall algorithm to find all pair shortest path (ii) Dynamic Programming
I 3. Binary search on a sorted array (iii) Greedy design
4. Backtracking search on a graph (iv) Depth-first search
C (v) Breadth-first search
Match the above algorithms on the left to the corresponding design paradigm they follow
T
a) 1-- i, 2-- iii,3-- i, 4--v
E b) 1-- ii,2--iii, 3-- i, 4--v
c) 1--iii,2--ii, 3-- i, 4--iv
d) 1--iii,2--ii,3--i,4--v
95. A graph is self-complementary if it is isomorphic to its complement. For all self-

A complementary graphs on n vertices, n is
a) A multiple of 4
I b) Even
C c) Odd
d) Congruent to 0 mod 4, or, 1 mod 4
T
E 96. The lexical analysis for a modern computer language such as Java needs the power of
which one of the following machine models in a necessary and sufficient sense?
a) Finite state automata
b) Deterministic pushdown automata
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ROLL NO. UG1INF15
c) Non-Deterministic pushdown automata

d) Turing machine
97. Which of the following pairs have DIFFERENT expressive power?

a) Deterministic finite automata and Non-deterministic finite automata
b) Deterministic push down automata and Non-deterministic
A push down automata
c) Deterministic single-tape Turning machine and Non-deterministic single tape
I Turning machine
d) Single – tape Turing machine and multi-tape Turing machine
C
T 98. Which of the following problems are decidable?
1) Does a given program ever produce an output?
E
2) If L is a context-free language, then, is Lalso context-free?
3) If L is a regular language, then, is Lalso regular?
4) If L is recursive language, then, is Lalso recursive?
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
A b) 1, 2
c) 2 ,3, 4
I d) 3, 4
C
99. Which of the following statement is/are FALSE?
T 1) For every non-deterministic Turing machine, there exists an equivalent deterministic
Turing machine
E 2) Turing recognizable languages are closed under union and complementation
3) Turing decidable languages are closed under intersection and complementation.
4) Turing recognizable languages are closed under union and intersection.
a) 1 and 4 only
A b) 1 and 3 only
I c) 2 only
d) 3 only
C
T 100. The address of a class B host is to be split into subnets with a 6 – bit subnet number.
What is the maximum number of subnets and maximum number of hosts in each subnet?
E a) 62 subnets and 1022 hosts
b) 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
c) 62 subnets and 254 hosts
d) 64 subnets and 256 hosts
A
PART –C (30 Marks)
I
C 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable
T (c) 𝑀 is not invertible (d) Determinant of 𝑀 is 5
E
102. Which one is not true?
(b) 𝐴 is orthogonal then 𝐴𝑇 is also orthogonal
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1INF15

is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) 3 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
A
I 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
C
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
T (c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
E
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
A
I (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
(c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
C
T
E
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
𝑘 𝑙−𝑥 ; ≤𝑥≤𝑙
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
A 2 4
I 3
108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
C (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3
T (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
E
109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
A 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
𝑥+𝑦
C 111. If function 𝑢 = cos−1 , then it satisfies the following
𝑥+ 𝑦
T
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1INF15
∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2

A 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
I
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
C
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
T
E 2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6

A 1
(a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) 8 [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
I
(c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥
C
T 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
E red and the other is blue will be
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
A (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
I
118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value2𝑖, then one of the remaining
C eigenvalue is
1 1
T (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
119. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑧 2 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 + 2, then ∇. ∇𝜑 is equal to
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
A
I 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
C 1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
T
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
E (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
---------------------
Page 17 of 17
UG INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Code 15-Paper 1
1 A 31 C 61 A 91 C
2 D 32 C 62 A 92 C
3 C 33 C 63 B 93 C
4 D 34 C 64 C 94 C
5 B 35 A 65 A 95 D
6 A 36 D 66 B 96 A
7 C 37 C 67 A 97 B
8 D 38 B 68 A 98 D
9 D 39 D 69 C 99 C
10 C 40 B 70 B 100 A
11 A 41 B 71 B 101 A
12 C 42 D 72 C 102 C
13 D 43 A 73 C 103 A
14 A 44 D 74 A 104 D
15 D 45 D 75 A 105 D
16 B 46 B 76 C 106 A
17 D 47 A 77 A 107 A
18 B 48 C 78 A 108 B
19 A 49 B 79 A 109 D
20 A 50 A 80 D 110 B
21 A 51 B 81 Marks to all 111 D
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 B
23 C 53 A 83 B 113 B
24 C 54 D 84 C 114 B
25 A 55 D 85 D 115 B
26 D 56 D 86 A 116 C
27 C 57 C 87 D 117 B
28 A 58 A, C 88 C 118 C
29 A 59 C 89 A 119 B
30 B 60 D 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2INF15
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

PAPER-II
Instructions:
A i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
I ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
C iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
T wrong answer.
E programmable scientific calculator.
vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
blue ball point pen.
viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
A examination before leaving the examination hall.
I
C PART-A (80 X 1= 80 Marks)
T
1. Which of the following is not a binary operation?
E a) Union
b) Project
c) Set difference
d) Cartesian product
A 2. In ER diagram, double rectangle represents

a) Relationship set
I b) Weak entity set
C c) Derived attributes
d) Multivalued attributes
T
E 3. A relation that has no partial dependencies is in____________normal form
a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) BCNF
A
4. In RDBMS, the appropriate data structure used for internal storage organization where we
I have lot of range queries is
a) B tree
C
b) Primary indexing structure
T c) Inverted tree
d) B+ tree
E
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ROLL NO. UG2INF15
5. The following concept relates two tables in a database

a) Super key
b) Primary key
c) Foreign key
d) Candidate key
6. An example for the procedural language is

A a) Relational algebra
I b) Relational calculus
c) SQL
C d) Domain relational calculus
T
7. A data dictionary doesn‘t provide information about
E a) Where data is located
b) The size of the disk storage device
c) Who owns or responsible for the data
d) Security and privacy limitations
A 8. In RDBMS, fourth normal form deals with

I a) Transitive dependencies
b) Partial dependencies
C c) Functional dependencies
d) Multivalued dependencies
T
E 9. Following database constraint requires the notion of foreign key definition:
a) Domain constraint
b) Entity constraint
c) Referential integrity constraint
d) Both Entity and Key constraints
A
10. The number of records which can be stored in a disk block is called
I a) Blocking factor
C b) Sector
c) Critical sector size
T d) Block sensitivity
E
11. Objective of normalization technique in DBMS is to
a) Remove the functional dependencies
b) Reduce the anomalies
c) Remove redundancies
A d) Reduce the number of resultant relations
I 12. The FDs, V→Y, UY→Z infers that UV →Z. The rule used here is
a) Pseudo-transitive rule
C
b) Augmentation rule
T c) Union rule
d) Additive rule
E
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO. UG2INF15
13. Aspect ratio means

a) Number of pixels
b) Vertical to (horizontal + vertical) points
c) Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points
d) Both b and c
14. The quality of a picture obtained from a device depends on

A a) Dot size
I b) Number of dots per inch
c) Number of lines per inch
C d) All of the mentioned
T
15. A heavy line on a video monitor could be displayed as
E a) Adjacent perpendicular lines
b) Adjacent parallel lines
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
A 16. Why a circle drawn on the screen appears to be elliptical?

I a) Screen has rectangular shape
b) It is due to the aspect ratio of monitor
C c) CRT is completely spherical
d) Our eyes are not at the same level on screen
T
E 17. The projection is obtained by projecting points along parallel lines that are not
perpendicular to the projection plane is called______________
a) Cavalier projection
b) Isometric projection
c) Perspective projection
A d) Oblique projection
I 18. Two consecutive rotation transformation R1 and R2 are
C a) Additive
b) Multiplicative
T c) Subtractive
E d) None of above
19. A bitmap has…………bit(s) per pixels.

a) 0
b) 1
A c) 2
d) 3
I
20. Which of the following hidden surface algorithm does not employee image space approach?
C
a) Depth sort method
T b) Scan line method
c) Depth buffer method
E d) Back face removal
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ROLL NO. UG2INF15
21. Which of the following unit reads each successive byte of data from the frame
buffer?
a) Display Controller
b) Digital Controller
c) Data Controller
d) All of above
A 22. In view plane transformation, what is the name for the distance between view plane and
I view reference point?
a) Projection distance
C b) Projection ray length
T c) View distance
E
23. In which projection, as the view distance changes, there is change in the display image size?
a) Parallel projection
b) Oblique projection
c) Perfect parallel projection
A d) Perspective projection
I
24. The optimization that is usually applied on loops is:
C a) Invariant code motion
b) Peephole optimization
T
c) Constant folding
E d) All of the above
25. Concept that is used to identify loops in compilers is:

a) Reducible Graphs
b) Dominators
A c) Depth first ordering
d) All of the above
I
C 26. LR stands for
a) Left to Right derivation
T b) Left to Right Reduction
E c) Right to Left
d) Left to Right and Rightmost derivation in reverse
27. Grammar of the programs is checked in the phase,

a) Semantic analysis
A b) Lexical analysis
c) Code motion
I d) Parsing
C
28. Which phase of the compiler is used for grouping of characters into tokens:
T a) Lexical analysis
b) Syntax analysis
E c) Semantic analysis
d) Code optimization
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO. UG2INF15
29. In a bottom-up evaluation of a syntax directed definition, inherited attributes can

a) always be evaluated
b) be evaluated only if the definition is L—attributed
c) be evaluated only if the definition has synthesized attributes
d) never be evaluated
30. Consider the following grammar:S->CC, C->cC|d. The grammar is

A a) LL (1)
I b) SLR (1) but not LL(1)
c) LALR (1) but not SLR (1
C d) LR (1) but not LALR (1)
T
31. Which one of the following is True at any valid state in shift-reduce parsing?
E a) Viable prefixes appear only at the bottom of the stack and not inside
b) Viable prefixes appear only at the top of the stack and not inside (wrong)
c) The stack contains only a set of viable prefixes
d) The stack never contains viable prefixes
A 32. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting
I the code and date in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called
a) Assembly
C b) Parsing
c) Relocation
T
d) Symbol Resolution
E
33. Which of the following statements is false?
a) An Unambiguous grammar has the same leftmost and rightmost derivations
b) LL(1) is a top-down parser
c) LALR is more powerful than SLR
A d) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k
I 34. Which of the following describes a handle (as applicable to LR-parsing) appropriately?
C a) It is the position in a sentential form where the next shift or reduce operation will occur
b) It is non-terminal whose production will be used for reduction in the next step
T c) It is a production that may be used for reduction in a future step along with a position
E in the sentential form where the next shiftor reduce operation will occur.
d) It is the production p that will be used for reduction in the next step along with a
position in the sentential form where the right hand side of the production may be
found
A 35. An LALR(1) parser for a grammar G can have shift-reduce (S-R) conflicts if and only if
a) the SLR (1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
I b) the LR (1) parser for G has S-R conflicts
c) the LR(0) parser for G has S-R conflicts
C
d) the LALR(1) parser for G has reduce – reduce conflicts.
T
36. A network uses a star topology if
E a) Computers are arranged in a closed loop.
b) All computers attach to a central point
c) All computers attach to a single long cable.
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO. UG2INF15
d) Computers attach to multiple hierarchical cables.
37. A HTTP request is specified in the________________format.

a) Hypertext
b) ASCII
c) MIME
A
I 38. FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interconnect) is an example of
a) token ring
C b) token bus
T c) star topology
d) multipoint network
E
39. During data transmission, the CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) is performed using
a) Shift register
b) XOR unit
c) Both (a) & (b)
A d) Instruction register
I
40. Which elements are mandatory in valid XHTML document?
C a) doctype, html and body
b) doctype , html, head, body, and title
T
c) doctype, html, head, and body
E d) doctype, html
41. FTP uses _________parallel TCP connections to transfer a file

a) 1
b) 2
A c) 3
d) 4
I
C 42. A Scripting language is
a) Assembly Level programming language
T b) Machine level programming language
E c) High Level Programming language
d) None of the above.
43. Network address prefixed by 1110 is a

a) Class A address
A b) Multicast address
c) Class B address
I d) Reserve address
C
44. Which of these operators can be used to get run time information about an Applet object?
T a) getInfo
b) Info
E c) Instanceof
d) getinfoof
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45. With reference to Internet Payment Systems, the term ―Transferability ―means
_____________
a) whether money can be taken from place to place easily.
b) whether payments can be completed without a third party
c) whether payments are anonymous.
d) Whether payment can be divided into smaller parts amounting to the whole.
A 46. EDIFACT is a standard
I a) for representing business forms used in e-Commerce
b) for e-mail transaction for e-Commerce
C c) for ftp in e-Commerce
T d) protocol used in e – Commerce
E 47. A firewall may be implemented in

a) routers which connect intranet to internet
b) bridges used in an intranet
c) expensive modem
d) user‘s application programs
A
I 48. In Electronic cash payment
a) a customer withdraws ―coins‖ in various denominations signed by the bank
C b) the bank has a database of issued coins
c) the bank has database of spent coins
T
d) the bank cannot trace a customer
E
49. Software deteriorates rather than wears out because
a) Software suffers from exposure to hostile environments
b) Defects are more likely to arise after software has been used often
c) Multiple change requests introduce errors in component interactions
A d) Software spare parts become harder to order
I 50. Evolutionary software process models
C a) Are iterative in nature
b) Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
T c) Do not generally product throwaway systems
E d) All of the above.
51. UML notations are used to model hardware/software elements of a system are
a) Activity diagrams
b) Class diagrams
A c) Deployment diagrams
d) a, b, and c
I
52. UML activity diagrams are useful in representing which analysis model elements?
C
a) Behavioral elements
T b) Class-based elements
c) Flow-based elements
E d) Scenario – based elements
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53. To determine the architectural style or combination of styles that best fits the proposed
system, requirements engineering is used to uncover
a) algorithmic complexity
b) characteristics and constraints
c) control and data
d) design patterns
A 54. Which of the following is not an example of infrastructure components that may need to be
I integrated into the software architecture?
a) Communications components
C b) Database components
T c) Interface components
d) Memory management component
E
55. Which of these is a graphical notation for depicting procedural details?
a) process diagram
b) decision table
c) ER diagram
A d) Flowchart
I
56. The testing technique that requires devising test cases to exercise the internal logic of a
C software module is called
a) behavioural testing
T
b) black-box testing
E c) grey-box testing
d) white-box testing
57. Effective software project management focuses on four P‘s which are
a) people, performance, payoff, product
A b) people, product, performance, process
c) people, product, process, project
I d) people, process, payoff, product
C
58. Process indicators enable a software project manager to
T a) assess the status of an on-going project
E b) track potential risks
c) adjust work flow or tasks
d) all of the above
59. Reusable software components must be

A a) Catalogued for easy reference
b) Standardized for easy application
I c) Validated for easy integration
C
T 60. Which one of the following is not a business driver for an information system?
a) Business process redesign
E b) Knowledge asset management
c) Proliferation of networks and the internet
d) Security and privacy
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61. Batch processing is used when-

a) response time should be short
b) data processing is to be carried out at periodic intervals
c) transactions are in batches
d) transactions do not occur periodically.
A 62. Which of the following is not a technology driver for an information system?
I a) Enterprise applications
b) Object technologies
C c) Knowledge asset management
T d) Collaborative technologies
E 63. An information system that supports the planning and assessment needs of executive
management is
a) TPS
b) ERP
c) MIS
A d) None of the above
I
64. The application of information to scan an organisation‘s environment is:
C a) external communication
b) information overload
T
c) sensing
E d) internal communication
65. When a bank uses business performance management software to monitor its performance
in different regions this:
a) reduces costs
A b) manages risks
c) adds value
I d) creates a new opportunity
C
66. The general transformation cycle for information is:
T a) information to data to knowledge
E b) knowledge to data to information
c) data to knowledge to information
d) none of the above
67. Which of the following should be represented on an information flow diagram?

A a) Entity
b) Source
I c) Process
d) Attribute
C
T 68. UML depicts information systems as a collection of:
a) Entities
E b) Process
c) Information
d) Objects
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69. Which of the following is not a type of navigation system for a web site?
a) Global
b) Contextual
c) Local
d) Regional
70. Which of the following is part of a static view of information?

A a) Logical data model
I b) Meta data
c) Data flow model
C d) Information process model
T
71. Which of the following is true for neural networks?
E (i) The training time depends on the size of the network
(ii) Neural networks can be simulated on a conventional computer
(iii) Artificial neurons are identical in operation to biological ones
a) All of the mentioned
b) (ii) is true
A c) (i) and (ii) are true
I d) None of the mentioned
C 72. The traveling salesman problem involves n cities with paths connecting the cities. The time
taken for traversing through all the cities, without knowing in advance the length of a
T
minimum tour, is
E a) O (n)
b) O (n2)
c) O (n!)
d) O (n/2)
A 73. Consider a good system for the representation of knowledge in a particular domain. What
property should it possess?
I a) Representational Adequacy
C b) Inferential Adequacy
c) Inferential Efficiency
T d) All the above.
E
74. What is Transposition rule?
a) From P? Q, infer ~Q ? P
b) Form P? Q, infer Q ?~P
c) Form P? Q, infer Q ? P
A d) Form P? Q, infer~Q? ~P
I 75. Which of the following is true in Statistical reasoning?

C a) The representation is extended to allow some kind of numeric measure of
certainty to be associated with each statement
T b) The representation is extended to allow ‗TRUE or FALSE to be associated with each
statement
E c) The representation is extended to allow some kind of numeric measure of certainty to
be associated common to all statements.
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d) The representation is extended to allow ‗TRUE or FALSE ‗to be associated common to

all statements.
76. General algorithm applied on game tree for making decision of win/lose is
______________
a) DFS/BFS Search Algorithms
b) Heuristic Search Algorithms
A c) Greedy Search Algorithms
I d) MIN/MAX Algorithms
C 77. In language understanding, the levels of knowledge that does not include
T a) Phonological
b) Syntactic
E c) Semantic
d) Empirical
78. Mark two main features of Genetic Algorithm

a) Fitness function & Cross-over techniques
A b) Cross-over techniques & Random mutation
I c) Individuals among the population & Radom mutation
d) Random mutation & Fitness function
C
79. A search algorithm takes____________as an input and returns_________as an
T
Output.
E a) Input, output
b) Problem, solution
c) Solution, problem
d) Parameters, sequence of actions
A 80. The major component/components for measuring the performance of problem solving
a) Completeness
I b) Optimality
C c) Time and Space complexity
d) All of the mentioned
T
E PART-B (40X2=80 Marks)
81. Suppose R1 (A, B) and R2 (C,D) are two relation schemas. Let rl and r2 be the
corresponding relation instances. B is a foreign key that refers to C in R2. If data in r1 and
r2 satisfy referential integrity constrains, which of the following is
A ALWAYS TRUE?
a) ПB(𝑟𝑙)– IIC(r2) = ∅
I b) ПC(r2) – ПB (r1) =∅
c) ПB(r1) = ПC (r2)
C
d) ПB (r1)-ПC(r2) ≠ ∅
T
82. The recovery management which is not based on the system log is
E a) Immediate update recovery
b) Deferred update recovery
c) Shadow paging
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d) Two phase locking
83. To construct multiple index files on different attributes of a relation, one has to go for
a) Primary indexing
b) Secondary indexing
c) Cluster indexing
d) Non-dense indexing
A
I 84. Phase Locking (2PL) protocol ensures that the transactions are executed in
a) Serializable fashion
C b) Serial fashion
T c) Atomic fashion
d) isolation
E
85. Designers use which of the following to tune performance of systems to support time-
critical operations?
a) Denormalization
b) Redundant optimization
A c) Optimization
I d) Realization
C 86. In relation algebra, the optimized version of ΠA(ΠB(Πc(R))) is

T (Assume: A, B, C are attribute list with A⊂B ⊂C)
E a) ΠAᴗΠBᴗΠc(R)
b)Πc (R)
c) ΠA (R)
d) ΠB (R)
A
87. The transformation matrix for the reflection about the line y = x is given by the matrix
I a) 0 – 1
C -1 0
T b) 0 -1
0 1
E
c) 0 1
1 0
A
d) -1 0
I 0 -1
C
T 88. The 3D transformation matrix to rotate a point (x, y, z) about Y axis by an angle∅in
anticlockwise direction is given by
E
a) 1 0 0 0
0 cos∅sin∅ 0
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0 -sin∅ cos∅ 0
0 0 0 1
b) cos∅ 0 -sin∅ 0
0 1 0 0
sin∅ 0 cos∅ 0
A
0 0 0 1
I
c) 1 0 0 0
C 0 cos∅ -sin∅ 0
T 0 sin∅ cos∅ 0
0 0 0 1
E
d) cos∅ 0 sin∅ 0
0 1 0 0
-sin∅ 0 cos∅ 0
0 0 0 1
A
I 89. To fix the view plane at required position, we have to specify the viewing parameters.
To get the different orientation of the same object of interest, we need to change the
C following?
T a) View reference point
b) View distance
E c) View up vector
90. No. of bit planes and memory size in bytes for 1024 X 1024, 256 color display is
a) 8, 1024 X 1024 X 8
A b) 1024, 1024 X 1024
c) 1, 1024 X 1024 X 8
I
C
91. In Back face detection algorithm, the polygon is said to be front surface if
T a) Direction of resultant vector of cross product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is
E away from the viewer
b) Direction of resultant vector of cross product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is
towards the viewer
c) Sign of resultant vector of dot product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is + ive
d) Sign of resultant vector of dot product of two edges (adjacent to each other) is + ive
A
92. Choose the incorrect statement from the following about the basic ray tracing technique
I used in image synthesis?
C a) This technique removes hidden surfaces
b) In this technique, viewing transformation are not supplied to the scene prior to
T rendering
c) In this technique rays are cast from the eye point through every pixel on the screen
E
d) In this technique rays are cast from the light source to the object in the scene
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93. The commands, from client to server, and replies, from server to client, are sent across the
control connection in ______bit ASCII format.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 3
d) 5
A 94. What is the output of the following JavaScript program?
I var x = 0xFF;
x++;
C document. write (x/4)
T
a) 0xFF
E b) Error
c) Garbage value
95. What output do you expect if the following HTML markup is rendered?
A <strong> T e s t o f s p a c e s</strong.
I <strong>T e s t o f &nbps; s p a c e s</strong>
a) T e s t o f s p a c e s T e s t o f s p a c e s
C b) TestofspacesTestofspaces
c) T e s t o f s p a c e s T e s t o f s p a c es
T
E
96. In a Hypertext Transaction, the term CONNECT is used for
a) Connection Generation
b) Reserved Connection
c) Connection termination
A d) Active Connection
I 97. Consider the following code snippet –
C <script type =”text/javscript”>
var x = new Array();
T x[0]=‖Web‖‘
E x[1] = ―Internet‖;
x[2]=‖Technology‖;
document.write (x[0,1,2]);
</script>
What is the output on the webpage?
A a) Web
b) Technology
I c) Web Internet Technology
d) Web, Internet, Technology
C
T 98. Which of the following JavaScript DOM event property holds the key name as a string?
a) Key/Name
E b) Key
c) keyName(string)
d) NameOfKey(string)
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99. Process models are described as agile because they

a) Eliminate the need for cumbersome documentation
b) Emphasize maneuvariability and adaptability
c) Do not waste development time on planning activities
d) Make extensive use of prototype creation
A 100. The best way to conduct a requirements validation review is to
I a) examine the system model for errors
b) have the customer look over the requirements
C c) send them to the design team and see if they have any concerns
T d) use a checklist of questions to examine each requirement
E 101. Interface consistency implies that

a) input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application
b) navigational methods are context sensitive
c) visual information is organized according to a design standard
d) both a and c
A
I 102. Which approach(es) to user task analysis can be useful in user interface design?
a) rely on the judgement of experienced programmers
C b) study existing computer-based solutions
c) observe users performing tasks manually
T
d) both b and c
E
103. The cyclomatic complexity metric provides the designer with information regarding the
number of
a) Cycles in the program
b) Errors in the program
A c) Independent logic paths in the program
d) Statements in the program
I
C 104. Software feasibility is based on which of the following
a) business and marketing concerns
T b) scope, constraints, market
E c) technology, finance, time, resources
d) technical prowess of the developers
105. Open database connectivity (OBDC) tools are an example of:

a) Layerware
A b) Tool kit
c) Interfaceware
I d) Middleware
C
106. Which one is NOT a category of problems represented by the PIECES
T framework?
a) Efficiency
E b) Service
c) Economics
d) Technology
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107. A cross life-cycle activity of system development is

a) Object modeling
b) Prototyping
c) Fact-finding
d) Data modelling
108. Which of the following analysis techniques derive system models from existing system
A or discovery prototypes?
I a) Rapid architected analysis
b) Object-oriented analysis
C c) Data modeling
T d) Discovery prototyping
E 109. A fact-finding technique that involves a large number of observations taken at random
intervals is called:
a) Randomization
b) Stratification
c) People sampling
A d) Work sampling
I
110. A plan that describe how to take actions in levels of increasing refinement and specificity
C is
a) Problem solving
T
b) Planning
E c) Non-hierarchical plan
d) Hierarchical plan
111. Which algorithm place two actions into a plan without specifying which should come
first?
A a) Full-order planner
b) Total-order planner
I c) Semi-order planner
C d) Partial-order planner
T 112. Where does the dependence of experience is reflected in prior probability sentences?
E a) Syntactic distinction
b) Semantic distinction
c) Both Syntactic & Semantic distinction
A 113. The room temperature is hot. Here the hot (use of linguistic variable is used) can be
represented by_________
I a) Fuzzy Set
b) Crisp Set
C
c) Fuzzy & Crisp Set
E
114. Which is used for utility functions in game playing algorithm?
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a) Linear polynomial
b) Weighted polynomial
c) Polynomial
d) Linear weighted polynomial
115. Computational learning theory analyses the sample complexity and computational
A complexity of
I a) Unsupervised Learning
b) Inductive learning
C c) Forced based learning
T d) Weak learning
E 116. Intermediate code generation phase gets input from

a) Lexical Analyzer
b) Syntax Analyzer
c) Semantic Analyzer
d) Error Handling
A
I 117. A grammar is meaningless
a) If terminal set and non terminal set are not disjoint
C b) If left hand side of a production is a single terminal
c) If left hand side of a production has no non terminal
T
d) All the above.
E
118. An Optimizing Compiler is
a) Optimized to occupy less space
b) Optimized to take less time for execution
c) Optimized the code
A d) None of the Above
I 119. A Complier is a program that
C a) Places the program into memory and prepares them for execution
b) Automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
T c) Accepts program written in high level language & produces an object program
E d) Appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language
120. Generation of intermediate code based on abstract machine model is useful in

compilers because
a) It makes implementation of lexical analysis and syntax analysis easier
A b) Syntax directed translation can be written for intermediate code generation.
c) It enhances the portability of the front end of the compiler
I d) It is not possible to generate code for real machines directly from high level language
programs
C
T
-------------------------
E
Page 17 of 17
UG INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Code 15-Paper 2
1 B 31 C 61 D 91 A
2 B 32 Marks to all 62 C 92 D
3 A 33 A 63 D 93 B
4 D 34 D 64 Marks to all 94 D
5 C 35 B 65 B 95 A
6 A 36 B 66 D 96 B
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 B
8 D 38 A, B 68 D 98 C
9 C 39 C 69 D 99 B
10 A 40 B 70 C 100 D
11 B 41 B 71 C 101 D
12 A 42 C 72 C 102 D
13 C 43 B 73 D 103 C
14 D 44 C 74 D 104 C
15 B 45 B 75 A 105 D
16 B 46 A 76 D 106 D
17 D 47 A 77 D 107 C
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 A
19 B 49 C 79 B 109 D
20 D 50 D 80 D 110 D
21 A 51 D 81 Marks to all 111 D
22 C 52 D 82 C 112 A
23 D 53 B, D 83 B 113 A
24 D 54 C 84 A 114 D
25 D 55 D 85 A 115 B
26 D 56 D 86 C 116 C
27 D 57 C 87 Marks to all 117 A
28 A 58 D 88 B 118 Marks to all
29 B 59 D 89 C 119 C
30 A 60 C 90 A 120 C
ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
A SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
I Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
C
PAPER-I
T
Instructions:
E i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total 120
questions.
of 2 (two) marks each.
A wrong answer.
I programmable scientific calculator.
C blue ball point pen.
T viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
E examination before leaving the examination hall.
1. Following statements are given:

I As the number of entries in the hash table increases, the number of collision
increases.
A
II Recursive program are efficient.
I III The worst time complexity of quick sort is O (n2)
IV Binary search implementation using a linked list is efficient.
C Which of the following options is true?
T (a) I and II
(b) II and III
E (c) I and IV
(d) I and III
2. The data structure needed to convert a recursion to an iterative procedure is

(a) Queue.
(b) Graph
(c) Stack
(d) Tree
A
3. For which of the following tree-traversals it is impossible to identify the key at the tree’s
I root by simply looking at the output sequence?
C (a) Pre-order
(b) Post-order
T (c) In-order
(d) BFS-order
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A 4. A complete Binary Tree with 15 nodes contains_______edges

(a) 15
I (b) 30
C (c) 14
(d) 16
T
5. The best data structure to check whether an arithmetic expression has
E balancedparenthesis is
(a) Queue
(b) Stack
(c) Tree
(d) List
6. Consider a sequence A of length n which is sorted except for one item that appears out of
A order. Which of the following can sort the sequence in O (n) time?
(a) Heapsort
I (b) Quick sort
(c) Merge sort
C
(d) Insertion sort.
T
7. If array A is already sorted in ascending order, then the complexity of the following
E algorithms are;
(I) Modified Bubble sort
(II) Insertion sort
(III) Quick sort are respectively
(a) O(n), O(n), O(n2)
(b) O(n2), )(n), O(n2)
(c) O(n2), O (nlogn ), O(n2)
A (d) O(n2), O (nlogn ), O (nlog n )
I 8. Determine the order of |V|of the graph G = (V, E) if G has 10 edges with 2 vertices of
degree 4 and all other of degree 3.
C (a) 6
(b) 4
T
(c) 30
E (d) None
9. What is the maximum height of any AVL- tree with 7 nodes? Assume that the height of
a tree with a single node is 0.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
A
10. What is the output of the following?
I #include <iostream>
using namespace std;
C void fun(int *x, int *y)
T {
*x = 20;
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ROLL NO.: UG1SWE16
A *y = *x * 10;
}
I intmain()
C {
int x = 10;
T fun(&x, &x);
cout<< x;
E return 0;
}
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 200
(d) compile time error
A 11. What would be behaviour if constructor has a return type?

(a) Compilation error
I (b) Runtime error
(c) Compilation and runs successfully
C (d) Only String return type is allowed
T 12. What is the process by which we can control what parts of a program can access the
E members of a class?
(a) Polymorphism
(b) Abstraction
(c) Encapsulation
(d) Recursion
13. Which of these keywords can be used to prevent Method overriding?
(a) static
A (b) constant
(c) protected
I (d) final
C 14. Which of these is correct way of calling a constructor having no parameters, of
superclass A by subclass B?
T (a) super(void);
(b) superclass.();
E
(c) super.A();
(d) super();
15. Which of these package contains classes and interfaces for networking?
(a) java.io
(b) java.util
(c) java.net
A (d) java.network
I 16. Which of the following keywords is used for throwing exception manually?
(a) finally
C (b) try
(c) throw
T (d) catch
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A 17. What does AWT stands for?

(a) All Window Tools
I (b) All Writing Tools
C (c) Abstract Window Toolkit
(d) Abstract Writing Toolkit
T
18. Which of the following statements are true?
E (a) HTTP runs over TCP
(b) HTTP allows information to be stored in a URL
(c) HTTP can be used to test the validity of a hypertext link
19. Communication between browser and Web server takes place via
(a) GUI
(b) HTTP
A (c) ASP
(d) JSP
I
20. Client and Web server have a connection of type
C (a) Continuous
(b) Dependent
T (c) Permanent
(d) Not Continuous
E
21. RDF schema is made of up of a triplet i.e., object-attribute-value, known as
(a) triple
(b) sentence
(c) schema
(d) statement
22. Which of the following must be installed on your computer so as to run PHP script?
A 1. Adobe Dreamweaver
2. PHP
I
3. Apache
C 4. IIS
(a) All of the mentioned.
T (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
E (d) 2, 3 and 4
23. When a search engine recognizes pages from other sites their database, the ranking is
determined by:
(a) Index Analysis
(b) Link Analysis
(c) Connectivity
(d) Crawler scanner
A
24. Search Engine Optimisation (SEO) refers to:
I (a) The technical process of web site linking
(b) The optimal level of site traffic generated
C
(c) The technical process of acquiring top position on the web's major search engines
T and directories
(d) The use of software to enhance rankings in directories
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A 25. Task of Crawling is performed by a complex software which is called as

(a) Boat
I (b) Crawler
C (c) Spider
(d) All of these
T
26. Querying of unstructured textual data is referred to as
E (a) Information access
(b) Information updation
(c) Information manipulation
(d) Information retrieval
27. Clustering is known as

(a) Supervised learning
A (b) Unsupervised learning
(c) Predictive learning
I (d) None of the above
C 28. The main purpose for structure mining is to extract previously unknown relationships
T between
(a) Web pages
E (b) Web hyperlinks
(c) Web data
(d) Web contents
29. Which two models doesn’t allow defining requirements early in the cycle?
(a) Waterfall & RAD
(b) Prototyping & Spiral
(c) Prototyping & RAD
A
(d) Waterfall & Spiral
I
30. Use case diagrams gives a
C (a) Static view
(b) Dynamic view
T (c) Relational view
E
31. The analysis model is refined and formalized to get a
(a) Test model
(b) Design model
(c) SRS
A 32. Software testing is given by an equation:

(a) Verification + Validation
I
(b) Verification - Validation
C (c) Verification/Validation
T
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A 33. How is plan driven development different from agile development?

(a) Outputs are decided through a process of negotiation during the software
I development process
C (b) Specification, design, implementation and testing are interleaved
(c) Iteration occurs with activities
T (d) All of the mentioned above
E 34. Decision trees and probability distributions techniques help in

(a) Risk identification
(b) Risk quantification
(c) Risk assessment
(d) Risk control
35. A ___________ is a graphical representation that depicts information flow and the
A transforms that are applied as data moves from input to output.
(a) Data flow diagram
I (b) State transition diagram
(c) Control specification
C (d) Workflow diagram
T
36. What type of core-relationship is represented by the symbol in the figure below?
E
(a) Aggregation
(b) Dependency
(c) Generalization
A (d) Association
I
37. RAD model has ___ phases.
C (a) 2
(b) 3
T (c) 5
(d) 6
E
38. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as
(a) Software availability
(b) Software reliability
(c) Software failure
A 39. The CMM model is a technique to

(a) Automatically maintain the software reliability
I (b) Test the software
(c) Improve the software project
C
(d) Improve the software process
T
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A 40. Which of the following is added to the page table in order to track whether a page of
cache has been modified since it was read from the memory?
I (a) Reference bit
C (b) Dirty bit
(c) Tag bit
T (d) Valid bit
E 41. The computer has an instruction set consisting of 1024 different operation. The memory
unit has 32 bits per word. Each instruction is stored in one word of memory and allows
two addresses (one register and one memory address). If 512 k is words size of memory
is allowed then what is the number of bits used for register.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
A
42. A computer has a 256 KByte, 4-way set associative, write back data cache with block
I
size of 32 Bytes. The processor sends 32 bit addresses to the cache controller. Each
C cache tag directory entry contains, in addition to address tag, 2 valid bits, 1 modified bit
and 1 replacement bit. The number of bits in the tag field of an address is
T (a) 11
(b) 14
E (c) 16
(d) 27
43. How many 32K x 1 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 256K-
bytes?
(a) 8
(b) 32
(c) 64
A (d) 128
I 44. Which of the following data transfer mode takes relatively more time?
C (a) DMA
(b) Interrupt Initiated I/O
T (c) Programmed I/O
(d) Isolated I/O
E
45. In a 16 bit instruction code format 3 bit operation code,12 bit address and 1 bit is
assigned for address mode designation. How much data memory is available?
(a) 4MB
(b) 4KB
(c) 2KB
(d) 2GB
A 46. In a 2 level memory hierarchy, the access time of the cache memory is 12ns and the
access time of main memory is 1.5microsecond.The hit ratio is 0.98.What is the average
I access time of the 2 level memory system?
C (a) 13.5ns
(b) 42ns
T (c) 7.56ns
(d) 41.76ns
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A 47. A computer system has 4K word cache organized in a block set associative manner, with
4 blocks per set, 64 word per block. Memory is word addressable. The number of bits in
I the set and word fields of the main memory address format is
C (a) 15,4
(b) 6,4
T (c) 7,6
(d) 4,6
E
48. An 8 bit DMA device is operating in cycle stealing mode(Single transfer mode).Each
DMA cycle is of 6 clock states and DMA clock is 2MHz.Intermediate CPU machine
cycles takes 2 microsecond, determine the DMA data transfer rate?
(a) 100 KB/sec
(b) 200 KB/sec
(c) 350 KB/sec
A (d) None of these
I 49. The seek time of a disk is 30 millisecond. It rotates at the rate of 30 rotations per second.
Each track has a capacity of 300 words. The access time is
C (a) 47ms
T (b) 50ms
(c) 60ms
E (d) 62ms
50. Which is the best file organization and access method when volatility is very high?
(a) Sequential
(b) Direct
(c) Indexed sequential
(d) None of the above.
A
51. Which of the following is the command for deleting a view?
I (a) DROP VIEW
(b) DELETE VIEW
C (c) DESTRUCT VIEW
T
52. Suppose a database schedule S involves transactions T1, ....Tn. Construct the precedence
E
graph of S with vertices representing the transactions and edges representing the
conflicts. If S is serializable, which one of the following orderings of the vertices of the
precedence graph is guaranteed to yield a serial schedule?
(a) Topological order
(b) Depth-first order
(c) Breadth-first order
(d) Ascending order of transaction indices
A
53. Which of the following storage media supports only sequential access?
I
(a) Main memory
C (b) Magnetic Disk
(c) Magnetic tape
T (d) Optical disk
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A 54. A file is organized so that the ordering of data records is the same as or close to the
ordering of data entries in some index. Then that index is called
I (a) Dense
C (b) Sparse
(c) Clustered
T (d) Unclustered
E 55. The maximum number of superkeys for the relation schema R(E,F,G,H) with E as the
key is
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
A 56. Which of the following is the size of the data item chosen as the unit of protection by a
concurrency control program?
I (a) Lock
(b) Blocking factor
C (c) Granularity
E 57. Whenever two independent one-to-many relationship are mixed in the same relation, a
______ arise.
(a) Functional dependency
(b) Multi-Valued dependency
(c) Transitive dependency
58. An index is clustered, if

A
(a) An index is clustered, if
I (b) it is on a set of fields that include the primary key.
(c) the data records of the file are organized in the same order as the data entries of the
C index.
(d) the data records of the file are organized not in the same order as the data entries of
T the index.
E
59. Which is the property that specifies that a category will inherit only the attributes of one
of the superclasses at a time?
(a) Partial Participation
(b) Total Participation
(c) Selective Inheritance
A 60. Which of the following is an optimistic concurrency control scheme?

(a) Lock- based
I
(b) Timestamp ordering
C (c) Validation-based
T
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A 61. Which of the following is the state of the transaction when the normal execution of the
transaction cannot proceed?
I (a) Inactive
C (b) Failed
(c) Aborted
T (d) Terminated
E 62. Let A,B,C and D be sets. Lets R be a relation from A into B, S be a relation from B into
C and T be relation from C into D. then
𝑇𝑜 𝑆𝑜𝑅 = 𝑇𝑜𝑆 𝑜𝑅
That is the composition of relation is
(a) Reflexive.
(b) Symmetric.
(c) Associative.
A (d) Both A and B
I 63. Let A be a set and R be a relation on A. Then R is called

(a) Reflexive, Symmetric.
C (b) Associative, Transitive.
T (c) Reflexive, Symmetric & Associative.
(d) Reflexive, Symmetric & Transitive.
E
64. Consider the lattice (S, ≤), where S = {1,2,4,5,8,9} and ≤ denotes the usual “less than or
equality” relation. Find the value of 4 ∧ (5 ∨ 9) and (2 ∨ (2 ∧ 8)) ∨ 4 .
(a) 4, 5
(b) 4, 4
(c) 2, 4
(d) 4, 2
A
65. Suppose there are 50 people in a room. How many people must have their birthday in
I the same month?
(a) 5
C (b) 6
(c) 4
T (d) None
E
66. How many four letter words can be formed from the letter G, R, O, U, P, S if no letter is
to be used more than once in any word?
(a) 155
(b) 360
(c) 250
(d) 100
A 67. Let 𝑓 n = 1 + 2+. . . +n, n ≥ 1. Then the time complexity of 𝑓 n will be

(a) 𝜃(𝑛)
I
(b) 𝑂(𝑛)
C (c) 𝜃(𝑛2 )
(d) 𝑂(𝑛2 )
T
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A 68. How many vertices are there in a graph with 20 edges if each vertex is of degree 5?
(a) 4
I (b) 8
C (c) 10
(d) 15
T
69. Let A {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B {2, 4, 6}, C {1, 2, 3} and D {7, 8, 9}. If the universe is U {1, 2,
E . . . , 10}, then (𝐷 ∩ 𝐶) ∪ 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵 =
(a) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(b) {5, 7, 8, 9, 10}
(c) {1, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, 10}
(d) None.
70. Consider the following graph. Which of the following is not the BFS order?
A
I
C
T
E
(a) v1 v2v3v4v5v6v7v8v9
(b) v1 v3v2v4v5v6v7v9v8
(c) v1 v4v5v2v3v6v8v7v9
A (d) v1 v3v4v2v5v7v6v8v9
I
C
T 71. Suppose each set is represented as a linked list with elements in arbitrary order. Which of
the operations among union, intersection membership, and cardinality will be the
E slowest?
(a) Union only
(b) Intersection, membership
(c) Membership, cardinality
(d) Union, intersection
72. The inorder and preorder traversal of a binary tree are d b e a f c g and a b d e c f g
A respectively. The postorder traversal of the binary tree is
(a) d e b f g c a
I (b) e d b g f c a
(c) e d b f g c a
C (d) d e f g b c a
T
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A 73. Which of the following sorting algorithms have minimum number of swaps
(a) Insertion Sort
I (b) Quick Sort
C (c) Selection Sort
(d) Bubble Sort
T
74. The prefix of (A+B)*(C-D)/E*F
E (a) /+-AB*CD.
(b) /*+-ABCD*EF.
(c) */*+AB-CDEF.
(d) **AB+CD/EF.
75. A binary tree T has 9 nodes. The inorder and preorder traversal of T yield the following
sequences of nodes.
A Inorder - E A C K F H D B G
Preorder - F A E K C D H G B
I How many numbers of nodes are in the right subtree of H and Left subtree of G?
(a) 0, 1
C (b) 1, 0
T (c) 0, 0
(d) 1, 1
E
76. What is the output of this program?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main()
{
int a = 5, b = 10, c = 15;
A
int *arr[3] = {&a, &b, &c};
I cout<< *arr[*arr[1] - 8];
return 0;
C }
(a) 15
T (b) 18
(c) garbage value
E
(d) compile time error
77. The Client-Side Databases are stored in the (give reason)

(a) The JavaScript code
(b) User’s computer
(c) Both JavaScript code and User’s computer
A
78. Explanation: The actual client-side databases are stored on the user’s computer and are
I
directly accessed by JavaScript code in the browser
C Match the Following
T
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A Column A Column B
Computer program to automatically learn to
I Supervised
A (i) recognize complex patterns and make intelligent
Learning
C decisions based on data
B Machine learning (ii) Synonym for classification
T Unsupervised Technique that make use of both labeled and
C (iii)
learning unlabeled examples when learning a model
E Semi-supervised (iv)
D Synonym for Clustering
learning
(a) A-iv, B-i,C-iii,D-ii

(b) A-i, B-iv,C-ii,D-iii
(c) A-ii, B-i,C-iv,D-iii
(d) A-iv, B-i,C-ii,D-iii
A
79. www is based on which model
I (a) Local Serves
C (b) Client Server
(c) 3 – tier
T (d) None of these
E 80. What does the URL need to access document?

(a) Path name
(b) Host name
(c) DNs
(d) Retrieval method
81. Programs that are automatically loaded and operate as a part of your browser are referred
A to as
(a) FTP
I (b) Plug-ins
(c) Add-ons
C (d) Telnet
T
82. To handle with knowledge acquisition problem, Semantic Web have been proposed to
E use
(a) formalization techniques
(b) mathematical techniques
(c) machine learning techniques
(d) programming techniques
83. Which of the following query interfaces is intended to be more point-and-click in nature
and to require less user expertise?
A (a) Relational Algebra
I (b) Structured Query Language
(c) Query By Example
C
T
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A 84. For a certain software development project, an effort estimation of 100 person-months
was arrived by using COCOMO model. This implies that the project needs to be
I completed by:
C (a) Employing 100 persons for 1 month
(b) Employing 1 person for 100 months
T (c) Employing 10 persons for 10 months
(d) The number of persons employed over different project phases would correspond to
E Raleigh distribution
85. If a software product of size 𝑆 takes𝑚 months to develop, then according to the
COCOMO estimation model, how long (in months) will it take to develop a product of
size 2 × 𝑆?
(a) Greater than 2 × 𝑚 months
(b) Greater than 3 × 𝑚 months
A (c) Less than 2 × 𝑚 months
(d) Greater than 4 × 𝑚 months
I
86. Function Point (𝐹𝑃) Computation is given by the formula
C
(a) 𝐹𝑃 = 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 × 0.65 + 0.01 × 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝐹𝑖
T (b) 𝐹𝑃 = 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 × 0.65 + 0.01 × 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝐹𝑖
(c) 𝐹𝑃 = 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 × 0.65 + 0.01 × 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝐹𝑖
E (d) 𝐹𝑃 = [𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 × 0.65 + 0.01] × 𝑠𝑢𝑚(𝐹𝑖 )
desirable?
(a) Low cohesion and low coupling
(b) Low cohesion and high coupling
(c) High cohesion and low coupling
A (d) High cohesion and high coupling
I 88. Consider the basic COCOMO model where 𝐸 is the effort applied in person-months, 𝐷 is
the development time in chronological months, 𝐾𝐿𝑂𝐶 is the estimated number of
C delivered lines of code (in thousands) and 𝑎𝑏 , 𝑏𝑏 , 𝑐𝑏 , 𝑑𝑏 have their usual meanings. The
basic COCOMO equations are of the form.
T
(a) 𝐸 = 𝑎𝑏 𝐾𝐿𝑂𝐶 𝑏 𝑏 ,𝐷 = 𝑐𝑏 𝐸 𝑑 𝑏
E (b) 𝐷 = 𝑎𝑏 𝐾𝐿𝑂𝐶 𝑏 𝑏 , 𝐸 = 𝑐𝑏 𝐷 𝑑 𝑏
𝑏
(c) 𝐸 = 𝑎𝑏 𝑏 , 𝐷 = 𝑐𝑏 𝐾𝐿𝑂𝐶 𝑑 𝑏
𝑑
(d) 𝐸 = 𝑎𝑏 𝑏 , 𝐷 = 𝑐𝑏 𝐾𝐿𝑂𝐶 𝑏 𝑏
89. The cyclomatic complexity of the flow graph of a program provides

(a) an upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all
statements have been executed at most once
A (b) a lower bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all
statements have been executed at most once
I (c) an upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all
C statements have been executed at least once
(d) a lower bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all
T statements have been executed at least once
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A 90. Which of the following is a valid reason for causing degeneracy in a transportation
problem? Here 𝑚 is number of rows and 𝑛 is the number of columns in transportation
I table.
C (a) When the number of allocations is 𝑚 + 𝑛 − 1.
(b) When two or more occupied cells become unoccupied simultaneously.
T (c) When a loop cannot be drawn without using unoccupied cells, except the starting cell
of the loop.
E (d) When the number of allocations is less than 𝑚 + 𝑛 − 1.
91. Consider two cache organizations: The first one is 32 KB 2-way set associative with 32-
byte block size. The second one is of the same size but direct mapped. The size of an
address is 32 bits in both cases. A 2-to-1 multiplexer has a latency of 0.6 ns while a kbit
comparator has a latency of k/10 ns. The hit latency of the set associative organization is
h1 while that of the direct mapped one is h2. The value of h2 is:
A (a) 2.4 ns
(b) 2.3 ns
I (c) 1.8 ns
(d) 1.7 ns
C
T 92. A 32 - bit wide main memory unit with a capacity of 1 GB is built using 256M X 4-bit
DRAM chips. The number of rows of memory cells in the DRAM chip is 214. The time
E taken to perform one refresh operation is 50 nanoseconds. The refresh period is 2
milliseconds. The percentage (rounded to the closet integer) of the time available for
performing the memory read/write operations in the main memory unit is _______.
(a) 59
(b) 40
(c) 99
(d) None of these
A
93. The size of the data count register of a DMA controller is 16 bits. The processor needs to
I transfer a file of 29,154 kilobytes from disk to main memory. The memory is byte
addressable. The minimum number of times the DMA controller needs to get the control
C of the system bus from the processor to transfer the file from the disk to main memory is
(a) 3644
T (b) 3645
E (c) 456
(d) 1823
94. For a pipelined CPU with a single ALU, consider the following situations
1 The j + 1-st instruction uses the result of the j-th instruction as an operand
2 The execution of a conditional jump instruction
3 The j-th and j + 1-st instructions require the ALU at the same time
Which of the above can cause a hazard ?
A (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
I
(c) 3 only
C (d) all of above
T
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A 95. Which of the following functional dependencies hold for relations R(A, B, C) and S(B,
D, E):
I B -> A
C A -> C
The relation R contains 200 tuples and the relation S contains 100 tuples. What is
T the maximum number of tuples possible in the natural join of R and S (R natural join S)
(a) 100
E (b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 2000
96. Database table by name Loan_Records is given below.

Borrower Bank_ManagerLoan_Amount
Ramesh Sunderajan 10000.00
A Suresh Ramgopal 5000.00
Mahesh Sunderajan 7000.00
I What is the output of the following SQL query?
SELECT Count(*)
C FROM ( (SELECT Borrower, Bank_Manager
T FROM Loan_Records) AS S
NATURAL JOIN (SELECT Bank_Manager,
E Loan_Amount
FROM Loan_Records) AS T );
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 5
(d) 6
97. Consider B+ tree in which the search key is 12 bytes long, block size is 1024 bytes,
A record pointer is 10 bytes long and block pointer is 8 bytes long. The maximum number
of keys that can be accommodated in each non-leaf node of the tree is
I (a) 49
(b) 50
C
(c) 51
T (d) 52
98. Consider the following relational schema.
E
Students(rollno: integer, sname: string)
Courses(courseno: integer, cname: string)
Registration(rollno: integer, courseno: integer, percent: real)
Which of the following queries are equivalent to this query in English?
"Find the distinct names of all students who score more than 90% in the course
numbered 107"
SELECT DISTINCT S. Name
A FROM Students as S, Registration as R
WHERE R.rollno= S.rollno AND R.courseno=107 AND R.percent>90
I ∏𝑠𝑛𝑎𝑚𝑒 (𝜎𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑜 =107⋀𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡 >90 (𝑅𝑒𝑔𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛|𝑋|𝑆𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠))
C {T | ∃S∈ Students, ∃R∈ Registration (S.rollno=R.rollno ⋀ R.courseno= 107 ⋀
R.percent>90 ⋀ T.sname= S.name)}
T {<SN> | ∃SR ∃RP (<SR, SN>∈Students ⋀<SR, 107, RP>∈ Registration ⋀ RP>90) }
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A (a) I, II, III and IV

(b) I, II and III only
I (c) I, II and IV only
C (d) II, III and IV only
T 99. Determine which of the relations fare functions from the set X to the set Y?
(i) X = Y = {-3,-1,0,2}, and f1= {(-2,-3),(-3,-1),(-3,0),(-1,2),(0,2),(2, -1)}.
E (ii)X = Y = the set of all integers, and f2= {(a,b)∈ ZxZ ǀ b = a+1}.
(a) f1 is not a function and f2 is one-one
(b) f1 is a function and f2 is not a function
(c) f1 is one-one and f2 is one-one
(d) Both f1 &f2 are not a function
1 0
100. Let A = . Express A2-2A+I2 as a 2 x 2 matrix.
−1 4
A
0 0
I (a)
−3 9
−3 0
C (b)
9 0
0 −3
T (c)
9 0
3 −9
E (d)
0 0
PART –C
A 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable
I
C 102. Which one is not true?
T (a) An orthogonal matrix is always non-singular

E (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A
C (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
T
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A
𝑥 𝑦
I 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
C
T 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
E (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
A 2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
I 2 4
3
C 𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
T
E (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
A 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
I (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1

C 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
T
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
112. The Integral ∫2 𝑑𝑥 is
𝑥2

A (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
I 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
C
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
T (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
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A 2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
I
𝑥3 𝑦2
C (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
T 115. Particular integral of 𝑥 2 𝐷2 − 3𝑥𝐷 + 5 𝑦 = sin (log 𝑥) is

1
E (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) 8 [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
red and the other is blue will be
A (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7

I 117. In a binomial distribution 𝐵(𝑛, 𝑝) the mean is 100 and the variance is 80. Then the value
C of n is
T (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
E 118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the remaining
eigenvalue is
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
A (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
I
C 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
T 1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
E
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
C
T
E Page 19 of 19
UG SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Code 16-Paper 1
1 D 31 B 61 B 91 A
2 C 32 A 62 C 92 A
3 C 33 C 63 Marks to all 93 C
4 C 34 B 64 B 94 D
5 B 35 B 65 A 95 A
6 D 36 A 66 B 96 C
7 A 37 C 67 C 97 B
8 B 38 C 68 B 98 Marks to all
9 B 39 D 69 C 99 A
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 Marks to all
11 A 41 A 71 D 101 A
12 C 42 C 72 A 102 C
13 D 43 C 73 D 103 A
14 D 44 C 74 C 104 D
15 C 45 B 75 A 105 D
16 C 46 D 76 D 106 A
17 C 47 D 77 B 107 A
18 D 48 B 78 C 108 B
19 B 49 B 79 B 109 D
20 D 50 B 80 B 110 B
21 D 51 A 81 B 111 D
22 D 52 A 82 C 112 B
23 B 53 C 83 C 113 B
24 C 54 C 84 D 114 B
25 D 55 D 85 C 115 B
26 D 56 C 86 B 116 C
27 B 57 B 87 C 117 B
28 A 58 C 88 A 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 C 119 B
30 A 60 C 90 D 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
Instructions:
wrong answer.
1. Which requirement is the foundation from which quality is measured?

(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Programmers
2. Which one of the following models is not suitable for accommodating any change?
(a) Build & Fix Model
(b) Prototyping Model
(c) RAD Model
(d) Waterfall Model
3. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to find _________ during the
process so that they do not become defects after release of the software.
(a) Errors
(b) equivalent faults
(c) failure cause
4. The spiral model was originally proposed by

(a) IBM
(b) Barry Boehm
(c) Pressman
(d) Royce
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5. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:

(a) E – errors found before software delivery
(b) D – defects found after delivery to user
(c) both E and D
(d) Varies with project
6. Which among the following is effective method for validating successful integration
(a) Test Server Component
(b) Test Client Component
(c) Test Network
(d) All the above
desirable?
(a) High cohesion and high coupling
(b) High cohesion and low coupling
(c) Low cohesion and high coupling
(d) Low cohesion and low coupling
8. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?

(a) Full Regression Testing
(b) Unit Regression
(c) Regional Regression
(d) Retesting
9. Variance from product specifications is called?

(a) Report
(b) Requirement
(c) Defect
10. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
(a) Regression Testing
(b) ReTesting
(c) Ad hoc Testing
(d) Sanity Testing
11. White box testing is not called as___________

(a) Glass box testing
(b) Closed box testing
(c) Open box testing
(d) Clear box testing
12. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
(a) Adhoc Testing
(b) Unit Testing
(c) Regression testing
(d) Functional testing.
13. If you were to create client/server applications, which model would you go for?
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
(a) WINWIN Spiral Model

(b) Spiral Model
(c) Concurrent Model
(d) Incremental Model
14. Which of the following sorting algorithms have minimum number of swaps
(a) Insertion Sort
(b) Quick Sort
(c) Selection Sort
(d) Bubble Sort
15. Which of the following is the recurrence equation for the worst case time complexity of
Quick Sort algorithm for sorting and greater than equal to 2 elements?
(a) T(n) = 2T(n/2) + n
(b) T(n) = 2T(n-1) +cn
(c) T(n) = T(n-1) + T(1) +cn
(d) T(n) =T(n/2) + cn
16. In a following recurrence equation

T(n) = 2T(n-1) +c
Which of the following is solution to above recurrence equation?
(a) θ(logn)
(b) θ (n2)
(c) θ (log n)
(d) θ (2n)
17. Consider the following recursive equation

func(n){
if(n<=2)
return;
else{
func(n/2);
func(n/2);}
}
Which of the following represents asymptotic time complexity of above recursive
equation?
(a) θ(n)
(b) θ(n2)
(c) θ(nlogn)
(d) θ(logn)
18. The height of the tree is the length of the longest root-to-leaf path in it. The maximum
and minimum number of nodes in a binary tree of height 5 is
(a) 63 and 6 respectively.
(b) 64 and 5 respectively.
(c) 32 and 6 respectively.
(d) 31 and 5 respectively.
19. Match the following
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
P. Prim’s Algorithm for MST (i) Backtracking

Q. Floyd Warshall algorithm for APSP (ii) Greedy method
R. Merge Sort (iii) DynamicProgramming
S. Hamiltonian Circuit (iv) Divide and Conquer
(a) P-(iii), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(i)

(b) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iv), S-(iii)
(c) P-(ii), Q -(iii), R- (iv), S- (i)
(d) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii), S-(iv)
20. What is the worst case time complexity to sort ‘n’ elements by first constructing a
Binary Search Tree on those ‘n’ elements followed by an in order traversal on
the tree?
(a) Ο(n2)
(b) Ο(n log n)
(c) Ο(n2 log n)
(d) Ο(n)
21. The maximum number of nodes in Binary Search Tree of height ‘h’ which have same
inorder and preorder will be __________ (assume h = 10 and root is at height 0)
(a) 18
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 16
22. Let f(n) = Ω(n) and g(n) = Ω(n2). Then f(n) + g(n) is
(a) Ω(n)
(b) θ(n)
(c) Ω(n2)
(d) O(n)
23. Impact Analysis helps to decide:
(a) Different tools to perform regression testing
(b) Exit criteria
(c) How many more test cases need to written
(d) How much regression testing should be done
24. Verification is –
(a) Checking that we are building the right system
(b) Checking that we are building the system right
(c) Performed by an independent test team
(d) Making sure that it is what the user really wants
25. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
(a) Finding faults in the system
(b) Ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
(c) Testing the system with other system
(d) Testing for a business perspective
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26. Equivalence Partitioning is –

(a) A black box testing technique used only by developers
(b) A black box testing technique that can only be used during system testing
(c) A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
(d) A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
27. Beta Testing is –

(a) Performed by customer at their own site
(b) Performed by customer at their software developer’s site
(c) Performed by an independent test team
(d) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
28. Which of the following is not a black box technique?

(a) Equivalence partitioning
(b) State transition testing
(c) Linear code sequence and jump
(d) Boundary value analysis
29. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?

(a) Determining the test approach
(b) Preparing test specifications
(c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
(d) Measuring and analyzing results
30. Statement coverage will not check for the following:

(a) Missing statements
(b) Unused branches
(c) Dead code
(d) Unused statements
31. In which activity of the fundamental test process is the test environment set up?
(a) Test implementation and execution
(b) Test planning and control
(c) Test analysis and design
(d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
32. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?

(a) Number of undetected defects
(b) Number of test cases not yet executed
(c) Total number of defects in the product
(d) Efforts to fix all defects
33. Determine the statement which holds true in case of Exploratory Testing:
(a) It starts the execution only when the design gets finalized
(b) It involves simultaneous design of the test and execution
(c) It starts the execution only when the design gets renewed
(d) It starts the execution only when the design gets amended
34. Unreachable code would best be found using:

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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
(a) Code reviews

(b) Code inspection
(c) A coverage tool
(d) A static analysis tool
35. Which of the following is NOT a static testing technique?

(a) Error guessing
(b) Walkthrough
(c) Data flow analysis
(d) Inspection
36. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

(a) Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
(b) Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those
tests
(c) Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
(d) Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
37. A test harness is a:

(a) A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of
the organization regarding testing
(b) A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
(c) A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
(d) A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
38. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?

(a) Measuring response time
(b) Measuring transaction rates
(c) Recovery testing
(d) Simulating many users
39. Short-term scheduler

(a) Selects from processes that are ready to execute and loads them into memory for
execution.
(b) Controls the degree of multiprogramming.
(c) Needs to select between I/O bound or CPU bound processes.
(d) Executes more frequently compared to the longterm scheduler.
40. A process spends 25% of its time waiting for I/O to complete. If 3 processes in memory
at a time, then the probability of CPU time utilized (Assume all I/O operations are
overlapped) is ______.
(a) 0.984
(b) 1.023
(c) 0.831
(d) 0.842
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41. Consider a system having 10 resources of same type. Each process may need 4
resources. The maximum processes could be present for the system to be deadlock free is
_____________.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
42. Which of the following are equal things when there is only one CPU in a system.
(a) Multiprogramming and Multitasking
(b) Multiprocessing and Multiprogramming
(c) Multitasking and Multiprocessing
(d) None of these
43. Consider the following characteristics of a disk system.

• 10 GB disk rotates at 10,000 rpm
• Data transfer rate of 107 bytes/sec
• Average seek time is 8 ms
• Block size is 32 KB
What is the average service time to retrieve a single disk block from a random location
on the disk (in ms)? _______.
(a) 13.12
(b) 15.26
(c) 14.57
(d) 14.28
44. Which of the following is not used for deadlock handling?

(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock detection and recovery
(d) None of these
45. Consider a page size of 1 kB and that each page table entry take 4 bytes. The number of
page tables required to map a 34bit address if every page table fits into a single page are
________.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 7
46. When a user program calls a system call
(a) Mode changes to system mode
(b) Interrupts are enabled
(c) System call number is used to find out code in system call interrupt vector area
47. A bottom up parser generates

(a) Right most derivation
(b) Rightmost derivation in reverse
(c) Leftmost derivation
(d) Leftmost derivation in reverse
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48. A grammar that produces more than one parse tree for some sentence is called
(a) Ambiguous
(b) Unambiguous
(c) Regular
49. The linker

(a) Is similar to interpreter
(b) Uses source code as its input
(c) Is required to create a load module
50. A latch is constructed using two cross coupled

(a) AND OR gates
(b) AND gates
(c) NAND and NOR gates
(d) NAND gates
51. Pee Hole optimization

(a) Loop Optimization
(b) Local Optimization
(c) Constant folding
(d) Data Flow analysis
52. The optimization which avoids test at every iteration is

(a) Loop unrolling
(b) Loop jamming
(c) Constant folding
53. Shift reduce parsers are

(a) Top down Parser
(b) Bottom Up parser
(c) May be top down or bottom up
54. Inherited attribute is a natural choice in

(a) Tracking declaration of a variable
(b) Correct use of L and R values
(c) All of the mentioned
55. The output of lexical analyzer is

(a) A set of regular expression
(b) Syntax tress
(c) Set of Token
(A) String of Characters
56. The output of lexical analyzer is

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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
(a) A set of RE
(b) Syntax Tree
(c) Set of Tokens
(d) String Character
57. For operator precedence parsing, which one is true?

(a) For all pair of non-terminal
(b) For all pair of non-terminals
(c) To delimit the handle
58. Which concept of FSA is used in the compiler?

(a) Lexical analysis
(b) Parser
(c) Code generation
(d) Code optimization
59. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input
string?
(a) Leftmost derivation
(b) Leftmost derivation in reverse
(c) Rightmost derivation
(d) Rightmost derivation in reverse
60. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in project management?

(a) Specification delays
(b) Product competition
(c) Testing
(d) Staff turnover
61. Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the
costs of a software development project?
(a) travel and training costs
(b) hardware and software costs
(c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)
(d) all of the mentioned
62. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for
(a) Team
(b) Project
(c) Customers
(d) project manager
63. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the configuration management of a
software system?
(a) Internship management
(b) Change management
(c) Version management
(d) System management
64. PM-CMM stands for
(a) people management capability maturity model
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(b) process management capability maturity model

(c) product management capability maturity model
(d) project management capability maturity model
65. Who defines the business issues that often have significant influence on the project?
(a) Practitioners
(b) Project manager
(c) Senior managers
66. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to engineer a product or an
application?
(a) Practitioners
(b) Project managers
(c) Senior managers
67. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity?

(a) Problem solving
(b) Organization
(c) Motivation
(d) Project management
68. Which of the following is not an approach to software cost estimation?

(a) Empirical
(b) Heuristic
(c) Analytical
(d) Critical
69. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource estimates may result in

(a) project delay
(b) poor quality work
(c) project failure
70. Repeaters operate at _________ of OSI model.

(a) Physical layer
(b) MAC layer
(c) Network layer
(d) MAC and network layer
71. IEEE 802.11 covers physical layer and

(a) Network layer
(b) Data link layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Transport layer
72. Physical layer provides

(a) Mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
(b) Electrical specification of transmission line signal level
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(c) Specification for IR over optical fiber

(d) All of the above mentioned
73. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides

(a) Start and stop signaling
(b) Flow control
(c) Both a and b
74. With selective repeat protocol, if the number of bits for sequence number is N bits
(a) The maximum window size 1
(b) The maximum window size is 2^N-1
(c) The maximum window size is N
(d) The maximum window size is (2^N)/2
75. The propagation delay can be reduced by using

(a) faster CPUs
(b) faster links
(c) moving content closer to its user
76. The resource needed for communication between end systems are reserved for the
duration of session between end systems in ________
(a) Packetswitching
(b) Circuitswitching
(c) Lineswitching
(d) Frequency switching
77. A local telephone network is an example of a ____________ network

(a) Packet switched
(b) Circuit switched
(c) both of the mentioned
(d) none of these
78. In message switching system, an incoming message gets __________ especially if the
required route is busy.
(a) Lost
(b) stored in a queue & retransmitted
(c) sampled
(d) Recovered
79. MAC address usually stored in

(a) RAM of computer
(b) ROM of BIOS
(c) RAM of network adapter
(d) ROM of network adapter
80. In SMTP mail transaction flow, the sender SMTP established a TCP connection with
the destination SMTP and then waits for the server to send a_________
(a) 220 service ready message
(b) 421 service not available message
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(c) Both of the above

81. The Incremental Model is a result of combination of elements of which two models?
(a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
(b) Linear Model & RAD Model
(c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
(d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
82. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hierarchy

(a) TIM (Testing Improving Model)
(b) TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
(c) TQM(Total Quality Management)
(d) SCM(Software Configuration Management)
83. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed based on the ____________________.
(a) Number of Functions
(b) Number of user inputs
(c) Number of lines of code
(d) Amount of memory usage
84. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the
market, what model approach would they prefer ?
(a) RAD
(b) Iterative Enhancement
(c) Both a & b
(d) Spiral
85. What are the Types of Integration Testing?

(a) Big Bang Testing
(b) Bottom Up Testing
(c) Top Down Testing
(d) All the above
86. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and
understand
(a) Usability Testing
(b) Security Testing
(c) Unit testing
(d) Block Box Testing
87. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data
structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and
initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
(a) White Box Testing
(b) Grey Box Testing
(c) Black Box Testing
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(d) Integration Testing
88. If swap operation is very costly to implement, which of the following sorting algorithms
should be used in order to minimize the number of swap operations?
(a) Heap Sort.
(b) Selection Sort.
(c) Insertion Sort.
(d) Merge Sort.
89. Suppose the partition algorithm of quick sort always produce a 9 to1 proportional split.
Then the running time of algorithm over an unsorted array of n elements is
(a) θ(n2)
(b) O(nlog n)
(c) Ω(n2 log n)
(d) O(n)
90. Suppose there are 4 sorted lists of 8 elements each. If we merge these lists into a single
sorted list of 32 elements. The key comparisons that are needed in the worst case using
an efficient algorithm are ____.
(a) 70
(b) 78
(c) 61
(d) 75
91. Consider the following graph G.
What is the number of minimum cost spanning trees using kruskal’s algorithm or prim’s
algorithm.
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 4
92. Consider the hashing table with ‘m’ slots and ‘n’ keys. If the expected numberof probes
in unsuccessful search is 3. The expected number of probes in a successful search is?
(a) 3.0
(b) 2.56
(c) 1.647
(d) 4
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93. A graph G is such that every vertex is connected to every other vertex viadirect link. We
need to find shortest path between two vertices using Bellmanford algorithm. How much
time does it take?
(a) O(V2 log V)
(b) O(V2)
(c) O(V3)
(d) (V + E) log V
94. Choose the true statement.

(a) Preorder traversal of tree resembles the depth first search of the graph.
(b) Inorder traversal of tree resembles the breadth first search of the graph.
(c) Post order traversal of the tree resembles breadth first search of the graph.
(d) Level order traversal of the tree resembles the breadth first search of thegraph.
95. Which of the following statements is/are true?

S1: Heap sort is based on the selection method.
S2: Insertion sort is best when the best cases of input are considered (forcomparison
based algorithms)
(a) Only S2
(b) Only S1
(c) Both S1 and S2
(d) Neither S1 nor S2
96. When an expected result is not specified in test case template then ___________.
(a) We cannot run the test.
(b) It may be difficult to repeat the test.
(c) It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed.
(d) We cannot automate the user inputs.
97. A test technique that involves testing with various ranges of valid and invalid inputs of a
particular module or component functionality extensively is ___________.
(a) Gorilla Testing
(b) Monkey Testing
(c) Agile Testing
(d) Baseline Testing
98. Bug status is set to postpone due to ________.

(a) Priority of that bug may low.
(b) Lack of time for the release.
(c) The bug may not be the major effect in the software.
(d) Data may be unavailable.
99. Which Testing is performed first?

(a) Black box testing
(b) White box testing
(c) Dynamic testing
(d) Static testing
100. Verification and Validation uses _________.
(a) Internal and External resources respectively.
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(b) Internal resources only.

(c) External resources only.
(d) External and Internal resources respectively.
101. Testing beyond normal operational capacity is __________.
(a) Load testing
(b) Performance testing
(c) Stress testing
(d) All of these.
102. The expected result of the software is _______________.
(a) Only important in system testing
(b) Only used in component testing
(c) Most useful when specified in advance
(d) Derived from the code.
103. A tester is executing a test to evaluate and it complies with the user requirement for a
certain field is populated by using a dropdown box containing a list of values, at that
time tester is performing _________.
(a) White-box Testing
(b) Black-box Testing
(c) Load Testing
(d) Regression Testing
104. Which testing focuses on heavily testing of one particular module?
(a) Gorilla Testing
(b) Fuzz Testing
(c) Inter-Systems Testing
(d) Breadth Testing
105. Which testing cannot be performed on first build of the software?
(a) Regression testing
(b) Retesting.
(c) Sanity testing
(d) All of these
106. Assume that there are 2 independent processes which are in memory and each process
spends a fraction1/2 of its time waiting for I/O to complete. Each process requires 4
minutes of CPU time. The utilization of CPU in percentage is _______.
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
107. A system has 7 identical resources and n process competing for them. Each process can
request atmost 3 resources. The minimum possible value of N which lead to dead lock is
_________.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
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108. Consider a disk head with 500 tracks numbered 0499 is currently on 60. The following
sequence of requests arrive: 170, 37, 98, 122, 53, 14, 39, 28 Total head movements
needed to satisfy these requests with SSTF scheduling algorithm is ______.
(a) 216
(b) 232
(c) 264
(d) 256
109. What will be the space required to store the bit map of 2 GB disk with 128 byte block
size? (Assume main memory is byte addressable)
(a) 2MB
(b) 6MB
(c) 4 MB
(d) 16 MB
110. A Computer system implements 8 kilobyte pages and a 36bit physical address space.
Each page table entry contains a valid bit, and the translation. If the maximum size of the
page table of a process is 96 megabytes, then what will the length of the virtual address
supported by the system (in bits)?
(a) 35
(b) 38
(c) 37
(d) 39
111. Which of the following statement is false in the context of the allocation methods?
(a) Contiguous file allocation leads to external fragmentation.
(b) Linked allocation supports random access to disk block.
(c) Linked allocation does not exhibit external fragmentation.
(d) In indexed file allocation, for each file one block is used as an index to store block
pointers.
112. Which of the following actions an operator precedence parser may take to recover from
an error?
(a) Insert symbols onto the stack
(b) Delete symbols from the stack
(c) Inserting or deleting symbols from the input
113. Compute E.value for the root of the parse tree for the expression:2 # 3 & 5 # 6 &4.
(a) 200
(b) 180
(c) 160
(d) 40
114. What is the maximum number of reduce moves that can be taken by a bottom-up parser
for a grammar with no epsilon- and unit-production to parse a string with n tokens?
(a) n/2
(b) n-1
(c) 2n-1
(d) 2^n
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ROLL NO.: UG2SWE16
115. YACC builds up

(a) SLR parsing table
(b) Canonical LR parsing table
(c) LALR parsing table
116. The construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (1) items are similar to the
construction of the canonical collection of the sets of LR (0) items. Which is an
exception?
(a) Closure and goto operations work a little bit different
(b) Closure and goto operations work similarly
(c) Closure and additive operations work a little bit different
(d) Closure and associatively operations work a little bit different
117. The amount of time required to read a block of data from a disk into memory is
composed of seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time. Rotational latency refers to
______
(a) The time it takes for the platter to make a full rotation
(b) The time it takes for the read-write head to move into position over the appropriate
track
(c) The time it takes for the platter to rotate the correct sector under the head
118. Function of the storage assignment is

(a) Assign storage to all variables referenced in the source program
(b) Assign storage to all temporary locations that are necessary for intermediate results
(c) Assign storage to literals, and to ensure that the storage is allocated and appropriate
locations are initialized
119. A non relocatable program is the one which

(a) Cannot execute in any area of storage other than the one designated
(b) Consists of a program and information for its relocation
(c) None of the mentioned
120. A relocatable program form is one which
(a) Cannot execute in any area of storage other than the one designated
(b) Consists of a program and information for its relocation
(c) None of the mentioned
Page 17 of 17
UG SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
Code 16-Paper 2
1 B 31 A 61 D 91 D
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 C
3 A 33 B 63 A 93 C
4 B 34 A 64 A 94 D
5 C 35 A 65 C 95 C
6 D 36 A 66 A 96 C
7 B 37 C 67 D 97 A
8 B 38 C 68 D 98 D
9 C 39 D 69 D 99 D
10 B 40 Marks to all 70 A 100 A
11 B 41 A 71 B 101 C
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 A
13 C 43 D 73 C 103 B
14 C 44 D 74 B, D 104 A
15 C 45 B 75 C 105 D
16 D 46 D 76 B 106 D
17 D 47 B 77 B 107 D
18 A 48 A 78 B 108 Marks to all
19 A 49 C 79 D 109 A
20 A 50 D 80 C 110 Marks to all
21 C 51 C 81 C 111 Marks to all
22 Marks to all 52 A 82 B 112 D
23 D 53 B 83 C 113 C
24 B 54 A 84 C 114 B
25 D 55 C 85 D 115 C
26 C 56 Marks to all 86 A 116 A
27 A 57 A 87 C 117 A
28 C 58 A 88 B 118 D
29 A 59 A 89 B 119 A
30 A 60 C 90 C 120 C
ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
E
questions.
wrong answer.
A vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
I
vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
C ball point pen.
T ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
E
1. If an ac voltage wave is corrupted with an arbitrary number of harmonics, then the

overall voltage waveform differs from its fundamental frequency component in terms of
(a) Only the peak values
A (b) Only the rms values
(c) Only the average values
I (d) All the three measures (peak, rms and average values)
C 2. The Fourier series for the function f(x)=sin2x is
(a) sin x +sin 2x
T (b) 1-cos 2x
(c) sin 2x + cos 2x
E (d) 0.5(1-cos 2x)
3. For a periodic signal v(t)=30 sin 100t +10 cos 300t +6 sin (500t+π/4), the fundamental
frequency in rad/s is
(a) 100
(b) 300
(c) 500
A (d) 1500
I 4. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the change across capacitor at t=0+ is
(a) Zero
C (b) CE
(c) CE(1-e-t/RC)
T
(d) CE(1-et/RC)
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
5. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
I (a) The real parts of all poles must be negative
(b) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative
C (c) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative or zero
(d) The real parts of all zeroes must be negative
T
6. In an RC series circuit R=100Ω and Xc=10Ω. In this circuit
E (a) The current and voltage are in phase
(b) The current leads the voltage by about 6°
(c) The current leads the voltage by about 84°
(d) The current lags the voltage by about 6°
7. In a reactance function
(a) All poles are simple
A (b) All poles and zeros are simple
(c) All poles and zeros are simple and lie on jω axis
I (d) All poles and zeros lie on negative real axis
C 8. A linear time invariant system with an impulse response h(t) produces output y(t) when
input x(t) is applied. When the input x(t-τ) is applied to a system with impulse response
T h(t-τ), the output will be
(a) y(τ)
E (b) y(2(t-τ))
(c) y(t-τ)
(d) y(t-2τ)
9. A current impulse of 5 δ(t), is forced through a capacitor C. the voltage Vc(t), across the
capacitor is given by
(a) 5t
(b) 5 u(t) - C
A (c) 5t/C
I (d) 5 u(t)/C
10. Consider a continuous time system with input x(t) and output y(t) given by y(t)=x(t) cos
C
t, this system is
T (a) Linear and time invariant
(b) Non-linear and time invariant
E (c) Linear and time varying
(d) Non-linear and time varying
11. In a DC shunt generator working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the
direction of rotation. As a result of this, commutation will
(a) Improve but terminal voltage will fall
(b) Worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) Improve and terminal voltage will rise
A (d) Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
I 12. A 40 kVA transformer has core loss of 400 W and full load copper loss of 800 W. the
proportion of full load at maximum efficiency is
C
(a) 50%
T (b) 62.3%
(c) 70.7%
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
(d) 100%
A
13. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
I produces
(a) Damping torque
C (b) Eddy current torque
(c) Torques aiding the developed to torque
T (d) No torque
E
14. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to a 230 V ac supply,
(a) The motor will vibrate violently
(b) The motor will run with less efficiency and more sparking
(c) The motor will not run
(d) The fuse will be blown
15. The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to

A (a) Reduce the overall weight
I (b) Reduce the saturation in the interpole
(c) Economise on the material required for interpoles and their windings.
C (d) Increase the acceleration of commutation
T 16. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at unity power factor. If the field current is
increased, the power factor will become
E (a) Leading and the current will decrease
(b) Lagging and the current will increase
(c) Lagging and the current will decrease
(d) Leading and the current will increase
17. Full-load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero, when power factor of the
load is near to
A (a) Unity and leading
(b) Zero and leading
I (c) Zero and lagging
(d) Unity and lagging
C
T 18. Transformer cores are laminated to reduce
(a) Eddy current loss
E (b) Hysteresis loss
(c) Both eddy current and hysteresis loss
(d) Ohmic loss
19. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, then its output
voltage will be
(a) Zero
(b) Sine wave
A (c) Triangular wave
I (d) Pulsed wave
20. The leakage flux in a transformer depends on
C
(a) Applied voltage
T (b) Frequency
(c) Load current
E
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(d) Mutual flux

A
21. Which type motor is most suitable for computer printer drive?
I (a) Reluctance motor
(b) Hysteresis motor
C (c) Shaded pole motor
(d) Stepper motor
T
22. In case of split phase motor, the phase shift between the currents in the two windings is
E around
(a) 30°
(b) 70°
(c) 90°
(d) 120°
23. A 1.8° step, 4-phase stepper motor has a total of 40 teeth on 8 poles of stator. The
A number of rotor teeth for this motor will be
(a) 40
I (b) 50
(c) 100
C
(d) 80
T
24. The following motor definitely has a permanent magnet rotor
E (a) DC commutator motor
(b) Brushless DC motor
(c) Stepper motor
(d) Reluctance motor
25. The direction of rotation of a single phase capacitor run induction motor is reversed by
(a) Interchanging the terminals of AC supply
(b) Interchanging the terminals of capacitor
A (c) Interchanging the terminals of auxiliary winding
I (d) Interchanging the terminals of both the windings
26. If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by air core then the hysteresis losses in the
C
transformer will
T (a) Increase
(b) Decrease
E (c) Remains unchanged
(d) Become zero
27. Which 3-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference
of 30o between its output and corresponding input line voltages
(a) Star-star
(b) Star-delta
(c) Delta-delta
A
(d) Delta-zig zag
I
28. The type of dc generator used for arc welding purpose is a
C (a) Series generator
(b) Shunt generator
T (c) Cumulatively compound generator
(d) Differentially compound generator
E
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A 29. If the applied voltage to a dc machine is 230V then the back emf for maximum power
developed is
I
(a) 115V
C (b) 200V
(c) 230V
T (d) 460V
E 30. In a dc machine which is operating in the saturated region, the armature reaction effect
is
(a) Magnetizing only
(b) Demagnetizing only
(c) Cross magnetizing only
(d) Cross magnetizing as well as demagnetizing
A 31. Snubber circuit is used to limit the

(a) Rise of current
I (b) Conduction period
(c) Rise of voltage across device
C (d) Commutation period
T 32. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A Thyristor is
E (a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
33. Circuit turn off time of an SCR is defined as the time

(a) Taken by the SCR turn off
(b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
A (c) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding
current
I
(d) Required for the SCR current to become zero.
C 34. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best
T approximated by
(a) Parabola
E (b) Straight line
(c) Rectangular Hyperbola
(d) Exponentially decaying function
35. A single- phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in the case
load consists of
(a) RL
(b) RLC under damped
A (c) RLC over damped
(d) RLC critically damped
I
36. In single pulse- width modulation of PWM inverters, fifth harmonic can be eliminated if
C
pulse width is equal to
T (a) 30°
(b) 72°
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
(c) 36°
A
(d) 108°
I
37. The cycloconverters (CC’s) require natural or forced commutation as under
C (a) Natural commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
(b) Forced commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
T (c) Forced commutation in step- up CC’s
(d) Forced commutation in step- down CC’s
E
38. The six- stepped load phase voltage of a 3- phase square wave inverter, with a dc link
voltage of 100 volts, will have the following rms magnitudes of 1st , 3rd and 5th
harmonic voltages
(a) 10 V, 30 V and 50 V respectively
(b) 100 V, 33.3 V and 20 V respectively
(c) 90 V, 30 V and 0 V respectively
A (d) 45 V, 0 V and 9 V respectively
I 39. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage is
constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should be
C the snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?
(a) More than 270 volts
T
(b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts
E (c) Less than 18 volts
(d) Not related to input or output voltage
40. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square wave inverter contains
(a) Only even harmonics
(b) Both even and odd harmonics
(c) Only odd harmonics
(d) Only triple harmonics
A
41. The consideration involved in the selection of the type of electric drive for a particular
I application depends on
(a) Speed control range and its nature
C (b) Starting torque
T (c) Environmental conditions
E
42. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives
(a) Synchronous motors
(b) Squirrel cage induction motor
(c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
(d) Any of the above
43. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery
A (a) AC slip ring motor
(b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
I (c) DC compound motor
C
44. The motor normally used for crane travel is
T (a) AC slip ring motor
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17

A
(c) Synchronous motor
I (d) DC differentially compound motor
45. A wound rotor induction motor is preferred over squirrel cage induction motor when the
C major consideration involved is
(a) High starting torque
T (b) Low starting torque
E (c) Speed control over limited range
46. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor
preferred is
(a) Synchronous motor
(c) Wound rotor induction motor
A (d) DC motor
I 47. When quick reversal is the consideration, the motor preferred is

C
T (c) Wound rotor induction motor
(d) DC motor
E
48. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
(a) Fan and pump drives
(b) Drive of a crane
(c) Running it as generator
(d) Constant load drive
49. The selection of control gear for a particular application is based on the consideration of
A
(a) Duty
I (b) Starting torque
(c) Limitation on starting current
T 50. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is
E (a) High power factor
(b) Better efficiency
(c) Lower cost
51. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for

(a) Power factor improvement
(b) Improved cooling
A (c) Reversal of direction
(d) Speed regulation
I
C 52. In case of travelling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
(a) AC slip ring motor
T (b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
E
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(c) Synchronous motor

A
(d) Single phase motor
I
53. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is
C (a) Smooth movement
(b) Precise control
T (c) Fast speed control
E (d) All of the above
54. The basic elements of an electric drive are

(a) Electric motor and the transmission system
(b) Electric motor, the transmission and control system
(c) The transmission and control system
(d) Electric motor and the conversion equipment
A 55. Which of the following drive can be used for Derricks and winches?
I (a) DC motor with Ward Leonard control
(b) AC slip-ring motor with variable resistance
C (c) Pole changing squirrel cage motors
T
56. Which of the following motor is best suited for rolling mills due to their inherent
E characteristics.
(a) DC motors
(b) Slip-ring induction motors
(c) Squirrel cage induction motors
(d) Single phase motors
57. Ward Leonard controlled DC drives are generally used for

A (a) Light duty excavators
(b) Medium duty excavators
I (c) Heavy duty excavators
C
T 58. The use of a rectifier filter in a capacitor circuit gives satisfactory performance only
when the loads
E (a) Current is high
(b) Current is low
(c) Voltage is high
(d) Voltage is low
59. Clamper circuits are known as

(a) AC restorers
A (b) DC restorers
(c) Voltage to frequency converters
I (d) Sweep circuits
C 60. A single diode operates as a

(a) Full wave rectifier
T
(b) Half wave rectifier
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
(c) Bridge rectifier

A
(d) Non rectifier
I
61. In comparison with a common emitter amplifier, a common bas amplifier typically has
C (a) Lower output impedance
(b) Lower input impedance
T (c) Higher current gain
E (d) Higher bandwidth
62. The small signal gain of the amplifier Vc/Vs is

(a) -10
(b) -5.3
(c) 5.3
(d) 10
63. The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-
A amp is approximately at
I (a) 5Hz
(b) 10kHz
C (c) 1MHz
(d) 100MHz
T
64. In a differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by using an increased:
E (a) Source resistance
(b) Collector resistance
(c) Power supply voltages
(d) Emitter resistance
65. To design an RC phase shift oscillator using a JFET, the absolute minimum
amplification factor of the JFET that will be required is
A (a) 3
(b) 17
I (c) 23
(d) 29
C
T 66. The Barkhausen criterion gives
(a) The condition of stability
E (b) The maximum gain for which there are no oscillations
(c) The phase shift required for oscillations
(d) The maximum feedback for a stable amplifier
67. For a wide range of oscillations in the audio range the preferred oscillator is
(a) Hartley
(b) Phase-shift
A (c) Wien bridge
(d) Hartley and colpitt
I
68. The emitter follower configuration inherently has a
C (a) Current-series feedback
(b) Voltage-shunt feedback
T
(c) Voltage-series feedback
E
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(d) None of these

A
I
69. The cascode amplifier is a multistage configuration of
C (a) CC-CB
(b) CE-CB
T (c) CB-CC
E (d) CE-CC
70. In CE arrangements, the value of input impedance is approximately equal to

(a) hie
(b) hoe
(c) hre
(d) None of these
A
I
C 71. The Fourier series of a periodic function with period T is given as
xT(t)= ∞
𝑘=−∞ 𝑋𝑠 (𝑘)𝑒
𝑗𝑘 𝜔 0 𝑡
where, ω0=2π/T and the Fourier coefficient Xs(k)
T 1 −𝑗𝑘 𝜔 0
=𝑇 𝑥𝑇 (𝑡)𝑒 𝑑𝑡 If xT(t) is real and odd, the Fourier coefficients Xs(k) are
E (a) Real and odd
(b) Complex
(c) Real
(d) Imaginary
72. If z-transform of a system is given by H(z)=(α+z-1)/(1+ αz-1) where α is real valued, | α|

< 1, ROC: |z| > | α|, then the system is
(a) A low pass filter
A (b) A band pass filter
(c) An all pass filter
I
(d) A high pass filter
C
73. As shown in figure, 1 Ω resistance is connected across a source that has load line
T v+i=100. The current through the resistance is
i
E +
Source V 1 ohm
-
(a) 25 A
(b) 50 A
(c) 100 A
(d) 200 A
A
74. Find inverse Laplace transform of F1(s)/F2(s) = {1/(s-a)}/{1/(s+a)} by using convolution
I (a) f(t)=te-at
C (b) f(t)=teat
(c) f(t)=-teat
T (d) f(t)=-te-at
E
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A
I 75. The driving point impedance of an RC network is given by Z(s)=(2s2+7s+3)/(s2+3s+1).
Its canonical realization will be
C (a) 6 elements
(b) 5 elements
T (c) 4 elements
E (d) 3 elements
76. How many segments will be there for the commutator of a 6-pole dc machine having a
simple wave wound armature with 72 slots.
(a) 124
(b) 72
(c) 12
(d) 2
A
I 77. When the supply terminals of a dc shunt motor are interchanged
(a) The direction of rotation will reverse
C (b) The motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction
(c) The motor will run much faster in the same direction as before
T (d) The motor will stop
E 78. A dc series motor develops a torque of 20 Nm at 3 A load current. If the current is
increased to 6 A, the torque developed will be
(a) 10 Nm
(b) 20 Nm
(c) 80 Nm
(d) 40 Nm
A 79. A 500 kVA transformer has 500 W constant losses and 2000 W copper losses at full
load. At what load its efficiency is maximum
I (a) 250 kVA
(b) 500 kVA
C
(c) 1000 kVA
T (d) 125 kVA
E 80. A single-phase transformer has a maximum efficiency of 90% at full load and unity
power factor. Efficiency at half load at the same power factor is
(a) 86.7%
(b) 88.26%
(c) 88.9%
(d) 87.8%
A 81. A 500 MW, 3-phase, Y-connected synchronous generator has a rated voltage of 21.5 kV
at 0.85 pf.The line current when operating at full load rated condition will be
I (a) 13.43 kA
(b) 15.79 kA
C (c) 23.25 kA
(d) 27.36 Ka
T
E
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A
82. Four identical alternators each rated for 20 MVA, 11 kV having a sub-transient
I reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus bars is
(a) 500 MVA
C (b) 400 MVA
(c) 125 MVA
T (d) 80 MVA
E
83. What is the shunt resistance component in the equivalent circuit obtained by no-load
test of an induction motor, representative of?
(a) Windage and frictional losses only
(b) Core losses only
(c) Core, windage and frictional losses
(d) Copper losses
A 84. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by
I (a) Improper design of stator laminations
(b) Low voltage supply
C (c) High loads
(d) Harmonics developed in motor
T
85. In the equivalent circuit of a double cage induction motor, the two rotor cages can be
E considered
(a) To be in parallel
(b) To be in series-parallel
(c) To be in series
(d) To be in parallel with stator
86. In case of split phase motor, the phase shift between currents in the two windings is
A around
(a) 30°
I (b) 70°
(c) 90°
C
(d) 120°
T
87. The anode current through a conducting SCR is 10 A. If its gate current is made one
E fourth, then what will be the anode current?
(a) 0 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 20 A
88. A single-phase ac voltage controller is controlling current in a purely inductive load. If

A the firing angle of the SCR is α, what will be the conduction of the SCR?
(a) π
I (b) π-α
(c) 2π-α
C (d) 2π
T
E
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A
89. How many switches are used to construct a 3-phase to 3-phase cycloconverter?
I (a) 3
(b) 6
C (c) 12
(d) 18
T
E 90. Compared to a single-phase half bridge inverter, the output power of a single-phase full
bridge inverter is higher by a factor of
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 2
91. The following converters can feed power in any of the four quadrants
A (a) Semi-converter
I (b) Full converter
(c) Dual converter
C (d) Combination of semi and full converters
T 92. A three-phase full converter is supplying a purely resistive load at 300 V dc for 0° firing
angle. The output voltage for 90° firing angle would be
E (a) 0 V
(b) 40 V
(c) 50 V
(d) 100 V
93. For a step-up dc-dc chopper with an input voltage of 220 V, what shall be the ON time
of thyristor, if the output voltage required is 330 V with 100µs non-conducting time of
A the thyristor.
(a) 66.6 µs
I (b) 100 µs
(c) 150 µs
C
(d) 200 µs
T
94. A single-phase half-controlled rectifier is driving a separately excited dc motor. The
E motor has a back emf constant of 0.25 V/rpm. The armature current is 5 A without any
ripple. The armature resistance is 2Ω. The converter is working from a 230 V, single
phase ac source with a firing angle of 30°. Under this operating condition, the speed of
the motor will be
(a) 339 rpm
(b) 359 rpm
(c) 366 rpm
A (d) 386 rpm
I 95. A single-phase inverter has square wave output voltage. What is the percentage of the
fifth harmonic component in relation to the fundamental component?
C (a) 40%
(b) 30%
T
(c) 20%
E
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(d) 10%
A
96. A 3-phase wound rotor induction motor is controlled by a chopper-controlled resistance
I in its rotor circuit. A resistance of 2 Ω is connected in the rotor circuit and a resistance
of 4 Ω is additionally connected during OFF periods of the chopper. The OFF period of
C the chopper is 4 ms. The average resistance in the rotor circuit for the chopper
frequency of 200 Hz is
T (a) 26/5 Ω
E (b) 24/5 Ω
(c) 18/5 Ω
(d) 6/5 Ω
97. A three-phase semi-converter feeds the armature of a separately excited dc motor,

supplying a non-zero torque. For steady-state operation, the motor armature current is
found to drop to zero at certain instances of time. At such instances the voltage assumes
a value that is
A (a) Equal to the instantaneous value of the ac phase voltage
I (b) Equal to the instantaneous value of the motor back emf
(c) Arbitrary
C (d) Zero
T 98. Assuming the operational amplifier to be ideal, the gain of the below circuit is
10k 10k
E
1k 1k
Vout
Vin
(a) -1
(b) -20
(c) -100
A (d) -120
I 99. An n-channel JFET has IDSS = -1 mA and Vp = -4V. Its trans-conductance gm (mA/V)
for an applied gate to source voltage VGS of -3V shall be
C (a) 0.5 mA/V
(b) 0.125 mA/V
T
(c) 0.0625 mA/V
E (d) 0.03125 mA/V
100. In the voltage divider bias configuration as shown below, it is given that R1 = 45 kΩ, R2
= 4 kΩ, RC = 10 kΩ, RE = 1.5 kΩ, VCC = 15 V and β = 58, the equivalent base
resistance is given by
+VCC
R1 RC
A
R2 RE
I
(a) 3.67 kΩ
C (b) 4 kΩ
(c) 45 kΩ
T
(d) 49 kΩ
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
I PART –C
C
T 101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then
E

A (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
I
C 103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then 𝑎
is equal to
T
1 1 1
E (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
A 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
C 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
T (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

E
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
A 2 4
3
I 𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
C
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ELE17
A
109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The probability
I of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
C (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32

T 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 cot 𝑢 = 0
I ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2
C
T (a) Divergent (b) Convergent
E
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
A 114. The singular solution of the differential equation 𝑦 = − , 𝑥 > 0 is
I 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
C
T
1
A (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7

C of n is
T (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
E
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A 118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the remaining
eigenvalue is
I
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
C
E (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
A (a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Code 17-Paper 1
1 D 31 C 61 B 91 C
2 D 32 B 62 Marks to all 92 A
3 A 33 B 63 A 93 B
4 A 34 A 64 D 94 C
5 C 35 B 65 D 95 C
6 C 36 B 66 A 96 A
7 C 37 C 67 C 97 B
8 A 38 D 68 C 98 B
9 D 39 A 69 B 99 B
10 A 40 C 70 A 100 A
11 A 41 D 71 A 101 A
12 C 42 C 72 C 102 C
13 D 43 D 73 B 103 A
14 B 44 A 74 Marks to all 104 D
15 B 45 D 75 D 105 D
16 D 46 D 76 D 106 A
17 B 47 D 77 A 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 B
19 D 49 D 79 A 109 D
20 C 50 A 80 D 110 B
21 D 51 D 81 B 111 D
22 A 52 A 82 A 112 B
23 B 53 D 83 B 113 B
24 B 54 B 84 D 114 B
25 C 55 D 85 A 115 B
26 B 56 A 86 A 116 C
27 B 57 C 87 C 117 B
28 D 58 C 88 B 118 C
29 A 59 B 89 D 119 B
30 D 60 B 90 D 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
C PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
E i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
wrong answer.
I vii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
C examination before leaving the examination hall.
T
E
1. For a measuring instrument, a set of repeated measurements had a low spread of values,
the instrument is of
(a) High accuracy
(b) Low accuracy
(c) High precision
(d) Low precision
A 2. A 0-160 V voltmeter has an accuracy of 1% of full scale reading. The voltage is 80 V. the
limiting error is
I
(a) 1%
C (b) 2%
(c) 2.5%
T (d) 3%
E
3. A 0-50 A moving coil ammeter has a voltage drop of 0.1 V across its terminals at full
scale deflection. The shunt resistance needed to extend its range to 0-500 A is
(a) 0.20 mΩ
(b) 0.22 mΩ
(c) 0.1 Ω
(d) 0.11 mΩ
4. Energy meter is
A
(a) An indicating instrument
I (b) A recording instrument
(c) An integrating instrument
C (d) None of these
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A 5. The Q-meter works on the principle of

(a) Series resonance
I
(b) Parallel resonance
C (c) Mutual inductance
(d) Self-inductance
T
E 6. Megger is an instrument used for measurement of
(a) Leakage current
(b) Medium resistance
(c) Low resistance
(d) High resistance and insulation resistance
7. A sinusoidal voltage of 230 V rms, 50 Hz is connected to a half wave rectifier type

ammeter and offers a resistance of 30 Ω to the flow of current. The current recorded by
the ammeter is
A
(a) 2.95 A
I (b) 3.45 A
(c) 7.67 A
C (d) 10.35 A
T
8. A thermistor with increase in temperature exhibits
E (a) Only negative change of resistance
(b) Only positive change of resistance
(c) Based on material used, can exhibit either positive or negative change of resistance
9. A piezo-electric crystal used to measure force has its dimensions as 10 mm x 10 mm x 3

mm and a voltage sensitivity of 0.11 Vm/N. if the voltage developed is 200 V, the force
across the crystal would be
A (a) 60 µN
(b) 60 N
I (c) 60 kN
C (d) 60MN
T 10. In a semiconductor strain gauge, the change in resistance on application of strain is

E mainly due to change in
(a) Length
(b) Diameter
(c) Length and diameter
(d) Resistivity
11. In an oscilloscope screen, the linear sweep is applied at the

(a) Both horizontal and vertical axis
(b) Vertical axis
A (c) Horizontal axis
I (d) Origin
C 12. The power consumed by a balanced 3-phase 3-wire load is measured by the two-
T wattmeter method. The first wattmeter reads twice that of the second. Then the load
impedance angle in radians is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) π/12
(b) π/8
I
(c) π/6
C (d) π/3
T 13. Total instantaneous power supplied by a three-phase AC supply to a balanced R-L load is
E (a) Zero
(b) Constant
(c) Pulsating with zero average
(d) Pulsating with non-zero average
14. When two voltages having the same frequency and equal magnitude but with a phase
difference of 90° is applied to a CRO, the trace on the screen is a
(a) Circle
(b) Ellipse
A
(c) Oval
I (d) Straight line
C 15. The range of measuring temperature for which radiation pyrometers are used would be
T (a) 0 to 500°C
(b) 1200 to 2500°C
E (c) 500 to 1000°C
(d) -250°C to 500°C
16. In eddy current damping system, the disc employed should be of

(a) Conducting and magnetic material
(b) Conducting but non-magnetic material
(c) Magnetic but non-conducting material
(d) Non-conducting and non-magnetic material
A
17. The octal equivalent of AB.CD hex is
I (a) 253.314
C (b) 526.632
(c) 526.314
T (d) 253.632
E
18. The universal gates are
(a) NAND and NOR
(b) AND, OR, NOT
(c) X-OR and X-NOR
(d) All of these
19. The totem pole in standard TTL refers to

(a) Output buffer
A (b) Input emitter voltage
I (c) Open collector output stage
(d) Phase splitter
C
T
20. The minimum number of two-input NAND gates required to implement A X-NOR B, if
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A only A and B are available, are

(a) 6
I
(b) 3
C (c) 5
(d) 4
T
E 21. The highest noise margin is offered by
(a) TTL
(b) ECL
(c) I2L
(d) CMOS
22. A JK flip flop can be converted to T flip flop by connecting

(a) Both J and K inputs to T
(b) 𝑄 to 0
A
(c) 0 to 𝑄
I (d) 0 to Q
23. A divide by 50 counter can be realized by using
C
(a) 5 number of MOD-10 counter
T (b) 10 number of MOD-5 counter
(c) One MOD-5 counter followed by one MOD-10 counter
E (d) 10 number of MOD-10 counter
24. A digital to analog converter with a full-scale output voltage of 3.5 V has a resolution
close to 20 mV. The bit size is
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
A
25. Mason’s rule is applied to
I (a) Signal flow graph
C (b) Block diagram reduction technique
(c) Hydraulic system
T (d) Rotational system
E
26. A DeMUX may be changed to a decoder by
(a) Input be left unconnected and select lines used as input to decoder
(b) Input should always be 0 and select lines behave as input to decoder
(c) Both are same
(d) Input should become enable and select lines behave as inputs to the decoder
27. The binary number 110011 is to be converted to gray code. The number of gates and type
required are
A
(a) 6, AND
I (b) 6, XNOR
(c) 6, XOR
C (d) 5, XOR
T
28. The type number of the control system given by G(s)H(s)=K(s+2)/{s(s2+2s+3)} is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) One
(b) Two
I
(c) Three
C (d) Four
T 29. The ratio of damped frequency to natural frequency of the given system having damping
E factor ξ is
(a) 1/ξ
(b) ξ
(c) ξ2
(d) (1- ξ2 )1/2
30. The output of first order hold between two consecutive sampling instances is a
(a) Constant
(b) Quadratic equation
A
(c) Ramp function
I (d) Exponential function
C 31. The transfer function of a system is given as 100/(s2+20s+100). The system is
T (a) An overdamped system
(b) An underdamped system
E (c) A critically damped system
(d) An unstable system
32. What is the value of k for a unity feedback system with G(s)=k/{s(s+1)} to have a peak
overshoot of 50%
(a) 0.53
(b) 5.3
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.047
A
33. What is the nature of the system in terms of stability for which the unit step response is
I given by [1-e-t(1+t)] u(t).
(a) Unstable
C
(b) Stable
T (c) Critically stable
(d) Oscillatory
E
34. The transfer function of a linear control system is given by G(s)= 100
(s+15)/{s(s+4)(s+10)}. In its Bode diagram, the value of gain for ω = 0.1 rad/sec is
(a) 20 db
(b) 40 db
(c) 60 db
(d) 80 db
35. Using Routh’s criterion, the number of roots in the right half of the s-plane for the
A
characteristic equation s4+2s3+2s2+3s+6=0
I (a) One
(b) Two
C (c) Three
T (d) Four
36. Root locus of s(s+2)+k(s+4)=0 is a circle. What are the coordinates of the centre of this
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A circle?
(a) -2, 0
I
(b) -3, 0
C (c) -4, 0
(d) -5, 0
T
E 37. How can the steady state error in a system be reduced?
(a) By decreasing the type of system
(b) By increasing system gain
(c) By decreasing the static error constant
(d) By increasing the input
38. For type-2 system, the steady state error due to ramp input is equal to
(a) Zero
(b) Finite constant
A
(c) Infinite
I (d) Indeterminate
C 39. What is the gain margin of a system when the magnitude of the polar plot at phase
T crossover is ‘a’?
(a) 1/a
E (b) -a
(c) Zero
(d) A
40. If the Nyquist plot cuts the negative real axis at a distance of 0.4, then the gain margin of
the system is
(a) 0.4
(b) -0.4
A (c) 4%
(d) 2.5
I
41. Addition of zeros in a transfer function causes
C (a) Lead compensation
T (b) Lag compensation
(c) Lead-lag compensation
E (d) None of these
42. Backlash in a stable control system may cause

(a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
(c) High level oscillations
(d) Low level oscillations
43. The number of address pins of 8085 required to interface it with 16kB of memory
A following absolute decoding is
I (a) 16
(b) 14
C (c) 8
(d) 4
T
44. The number of clock cycles required to execute PUSH H instruction is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) 4
(b) 7
I
(c) 9
C (d) 10
T 45. The addressing mode used by LXI H, 1234H is
E (a) Register direct, immediate
(b) Register indirect, register direct
(c) Only immediate
(d) Only register direct
46. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded in to accumulator by

(a) Executing a RIM instruction
(b) Executing a SIM instruction
(c) Executing RST1
A
(d) None of these
I
47. State which of the following statements are false for instruction queue
C (a) It stores instructions
T (b) It is maintained in FIFO structure
(c) It only stores instructions when more than one registers of queue is empty
E (d) It is a part of execution unit
48. The value of AX after following codes are executed becomes

MOV CL, 04H
MOV AL, 32H
MOV AH, AL
SHR AH, CL
ANI AL, 0FH
A AAD
(a) 0020H
I (b) 0023H
C (c) 0302H
(d) 3020H
T
E 49. In 8086 microprocessor which one of the following instructions is not executed after an
arithmetic operation
(a) AAS
(b) AAM
(c) DAS
(d) AAD
50. The maximum baud rate achievable in mode 2 of 8051 operated with a 6MHz clock is
(a) 6 Mbps
A (b) 93.75 kbps
I (c) 187.5 kbps
(d) 1 Mbps
C
T
51. TF1 flag has to be manually reset when
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) Timer 1 interrupt is disabled

(b) Timer 1 interrupt is enabled
I
(c) Timer overflow occurs
C (d) In polling mode and timer 0 overflow occurs
T 52. Power transmission lines are transposed to reduce
E (a) Skin effect
(b) Ferranti effect
(c) Transmission loss
(d) Interference with neighbouring communication lines.
53. A three-phase balanced load with 0.707 power factor is connected to a balanced supply.
The power consumed by the load is 5 kW. The power measured by the two-wattmeter
method. The readings of the two-wattmeter are
(a) 3.94 kW and 1.06 kW
A
(b) 2.50 kW and 2.50 kW
I (c) 5.00 kW and 0.00 kW
(d) 2.96 kW and 2.04 kW
C
54. A power system has 100 buses including 10 generator buses. For the load flow analysis
T
using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is
E (a) 189 x 189
(b) 100 x 100
(c) 90 x 90
(d) 180 x 180
55. The inductance and capacitance of a 400 kV, 3-phase, 50 Hz lossless transmission line are
1.6 mH/km/phase and 10 nF/km/phase respectively. The sending end voltage is
maintained at 400 kV. To maintain a voltage of 400 kV at the receiving end, when the line
is delivering 300MW load, the shunt compensation required is
A (a) Capacitive
I (b) Inductive
(c) Resistive
C (d) Zero
T 56. A single-phase 100 kVA, 1000 V/100 V, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage drop of 5%
E across its series impedance at full load. Of this, 3% is due to resistance. The percentage
regulation of the transformer at full load with 0.8 lagging power factor is
(a) 4.8
(b) 6.8
(c) 8.8
(d) 10.8
57. Two wattmeter method is used for measurement of power in a balanced three-phase load
supplied from a balanced three-phase system. If one of the wattmeter reads half of the
A other (both positive), then the power factor of the load is
I (a) 0.532
(b) 0.632
C (c) 0.707
(d) 0.866
T
58. A 1000 x 1000 bus admittance matrix for an electric power system has 8000 non-zero
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A elements. The minimum number of branches (transmission lines and transformers) in this
system are
I
(a) 3500
C (b) 7000
(c) 1000
T (d) 4000
E
59. A single-phase load is supplied by a single-phase voltage source. If the current flowing
from the load to the source is 10∟-150° A and if the voltage at the load terminals is
100∟60° V, then the
(a) Load absorbs real power and delivers reactive power
(b) Load absorbs real and reactive powers
(c) Load delivers real and reactive powers
(d) Load delivers real power and absorbs reactive power
A
60. The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is the
I (a) Angle between stator voltage and current
(b) Angular displacement of the rotor with respect to stator
C (c) Angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously rotating
T axis
(d) Angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a synchronously
E rotating axis
61. With the help of a reactive compensator, it is possible to have

(a) Constant voltage operation only
(b) Unity p.f. operation only
(c) Both constant voltage and unity p.f.
(d) Either constant voltage or unity p.f.
A 62. Bus admittance matrix is a

(a) Full matrix
I (b) Sparse matrix
C (c) Diagonal matrix
(d) Rectangular matrix
T
E 63. Equal area criterion is useful for the determination of
(a) Steady state stability
(b) Transient stability of two-machine power system
(c) Transient stability of multi-machine power system
(d) Both steady state and transient stability of multi-machine power system
64. A lossless transmission line having surge impedance loading (SIL) of 2280 MW. A series
capacitive compensation of 30% is placed. Then SIL, of the compensated transmission
line will be
A (a) 1835 MW
I (b) 2280 MW
(c) 2725 MW
C (d) 3257 MW
T
65. The Gauss Seidel load flow method has following disadvantages. Identify the incorrect
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A statement.
(a) Unreliable convergence
I
(b) Slow convergence
C (c) Choice of slack bus affects convergence
(d) A good initial guess for voltage is essential for convergence
T
E 66. A balanced delta connected load of (8+j6) Ω per phase is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz, 3-
phase supply lines. If the input power factor is to be improved to 0.9 by connecting a bank
of star connected capacitors, the required kVAR of the bank is
(a) 42.7
(b) 10.2
(c) 28.8
(d) 39.4
67. A 800 kV transmission line is having per phase line inductance of 1.1 mH/km and per
A phase line capacitance of 11.78 nF/km. Ignoring the length of the line, its ideal power
I transfer capability in MW is
(a) 1204 MW
C (b) 1504 MW
(c) 2085 MW
T
(d) 2606 MW
E
68. A 50 Hz, 4-pole, 500 MVA, 22 kV turbo-generator is delivering rated MVA at 0.8 p.f.
Suddenly a fault occurs, reducing its power output by 40%. Neglect losses and assume
constant power input to the shaft. The accelerating torque in the generator in MNm at the
fault will be
(a) 1.528
(b) 1.018
(c) 0.840
(d) 0.509
A
I 69. Consider a long 2-wire line composed of solid round conductors. The radius of both
conductors is 0.25 cm and the distance between their centres is 1 m. If this distance is
C doubled, then the inductance per unit length
(a) Doubles
T (b) Halves
E (c) Increases but does not double
(d) Decreases but does not become half
70. Bundled conductors are mainly used in high voltage overhead transmission lines to
(a) Reduce transmission line losses
(b) Increase mechanical strength of the line
(c) Reduce corona
(d) Reduce sag
A 71. The insulation strength of an EHV transmission line is mainly governed by
(a) Load power factor
I
(b) Switching over-voltage
C (c) Harmonics
(d) Corona
T 72. For a fully transposed transmission line
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) Positive, negative and zero sequence impedances are equal

(b) Positive and negative sequence impedances are equal
I
(c) Positive and zero sequence impedances are equal
C (d) Negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
T 73. Let X(z) = 1/ (1-z-3) be the z transform of a causal signal x[n]. then the values of x[2] and
E x[3] are
(a) 0 and 0
(b) 0 and 1
(c) 1 and 0
(d) 1 and 1
74. The initial and final values of z-domain signal given by 2z-1/(1-1.8z-1+0.8z-2) are
(a) 10, 1
(b) 1, 10
A
(c) 0, 10
I (d) 0, infinity
C 75. The minimum number of samples required to correctly describe x(t)=10 cos 4πt + 4 sin
T 8πt
(a) 4 samples per second
E (b) 2 samples per second
(c) 8 samples per second
(d) 16 samples per second
76. Interpolation is the process of

(a) Inserting N-1 unity sequence values to x[n]
(b) Inserting N-1 zero sequence values to x[n]
(c) Deleting N-1 unity sequence values from x[n]
A (d) Deleting N-1 zero sequence values from x[n]
I 77. A signal is processed by a causal filter with transfer function G(s). for distortion free
C output signal waveform, G(s) must
(a) Provide zero phase shift for all frequencies
T (b) Provide constant phase shift for all frequencies
E (c) Provide linear phase shift that is proportional to frequency
(d) Provide a phase shift that is inversely proportional to frequency
78. z-transform of u[n+1] is

(a) z/(z-1)
(b) z2/(z-1)
(c) z-1/(1-z-1)
(d) 1/(z-1+z-2)
A 79. Two discrete time system with impulse response h1(n)=δ[n-1], h2(n)= δ[n-2] are
I connected in cascade, the overall impulse response of the cascaded system is
(a) δ[n-1]
C (b) δ[n-2]
T (c) δ[n-3]
(d) δ[n-4]
E
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A 80. The transfer function of a system is H(z)=1-3z-1, the system response for input x[n] is
(a) x[n]-0.3x[n-1]
I
(b) x[n]+0.3x[n-1]
C (c) x[n]-3x[n+1]
(d) x[n]-3x[n-1]
T
E PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
81. A 3½ digit voltmeter having a resolution of 100 mV can be used to measure maximum
voltage of
(a) 100V
(b) 200V
(c) 1000V
(d) 5000V
A 82. Two resistors R1=36 Ω and R2=75 Ω, each having tolerances of ±5% are connected in
I series. The value of the resultant resistance will be
(a) 111 ± 0 Ω
C (b) 111 ± 2.778 Ω
(c) 111 ± 5.55 Ω
T
(d) 111 ± 7.23 Ω
E 83. What is the effect of inductance in the pressure coil on performance of a dynamometer
type wattmeter?
(a) It reads low on lagging power factor and high on leading power factor
(b) It reads high on lagging power factor and low on leading power factor
(c) Its reading is not affected at all
(d) It always reads low
84. Consider the signal Vm sin 100t + 2Vm sin 200t to be sampled and stored in a data
A acquisition system. The same is to be extracted off-line later on. In order to extract the
signal effectively, the original sampling frequency has to be
I
(a) 100 rad/s
C (b) 200 rad/s
(c) 210 rad/s
T (d) 300 rad/s
E
85. Which one of the following methods decreases the error due to connections in a
dynamometer type Wattmeter?
(a) Using bifilar compensating winding in place of current coil
(b) Using non-inductive pressure coil circuit
(c) Using a capacitor across a part of high resistance of pressure coil circuit
(d) Using a swamping resistance
86. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the frequency of the input signal. However, the input
A signal has 10% third harmonic distortion. Specifically, the signal is 2 sin 400 wt + 0.2 sin
1200 wt. With this input the balance will
I
(a) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to a frequency of 200Hz
C (b) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 260Hz
(c) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 400Hz
T (d) Not lead to a null indication
E
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A 87. A resistance wire strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is bounded to a steel structural
member subjected to a tensile stress of 100 mega N/m2. The modulus of elasticity of steel
I
is 200 Giga N/m2. The percentage change in gauge resistance due to the applied stress is
C (a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
T (c) 0.4
E (d) 0.5
88. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV transmission line is 400 Ω. The surge
impedance loading (SIL) is
(a) 400 MW
(b) 100 MW
(c) 1600 MW
(d) 200 MW
A
89. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed 4% and another alternator of
I 220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The total load they can take is
(a) 500 kW
C (b) 567 kW
T (c) 425 kw
(d) 257 kW
E
90. The severity of line to ground and three phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded
synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1.0 pu, Z1=Z2=j0.1 pu and
Z0=j0.05 pu for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral grounding
is
(a) 0.0166 pu
(b) 0.05 pu
(c) 0.1 pu
A (d) 0.15 pu
I 91. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u. then the current
C through the neutral during the fault is
(a) j2.4 p.u.
T (b) j0.8 p.u.
E (c) j7.2 p.u.
(d) j0.24 p.u.
92. In a 100 bus power system, there are 10 generators. In a particular iteration of Newton-
Raphson load flow technique (in polar coordinates), two of the PV buses are converted to
PQ type. In this iteration
(a) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
(b) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
A unknown voltage magnitudes increases by two.
I (c) The number of unknown voltage angles increases by two and the number of
unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
C (d) The number of unknown voltage angles remains unchanged and the number of
T unknown voltage magnitudes decreases by two.
E
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A 93. The complex power consumed by a constant voltage load given by (P1+jQ1), where
1kW≤P1≤1.5kW and 0.5kVAR≤Q1≤1kVAR. A compensating shunt capacitor is
I
connected such that |Q|≤0.25kVAR, where Q is the net reactive power consumed by the
C capacitor load combination. The reactive power (in kVAR) supplied by the capacitor is
(a) 0.75 kVAR (lagging)
T (b) 0.75 kVAR (leading)
E (c) 1.25 kVAR (lagging)
(d) 1.25 kVAR (leading)
94. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is

(a) 01010101
(b) 00111100
(c) 10101011
(d) 10101100
A
95. Decimal 18.293 when converted in to 10’s complement will become
I (a) 81.707
(b) 81.700
C (c) 81.777
T (d) 81.077
E 96. 10 in BCD is represented as

(a) 10100
(b) 1100
(c) 010111
(d) None of these
97. A memory system has a total of 8 memory chips, each with 12 address lines and 4 data
lines. The total size of the memory system is
A (a) 16 kbytes
(b) 32 kbytes
I (c) 48 kbytes
C (d) 64 kbytes
T 98. Following Boolean expression

E 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 + 𝑑 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 simplifies as
(a) 1
(b) 𝑎. 𝑏
(c) a.b
(d) 0
99. In an 8085 microprocessor, after execution of following instructions, XRA A; MVIB

F0H; SUB B; the contents of the accumulator will become
A (a) 01 H
(b) 0F H
I (c) F0 H
C (d) 10 H
T
100. When the program is being executed in an 8085 microprocessor, its program counter
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A contains
(a) The memory address of the instruction that is being currently executed
I
(b) The memory address of the instruction that is to be executed next
C (c) The number of instructions in the current program that have already been executed
(d) The total number of instructions in the program being executed
T
E 101. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
function (s+4)/(s2+7s +13) is
(a) 4/13
(b) 4/9
(c) 4
(d) 13
102. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t for t ≥ 0. The
transfer function of the system is
A
(a) 1/(1+2s)
I (b) 2/(2+s)
(c) 1/(2+s)
C (d) 2s/(1+2s)
T
103. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t , t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state
E value of the output for unit step input is equal to
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) Infinite
104. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will have (in
Z domain)
A (a) A simple pole
(b) Double pole on real axis
I (c) Double pole on imaginary axis
C (d) A pair of complex conjugate poles
T 105. The gain margin of the system G(s)H(s)=100/s(s+10)2 under closed loop unity negative
E feedback is
(a) 0 dB
(b) 20 dB
(c) 26 dB
(d) 46 dB
106. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the characteristic
polynomial are
(a) Real but not equal
A (b) Real and equal
I (c) Complex conjugates
(d) Imaginary
C
T
107. The final value theorem is used to find the
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ROLL NO.: UG2ELE17
A (a) Steady state value of the system output

(b) Initial value of the system output
I
(c) Transient behavior of the system output
C (d) None of these
T 108. Consider a feedback control system with loop transfer function
E G(s)H(s) = K(1+0.5s) /{s(1+s)(1+2s). the type of the closed loop system is
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
109. Consider a system with transfer function F(s)=(s+6)/Ks2+s+6). Its damping ratio will be
0.5 when the value of K is
(a) 2/6
A
(b) 3
I (c) 1/6
(d) 6
C
T 110. A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5 V. The system has a
forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of 1. What is the output voltage?
E (a) 1.0 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 2.0 V
(d) 2.5 V
111. The unit impulse response of a system is f(t)=e-t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state
value of the output for unit step input is equal to
(a) -1
A (b) 0
(c) 1
I (d) ∞
C
112. Assertion (A): Feedback control system offer more accurate control over open-loop
T systems.
E Reason (R): The feedback path establishes a link for input and output comparison and
subsequent error correction
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
113. A lead compensator network includes a parallel combination of R and C in the feed
forward path. If the transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s)=(s+2)/(s+4), the value of
A RC is
I (a) Zero
(b) 0.1
C (c) 0.5
T (d) 1
E
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A 114. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?
I
(a) -80 dB/decade
C (b) -40 dB/decade
(c) +40 dB/decade
T (d) +80 dB/decade
E
115. A PD controller is used to compensate a system. Compared to the uncompensated system,
the compensated system has
(a) A higher type number
(b) Reduced damping
(c) Higher noise amplification
(d) Largertransientovershoot
116. Let x(t)↔X(jω) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5t-3) in
A
terms of X(jω) is given as
I (a) 15e-j3ω/5X(jω/5)
(b) 15ej3ω/5 X(jω/5)
C (c) 15e-j3ωX(jω/5)
T (d) 15ej3ω X(jω/5)
E 117. Let g(t)=exp(-πt2) and h(t) is filter matched to g(t). if g(t) is applied as input to h(t), then
the Fourier transform of the output is
(a) exp(-πt2)
(b) exp(-πf2/2)
(c) exp(-π|f|)
(d) exp(-2πf2)
118. Let x(n)=(1/2)n u(n), y(n)=x2(n) and Y(ejω) be the Fourier Transform of y(n). then y(ej0) is
A (a) ¼
(b) 2
I (c) 4/3
C (d) 4
T 119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are
E (a) π, 2π
(b) 0.5 π, 1.5π
(c) 0, π
(d) 2π, 2.5π
120. Which of the following signal is non periodic

(a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t
(b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)
(c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt
A (d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Code 17-Paper 2
1 A 31 C 61 D 91 C
2 B 32 B 62 B 92 A
3 B 33 C 63 B 93 B
4 B 34 C 64 C 94 A
5 A 35 B 65 D 95 A
6 D 36 C 66 Marks to all 96 D
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 D
8 A 38 C 68 B 98 D
9 B 39 A 69 D 99 D
10 A 40 D 70 C 100 B
11 C 41 B 71 B 101 B
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 B
13 D 43 D 73 B 103 C
14 A 44 D 74 C 104 B
15 B 45 C 75 C 105 C
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 C
17 A 47 D 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 B 108 B
19 A 49 D 79 C 109 C
20 B 50 C 80 D 110 D
21 D 51 C 81 A 111 C
22 A 52 D 82 C 112 A
23 C 53 A 83 B 113 C
24 B 54 A 84 B 114 A
25 A 55 B 85 C 115 C
26 D 56 A 86 D 116 Marks to all
27 D 57 D 87 A 117 D
28 A 58 A 88 A 118 C
29 D 59 Marks to all 89 C 119 A
30 C 60 D 90 B 120 C
ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

A
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
E questions.
wrong answer.
I vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
C
E
1. The rms value of current in a wire which carries a dc current of 10A and a sinusoidal
alternating current of peak value 20A is
(a) 10A
(b) 14.14A
A (c) 15A
(d) 17.32A
I
2. The time constant of an RC connected to a dc source is equal to
C
(a) C/R
T (b) R/C
(c) CR
E (d) J/CR
3. If an ohmmeter reading immediately goes practically to zero and stays there while
checking a capacitor, the capacitor is
(a) Leaky
(b) Short-circuited
(c) Open circuited
(d) Satisfactory
A
4. For a two port reciprocal network the output open circuit voltage divided by the input
I current is equal to
C (a) B
(b) Z12
T (c) 1/Y12
(d) h12
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
5. The length of a Phasor in a Phasor diagram normally represents the____ value of the
A
alternating quantity
I (a) rms
(b) Average
C (c) Peak
(d) None
T
E 6. The ratio of effective value to average value is called ______ factor
(a) Form
(b) Peak
(c) Average
(d) Q-factor
7. The Phasor diagrams of alternating quantities can be drawn if they have _____ waves
(a) Rectangular
A (b) Sinusoidal
(c) Triangular
I
(d) Any of these
C
8. If the supply frequency of a purely inductive circuit is doubled, the circuit current will be
T (a) Halved
(b) Doubled
E (c) Same
(d) One fourth
9. In case of a delta connect load, if one resistor is removed the power will become
(a) 0
(b) 1/3rd
(c) 2/3rd
A (d) Same
I 10. On placing a dielectric in an electric field, the field strength

(a) Decreases
C
(b) Increases
T (c) Remains same
(d) Reduces to zero
E
11. The unit of polarization is same as that of
(a) Electric flux density D
(b) Electric intensity E
(c) Charge
(d) Dielectric flux
A 12. The electric field lines and equipotential lines

(a) Are parallel to each other
I (b) Are one and the same
(c) Cut each other orthogonally
C (d) Can be inclined to each other at any angle
T
13. Three capacitors each of breakdown voltage 500V are connected in parallel. The
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
breakdown rating of the combination will be

A
(a) 500V
I (b) 707V
(c) 1000V
C (d) 2500V
T 14. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is not affected by
E (a) Area of plates
(b) Thickness of plates
(c) Separation between plates
(d) Nature of dielectric
15. The magnetic materials exhibit the property of magnetization due to

(a) Spin of nucleus
(b) Spin of electrons
A (c) Orbital motion of electrons
I
C 16. Magnetic flux density emerging out of a closed surface is
(a) Infinite
T (b) Zero
(c) Dependent upon the magnetic movement inside the closed surface
E (d) None
17. Which of the following is a vector quantity

(a) Magnetic potential
(b) Susceptibility
(c) Magnetic field intensity
(d) Magnetic flux density
A
18. The amplitude of electric field intensity on the surface of a good conductor is E0. The
I amplitude of the field at a depth equal to the skin depth is
(a) 0
C
(b) 0.368E0
T (c) 0.5E0
(d) 0.736Eo
E
19. The unit of Poynting vector is
(a) Watt per metre square
(b) Joule per metre square
(c) Joule per metre cube
(d) Watt per metre cube
A 20. Transformer cores are laminated to reduce

(a) Eddy current loss
I (b) Hysteresis loss
(c) Both eddy current and hysteresis loss
C (d) Ohmic loss
T
21. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, then its output
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
voltage will be
A
(a) Zero
I (b) Sine wave
(c) Triangular wave
C (d) Pulsed wave
T 22. The leakage flux in a transformer depends on
E (a) Applied voltage
(b) Frequency
(c) Load current
(d) Mutual flux
23. If the iron core of a transformer is replaced by air core then the hysteresis losses in the
transformer will
(a) Increase
A (b) Decrease
(c) Remains unchanged
I
(d) Become zero
C
24. Which 3-phase connection can be used in a transformer to introduce a phase difference of
T 30o between its output and corresponding input line voltages
(a) Star-star
E (b) Star-delta
(c) Delta-delta
(d) Delta-zigzag
25. Primary or secondary winding of a 3-phase transformer in delta helps to suppress

(a) Third harmonic current
(b) Third harmonic voltage
A (c) Third harmonic flux
I
26. The utilization factor of a transformer in open delta is
C
(a) 0.75
T (b) 0.667
(c) 0.866
E (d) 0.5
27. In a dc machine the angle between the stator and rotor fields
(a) Dependent upon the load
(b) 45 degree
(c) 90 degree
(d) 180 degree
A
28. A four pole generator with 16 coils has a 2 layer lap winding the pole pitch is
I (a) 32
(b) 16
C (c) 8
(d) 4
T
29. The material used for brush is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
(a) Graphite
A
(b) Aluminium
I (c) Mica
(d) Wood
C
30. The type of dc generator used for arc welding purpose is a
T (a) Series generator
E (b) Shunt generator
(c) Cumulatively compound generator
(d) Differentially compound generator
31. If the applied voltage to a dc machine is 230V then the back emf for maximum power
developed is
(a) 115V
(b) 200V
A (c) 230V
(d) 460V
I
C 32. A dc shunt motor drives a load torque at rated voltage and rated excitation. If the load
torque is doubled the motor speed would
T (a) Increase slightly
(b) Decrease slightly
E (c) Become half
(d) Become double
33. In a dc machine which is operating in the saturated region, the armature reaction effect is
(a) Magnetizing only
(b) Demagnetizing only
(c) Cross magnetizing only
A (d) Cross magnetizing as well as demagnetizing
I 34. The machine that supplies dc to the rotor is called the

(a) Rectifier
C
(b) Exciter
T (c) Convertor
(d) Inverter
E
35. Smooth cylindrical rotors are usually designed for
(a) 2 or 4 poles
(b) 8 poles
(c) 12 poles
(d) 24 poles
A 36. Two mechanically coupled alternators deliver power at 50Hz and 60Hz respectively. The
highest speed of the alternator is
I (a) 3600rpm
(b) 3000rpm
C (c) 600rpm
(d) 500rpm
T
37. A leading pf load on an alternator implies that its voltage regulation shall be
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
(a) Positive
A
(b) Negative
I (c) Zero
(d) Any one of these
C
38. Which of the following methods is the best for determining the voltage regulation of the
T alternators?
E (a) EMF method
(b) MMF method
(c) Potier or zero of method
39. In which of the following motors, the stator and the rotor magnetic fields rotate at the
same speed
(a) Induction motors
A (b) Synchronous motors
(c) Universal motors
I
(d) Reluctance motors
C
40. The value of load angle for a synchronous motor depends mainly upon its
T (a) Excitation
(b) Load
E (c) Speed
(d) Supply voltage
41. An increase in supply voltage to a 3-phase synchronous motor will reduce

(a) Pull-in-torque
(b) Stator flux
(c) Both a and b
A (d) None of these
I 42. Variation in dc excitation of a synchronous motor causes variation in

(a) Speed of motor
C
(b) Power factor
T (c) Armature current
(d) Both b and c
E
43. Armature reaction in a synchronous motor at rated voltage and zero power factor lagging
is
(a) Cross-magnetizing
(b) Demagnetizing
(c) Magnetizing
(d) None of these
A
44. Starting torque of a synchronous motor is
I (a) Very low
(b) Zero
C (c) Very high
(d) Hall-full load torque
T
E
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45. An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10kW. The
A
power transferred inductively from the primary to secondary is
I (a) 10kW
(b) 8kW
C (c) 2kW
(d) Zero
T
E 46. Which of the following is preferred for automatic drives
(a) Synchronous motors
(c) Ward Leonard controlled dc motors
47. Which type of drive can be used for hoisting machinery

(a) AC slip ring motor
A (b) Ward Leonard controlled DC shunt motor
(c) DC compound motor
I
C
48. The motor normally used for crane travel is
T (a) AC slip ring motor
E (c) Synchronous motor
(d) DC differentially compound motor
49. When smooth and precise speed control over a wide range is desired, the motor preferred
is
A (c) Wound rotor induction motor
(d) DC motor
I
50. Stator voltage control for speed control of induction motors is suitable for
C
(a) Fan and pump drives
T (b) Drive of a crane
(c) Running it as generator
E (d) Constant load drive
51. The advantage of a synchronous motor in addition to its constant speed is

(a) High power factor
(b) Better efficiency
(c) Lower cost
A
52. In motor circuit static frequency changers are used for
I (a) Power factor improvement
(b) Improved cooling
C (c) Reversal of direction
(d) Speed regulation
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
A
53. In case of travelling cranes, the motor preferred for boom hoist is
I (a) AC slip ring motor
C (c) Synchronous motor
(d) Single phase motor
T
E 54. The characteristics of drive for crane hoisting and lowering is
(a) Smooth movement
(b) Precise control
(c) Fast speed control
55. Ward Leonard controlled DC drives are generally used for

(a) Light duty excavators
A (b) Medium duty excavators
(c) Heavy duty excavators
I
C
56. The use of a rectifier filter in a capacitor circuit gives satisfactory performance only when
T the loads
(a) Current is high
E (b) Current is low
(c) Voltage is high
(d) Voltage is low
57. Clamper circuits are known as

(a) AC restorers
(b) DC restorers
A (c) Voltage to frequency converters
(d) Sweep circuits
I
58. A single diode operates as a
C
(a) Full wave rectifier
T (b) Half wave rectifier
(c) Bridge rectifier
E (d) Non rectifier
59. In comparison with a common emitter amplifier, a common bas amplifier typically has
(a) Lower output impedance
(b) Lower input impedance
(c) Higher current gain
(d) Higher bandwidth
A
60. The small signal gain of the amplifier Vc/Vs is
I (a) -10
(b) -5.3
C (c) 5.3
(d) 10
T
E
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61. The first dominant pole encountered in the frequency response of a compensated op-amp
A
is approximately at
I (a) 5Hz
(b) 10kHz
C (c) 1MHz
(d) 100MHz
T
E 62. In a differential amplifier, CMRR can be improved by using an increased:
(a) Source resistance
(b) Collector resistance
(c) Power supply voltages
(d) Emitter resistance
63. To design an RC phase shift oscillator using a JFET, the absolute minimum amplification
factor of the JFET that will be required is
A (a) 3
(b) 17
I
(c) 23
C (d) 29
T 64. The Barkhausen criterion gives

(a) The condition of stability
E (b) The maximum gain for which there are no oscillations
(c) The phase shift required for oscillations
(d) The maximum feedback for a stable amplifier
65. For a wide range of oscillations in the audio range the preferred oscillator is
(a) Hartley
(b) Phase-shift
A (c) Wien bridge
(d) Hartley and colpitt
I
66. Crossover distortion behavior is characteristic of :
C
(a) Class A output stage
T (b) Class B output stage
(c) Class AB output stage
E (d) Common base output stage
67. Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases
(a) The mobility decreases
(b) The transconductance increases
(c) The drain current increases
(d) The mobility increases
A
68. The emitter follower configuration inherently has a
I (a) Current-series feedback
(b) Voltage-shunt feedback
C (c) Voltage-series feedback
(d) None of these
T
E
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69. The cascode amplifier is a multistage configuration of

A
(a) CC-CB
I (b) CE-CB
(c) CB-CC
C (d) CE-CC
T 70. In CE arrangements, the value of input impedance is approximately equal to
(a) hie
E (b) hoe
(c) hre
(d) None of these
71. An AC current is given as i=10+10sin314t. The average and rms values of current are
(a) 16.36A, 17.07A
A (b) 10A, 17.07A
(c) 10A,12.25A
I (d) 16.36A, 12.2A
C 72. The magnetic field energy of an inductor changes from maximum value to minimum value
in 5m sec when connected to an ac source, the frequency of the source is
T (a) 20Hz
(b) 50Hz
E
(c) 200Hz
(d) 500Hz
73. A 100W, 100V bulb is to be supplied from 220V, 50Hz supply. The pure inductance to be
connected in series with the bulb, so that it may carry the same current, will be
(a) 0.625H
(b) 120H
A (c) 0.382H
(d) 0.764H
I
74. The ratio of the readings of two wattmeter’s connected to measure power in a balanced 3-
C phase load is 5:3 and the load is inductive. The power factor of the load is
(a) 0.917 lead
T (b) 0.917 lag
(c) 0.6 lead
E
(d) 0.6 lag
75. The power factor of the RLC circuit at f = fLis
(a) 0.5 lead
(b) 0.707 lead
(c) 0.5 lag
(d) 0.707 lag
A 76. In a parallel RLC circuit, if L=4H, C=0.25F and R=40Ω, then the value of Q at resonance
I will be
(a) 1
C (b) 10
(c) 20
T (d) 40
E
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77. A 5MHz uniform plane wave travels in a perfect dielectric medium. The relative
A
permeability and relative permittivity of the medium are 1.0 and 4.0 respectively. The
I wavelength of the wave in the medium is
(a) 60 m
C (b) 60π m
(c) 30π m
T (d) 30 m
E
78. The magnetic flux density in air gap between two iron surfaces is Bg. the force between
the iron surfaces at this flux density is F. If the flux density is reduced to (3/4)Bg, the
decrease in force would be
(a) (3/4)F
(b) (7/16)F
(c) F/4
(d) (9/16)F
A
I 79. The total energy associated in a system of four identical charges of Q = 3nC at the corners
of 1m on a side, is approximately equal to
C (a) 292nJ
(b) 486nJ
T (c) 438nJ
(d) 1876nJ
E
80. A 400/200 V transformer has total resistance of 0.02 p.u. on its L.V. side. The resistance
when referred to H.V. side would be
(a) 0.02
(b) 0.04
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.08
A
81. The hysteresis and eddy current loss of a single phase transformer working on 200V, 50Hz
I supply are Phand Pe respectively. The percentage decrease in these, when operated on
160V, 40Hz supply are
C (a) 32,36
(b) 20,36
T (c) 25,50
E (d) 40,80
82. A single phase transformer has p.u. leakage impedance of 0.02 + j0.04 Ω. Its regulation at
a power factor of 0.8 lagging and 0.8 leading are respectively
(a) 4%, 0.8%
(b) 4%,-0.8%
(c) 2.4%, -0.8%
(d) 4%,-1%
A
83. A 3-phase delta-star transformer has secondary to primary turns ratio per phase of 5. For a
I primary line current of 10A, the secondary line current would be
(a) 2A
C (b) 3.464A
T (c) 1.633A
(d) 1.155A
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84. To eliminate the fifth harmonic a short pitched coil should have a short pitching angle of
A
(a) 36º
I (b) 18º
(c) 15º
C (d) 12º
T 85. A 240V dc series motor takes 40A when giving its rated output at 1500rpm. Its resistance
E is 0.3Ω. the value of resistance which must be added to obtain rated torque at 1000rpm is
(a) 6Ω
(b) 5.7Ω
(c) 2.2Ω
(d) 1.9Ω
86. An 8 pole single phase induction motor is running at 690rpm. What is its slip with respect
to forward and backward fields respectively?
A (a) 0.08,2.0
(b) 0.08,1.92
I
(c) 1.92,0.08
C (d) 2.0,0.08
T 87. To eliminate the fifth harmonic from the emf generated in an alternator, the pitch fraction
will be:
E (a) 4/5
(b) 5/4
(c) 5/6
(d) 6/5
88. For a 3-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz synchronous motor the frequency, the pole number and the
load torque are all halved. The motor speed will be
A (a) 375rpm
(b) 75rpm
I (c) 1500rpm
(d) 3000rpm
C
T 89. The rotor power output of 3-phase IM is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The
rotor ohmic loss will be
E (a) 600W
(b) 625W
(c) 650W
(d) 700W
90. A 3-phase SCIM with an applied voltage of 40% gives a black rotor current of 240%. Its
full load slip is 0.05 per unit starting torques with direct-on-line starter and auto-
A transformer with 50% tapping are respectively given by
(a) 0.9,0.45
I (b) 0.9,0.225
(c) 1.8,0.9
C (d) 1.8,0.45
T
91. When the supply voltage to a 3-phase SCIM is reduced by 20%, the maximum torque will
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
decrease by
A
(a) 10%
I (b) 20%
(c) 36%
C (d) 40%
T 92. A 3-phase alternator generates an open circuit voltage of 4000V per phase when exciting
E current is 50A; the short-circuit current for the same excitation being 800A. The
synchronous reactance per phase is
(a) 80Ω
(b) 5Ω
(c) 15Ω
(d) 2Ω
93. In a half-wave rectifier with shunt capacitance filter, if an a.c. supply is 60Hz, then what is
A the a.c. ripple at output?
(a) 30Hz
I
(b) 60Hz
C (c) 120Hz
(d) 15Hz
T
94. In a full-wave rectifier, if a.c. supply frequency is 50Hz, then a.c. ripple in output is
E (a) 100Hz
(b) 25Hz
(c) 50Hz
(d) 75Hz
95. A CE amplifier has RL=1000Ω and RE=100Ω and hfe= 99 and hie=1000Ω, the input
resistance Ri is given approximately by
A (a) 100 ohm
(b) 1000 ohm
I (c) 10 k ohm
(d) 11 k ohm
C
T 96. The voltage gains of an amplifier without feedback and with negative feedback
respectively are 100 and 20. The percentage of negative feedback (β) would be
E (a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 20%
(d) 80%
97. The range of electric motor used for rolling mills is of the order of
(a) 10 to 25kW
A (b) 25 to 85kW
(c) 85 to 400kW
I (d) 400 to 1000kW
C
T
98. The range of horse power of electric motor drives for rolling mills is of the order of
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18
(a) 1 to 10 HP
A
(b) 15 to 25 HP
I (c) 50 to 100 HP
(d) 100 to 500 HP
C
99. Motors preferred for rolling mill drive is
T (a) DC motors
E (b) AC slip ring motors with speed control
(c) Any of the above
100. A synchronous motor is found to be more economical when the load is above
(a) 1kW
(b) 10kW
(c) 20kW
A (d) 100kW
I PART –C
C
T
E

A (d) Determinant of an orthogonal matrix is ±1
I 103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then 𝑎
C is equal to
1 1 1
T (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
A 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
C
T 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EEE18

A
I
C
𝑙
T 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
E 𝑘 𝑙−𝑥 ; ≤𝑥≤𝑙
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

C
T (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
A
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
I
C ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2
T
E (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
A
I 3 𝑑𝑥 3𝑥 𝑑𝑥
C 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
T
E
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A 1
I (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥
C
T balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the ball is
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

A
I eigenvalue is
C 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
T
E
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
A
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
I
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 16 of 16
UG ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
Code 18-Paper 1
1 D 31 A 61 C 91 D
2 C 32 C 62 D 92 B
3 B 33 D 63 D 93 D
4 B 34 B 64 A 94 A
5 A 35 A 65 C 95 B
6 A 36 A 66 B 96 B
7 B 37 B 67 A 97 C
8 A 38 C 68 C 98 D
9 B 39 B 69 B 99 C
10 A 40 B 70 A 100 D
11 A 41 D 71 C 101 A
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 C
13 A 43 B 73 A 103 A
14 B 44 B 74 B 104 D
15 B 45 A 75 D 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 B 106 A
17 A 47 B 77 D 107 A
18 B 48 A 78 C 108 B
19 A 49 C 79 Marks to all 109 D
20 A 50 A 80 D 110 B
21 D 51 A 81 B 111 D
22 C 52 D 82 C 112 B
23 D 53 A 83 D 113 B
24 B 54 D 84 A 114 B
25 D 55 C 85 D 115 B
26 C 56 C 86 C 116 C
27 C 57 B 87 A 117 B
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 C
29 A 59 B 89 B 119 B
30 D 60 Marks to all 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

A
PAPER-II
C
Instructions:
T i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
E ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
wrong answer.
A vii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
I
C
E 1. How many time base circuits does a dual trace CRO has
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
2. The principle of operation of an LVDT is based on variation of

A (a) Self-inductance
(b) Mutual inductance
I (c) Reluctance
(d) Permeance
C
3. The input impedance of CRO is nearly
T (a) Zero
E (b) Around 10 ohms
(c) Around 100 ohms
(d) Around 1 Mega ohms
4. Which one of the following has the highest accuracy ?

(a) Standard resistance
(b) Standard inductance
(c) Standard capacitance
A (d) Standard mutual inductance
I 5. Which meter has the highest accuracy
(a) PMMC
C (b) Moving iron
T (c) Electro-dynamo meter
(d) Rectifier
E
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6. In microwave telemetry, repeater stations are required at every

A
(a) 2km
I (b) 5km
(c) 40km
C (d) 100km
T 7. Schering bridge can be used to measure
E (a) Capacitance and its power factor
(b) ‘Q’ of a coil
(c) Inductance and its ‘Q’ value
(d) Very small resistance
8. Pair of active transducer is

(a) Thermistor, solar cell
(b) Thermocouple, thermistor
A (c) Thermocouple, solar cell
(d) Solar cell, LVDT
I
C 9. When testing a coil having a resistance of 10 ohm, resonance occurred when the oscillator
frequency was 10MHz and the rotating capacitor was set at 500/2πpF. The effective value
T of the Q of the coil is
(a) 20
E (b) 254
(c) 314
(d) 542
10. A first order instrument is characterized by

(a) Time constant only
(b) Static sensitivity and time constant
A (c) Static sensitivity and damping coefficient
(d) Static sensitivity, damping coefficient and natural frequency of oscillations
I
11. The minimum number of wattmeter (s) required to measure 3-phase, 3-wire balanced and
C unbalanced power is
T (a) 1
(b) 2
E (c) 3
(d) 4
12. The sensitivity of voltmeter using 0 to 5 mA meter movement is

(a) 50 ohm/V
(b) 100 ohm/V
(c) 200 ohm/V
A (d) 500 ohm/V
I 13. As the transmission line voltage increases, the volume of conductor

(a) Increases
C (b) Decreases
(c) Will not change
T (d) Will increase proportionately
E
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14. Which of the following power plant has the maximum efficiency
A
(a) Thermal power plant
I (b) Hydroelectric power plant
(c) Atomic reactor
C (d) MHD
T 15. The power intended to be available even under emergency condition is called
E (a) Firm power
(b) Hot reserve
(c) Cold reserve
(d) Spinning reserve
16. If the height of the transmission tower is decreased, the inductance of the line will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
A (c) Remain same
(d) Increase exponentially
I
C 17. The voltage regulation is an important factor for the design of
(a) Generator
T (b) Motor
(c) Feeder
E (d) Transmission line
18. Which of the parameters can be neglected while calculating the transmission line faults?
(a) Reactance
(b) Resistance
(c) Capacitance
(d) Inductance
A
19. The frequency of the power system controls the
I (a) Active power
(b) Reactive power
C (c) (a) and (b) both
T (d) None of them
E 20. The difference between sending end voltage and receiving end voltage of transmission
line controls
(a) Active power
(b) Frequency
(c) Reactive power
(d) None of these
A 21. Which of the following insulators will be selected for high voltage application?
(a) Strain type
I (b) Disk type
(c) Suspension type
C (d) Pintype
T
E
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22. To generate electric power from sea water, the more advantageous method is
A
(a) Tidal wave
I (b) Wave power
(c) Ocean currents
C (d) Wind power
T 23. Turbo-alternators usually have
E (a) 2 poles
(b) 6 poles
(c) 10 poles
(d) 16 poles
24. Bundled conductors are used for EHV transmission lines primarily for reducing the
(a) Coronal loss
(b) Surge impedance of the line
A (c) voltage drop across the line
(d) I2 R losses
I
C 25. A synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus bar and is initially operating at a
lag p.f. If the steam input to the alternator is increased
T (a) The p.f. of the alternator improves
(b) Reactive power decreases
E (c) The frequency increases
(d) Both a and b
26. The coefficient of reflection for current of an open-ended line is

(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
A (d) Zero
I 27. In the case of a HVDC system, there is

(a) Charging current but no skin effect
C (b) No charging current but skin effect
T (c) Neither charging current nor skin effect
(d) Both charging current and skin effect
E
28. The critical value of surge impedance of long transmission line is
(a) 50 ohm
(b) 500 ohm
(c) 75 ohm
(d) 1000 ohm
A 29. Admittance relay is

(a) The directional relay
I (b) The none directional relay
(c) The impedance relay
C (d) None of the above
T
E
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30. The effect of series capacitor on a transmission line is to improve

A
(a) The steady stability
I (b) The transient stability
(c) Both a and b
C (d) None
T 31. The capacitor voltage transformer is used
E (a) Upto 11kV
(b) Upto 33kV
(c) Above 220kV
(d) Above 132kV
32. Which of the following relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line
(a) Impedance relay
(b) Reactance relay
A (c) MHO relay
(d) Induction type relay
I
C 33. The protection from negative sequence currents is provided for
(a) Transformers
T (b) Generators
(c) Transmission lines
E (d) Motors
34. The lightening arrester acts as

(a) Surge diverter
(b) Surge coil
(c) Surge absorber
(d) Surge reflector
A
35. The power loss is very important factor for designing the
I (a) Feeder
(b) Transmission line
C (c) Motor
T (d) Generator
E 36. The convergence characteristics of the Newton-Rophson method for solving a load flow
problem is
(a) Quadratic
(b) Linear
(c) Geometric
(d) Cubic
A 37. In Merz Price percentage differential protection of a Δ/Y transformer, the CT secondary’s
connection in the primary and secondary windings of the transformer would be in the
I form of
(a) Δ/Y
C (b) Y/Δ
(c) Δ/Δ
T (d) Y/Y
E
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38. Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system networks?
A
(a) Bus incidence matrix
I (b) Primitive impedance matrix
(c) Primitive admittance matrix
C (d) Bus impedance matrix
T 39. The flip- flop circuit is
E (a) Unstable
(b) Multistable
(c) monostable
(d) Bistable
40. Which of the following memories uses 1 transistor and 1 capacitor as basic memory unit
(a) SRAM
(b) DRAM
A (c) Both SRAM and DRAM
(d) None
I
C 41. Dynamic memory cells are constructed using
(a) FETs
T (b) MOSFETs
(c) Flip-flops
E (d) Transistors
42. Which one of the following is not a vectored interrupt

(a) TRAP
(b) RST 7.5
(c) RST 6.5
(d) INTR.
A
43. Queue is also known as
I (a) FIFO memory
(b) LIFO memory
C (c) Flash memory
T (d) LILO memory
E 44. Semiconductor memories are

(a) Non volatile, small size
(b) Volatile, small size
(c) Volatile
(d) Non volatile
45. How many outputs would two 8-line to 3-line encoders , expanded to a 16-line to 4-line
A encoder, have
(a) 3
I (b) 4
(c) 5
C (d) 6
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
46. What is another name for a one shot

A
(a) Mono stable
I (b) Multivibrator
(c) Bistable
C (d) Astable
T 47. One example of the use of an S-R flip-flop is as a(n)
E (a) Racer
(b) Astable oscillator
(c) Binary storage register
(d) Transistor pulse generator
48. According to Boolean algebra 1+A+B+C=

(a) A+B+C
(b) ABC
A (c) 1+ABC
(d) 1
I
C 49. Gray code for 1101 is given by
(a) 1111
T (b) 1011
(c) 1001
E (d) 0101
50. How many different values (signed decimal) can be represented in a byte?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 255
(d) 256
A
51. Subtract (3A5)16 from (592)16
I (a) AED
(b) EAD
C (c) 1DE
T (d) 1ED
E 52. Which one of the following will give the sum of full- adder as output
(a) 3 input majority circuit
(b) 3 bit parity checker
(c) 3 bit comparator
(d) 3 bit counter
53. The transfer function of a linear system is the

A (a) Ratio of the output Vo(t) and Vi(t)
(b) Ratio of the derivatives of the output and the input
I (c) Ratio of the Laplace transform of the output and that of the input with all initial
conditions zeros
C (d) None of these
T 54. A system has 14 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
having a slope of
A
(a) -40dB/decade
I (b) -240dB/decade
(c) -280dB/decade
C (d) -320dB/decade
T 55. The open loop transfer function of a feedback control system is G(s).H(s)=1/(s+1)3 . The
E gain margin of the system is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
56. Non minimum phase transfer function is defined as the transfer function
(a) Which has zero in the right- half s-plane
A (b) Which has zero only in the left-half s-plane
(c) Which has poles in the right-half s- plane
I
(d) Which has poles in the left-half s-plane
C
57. The Nyqist plot of a loop transfer function G(jω)H(jω) of a system encloses the (-1,j0)
T point. The gain margin of the system is
(a) Less than zero
E (b) zero
(c) Greater than zero
(d) Infinity
58. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz ,1Hz and 80 Hz :zero at 5Hz , 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The
approximate phase of the system response at 20Hz is
(a) -90º
A (b) 0º
(c) 90º
I (d) -180º
C 59. The phase margin (in degrees) of a system having the loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=(2
T √3)/(s(s+1)) is
(a) 45º
E (b) -30º
(c) 60º
(d) 30º
60. The phase margin of a system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=(1-
s)/((1+s)(2+s))
(a) 0º
A (b) 63.4 º
(c) 90º
I (d) Infinite
C
T
E
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61. The gain margin for the system with open-loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=2(1+s)/s2 is
A
(a) Infinite
I (b) 0
(c) 1
C (d) -infinite
T 62. Consider a characteristic equation given by s4 + 3s3 +5s2 + 6s + K + 10=0. The condition
E for stability is
(a) K>5
(b) -10<K
(c) K>-4
(d) -10<K<-4
63. A casual system having the transfer function G(s)=1/(s+2) is excited with 10u(t). The
time at which the output reaches 99% of its steady value is
A (a) 2.7 sec
(b) 2.5 sec
I
(c) 2.3 sec
C (d) 2.1 sec
T 64. The transfer function of a plant is G(s)=5/(s+5)(s2+s+1). The second order approximation
of T(s) using dominant pole concept is
E (a) 1/(s+5)(s+1)
(b) 5/(s+5)(s+1)
(c) 5/(s2+s+1)
(d) 1/(s2+s+1)
65. If the characteristic equation of a closed-loop system is s2+2s+2=0, then the system is
(a) Overdamped
A (b) Critically damped
(c) Under damped
I (d) Undamped
C 66. Signal flow graph is used to obtain
T (a) Stability of a system
(b) Transfer function of a system
E (c) Controllability of a system
(d) Observability of a system
67. The phase lead compensation used to

(a) Increase rise time and decrease overshoot
(b) Decrease both rise time and overshoot
(c) Increase both rise time and overshoot
A (d) Decrease rise time and increase overshoot
I 68. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of

(a) Higher signal amplitudes
C (b) Lower signal amplitudes
(c) Lower signal frequencies
T (d) Higher signal frequencies
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
69. The Fourier transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always

A
(a) Imaginary
I (b) Conjugate anti-symmetric
(c) Real
C (d) Conjugate symmetric
T 70. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is
E (a) Uniform
(b) A sine function
(c) Gaussian
(d) An impulse function
71. The Fourier transform of a voltage signal x(t) is X(f). The unit of │X(f)│is
(a) Volt
(b) Volt-sec
A (c) Volt/sec
(d) Volt2
I
C 72. If a signal f(t) has energy E, the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to
(a) E
T (b) E/2
(c) 2E
E (d) 4E
73. Two systems with impulse responses h1(t) and h2(t) are connected in cascade. Then the
overall impulse response of the cascaded system is given by
(a) Product of h1(t) and h2(t)
(b) Sum of h1(t) and h2(t)
(c) Convulsion of h1(t) and h2(t)
A (d) Subtraction of h2(t) from h1(t)
I 74. A band limited signal is sampled at the Nyquist rate. The signal can be recovered by
passing the samples through
C (a) An RC filter
T (b) An envelope detector
(c) A PLL
E (d) An ideal low pass filter with the appropriate bandwidth
75. Flattop sampling of low pass signals

(a) Gives rise to aperture effect
(b) Implies over sampling
(c) Leads to aliasing
(d) Introducing delay distortion
A
76. Increased pulse width in the flattop sampling leads to
I (a) Attenuation of high frequencies in reproduction
(b) Attenuation of low frequencies in reproduction
C (c) Greater aliasing errors in reproduction
(d) No harmful effects in reproduction
T
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77. The region of convergence of the z transform of a unit step function is

A
(a) |z|>1
I (b) |z|<1
(c) (real part of z)>0
C (d) (real part of z)<0
T 78. A linear discrete time system has the characteristic equation, z3-0.81z=0. The system
E (a) is stable
(b) is marginally stable
(c) is unstable
(d) stability cannot be assessed from the given information
79. Choose the function f(t), -∞<t<∞, for which a Fourier series cannot be defined
(a) 3sin(25t)
(b) 4cos(20t+3) + 2 sin(710t)
A (c) exp(-|t|) sin(25t)
(d) 1
I
C 80. If Eb, the energy per bit of a binary digital signal is 10-5Watt-sec and the one-sided power
spectral density of the white noise, N0=10-6 W/Hz, then the output SNR of the matched
T filter is
(a) 26 DB
E (b) 10 DB
(c) 20 DB
(d) 13 DB
81. An average response rectifier type electronic AC voltmeter has a DC voltage of 10V
A applied to it. The meter reading will be
(a) 7.1V
I (b) 10.0V
(c) 11.1V
C (d) 22.2V
T
82. An energy meter having a meter constant of 1200 revolutions per kWh is found to make 5
E revolutions in 75s. The load power is
(a) 500W
(b) 100W
(c) 200W
(d) 1000W
83. The energy capacity of a storage battery is rated in

A (a) kWh
(b) kW
I (c) Ampere hours
(d) Joules
C
T 84. A rectifier instrument is used to measure an alternating square wave of amplitude 100V.
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
what is the meter reading?

A
(a) 100V
I (b) 70.7V
(c) 111V
C (d) None of these
T 85. What is the range for a 3 ½ digital meter
E (a) 0 to 1999
(b) 0 to 1500
(c) 0 to 999
(d) 0 to 19999
86. The meter constant of a single phase 240V induction watt hour meter is 400 revolutions
per kWh. The speed of the meter disc for the current of 10A at 0.8 p.f. lagging will be
(a) 12.8 rpm
A (b) 16.02 rpm
(c) 18.2 rpm
I
(d) 21.1 rpm
C
87. A high frequency AC signal is applied to a PMMC instrument. If the rms value of the AC
T signal is 2V, then the reading of the instrument will be
(a) Zero
E (b) 2V
(c) 2 √2 V
(d) 4 √2 V
88. If the reading of the two watt meters are equal and positive in two-wattmeter method, the
load pf in a balanced 3-phase-3-wire circuit will be
(a) Zero
A (b) 0.5
(c) 0.866
I (d) Unity
C 89. An AC voltmeter using full wave rectification and having a sinusoidal input has an AC
T sensitivity equal to
(a) 1.414 times DC sensitivity
E (b) DC sensitivity
(c) 0.90 times DC sensitivity
(d) 0.707 times DC sensitivity
90. A wattmeter has a range of 100W with an error of ± 1% of full scale deflection. If the true
power passed through it is 100W then the relative error would be
(a) ± 10 %
A (b) ± 5%
(c) ± 1%
I (d) ± 0.5%
C
91. The resistance of a thermistor is 5000Ω at 20 ºC and its resistance temperature coefficient
T is 0.04/ºC. A measurement with a lead resistance of 10 Ω will cause an error of
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
(a) 0.05 ºC
A
(b) 0.1 ºC
I (c) 0.4 ºC
(d) 0.8 ºC
C
92. A 150mA meter has accuracy of ±2 %. Its accuracy while reading 75 mA will be
T (a) ± 1%
E (b) ± 2%
(c) ± 4%
(d) ± 20%
93. A generating station has a maximum demand of 30 MW, a load factor of 60% and plant
capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is
(a) 5 MW
(b) 4 MW
A (c) 6 MW
(d) 10 MW
I
C 94. The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA. The
impedance value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 MVA is
T (a) 0.15 pu
(b) 0.2 pu
E (c) 0.3 pu
(d) 2.4 pu
95. A 100 km transmission line is designed for a nominal voltage of 132 kV and consists of 1
conductor per phase. The line reactance is 0.726 Ω/km. The static transmission capacity
of the line, in MW would be
(a) 132
A (b) 240
(c) 416
I (d) 720
C 96. A string insulator has 5 units. The voltage across the bottom most unit is 25% of the total
T voltage. The string efficiency is
(a) 25%
E (b) 50%
(c) 80%
(d) 75%
97. The surge impedance of a 3-phase, 400 kV transmission line is 400 Ω. The surge
impedance loading (SIL) is
(a) 400 MW
A (b) 100 MW
(c) 1600 MW
I (d) 200 MW
C 98. The insulation resistance of a single core cable is 200 MΩ/km. The insulation resistance
for 5 km length is
T (a) 40 M Ω
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
(b) 1000 M Ω
A
(c) 200 M Ω
I (d) 8 M Ω
C 99. The velocity of travelling wave through a cable of relative permittivity 9 is

(a) 9 x 108 m/s
T (b) 3 x 108 m/s
E (c) 108 m/s
(d) 2 x 108 m/s
100. A 3-phase transmission line of negligible resistance and capacitance has an inductive
reactance of 100 Ω per phase. When the sending end and receiving end voltages are
maintained at 110 kV, the maximum power that can be transmitted will be
(a) 121 MW
(b) 121√3 MW
A (c) 263 MW
(d) 363 kW
I
C 101. For a given base voltage and base volt amperes, the per unit impedance value of an
element is x. The per unit impedance value of this element when the voltage and volt
T amperes bases are both doubled will be
(a) 0.5x
E (b) x
(c) 2x
(d) 4x
102. In a 400 kV network, 360 kV is recorded at 400 kV bus. The reactive power absorbed by
a shunt reactor rated for 50 MVAR, 40kV connected at the bus is
(a) 61.73 MVAR
A (b) 55.56 MVAR
(c) 45 MVAR
I (d) 40.5 MVAR
C 103. An alternator of 300 kW is driven by a prime mover of speed 4% and another alternator
T of 220 kW driven by a prime mover of speed regulation 3%. The total load they can take
is
E (a) 500 kW
(b) 567 kW
(c) 425 kw
(d) 257 kW
104. Four identical alternators each rated for 20MVA, 11 kV having a subtransient reactance
of 16% are working in parallel. The short circuit level at the bus-bars is
A (a) 500MVA
(b) 400 MVA
I (c) 125 MVA
(d) 80 MVA
C
105. If the fault current is 300 A, for an I.D.M.T. relay with a plug setting of 50% and C.T.
T ratio of 400/5, the plug setting multiplier would be
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
(a) 7.5
A
(b) 15.0
I (c) 18.75
(d) 37.5
C
106. The zero sequence current of a generator for line to ground is j2.4 p.u. Then the current
T through the neutral during the fault is
E (a) j2.4 p.u.
(b) j0.8 p.u.
(c) j7.2 p.u.
(d) j0.24 p.u.
107. In a 220 kV system, the inductance and capacitance up to the circuit breaker location are
25 mH and 0.025 µF respectively. The value of resistor required to be connected across
the breaker contacts which will give no transient oscillations, is
A (a) 25 Ω
(b) 250 Ω
I
(c) 500 Ω
C (d) 1000 Ω
T 108. An overhead line with a surge impedance of 400 Ω is connected to a transformer by short
length of cable of surge impedance 100 Ω. If a rectangular surge wave of 40 kV travels
E along the line towards the cable, then the voltage of the wave travelling from the junction
of the overhead line through the cable towards the transformer would be
(a) 16 kV
(b) 32 kV
(c) 30 kV
(d) 36 kV
A 109. 2’s compliment of 10101011 is

(a) 01010101
I (b) 00111100
(c) 10101011
C (d) 10101100
T
110. Which of the following represents the decimal form of binary 0.0111
E (a) 0.1600
(b) 0.2728
(c) 0.4375
(d) 0.7964
111. (1001-10) is equal to

(a) (8)10
A (b) (7)4
(c) (7)10
I (d) (8)4
C
112. In octal system the value of 25 is
T (a) 20
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
(b) 40
A
(c) 200
I (d) 400
C 113. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
T (a) 4/13
E (b) 4/9
(c) 4
(d) 13
114. The unit step response of a system starting from rest is given by x(t)=1-e-2t for t ≥ 0. The
transfer function of the system is
(a) 1/(1+2s)
(b) 2/(2+s)
A (c) 1/(2+s)
(d) 2s/(1+2s)
I
C 115. The unit impulse response of a system is h(t)=e-t , t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state
T (a) -1
(b) 0
E (c) 1
(d) Infinite
116. A critically damped, continuous- time, second order system, when sampled, will have (in
Z domain)
(a) A simple pole
(b) Double pole on real axis
A (c) Double pole on imaginary axis
(d) A pair of complex conjugate poles
I
117. For a second order system, damping ratio (ξ) is 0<ξ<1 , then the roots of the characteristic
C polynomial are
T (a) Real but not equal
(b) Real and equal
E (c) Complex conjugates
(d) Imaginary
118. The final value theorem is used to find the

(a) Steady state value of the system output
(b) Initial value of the system output
(c) Transient behavior of the system output
A (d) None of these
I
C
119. Two of the angular frequencies at which its Fourier transform becomes zero are
T (a) π, 2π
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ROLL NO.: UG2EEE18
(b) 0.5 π, 1.5π

A
(c) 0, π
I (d) 2π, 2.5π
C 120. Which of the following signal is non periodic

(a) S(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t
T (b) S(t)=exp(j8πt)
E (c) S(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt
(d) S(t)= cos2t cos4t
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG ELECTRICAL & ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
Code 18-Paper 2
1 B 31 C 61 B 91 A
2 B 32 B 62 D 92 A
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 C
4 A 34 C 64 D 94 A
5 C 35 A 65 B 95 C
6 C 36 A 66 A 96 C
7 A 37 B 67 B 97 A
8 C 38 A 68 A 98 B
9 A 39 D 69 C 99 C
10 B 40 B 70 C 100 A
11 B 41 B 71 B 101 A
12 C 42 D 72 B 102 D
13 B 43 A 73 C 103 C
14 B 44 A, B, C, D 74 D 104 A
15 A 45 A 75 A 105 A
16 C 46 A 76 A 106 C
17 A 47 C 77 A 107 C
18 B 48 A 78 A 108 A
19 A 49 C 79 C 109 A
20 C 50 D 80 D 110 Marks to all
21 B 51 D 81 C 111 C
22 A 52 A 82 C 112 B
23 A 53 C 83 C 113 B
24 A 54 C 84 D 114 B
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 C
26 B 56 A, C 86 A 116 B
27 C 57 A 87 A 117 C
28 B 58 A 88 D 118 A
29 A 59 D 89 C 119 A
30 C 60 D 90 C 120 C
ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-I
Instructions:
questions.
A ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q1 to Q. 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
I iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each and Q111 to Q120
C of 2 (two) marks each.
T wrong answer.
I PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)

C 1. A uniform solid body weighs 50 N in air and 30 N in water when fully submerged. What is
T its specific gravity?
a) 1.5
E b) 1.67
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
2. Bernoulli equation is applicable for:

A a) Steady, rotational flow
b) Steady, rotational, compressible flow
I c) Steady, irrotational, incompressible flow
C d) Unsteady, irrotational, incompressible flow
T 3. A floating body will always be stable when its

a) Centre of gravity is above the centre of buoyancy
E
b) Centre of buoyancy is below the waterline
c) Metacentre is above the centre of buoyancy
d) Metacentre is above the centre of gravity
4. In steady flow of incompressible fluid, as the diameter of the circular pipe is doubled, the
A velocity will
I a) Be halved
b) Be doubled
C c) Increase four fold
T d) Decrease four fold
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
5. A jet of water 3 cm in diameter strikes normal to a plate. If the force required to hold the
plate is 23 N, what is the jet velocity
a) 2.85 m/s
b) 5.7 m/s
c) 8.1 m/s
d) 4.0 m/s
A
6. If 𝜓=3x2y-y3. The values u and v are
I a) 6xy, 3x2-3y2
b) 3x2-3y2, 6xy
C
c) (3x2-3y2), - 6xy
T d) 3y2-3x2, 6xy
E 7. The range of coefficient of discharge for orifice meter is:

a) 0.6 to 0.7
b) 0.70 to 0.85
c) 0.85 to 0.92
d) 0.92 to 0.98
A
8. The friction factor in laminar flow in a pipe was measured as 0.05. The Reynolds number
I
should be around
C a) 1280
b) 1000
T c) 640
E d) 2000
9. Equation for free vortex is

a) vr = constant
b) v=r𝜔
A c) v+r𝜔 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
d) v-r𝜔 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
I
10. Velocity potentials lines and stream lines are
C
a) Inclined at 450
T b) orthogonal
c) parallel
E d) do not intersect
11. Separation in the boundary layer fluid flow is due to

a) favorable pressure gradient
b) zero pressure gradient
A c) adverse pressure gradient
d) surface roughness
I
C
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
12. In ideal fluid, shear stress is

a) maximum
b) minimum
c) equal to pressure difference
d) zero
A 13. Brayton cycle constitute of

a) Isentropic compression/expansion, constant volume heat addition/rejection
I b) Isentropic compression/expansion, constant pressure heat addition/rejection
c) Isothermal compression/expansion, constant volume heat addition/rejection
C
d) Isothermal compression/expansion, constant pressure heat addition/rejection
T
14. Brayton cycle efficiency increases with
E a) Decrease in pressure ratio
b) Decrease in compression ratio
c) Increase in pressure ratio
d) Increase in volumetric ratio
A 15. Efficiency of the Brayton cycle is a function of

a) Pressure ratio
I
b) Pressure ratio and 𝛾
C c) Pressure ratio and temperature ratio
d) Pressure ratio and exit temperature
T
E 16. Intercooler helps in achieving the
a) Isentropic compression
b) Isothermal compression
c) Polytrophic compression
A
17. The power output of the gas turbine is increased by
I a) Regeneration
b) Reheating
C c) Re-cooling
T d) All of the above
E 18. When a regenerative heat exchanger is added to the simple ideal cycle
a) Power output increases and efficiency decreases
b) Power output decreases and efficiency increases
c) Power output remains same and efficiency increases
d) Power output remains same and efficiency decreases
A
19. For the fixed values of minimum and maximum temperatures, the network of the Brayton
I
cycle
C a) Remain constant
b) Initially decreases and then increases
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
c) Initially increases and then decreases

20. A vibration system has a frequency of 100 Hz. The time period of oscillation is
a) 1 milli second
b) 10 milli second
A c) 3.14 milli second
d) The data is in sufficient to determine
I
21. A mass of 1 kg is supported by a spring with a stiffness of 10 kN/m. The natural frequency
C
of vibration in rad/sec is
T a) 10 rad/ sec
b) 31.4 rad/ sec
E c) 6.28 rad/ sec
d) 3.14 rad/ sec
22. A spring mass damper system has a natural frequency of 100 Hz, damping ratio of 0.1. The
system will be oscillating at a damped natural frequency of
A a) 100 Hz
b) 10 Hz
I
c) 99.9 Hz
C d) 99.5 Hz
T 23. A spring mass damper system oscillated with an initial disturbance. The ratio of two
E consecutive amplitudes is 2.72. Calculate the logarithmic decrement
a) 10
b) 1
c) 2.72
d) 0.434
A
24. A spring mass damper system, a mass 1 kg is supported by a spring of 100 N/m and a
I damper. What is the damper value in N/(m/s) if the system is critically damped?
a) 20
C b) 10
T c) 100
d) 1/100
E
25. In a un-damped forced vibration resonance occurs when
a) Applied force become zero
b) Frequency of external force equals to natural frequency of the system
c) When magnitude of external force is becoming very large
A d) When the external force frequency become infinity
I
26. A two degree of freedom vibration system can have ______natural frequencies
C a) One
b) Two
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
c) Four
d) Infinite
27. A string is tied between two fixed supports. The string can have______number of natural
frequencies
a) One
A b) Two
c) Four
I d) Infinite
C
28. Dunkerley method is used to determine
T a) Amplitude of vibration if an external force is applied
b) Mode shapes and natural frequencies of a vibrating system
E c) Damping coefficient in machines
d) Stiffness of mechanical springs
29. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the axial stress is an axially loaded uniform rod is:
a) 0
A b) 0.25
c) 0.5
I
d) 1
C
30. The range of values of Poisson’s ratio is:
T a) 0 – 0.5
E b) -1 – 0.5
c) 0 - 1
d) -1 – 1
31. The predominant mode of deformation in a helical spring under compression is:
a) Axial Compression
A
b) Bending
I c) Direct Shear
d) Torsion
C
T 32. Plane strain and plane stress formulations lead to identical equations under the following
condition:
E a) When Poisson’s ratio is zero
b) When the material is incompressible
c) When the member is of uniform cross-section and infinitely long
d) When the member is very thin and only in-plane loads are present
A 33. A composite material with fibers arranged only in one direction can be considered to be an
example of:
I
a) Isotropic and homogeneous material
C b) Anisotropic, but homogeneous material
c) Isotropic, but inhomogeneous material
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
d) Anisotropic and inhomogeneous materials
34. Which of the following situations will not lead to thermal stresses?
a) A uniform increase in temperature in an unconstrained, homogenous and isotropic
solid
b) Non-uniform temperature rise in a homogenous and isotropic solid
A c) Uniform temperature rise in a composite solid, with constituents of different
coefficients of thermal expansion.
I d) Temperature rise in a solid with all its boundaries constrained by rigid walls
C
35. Shear stress variation in a rectangular cross-section beam with lateral loads has following
T profile:
a) Uniform
E b) Linear
c) Parabolic
d) Cubic
36. Which one of the following is not a reason for using a factor of safety in design of
A structural member?
a) Uncertainty in operating conditions
I
b) Uncertainty in geometric properties
C c) Uncertainty in material properties
d) Uncertainty in strain-displacement relations
T
E 37. Which one of the following is an example for a statically indeterminate system?
a) Simply-supported beam
b) Cantilever beam
c) Pinned-pinned beam
d) Fixed-fixed beam
A
38. What is the effective length to be used for a free-standing column, while applying Euler’s
I buckling load formula?
a) Two times the length of the column
C b) Same as the length of the column
T c) 0.7 times the length of the column
d) Half the length of the column
E
39. Work transfer in a free expansion process is:
a) Minimum
b) Maximum
c) Zero
A d) Always positive
I
40. Select the correct statement
C a) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
b) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
c) Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure

d) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
41. The sum of internal energy and the product of pressure and volume is known as:
a) Work done
b) Heat capacity
A c) Enthalpy
d) None of these
I
42. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics:
C
a) it is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole
T purpose is to convert heat energy into work
b) it is impossible to construct a reversible engine whose sole purpose is to convert
E heat energy into work
c) it is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and
produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold body to a hot body
A 43. The process in which heat rejection takes place in Carnot cycle is:
a) Isothermal expansion
I
b) Isentropic expansion
C c) Isothermal compression
d) Isentropic compression
T
E 44. The measurement of the thermodynamic property, temperature is based on:
a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b) First law of thermodynamics
c) Second law of thermodynamics
d) None of these
A
45. In compression ignition engines, swirl is
I a) Radial motion imparted to air-fuel mixture
b) Circular motion imparted to suction air
C c) Circular motion imparted to gases
T d) None of the above
E 46. Most of the heat generated in internal combustion engines is lost in:
a) Cooling water
b) Radiation
c) Exhaust gases
d) Lubricating oil
A
47. In spark ignition engines, the knocking possibility can be reduced by
I
a) Increasing compression ratio
C b) Decreasing compression ratio
c) Increasing coolant temperature
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
d) Advancing spark timing
48. Prandtl number for gases is

a) 0.01 to 1
b) Approximately 1
c) 1 to 10
A d) 10 to 100
I 49. Wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by

a) Wein’s law
C
b) Stefan’s law
T c) Kirchhoff’s law
d) Planck’s law
E
50. A heat exchanger in which hot and cold fluids flow over heat transfer surface alternately is
a) Direct contact exchanger
b) Regenerator
c) Parallel flow exchanger
A d) None of the above
I
51. Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine form
C a) Turning pair
b) Rolling pair
T c) Sliding pair
E d) All the above
52. Out of the kinematic pair given blow, the force-closed pair is
a) Cam and follower
b) Tooth gear in mesh
c) Roller bearing
A
d) Ball bearing
I
53. Kinematic chain comprises
C a) Chain of links with incompletely constrained motion
T b) Chain of links in space with constrained motion
c) Chain of links in space with unconstrained motion
E d) Chain of links with one fixed link and completely unconstrained motion
54. If N kinematic links are connected at the same point in a kinematic chain, then joint is
equivalent to
a) N-2 binary joints
A b) N+2 binary joints
c) 2N-1 binary joints
I
d) 2N+1 binary joints
C
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
55. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
a) Decreasing centre distance between gears
b) Decreasing module
c) Decreasing pressure angle
d) Increasing number of teeth
A 56. To make a worm drive reversible, it is necessary to increase

a) Centre distance
I b) Worm diameter factor
c) Number of starts
C
d) Reduction ratio
T
57. In gear trains, where the axes of gears are in motion are called
E a) Simple gear train
b) Compound gear train
c) Back gear
d) Epicyclin gear train
A 58. In case of roller follower

a) Prime circle is less than base circle
I
b) Prime circle is greater than base circle
C c) Prime circle is equal to base circle
d) Could be any one of the above
T
E 59. The point on the cam with maximum pressure angle is called
a) Trace point
b) Cam cenre
c) Pitch point
d) Offset point
A
60. Which one of the following is an inversion of a single slider crank chain?
I a) Watts engine
b) Beam engine
C c) Whit worth quick return motion
T d) Elliptical trammel
E 61. In the design of shafts made of ductile material subjected to bending moment and twisting
moment, the recommended theory of failure is
a) Maximum Principal stress theory
b) Maximum Principal strain theory
c) Maximum Strain energy theory
A d) Maximum Shear stress theory
I
62. The process of shot peening increases the fatigue life of the steel springs mainly because it
C results in
a) Residual compression at the surface
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
b) Structural changes in the material

c) Surface hardening in the material
d) Stiffness changes in the material
63. Weldments in fabricated steel beams are designed for

a) Bending stresses the flange
A b) Shear stresses in the transverse plane
c) Combination of bending and shear
I d) None of the above because in fabricated beams welds are stressed
C
64. If the ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of the rivets is 0.2. then the tearing
T efficiency of the joint is
a) 0.50
E b) 0.40
c) 0.80
d) 0.20
65. Which one of the following is a positive drive?

A a) Cross flat belt drive
b) Rope drive
I
c) V-belt drive
C d) Chain drive
T 66. The taper on a rectangular sunk key is

E a) 1 in 16
b) 1 in 32
c) 1 in 100
d) 1 in 200
67. If the load on a ball bearing is reduced to half, life of the ball bearing will
A
a) Increases 8 times
I b) Increase 4 times
c) Increase 2 times
C d) No change
T
68. Spherical roller bearings are normally used
E a) For increased radial load
b) For increased axial load
c) When there is less radial load
d) To compensate for angular misalignment
A 69. Starting friction is low in

a) Hydrostatic lubrication
I
b) Hydrodynamic lubrication
C c) Mixed lubrication
d) Boundary lubrication
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
70. Axial operation claw clutches having self-locking tooth profile

a) Can be disengaged at any speed
b) Can be disengaged only when unloaded
c) Can be engaged only when unloaded
d) Can work only with load
A
PART-B (30X2 = 60 Marks)
I
71. Water flow through a long, horizontal, conical diffuser at the rate of 4 m3/s. The diameter
C
of the diffuser varies from 1 m to 2 m. The pressure at the smaller end is 8 kPa. Assuming
T frictionless flow, the pressure at the downstream end of the diffuser is:
a) 20.1 kPa
E b) 17.8 kPa
c) 22.5 kPa
d) 15.8 kPa
72. Petrol having kinematic viscosity of 4.06 x 10-7m2/s flows at 0.8 L/s through a 100 mm
A diameter pipe. The flow is:
a) Laminar
I
b) Turbulent
C c) In transition
d) Unable to be classified based on given data
T
E 73. A fluid of viscosity 0.2 Pa s and density 840 kg/m3 flows in a 200 mm diameter pipe line at
a flow rate of 1 L/s. The power lost per km length is:
a) 5.09 W
b) 4.53 W
c) 7.12 W
d) 3.32 W
A
I 74. A shaft 70 mm in diameter is being pushed at a speed of 400 mm/s through a bearing
sleeve 70.2 mm in diameter and 250 mm long. The clearance is filled with oil having
C kinematic viscosity of 0.005 m2/s and specific gravity of 0.9. The force exerted by the oil
T on the shaft is:
a) 987 N
E b) 330 N
c) 150 N
d) 1020 N
75. A tank of water has a gate in its vertical wall 5 m high and 3 m wide. The top edge of the
A gate is 2 m below the surface. What is the hydrostatic force on the gate?
a) 147 kN
I
b) 367 kN
C c) 490 kN
d) 661 kN
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
76. In a steady state of fluid flow

a) Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are different
b) Stream lines and path lines are similar
c) Stream lines, path lines and streak lines are same
d) Stream lines and streak lines are same
A 77. A gas turbine plant operates between 50C and 8390C. The pressure ratio at which cycle
efficiency equals Carnot cycle efficiency is
I a) 100
b) 128
C
c) 132
T d) 156
E 78. The efficiency of the Brayton cycle for pressure ratio of 10 considering 𝛾=1.4 is
a) 17.7%
b) 39.6%
c) 48.2%
d) 46.3%
A
79. The efficiency of the regenerative Brayton cycle for pressure ratio of 6, considering 𝛾=1.4,
I
and working temperatures of 300 K and 700 K, respectively is
C a) 46.3%
b) 28.5%
T c) 15.6%
E d) 67.8%
80. The Brayton cycle is working between the fixed values of minimum and maximum
temperatures of 300 and 1300K, respectively. The pressure ratio where the network output
is maximum is
a) 10.0
A
b) 10.5
I c) 13.0
d) 13.9
C
T 81. A mass m supported by a spring of stiffness k1 has natural frequency of f. When a second
spring of stiffness k2 is added parallel to the first spring the natural frequency become
E double. Which of the statement is true?
a) k2=k1
b) k2=2k1
c) k2=3k1
d) k2=2k2
A
82. A shaft has 2 equal eccentric masses placed at an axial distance of e and are diametrically
I
opposite (1800), Check which statement is true
C a) It is statically balanced, and dynamically unbalanced
b) It is dynamically balanced, and statically unbalanced
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
c) It is statically and dynamically balanced

d) It is not possible to predict from the given data
83. What is the force required to punch a 20-mm diameter hole in a plate that is 25 mm thick,
if the shear strength of the material of the plate is 350 MPa?
a) 500 kN
A b) 550 kN
c) 600 kN
I d) 650 kN
C
84. A cantilever beam of length L and of moment of inertia of the cross-section I, and made of
T a material with a Young’s modulus E, is carrying a concentrated transverse load of P at
mid-length (at a distance of L/2 from base of cantilever). What is the displacement at its
E tips?
a) PL3/(3EI)
b) PL3(2EI)
c) 5 PL3/(48EI)
d) PL3/(8EI)
A
85. A torque of 50 kN-m is applied on a long tube of 20 cm outside diameter and 16 cm inside
I
diameter. What is the maximum stress in the tube?
C a) 46.2 MPa
b) 37.8 MPa
T c) 64.3 MPa
E d) 53.9 MPa
86. What is the critical buckling load of a pinned-pinned column of length 0.5 m with a
rectangular cross-section of dimension 30x20 mm? The Young’s modulus of the material
is 200 GPa.
a) 125 kN
A
b) 158 kN
I c) 175 kN
d) 135 kN
C
T 87. An apple with an average mass of 0.12 kg and average specific heat of 3.65 kJ/kg. 0C is
cooled from 250C to 50C. The entropy change of the apple is
E a) -0.705 kJ/K
b) -0.254 kJ/K
c) -0.0304 kJ/K
d) 0.348 kJ/K
A 88. Air is compressed steadily and adiabatically from 170C and 90 kPa to 2000C and 400 kPa.
Assuming constant specific heats for air at room temperature, the isentropic efficiency of
I
the compressor is
C a) 0.76
b) 0.94
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
c) 0.86
d) 0.84
89. A 2 kW electric resistance heater submerged in a 5-kg water is turned on and kept on for
10 min. During the process, 300 kJ of heat is lost from the water. The temperature rise of
water is
A a) 0.40C
b) 43.10C
I c) 57.40C
d) 71.80C
C
T 90. An adiabatic heat exchanger is used to heat cold water at 150C entering at a rate of 5 kg/s
by hot air at 900C entering also at rate of 5 kg/s. If the exit temperature of hot air is 200C,
E the exit temperature of cold water is
a) 270C
b) 320C
c) 520C
d) 850C
A
91. A refrigerator is to remove heat from the cooled space at a rate of 300 kJ/min to maintain
I
its temperature at – 80C.If the air surrounding the refrigerator is at 250C, the minimum
C power input required for this refrigerator is
a) 0.62 kW
T b) 0.5 kW
E c) 1.32 kW
d) 1.5 kW
92. Air at 4.18 kg/m3 enters a nozzle that has an inlet to-exit area ratio of 2:1 with a velocity of
120 m/s and leaves with a velocity of 380 m/s. The density of air at the exit is:
a) 1.9 kg/m3
A
b) 2.64 kg/m3
I c) 1.5 kg/m3
d) 2.81 kg/m3
C
T 93. In crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism, the distance between the fixed centers
is 300 mm and the driving crank is 150 mm long. The ratio of time take on the return
E stroke to cutting stroke is
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0.333
A
94. A pinion with 24 teeth drives a gear of 60 teeth at a pressure angle of 20 deg. The pitch
I
radius of pinion is 38 mm and outside radius is 41mm. The pitch radius of the gear is 95
C mm and outside radius is 98.5 mm. contact ratio for this spur gear set is
a) 1.1366
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
b) 1.7346
c) 2.0051
d) 1.5242
95. A pinion has to mesh with a gear wheel with the gear ratio 1:1. If the pressure angle is 20
deg and standard addendum of one module is used. The number of teeth on the pinions to
A avoid interference is
a) 20
I b) 18
c) 15
C
d) 13
T
96. The mobility of the following ten link mechanism (Figure 1)
E a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
A
I
C 97. The band brake having band width of 80 mm, drum diameter of 250 mm, coefficient of
friction 0.25 and angle of wrap of 270 degrees is required to exert a friction torque of 1000
T N-m The maximum tension (in kN) developed in the band is
E a) 1156
b) 115.6
c) 11.56
d) 1.156
98. A natural feed journal bearing of diameter 50 mm, length 50 mm, operating at 20
A
revolutions per second, carries a load of 200 N. The viscosity of the lubricant is 20 mPa-s.
I The radial clearance is 50 microns. The sommerfeld number for this bearing is
a) 0.5
C b) 0.25
T c) 0.125
d) 0.0625
E
99. A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and a centre distance of 450 mm are used for a
speed reduction of 5:1. The number of teeth on pinion is
a) 30
b) 60
A c) 90
d) 120
I
C
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
100. A small element at the critical section of a component is biaxial state of stress with the
two principal stresses being 360 MPa and 140 MPa. The maximum working stress
according to Distortion energy theory is
a) 220 MPa
b) 314 MPa
c) 330 MPa
A d) 110 MPa
I PART – C (30 Marks)

C
T 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable
E
is equal to
C 1 1 1
(𝑎) 3 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 3
T
E (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
A
I 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
C (c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
T 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function
E 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
A
3
I 108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
C (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
T
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
A
𝑥+𝑦
I 111. If function 𝑢 = cos−1 , then it satisfies the following
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
C (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
(c) 𝑥 +𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 +𝑦 + cot 𝑢 = 0
T 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 2
E ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
112. The Integral 2 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 is
𝑑𝑥
I (a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
C (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
T 2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
E 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6

1
A
I 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
T
E 117. In a binomial distribution 𝐵(𝑛, 𝑝) the mean is 100 and the variance is 80. Then the value
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
A 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
C
T (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
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ROLL NO. UG1MEE22
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

A (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E Page 18 of 18
UG MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Code 22-Paper 1
1 C 31 D 61 D 91 A
2 C 32 A 62 A 92 B
3 D 33 D 63 C 93 A
4 D 34 A 64 C 94 B
5 B 35 C 65 D 95 B
6 C 36 D 66 C 96 A
7 A 37 D 67 A 97 C
8 A 38 A 68 D 98 Marks to all
9 A 39 C 69 A 99 A
10 B 40 A 70 A 100 B
11 C 41 C 71 A 101 A
12 D 42 A 72 B 102 C
13 B 43 C 73 A 103 A
14 C 44 A 74 A 104 D
15 B 45 B 75 D 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 A
17 B 47 B 77 B 107 A
18 C 48 B 78 C 108 B
19 C 49 A 79 B 109 D
20 B 50 B 80 C 110 B
21 A 51 C 81 C 111 D
22 D 52 A 82 A 112 B
23 B 53 B 83 B 113 B
24 A 54 Marks to all 84 C 114 B
25 B 55 D 85 D 115 B
26 B 56 C 86 B 116 C
27 D 57 D 87 C 117 B
28 B 58 B 88 D 118 C
29 C 59 C 89 B 119 B
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

A
PAPER-II
I
C
Instructions:
T
E
wrong answer.
A
I
C
T
E
PART – A (80X1 = 80 Marks)
1. In ___________ welding, two non-consumable electrodes are used.

(a) MIG (b) TIG
(c) Atomic Hydrogen (d) Submerged Arc
2. ____________ is the welding process in which heat is produced for welding by chemical
reaction.
A
(a) Resistance welding (b) Thermit welding
I
(c) Forged welding (d) Gas welding
C
T
3. Material used for coating the electrode is called
E
(a) Flux (b) Slag
(c) Protective layer (d) Deoxidizer
4. Acetylene gas is generated from

(a) Calcium (b) Carbon
(c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium carbide
5. Striking voltage as compared to voltage during arc welding is

A
(a) less (b) same (c) more (d) unpredictable
I
C
6. In reverse polarity of arc welding
T
(a) work is connected to positive and electrode holder is earthed.
E
(b) electrode holder is connected to negative and work to positive.
(c) electrode holder is connected to positive and work to negative.
(d) electrode holder is connected to negative and work is earthed.
Page 1 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
7. In case of neutral flame, oxygen to acetylene ratio is

(a) 0.6:1.0 (b) 1:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 3:1
A
8. ___________ governs metal removal rate in electrochemical machining.
I
(a) Fleming’s rule (b) Newton’s law
C
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Bernoulli’s theorem
T
E
9. In ultrasonic machining, the tool tip is attached to the cone by
(a) welding (b) press fitting
(c) silver soldering (d) nut and bolt
10. ____________ process is used for machining a complicated 3-D contour in a hard-metallic
work piece.
(a) Laser machining (b) Abrasive jet machining
(c) Plasma arc machining (d) Electro-discharge machining
A
11. Slurry used in ultrasonic machining is
I
(a) alkaline only (b) alcohol based
C
(c) acidic only (d) water based
T
E
12. Laser can be produced by
(a) aluminium (b) ruby
(c) diamond (d) graphite
13. For converting electrical energy into mechanical energy, which of the effects form the
basis of USM?
(a) Chemical action (b) Photosynthesis
(c) Piezoelectric (d) Photochemical
A
I
14. In which of the following processes the tool wear is negligible?
C
(a) EDM (b) USM (c) ECM (d) Conventional grinding
T
E
15. In ultrasonic machining (USM) the tool vibrates at a frequency of
(a) 20Hz – 20kHz (b) 20kHz – 30kHz
(c) 100kHz – 1024kHz (d) 0.1Hz – 2Hz
16. For machining asbestos which of the following process is suitable such that air pollution
can be minimized during machining?
(a) Water jet machining (b) Abrasive jet machining
(c) Chemical machining (d) Power saw cutting
A
I
17. In abrasive jet machining material removal takes place due to
C
(a) erosion (b) abrasion
T
(c) diffusion (d) dissolution
E
18. ___________________ means that work is accomplished or operated by machinery and
not by human hand.
(a) Industrialisation (b) CAD-CAM
(c) CIM (d) Machanisation
Page 2 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
19. ___________________control can be defined as a form of programmable automation in

which the process is controlled by numbers, letters and symbols.
(a) Open loop (b) Close loop
A
(c) Adaptive (d) Numeric
I
C
20. NC drill processes are a good example of _________________ systems.
T
(a) point-to-point (b) straight line
E
(c) contouring (d) continuous
21. __________________ is defined as a manufacturing system in which a number of

machines are interconnected using a computer through direct connection in real time.
(a) Computer numerical control (b) Direct numerical control
(c) Differential numerical control (d) Adaptive control
22. A _____________ is a computer controlled machine tool capable of performing a variety

of cutting operations on different surfaces in different orientations of a work piece.
A
(a) transfer machine (b) machining center
I
(c) automatic machine (d) work station
C
T
23. A pattern consisting of two pieces is called a two piece _______ pattern.
E
(a) split (b) twin
(c) double (d) core
24. A ____________ is an interface within a casting that is formed when two metal streams
meet without complete fusion.
(a) Hot shut (b) Hot fusion
(c) Cold shut (d) Cold fusion
A
25. Hot tears are the ______ having ragged edges due to tensile stresses during solidification.
I
(a) Cracks (b) Blow holes
C
(c) Slag inclusions (d) Shears
T
E
26. Self-lubricating or porous metallic bearing are produced by which of the following
processes?
(a) Powder metallurgy (b) Casting
(c) Forging (d) Forming
27. ____________________ means the heating of pressed compact to below the melting
temperature of all principal constituents of the compact.
(a) Granulation (b) Compaction
A
(c) Sintering (d) Shrinking
I
C
28. In a four-high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which
T
(a) one is working roll and three are backing up rolls.
E
(b) two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls.
(c) three are working rolls and one is backing up roll.
(d) all of the four are working rolls.
Page 3 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
29. During deep drawing operation the states of stress developed in cup would include
(a) compressive stress in the flange (b) tensile stress in the wall
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
A
I
30. The mode of deformation of the wall during spinning is
C
(a) bending (b) stretching
T
(c) rolling and stretching (d) bending and stretching
E
31. The increase in hardness due to cold working is called
(a) age hardening (b) work hardening
(c) induction hardening (d) flame hardening
32. Thread rolling is restricted to

(a) brittle materials (b) ductile materials
(c) hard materials (d) malleable materials
A
33. The sand employed on the faces of patterns before moulding is called
I
(a) green sand (b) dry sand
C
(c) loam sand (d) parting sand
T
E
34. The method of dividing the periphery of a job into equal number of divisions is called
(a) indexing (b) tapping
(c) dressing (d) chamfering
35. The factors responsible for the formation of continuous chips with built-up edge is
(a) low cutting speed and large rake angle
(b) low cutting speed and small rake angle
(c) high cutting speed and large rake angle
A
(d) high cutting speed and small rake angle
I
C
36. In metal cutting, use of low feed and high cutting speed is desired when the objective is
T
(a) high material removal rate (b) dry machining
E
(c) use of soft cutting tool (d) fine surface finish
37. A dynamometer is a device for the measurement of

(a) chip thickness ratio (b) forces during metal cutting
(c) wear of the cutting tool (d) deflection of the cutting tool
38. Carbide tipped tools usually have

(a) negative rake angle (b) positive rake angle
A
(c) any rake angle (d) no rake angle
I
C
39. Chip breakers are used to
T
(a) increase tool life (b) remove chips from bed
E
(c) break the chips into short segments (d) to minimize heat generation
Page 4 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
40. The correct sequence of the parameters in order of their maximum to minimum influence
on tool life is
(a) feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed
A
(b) depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate
I
(c) cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut
C
(d) feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut
T
E
41. In a centre lathe, the cutting tool can be fed in __________ with reference to the lathe axis.
(a) cross direction only (b) longitudinal direction only
(c) both cross and longitudinal directions (d) any direction
42. For turning small taper on long work piece, the suitable method is
(a) by a form tool (b) by setting over the tail stock
(c) by a taper turning attachment (d) by swiveling the compound rest
43. Slow speed of the spindle is necessary in

A
(a) thread cutting (b) turning a work of larger diameter
I
(c) turning a hard or tough material (d) all of these
C
T
44. The chuck preferred for quick setting and accurate centering of a job is
E
(a) four jaw independent chuck (b) collet chuck
(c) three jaw universal chuck (d) magnetic chuck
45. The operation of embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of the work piece is
known as
(a) counter boring (b) grooving
(c) knurling (d) facing
A
46. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated while the drill is fed into
I
work?
C
(a) Sensitive drilling machine (b) Radial drilling machine
T
(c) Gang drilling machine (d) Deep hole drilling machine
E
47. Trepanning is an operation of
(a) making a cone shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(b) cutting helical groups on the internal cylindrical surface
(c) sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
(d) producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of it.
48. Which of the following operation needs to be first performed

A
(a) reaming (b) boring
I
(c) tapping (d) drilling
C
T
49. A grinding wheel becomes glazed due to
E
(a) wear of bond (b) breaking of abrasive grains
(c) wear of abrasive grains (d) crack on grinding wheel
50. The top and sides of a table of a shaper usually have

(a) L slots (b) T slots (c) I slots (d) any one of these
Page 5 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
51. In shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

(a) increasing the distance between crankpin and center of bull gear
(b) decreasing the distance between crankpin and center of bull gear
A
(c) increasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
I
(d) decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
C
T
52. The process of correctingthe shape of grinding wheel as it becomes worn due to breaking
E
away of the abrasive and bond, is called
(a) truing (b) dressing (c) facing (d) clearing
53. In Oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner cone of the flame is around
(a) 3500oC (b) 3200oC (c) 2900oC (d) 2550oC
54. Which of the following statement is NOT correct as regard to climb milling?
(a) It cannot be used on old machines having back lash between the feed screw of the table
and the nut.
A
(b) The chips are disposed off easily and do not interfere with the cutting.
I
(c) The surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
C
(d) The coolant can be poured directly at the cutting zone where the cutting force is
T
maximum.
E
55. Break-even point is the point where
(a) fixed and variable cost lines intersect
(b) mixed and total cost lines intersect
(c) variable and total cost lines intersect
(d) sales revenue and total expense lines intersect
56. In PERT analysis a critical activity has

A
(a) maximum Float (b) zero Float (c) maximum Cost (d) minimum Cost
I
C
57. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
T
(a) very high pouring temperature of the metal
E
(b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(c) absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(d) improper alignment of the mould flasks
58. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of

(a) 0.25 to 0.75 percent (b) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
(c) 3 to 4 percent (d) 8 to 10 percent
A
59. Cold working of steel is defined as working
I
(a) at its recrystallisation temperature
C
(b) above its recrystallisation temperature
T
(c) below its recrystallisation temperature
E
(d) at two thirds of the melting temperature of the metal
60. An expendable pattern is used in

(a) slush casting (b) squeeze casting
(c) centrifugal casting (d) investment casting
Page 6 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
61. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to improve

(a) hardenability of low carbon steels (b) machinability of low carbon steels
(c) hardenability of high carbon steels (d) machinability of high carbon steels
A
I
62. NC contouring is an example of
C
(a) continuous path positioning (b) point-to-point positioning
T
(c) absolute positioning (d) incremental positioning
E
63. A ring gauge is used to measure
(a) outside diameter but not roundness (b) roundness but not outside diameter
(c) both outside diameter and roundness (d) only external threads
64. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% carbon, it is called
(a) high speed steel (b) hypoeutectoid steel
(c) hypereutectoid steel (d) cast iron
A
65. Product layout is suitable for
I
(a) job shop production. (b) batch production
C
(c) mass production (d) any one of these
T
E
66. The interchangeability can be achieved by
(a) standardisation (b) better process planning
(c) bonus plan (d) better product planning
67. Gantt chart is used for

(a) inventory control (b) material handling
(c) production schedule (d) machine repair schedules
A
68. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting tool, then which of the following represents
I
the cutting parameters in common grinding operations?
C
(a) Large negative rake angle, low shear angle and high cutting speed
T
(b) Large positive rake angle, low shear angle and high cutting speed
E
(c) Large negative rake angle, high shear angle and low cutting speed
(d) Zero rake angle, high shear angle and high cutting speed
69. In CNC machine tool, encoder is used to sense and control

(a) table position (b) table velocity
(c) spindle speed (d) coolant flow
70. The mechanism of material removal in EDM is

A
(a) brittle fracture (b) ion displacement
I
(c) melting and vaporization (d) corrosion
C
T
71. Peripheral milling is the operation performed by a milling cutter to produce a flat
E
machined surface __________________
(a) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cutter
(b) parallel to the axis of rotation of the cutter
(c) irrespective to the axis of rotation of the cutter
Page 7 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
72. In case of taper turning by set over method the tool is guided in a straight line
(a) set an angle to the lathe axis
(b) parallel to the lathe axis
A
(c) perpendicular to the lathe axis
I
C
T
73. What is provided in a shaper to prevent rubbing of cutting tool over workpiece during
E
backward stroke.
(a) Clapper box (b) Tool post
(c) Ratchet and Pawl (d) Vertical Slide
74. When the temperature of a solid metal increases,

(a) strength of the metal decreases but ductility increases
(b) both strength and ductility of the metal decreases
(c) both strength and ductility of the metal increases
(d) strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
A
I
75. The bottles from thermos plastic materials are made by
C
(a) compression moulding (b) extrusion
T
(c) injection moulding (d) blow moulding
E
76. In order to have interference fit, it is essential that the lower limit of the shaft should be
(a) greater than the upper limit of the hole (b) lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(c) greater than the lower limit of the hole (d) lesser than the lower limit of the hole
77. Green sand mould indicates that

(a) polymeric mould has been cured (b) mould has been totally dried
(c) mould is green in color (d) mould contains moisture
A
I
78. The word ‘kanban’ is most appropriately associated with
C
(a) economic order quantity (b) just-in-time production
T
(c) capacity planning (d) product design
E
79. ___________________________ is the integration of total manufacturing enterprise
through the use of integrated systems and data communications including finance and
marketing.
(a) FMS (b) CAD (c) CAM (d) CIM
80. During the execution of a CNC part program block N020 G02 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type
A
of tool motion will be
I
(a) circular Interpolation – clockwise
C
(b) circular Interpolation - counterclockwise
T
(c) linear Interpolation
E
(d) rapid feed
Page 8 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
81. Which of the following is the correct data structure for solid models?
A
(a) solid part " faces " edges " vertices
I
(b) solid part " edges " faces " vertices
C
(c vertices " edges " faces " solid parts
T
(d) vertices " faces " edges " solid parts
E
82. Which among the NC operations given below are continuous path operations?
Arc Welding (AW)
Drilling (D)
Laser Cutting of Sheet Metal (LC)
Milling (M)
Punching in Sheet Metal (P)
Spot Welding (SW)
Wire EDM (WE)
A
I
(a) AW, LC, M and WE (b) AW, D, LC and WE
C
(c) D, LC, P and SW (d) D, LC, M and SW
T
E
83. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45o counterclockwise with the X-
axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be
(a) (7.5, 5) (b) (10, 5) (c) (7.5, –5) (d) (10, –5)
84. Titanium (atomic weight = 48, valency = 3) is machined by the ECM process at the
current of 2000 A with 90% current efficiency. The expected material removal rate in
gm/s will be
A
(a) 0.11 (b) 0.23 (c) 0.30 (d) 0.52
I
C
85. Cylindrical pins of 2500..020 mm diameter are electroplated in a shop. Thickness of the
T 010
E plating is 30 ±2.0 micron. Neglecting gauge tolerances, the size of the GO gauge in mm
to inspect the plated components is
(a) 25.042 (b) 25.052 (c) 25.074 (d) 25.084
86. A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and height 50 mm is forged between two
frictionless flat dies to a height of 25mm. The percentage change in diameter is
(a) 0 (b) 2.07 (c) 20.7 (d) 41.4
A 87. In a single pass drilling operation, a through hole of 15mm diameter is to be drilled in a
I steel plate of 50 mm thickness. Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm, feed is 0.2mm/rev and
C drill point angle is 118o. Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and exit, the total drill
T time (in seconds) is
E (a) 35.1 (b) 32.4 (c) 31.2 (d) 30.1
88. An automobile plant contracted to buy shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X
supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers are
subjected to a quality test. The ones that pass the quality test are considered reliable. Of
X’s shock absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are reliable. The
Page 9 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
probability that a randomly chosen shock absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made
by Y is
(a) 0.288 (b) 0.333 (c) 0.667 (d) 0.720
A
I
89. A cubic casting of 50 mm side undergoes volumetric solidification shrinkage and
C
volumetric solid contraction of 4% and 6% respectively. No riser is used. Assume
T
uniform cooling in all directions. The side of the cube after solidification and contraction
E
is
(a) 48.32 mm (b) 49.90 mm (c) 49.94 mm (d) 49.96 mm
90. In a CNC program block, N002 G02 G91 X40 Y40......, G02 and G91 refer to
(a) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and incremental dimension
(b) circular interpolation in counterclockwise direction and absolute dimension
(c) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
(d) circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension
A
I 91. A shaft has a dimension, φ 3500..009
025 . The value of tolerance is
C (a) 0.034 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.009 (d) 0.016

T
E 92. Six jobs arrived in a sequence as given below:
Jobs Processing Time (days)
I 4
II 9
III 5
IV 10
V 6
VI 8
A Average flow time (in days) for the above jobs using Shortest Processing time rule is
I (a) 20.83 (b) 23.16 (c) 125.00 (d) 139.00
C
T 93. Electrochemical machining is performed to remove material from an iron surface of 20
E mm × 20 mm under the following conditions:
Inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm
Supply voltage (DC) = 12 V
Specific resistance of electrolyte = 2 ohm-cm
Atomic weight of iron = 55.85
Valency of Iron = 2
Faraday’s constant = 96540 Coulombs
The material removal rate (in g/s) is
A (a) 0.3471 (b) 3.471 (c) 34.71 (d) 347.1
I
C 94. In a machining experiment, tool life was found to vary with the cutting speed in the
T following manner:
E Cutting speed (m/min) Tool life (minutes)
60 81
90 36
The exponent (n) and constant (K) of the Taylor’s tool life equation are
(a) n = 0.5 and K = 540 (b) n = 1 and K = 4860
(c) n = - 1 and K = 0.74 (d) n = - 0.5 and K = 1.155
Page 10 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
95. In orthogonal turning of low carbon steel pipe with principal cutting-edge angle of 90o,
the main cutting force is 1000 N and the feed force is 800 N. The shear angle is 25 o and
A
orthogonal rake angle is zero. Employing Merchant’s theory, the ratio of friction force to
I
normal force acting on the cutting tool is
C
(a) 1.56 (b) 1.25 (c) 0.80 (d) 0.64
T
E
96. The thickness of a metallic sheet is reduced from an initial value of 16 mm to a final
value of 10 mm in one single pass rolling with a pair of cylindrical rollers each of
diameter of 400 mm. The bite angle in degree will be.
(a) 5.936 (b) 7.936 (c) 8.815 (d) 9.815
97. A 600 mm × 30 mm flat surface of a plate is to be finish machined on a shaper. The plate
has been fixed with the 600 mm side along the tool travel direction. If the tool over-travel
at each end of the plate is 20 mm, average cutting speed is 8 m/min., feed rate is 0.3mm/
stroke and the ratio of return time to cutting time of the tool is 1:2, the time required for
A
machining will be
I
(a) 8 minutes (b) 12 minutes (c) 16 minutes (d) 20 minutes
C
T
98. In an orthogonal machining operation:
E
Uncut thickness = 0.5 mm Chip thickness = 0.7 mm
o
Rake angel = 15 Width of cut = 5 mm
Cutting force = 1200 N Thrust force = 200 N
Cutting speed = 20 m/min
The values of shear angle and shear strain, respectively, are
(a) 30.3o and 1.98 (b) 30.3o and 4.23
(c) 40.2o and 2.97 (d) 40.2o and 1.65
A
99. At what angle in degrees is the compound rest of a lathe required to be swiveled while
I
cutting a taper on a work piece having the following dimensions:
C
Outside diameter of the rod 60mm
T
Length of the tapered portion 80mm
E
Smallest diameter on the tapered end of the rod 20mm
(a) 29.52 (b) 14.04 (c) 7.02 (d) 28.08
100. A standard machine tool and an automatic machine tool are being compared for the
production of a component. Following data refers to the two machines.
Standard Automatic
Machine Tool Machine Tool
Setup time 30 min 2 hours
A
Machining time per piece 22 min 5 min
I
Machine rate Rs. 200 per hour Rs. 800 per hour
C
The breakeven production batch size, above which the automatic machine tool will be
T
economical to use, will be
E
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 24 (d) 225
101. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius 5, specified from P1(15,10) to
P2(10,15) will have its center at
(a) (10, 10) (b) (15, 10) (c) (15, 15) (d) (10, 15)
Page 11 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
102. Gray cast iron blocks 200×100×10 mm are to be cast in sand moulds. Shrinkage
allowance for pattern making is 1%. The ratio of the volume of pattern to that of the
casting will be
A
(a) 0.97 (b) 0.99 (c) 1.01 (d) 1.03
I
C
103. The pitch of a lead screw is 6mm and the pitch of the thread to be cut is 0.75mm. The
T
change gears in a lathe will have
E
(a) driving gears: 30, 20 and driven gears: 60, 80
(b) driving gears: 30, 40 and driven gears: 20, 80
(c) driving gears: 40, 20 and driven gears: 30, 80
(d) driving gears: 60, 20 and driven gears: 30, 40
104. A metal disc of 20 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2 mm thickness. The

punch and the die clearance is 3% of thickness. The required punch diameter is
(a) 19.88 mm (b) 19.84 mm (c) 20.06 mm (d) 20.12 mm
A
105. In a shaper the length of stroke is 250mm, the number of double strokes per minute is 25
I
and the ratio of return time to cutting time is 2:3. The average cutting speed in m/min is
C
(a) 16.67 (b) 10.42 (c) 6.67 (d) 4.17
T
E
106. The stroke of a shaper is 250mm and it makes 30 double strokes per minute. Calculate
the average speed of operation.
(a) 8.33m/min (b) 3.75m/min
(c) 7.5m/min (d) 15m/min
107. A grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating at 3,000 rpm. The grinding speed is
(a) 7.5π m/s (b) 15π m/s (c) 45π m/s (d) 450π m/s
A
108. The tail stock set over required to turn a taper on the entire length of a 100mm long work
I
piece having diameters 20mm and 10mm is
C
(a) 0.05mm (b) 0.1mm (c) 5mm (d) 10mm
T
E
109. A CNC machine, fitted with a stepper motor of 2o step angle and a lead screw of pitch
7.2mm. The BLU of the machine is ______________________
(a) 0.01mm (b) 0.02mm (c) 0.03mm (d) 0.04mm
110. A fine-grained grinding wheel is used to grind _____________ materials and a coarse-
grained grinding wheel is used to grind _______________ materials.
(a) hard and brittle, soft and ductile (b) soft and ductile, hard and brittle
(c) hard and ductile, soft and brittle (d) soft and brittle, hard and ductile
A
I
111. In ________________, similar parts are arranged into _________________ either
C
because of geometric shape and size or because of similar processing steps are required
T
in their manufacture.
E
(a) flexible manufacturing system, part groups
(b) group technology, part families
(c) computer integrated manufacturing, product families
(d) production flow analysis, product clusters
Page 12 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
112. In CAPP, ___________________ is applicable when similar parts are produced

repetitively and __________________is better when parts have high variety.
(a) generative approach, variant approach
A
(b) variant approach, generative approach
I
(c) manual approach, automatic approach
C
(d) automatic approach, manual approach
T
E
113. The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gases
during casting is called ________________ and due to which the sand grains stick
together is called ___________________.
(a) collapsibility, adhesiveness (b) permeability, adhesiveness
(c) permeability, cohesiveness (d) collapsibility, cohesiveness
114. Match the processes with the sources of energy.

Processes Sources of energy
1. EDM P. Mechanical
A
2. USM Q. Current
I
3. LBM R. Radiation
C
4. ECM S. Electric spark
T
E
(a) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q (b) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
(c) 1-S, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-P (d) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P, 4-S
115. Typical machining operations are to be performed on hard-to-machine materials by using

the processes listed below. Choose the best set of Operation-Process combinations
Operation Process
P. Deburring (internal surface) 1. Plasma Arc Machining
Q. Die sinking 2. Abrasive Flow Machining
A
R. Fine hole drilling in thin sheets 3. Electric Discharge Machining
I
S. Tool sharpening 4. Laser beam Machining
C
5. Electrochemical Grinding
T
E
(a) P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-5
116. Match the following.

Terminology Description
1. Shank P. Surface below and adjacent to the cutting edge
2. Face Q. Intersection of side cutting edge and end cutting edge
3. Flank R. Surface on which the chip slides
A
4. Nose S. Main body of the tool
I
C
(a) 1-S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (b) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
T
(c) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S (d) 1-P, 2-S, 3-Q, 4-R
E
117. Match the following.

Machine tool Features
1. Lathe P. Universal dividing head
Page 13 of 14
ROLL NO. UG2MEE22
2. Shaper Q. Hollow tapered spindle

3. Milling machine R. Lead screw
4. Drilling machine S. Ratchet and pawl mechanism
A
I
(a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q (b) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q
C
(c) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P (d) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R, 4-S
T
E
118. Match the correct combination for following metal working processes.
Processes Associated state of stress
P: Blanking 1. Tension
Q: Stretch Forming 2. Compression
R: Coining 3. Shear
S: Deep Drawing 4. Tension and Compression
5. Tension and Shear
(a) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S – 4 (b) P - 3, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 5
A
(c) P - 5, Q - 4, R - 3, S – 1 (d) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S – 4
I
C
119. Match the most suitable manufacturing processes for the following parts.
T
Parts Manufacturing Process
E
P. Computer chip 1. Electrochemical Machining
Q. Metal forming dies and molds 2. Ultrasonic Machining
R. Turbine blade 3. Electro-discharge Machining
S. Glass having fine holes 4. Photochemical Machining
(a) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2 (b) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
(c) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 4, S - 2 (d) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 4, S - 3
A
120. Match the following:
I
NC code Definition
C
P. M05 1. Absolute coordinate system
T
Q. G01 2. Dwell
E
R. G04 3. Spindle stop
S. G90 4. Linear interpolation
(a) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
------------------
A
I
C
T
E
Page 14 of 14
UG MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
Code 22-Paper 2
1 C 31 B 61 D 91 D
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 A
3 A 33 D 63 A 93 A
4 D 34 A 64 B 94 A
5 C 35 B 65 C 95 C
6 C 36 D 66 A 96 D
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 B
8 C 38 A 68 A 98 D
9 C 39 C 69 A 99 B
10 D 40 C 70 C 100 D
11 D 41 C 71 B 101 C
12 B 42 B 72 B 102 D
13 C 43 D 73 A 103 A
14 C 44 B 74 A 104 A
15 B 45 C 75 D 105 B
16 A 46 D 76 A 106 C
17 A 47 D 77 D 107 A
18 D 48 D 78 B 108 C
19 D 49 C 79 D 109 D
20 A 50 B 80 A 110 A
21 B 51 A 81 C 111 B
22 B 52 A 82 A 112 B
23 A 53 B 83 B 113 C
24 C 54 C 84 C 114 A
25 A 55 D 85 D 115 D
26 A 56 B 86 D 116 A
27 C 57 B 87 A 117 B
28 B 58 C 88 B 118 D
29 C 59 C 89 A 119 A
30 D 60 D 90 C 120 C
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING

A
PAPER-I
I
C Instructions:
T questions.
E iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q71 to Q. 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
wrong answer.
C viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
T
E
1. In a unit cell the ratio between the volume occupied by the effective number of atoms
A and the available volume is called as
a) packing factor
I b) volume factor
C c) mass density
d) atomic density
T
E 2. The miller indices of the close packed plane in face centered cubic crystal structure is
a) (100)
b) (110)
c) (111)
d) (211)
A
I 3. The fracture of material due to dynamic loading is called as
a) creep
C b) fatigue
T c) ductile
d) brittle
E
4. The main purpose of adding about 1% Mn in low carbon steel is to
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
a) increase strength
b). nullify hot shortness
c). cause deoxidation
A d). improve corrosion resistance
I
C 5. In galvanized steel sheet the surface is coated with
a) tin
T b)zinc
c) copper
E d) nickel
6.The C curves in TTT diagram of a carbon steel could be changed into S curves by adding
a) Manganese
A b) Nickel
c) Chromium
I d) Vanadium
C
7. The specific advantage of fibre reinforced plastic is the combined increase in both
T
a) strength & hardness
E b) hardness & toughness
c) toughness & wear resistance
d) elastic modulus & strength
8. Property of fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called as

A a) adhesion
b) cohesion
I c) viscosity
C d) compressibility
T
9. The dimensions of surface tension are
E a) M1L0T-2
b) M1L0T-1
c) M1L1T-2
d) M1L2T-2
A
10. Pitot tube is used for measuring
I a) Pressure
b) Flow
C c) Velocity at a point
T d) Discharge
E
11. Continuity equation deals with law of conservation of
a) mass
Page 2 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
b) momentum
c) energy
A
I 12. Displacement thickness is given by

U
C (a)  *   (1  )dy
0
u
T 
u U
(b)   
*
(1  )dy
E U u
0

u u2
(c)  *   (1  2 )dy
0
U U
A
I 13. Aboundary layer is hydrodynamically smooth if
k
C  0.3
(a) 
'
T k
 0.3
(b) 
'
E
k
 0.25
(c) 
'
k
 6.0
(d) 
'
A
I 14. When the fluid is at rest, the shear stress in
a) maximum
C b) zero
T c) unpredictable
d) none of these
E
15. When the flow parameters at any given instant remains the same at every point, then flow is
said to be
a) quasi static
b) steady state
A
c) laminar
I d) uniform
C
16. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled then its young’s modulus will be
T (a) doubled
(b) halved
E
(c) becomes four times
(d) remains unaffected
Page 3 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
17. The material which exhibits the same elastic properties in all direction are called as
(a) inelastic
(b) homogeneous
A (c) isotropic
(d) isentropic
I
C
18. Bending moment at any point is equal to algebraic sum of
T (a) all vertical forces
(b) all horizontal forces
E (c) forces on either side of the point
(d) moment of forces on either side of the point
19. Compare the strengths of solid and hollow shafts both having outside diameter D and
A hollow shafts having inside diameter D/2 in torsion. The ratio of strength of solid to hollow
shafts in torsion will be
I (a) 0.5
(b) 0.75
C (c) 15/16
(d) 0.25
T
E
20. The Hoop stress of a thick cylinder is considered at i.e. it is maximum at
(a) near centre
(b) outer radius
(c) inner radius
(d) depends upon loading
A
I 21. The value M.I for a solid shaft at diameter d is equal to
C d4
(a)
32
T
d4
(b)
E 64
d4
(c)
16
d3
(d)
16
A
I
22. The slenderness ratio of a vertical Coloumn of square cross section of 2.5 cm on edge
C and 3cm long is
(a) 120
T (b) 240
(c) 416
E
(d) 550
Page 4 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
23. Mohr’s circle is used to determine the stress on an oblique section of a body subjected to
(a) direct stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
A (b) a direct stress in one plane along with simple shear stress
(c) direct stress in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple shear stress
I (d) all the above
C
T 24. The lengths of the links of a 4 bar linkage with revolute pairs are p, q, r and s units,
given that p<q<r<s. Which of these links should be the fixed one, for obtaining a “double crank”
E mechanism?
a) link of length p
b) link of length q
c) link of length r
d) link of length s
A
I 25. Two mating spur gears have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The pinion rotates at 1200 rpm
and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The torque transmitted by the gear is
C a) 60 Nm
b) 40 Nm
T
c) 20 Nm
E d) 6.6 Nm
26. The ___ follower is extensively used in air craft engine.

a) Flat faced
b) Roller
A c) Knife edge
d) Spherical faced
I
C
27. In a vibrating system, if the damping factor is unity, then the system is called as
T a) Under damping
b) Over damping
E c) Critical damping
d) Zero damping
28. The size of the cam mainly depends on

A a) Prime circle
b) Outer circle
I c) Base circle
d) Pitch circle
C
T
29. Which of the following gears should be recommended for a speed reduction of 50:1.
E a) Spur gear
b) Differential
c) Worm and worm wheel
Page 5 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
d) Bevel gear
30. In the coupling rod mechanism of a locomotive each of the four pairs is a
a) Screw pair
A b) Turing pair
c) Spherical pair
I d) Sliding pair
C
T 31. The amount of energy absorbed by a flywheel is determined from the
a) Torque-crank angle diagram
E b) Acceleration-crank angle diagram
c) Speed-space diagram
d) Speed-energy diagram
A 32. The Klein’s diagram is used when

a) Crank has uniform angular velocity
I b) Crank has non-uniform angular velocity
c) Crank has uniform angular acceleration
C d) Crank has non-uniform angular acceleration
T
E 33. Tooth interference in an external involute spur gear pair can be reduced by
a) Increasing centre distance between gear pair
b) Decreasing module
c) Decreasing pressure angle
d) Increasing number of gear teeth
A
34. z-transform is used to analyze
I (a) LTI continuous time system
C (b) LTI discrete time system
(c) Linear time varying continuous time system
T (d) none of these
E
35. Zero padding is used to________
a) generate frequency spectrum
b) better display of frequency spectrum
c) derive the power spectrum
A d) amplitude spectrum
I
36. DFT of a sequence (-1)n, where N=4. Find x(3)
C a) 0
T b) 1
c) -1
E d) 3
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
37. Find the Nyquist sampling frequency of the signal x(t)=4sin c(3/𝜋)
a) 3
b) 3/𝜋
A c) 6/𝜋
d) 12/𝜋
I
C
38. Describe the property of the signal cos (0n)u(n)
T a) energy
b) power
E c) energy and power
d) none of these
𝜋𝑛
39. Determine the fundamental period of the following signal x(n)=sin( 4 )
A (a) 4 samples
(b) ¼ samples
I
(c) 8 samples
C (d) 16 samples
T
40. Determine the impulse response h(n) for the system described by the second order difference
E equation y(n)-4y(n-1)+4y(n-2)=x(n-1)
𝑛
(a) (2)𝑛
2
𝑛 𝑛
(b) 4
4
𝑛
(c) 4 (2)𝑛
𝑛
A (d) 2 (2)2𝑛
I
C 41. If the characteristic equation of a system is 𝑠 2 +2s+1=0, the system is
(a) undamped
T b) overdamped
c) critically damped
E d) under damped
42. Zero initial condition means that the system is

(a) working with zero stored energy
A (b) working with zero reference signal
(c) At rest no energy stored in any of the component
I (d) none of these
C
T 43. A unit impulse signal has zero value everywhere except at t=0, where its magnitude is
(a)unity
E (b) small finite value
(c) infinity
(d) none of these
Page 7 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
44. Break points can be

(a) only real
A (b) only complex
(c) real or complex
I (d) none of these
C
T 45. The angle of arrival at a real zero is always
(a)00
E (b) 1800
(c) either 00 or 1800
(d) to be calculated for each problem
A 46. At the phase crossover frequency ⍵=10 rad/s |G(j⍵)H(j⍵)= -15dB. Its gain margin is
(a) 15 dB
I (b) 0 dB
(c) -15 dB
C (d) cannot be predetermined
T
E 47. An element which stores potential energy is
(a) Mass
(b) spring
(c) damper
(d) none of these
A
48. An element that stores kinetic energy of rotational motion is called
I
(a) inertia
C (b) torsional spring
(c) damper
T (d) mass
E
49. An adiabatic process is one in which
(a) No heat enters or leaves the gas
(b) The temperature of the gas changes
(c) The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work done
A (d) All of the above
I
C 50. When the rate of evaporation of water is zero, the relative humidity of the air is
(a) 0%
T (b) 100%
(c) 50%
E (d) unpredictable
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
51. The amount of heat transferred to convert unit mass of solid to vapour or vice versa is
called as
(a) latent heat of vaporization
A (b) latent heat of fusion
(c) latent heat of sublimation
I (d) specific heat
C
T 52. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(a) reversible cycles
E (b) irreversible cycles
(c) semi-reversible cycles
(d) quasi-static cycles
A 53.In working condition of turbojet engine, velocity of air entering the engine is
(a) higher than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
I (b) lower than the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
(c) equal to the velocity of exhaust gases leaving the engine
C (d) cannot say
T
E 54. Which among the following has the lowest efficiency than the others, when they are
operated between same pressures?
(a) Ideal Rankine cycle
(b) Ideal regenerative cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) None. All of the above have same efficiency
A
I 55. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with
C (a) conservation of work
(b) conservation of heat
T (c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion of work into heat
E
56. Which of the following is NOT a path function?

(a) Internal energy
(b) Heat energy
A (c) Work energy
I
C 57. The binder used in the CO2 moulding process is
T (a) furan
(b) urea formaldehyde
E (c) bentonite
(d) sodium
Page 9 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
58. Die casting process is not commonly used for alloys of

(a) aluminium
(b) magnesium
A (c) zinc
(d) nickel
I
C
59. Among the following which is not the purpose of the electrode coating in SMAW
T (a) to stabilize the arc
(b) to release shielding gas
E (c) to provide flux to protect weld
(d) to prevent rusting of the electrode
60. Which one of the following does not need electricity for operation of the welding process
A (a) spot welding
(b) friction welding
I (c) atomic hydrogen welding
(d) thermit welding
C
T
61. The primary reason for the occurrence of Lamellar tear in a weld is
E (a) high welding current
(b) high welding voltage
(c) entrapped hydrogen
(d) oxidation of the weld
A 62. Among the following which is the most preferable process for cladding mild steel plate
with stainless steel plate
I (a) Electro slag welding
C (b) Electro gas welding
(c) Friction welding
T (d) Explosive welding
E
63. Mannesmann mill is popularly used for the production of
(a) thin sheet
(b) thick plates
(c) seamless tube
A (d) threaded shaft
I
64. Purely mechanical instruments cannot be used for dynamic measurements because they
C have
T (a) High inertia.
(b) Large time constant.
E (c) High response time.
(d) All of the above.
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
65. The base unit in SI system are

(a) Meter, Kilogram, second.
(b) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere.
A (c) Meter, kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela, mole.
(d) Meter, Kilogram, second, ampere, kelvin, candela.
I
C
66. DC voltmeter may be calibrated with a______________
T (a) Standard meter
(b) Compared with potentiometer
E (c) Compared with capacitor
(d) None of these
(a) Only A (b) A or B (c) B or C (d) D
A
67. To obtain good results using resistance wire strain gauge which of the sentence is/are
I correct?
A. The strain gauge should have a high value of gauge factor.
C B. The resistance of strain gauge should be as high as possible.
C. The strain gauge should have a low resistance temperature coefficient.
T
D. Frequency response should be good.
E
(a). Only A and B (b). Only B and C (c). Only A (d). All of these
68. What are the wattmeter calibration methods?

(a) By comparing with standard wattmeter
A (b) By using voltmeter ammeter method
(c) By using potentiometer
I (d) All of these
C
T 69. The resistance of photo resistive cell
(a) Increase with increase in light intensity.
E (b) Remains constant irrespective of the light intensity incident upon it.
(c) Decrease with increase in light intensity in a linear manner.
(d) Decrease with increase in light intensity in an exponential manner.
A 70. A proximity sensor uses ___________ principle.

(a) Capacitive
I (b) Inductive
(c) Optical
C (d) Any of these
T
Part – B (30X2=60 Marks)
E
71. The primary purpose of adding 1% Cr in medium carbon steel is to increase
(a) hardenability
Page 11 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
(b) hardness
(c) strength
(d) toughness
A
I 72. In a rotating beam fatigue test, the type of stress cycle applied is
C a) fully reversed
b) partially reversed
T c) repeated
d) random
E
73. When an austenitised medium carbon steel is cooled in such a fashion that the cooling curve
is crossing the C curves of TTT diagram just below the nose of the C curves, then the obtained
microstructure is
A (a) fine pearlite
(b) coarse pearlite
I (c) marstensite
(d) bainite
C
T
74. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a volume of
E 0.039m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106kg/cm2
A
75. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weight 2.5 kg when submerged in water. Its
I specific gravity is
C (a) 1
(b) 5
T (c) 7
(d) 6
E
76. In preparation of a resin matrix fibre reinforced composite of strength 250MPa, how much
amount of fibre is to be added if the strength of resin is 50 MPa and the strength of fibre is 1050
MPa?
A a) 20%
b) 40%
I c) 60%
d) 80%
C
T
77. A oil of specific gravity 0.7 and pressure 0.14kgf/cm2 will have the height of oil as
E (a) 70 cm
(b) 2m
(c) 20 cm
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
(d) 80 cm
A 78. In the following Figure The maximum shear, moment and deflection are proportional to
I
C
T (a) L,L2,L3
(b) L,L2,L4
E (c) L2, L3,L4
(d) L,L4,L2
79. A compound gear train with gears A, B, C and D has number of teeth 20,40,15 and 20,
A respectively. Gear B and C are mounted on the same shaft as shown in figure. The diameter of
the gear B is twice that of the gear C. If the module of the gear R is 2 mm, the center distance in
I mm between gear A and D is
a) 40
C
b) 80
T c) 120
d) 160
E
A
I 80. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while running
at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to exceed ±2%, the
C mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m2 is
a) 25
T b) 50
c) 100
E
d) 125

Analysis Approach
A A Continuous relative motion 1 De Alembert’s Principle
B Velocity and Acceleration 2 Grubler’s Criterion
I
C Mobility 3 Grashoff’s Law
C D Dynamic Static Analysis 4 Kennedy’s Theorem
T a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
E c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Page 13 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
82. The relative velocity of link 1 with respect to link 2 is 12 m/s. Link 2 rotates at a constant
speed of 120 rpm. The magnitude of Coriolis component of acceleration of link 1 is
a) 302 m/s2
A b) 604 m/s2
c) 906m/s2
I d) 1208 m/s2
C
T
E
83 Identify the causal system in the given option

(a) y(n)=x(2n)
A (b) (n)=x(2n)+x(n+1)
(c) y(n)=y(n-1)+x(n-1)
I (d) y(n)=x(n)+x(2n-1)
C
84. For the continuous-time periodic signal
T
E
What is a2?
(a) 2/3 (b) 5/3 (c) 1 (d) 1/2
85. 𝟒 𝟏
Find the Laplace transform of the x(t)= 𝜹 𝒕 − 𝟑 𝒆−𝒕 𝒖 𝒕 + 𝟑 𝒆𝟐𝒕 𝒖 𝒕
A (𝐬−𝟏) 𝟐 (𝐬−𝟏) 𝟐 (𝐬+𝟏) 𝟐 (𝐬+𝟏) 𝟐
(a) (𝒔+𝟏)(𝒔−𝟐) (b) (c) (𝒔+𝟏)(𝒔−𝟐) (d) (𝒔+𝟏)(𝒔−𝟐)
(𝒔−𝟏)(𝒔−𝟐)
I
C
86. At the gain phase crossover frequency ⍵=12 rad/s ,<G(j⍵)H(j⍵) =-1950 . The phase
T margin is
(a) 150
E
(b) 1950
(c) −150
(d) +1950
87. 𝒌(𝒔+𝟐)
The open-loop transfer function of a system is G(s)H(s)=𝒔 𝒔+𝟑 +(𝒔+𝟒). Its centroid is at s=
A
(a)-2.5
I (b) -4
(c) -4.5
C (d) 0
T
E
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
88. A mixture of ideal gases of volume V at temperature T, contains n1 moles of gas A, n2

moles of gas B and n3 moles of gas C. What is a correct formula for partial pressure (pB) of
gas B?
A (a) (pB) = ((1/3) (n1+n2+n3) RT) / V
(b) (pB) = ((n1 + n3) RT) / V
I (c) (pB) = (n2 RT) / V
C (d) (pB) = (n2(n1 + n3) RT) / V
T
89. What is the line which starts from critical point having constant dryness fraction
E throughout the line as shown in figure (Line1) called?
A
I
C
T
E
(a) constant vapour line

(b) constant liquid line
(c) constant quality line
A (d) none of the above
I
C 90. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and another reversible
heat engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If both the engines have the same heat input
T and output, then temperature T2 is equal to
(a) 800K
E (b) 1000K
(c) 1200K
(d) 1400K
91. The self-adjusting arc characteristics is preferably needed in which of the following welding
A process
(a) Shielded Metal Arc Welding
I (b) Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
(c) Gas Metal Arc Welding
C (d) Atomic hydrogen Welding
T
E 92. The shank made of medium carbon steel is welded to the drill bit made of high speed steel
by which of the following welding process
(a) electron bean welding
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
(b) laser beam welding

(c) friction welding
(d) plasma arc welding
A
I 93. Drossing is a major problem in melting of
C a) gray cast iron
b) SG iron
T c) Steel
d) aluminium alloys
E
94. Among the following forging equipments, which one is regarded as the load restricted
machines
(a) board hammer
A (b) steam hammer
(c) crank press
I (d) hydraulic press
C
95. AHall Effect transducer is used for the measurement of a magnetic field of 0.5Wb/m2.
T
The 2mm thick slab is made of Bismuth for which the Hall coefficient is -1x10-6 Variable area
E method/ (A-Wb m-2) and the current is 3A. The output voltage is___________.
(a) -0.75mV
(b) 0.75mV
(c) 0.25mV
(d) -0.25mV
A
96. The expected value of the current through a resistor is 20mA. However, the measurement
I yields a current value of 18mA. Calculate (i) absolute error (ii)% accuracy
C (a) 2mA and 90%
(b) 2.2mA and 95%
T (c) 4mA and 90%
(d) 5mA and 95%
E
97. A Wheatstone bridge requires the change of 7Ω in the unknown arm of the bridge to
produce a change in deflection of 3mm of the galvanometer. Determine the sensitivity. Also
determine the deflection factor.
A (a) 0.6mm/Ω & 3.33Ω/mm
(b) 0.6mm/Ω & 2.33Ω/mm
I (c) 0.429mm/Ω & 2.33Ω/mm
(d) 0.5mm/Ω & 3Ω/mm
C
T
98. A strain gauge having a resistance 100Ω and gauge factor of 2 is connected in series with
E a ballast resistance of 100Ω across a 12v, supply. Calculate the difference between the output
voltage with no stress applied and a stress of 140MN/m2. The modulus of elasticity is
200GN/m2.
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
(a) 6V and 0.42mV

(b) 5V and 0.3mV
(c) 4V and 0.23mV
A (d) 6V and 0.3mV
I
C 99. Which of the following sentence is correct?
A. Null type instrument is more accurate than deflection type instruments.
T B. Null type instruments can be highly sensitive as compared with deflection type
instruments.
E C. Deflection type instruments are most suited for measurements under static conditions
than null type of instruments.
D. All of the above.
(a) Only A and B

A (b) Only A and C
(c) Only B and C
I (d) D
C
100. Level measurement: Match the following
T
A. Inductive method - (i) Variable area method
E B. Capacitive method - (ii) Variable permeability method
C. Gamma rays - (iii) Travel time
D. Ultrasonic rays - (iv) radiation level
(a) A(i),B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)

(b) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii)
A (c) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(d) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i)
I
C
T PART –C
E Engineering Mathematics (30 Marks)

A
I
T (b) 𝐴 is orthogonal then 𝐴𝑇 is also orthogonal
E (d) Determinant of an orthogonal matrix is ±1
is equal to
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A
I (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
C
T 𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
E (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
C
𝑙
T 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
A 108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
I (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3
(c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
C
T 109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
E (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
A
I 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
C 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
T 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
E
2 𝑥2
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO. UG1MCE23

(c) Limit does not exist (d) None
A
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
I 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
C (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
T
E 3 𝑑𝑥 3𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6

A 1
C
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
A of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
I
C
T eigenvalue is
1 1
E (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1

(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
A (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
I 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
C
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
T
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
E (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
Page 19 of 19
UG MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING
Code 23-Paper 1
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 C
2 C 32 A 62 D 92 C
3 B 33 D 63 C 93 D
4 B 34 B 64 D 94 D
5 B 35 B 65 C 95 B
6 A 36 A 66 B 96 A
7 D 37 C 67 D 97 C
8 B 38 B 68 D 98 A
9 A 39 C 69 D 99 A
10 C 40 A 70 D 100 B
11 A 41 C 71 A 101 A
12 D 42 A, C 72 A 102 C
13 C 43 C 73 D 103 A
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 D
15 D 45 C 75 D 105 D
16 D 46 A 76 A 106 A
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 A
18 D 48 A 78 B 108 B
19 C 49 D 79 Marks to all 109 D
20 C 50 Marks to all 80 A 110 B
21 A 51 C 81 B 111 D
22 Marks to all 52 A 82 A 112 B
23 D 53 B 83 C 113 B
24 A 54 A 84 Marks to all 114 B
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 B
26 B 56 A 86 C 116 C
27 C 57 D 87 A 117 B
28 C 58 D 88 C 118 C
29 C 59 D 89 C 119 B
30 B 60 D 90 B 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING

A PAPER-II
Instructions:
I i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
C ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
T iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
E v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
A viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
I
PART-A (80x1= 80 Marks)
C
1. The following main dynamic characteristic(s) is usually considered in Mechatronics
T
application of sensors.
E a) Response time
b) Rise time
c) Time constant
d) All of the above
2. The ability of the sensor to give same output reading when same input value is applied
A repeatedly is known as
a) Stability
I b) Repeatability
C c) Accuracy
d) Sensitivity
T
3. It is the time required to come to an output value within the specified error level.
E a) Response time
b) Rise time
c) Settling time
A 4. Following is not an example of transducer.

a) Voltmeter
I b) Thermocouple
c) Photo electric cell
C d) Pneumatic cylinder
T
5. Following is (are) true for Hall Effect sensors.
E a) They can operate as switches of high frequency
b) They cost less than electromechanical switches
c) They are free from contact bounce problem
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
d) All of the above
6. Any radiation of appropriate wavelength fall on the depletion layer of p-n junction develops
A a potential difference between the junction is working principle of
a) Hall Effect sensor
I b) Proximity sensor
c) Light sensor
C
d) All of the above
T
7. MEMS components range in size from
E a) 1μm to 1mm
b) 1nm to 1 μm
c) 1mm to 1cm
d) 1nm to 1mm
A 8. Pressure sensor works on the principle of

a) Deflection of a thin diaphragm
I b) Heating of a thin diaphragm
c) Magnetization of a thin diaphragm
C d) All of the above
T
9. Microfluidics is extensively used in_____ application of MEMS
E a) Thermo mechanical
b) Biomedical
c) Electromechanical
d) All of the above
10. Sensors are classified on the basis of

A a) Functions
b) Performance
I c) Output
T 11. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a) Light emitting diode
E b) Photo diode
c) Transistor
d) All of the above
12. If a circuit has to switch between two power sources, then which type of switch is required?
A a) SPST
b) SPDT
I c) DPDT
d) DPST
C
13. A check valve is a/an:
T
a) Directional control valve.
E b) Counterbalance valve.
c) Reducing valve.
d) Pressure valve.
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
14. Why is the pilot operated check valve used in clamping operation?
a) To reduce leakage in spool valve.
b) To avoid decrease in pressure during clamping.
A c) Both a) and b)
d) To avoid increase in pressure during clamping.
I
15. When PLC connections are used instead of electrical connections, the order of operations to
C
be performed can be interchanged by
T a) Changing hardwired connections.
b) Changing sequence of program.
E c) Both a) and b)
16. Which of the following operates only on physical contact with the actuating system?
a) Inductive switch
A b) Capacitive switch
c) Reed switch
I d) Limit switch
C 17. In an old car without power steering, the driver steers heavily to turn wheels and axles, but in
a modern car, steering fluid does most of the work. Power steering is an example of
T
a) Pneumatic power at work.
E b) Hydraulic power at work.
c) Electrical power at work.
d) Mechanical power at work.
18. How is tilting action possible in trucks for unloading the gravel material using hydraulic
power?
A 1. Tilting action is possible if, oil flows at high pressure into the cylinder
2. Tilting action is possible if, air flows at low pressure into the cylinder.
I 3. The truck body tilts when piston rod in the actuator is pushed out.
C 4. Tilting action is possible if air is compressed at high pressure
a) 1 and 3
T b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
19. A cylinder with an actual 2:1 rod in a regeneration circuit will:

a) Extend twice as fast as retract.
b) Extends and retract at the same speed.
A c) Cannot regenerate a 2:1 rod cylinder.
d) Extend twice fast and retract at half speed.
I
C
20. The symbol is for a
T a) Hydraulic motor
b) Pneumatic motor
E c) Hydraulic pump
d) Compressor
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
21. When the axis of the first and last wheels are coaxial, then the train is known as
a) Simple train of wheels
b) Reverted gear train
A c) Compound train of wheels
d) Epicyclic gear train
I
22. An aluminum member is designed on the basis of
C
a) Yield stress
T b) Elastic limit stress
c) Proof stress
E d) Ultimate stress
23. Which of the following welded joint is designed for shear strength?
a) Transverse fillet welded joint
b) Parallel fillet welded joint
A c) Butt welded joint
d) All of these
I
24. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is
C a) Rectangular
b) Elliptical
T
c) I-section
E d) Any one of these
25. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to accommodate small particles of
dust, grit etc. without scoring the material of the journal, is called
a) Bondability
b) Embedability
A c) Conformability
d) Fatigue strength
I
C 26. When two non-intersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected by gears, the arrangement
is known as
T a) Spur gearing
b) Helical gearing
E c) Spiral gearing
d) Bevel gearing
27. Light impurities in the molten metal are prevented from reaching the mould cavity by
providing
A a) Skim bob
b) Button well
I c) Strainer
d) All of the above
C
28. Among the list which is not network systems and method of communication in PLC?
T
a) MelsecNET
E b) GENET
c) TIWAY
d) CSMA.
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
29. If an input device receives current from the input module of the PLC, input module is
referred to as ___________.
a) Sinking
A b) Sourcing.
c) Isolation.
I d) Coupling.
C
30. The processing inputs in PLC using mass input /output copying is _____________.
T a) Scan all the inputs and copy their states into RAM
b) Slower process than continuous updating
E c) By examining each input as it occurs in the program
31. A circuit that being energized maintains the state until another input is received is called
_____
A a) Looping circuit
b) b) Dominant circuit
I c) Latch circuit
d) Safety circuit
C
32. ____________ are programs to perform specific tasks that can be called for use in larger
T
programs.
E a) Jumps
b) Internal relays
c) Subroutines
33. A proximity sensor is connected to a PLC input programmed with a down counter, every
A time when the sensor output goes high then:
a) The output is switched on
I b) Resets to the value of 100
C c) starts counting from 0
d) Count accumulated by the counter decreases by 1
T
34. When the input to PLC is a thumbwheel form of instructions required will be
E a) Binary to binary conversion
b) Digital to binary conversion
c) Integer to BCD conversion
d) Integer to BCD conversion.
A 35. A fuel-injection system that does not use a sensor to measure the amount (or mass) of air
entering the engine is usually called _____________ type of system.
I a) Air vane-controlled
b) Speed density
C c) Mass airflow
d) Hot wire
T
E 36. The sensor that most determines fuel delivery when a fuel injected engine is first started is
the ___ _____________ .
a) O2S
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
b) Engine MAP sensor

c) ECT sensor
d) IAT sensor
A
37. What type of transduction is used in a throttle angle sensor?
I a) Rheostat
b) Voltage generating
C
c) Potentiometer
T d) Piezoelectric
E 38. A waste-spark-type ignition system fires _____________ .

a) Two spark plugs at the same time
b) One spark plug with reverse polarity
c) One spark plug with straight polarity
d) All of the above
A
39. What type of device is used in a typical idle air control?
I a) DC motor
b) Stepper motor
C c) Pulsator-type actuator
d) Solenoid
T
E 40. Exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) is generally not needed under all the following conditions
except _____________ .
a) Idle speed
b) Cold engine
c) Cruise speed
d) Wide-open throttle (WOT)
A
41. When does the power train control module perform a self-test of the electronic throttle
I control system?
C a) During cruise speed when the throttle is steady
b) During deceleration
T c) During acceleration
d) When the ignition switch is first rotated to the on position before the engine starts.
E
42. The operations of addressed memory devices or port devices are enabled through:
a) Data bus
b) Control bus
c) Address bus
A d) Central bus
I 43. In 8086 microprocessors, trap flag is used for:

a) Prohibiting the interruption of a program
C b) String instructions
c) Stepping through the program
T
E
44. In assembly language programing, assigning of the specific address of where the object code
are to be loaded into memory is done by:
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
a) Assembler
b) Locator
c) Debugger
A d) Sequencer
I 45. The instruction that copies a word from the stack location pointed to by the stack pointer to a
destination specified in the instruction is:
C
a) POP
T b) PUSH
c) PUSHF
E d) POPF
46. SBB stands for:

a) Subtract Bit by Bit
b) Subtract with Borrow
A c) Shift bit by bit
d) Shift Byte by Byte
I
47. Which of the following statements is true for 8086 system?
C a) A machine cycle is made up of instruction cycles.
b) A state is made up of machine cycles.
T
c) A machine cycle is made up of states, which in turn are made up of instruction
E cycles.
d) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles and a machine cycle is made up
of states.
48. An interrupt vector is the:

a) starting address of an interrupt service procedure
A b) ending address of an interrupt service procedure
c) low segment register
I d) code segment register
C
49. If the result of DIV operation is too large to fit in the destination register, then the type of
T interrupt done by 8086 system will be:
a) TYPE 0
E b) TYPE 1
c) TYPE 2
d)TYPE 3
50. The abbreviation USART stands for:

A a)Unicode System Architecture
b)Universal Signal Auto Retriever Terminal
I c) Universal Synchronous/Asynchronous Receiver Transmitter
d) Unified System Architecture for Real Time operations
C
51. An external device to “funnel” the interrupt signals into a single interrupt input on the
T
processor is called:
E a) multiplexer
b) Code segmenter
c) Interrupt junction
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
d) Priority interrupt controller
52. The circuitry which produces digital information regarding position and speed of rotation of
A various motor shafts is:
a) Shaft regulator
I b) Shaft encoder
c) Shaft decoder
C
d) Shaft analyser
T
53. For generating Coons patch we require
E a) A set of grid points on surface
b) A set of control points
c) Four bounding curves defining surface
d) Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
A 54. During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 the type
of tool motion will be
I a) Circular Interpolation - clockwise
b) Circular Interpolation - counterclockwise
C c) Linear Interpolation
d) Rapid feed
T
E 55. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1 (15,10) to P2
(10,15) will have its center at
a) (10, 10)
b) (15, 10)
c) (15, 15)
d) (10, 15)
A
56. In computer aided drafting practice, an arc is defined by
I a) Two end points only
C b) Center and radius
c) Radius and one end point
T d) Two end points and center
E 57. The following is not a graphics standard:

a) GKS
b) IGBS
c) UNIX
d) PHIGS
A
58. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not require much
I computer time and memory?
a) Surface modelling
C b) Solid modelling
c) Wireframe modelling
T
d) All of the above
E
59. The number of lines required to represent a cub: in a wireframe model is:
a) 8
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
b) 6
c) l2
d) 16
A
60. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?
I a) Hyperbola
b) Bezier curve
C
c) B-spline curve
T d) Cubic spline curve
E 61. The curve that follows a convex hull property is:

a) Cubic spline
b) B-spline
c) Bezier curve
d) Both (b) and (c)
A
62. Negative feedback in an amplifier.
I a) Reduce gain.
b) Increase frequency and phase distortions.
C c) Reduces bandwidth.
d) Increases noise.
T
E 63. It is seen that a digital alarm clock generates an alarm on reaching the present time. What
will be circuit of the alarm?
a) Digital circuit
b) Combinational circuit
c) Sequential circuit
d) rectifier circuit
A
64. What will be arithmetic result of B+B?
I a) Will be 1
C b) Will be 0
c) Will be B
T d) Will be complement of B
E 65. In a 30: 1 MUX, how many select lines are needed?

a) 7
b) 6
c) 5
d) 4
A
66. What will be the total number of flip-flops required to count 16 clock pulses?
I a) 4
b) 2
C c) 8
d) 16
T
E 67. In a Fourier transform, if L < N, then it results in
a) Sampling
b) Zero-padding
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
c) Noise measurement
d) None of these
A 68. The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a DC shunt motor is
a) Armature control
I b) Flux control
c) Ward Leonard
C
d) Tapped field
T
69. A counter that starts from a specified number and increments down to zero is known as the
E a) Cascading counter
b) up counter
c) down counter
d) reset counter
A 70. Robot is
a) Reprogrammable machine
I b) Automatically controlled machine
c) Multipurpose machine
T
71. A revolute joint allows
E a) Linear motion
b) Rotational motion
c) Both linear and rotational motions
d) Does not allow any motion
72. Actuators typically used in a robot:

A
a) Stepper motor
I b) DC motor
C c) Both stepper and DC motors
d) AC induction motor
T
73. Sensor used to measure the position of the motor
E a) Encoder
b) Resolver
c) Both encoder and resolver
d) Tachometer
A 74. A rotation matrix has

a) Unity as one of the Eigen values
I b) Unity as its determinant
c) Transpose as its inverse
C d) All the above
T
75. At the workspace boundary the determinant of the Jacobean is
E a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
d) Not predictable
76. Following is/are a language used in robot programming

A a) VAL
b) Robot-Basic
I c) AL
d) All the above
C
T 77. Number of DH parameters used in serial link manipulators is
a) 1
E b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
78. Homogeneous transformation matrix has the size

A a) 3X4
b) 4X3
I c) 4X4
d) 6X6
C
79. Inverse of the homogeneous transformation matrix is
T
a) Does not exist
E b) Its transpose
c) Identity matrix
80. Inverse of the rotation matrix is

a) Does not exist
A b) Its transpose
c) Identity matrix
I d) None of the above
C
PART-B (40X2= 80 Marks)
T
81. The thumb rule to classify a rarefied gas is
E
a) Kn<0.1, Ma<0.3 b) Kn<0.1, Ma>0.3
c) Kn>0.1, Ma<0.3 d) Kn>0.1, Ma>0.3
82. The 300 mm wafers offer _________ times more area for substrates than that by 200 mm
wafers.
A a) 2 b) 2.25
c) 2.5 d) 2.75
I
C 83. Determine the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. The two plates have identical
dimensions of L=W=1000μm with a gap d=2μm. Air is the dielectric medium between the
T two plates. (€r=1, €o=8.85pF/m).
a) 1.13pF b) 3.33pF
E c) 4.43pF d) 8.83pF
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
84. Determine the frequency of vibration of a 10mg mass suspended from a spring with a spring
constant k=6x10-5N/m.
A a) 0.93 cycles/s b) 0.39 cycles/s

c) 0.43 cycles/s c) 0.34 cycles/s
I
85. Determine the equivalent spring constant k and natural frequency ωn of a cantilever beam
C
element in a micro accelerometer as illustrated in the figure 2. The beam is made of silicon
T with a Young's modulus 1,90,000 MPa.
Fig.2
A a) 59.39 & 2437 rad/s b) 57.39 & 2347 rad/s
c) 55.39 & 2473 rad/s d) 59.39& 4237 rad/s
I
86. Determine the pressure drop in a minute stream of alcohol flowing through a section of a
C
tapered tube 10cm in length. The inlet velocity is 600m/s. The mass density of alcohol is
T 789.6kg/m. The tube is inclined 30 from the horizontal plane as illustrated in the figure 3.
A
Fig.3
I a) 387.3N/m2 b) 378.3N/m2
c) 383.3N/m2 d) 787.3N/m2
C
87. Which of the following is a type of low-torque high-speed motor?
T a) Radial piston motors.
E b) Axial piston motors.
c) Bent axis motor.
d) Gear motor.
88. Low-torque high-speed motors are used in

a) Cranes b) Winches.
A c) Fans. d) Conveyors.
I
89. Which formula is used to calculate head loss in valves?
C a) K2 (v / 2 g) b) K (v / 2 g)
2
c) K (v / 2 g) d) K v2 g
T
90. What is the function of sequence valve used in hydraulic circuits?
E a) Sequence valves are used to perform number of operations one after the other after the set
pressure is reached.
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
b) Sequence valves are used to perform number of operations continuously before the set
pressure is reached.
c) Sequence valves after reaching set pressure oil is flown to the tank.
A d) All of the above.
I 91. Calculate the power absorbed by the pump if, it has a flow rate of 20 cc/rev and develops a
maximum pressure of 70 bar, when electric motor runs at a speed of 1200 rpm.
C
a) 1.9 kW b) 2.8 kW
T c) 2.3 kW d) 2.6
E 92. In an arc welding process, the voltage and current are 25 V and 300 A respectively. The arc
heat transfer efficiency is 0.85 and welding speed is 8mm/sec. the net heat input (in J/mm)
is.
a) 64 b) 797
c) 1103 d) 79700
A
93. Two identical ball bearings P and Q are operating at 30 kN and 45 kN respectively. The ratio
I of the life of bearing P to the life of bearing Q is.
a) 81/16 b)9/4
C c) 27/8 d) 3/2
T
94. A ductile material having an endurance limit of 196 N/mm2 and the yield point at 294
E N/mm2 is stressed under variable load. The maximum and minimum stresses are 147 N/mm2
and 49 N/mm2. The fatigue stress concentration factor is 1.32. The available factor of safety
for this loading is
a) 3.0 b) 1.5
c) 1.33 d) 4.0
A 95. A solid circular shaft of diameter 100 mm is subjected to an axial stress of 50 MPa. It is
further subjected to a torque of 10 kN-m. The maximum principle stress experienced on the
I shaft is closest to
C a) 41 MPa b) 82 MPa
c) 164 MPa d) 204 MPa
T
96. A single point cutting tool with a nose radius of 0.4 mm was used to turn a component in a
E lathe employing feed rate 0.3 mm/rev. If the feed rate is double, the ideal surface roughness
(peak-to-valley height) produced on the components will increase by a factor of
a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
A 97. In a PLC an ADC is used to sample the output voltage from a pressure sensor. If the output
from the sensor is 0 V when the pressure is 0 kPa and 10 V when it is 10 kPa, the minimum
I number of ADC bits needed to resolve the sensor output if the sensor error is not to exceed
0.01 kPa is.
C a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 10
T
98. For the ladder diagram shown in figure 34, there is an output from Output 1 when:
E
Page 13 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
A
I
C
T
E Figure 4
a) There is just an input to In 1.
b) There is just an input to In 2.
c) There is just an input to In 2 and a momentary input to In 1.
d) There is an input to In 1 or an input to In 2.
A 99. Which compound gear set uses a planetary gear set in front of a Ravigneaux gear set?
a) Simple gear set b) Simpson gear set
I
c) Ravigneaux gear set d) Lapelletier gear set
C
100. When checking the operation of a rear window defogger with a voltmeter,
T _____________.
E a) The voltmeter should be set to read AC volts.
b) The voltmeter should read close to battery voltage anywhere along the grid.
c) Voltage should be available anytime at the power side ofthe grid because the control
circuit just completes the ground side of the heater grid circuit.
d) The voltmeter should indicate decreasing voltage when thegrid is tested across the width of
A the glass.
I 101. How much power it takes to produce 100 amperes from an alternator?
a) 2.4 hp b) 1.4 hp c) 3.0 hp d) 3.8 hp
C
102. Which battery rating is expressed in minutes?
T
a) Cold-cranking amperes (CCA)
E b) Cranking amperes (CA)
c) Reserve capacity
d) Battery voltage test
103. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of flip-flops while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of
A transistors.
I b) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of transistors while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of
flip-flops.
C c) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of flip-flops while a dynamic RAM is a matrix of
charges on a tiny capacitor.
T d) A static RAM is essentially a matrix of charges on a tiny capacitor while a dynamic RAM
is a matrix of flip-flops.
E
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ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
104. The bus interface unit of 8086 system carries out the following activities:
a) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory and execute instructions
b) Fetch instructions from memory, decode and execute instructions
A c) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory, read data from ports & memory
d) Send out addresses, fetch instructions from memory, read data from ports & memory and
I write data to ports & memory.
C
105. Some of the flags indicating the condition produced by an 8086 instruction are:
T a) Carry flag, parity flag and error flag.
b) Auxiliary carry flag overflow flag and interrupt flag.
E c) Zero flag, sign flag and control flag.
d) Carry flag, parity flag and auxiliary carry flag.
106. Which of the following 8086 STRING instructions is used to move byte or word from one
string to another?
A a)MOVS/MOVSB/MOVSW b) MOVSB
c) MOVSW d) MOVS
I
107. The drawback of using Liquid Crystal Displays(LCD) is there:
C a) High power requirement b) Bulky volume
c) Do not emit their own light d) All of the above
T
E 108. While driving a stepper motor in an electronic device, micro stepping is achieved by:
a) ON/OFF switch stepper motor controller
b) Each winding being driven by the output of D/A converter
c) Shaft encoder
d) Either option (a) or (b)
A 109. In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-
I axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be.
C a) (7.5, 5) b) (10, 5) c) (7.5, -5) d) (10, -5)
T 110. The degrees of freedom of a two-node bar element are:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
E
111. The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is:
a) n + 1 b) n - I c) n d) 2n
112. What will be the binary equivalent of gray coded number 10011011?
A a) 11101001 b) 11101101 c) 10101101 d) 11100101
I 113. Select which option is best for F = A' B' + C' + D' + E’?
a) F' = A + B + C + D + E
C b) F' =ABCDE
c) F' = AB (C + D + E)
T
d) F' = (A + B) CDE
E
114. In a high pass filter, calculate the cut-off frequency when a 82 x 10-12 F capacitor is
connected in series with a 240,000 Ω resistor.
Page 15 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2MCE23
a) 8 kHz b) 6 kHz c) 3 kHz d) 10 kHz
115. What will be the z-Transform of unit step sequence u(n)? x(nT) = |1, 0| n >0
A a) 1 / 1 – z-1 b) 1 / 1 – z-2 c) 1 / 1 + z-1 d) 1 + z-1
I 116. What is the sampling rate for antialiasing filter if it is required to acquire a signal having
frequency range of 0-200 Hz.
C
a) 250 cycles/s b) 351 cycles/s c) 432 cycles/s d) 512 cycles/s
T
117. Manipulator dynamics is
E a) Nonlinear
b) Time invariant
c) Coupled
d) All the above
A 118. Forward kinematics of a serial link manipulator has

a) No solutions
I b) Multiple solutions
c) Exactly one solution
C d) Unpredictable.
T
119. Inverse kinematics of a serial link manipulator has
E a) No solutions
b) Multiple solutions
c) Exactly one solution
d) Any of the above
120. Relationship between joint velocities and end effector velocities is

A a) Linear
b) Nonlinear
I c) Does not have any relationship
C d) Polynomial
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 16 of 16
UG MECHATRONICS ENGINEERING
Code 23-Paper 2
1 D 31 C 61 B 91 B
2 B 32 C 62 A 92 B
3 C 33 D 63 C 93 C
4 A 34 C, D 64 B 94 B
5 D 35 B 65 C 95 B
6 C 36 C 66 A 96 B
7 A 37 D 67 B 97 D
8 A 38 D 68 B 98 C
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 D
10 D 40 C 70 D 100 D
11 B 41 D 71 B 101 A
12 B 42 B 72 C 102 C
13 C 43 C 73 C 103 C
14 C 44 B 74 D 104 D
15 B 45 A 75 B 105 D
16 D 46 B 76 D 106 A
17 B 47 D 77 D 107 C
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 B
19 B 49 A 79 D 109 B
20 B 50 C 80 B 110 B
21 B 51 D 81 C 111 A
22 A 52 B 82 B 112 B
23 B 53 C 83 C 113 D
24 D 54 A 84 B 114 A
25 B 55 A 85 A 115 A
26 C 56 D 86 Marks to all 116 C, D
27 A 57 C 87 D 117 D
28 D 58 C 88 C 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 C 119 B
30 A 60 A 90 A 120 A
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A BIOTECHNOLOGY
I
C
T PAPER-I
E Instructions:
questions.
A v. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
I vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
C programmable scientific calculator.
T blue ball point pen.
E viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
1. A system which require less solvent and produces a more concentrated extract phase, is
A desired with a
I
(a) large distribution coefficients (b) small distribution coefficients
C (c) very small distribution coefficients (d) constant distributioncoefficients
T
2. The efficiency of cell disruption in a bead mill depends on the
E
(a) construction of the cells (b) amount and size of beads
(c) type and rotational speed of agitation (d) all of these
3. The disk centrifuge is the type of centrifuge used most often for bio separations due to its
(a) continuous operation (b) lesser cost

A (c) higher speed (d) ease in operation
I 4. Which of the following is not the physical method of the cells rupturing?
C
(a) Milling (b) Homogenization (c) Ultrasonication (d) Enzymatic digestion
T
E 5. Which of the operation does not come under upstream processing?
(a) Media preparation (b) Inoculum development

(c) Effluent treatment (d) Storage of raw material
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 6. Micro filtration refers to the separation of suspended material such as bacteria by using a
I membrane with spore sizes of
C (a) 0.02 to 10 μm (b) 1-10Ao (c) 20-30μm (d) 10-200Ao
T
7. Chromatography is based on the
E
(a) different rate of movement of the solute in the column
(b) separation of one solute from other constituents by being captured on the adsorbent
(c) different rate of movement of the solvent in the column
(d) any of the above
8. Which of the following separation method is suited method for a protein sample with
large differences in molecular mass?
A
I (a) dialysis (b) salting out process
(c) density gradient centrifugation (d) rate zonal centrifugation
C
T 9. In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made
E
(a) non-polar (b) polar
(c) either non-polar or polar (d) none of these
10. High performance liquid chromatography (HPC) cannot be used to
(a) identify the various pigments from a leaf extract

(b) separate organic pesticides
A (c) determine the caffeine content in coffee samples
(d) determine the mercury content in a fish sample
I
C 11. Physical adsorption is a ______ process
T
(a) reversible (b) irreversible (c) exothermic (d) none of the above
E
12. Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
(a) Electrostatic attraction (b) Electrical mobility of ionic species

(c) Adsorption chromatography (c) Partition chromatography
13. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of

A
(a) organic wastes (b) hydrocarbons
I (c) heavy metals (d) all of these
C
14. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil spills?
T
(a) Bacillus subtilis (b) Pseudomonas putida
E
(c) Pseudomonas denitrificans (d) Bacillus denitrificans
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 15. Which of the following microorganisms leach metals out of rock ores and can
I accumulate silver?
C (a) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (b) Thiobacillus
T (c) Pseudomonas putida (d) Zoogloearamigera
E 16. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by naturally
occurring microbes is called
(a) exsitubioremediation (b) intrinsic bioremediation

(c) extrinsic bioremediation (d) none of these
17. Which of the following active pools of carbon is the largest of Earth and contributes the
A most of carbon cycling?
I (a) The atmosphere (b) Rain-forest vegetation
C (c) Recoverable fossil fuels (d) The oceans
T 18. Ex situ bioremediation involves the
E
(a) degradation of pollutants by microbes directly
(b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
(c) degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
(d) none of these
19. Which process of water treatment is done to avoid floating debris, branches, trees or
other large particles suspended in water?
A
I (a) Screening (b) Aeration
(c) Primary sedimentation (d) Secondarysedimentation
C
T 20. ___________ are used in fine screen so that they do not get clogged up
E (a) Automatic strainers (b) Spray aerators
(c) Cascade aerators (d) Gravel bed aerators
21. In which process, excess lime is converted into bicarbonate?
(a) Chlorination (b) Liming (c) Re-carbonation (d) Super-chlorination
22. ____________ is the amount of oxygen required to oxidize only organic matter in
A sewage.
I
(a) Turbidity (b) BOD (c) COD (d) DO
C
T 23. The oxygen deficit is maximum when
E (a) Rate of re-aeration is 0

(b) Rate of de-oxygenation is 0
(c) Rate of re-aeration equal the rate of de-oxygenation
(d) Rate of re-aeration > rate of de-oxygenation
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A 24. Organic contaminants are removed from the water by the process of -------
I
(a) Water softening (b) Demineralization (c) Absorption (d) Adsorption
C
T 25. In a closed thermodynamic system
E (a) No heat transfer across the boundaries
(b) No mass transfer across the boundaries
(c) No mass transfer but heat transfer across the boundaries
(d) Both heat and mass transfer across the boundaries
26. An example of extensive property is

(a) Surface tension (b) Refractive index (c) Internal energy (d) Viscosity
A
I 27. Heat absorbed at constant volume is equal to increase in
C (a) Internal energy (b) Heat constant (c) Enthalpy (d) None of these
T
28. For ideal gas the relation between the enthalpy change (∆H) and internal energy change
E (∆𝐸) at constant temperature is given by
(a) ∆𝐻 = E+ PV (b) ∆𝐻 =∆E + ∆n RT

(c) ∆G = ∆𝐻 +T ∆𝑆 (d) ∆H = ∆𝐸 +P ∆𝑇
29. Total heat stored in chemical reaction at constant temperature and pressure is called the
A (a) Internal energy of the system (b) Enthalpy of the system

(c) Heat of reaction (d) Heat of neutralization
I
C 30. For a cyclic process resulting to its original state i.e. for a process involving isothermal
expansion of an ideal gas, the change in internal energy is
T
E (a) ∆𝐸 = Q –W (b) ∆𝐸 = 0
(c) ∆𝐸 = Q (d) ∆𝐸 = – W
31. Specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) is defined by
(a) (𝜕E/𝜕𝑇)p (b) (𝜕H/𝜕𝑇)p (c) (𝜕S/𝜕𝑄)p (d) (𝜕G/𝜕𝑇)p
A 32. According to first law of thermodynamics, the change in internal energy (∆𝐸)
accompanying a process, performing work (W) and involving absorption of heat (Q) is
I given by relation
C
(a) ∆𝐸 = Q – W (b) ∆𝐸 =Q + W (c) ∆𝐸 = δQ - δW (d) ∆𝐸 = δQ + Δw
T
E 33. All natural processesare irreversible. This is a direct consequence of
(a) First law of thermodynamics (b) Second law of thermodynamics

(c) Third law of thermodynamics (d) Gibb’s Paradox
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 34. Given amount of heat cannot be completely converted into work. However, it is possible
to convert a given amount of work completely into heat. This statement results from the
C
T (a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamics
(c) Second law of thermodynamics (d) Third law of thermodynamics
E
35. Choose the correct statement
(a) the t1/2 of a first order reaction is independent of the initial concentration
(b) Order is always equal to molecularity of reaction
(c) the units of second order rate constant are mol dm3 s-1
(d) the rate constant of a reaction decreases with T
A
36. In a chemical reaction, a catalyst changes the
I
C (a) potential energy for the products (b) potential energy for the reactants
(c) Heat of reaction (d) Activation energy
T
E 37. The order of a reaction may be
(a) Zero
(b) whole number
(c) Fraction
(d) Any one of the above depending upon the type of reaction
38. In a continuous flow stirred tank reactor, the composition of exit stream
A
I (a) is the same as that of reactant
(b) is same as that of reactor
C (c) is different than that of reactor as well as entrance both
T (d) None of these
E 39. Point out the reactor in which more uniform operating conditions can be obtained
(a) Plug flow reactor (b) Tubular reactor

(c) Stirred tank reactor (d) None of these
40. In an ideal plug flow reactor
A (a) Mixing takes place in axial direction

(b) There is no mixing in radial direction
I (c) There is a uniform velocity across the radius
T 41. A reaction in which one of the products of reaction acts as a catalyst is called
E
(a) Catalytic reaction (b) Autothermal reaction
(c) Photochemical reaction (d) Autocatalytic reaction
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 42. In the presence of catalyst, the equilibrium constant of a heterogeneous reaction
C (a) Remain constant
T (b) Increases
(b) Decreases
E (d) Any one of above, depending upon the reaction conditions
43. Name the method by which heat transfer takes place due to direct molecular
communication without any appreciable displacement of the system
(a) forced convection (b) natural convection (c) conduction (d) Radiation
A 44. Thermal conductivity is lowest for

I (a) Pure metals (b) alloys (c) Liquids (d) Gasses
C
45. Thermal conductivity of liquids diminishes with rising temperature due to
T
E (a) Specific heat (b) Density
(c) Either (a) and (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)
46. The value of Cρ μ / K is known as
(a) Nusselt number (b) Stanton Number (c) Prandle number (d) Mach number
47. The lower critical Reynolds number at which transition occurs from laminar to turbulent
A flow is around
I
(a) 10000 (b) 5000 (c) 2300 (d) 1500
C
T 48. The unit of diffusion coefficient is
E (a) m2/s (b) m/s (c) mole / (m2/s) (d) mole /m2
49. Fick’s Law is valid for
(a) Solid (b) liquid (c) Gasses (d) Any one of these
50. Newton’s law of viscosity states that the shear stress is directly proportional to the
A
(a)Velocity (b) Velocity gradient
I (c) Square of velocity (d) Square of velocity gradient
C
51. Bernoulli’s theorem deals with the law of conservation of
T
E (a) Energy (b) Mass (c) Momentum (d) All of these
Page 6 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 52. Point out which is not applicable to Reynolds number (Re)
C (a) It is a dimensionless group
T (b) This number represents the ratio of viscous to inertial force
(c) At low Re, the viscous force predominate and the flow is laminar
E (d) At higher Re, the inertial force overcome the viscous friction and consequently fluid
layer breaks up into turbulent flow
53. The laminar flow through circular pipe, the average velocity is equal to
(a) Maximum velocity (b) half of maximum velocity

(c) 0.3 times of maximum velocity (d) 0.75 times of maximum velocity
A
54. Manometer can be used to measure
I
C (a) Gauge pressure (b) Differential pressure
(c) Atmospheric pressure (d) Absolute pressure
T
E 55. Which of the following impeller is responsible to produce laminar flow during agitation?
(a) Helix impeller (b) Disk blade impeller

(c) Curved blade impeller (d) Any one of the above
56. In case of Monode’s growth kinetics of microbial cell, Ks is equal to concentration of

nutrient when
A (a) Specific growth rate is equal to one fourth of it’s maximum value
I (b) Specific growth rate is equal to half of it’s maximum value
c) Specific growth rate is equal to one third of it’s maximum value
T
57. The unit of the specific growth rate is
E
(a) hr (b) hr -2 (c) hr 2 (d) None of these
58. For the purpose of the animal cell culture which type of impeller is suitable?
(a) Marine propeller (b) Disk turbine (c) Paddle type (d) None of these
59. Which of the reactor has the ability to handle the high viscosity fluid?
A
(a) Air lift reactor (b) Bubble column reactor
I (c) Stirred tank reactor (d) None of these
C
60. The animal cell culture media is sterilized by
T
(a) Autoclave (b) Heating oven (c) UV Light (d) None of these
E
61. For the calibration of the Dissolved Oxygen Probe in the fermenter to zero, the dissolve
oxygen is driven out of fermenter fluid by the sparging with the following gas
Page 7 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A (a) Nitrogen (b) Helium (c) Argon (d) All of these

I 62. The preferred method of the supplying oxygen to a genetically modified mouse cell
culture is
C
(a) Agitation and aeration
T
(b) sparging of oxygen through the medium
E (c) Capillary diffusion of oxygen in the liquid
(d) All of these
63. Penicillin is separated from the cell free fermenter broth by the method of
(a) Filtration (b) Extraction (c) Precipitation (d) All of these
64. For the effective separation of the very fine suspended fat droplets in the milk, the setting
A
distance is reduced in case of
I
(a) Disk centrifuge (b) Tubular centrifuge
C
(c) Basket centrifuge (d) None of these
T
65. In waste treatment by a trickling filter reactor, the fluid in the reactor move in the
E
direction
(a) From entry at one side to the outlet at the other side
(b) From the top to bottom of reactor
(c) From bottom to the top of reactor
(d) All of these
A 66. In a pseudoplastic fermentation broth, viscosity of the broth

I
(a) Increase with the increase in agitation
C (b) Decreases with the increase in the agitation
(c) Is not affected by the agitation
T
(d) None of these
E
67. In case of non-homogenously mixed large fermenter, the preferred method of
measurement of oxygen transfer capacity into the reactor is
(a) Static gassing out method (b) Dynamic gassing out method
(c) Sulphite oxidation method (d) Total oxygen balance method
68. The kinetics of the plug flow reactor is similar to the

A
I (a) Batch reactor (b) CSTR
(c) fed-batch reactor (d) None of these
C
T 69. If the final cell concentration is to be reached in the stationary phase, the residence time
will be lowest in case of
E
(a) CSTR (b) Batch fermenter
(c) Independent of batch or CSTR (d) None of these
Page 8 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 70. One of the limitations of the air lift reactor is
C (a) No moving parts (b) Simple
(c) Heat transfer problem (c) Limited viscosity operation
T
E
71. An antibody is being absorbed in an affinity absorbent contained in a 5cm long packed
bed. The breakthrough time was determined to be 30 minutes and it is known that 80%
of the binding capacity was utilised at this point. Predict the exhaustion time.
(a) 22 minute (b) 38 minute (c) 42 minutes (d) 54 minute
A
72. Proteins M and N is non-interacting with each other, having same molecular weight and
I dimension. The Pi of Protein M and N are at pH 5.2 and 8.5 respectively. Which should
C be the best technique purification of these two Protein samples:
T (a) Membrane separation (b) Adsorption
E (c) Gel filtration (d) Iso electric focussing
73. Electrophoresis of a purified protein named X in presence of sodium dodecyl sulphate

and 2-mercaptoethanol shows a single bank of 45kDa. In gel filtration column
chromatography, protein X elute between alcohol dehydrogenase (160 kDa) and beta
amylase (190 kDa). How many identical subunits are present in protein X composed of?
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 4

A
74. For elucidating the structure of a novel volatile organic compound present in a flower,
I which ionization method will be best suitable for analysis in a GC-MS/MS system?
C (a) Desorption ionization (b) Chemical ionization
T (c) Fast atom bombardment (d) Therrno-spray
E 75. What happen to the concentration of iodine when the pH is between 6 and 8?
(a) I2 decreases whereas HIO increases
(b) I2 increases, whereas HIO decreases
(c) Both I2 and HIO increases
(d) Both I2 and HIO decreases
76. ____________ represents the bacterial density that is most likely tobe present in water.
A
(a) BOD (b) COD (c) MPN (d) Coliform index
I
C 77. Consider the following statements about wetland farming. Identify the right ones.
I. In wet land farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants
T during rainy season.
E II. These areas grow various water intensive crops such as rice, jute and sugarcane.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) Both (d) None
Page 9 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 78. Boiling of water is __________method of disinfection
C (a) Physical (b) Chemical (c) Mechanical (d) Electrical
T
79. Identify bioremediation technologies?
E
(a) Bioleaching (b) Land farming (c) Rhizofiltration (d) All of these
80. Calculate the percent saturation of dissolved oxygen in a water sample with a
temperature of 22oC and a dissolved oxygen concentration of 5.3 mg/L, when the
atmospheric pressure is 1 atm. Assure the sample salinity is less than 100 mg/L
A (a) 56% (b) 66% (c) 78% (d) 48%

I 81. If water smells bad, then that odour can be removed by adding
C
(a) Bleach (b) alum
T (c) Activated carbon (d) deactivated nitrogen
E
82. In case of diafiltration
(a) The volume of retained stream kept constant and low molecular wt. solutes removed
(b) The retained stream containing product is produced in volume
(c) A low molecular wt product passes into permeate and separated from high molecular
wt impurities
(d) None of these
A
I 83. At certain temperature, the first order rate constant k1 is found to be smaller than the
second order rate constant k2. If Ea (1) of the first order reaction is greater than Ea (2) of
C the second order reaction, then as temperature is raised
T
(a) k2 will increase faster than k1
E
(b)k1 will increase faster than k2 but will always remain less than k2
(c) k1 will increase faster than k2 and become equal to k2
(d) k1 will increase faster than k2 but become greater than k2
84. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 min. The time required for
the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction will be (log 2 = 0.301)
A (a) 230.3 min (b) 23.03 min (c) 46.06 min (d) 460.6 min
I 85. An Insulated vessel is divided into two compartments by membrane and it initially at
C temperature T1. One compartment contains water and other sulphuric acid. If the
membrane is broken and temperature rises to T2, what is the change in energy of the
T vessel and it’s contents?
E
(a) T1 – T2 (b) T1 / T2 (c) 0 (d) None of the above
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 86. The combined form of first and second law thermodynamics is given by
C (a) TdS = dU + pdV (b) dQ = TdS + pdV
T (c) dU = TdS + dQ (d) TdS = dU - pdV
E 87. Let us assume that somebody got very drunk the night before and blood alcohol content
(BAC) was 0.20%. Assuming that the rate constant for alcohol degradation k = 0.015
(units involved % and hours, depending upon the first order of kinetics), how many
hours would it take to be suitable for driving at BAC <0.080%?
(a) 8 h (b) 30 h (c) 45 h (d) 60 h
88. According to continuity equation

A
I (a) A1V1 = A2V2 = constant (b) ρ1A1V1 = ρ2A2V2 = constant
(c) P1A1 =P2A2 = constant (c) P1A1V1 =P2A2V2 = constant
C
T 89. Diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture of non-polar and non-reacting is related to the
temperature (T) as
E
(a) D α T (b) D α T3/2 (c) D α T2/3 (d) D α 1/T
90. The Reynolds number is equal to the ratio of
(a) Inertial force to viscous force (b) Inertia force to gravity force
(c) Pressure force to Inertia force (d) None of these
A 91. In an ideal batch reactor, the value of terms which are used in material balance equation
I for component of reactant A
C (a) Input = 0 (b) Output = 0 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
T 92. In case of the mechanical agitator, the power consumption varies with the impeller
E parameter as follows
(a) rpm2 (b) diameter2 (c) rpm3 (d) None of these
93. In case of noncompetitive inhibition type of enzymatic reaction, the following effect is
observed
(a) Vmax increased and Km decreased (b) Vmax decreased and Km increased
A (c) Vmax decreased and Km unchanged (d) None of the above
I
94. In case of immobilized enzyme entrapped in polymer matrix and in a highly stirred
C system of reaction, the rate of reaction will be controlled by the following type of mass
transfer resistance for substrate
T
E (a) Internal mass transfer resistance
(b) External mass transfer resistance
(c) Both Internal and external mass transfer resistance
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
I 95. The most appropriate effect of increase in the temperature on the reaction rate of the
enzymatic reaction is
C
T (a) Reaction rate increases with the increase in temperature
(b) Reaction rate decreases with the increasein temperature
E (c) Reaction rate increases with the increase in temperature and then decreases
96. Heat transfer by conduction depends on
(a) Thermal conductivity and area only

(b) Temperature difference, thermal conductivity, thickness and area
A (c) Thermal conductivity only
(d) Temperature difference and thermal conductivity only
I
C 97. The Grashof number is associated with the ratio of
T (a) Kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity
E (b) Buoyancy force to viscous force
(c) Absolute viscosity to thermal conductivity
(d) None of these
98. The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in
terms of Arrhenius equation, k = A e-E/RT. Activation energy (Ea) of the reaction can be
calculated by plotting
A (a) log k vs 1/T (b) log k vs1/log T (c) k vs T (d) k vs 1 / log T
I
99. The rate of chemical reaction generally increases rapidly even for small temperature
C increase because of rapid increase in the
T
(a) Collision frequency
E (b) Fraction of molecules with energies in excess of activation energy
(c) Activation energy
(d) Average kinetic energy of molecules
100. Which of the following is always true for a spontaneous change at all temperature?
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆𝑆 > 0 (b) ∆𝐻 < 0, ∆𝑆 < 0

A (c) ∆𝐻 < 0, ∆𝑆 > 0 (d) ∆𝐻 > 0, ∆𝑆 < 0
I
C PART –C
T
E
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A (c) 𝑀 is not invertible (d) Determinant of 𝑀 is 5

I
C
E
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A
C
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
T (c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
E 𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0

I 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function
C
𝑙
T 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

T
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
Page 13 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1BIT26
A
𝑥+𝑦
I 111. If function 𝑢 = cos−1 , then it satisfies the following
𝑥+ 𝑦
C
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
T (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
E (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 cot 𝑢 = 0
2 𝑥2

I 𝑑𝑥
C (a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
T (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
A (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥)

1
(b) 8 [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
C
T balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the ball is
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

A
I 118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the remaining
eigenvalue is
C
1 1
T (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
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A (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
I
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
C 120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
T 1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
E
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 15 of 15
UG BIO TECHNOLOGY
Code 26-Paper 1
1 A 31 B 61 A 91 C
2 D 32 A 62 C 92 C
3 B 33 B 63 B 93 C
4 D 34 C 64 A 94 A
5 C 35 A 65 B 95 C
6 A 36 D 66 B 96 B
7 A 37 D 67 D 97 B
8 D 38 B 68 A 98 A
9 A 39 C 69 B 99 B
10 D 40 C 70 C 100 C
11 A 41 D 71 C 101 A
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 C
13 C 43 C 73 D 103 A
14 B 44 D 74 B 104 D
15 B 45 B 75 A 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 A
17 D 47 C 77 C 107 A
18 B 48 A 78 A 108 B
19 A 49 D 79 D 109 D
20 A 50 B 80 B 110 B
21 C 51 A 81 C 111 D
22 B 52 B 82 A 112 B
23 C 53 B 83 A 113 B
24 D 54 A 84 C 114 B
25 C 55 A 85 C 115 B
26 C 56 B 86 A 116 C
27 A 57 D 87 D 117 B
28 B 58 A 88 B 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 B 119 B
30 B 60 D 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A BIOTECHNOLOGY
C PAPER-II
T
Instructions:
E i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
wrong answer.
T
E
1. A recombinant vaccine is available for which one of the following cancers
(a) Audit T cell leukaemia (b) Colon carcinoma

(c) Glioblastoma (d) Cervical carcinoma
A 2. Okazaki segments are’
I
(a) RNA primers for DNA synthesis
C (b) Short DNA fragments after nuclease digestion
T (c) Newly synthesized DNA fragments
(d) Short stretches of DNA attached to RNA primers on lagging strand
E
3. 45 cycle of PCR yields X times as much DNA as 36 cycle of PCR. X is approximately
equal to
(a) 1.25 (b) 9 (c) 500 (d) 109
4. The RNA primer synthesized during the replication process in bacteria is removed by
A
(a) DNA gyrase (b) Primase
I (c) DNA polymerase I (d) DNA polymerase II
C
5. The immunoglobulin that can be transported across the placenta to confer immunity to
T the foetus in mammals is
E
(a) IgG (b) IgM (c) IgE (d) IgD
Page 1 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 6. CD 19 is a marker for
I
(a) B-cells (b) T-cells (c) Macrophage (d) Natural Killer cels
C
T 7. Myeloma cells fused with spleen cells in hybridoma technology area
E (a) immortal and antibody producing cells
(b) mortal and antibody producing cell
(c) hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase lacking cells
(d) Thymidine kinase lacking cells
8. Antigenic determinants generated by the conformation of amino acids present in the

variable regions of immuoglobins are
A
(a) Allotypic (b) Idiotype (c) Anti-idiotype (d) Heterotypic
I
C 9. Which of the following hormone helps in ripening of fruits?
T (a) Cytokinins (b) Gibberellins (c) Ethylene (d) Abscisic acid
E
10. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus free plants?
(a) Embryo culture (b) Meristem culture (c) Ovule culture (d) Anther culture
11. Which is not a plant derived alkaloids?
(a) Menthol (b) Nicotine (c) Quinine (d) Codeine

A
I 12. What Elicitors molecules do?
C (a) Induce cell division
T (b) Stimulate production secondary metabolites
(c) Stimulate hairy root formations that accumulate secondary metabolites
E (d) None of these
13. Haploid plants are produced in large number by ____
(a) Anther culture (b) Ovary culture (c) Both a and b (d) Embryo culture
14. The most widely used chemical for protoplast fusion, as fusogens, is
A
(a) Manitol (b) Sorbitol (c) Mannol (d) Poly ethylene glycol (PEG)\
I
C 15. Cybridsare produced by _____________
T (a) Fusion of two different nuclei from two different species
E (b) Fusion of two same nuclei from same species
(c) Nucleus of one species but cytoplasm from both the parent species
Page 2 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 16. Which is used for surface sterilization of explants?

I
(a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Mercuric chloride
C (b) Sodium hypochlorite (d) All of the above
T
17. The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called ------.
E
(a) Micropropagation (b) Somatic hybridization
(c) Biofortification (d) Bio magnification
18. Gibberellic acid (GA) controls seed germination by directing breakdown of the stored
starch. In which one of the following tissues of the barley seed, α-amylase gene is
induced in response to GA?
A
(a) Endosperm (b) Coleoptile (c) Aleurone layer (d) Embryo
I
C 19. Phynelalanine, a precursor of most of the phenolics in higher plants is a product of which
one of the following pathways?
T
E (a) Shikimic acid pathway (b) Malonic acid pathway
(c) Mevalonic acid pathway (d) Methylerythritol pathway
20. Somaclonal variations are the ones -------
(a) Caused by mutagens (b) Produce during tissue culture

(c) Caused by gamma rays (d) Induced during sexual embryogeny
A 21. Which vector is mostly used in crop improvement?
I
(a) Plasmid (b) Cosmid (c) Phasmid (d) Agrobacterium
C
T 22. Where BLOSUM matrices are used?
E (a) Multiple sequence alignment (b) Pair wise sequence alignment
(c) Phylo-genetic analysis (d) All of the above
23. Deposition of cDNA into inert structure is known as?
(a) DNA finger printing (b) DNA polymerase

(c) DNA probes (d) DNA microarrays
A
24. Which of the following deals with analysing or comparing entire genome of species?
I
C (a) Bioinformatics (b) Genomics
(c) Proteomics (d) Pharmacogenomics
T
E 25. What would be a likely explanation for the existence of pseudogenes?
(a) Evolutionary pressure (b) gene duplication and mutation events

(c) unequal crossing over (d) none of the above
Page 3 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 26. Which of the following is a nucleotide sequence database?

I
(a) EMBL (b) SWISS PROT (c) PROSITE (d) TREMBL
C
T 27. Phylogenetic relationship can be shown by __________
E (a) Dendrogram (b) Data retrieving tool
(c) Gene Bank (d) Data search tool
28. Which of the following doesn’t describe PAM matrices?
(a) This family of matrices lists the likelihood of change from one amino acid to another
in homologous protein sequences during evolution
A (b) There is presently no other type of scoring matrix that is based on such sound
evolutionary principles as are these matrices.
I (c) Even though they were originally based on a relatively small data set, the PAM
C matrices remain a useful tool for sequence alignment
(d) It stands for Percent Altered Mutation
T
E 29. Which of the following is NOT true regarding BLAST and FASTA?
(a) FASTA is faster than BLAST

(b) FASTA is the most accurate
(c) BLAST has limited choices of database
(d) FASTA is more sensitive for DNA-DNA comparisons
30. While analysing motif sequences, what is the major disadvantageous feature of
A PROSITE?
I
(a) The database constructs profiles to complement some of the sequence patterns
C (b) The functional information of these patterns is primarily based on published literature
T (c) Some of the sequence patterns are too short to be specific
(d) Lack of specificity about probability and variation and relation between them
E
31. Which of the following is incorrect about a microarray?
(a) It is a slide attached with a high-density array of immobilized DNA oligomers

representing the entire genome of the species under study
(b) Array of mobilized DNA oligomers cannot be cDNAs
(c) Each oligomer is spotted on the slide and serves as a probe for binding to a unique
A complementary cDNA
(d) It is the most commonly used global gene expression profiling method
I
C 32. An alpha helical region of 20 residues in a protein contains predominantly non-polar
residues. Such a helix is likely to be
T
E (a) On the surface of the protein
(b) Embedded in a lipid bilayer
(c) Located in the cytosol
(d) Exposed to the extracellular environment
Page 4 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A
I 33. A 310 helix is formed when a series of hydrogen bonds occur between
C (a) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+10
T (b) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+3
(c) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+4
E (d) The C=O of residue i and the NH of residue i+5
34. The DNA binding domain of a transcription factor that is specifically required for the
regulation of gene A is exchanged with the DNA binding domain of another transcription
factor that is required specifically for the regulation of gene B. This chimeric
transcription factor will regulate:
A (a) Gene A only (b) Gene B only

(c) Both Gene A and Gene B (d) Neither Gene A and Gene B
I
C 35. Protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells terminates at the stop codon because
T (a) mRNA synthesis stops at the stop codon
E (b) The tRNA corresponding to the stop codon cannot bind to an amino acid
(c) There is no naturally occurring tRNA with an anticodon corresponding to the stop
codon
(d) The conformation around stop codons prevents binding of aminoacyl tRNA.
36. The cell free extract prepared from E.coli cell over expressing enzyme β glucosidase
showed the activity of 1.5 units per mL (protein concentration 2 mg/mL). The NI-NTA
purified preparation showed the activity of 75 units per mL (protein concentration of 100
A μg/mL). Calculate the fold purification of the enzyme
I
(a) 0.001 (b) 0.02 (c) 50 (d) 1000
C
T 37. The reaction velocity (V) vs substrate concentration (S) profile was performed for
enzyme A using 1μg enzyme per assay. Similar experiment was carried out under
E identical conditions except that the concentration of enzyme used was 2μg per assay.
Under these conditions, the kinetic constants
(a) Km and Vmax will remain unchanged

(b) Km will change while and Vmax will remain same
(c) Km will remain same but Vmax will increase
(d) Km and Vmax will increase
A
38. Succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate to fumarate. Which one of the following is
I TRUE when the competitive inhibitor malonate is added in the reaction mixture:
C
(a) both Km and Vmax will increase
T (b) both Km and Vmax will decrease
E (c) Km increasesand Vmax remains same
(d) Kmincreasesand Vmax decreases
Page 5 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 39. An optical measurement of a protein is taken both before and after digestion of the
I protein by a protease. In which of the following spectroscopic measurements the signal
change i.e. before vs after protease treatment, could be the maximum?
C
T (a) absorbance at 280 nm (b) Circular dichrosim
(c) Absorbance at 340 nm (d) Fluorescence value
E
40. From the following statements
(1) For a reaction to occur spontaneously the free energy change must be negative
(2) The interaction between two nitrogen molecules in the gaseous state is predominately
electrostatic
(3) by knowing bond energies, it is possible to deduce whether the bond is covalent bond
A or hydrogen bond
(4) Hydrophobic interactions are not important in a folded globular protein
I
C Pick the combination with all wrong statements
T (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
E
41. Fluorescently tagged protein was used to study protein secretion in yeast. Fluorescence
was observed in (1) The Golgi (2) The secretory vesicles, (3) The rough ER. Which of
the following describes best sequence in which these events occur?
(a) 1»2»3 (b) 2»3»1 (c) 3»1»2 (d) 3»2»1
42. A plot of V/[S] vs V is generated for an enzyme catalysed reaction, and a straight line is
A obtained. Indicate the information that can be obtained from the plot
I
(a) Vmaxand turnover number Kmcan be obtained only from a plot of 1/V vs 1 [S]
C (b) Km/Vmax from the slope
T (c) Vmax.Km and turnover number
(d) Only Km and turnover number
E
43. Which of the following is present in both gram-positive and gram-negative cell walls?
(a) An outer membrane (b) Peptidoglycan

(c) teichoic acid (d) lipopolysaccharides
44. The counter stain used in the Gram-staining

A
(a) Iodine (b) Crystal violet (c) Safranin (d) Mythelene blue
I
C 45. Peptidoglycan is a structural component of cell walls of
T (a) Gram +ve bacteria (b) Gram –ve bacteria
E (c) Eubacteria (d) All of the above
Page 6 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 46. Two important functions of bacterial cell walls

I
(a) Flagella attachment and nutrient transport
C (b) Shape and mechanical strength
T (c) Nutrient transport and extracellular enzyme location
(d) Nutrient transport and respiration
E
47. The acidic polysaccharides attached to gram positive cell wall
(a) Lipopolysaccharides (b) Tiechoic acids

(c) Meso diaminopimelic acid (d) All the above
48. One of the functions of the cell membrane in prokaryotes is to serve as the site of
A
(a) Histone (b) Hormones (c) Enzymes (d) None of the above
I
C 49. 2-amino, 6 oxy purine is ---------
T (a) Uracil (b) Thiamine (c) Cytosine (d) Guanine
E
50. Termination factor of m RNA synthesis is called ________ factor
(a) Gamma (b) Beta (c) Rho (d) Delta
51. In DNA, a base is joined to deoxy ribose sugar by
(a) β-glycosidic linkage (b) Diester linkage

A (c) Hydrogen bonds (d) Carbon bonds
I
52. Backbone of the nucleic acid is known as
C
T (a) Ribose sugar (b) Nitrogen base
(c) Glycosidic bond (d) Phospho diester linkages
E
53. Diameter of the helix of DNA is
(a) 30 Angstrom (b) 20 Angstrom

(c) 32 Angstrom (d) 35 Angstrom
54. The majority of DNA in the cells is in the form

A
(a) A DNA (b) Z DNA (c) B DNA (d) All
I
C 55. Uracil has same single ringed structure as thiamine except that it lacks
T (a) Carboxyl group (b) Hydroxyl group
E (c) 5 methyl group (d) Phosphate group
Page 7 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 56. Alteration in single base pair is known as which type of mutations?

I
(a) Missense (b) Frameshift (c) Point (d) Spontaneous
C
T 57. Repetitive DNA sequences in Eukaryotes is known as
E (a) Histone proteins (b) Nucleosomes (c) Satellite DNAs (d) Telomers
58. Expressed gene sequences in eukaryotic m RNA are
(a) Introns (b) Codons (c) Exons (d) All
59. The work benches needed to make a polypeptide

A
(a) mRNA (b) DNA (c) Ribosomes (d) tRNA
I
C 60. Which of the following DNA hybridization assay formats is most useful when one
wishes to detect the presence and localization of a pathogen’s DNA within a cell?
T
E (a) Southern blot (b) Insitu hybridization
(c) In-solution hybridization (d) Dot blot
61. The amino acid that accounts for disulfide bonds in the tertiary structure in protein is
(a) Tyrosine (b) Glycine (c) Cystine (d) Serine
62. Which is the smallest unit of heredity?

A
I (a) Chromosome (b)_ Gene (c) Codon (d) nucleotide
C 63. Why must lagging strand DNA be replicated in short pieces?
T
(a) Due to limited space
E (b) otherwise, the helix become distorted
(c) The DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction
(d) To make proofreading easier
64. Transfer RNA is the molecule that
(a) contributes to structure of ribosome

A (b) Adapts the genetic code to protein structure
(c) Transfer the DNA code to mRNA
I (d) Provides the master code for amino acids
C
65. Which of the following characteristic is not true of a plasmid?
T
E (a) it is a circular piece of DNA
(b) It is required for normal cell function
(d) It is found in bacteria
(d) it can be transferred from cell to cell
Page 8 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A
I 66. Replacement of purine for purine is known as
C (a) Transversion (b) Translocation (c) Transition (d) Transcription
T
67. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of the following except
E
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA (c) mRNA (d) Protein
68. The transfer of bacterial genes through bacteriophages is known as
(a) Conjugation (b) Transduction (c) Translation (d) Transformation
A 69. In mitosis, the phase in which migration of daughter chromosomes to the opposite poles
of spindle starts is called
I
C (a) Anaphase (b) Telophase (c) Metaphase (d) Prometaphase
T 70. The sequence of nucleotides which is transcribed but not translated is called
E
(a) Cistran (b) Intron (c) Exon (d) Transposon
71. A mutation that cause early termination of translations to protein synthesis is called
(a) Silent mutation (b) Nonsense mutation

(c) Missense mutation (d) Wild type mutation
A 72. Amino acids are activated for protein synthesis through a reaction catalysed by
I
(a) Amino acyl t RNA synthetases (b) Peptidyl transferases
C (c) Transpeptidases (d) Phosphokinases
T
73. The energy to institute initiation and elongation is provided by
E
(a) GTP (b) NADH (c) ATP (d) NADPH
74. An example of pentose
(a) Arabinose (b) Mannose (c) Galactose (d) Sucrose
A 75. The genetic material present in the polio virus

I (a) Double stranded DNA (b) Double stranded RNA
C (c) Single stranded DNA (d) Single stranded RNA
T 76. Nucleosome is part of
E
(a) Ribosome (b) Mesosome
(c) Nuclear membrane (d) Chromatin
Page 9 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 77. Anticodons are found in

I
(a) m RNA (b) t RNA (c) DNA (d) r RNA
C
78. Unzipping of the DNA helix is done by
T
E (a) Primase (b) Gyrase (c) Ligase (d) Helicase
79. What is B-DNA?

(a) Left handed DNA with 10 residues per turn
(b) Left handed DNA with 12 residues per turn
(c) Right handed DNA with 11 residues per turn
(d) Right handed DNA with 10 residues per turn
A 80. The largest subunit of RNA polymerase
I
(a) α (b) β (c) β’ (d) ϭ
C
T
E
81. What would effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following circumstances arose:
(1) there are no primers in the reaction (2) there are no dNTPs in the reaction
(3) there is no Taq polymerase in the reaction
(a) PCR would proceed formally

(b) Non-specific PCR of random templates will occur
(c) The reaction will case after a few cycles
A
(d) The PCR reaction will not commence
I
82. What would the expected effect be on a PCR reaction if the primers used were slightly
C
shorter and more variable than the intended oligonucleotide sequences?
T
(a) The PCR reaction would not commerce
E (b) The PCR reaction would end after one cycle
(c) The reaction would generate a single short PCR product
(d) The reaction would yield a mixture of non-specific products
83. The following are statements about molecular makers in the context of plant breeding
(1) Molecular markers can be used for elimination of undesirable traits

(2)Molecular markers cannot be used for elimination of genetic contribution of each
A individual parent in a segregating population
I (3) Molecular markers ae used for mapping of QTLs, which is also possible by
conventional techniques
C (4) Molecular markers can be used for selection of individuals from a population that are
T homozygous for the recurrent parent genotype at loci flanking the target locus
E Which of the above statements are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Page 10 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 84. Which of the following features is not found in heterogenous nuclear RNAs (hnRNAs)?
I (a) intron (b) polycistronic coding
C (c) polyadenylation at 31 end (d) 51 cap structure
T 85. In the creation of a knockout mouse using homologous recombination, a viral thymidine
kinase gene is often included in the vector outside of the region of homology between the
E
vector and targeted chromosome. What is the purpose of this?
(a) To allow negative selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has
occurred by homologous recombination
(b) To allow negative selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has
occurred by random insertion into the genome
(c) To allow positive selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has
occurred by homologous recombination
A
(d) To allow positive selection of cells in which integration of the targeting sequence has
I occurred by random insertion into the genome
C 86. An eukaryotic cell undergoing mRNA synthesis and processing was incubated with 32p
T labelled ATP, with the label at the β-position. Where do you think the radioactive isotope
will appear in the mature mRNA?
E
(a) 32p will not appear in the mature mRNA under any circumstances because β and γ
phosphates are released during transcription
(b) Phosphate group of the phosphodiester backbone of the mRNA will be uniformly
labeled as only α phosphate are released during transcription
(c) 32p will appear at the 51 end of the mRNA if only it has ‘A’ as the first nucleotide
(d) No 32p will appear in the mature of the mRNA because the 51 terminal phosphate of
an ‘A’ residue will be further removed during the capping process
A
87. The secondary antibodies routinely used for the detection of primary antibodies in
I
western blotting experiment are
C (a) Anti-allotypic (b) Anti-idiotypic (c) Anti-isotypic (d) Anti-paratypic
T
88. Following are some of the characteristics of MHC class I and class II molecules except
E one which is applicable only for MHC class I. Identify the appropriate statement
(a) They are expressed constitutively in all nucleated cells
(b) They are glycosylated polypeptides with domain structure
(c) They are involved in presentation of antigen fragment of cells
(d) They are expressed on surface membrane of B cells.
89. Immunoglobulins have therapeutic applications in cancer treatment, infection clearance
A and targeted drug delivery. For this reason, immunoglobulins are briefly cleaved by the
enzyme pepsin. Following are some of the statements regarding the brief digestion of
I immunoglobulin by pepsin
C (a) F(ab)2fragment is generated which retains the antigen binding activity
T (b) F(ab) fragment having antigen binding activity and the crystallisable Fc fragment are
generated
E (c) The fragment generated on incubation with a proper antigen forms a visible
precipitate
(d) The fragment generated is incapable of forming a visible precipitate on incubation
with a proper antigen
Page 11 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG2BIT26
A 90. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) can be employed for the detection of insulin in blood plasma.
I For this 1251-labelled insulin is mixed and allowed to bind with a known concentration
of anti-insulin antibody. A known volume of patients’ blood plasma is then added to the
C conjugate and allowed to compete with the antigen binding sites of antibody. The bound
T antigen is then separated from unbound ones and the radioactivity of free antigen is then
measured by gamma counter. Following are some of the statements made about this
E assay:
(1) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is more at the
end of reaction
(2) The ratio of radioactive count for unbound antigen to the bound one is less at the end
of reaction
(3) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is less than that for a
A normal individual.
(4) For a diabetic patient, the radioactive count for free antigen is more than that for a
I normal individual
C
Which of the above statements are true?
T
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
E
91. Developing T cells that react strongly with self peptides bound to self MHC molecules
are
(a) Eliminated in the thymus

(b) Eliminated in the bone marrow
(c) Suppressed in peripheral blood circulation
A (d) Allowed to function normally
I 92. A typical flowering plant has a combination of sporophytic (diploid) and gametophytic
C (haploid) tissues. Which of the following types of plant tissues do NOT contribute to the
formation of a mature fruit?
T
E (a) Sporophytic tissue from the previous generation
(b) Gametophytic tissue from the previous generation
(c) Sporophytic tissue from the next generation
(d) Gametophytic tissue from the next generation
93. Which one of the following statements related to the development of insect-resistant
transgenic plant is correct?
A (a) The targeted insects cannot develop resistance against transgenic plants generated
I using a single candidate gene
(b) The transgenic plant developed using multiple genes might be more effective in
C inducing and maintaining resistance
T (c) The level of transgene expression does not influence the efficacy of the transgenic
plant
E (d) It is easier to propagate and maintain multi-copy integration events than single copy
events of insect resistant plants
Page 12 of 16
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A 94. Which one of the following statements regarding naturally occurring Agrobacterium
I strains is true?
C (a) The T-DNA region of Agrobacterium does not contain functional genes
T (b) All the virulence genes of Agrobacterium are constitutively expressed
(c) Agrobacterium-induced galls require exogenous application of phytohormones for
E their growth.’
(d) Agrobacterium-induced galls in a nature do not require bacterial persistence for their
growth
95. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are
made up of_____.
A (a) Silicon or Platinum (b) Gold or Tungsten

(c) Silver or Platinum (d) Platinum or Zinc
I
C 96. The problem of necrosis and gradual senescence while performing tissue culture can be
overcome by -------
T
E (a) Spraying auxins (b) Spraying Cytokinins
(c) Suspension culture (d) Subculture
97. The controversy regarding the use of Bt corn is that -------
(a) is potentially harmful to monarch butterflies

(b) is a potential allergen to humans
(c) both (a) and (b)
A (d) can contaminate groundwater
I
98. Harmone pair required for a callus to differentiate is---------
C
T (a) Auxin and Cytokinin (b) Auxin and Ethylene
(c) Auxin and Abscisic acid (d) Cytokinins and Gibberellin
E
99. Hairy root cultures for secondary metabolite production are induced by transforming
plant cells with --------
(a) Virus (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(c) Bacillus thuringiensis (d) Agrobacterium rhizogenes
A 100. Shotgun cloning differs from the clone-by-clone method in which of the following ways
I (a) No genetic or physical maps of the genome are needed to begin shotgun cloning
C (b) Genetic markers are used to identify clones in shotgun cloning
(c) Computer software assembles the clones in the clone-by-clone method
T (d) The entire genome is sequenced in the clone-by-cone method, but not in shotgun
E sequencing
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A 101. Which of the following is true regarding the assumptions in the method of constructing
I the Dayhoff scoring matrix?
C (a) it is assumed that each amino acid position is equally mutable
T (b) it is assumed that each amino acid position is not equally mutable
(c) it is assumed that each amino acid position is not mutable at all
E (d) sites do not vary in their degree of mutability
102. A gap-opening penalty for any gap (g) and gap extension penalty for each element in the
gap (r) are most often used, to give a total gap score wx, according to the equation -----
(a) wx – rx = - g (b) wx = g – rx
(c) wx = g + rx (d) wx + g + rx = 0
A
103. Which one of the following is not a structure or structurally derived database?
I
C (a) PDB (b) PROSITE (c) SCOP (d) CATH
T 104. The enzymes that break down H2O2 into H2O and O2 in animal cells is usually found in
E which one of the following intracellular organelles?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum (b) Nucleous

(c) Peroxisome (d) Lysosome
105. An enzymatic reaction exhibits Michaelis – Menten kinetics. For the reaction, on
doubling the concentration of enzyme while maintaining [S]>[Eo]
A (a) Both Km and Vmax will remain the same
I (b) Km will remain the same but Vmax will increase
(c) Km will increase but Vmax will remain the same
C (d) Both Km and Vmax will increase
T
106. Following are the statements related to the organisation of the four major protein
E complexes of thylakoid membrane
(1) PSI is located predominantly in the stacked region of the thylakoid membrane
(2) PSII is found in the unstacked regions protruding into stroma
(3) Cytochrome B6f complex is confined to strome only
(4) ATP synthase is located in the unstacked regions protruding into stroma
A Which one of the following combinations of above statements is correct?

I (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1,2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3, 4 and 1
C
107. Which of the following groups of enzymes is not used for kinetic resolution of
T recemates?
E
(a) Lipases (b) Nitrases (c) Oxidoreductases (d) Epoxide hydrolases
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A 108. Mesosomes are internal extensions of the

I
(a) Cell wall (b) Chromatin body (c) Cell membrane (d) Capsule
C
T 109. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
E (a) Polypeptides (b) Polynucleotides
(c) Polysaccharides (d) Polypeptides or polysaccharides
110. Non acid fast bacteria, lacks this substance in their cell walls
(a) Acids (b) Waxy substances (c) Peptiglycan (d) Lipids
A 111. Cell membrane of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells conform to a model known as
I (a) Unit membrane model (b) Fluid mosaic model
C (c) Phospholipid model (d) Glycoprotein model
T 112. Arrangement of chromosomes according to shape and size -------
E
(a) Genotyping (b) Karyotping
(c) Chromotyping (d) DNA finger printing
113. Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in oocytes of
(a) Pisces (b) Amphibians (c) Reptiles (d) Aves
A 114. DNA is stable in hydrolytic attacks due to
I (a) Nitrogen bases (b) sugar units

(c) Phosphate linkage having negative charge (d) Hydrogen bonds
C
T 115. Number of base pairs per turn of helix in Z DNA is
E (a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 10
116. Satellite DNA

(a) contains important metabolic genes
(b) It is composed of highly repetitive sequences
(c) Is useless junk
(d) Causes cancer
A
117. Oxalosuccinic decarboxylase enzyme can remove carbon dioxide from the substrate
I
oxalo succinate during the TCA cycle. Oxalo succinic decarboxylase is under which
C category enzyme?
T (a) Oxidoreductase (b) Transferase (c) Lyases (d) Isomerases
E
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A 118. Okazaki fragments are

I
(a) DNA fragments synthesized by Reiji Okazaki
C (b) DNA synthesized in the 3’to 5’direction on any parent strand of DNA
(c) DNA synthesized on chain of parental DNA which is then hydrolysed to small
T
fragments
E (d) DNA synthesized as small fragments on a parental strand, which are then linked
together
119. Function of DHU loop of t RNA is
(a) binding to the enzyme involved in forming the peptide during translation
(b) Attachment of amino acids
(c) Binding of the ribosome
A
(d) Helping the translocation
I
120. Chloramphenicol inhibits the following
C
T (a) Premature chain termination (b) 30S particle binding to t RNAfmet
(c) Peptidyl transferase activity (d) Binds to 50S and prevents formation of 70S
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
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UG BIO TECHNOLOGY
Code 26-Paper 2
1 D 31 B 61 C 91 A
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 D
3 C 33 B 63 C 93 B
4 C 34 B 64 Marks to all 94 D
5 A 35 C 65 B 95 B
6 A 36 C 66 C 96 D
7 C 37 C 67 D 97 C
8 B 38 C 68 B 98 A
9 C 39 B 69 A 99 D
10 B 40 D 70 B 100 A
11 A 41 C 71 B 101 A
12 B 42 C 72 A 102 C
13 C 43 B 73 A 103 B
14 D 44 C 74 A 104 C
15 C 45 D 75 D 105 B
16 D 46 B 76 D 106 B
17 A 47 B 77 B 107 C
18 C 48 C 78 D 108 C
19 A 49 D 79 D 109 A, C, D
20 B 50 C 80 A 110 B
21 D 51 A 81 D 111 B
22 D 52 D 82 D 112 B
23 D 53 B 83 C 113 A, B, C, D
24 B 54 C 84 D 114 B
25 B 55 C 85 B 115 B
26 A 56 C 86 A 116 B
27 A 57 C, D 87 C 117 C
28 D 58 C 88 A 118 D
29 A 59 C 89 B 119 A
30 C 60 B 90 A 120 C
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BIO-INFORMATICS ENGINEERING
A
I
PAPER-I
C
T Instructions:
questions.
wrong answer.
A vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
C ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
T
E PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)
1. Which of the following substances need a larger molecule to stimulate an immune

response?
(a) Antigen
(b) Virus
(c) Hapten
(d) Antibody
A
2. The B cells that produce and release large amounts of antibody are termed as…………
I
(a) Memory cells
C (b) Plasma cells
(c) Killer cells
T
(d) Basophils
E
3. MHC class I matching is needed to avoid the …………….. mediated rejection of
transplanted hematopoietic stem cells.
(a) Antibody
(b) Cytotoxic T cells
(c) Hyperacute
(d) Complement
A
I
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4. A protein antigen bound to its specific receptor via………….

A
I (a) Disulphide bonds
(b) Hydroxylation
C (c) Amino bonds
(d) Hydrogen bonds
T
E 5. Which of the following technique is appropriate to find out increased number of
lymphocytes in peripheral blood of patients?
(a) enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

(b) Radioimmunoassay
(c) Western blotting
(d) Flow cytometric analysis
6. The fever associated with bacterial infection in patient is due to……………….

A (a) Cytokines produced by phagocytes
(b) Bacterial infection of the hypothalamus
I (c) Antibody responses to the bacteria
C (d) Proliferation of the bacteria
T 7. A common mechanism required for activating T or B cells in the periphery is………….
E a) presentation of antigen in the context of MHC

b) presentation of the particulate multivalent form of the antigen
c) high avidity of the lymphocyte's receptor for the antigen
d) interaction through co-stimulatory molecules as a second signal
8. ……………………is secreted by virus containing cells.

(a) Regulatory T-Cells
(b) Helper T-Cells
(c) Interferon
A (d) Complement
I 9. Which of the following is an innate mechanism that mediates destruction of foreign

substances in the body?
C
(a) Regulatory T-Cells
T (b) Helper T-Cells
E (c) Interferon
(d) Complement
10. Which of the following immunoglobulin protects mucosal barriers?

(a) IgG
(b) IgA
(c) IgM
(d) IgE
A 11. Cancer cells often have reduced amounts of cell surface proteins, including class I MHC
I
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antigens. Which of the following cells of the immune system can exploit this property to
A
kill cancer cells?
I (a) Regulatory T-Cells
C (b) Helper T-Cells
(c) Macrophages
T (d) Natural Killer cells
E 12. Which of the following is an example of immunodiffusion test?
(a) Double-diffusion
(b) Gel diffusion
(c) Ouchterloney technique
13. Immunoaffinity chromatography is used to………………….
A (a) Breakdown antibody structure

(b) Purify protein antigen
I (c) break down antigen and analyze quantitatively
C
T 14. Which of the following is not a Tumor Specific Antigen?
E (a) EBV
(b) HPV
(c) HER2
(d) HTLV
15. Agglutination reaction is more sensitive than precipitation for the detection of…………
(a) Antigens
(b) Antibodies
A (c) Complement
(d) Antigen-Antibody complexes
I
16. The enzyme-linked antibody will attach to…………………during indirect ELISA test.
C
(a) The patient antigen
T
(b) The variable region of the patient antibody
E (c) The constant region of the patient antibody
(d) The wall of the Microplate well
17. Cell-to-Cell contact promoted by cell surface proteins results in………………
(a) recognition other cells

(b) plastic adherence
(c) loss of cell division
(d) identification of cell localization
A
I
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18. The DNA is………………..when A≠T and G≠C.

A
I (a) Single helical
(b) Double stranded
C (c) Double helical
(d) Supercoiled
T
19. The fidelity of translation is determined by………………….
E
(a) Free ribosome
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum bound ribosome
(c) Aminoacyl tRNA synthase
(d) G:C repeat
20. ………….residue in proteins is targeted for glycosylation.

(a) Aspargine
(b) Methionine
A
(c) Proline
I (d) Histidine
C 21. Methods used to identify gene loci and distances between genes are termed as……..
T (a) Gene localization
(b) Gene linkage
E (c) Gene pool
(d) Gene mapping
22. The physical expression or appearance of a character is called as……………………

(a) Genotype
(b) Phenotype
(c) Morphology
(d) Ecotype
A
23. It is difficult to analyze Mendelian inheritance due to the following, except……
I
(a) Formation of Barr bodies
C (b) Pleiotropic effects
(c) Continuous variation
T (d) Epistasis
E
24. The genes that are inherited together and located on the same Chromosome are known
as……………..
(a) Complementary genes

(b) Supplementary genes
(c) Mutant genes
(d) Linked genes
A
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25. ……………..indicates the pairing of homologous chromosomes

A
I (a) Terminalisation
(b) Linkage
C (c) Crossing Over
(d) Synapsis
T
E 26. …………….is responsible for removal of uracil in DNA to incorporate the correct base.
(a) Direct repair
(b) Base excision repair
(c) Mismatch repair
(d) Nucleotide excision repair
27. Which of the following is highly electronegative?

(a) Fluorine
A (b) Bromine
(c) Iodine
I (d) Chlorine
C 28. Principle Quantum number describes?

T (a) Shape of orbital
(b) Size of orbital
E (c) Spin of orbital
(d) Orientation of an orbital
29. What is the mass number of an element which has 18 electrons and 20 neutrons with 2
negative charges?
(a) 38
(b) 36
(c) 40
A (d) 39
I 30. Which of the following radiation travels longer?
C (a) β-rays
(b) ƴ-rays
T
(c) α-rays
E (d) X-rays
31. Identify the wrong statement about an electron.
(a) It is a particle
(b) Its motion is affected by magnetic field
(c) It has wave like property
(d) It emits energy while moving in orbit
A 32. The work done by a closed system in a reversible process is always……………….that
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done in an irreversible process.

A
I (a) Less than or more than
(b) Less than
C (c) More than
(d) Equal to
T
E 33. Which of the following nucleic acids exist in Z-DNA conformations?
(a) A:T rich DNA
(b) G:C rich DNA
(c) Alternating G:C rich sequences
(d) Alternating A:T rich sequences
34. A structure that exhibits hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by
side fashion is………….
A (a) Primary structure

(b) α-helix
I (c) β-pleated sheets
(d) tertiary structure
C
35. Identify the α-helix breakers in protein structure.
T
E (a) Proline and Glycine
(b) Isoleucine and Leucine
(c) Valine
(d) Threonine
36. Which of the following forces define the secondary structure of proteins?
(a) Ionic interaction

(b) Vander Waals forces
(c) Hydrogen bonding
A (d) Covalent bonding
I
37. ……………….is a process by which a protein structure assumes its functional shape or
C conformation.
T (a) Folding
(b) Synthesis
E (c) Denaturation
(d) Hydrolysis
38. Which of the following statement about the zwitterionic form of an amino acid is true?
(a) The zwitterion acts only as an acid

(b) The zwitterion carries an overall charge which can be positive or negative
(c) The zwitterion is neutral overall
(d) The zwitterion acts only as a base
A 39. Information about ………………….is provided by infrared spectroscopy,
I
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A
(a) Molecular weight
I (b) Melting point
(c) Functional groups
C (d) Conjugation
T 40. The amount of energy (e.g., heat) required for a reaction to occur is termed as………
E
(a) Kinetic energy
(b) Potential energy
(c) Energy of activation
(d) Synthetic energy
41. A field of genomics that studies the similarities and differences among the genomes of
multiple organisms is called………………..
(a) comparative genomics

A (b) Structural genomics
I (c) Functional genomics
(d) Ergonomics
C
42. The aim of ………………..is to determine the location of specific genes within the
T genome.
E
(a) Cloning
(b) Annotation
(c) Proteomics
(d) Metabalomics
43. Point mutations…………………..
(a) may have no effect on an organism

(b) may have a small effect on an organism
A (c) may have a large effect on an organism
I
C 44. Identify the correct statement about collagen.
T (a) Collagen contains a high proportion of hydroxylatedproline residues

(b) Collagen is a globular, intracellular protein
E (c) Post-translational modification of collagen involves vitamin A
(d) The structure of collagen consists of a superhelix of three α-helices twisted together
45. The role of chaperone proteins is………..
(a) To assist the correct folding of the newly formed polypeptide chain
(b) To correct formation of disulphide bridges in protein folding
(c) Release of completed proteins from the ribosome
(d) Switching peptide bonds that involve proline residues between the cis and the trans
A configurations
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A
46. The basic component of a plasmid vector is…………..
I
(a) Origin of replication
C (b) Selection marker
(c) Cloning site
T (d) All of the above
E
47. Which of the following strategy is best to clone an unknown DNA?
(a) Homopolymer tailing
(b) Single digestion
(c) Double digestion
(d) TA cloning
48. The DNA mutation associated with UV exposure is………………………

(a) Thymidine dimer
A (b) Chromosome breakage
I (c) Frameshift mutation
(d) Nonsense mutation
C
49. The clones of a cDNA library represent which one of the following?
T
(a) mRNA
E (b) Genomic DNA
(c) Introns
(d) Repeated DNA sequences
50. Isobaric tags are……………….
(a) Molecules of equal charge
(b) Molecules of equal mass
(c) Fluorescent labels for proteins
(d) Used in selected reaction monitoring
A
51. Which of the following is a 'proteotypic' peptide?
I
(a) A post-translationally modified peptide
C (b) A stable isotope-containing peptide
(c) A peptide which is unique to a specific protein
T (d) A peptide which is typical of all other peptides
E 52. When quantifying proteins from an MS experiment, how do you determine an observed
change is likely to be due to biology but not due to experimental or technical variation?
(a) Use 2-fold as a generic cut-off
(b) Use pathway analysis software
(c) Look in the literature to see what other people use
(d) Analyze replicates to measure experimental noise
A
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53. The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional electrophoresis is based on………
A
I (b) Isoelectric point
C (c) Folding
(d) Post-translational modification
T
54. Which of the following statement is wrong about the reporter gene used in Yeast two
E hybrid system?
(a) Is fused to the activation domain of a transcription factor
(b) Is fused to the DNA binding domain of a transcription factor
(c) Requires the presence of Histidine in the growth medium for its expression
(d) Is expressed only if the tested protein interaction occurs
55. Mass spectrometry………………….
(a) is used to rapidly determine the molecular weight of a protein

A (b) is only used to determine the sequence of peptides and not proteins
(c) can be used to investigate post-translational modifications
I
(d) involves separating ionic fragments on a gel
C
56. In ………………. chromatography, the stationary phase held in a narrow tube and the
T mobile phase is forced through it under pressure.
E (a) Column chromatography
(b) Planar chromatography
(c) Liquid chromatography
(d) Gas chromatography
57. Which of the following reagent is used in Sanger’s protein sequencing?

(a) 1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene
(b) 1-fluoro-2, 3-dinitrobenzene
A (c) 1-fluoro-2, 4-trinitrobenzene
(d) 1-fluoro-2, 3-trinitrobenzene
I
58. Ultrafiltration retains the following components.
C
(a) Proteins
T (b) Water
E (c) ions
59. Which of the following is used for global analysis of gene expression?
(a) DNA microarray
(b) PCR
(c) SAGE
(d) Western blotting
A 60. Northern blot is used to detect and quantify the……………….levels between samples.
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A (a) DNA
(b) mRNA
I (c) proteins
C (d) Peptides
T 61. Which of the following information is not available cDNA library?
E (a) Introns
(b) Exons
(c) mRNA
(d) Both a & b
62. Which of the following DNA is an example of left handed helix?
(a) B-DNA
(b) cDNA
A (c) A-DNA
(d) Z-DNA
I
63. Chromatin is made up of………………
C
(a) Nucleic acids only
T (b) Protein only
E (c) Nucleic acids and proteins
64. Which enzyme is responsible for joining Okazaki fragments together?
(a) DNA ligase

(b) DNA polymerase I
(c) DNA polymerase II
(d) DNA polymerase III
A 65. The oxidative deamination of cytosine produces……………..
I (a) Thymine
(b) Uracil
C
(c) Dehydro uracil
T (d) 5’-Methyl cytosine.
E 66. In PCR, the annealing temperature is based on the ………..of primer.

(a) G:C content
(b) Melting temperature
(c) A:T content
A
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67. The loss of primary structure of proteins is termed as…………..

A
(a) Denaturation
I (b) Degradation
C (c) Ionization
(d) Circularization
T
68. Which amino acid is likely to be found on the surface of a globular protein in cytoplasm?
E (a) Isoleucine
(b) Leucine
(c) Valine
(d) Threonine
69. A Greek key is an example of……………………..

(a) A supersecondary protein structure composed of parallel β-sheets
(b) A supersecondary protein structure composed of antiparallel β-sheets
(c) The basic structure of a β-barrel
A
(d) A Type 1 loop
I
70. Identify the thermodynamic condition for a spontaneous reaction.
C
(a) G<0
T (b) S<0
(c) H<0
E (d) G=0
71. A:T rich origin of replication is optimal compared G:C rich region due
to…………..melting temperature of DNA. In this perspective, the conversion of A:T rich
region to A:T alone region by mutation will……………….the replication initiation
potential by destabilizing the interaction between RNA primer and template.
(a) low & decrease
A (b) low & increase
(c) high & decrease
I (d) high & increase
C
72. Antiparallel β-sheets are often found at the surface of a protein, whereas parallel β-sheets
T are found in the interior of proteins. This implies that…………………
E (a) Antiparallel β-sheets are composed of hydrophilic amino acids only

(b) Parallel β-sheets contain alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
(c) Parallel β-sheets are composed of hydrophilic amino acids only
(d) Antiparallel β-sheets contain alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic amino acids
73. ………………..........is responsible for relieving supercoils in eukaryotic DNA by charge
neutralization of lysine residues in histones.
(a) Histone acetylase

(b) Histone deacetylase
(c) DNA topoisomerase
A (d) DNA ligase
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A
74. The protein binding sites in DNA is determined by………………technique.
I
(a) Southern blot
C
(b) DNA foot printing
T (c) DNA fingerprinting
(d) Northern blot
E
75. A domain in a protein is………………………
(a) The α-helical portion of a protein

(b) A discrete region of polypeptide chain that has folded into a self-contained three-
dimensional structure
(c) The β-pleated sheet portion of a protein
(d) A feature that rarely occurs in globular proteins
A
76. Melting temperature (Tm) of a DNA increases by……………..
I
(a) Increasing ionic strength
C (b) Decreasing hydration
(c) Increasing G:C content
T (d) All the above
E 77. The allowed conformations of proline in proteins is restricted due to its…………
(a) Bulky side chain

(b) Hydrophobicity
(c) Cyclic nature
(d) Uncharged side chain
78. A 15N-labelled DNA duplex is allowed to undergo replication in eukaryotes using 14
N-
dNTPs. How many numbers of duplexes will contain only 15N at third generation?
A
(a) 0
I (b) 2
(c) 6
C (d) 8
T 79. Identify the correct statement about Western blotting.
E
(a) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on the very specific
interaction between the protein and its antibody
(b) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on labelling the
protein with a specific dye
(c) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on labelling the
antibody with a specific dye
(d) The detection of a particular protein by Western Blotting relies on the denaturation of
the protein
A 80. Which one of the following represents a test cross?

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A
(a) BB x BB
I (b) BB x Bb
(c) BB x bb
C (d) bb x bb
T 81. Which of the following leads to frame shift mutation?
E (a) Insertion
(b) Silent mutation
(c) Ribosomal frameshift
(d) Transversion
82. A mutation that changes a triplet coding for an amino acid into a termination codon is
called………………
(a) Nonsense mutation
(b) Silent mutation
A (c) Frameshift mutation
(d) Direct mutation
I
C 83. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the
same chain is called….…………
T
(a) Primary structure
E (b) α-helix
(c) β-pleated sheets
(d) tertiary structure
84. Which of the following molecule do not interact with ribosomes?

(a) IF-1
(b) mRNA
(c) Aminoacyl-tRNA
(d) RNA polymerase
A
I 85. No two electrons in the same atom can have identical set of four quantum numbers. This
statement is known as……………….
C
(a) Hund’s rule
T (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) (n+1) rule
E (d) Aufbaus rule
86. ………………mutation replaces a purine with another purine, or a pyrimidine with
another pyramidine.
(a) Nonsense
(b) Silent
(c) Transition
(d) Transversion
A 87. Which one of the following regions in a DNA molecule is considered as a best origin of
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replication?
A
(a) 55% A:T content
I (b) 35% G:C content
C (c) 45% G:C content
(d) 30% G:C content
T
88. Telomerase synthesizes only single stranded DNA at the end of eukaryotic
E chromosomes. The complementary strand is synthesized as ………………. strand by
DNA polymerase.
(a) Continuous
(b) Semi-discontinuous
(c) Discontinuous
(d) Lagging
89. What is the advantage of microsatellites in genetic mapping studies over RFLPs?
A (a) Microsatellites are easier to detect

(b) Microsatellites are more abundant than RFLPs
I (c) Microsatellites have more potential alleles than RFLPs
(d) All the above
C
T 90. Identify the correct statement.
E (a) The template strand matches the sequence of the RNA transcript
(b) The two strands of DNA run parallel to each other
(c) G-C bonds are much more resistant to denaturation than A-T rich regions
(d) The common form of DNA is left handed
91. Which of the following ratio is constant for a double helical DNA?
(a) A + G / T + C
(b) A + T / G + C
A (c) A + C / U + G
(d) A + U / G + C
I 92. Which of the following is not considered as a host in rDNA technology?
C (a) Restriction+/Modification+
(b) Restriction‒/Modification‒
T (c) Restriction+/Modification‒
(d) Restriction‒/Modification+
E
93. Identify the wrong statement about water.
(a) in ice each water molecule is bonded to four others
(b) water molecules have a high boiling point due to intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(c) ice has a structure similar to that of diamond
(d) water has a maximum density at 1ºC
94. What is the correct order of increasing attractive strength of below mentioned weak
intermolecular forces?
A
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(a) dipole-dipole interaction, hydrogen bonding, van der Waals forces

A
(b) van der Waals forces, dipole-dipole interaction, hydrogen bonding
I (c) hydrogen bonding, dipole-dipole interaction, van der Waals forces
(d) hydrogen bonding, van der Waals forces, dipole-dipole interaction
C
95. Which of the following is not an example of sequence element?
T
(a) A transcription factor binding site
E (b) A restriction site
(c) An open reading frame
(d) A stop codon
96. Which of the following strategies do not have insert orientation problem?
(a) Single enzyme digestion with alkaline phosphate modification.
(b) Homopolymer tailing
(c) Double enzyme digestion.
(d) Ligation of PCR product into TA vector (i.e. TA cloning)
A
I 97. During muscle contraction, the chemical energy is converted into mechanical energy
with the loss of heat. This is an example of the …………..of thermodynamics.
C
(a) First law
T (b) Second law
(c) Third law
E (d) Fourth law
98. ……………………fusion will be helpful to purify recombinant proteins using nickel

affinity column chromatography.
(a) FLAG
(b) Histidine tag
(c) GST tag
(d) Fluorescence tag
A
99. A Ramachandran plot describes the sterically permitted angles for a particular amino
I acid based on the………..
C (a) Rotation about the Cα– Cβ bond
T (b) Rotation about the Cα– N bond
(c) Rotation about the Cα– C and Cα– N bond
E (d) Rotation about the Cα– H bond
100. Identify the repeated sequences includes an open reading frame for reverse transcriptase.
(a) LINE
(b) SINE
(c) DNA transposon
(d) Variable Number of Tandem repeats
A
I
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PART –C
A
I
C 101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then
T 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable

E (c) 𝑀 is not invertible (d) Determinant of 𝑀 is 5

A
is equal to
I
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
C
T
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
A 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
I
E 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
A (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3

I
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A
C
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
T
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 +𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 +𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A
I 112. The Integral 𝑑𝑥 is
2 𝑥2
C
T (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
E 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
𝑥3 𝑦2
A (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = 6 (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 = 6
I
1
C (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
8
T
E 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

A
I
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ROLL NO.: UG1BIE27
A
eigenvalue is
I
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
C
E (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
Page 18 of 18
C
T
UG BIO INFORMATICS ENGINEERING
Code 27-Paper 1
1 C 31 D 61 A 91 A
2 B 32 D 62 D 92 C
3 B 33 C 63 C 93 D
4 D 34 C 64 A 94 B
5 D 35 A 65 B 95 C
6 A 36 C, D 66 D 96 C
7 D 37 A 67 B 97 B
8 C 38 C 68 D 98 B
9 D 39 C 69 B 99 C
10 B 40 C 70 Marks to all 100 A
11 D 41 A 71 A 101 A
12 D 42 B 72 B 102 C
13 B 43 D 73 A 103 A
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 D
15 A 45 A 75 B 105 D
16 C 46 D 76 D 106 A
17 C 47 A 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 B
19 C 49 A 79 A 109 D
20 A 50 B 80 C 110 B
21 D 51 C 81 A 111 D
22 B 52 D 82 A 112 B
23 A 53 B 83 B 113 B
24 D 54 D 84 D 114 B
25 D 55 A, B, C 85 B 115 B
26 B 56 A, B, D 86 C 116 C
27 A 57 A 87 D 117 B
28 A, B 58 A 88 A 118 C
29 C 59 C 89 C 119 B
30 B 60 B 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
BIO-INFORMATICS ENGINEERING

PAPER-II
A
I Instructions:
C
T iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
E
wrong answer.
I viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
C examination before leaving the examination hall.
T
1. In a good BLAST hit
(a) The e-value should be low and bit score should be low
A (b) The e-value should be high and bit score should be high
(c) The e-value should be high and bit score should be low
I
(d) The e-value should be low and bit score should be high
C
2. This is an algorithm for global sequence alignment
T
E
(a) Smith Waterman algorithm
(b) Consecutive ones algorithm
(c) Needleman and Wunsch algorithm
(d) Maximum likelihood approach
A 3. A function that calls itself within its body is called a

I (a) Recursive function
C (b) Logical function
(c) Linear function
T
(d) Global function
E
4. An algorithm that examines every possible alternative to find a solution is called
(a) Branch and Bound algorithm

(b) Exhaustive or brute force algorithm
(c) Iterative algorithm
(d) Selective algorithm
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5. A problem is broken down into sub problems and the solution to the main problem is
derived from solutions to the sub problems. This is called
(a) Brute force method

(b) Selection sort method
A (c) Dynamic programming
I (d) Pruned method
C
6. A sequence motif is a
T
(a) A subsequence which is present in one or two members of the family
E
(b) A subsequence found only in enzymes
(c) A subsequence found only in membrane proteins
(d) A subsequence which is conserved in the protein / DNA family
A 7. Given the edit operations Insertion, Deletion and Substitution, edit distance between two
sequences is
I
C (a) Minimum number of edit operations required to convert a string to another string
(b) Number of identities between the two sequences
T (c) Maximum number of edit operations required to convert a string to another string
E (d) Number of dis-similarities between the two sequences
8. Which of these are protein structure related databases
(a) PDB
A (b) SCOP
(c) CATH
I
C
9. The default scoring matrix in BLASTp tool is
T
E (a) PAM 1
(b) BLOSUM 62
(c) BLOSUM 80
(d) PAM 250
A 10. PAM is a scoring matrix for protein sequence alignments and is based on
I
(a) Evolutionary distances
C (b) Manhattan distances
T (c) Edit distances
(d) Grid distances
E
11. Conserved sequence motifs of a protein family can be discovered using
(a) Multiple sequence alignment

(b) Pairwise sequence alignment
(c) Threading
(d) Homology modeling
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12. This is a tool for multiple sequence alignment

(a) BLASTp
(b) PSI-BLAST
(c) ClustalW or ClustalOmega
A (d) Modeller
I 13. A lead compound in drug discovery
C (a) Is the first compound discovered in the study
T
(b) Is a compound which has activity and requires further modifications before it
actually becomes a drug
E (c) Has a metallic component
(d) Is a widely used drug
14. In gene expression analysis, genes are clustered based on
A
(a) Similarity in expression values
(b) Sequence similarity
I (c) Functional similarity
C
(d) Gene Ontology
T 15. This is a clustering technique in which the clusters are arranged as a tree
E (a) k-means clustering
(b) Hierarchical clustering
(c) Self organizing maps
(d) Grouping
A 16. Which one of these is NOT a protein structure related database?

I (a) Prosite
(b) PDB
C (c) SCOP
T (d) CATH
E 17. In a sequence alignment, insertions and deletions should
(a) be given a penalty of 1
(b) be ignored
(c) be given a gap penalty
A (d) not be allowed
I 18. Which of these are nucleotide databases
C
(a) GenBank
T (b) EMBL
(c) DDBJ
E
19. In a PDB co-ordinate file, HETATM records / lines refer to details of
(a) any atom other than a protein atom
(b) only an atom from the protein
(c) only a hydrogen atom
(d) only an oxygen atom
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20. The branching order of a phylogenetic tree is called its
(a) Degree
(b) Topology
(c) Incidence
A (d) Internal nodes
I
21. Bootstrap method is used for
C
T
(a) finding the edge lengths in a phylogenetic tree
(b) testing the statistical significance of a phylogenetic tree
E (c) finding the depth of a phylogenetic tree
(d) finding the number of leaves in a phylogenetic tree
22. In this phylogenetic tree, the distance from the root to any leaf is identical
A (a) Unweighted Pair Group Method of Arithmetic Averages (UPGMA)
I (b) Ultrametric tree
(c) Min-ultrametric tree
C
(d) Parsimonious tree
T
23. The edges in a phylogenetic tree represent
E
(a) Divergence point
(b) Characters
(c) Time elapsed
(d) Degree
A
24. This tree looks for a tree topology with minimum number of substitutions
I
C (a) UPGMA tree

(b) Additive tree
T
(c) Maximum Parsimony Tree
E (d) Neighbour Join (NJ) tree
25. Which of these trees are based on distance based methods in phylogenetics
(a) UPGMA
A (b) NJ tree
I (c) Fitch Margoliash method
C
T 26. The multiuser operating system Linux is able to support multiple users because of
E (a) Timesharing
(b) Larger disk space
(c) Faster access
(d) Better communication
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27. In PERL programming language, this facilitates early exit from a loop
(a) last
(b) split
(c) join
A (d) end
I
28. In Molecular dynamics, force field is used to
C
T
(a) Describe the energy of the protein as a function of its atomic co-ordinates
(b) Use force to split atoms in a protein
E (c) Use split water from the system
(d) Use force to remove ions from the system
29. This is NOT a secondary database
A (a) SCOP
I
(b) Uniprot
(c) CATH
C (d) Interpro
T
30. The trajectories of atoms and molecules in a Molecular dynamics simulation are
E determined
(a) By numerically solving Newton's equation of motion for a system of interacting

particles
(b) By using scoring matrices
A (c) By using transposition of atomic co-ordinates
I
(d) By using Root Mean Square Deviation of coordinates
C 31. The stereochemical quality and validity of a homology model can be checked using
T (a) Ramachandran plot
E (b) Alignment
(c) sequencing
(d) Threading
32. The region of a protein that can elicit an immune response is called
A
I
(a) immuner
(b) an epitope
C (c) antibody
T (d) immunoglobulin
E 33. PSI-BLAST is able to detect remote homologs due to the usage of
(a) BLOSUM 62
(b) Position Specific Scoring Matrix (PSSM)
(c) PAM 1
(d) BLOSUM 50 and PAM 100
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34. This substitution matrix is also called Dayhoff matrix

(a) PAM 1
(b) BLOSUM 45
(c) BLOSUM 80
A (d) BLOSUM 50
I 35. In Linux, this command is used to find patterns from a file
C
(a) grep
T (b) ptn
E
(c) find
(d) ptrn
36. The similarity between two protein structures can be estimated through
(a) Resolution
A
(b) RMSD
I (c) Phylogeny
(d) Hamming distance
C
T 37. According to SCOP database classification a SCOP Superfamily has

E (a) Proteins with low sequence identity whose structural and functional features suggest
common evolutionary origin.
(b) Proteins with high sequence identity and similar functions
(c) Proteins with high sequence identity and different functions
(d) Proteins with high sequence identity and a common evolutionary origin
A
I 38. Clustering techniques are used in
C (a) Homology modeling
T
(b) Protein secondary structure prediction
(c) Threading
E (d) Microarray data analysis
39. Lennard Jones Potential is used in
(a) Molecular Dynamics Simulation

A (b) Phylogenetics
I (c) Ramachandran plot
(d) Potential drug target identification
C
T 40. The file format which is used to store both sequence information and 3-dimensional
structure information is called as
E
(a) EMBL file format

(b) PDB file format
(c) Genbank file format
(d) Sequence File format
Page 6 of 19
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41. Which one of the following statement(s) are TRUE? Biological Databases are
(a) Classified into sequence, structure and functional databases

(b) Libraries of life sciences information, collected from scientific experiments, published
literature and computational analysis
A (c) Developed using Relational database concepts of computer science
I (d) All of the above
C
42. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? BioPerl is
T
(a) A toolkit of Perl modules
E
(b) Useful in building bioinformatics solutions in Perl
(c) Built in an object-oriented method
A 43. HTML stands for
I (a) Hyper Text Machine Language

C (b) Higher Text Markup Language
(c) Higher Text Machine Language
T (d) Hyper Text Markup Language
E
44. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? The result of Multiple Sequence
Alignment helps to
(a) Infer sequence homology

A (b) Illustrate mutation events
(c) Assess evolutionary origin
I
C
45. Process of aligning three or more biological sequences is known as
T
E (a) Pairwise Alignment

(b) Multiple Sequence Alignment
(c) Multiple Sequence Arrangement
(d) Pairwise Arrangement
A 46. Linux command „grep‟ is used to
I (a) find lines matching a pattern in a file
C (b) Concatenate two files
(c) Find a file name in a directory
T
(d) Merge contents of two files
E
47. The process of designing new molecules using three dimensional structure of the receptor
or 3D pharmacophore is known as
(a) Docking ligand
(b) Modeling a new molecule
(c) De novo ligand Design
(d) Screening
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48. The process of predicting the structure of the inter molecular complex formed between
two or more molecules is known as Molecular
(a) Modeling
(b) Aligning
A (c) Docking
I
C 49. Which one of the following algorithm is used to perform molecular docking?
T (a) Smith Waterman algorithm
E (b) Bubble sort algorithm
(c) Heuristic algorithm
(d) Genetic algorithm
50. In docking, a function used to calculate the binding affinity for a particular pose of a
A protein-ligand complex is known as
I (a) Binding function
C (b) Scoring function
(c) Searching function
T (d) Statistical function
E
51. Which one of the following is NOT a docking software?
(a) DOCK
(b) AutoDOCK
A (c) GOLD
(d) GROMACS
I
C 52. Which one of the following is NOT a bonded interaction?
T (a) Van der Waals

(b) Covalent
E
(c) Ionic
53. ALead is a
A (a) Compound that shows biological activity
I (b) Novel compound
(c) Compound that has the potential of being structurally modified for improved
C
bioactivity
E
54. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE? Docking is used to
a) Do protein interaction studies
b) Generate trajectory movement of bio molecules
c) Determine thelowest free energy structures for the receptor-ligandcomplex
d) Do de novo drug design
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55. A standard measure of structural difference in superimposed coordinates is
(a) Structural Deviation

(b) Compactness Deviation
(c) Root Mean Square Deviation
A (d) None of the above
I
56. Sequence alignment stretched over the entire sequence length to include as many
C
matching amino acids as possible up to is known as
T
(a) Local Alignment
E
(b) Maximal Alignment
(c) Minimal Alignment
(d) Global Alignment
A 57. Sequence alignment stops at the ends of regions of identity or strong similarity is known
as
I
C (a) Global Alignment

(b) Local Alignment
T (c) Maximal Alignment
E (d) Minimal Alignment
58. Needleman-Wunsch algorithm is used for
(a) Local alignment of sequences

A (b) Searching of sequences
(c) Minimal alignment of sequences
I
(d) Global alignment of sequences
C
59. Smith-Waterman algorithm is used for
T
E (a) Local alignment of sequences

(b) Global alignment of sequences
(c) Searching of sequences
(d) Minimal alignment of sequences
A 60. Percent Accepted Mutation Matrices are used for
I
(a) Docking
C (b) Sequence Alignment
T (c) Creation of databases
(d) Molecular Dynamics
E
61. BLOSUM62 substitution matrix is used for scoring
(a) Docking of protein-ligand complex

(b) Simulation of proteins
(c) Protein sequence alignments
(d) Searching of proteins
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62. Which one of the following statement is NOT TRUE? Hidden Markov Model is
(a) Used to generate trajectories of a biomolecule

(b) Statistical model that considers all possible combinations of matches, mismatches and
gaps to generate an alignment of a set of sequences
A (c) Used to analyze sequence composition and patterns
I
(d) Used to produce protein structure predictions
C 63. Which one of the following statement is NOT TRUE? An evolutionary tree is
T
(a) Composed of outer branches representing taxa
E (b) Always a binary tree
(c) Composed of nodes and branches representing relationships among taxa
(d) Which has more than one branch emanating from a node if the event separating taxa
are so close
A 64. Which one of the following is NOT a Phylogenetic tree software?

I
(a) PHYLIP
C (b) NAMD
(c) PAUP
T
(d) MEGA
E
65. A connecting point in a phylogenetic tree where two adjacent branches join is called as
(a) Point
(b) Joint
A (c) Node
(d) Branch
I
C 66. Which one of the following is NOT a molecular structure visualization form?
T (a) Wireframe
E (b) Balls and sticks
(c) Ribbons
(d) Lines and Dots
67. Which one of the following is NOT a visualization software?

A
(a) RasMOL
I (b) PyMOL
C (c) GROMACS
(d) VMD
T
E 68. Prediction of protein structures based on sequence homology with known structures is
known as
(a) Hidden Markov Model

(b) Homology modeling
(c) Molecular Modeling
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69. A method which generate configurations by making random changes to the positions of
the species present is known as
(a) Monte Carlo Simulation method

(b) Molecular Dynamics Simulation method
A (c) Quantum Mechanics method
C
70. A mathematical description of the classical forces or energies between atoms is known as
T
(a) Parameters
E
(b) Force field
(c) Atomic energy
(d) Functional field
A 71. The energy defined between every four bonded atoms and depends on the torsion angle
made by the two planes incorporating the four atoms is knowns as
I
C (a) Bond stretching energy

(b) Electrostatic energy
T (c) Rotational energy
E (d) Torsional energy
72. The energy which is calculated as a sumof interactions between partial atomic charges
using Coulombs lawis known as
A (a) Electrostatic energy

(b) Torsional energy
I
(c) Bond stretching energy
C (d) Rotational energy
T
73. A method in which the successive configurations of the system are connected in time is
E known as
(a) Monte Carlo Simulation

(b) Molecular Dynamics Simulation
(c) Microscopic Simulation
I
74. A method in which each configuration depends only upon its predecessor and not upon
C any other of the configurations previously visited is known as
T
(a) Molecular Dynamics Simulation
E
(b) Microscopic Simulation
(c) Monte Carlo Simulation
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75. In molecular mechanics, the Van der Waals interactions are represented by
(a) Lennard-Jones potential

(b) Coulomb‟s law
(c) Hooke‟s Law
I
76. Which one of the following is NOT a numerical algorithm developed for integrating
C
equations of motion in MD Simulation?
T
(a) Verlet algorithm
E
(b) Genetic algorithm
(c) Leap-frog algorithm
(d) Beeman‟s algorithm
A 77. A tree showing all descendants of a single original ancestral species is known as
I (a) Isolated tree

C (b) Unrooted tree
(c) Rooted tree
E
78. Which one of the following is NOT a Molecular Dynamics Simulation Ensemble?
(a) Microscopical ensemble

(b) Microcanonical ensemble
A (c) Canonical ensemble
(d) Isothermal–isobaric ensemble
I
C 79. In Molecular Dynamics Simulation, the boundary conditions in which one side of the
simulation loops back to the opposite side, mimicking a bulk phase is known as
T
E (a) Box Boundary Conditions

(b) Unit Cell Boundary Conditions
(c) Periodic Boundary Conditions
A 80. Linux command used to print the current working directory is
I
(a) pwd
C (b) dir
T (c) cd
(d) ps
E
81. In the longest common subsequence problem, a subsequence in a sequence is an ordered

set of characters from the sequence that are not necessarily consecutive. Given this
information, which of these is a NOT a common subsequence of the two strings
"AGCCAT" and "ACTAGG"
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(a) GA
(b) AG
(c) CA
(d) AT
A 82. When one string is edited or converted to another string, edit operations insertion, deletion
I
and substitution are used. Replacement of a residue by another is counted as one
operation. But replacement of one residue by another could have also been achieved
C through other operations. Which of the following in the given order, would have had the
T same effect as replacement of one residue by another.
E (a) One insertion

(b) One deletion and One insertion
(c) Two insertions
(d) Two deletions
A
83. For drug-likeness of a compound, lipinski rule of 5 is used. Given the following
statements which set of the following statements form lipinski rule of 5
I S. logP not greater than 5
C
T. Molecular mass greater than 500 daltons
U. Not more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors
T V. Molecular mass less than 500 daltons
E W. Not more than 5 hydrogen bond donors
(a) S,T,V,W
(b) S,T,U,W
(c) T,U,V,W
(d) S,U,V,W
A
84. These are steps in homology modeling. Give the correct sequence of these steps
I S. Validating the model with a Ramachandran Plot
C T. Finding template/s for your target sequence
U. Side chain modeling and loop refinement
T V. Backbone modeling
E W. Energy minimization of the model
(a) S,T,U,V,W
(b) T,V,U,W,S
(c) T,U,V,S,W
(d) W,S,T,U,V
A
85. You are given the following alignment.
I K S A _ _ D
C R S A T I E
Calculate the score of this alignment according to this gap penalty method where score =
T sum of score of alignment of the residues - gap penalty. The penalty for initiating a gap
E Wg is 2 and penalty for each gap extension is 1. The scores for residues which are given
in the alignment are as follows
K vs R is 2, S vs S is 4, A vs A is 4 and D vs E is 2.
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 9
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86. Match the phrases in Group I with phrases in Group II

Group I Group II
S. alpha helix 1. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+3
T. 310 helix 2. Forms beta sheets
U. pi helix 3. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+4
A V. Beta strand 4. Hydrogen bond between residue i and residue i+5
I (a) S-3;T-1;U-4;V-2
C (b) S-4;T-3;U-1;V-2
(c) S-1;T-4;U-2;V-3
T (d) S-2;T-1;U-4;V-3
E
87. A drug is unable to cross the cell membrane. Which molecular property of the compound
is most likely to have caused this effect?
(a) Number of hydrogen bonds
(b) Number of covalent bonds
A
(c) Aromatic interactions
I (d) High logP
C 88. In a ligand based drug design experiment, the structure of the target protein which is
T inhibited by a set of compounds was not known. However, all these active compounds
were cationic. Given this information, one can infer that this target protein's active site is
E most probably
(a) cationic
(b) aromatic
(c) anionic
A (d) hydrophobic
I 89. An enzyme from a pathogen is selected as a potential drug target. How do you ensure that
C this potential drug target does not have any similarity with human proteins?
T (a) Perform a phylogenetic analysis
E
(b) Perform molecular dynamics simulation
(c) Check the length of the protein
(d) Perform a BLASTp search against Homo sapiens and make sure that there are no hits
90. Which one of these is an INCORRECT combination

A (a) 3D Theoretical Model - Homology modeling
I (b) SOPMA - Tool for protein secondary structure prediction
(c) Hidden Markov Models - Can be used for generating a 3D structure
C
(d) PDB structures - Obtained through XRayD or NMR
T
91. Ten compounds were tested for antibacterial activity. All of them show good activity.
E Analysis of their structures show that they have three common functional groups. These
functional groups can be used for deriving
(a) Pharmacodynamics
(b) Pharmocokinetics
(c) Pharmacophore
(d) Pharmacogenomics
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
92. Which of these statement(s) are/is TRUE about a Hidden Markov Model
(a) A Hidden Markov Model has Emission Probabilities

(b) A Hidden Markov Model has Transition Probabilities
(c) A Hidden Markov Model has insert, delete and match states
I
93. The output of multiple sequence alignment of protein sequences can be used to
C
T (a) Generate sequence motifs

(b) Guide phylogenetic tree construction
E
(c) In homology modeling to find regions of similarity between the target and template
sequences
A 94. Which one of these statements about Neural Networks is INCORRECT
I (a) Errors can be corrected using Back propagation algorithm

C (b) A Simple Neural Network has an input layer, hidden layer and an output layer
(c) Processing takes place in the hidden layer
T (d) Errors cannot be corrected in a Neural Network
E
95. In a docking experiment different ligands are being docked to a receptor. The docking
algorithm includes
(a) A search technique to find the optimal placement of the ligand in the receptor
A (b) A scoring function to rate each placement
(c) A method of ranking candidate ligands against each other
I
C
96. A protein simulation has to be performed using a relatively small number of particles in
T
such a way that the particles experience forces as though they were in bulk solution. This
E is enabled in a Molecular Dynamics Simulation
(a) Through Periodic Boundary Conditions

(b) Adding positive ions
(c) Adding negative ions
A (d) Adding water
I
97. Which of these statements is INCORRECT
C
T (a) 2D Fingerprint of a compound is a set of bits where each bit indicates the presence or
absence of a molecular feature
E
(b) 2D Fingerprints can be used in 2D- searching for finding similar compounds in a
database
(c) 2D Fingerprints contain three dimensional coordinate information of compounds
(d) Tanimoto co-efficient can be used to see how similar two 2D fingerprints are.
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
98. Docking procedures can use which of these scoring functions
(a) Empirical Scoring Function

(b) Explicit Force Field Scoring Function
(c) Knowledge based Scoring function
I
99. One would like to study domain movements of a protein. Which of these methods can be
C
used?
T
(a) Threading
E
(b) Docking
(c) Molecular dynamics simulations
(d) Homology modeling
A 100. In order to generate a good 3D homology model for a protein, BLASTp search against
PDB yielded a few hits. Which one of these can be chosen as the template?
I
C (a) The hit with less than 10% identity

(b) The hit with less than 20% identity
T (c) The hit with greater than 40% identity
E (d) The hit with less than 15% identity
101. Statement I: In Simulated Annealing, the position and the internal rotational state of the
ligand is adjusted and the energy calculated.
Statement II: If the energy decreases, the move is accepted. Search goes on and the final
A state of the ligand is returned as the docked conformation.
Which of these statements is/are TRUE / FALSE?
I
C (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are True

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
T
(c) Statement I is True and Statement II is False
E (d) Statement I is False and Statement II is True
102. The Linux command „grep "^Biology" one.txt‟ would find
(a) All lines beginning with the word Biology in the file named one.txt
A (b) All lines NOT beginning with the word Biology in the file named one.txt
I (c) All lines ending with the word Biology in the file named one.txt
(d) All lines containing the word Biology in the file named one.txt
C
T 103. In microarray analysis of gene expression values which clustering technique can be used
E
(a) Single Linkage Analysis
(b) Complete Linkage Analysis
(c) Average Linkage Analysis
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
104. Statement I: In structure based drug discovery process where the structure of the target
and the drug is known, it is important to find if the drug binds well with the target
Statement II: For a drug to be safe and bioavailable, Absorption, Distribution,
Metabolism and Excretion of the drug should also be addressed
Which of these statements is / are TRUE / FALSE?
A
I (a) Statement I is TRUE and Statement II is FALSE
(b) Both Statement I and II are TRUE
C
(c) Statement I is FALSE and Statement II is TRUE
T (d) Both Statement I and II are FALSE
E
105. Considering n = 5, What will be the output of the following Pseudo code for Fibonacci
series?
RECURFIB(n)
if n = 1 or n = 2
A return 1
else
I a = RECURFIB(n − 1)
C b = RECURFIB(n − 2)
return a + b
T
E (a) 1 2 3 4 5 (b) 1 1 2 3 5 (c) 1 1 1 1 1 (d) 1 3 5 7 9
106. What will be the output of the following PERL program statements?
@protein ("Ala", "Gly", "Val");
pop(@protein);
A print "@protein"
I (a) Ala Gly Val
C (b) Val Gly Ala
(c) Ala Gly
T (d) Val
E
107. What will be the output of the following PERL program statements?
%protcount = (“Ala”=>50, “Gly”=>60, “Val”=>70);
@protein keys % protcount;
print "@protein";
A
(a) 50 60 70
I (b) Ala 50 Gly 60 Val 70
C
(c) Ala Gly Val
(d) 70 60 50
T
108. Linux command „cat‟ is used to I) display the given file contents II) concatenate
E
two given files. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect to the above two
statements?
(a) Statement I) is correct and II) is not correct

(b) Statement I) is not correct and II) is correct
(c) Both statements I) and II) are not correct
(d) Both statements I) and II) are correct
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
109. To perform Molecular Dynamics Simulation on any protein of interest one has to carry
out the following steps and here the steps are mentioned in random order: I) Energy
Minimization II) Prepare the Protein III) Solvate IV) Production MD V) Position
Restrained MD. Which one of the following is giving the CORRECT ORDER of steps?
A (a) Steps I, II, III, IV, V
(b) Steps II, III, I, V, IV
I
(c) Steps II, III, I, IV, V
C (d) Steps I, II, III, V, IV
T 110. In sequence similarity search, if PSI-BLAST reports E value <=0.02, then sequences are
E
(a) Homologous
(b) Good match but not homologous
(c) Not homologous
(d) Mismatch
A 111. The Linux command „grep 'ATOM' Protein.txt > newprot.txt‟ will
I (a) Write all the lines in Protein.txt and ATOM files to the newprot.txt file
C (b) Write all the lines in Protein.txt that contain the string ATOM to the newprot.txt file
(c) Write all the lines in Protein.txt that NOT contain the string ATOM to the
T newprot.txt file
E (d) Concatenate the string ATOM to all the lines in Protein.txt and newprot.txt files
112. Which one of the following statement is TRUE? In Molecular Dynamics Simulation, the
minimization algorithm
(a) Steepest-Descent is a representative of the first derivative method
A (b) Newton-Raphson is a representative of the first derivative method
I (c) Steepest-Descent is a representative of the second derivative method
(d) Newton-Raphson is a representative of the third derivative method
C
113. In protein-ligand docking, I) Search algorithm generates a large number of poses of a
T
molecule in the binding site II) Scoring function calculates the binding affinity for a
E particular pose. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect to the above two
statements I and II?
(a) Both statements I) and II) are true
(b) Statement I) is true and II) is false
A (c) Statement I) is false and II) is true
(d) Both statements I) and II) are false
I
114. To perform Docking of a given protein with a ligand one has to carry out the following
C
steps and here the steps are mentioned in random order: I) Mapping of the binding site
T II) Adding hydrogens and preparing protein and ligand III) Analyze obtained
E
conformations and their energy IV) Docking. Which one of the following is giving the
CORRECT ORDER of steps?
(a) Steps I, II, III, IV
(b) Steps II, I, IV, III
(c) Steps II, I, III, IV
(d) Steps IV,III, II, I
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG2BIE27
115. The BLAST programs which I) compare amino acid sequence query to a protein
sequence data base and II) compares nucleotide sequence query to a nucleotide sequence
data base are
(a) BLASTX and TBLASTX

A (b) BLASTP and BLASTN
I (c) BLASTP and BLASTX
(d) BLASTN and BLASTX
C
Answer: b
T 116. Which one of the following statement is FALSE? Two methods for constructing a
phylogenetic tree are
E
(a) distance-based and maximum parsimony

(b) maximum parsimony and maximum likelihood
(c) distance-based and maximum likelihood
A (d) steepest-descent and minimum likelihood
I 117. The Linux commands for copying the files and renaming the files are
C
(a) copy and move
T (b) copy and rename
E (c) cp and mv
(d) cp and rn
118. The steps in Receptor based virtual screening are given below in a random order. Which
one of the following is giving the CORRECT order of steps? I) Target structure
A selection II) Small-molecule database preparation III) Docking to predict ligand
conformation at binding site IV) Testing of Virtual hits
I
C (a) Steps II, I, III, IV

(b) Steps I, II, III, IV
T (c) Steps IV, III, II, I
E (d) Steps III, IV, I, II
119. In biological databases I) SwissProt is a nucleotide sequence database II) PDB is a
structural database of proteins. Which one of the following is CORRECT with respect
to the above two statements I and II?
A
(a) Both statements I) and II) are true
I (b) Statement I) is true and II) is false
C (c) Statement I) is false and II) is true
(d) Both statements I) and II) are false
T
120. The major factors contributing to the stability of protein-ligand complexes are
E
(a) Shape complementarity of the ligand to the ligand-binding site
(b) Formation of key hydrogen bonds
(c) Good hydrophobic and electrostatic interactions with the active site residues
Page 19 of 19
UG BIO INFORMATICS ENGINEERING
Code 27-Paper 2
1 D 31 A 61 C 91 C
2 C 32 B 62 A 92 D
3 A 33 B 63 B 93 D
4 B 34 A 64 B 94 D
5 C 35 A 65 C 95 D
6 D 36 B 66 D 96 A
7 A 37 A 67 C 97 C
8 D 38 D 68 B 98 D
9 B 39 A 69 A 99 C
10 A 40 B 70 B 100 C
11 A 41 D 71 D 101 A
12 C 42 D 72 A 102 A
13 B 43 D 73 B 103 D
14 A 44 D 74 C 104 B
15 B 45 B 75 A 105 B
16 A 46 A 76 B 106 C
17 C 47 C 77 C 107 C
18 D 48 C 78 A 108 D
19 A 49 D 79 C 109 B
20 B 50 B 80 A 110 A
21 B 51 D 81 A 111 B
22 A 52 A 82 B 112 A
23 C 53 D 83 D 113 A
24 C 54 B 84 B 114 B
25 D 55 C 85 C 115 B
26 A 56 D 86 A 116 D
27 A 57 B 87 D 117 C
28 A 58 D 88 C 118 A
29 B 59 A 89 D 119 C
30 A 60 B 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
I
C
T PAPER-I
E Instructions:
questions.
ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q 1 to Q 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
iii. Part-B contains 30 questions, Q 71 to Q 100 of 2 (two) marks each.
A wrong answer.
C vii. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or
E
1. Movable canard produces motion about

(a) longitudinal axis (b)lateral axis
A (c) vertical axis (d)yaw axis
I 2. Which of the following component is considered the primary lifting surface of an
C aircraft?
T (a) canard (b)wing (c)horizontal tail (d)all of above
E 3. The atmosphere can be broadly classified into following categories.
(a) Troposphere, stratosphere and Ionosphere

(b) Troposphere, Stratosphere and Thermosphere
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere and Exosphere
(d) Gradient region and Isothermal region
4. What will be the value of Mach number if an aircraft flies at a speed of 255 m/s at
A sea level condition?
I (a) 0.55 (b)0.65 (c)0.75 (d)0.85

C 5. The primary purpose of a trailing edge flap is to
T (a) avoid flow separation (b)Increase maximum lift coefficient
(c) reduce wave drag (d) reduce induced drag
E
1
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 6. NACA 0009 and NACA 0012 airfoils differ in

I (a) maximum thickness (b)location of thickness
(c) maximum camber (d)location of camber
C
T 7. Which of the following is not Kepler’s law of planetary motion states that?
E (a) In equal times, the area swept out by the radius vector of a satellite are same
(b) The periods of any two satellites about the same planet are related to their semi
major axes as (τ12/τ22 = a13/a23)
(c) A satellite describes an elliptical path around its center of attraction
(d) The period of satellite becomes proportional to the major axis if the atmosphere
of the planet is neglected
8. To minimize the aerodynamic heating during re-entry, the vehicle should have
A
(a) conical nose
I (b) blunt nose
(c) wedge shaped nose with sharp leading edge
C (d) pin pointed nose
T
9. The order of velocity necessary to place a space vehicle in orbit about the earth is
E approximately
(a) 5.2 km/s (b)7.9 km/s

(c) 11.2 km/s (d)16.4 km/s
10. Which of the following definition is inappropriate?

(a) temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy of the particles in the gas
(b) the density of a substance is the mass of that substance per unit volume
A (c) the velocity at any fixed point B in a flowing gas is the velocity of an
I infinitesimally small fluid element as it sweeps through B
(d) pressure is the tangential force per unit area exerted on a surface due to the time
C rate of change of momentum of gas molecules impacting on the surface
T
11. Which of the following definition is not correct?
E
(a) angle between relative wind and zero lift line of wing is called absolute angle of
attack
(b) angle between chord line of wing and zero lift line of the wing is called virtual
angle of attack
(c) angle between relative wind and chord line of wing is called geometric angle of
attack
(d) angle between fuselage reference line and chord line of the wing is called angle
of wing incidence
A
I 12. Which of the following aircraft is equipped with canard control?
C (a) LCA (b) Su-30
T (c) F-16 (d)Mirage 2000
E
2
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 13. Which of the following statement is not true for Hooke’s Law?
I
(a) The force required to extend or compress a spring by some distance scales
C linearly with respect to that distance.
(b) An elastic body or material to which Hooke’s law applies is called Hookean.
T (c) Hooke's law is an accurate approximation for most solid bodies, as long as the
E forces and deformations are large enough.
(d) Hooke's law is only a first-order linear approximation to the real response of
springs and other elastic bodies to applied forces.
14. The angle of incidence of an efficient propeller blade
(a) Remains constant from root to tip

(b) Increases from root to tip
(c) Decreases from root to tip
A
(d) decreases from mid-point to root & tip
I
15. The trajectory followed by lunar and interplanetary space vehicle are generally
C
T (a) either parabolic or hyperbolic
(b) either hyperbolic or elliptical
E (c) either circular or parabolic
(d) either circular or elliptical
16. For the velocity field given by

u = y/(x2 + y2) and v = -x/(x2 + y2) , the flow is
(a) rotational (b) irrotational

(c) pure translational (d) translational as well as rotational
A
17. Which of the following option can be termed as source of all aerodynamic forces on
I a body?
C
(a) pressure distribution and velocity distribution
T (b) lift distribution and drag distribution
E (c) skin friction distribution and shear stress distribution
(d) shear stress distribution and pressure distribution
18. Two bodies at same angle of attack are dynamically similar if
(a) Reynolds number, Mach number and Froudes number are same
(b) Reynolds number, Mach number and shape are same
(c) Reynolds number, shape and Froudes number are same
(d) Shape, Mach number and Froudes number are same
A
19. Superposition of uniform flow over doublet & vortex represents:
I
(a) Flow over a semi-infinite body
C (b) Flow over a Rankine Oval body
T (c) Flow over a lifting cylinder
(d) Flow over a non-lifting cylinder
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 20. Which of the following is correct definition of Mach Number?

I
(a) M = (Inertia Force)/(Viscous Force)
C (b) M2 = (Inertia Force)/(Viscous Force)
(c) M = (Inertia Force)/(Elastic Force)
T (d) M2 = (Inertia Force)/(Elastic Force)
E
21. Which of the following are elementary flows?
(a) uniform flow, source flow, doublet flow and superimposed flow
(b) uniform flow, source flow, doublet flow and compressible flow
(c) uniform flow, source flow, source-sink pair flow and vortex flow
(d) uniform flow, source flow, doublet flow and vortex flow
22. Which of the following is true for incompressible 2-dimensional uniform flow?
A
I (a) φ = V∞ x and ψ = V∞ y
(b) φ = V∞ r sin θ and ψ = V∞ r cos θ
C (c) φ = V∞ y and ψ = V∞ x
T (d) φ = -V∞ x and ψ = V∞ y
E 23. Which of the following expressions represent velocity potential and stream function
for the source flow? (Assume Λ to be positive)
(a) φ = (Λ / 2 π) θ and ψ = (Λ / 2 π) ln(r)

(b) φ = -(Λ / 2 π) ln(r) and ψ = (Λ / 2 π) θ
(c) φ = (Λ / 2 π) ln(r) and ψ = (Λ / 2 π) θ
(d) φ = (Λ / 2 π) ln(r) and ψ = -(Λ / 2 π) θ
A 24. Superposition of uniform flow and a source-sink pair represents:
I (a) Flow over a semi-infinite body (b) Flow over a Rankine Oval body
(c) Flow over a lifting cylinder (d) Flow over a non-lifting cylinder
C
25. Consider the non-lifting flow over a circular cylinder. What will be the value of
T minimum pressure coefficient that occurs on the surface of the cylinder?
E
(a) -3 (b)-1 (c) 0 (d)-5
26. Consider the non-lifting flow over a circular cylinder. What will be the location on
the surface of the cylinder where minimum pressure coefficient occurs?
(a) θ = 0o, 90o (b)θ = -90o, 90o

(c) θ = 0o, 180o (d) θ = 90o, 180o
A
27. Kutta condition can be expressed in terms of strength of vortex sheet as
I
(a) γTE ≠ 0 (b) γTE< 0 (c) γTE = 0 (d)γTE> 0
C
T
E
4
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 28. If complex function w is having a unique or single value for its derivative dw/dz at a
point on ∂w/∂x = (1/i) ∂w/∂y or ∂w/∂y =i (∂w/∂x) then it is called
I
C (a) Cauchy Riemman relation (b)Kutta condition
(c) Monogenic function (d) Starting vortex
T
E 29. Study of methods in which an orthogonal geometric pattern composed of certain
shapes elements can be transformed into entirely different pattern whilst the element
retain their distinctive form and proportion is called
(a) Joukowski transformation (b)Conformal transformation

(c) Complex potential function (d)Velocity potential function
30. Which of the following is not one of the Helmholtz theorems of vortex motion in an
inviscid flow?
A
I (a) a fluid particle in a general motion is independent of the following: linear
velocity, vorticity and distortion.
C (b) Strength of vortex is constant along its length
T (c) There is no fluid interchange between tube & surrounding fluid.
(d) Vortex strength remain constant as the vortex moves throughout the fluid
E confines
31. Dimensions (units) of circulation and vortex strength are
(a) m2s-1 for both (b)ms-1 and m2s-1

(c)m2s and m2s-1 (d) m2s-1 and ms-2
32. Velocity outside a vortex core

A
(a) varies inversely with radius from centre
I (b) varies directly with radius from centre
C (c) remains constant with radius from centre
(d) becomes zero outside the core
T
E 33. Which of the following is not an assumption of thin airfoil theory?
(a) Airfoil shape is represented by camber line

(b) Airfoil camber line deviates slightly from chord line
(c) The theory should be restricted to low angles of incidence
(d) The theory applies to moderately thick airfoils
34. Pitching moment coefficient at leading edge of thin symmetrical flat plate is given
by:
A
I (a) CM LE = ½ α π (b) CM LE= - ½ α π
(c) CM LE = α π (d)CM LE= -α π
C
T
E
5
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 35. Consider the non-lifting flow over a circular cylinder. What will be the location on
the surface of the cylinder where the surface pressure equals the free-stream
I
pressure?
C
(a) θ = 300, 900, 2400, 3000 (b) θ = 300, 600, 1200, 2400
T (c) θ = 300, 1400, 2000, 3100 (d) θ = 300, 1500, 2100, 3300
E
36. If subscripts (1) and (2) denotes the flow conditions upstream and downstream of the
shock wave, which of the following is completely correct? (where p, ρ, T, V, M and s
are pressure, density, temperature, speed, Mach Number and entropy respectively)
(a) p2<p1, ρ2<ρ1, T2<T1, V2<V1, M2<M1, s2<s1

(b) p2>p1, ρ2>ρ1, T2>T1, V2>V1, M2>M1, s2>s1
(c) p2<p1, ρ2<ρ1, T2<T1, V2>V1, M2>M1, s2<s1
(d) p2>p1, ρ2>ρ1, T2>T1, V2<V1, M2<M1, s2>s1
A
37. When does a conical streamlined body behave like blunt-nosed body? (where θ is
I semi-angle of conical nose)
C
(a) when θ =0 (b)when θ <θmax (c) when θ = θmax (d)when θ >θmax
T
38. The phenomenon of Prandtl-Meyer expansion fan is
E
(a) an adiabatic process (b)an isothermal process
(c) isentropic process and reversible (d)irreversible process
39. The non-dimensional parameters such as Reynolds number, Mach number, Prandtle
number etc. are also called
(a) γ Numbers (b)μ Numbers (c)ф Numbers (d)Π Numbers

A
I 40. In high speed wind tunnel, which of the following are the dominant factors?
C (a) inertia and compressibility (b)inertia and viscosity

(c) viscosity and compressibility (d)inertia, viscosity and compressibility
T
E 41. What is the range of deviation of pitot probe with respect to airflow direction up to
which the measured value of stagnation pressure is sufficiently accurate?
(a) ±10 (b)±50 (c) ±100 (d)±200
42. What is the approximate diameter of wire used in hot wire anemometer?
(a) 0.0005 mm (b)0.005 mm (c)0.05 mm (d)0.5 mm

A
43. Prandtl-Glauert rule gives
I
(a) compressibility correction for the flow having M∞<0.7
C (b) compressibility correction for the flow having 0.7<M∞<1.2
T (c) compressibility correction for the flow having 1.2<M∞<5
(d) compressibility correction for the flow having M∞>5
E
6
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A 44. Consider θmax as maximum deflection angle of wedge shaped body for given
upstream Mach Number (M1) assuming steady, inviscid and adiabatic supersonic
I
flow conditions. How many solutions exist for a given Mach Number if the wedge
C body is made such that θ <θmax for straight oblique shock? (where θ is wedge semi-
angle)
T
(a) none (b) one (c)two (d) infinite
E
45. In which of the following type of supersonic wind tunnel, Freon-21 gas can be used
instead of air?
(a) continuous open circuit type (b)continuous closed circuit type
(c) blow down type (d)intermittent type
46. The shock wave is a thin region of highly viscous flow having the thickness of the
A order of
I (a) 10-9 cm (b) 10-7 cm (c) 10-5 cm (d)10-3 cm

C 47. Which of the following statement is true? (where O.S.W. = Oblique shock wave,
T E.W. = Expansion wave and N.S.W. = Normal shock wave)
E (a) O.S.W. and N.S.W. are two-dimensional in nature while E.W. is one-dimensional
in nature inherently
(b) O.S.W. and E.W. are two-dimensional in nature while N.S.W. is one-dimensional
in nature inherently
(c) N.S.W. and E.W. are two-dimensional in nature while O.S.W. is three-
dimensional in nature inherently
(d) O.S.W., N.S.W. and E.W. are two-dimensional in nature
48. Suppose two refracted shocks (C & D) are formed after the intersection of two
A
oblique shocks (A & B) emanating from the top and bottom concave corners. Two
I regions (1 & 2) behind the refracted shocks are formed. These two regions are
divided by a line, which is called
C
T (a) Mach line (b) Slip line (c) Camber line (d) Stream line
E 49. Which of the following term is considered as fictitious altitude?
(a) absolute altitude (b)geopotential altitude

(c) geometric altitude (d)pressure altitude
50. Drag bucket is formed in case of
(a) cambered airfoil section (b) symmetrical airfoil section

A (c) laminar airfoil section (d) turbulent airfoil section
I 51. At maneuver point

C
(a) CLmax occurs at straight and level flight
T (b) CLmax occurs at limit load factor
(c) CLmax occurs at proof load factor
E
7
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A (d) CLmax occurs at ultimate load factor

52. For same retracted planform area, which of the following flap in deflected condition
I
will have highest maximum lift coefficient?
C
(a) Fowler flap (b)Zap flap (c)Split flap (d)Kruger flap
T
53. The best turn performance of an airplane is achieved at
E
(a) low velocities and high altitudes (b)low velocities and low altitudes
(c) high velocities and high altitudes (d)high velocities and low altitudes
54. The minimum power condition for steady level flight occurs at a speed which is
(a) equal to minimum drag speed (b)76% of minimum drag speed

(c) 86.6% of minimum drag speed (d)twice the minimum drag speed
A
I 55. For steady climb, which of the following is true?
C (a) L > W (b) L < W (c)L = W (d)L = 2W

T
56. Service ceiling is
E
(a) the altitude at which max rate of climb is 100 ft/minute
(b) the altitude at which max rate of climb is 100 ft/second
(c) the altitude at which max rate of climb is 100 m/minute
(d) the altitude at which max rate of climb is 100 m/second
57. Which of the following statement is true for ground roll (Sg) during take-off?
(a) Sg is independent of free stream density

A
(b) Sg is proportional to ρ∞
I (c) Sg is proportional to 1/ρ∞
(d) Sg is proportional to 1/(ρ∞2)
C
T 58. Negative static margin indicates that the aircraft is
E (a) statically stable (b) statically unstable

(c) Neutrally stable (d)Dynamically stable
59. Strike the odd man out of the following with respect to stability & control of the
aircraft
(a) trim (b) equilibrium
(c) balanced (d) stability
A 60. The criteria (dδe/dCL) = 0 can be used to find experimentally

I
(a) stick fixed maneuver point (b) stick free maneuver point
C (c) stick fixed neutral point (d) stick free neutral point
T
E
8
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
61. An airplane having high directional stability and inadequate lateral stability is
I
subjected to a side slip. Which of the following phenomenon will result?
C
(a) Dutch Roll (b)Pure Convergence
T (c) Spin (d)Spiral Divergence
E
62. The typical values of roots for longitudinal stick fixed case for an airplane with time
characteristics of 1.5 are given by (λ1,2 = -0.02 ± i 0.03) – Eq.(1) and (λ3,4 = -2.0 ± i
2.5) – Eq.(2). Which mode is represented by these equations?
(a) Eq.(1) represents short period mode while Eq.(2) represents Phugoid mode
(b) Eq.(1) and Eq.(2) both represent short period mode
(c) Eq.(1) and Eq.(2) both represent Phugoid mode
(d) Eq.(1) represents Phugoid mode while Eq.(2) represents short period mode
A
I 63. Which of the following option represents the damping derivatives?
C (a) Cnβ, Clβ, (b)Cnr, Clp
(c) Cnδr, Clδa (d)Cnp, Clr
T
E 64. Match with respect to stability derivatives
I. Cnβ A. damping derivative
II. Cnp B. weather cock stability derivative
III. Cnr C. cross derivative
IV. Cnδr D. control power derivative
(a) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A (b)I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

(c) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C (d)I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
A
I 65. While maintaining a straight flight path which of the following is most suitable
expression for the sideslip (β)? (where ψ is angle of yaw)
C
(a) β = ψ (b) β< ψ (c)β = - ψ (d) β ˃ ψ
T
66. If a roll is induced in the stalled airplane by aileron displacement or by the premature
E
stall of the wing tip and a yawing moment is also imposed through the use of the
rudder. The resulting motion is called
(a) directional divergence (b)spin
(c) spiral divergence (d)dutch roll
67. Which of the following type of casting technique is used for wrought products?
A (a) Direct chill casting (b)Shell mould casting

(c) Investment casting (d)Low pressure die casting
I
C 68. Which of the following is a form of aramid fiber?
T (a) Glass fiber (b) Kevlar

(c) Carbon fiber (d)Aromatic polyester fiber
E
9
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
69. Which of the following matrix is not a thermoplastic?
I
C (a) Epoxies (b)PEEK
(c) Nylon (d)Polypropylene
T
E 70. Which of the following option is wrong for thermoplastics but correct for thermoset?
(a) Lower shrinkage

(b) Excellent Prepregability characteristics
(c) Higher resin cost
(d) Higher inter-laminar fracture toughness

A
I 71. The air pressure and density at a point on the wing of a Boeing 747 are 1.2 x 105 N/m2
and 1.2 kg/m3 respectively. What is the approximate temperature at that point?
C
T (a) 502 K (b) 402 K (c) 348 K (d) 248 K
E 72. For a given swept back wing having surface area of 40 m2, span of 20m and taper ratio of
0.5, what will be the value of ctip?
(a) 4.33 m (b) 3.33 m (c) 2.33 m (d) 1.33 m
73. The equation [r = p / (1 + e*cos (θ –C))] is a standard form of conic section in polar
coordinates (where e = A(h2/k2) = eccentricity, p = h2/k2 and h2, A & C dictate the
specific path). The above equation gives a circular, elliptical, parabolic and hyperbolic
A path respectively if
I (a) e = 0, e < 1, e = 1 and e > 1
C (b) e < 1, e = 0, e = 1 and e > 1
(c) e = 1, e < 1, e = 0 and e > 1
T (d) e > 1, e < 1, e = 0 and e = 1
E
74. What will be the lift coefficient of an aircraft flying at a forward speed of 100 m/s and
wing loading of 1225 N/m2 at sea level under ISA conditions?
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4
75. An airplane weighing 65,000 N is flying straight and level at free stream dynamic
pressure of 1.3 x 105 N/m2 having wing planform area of 40 m2. What is the lift
coefficient at which the aircraft is flying?
A
(a) 0.125 (b) 0.0125 (c) 0.0625 (d) 0.00625
I
C 76. An aircraft weighing 50000 N has lift coefficient and drag coefficient of 0.36 and 0.036
respectively. What will be the thrust required?
T
E
10
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A (a) 648 N (b) 5000 N (c) 500000 N (d) None of the above
I
77. An airplane is producing thrust of 13,000 N in unaccelerated straight and level flight
C having free stream dynamic pressure of 1.3 x 105 N/m2 and wing planform area of 40 m2.
What is the drag coefficient at which the aircraft is flying?
T
E (a) 0.25 (b) 0.025 (c) 0.0025 (d) 0.00025
78. What will be the lift curve slope for a high aspect ratio straight wing with a thin
symmetric airfoil at an angle of 4 degrees in a supersonic flow at Mach 2?
(a) 1.31 per radian (b) 2.31 per radian

(c) 3.31 per radian (d) 4.31 per radian
79. Consider flow about circular obstacle generating circulation represented by equation θ =
A
arcsin (- Γ/(4 π a U)). What will be the condition when Γ > 4 π a U
I
(a) Front and rear stagnation point meet at θ = – 90o
C (b) Stagnation point moves off the cylinder
T (c) Stagnation points lie at θ = 0o, 180o
(d) Stagnation points lie in third and fourth quadrant of circle
E
80. Consider flow about circular obstacle generating circulation represented by equation θ =
arcsin (- Γ/(4 π a U)). What will be the condition when Γ = 0
(a) Front and rear stagnation point meet at θ = – 90o

(b) Stagnation point moves off the cylinder
(c) Stagnation points lie at θ = 0o, 180o
(d) Stagnation points lie in third and fourth quadrant of circle
A
81. For a general uniform flow given by ψ = 6x+12y
I
C (a) θ = -63.4 degrees and V = 13.4 m/s
(b) θ = 63.4 degrees and V = 15.4 m/s
T (c) θ = -26.6 degrees and V = 13.4 m/s
E (d) θ = 26.6 degrees and V = 15.4 m/s
82. An aircraft is designed for supersonic area rule at M∞ = 1.2 and 1.6. What will be the
oblique angle at which cross-sectional area has to be made smooth for reduced
supersonic wave drag respectively?
(a) μ = 38.70 and μ = 56.40 respectively

(b) μ = 56.40 and μ = 38.70 respectively
(c) μ = 38.70 for both
A (d) μ = 56.40 for both
I
83. Which of the following value of stagnation pressure coefficient comes out in case of
C blunt body using Newton’s sine-squared law?
T
(a)1 (b) 1.26 (c) 1.86 (d)2
E
11
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
84. Which of the following value of the sonic to the total flow properties is correct for the
I
normal shock wave for calorically perfect gas for steady, inviscid, adiabatic flow
C conditions? (where γ = 1.4)
T (a) T*/T0 = 0.23 (b) p*/p0 = 0.43
(c) ρ*/ρ0 = 0.63 (d) all are correct
E
85. The lift on a spinning circular cylinder in a free stream with a velocity of 30 m/s and
standard sea level condition is 7.38 N/m of span. What will be the circulation around the
cylinder?
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.12 (c)3.3 (d) 272.3
86. For upstream Mach Number (M1) approaching infinity, the value of which property
A across the normal shock wave given below is not correct? (For air γ = 1.4)
I (a) M2 = 0.378 (b)u2/u1 = 3 (c)T2/T1 = ∞ (d)ρ2/ρ1 = ∞

C
87. Which of the following value of stagnation pressure coefficient comes out in case of
T blunt body using Newton’s sine-squared law?
E
(a) 1 (b)1.26 (c)1.86 (d) 2
88. Wing and horizontal tail of an aircraft flying at a constant altitude are subjected to
freestream velocity of 110 m/s and 99 m/s respectively. What will be the value of
horizontal tail efficiency?
(a) 111% (b) 95% (c)90% (d)81%
A 89. An aircraft is having horizontal tail area as 30% of the wing. What will be the tail
I volume coefficient if tail moment arm and mean aerodynamic chord of the wing are 5 m
and 3 m respectively?
C
(a) 0.18 (b)0.5 (c) 2 (d)5.5
T
E 90. Match the following with respect to aircraft motion after disturbance.
I. Statically stable & dynamically unstable A. Pure convergence
II. Statically & dynamically stable (Oscillatory) B. Damped oscillations
III. Statically & dynamically stable (Non-oscillatory) C. Pure divergence
IV. Statically unstable & dynamically unstable D. Undamped oscillations
(a) I=C, II=B, III=A, IV=D (b) I=D, II=A, III=B, IV=C
(c) I=A, II=B, III=C, IV=D (d)I=D, II=B, III=A, IV=C
A 91. What will be the elevator angle required to overcome the damping in pitch term during
I pull-up maneuver for the following given data?
n=2 lt = 5m τ = 0.5 V= 100 m/s g = 10 m/s2
C
(a) -0.126 (b)-1.26 (c)-0.63 (d)-0.063
T
E
12
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
92. What will be the value of stick fixed maneuver point for the following given data?
I
N0 = 0.30c g = 10 m/s2lt = 4m ρ = 1.25 kg/m3
C W/S = 50 Cmδ = -0.015 τ = 0.5
T (a)0.172c (b) 0.272c (c)0.372c (d)0.472c
E 93. What will be the elevator float angle with the following given data for Che = 0
Ch0 = 0 Chα = 0.03 Chδ = 0.006 αs = 20
(a) 100 (b)0.40 (c) -100 (d) -0.40
94. Which of the following option is correct with respect to value of Young’s Modulus in
case of metal alloys?
A
I (a) Copper < Magnesium < Tungsten < Steel
(b) Magnesium < Copper < Steel < Tungsten
C (c) Tungsten < Copper < Magnesium < Steel
(d) Copper < Steel < Tungsten < Magnesium
T
E 95. Which of the following option is correct with respect to increasing order of solubility in
Al?
(a) Gallium, Germanium, Copper and Silicon

(b) Silicon, Copper, Germanium and Gallium
(c) Gallium, Copper, Germanium and Silicon
(d) Silicon, Germanium, Copper and Gallium
96. Which of the following option of wrought aluminium alloys is specially used for
A
aerospace applications?
I
(a) 5154, 5083, 5056 (b)6063, 6082, 6061
C (c) 3003,3105, 3103 (d)7075, 7079, 7178
T
97. A piece of copper originally 200mm long is pulled in tension with a stress of 220 MPa.
E If the deformation is entirely elastic, what will be the resultant elongation? (use E = 110
GPa)
(a) 1 mm (b) 0.4 mm (c)10 mm (d)4 mm
98. Match the following with respect to primary application.
A: R-glass I: Reinforcing concretes

B: S-glass II: Structural application
A
C: T- glass III: Electrical applications
I
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III (b)A-II, B-III, C-I
C (c) A-III, B-I, C-II (d)A-II, B-I, C-III
T
E
13
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
99. For low speed flow, what will be the induced drag coefficient of an elliptical wing
I
having lift coefficient and aspect ratio of 0.6 and 6 respectively?
C
(a) 0.019 (b) 0.009 (c) 0.19 (d) 0.09
T
E 100. What will be the planform area of a wing having root chord of 3 m, wing span of 20 m
and taper ratio of 0.5?
(a) 35 m2` (b)45 m2 (c)55 m2 (d) 65 m2
PART –C
A
I
C
E

A
is equal to
I
1 1 1
C (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
T 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is

E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
A
C
T
E
14
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A
I
𝑙
C 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
E (a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

A probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
I
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
C
T
E (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A
I 2 𝑥2
C (a) Divergent (b) Convergent

T
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
E 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
A 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
I
C
1
T (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
8
E
15
ROLL NO.: UG1AEE28
A (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥

I
T (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
E
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
A 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
C 119. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑧 2 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 + 2, then ∇. ∇𝜑 is equal to
T (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
E (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
16
UG AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
Code 28-Paper 1
1 B 31 A 61 D 91 D
2 B 32 A 62 D 92 D
3 D 33 D 63 B 93 C
4 C 34 A 64 B 94 B
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 B
6 A 36 D 66 B 96 D
7 D 37 D 67 A 97 B
8 B 38 C 68 B 98 A
9 B 39 D 69 B 99 A
10 D 40 A 70 B 100 B
11 B 41 D 71 C 101 A
12 B 42 B 72 D 102 C
13 C 43 A 73 A 103 A
14 C 44 C 74 B 104 D
15 A 45 B 75 B 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 B 106 A
17 D 47 B 77 C 107 A
18 B 48 B 78 B 108 B
19 C 49 B 79 A 109 D
20 D 50 C 80 C 110 B
21 D 51 D 81 C 111 D
22 A 52 A 82 B 112 B
23 C 53 B 83 D 113 B
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 B
25 A 55 B 85 A 115 B
26 B 56 A 86 B 116 C
27 C 57 D 87 D 117 B
28 A 58 B 88 D 118 C
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 B
30 A 60 C 90 D 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
PAPER-II
A Instructions:
C iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q. 120 of 2 (two) marks each.
T wrong answer.
I PART-A (80x1= 80 Marks)

C 1. Choose the appropriate option of the static indeterminacy of the truss shown in the
T figure.
(a) Statically determinate

A (b) Statically indeterminate to degree 1
(c) Statically indeterminate to degree 2
I (d) Statically indeterminate to degree 3
C 2. For the frame shown in figure, the total static indeterminacy will be ________.
T
E
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
A
I 3. For the statically indeterminate beam shown in the figure, the unknown reaction force at
the left hand support is given by ___________
C
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
𝑤𝐿
(a) 8
𝑤 𝐿2
(b) 8
3𝑤 𝐿2
(c) 8
3𝑤𝐿
(d) 8
A
I 4. Bending moment M and torque T is applied on a solid circular shaft. If the maximum
bending stress equals to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to ______
C (a) T/2
(b) T
T (c) 2T
(d) 4T
E
5. The distribution factor of moment at joint B for the span BA for the frame shown in
figure is __________. Assume that EI is same for all the members.
A
I
C
(a) 0
T (b) 0.3
(c) 0.4
E (d) 1.0
6. A bar made of linear elastic isotropic material is fixed at one end and subjected to an
axial force of10 kN at the other end. The cross-sectional area of the bar is 100 mm2,
length is 100 mm and theYoung’s Modulus is 20105 N/mm2. The strain energy stored in
A the bar is _____________
(a) 10 N-mm
I (b) 15 N-mm
(c) 20 N-mm
C (d) 25 N-mm
T 7. The strain energy stored in a body of volume 'V' subjected to uniform stress(σ) is given
E by _________
𝜎2
(a) ×𝑉
2𝐸
𝜎2
(b) ×𝑉
𝐸
𝜎2
(c) ×𝐸
𝑉
A 𝜎2
(d) ×𝐸
2𝑉
I
8. Which of the following statement defines the term ‘critical buckling load’?
C (a) The stress on the cross-section due to the critical load equals the strength of the
material.
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
(b) The maximum compressive axial force that can be applied to a column before
any lateral deflection occurs.
(c) The minimum compressive axial force that can be applied to a column before any
lateral deflection occurs.
(d) The axial compressive force that causes material failure of a column.
A 9. With one end fixed and other end is free, a column of length 'L' buckles at load 'P 1'.
Another column of same length and same cross-section fixed at both ends buckles at load
I 'P2'. Then P2/P1 is __________
C (a) 1
(b) 2
T (c) 4
(d) 16
E
10. For most brittle materials, the ultimate strength in compression is much larger than the
ultimate strength in tension. This is mainly due to ____________
(a) presence of flaws and microscopic cracks or cavities
(b) necking in tension
A (c) severity of tensile stress as compared to compressive stress
(d) non-linearity of stress-strain diagram
I
11. Design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on ___________
C (a) Guest's theory
T (b) Rankine's theory
(c) St. Venant's theory
E (d) Von Mises theory
12. The principal stresses at a point in an elastic material are 200 N/mm2 (tensile), 100
2 2
N/mm (tensile) and 50 N/mm ( compressive), the maximum principal strain will
be__________ if the poisson's ratio is 0.3.
185
(a) 𝐸
A
155
(b) 𝐸
I 245
(c) 𝐸
C 215
(d) 𝐸
T
13. Total strain range in a creep test is ___________
E (a) <1%
(b) around 10%
(c) around 50%
(d) >>50%
A 14. Time dependent yield is known as ____________

(a) Fracture
I (b) Fatigue
(c) Buckling
C (d) Creep
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
15. Shear stress distribution over the rectangular cross-section is______________

(a) constant
(b) linear
(c) parabolic
(d) elliptic
A 16. When an aircraft is flying straight, the top spar/flanges of a wing is most likely to fail in
_____________
I (a) creep
C (b) crushing
(c) yielding
T (d) buckling
E 17. A closed-section box beam configuration is used in aircraft wings because it is capable
of resisting ________________
(a) bending loads
(b) fatigue loads
(c) buckling loads
A (d) torsional loads
I 18. The highest limit load factor experienced by a civil transport aircraft is in the range
of________
C (a) 0.0 to 2.0
T (b) 2.0 to 5.0
(c) 5.0 to 8.0
E (d) 8.0 to 10.0
19. Consider four thin-walled beams of different open cross-sections, as shown in the cases
(i-iv). A shear force of magnitude ‘F’ acts vertically downward at the location ‘P’ in all
the beams. In which of the following case, does the shear force induce bending and
twisting?
A
I
C
T
E
(a) Case(i)
(b) Case(ii)
(c) Case(iii)
(d) Case(iv)
A 20. The second moment of area, Izz, of the thin-walled channel section shown in the figure is
I given by ________
C
T
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
2ℎ 2
A (a) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑡ℎ2 + 𝑡 12
2 2ℎ 3
I (b) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 𝑏𝑡ℎ + 𝑡 12
2 2ℎ 3
C (c) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 4𝑏ℎ𝑡 + 𝑡 12
2 2ℎ 3
(d) 𝐼𝑧𝑧 = 2𝑏𝑡ℎ + 𝑡
T 12
E 21. During steady level flight condition, an aircraft will be subjected to __________
(a) Symmetric bending
(b) Symmetric bending and torsion
(c) bending and shear
(d) bending, torsion and shear
A
22. Which of the following is /are maximum when the airplane flies at corner speed?
I (a) Turn radius
(b) Turn rate
C (c) Both turn radius and turn rate
(d) Climb rate and turn rate
T
E 23. The load factor acting on an airplane during 30˚ level turn is __________
2
(a) 3
3
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 2
A
I 24. A cantilever beam with thin-walled channel cross-section is subjected to a lateral force at
its shear centre____________.
C (a) twisting without bending
(b) bending without twisting
T (c) bending and twisting
(d) neither bending nor twisting
E
25. One of the following statements pertaining to multi-spool engines is NOT TRUE.
(a) they are lighter
(b) they are shorter
(c) they are heavy
A (d) they are more rigid
I 26.The core nozzle of a typical three-spool turbofan engine generates the following percentage
C of total thrust
(a) 50%
T (b) 15%
(c) 25%
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
(d) 75%
27. Higher the specific thrust of an aircraft engine

(a) lesser the engine cross-sectional area
(b) more the engine cross-sectional area
(c) more the engine weight
A (d) lesser the airflow rate
I 28. In the subcritical operation mode of a supersonic inlet
C (a) shock stands at some distance away from the inlet
(b) shock stands at the lip of inlet
T (c) shock stands inside the inlet
(d) shock stands at the entry of combustion chamber
E
29. The following type of thrust reverser is widely used in turbojet engines
(a) V-gutter type
(b) Clam shell type
(c) flap type
A (d) Door on shroud type
I 30. The main disadvantage of piston engine with respect to the aircraft application is
(a) increase in weight in greater proportion when power requirement increases
C (b) engine vibration
T (c) both a) and b)
(d) engine vibration and less engine life
E
31. Typical peak temperature at turbine inlet in a modern gas turbine is
(a) 1000K
(b) 1200K
(c) 1800K
(d) 800K
A
32. The startup problem of an axial flow compressor is due to
I
(a) choking of later stages of compressor
C (b) choking due to front stages of compressor
(c) choking due to middle stages of compressor
T (d) flow separation in the front stages of compressor
E 33. Choose the wrong statement from the following.
(a) A gas turbine engine is faster in its acceleration response at low RPM
(b) A gas turbine engine is very sensitive to its component efficiencies
(c) The part load efficiency of a gas turbine engine is poor
(d) A gas turbine engine is slow in its acceleration response
A
34. Number of stages in turbine is less than the number of stages in compressor because
I (a) turbine has more blade loading coefficient
(b) turbine has less blade loading coefficient
C (c) compressor exhibits surging
T (d) compressor does not need cooling
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
35. Choose the correct statement for an axial flow compressor

(a) cross-sectional area of blade passage is constant in compressor
(b) cross-sectional area of blade passage decreases in turbine
(c) cross-sectional area of blade passage decreases in compressor
(d) cross-sectional area of blade passage increases in turbine
A 36. Pressure gradient in the flow direction

(a) is adverse in axial flow compressor
I (b) is negative in axial flow compressor
C (c) is positive in axial flow turbine
(d) is adverse in the front stages of compressor and later becomes zero
T
37. The change in static enthalpy to overall change in stagnation enthalpy of a rotor of a
E turbo-machine is called
(a) isentropic efficiency
(b) static-to-total efficiency
(c) degree of reaction
(d) degree of merit
A
38. The flow angle and blade angle in an axial flow compressor are measured with respect to
I (a) axial direction
(b) radial direction
C (c) local tangent of blade profile
T (d) local normal of blade profile
E 39. If 'W' is the rate of work, 'm' is the mass flow rate and 'U' is the blade speed, then blade
loading coefficient of a turbo-machine is defined as
(a) W/2mU2
(b) W/mU2
(c) mU2/2W
(d) mU2/4W
A
40. If there is no change in static enthalpy and static pressure across a rotor, then the turbo-
I
machine is called
C (a) reaction machine
(b) impulse machine
T (c) 50% reaction machine
(d) free vortex machine
E
41.The following oxidiser is widely used in solid propellant compositions
(a) potassium perchlorate
(b) potassium nitrate
(c) ammonium nitrate
A (d) ammonium perchlorate
I 42. For an ablative pulsed plasma thruster the following material is used as propellant
(a) Teflon
C (b) Hydroxyl Terminated Polybutadiene
T (c) Carboxyl Terminated Polybutadiene
(d) Aluminium
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
43. Star shaped port cross section of a solid propellant grain results in
(a) regressive burning
(b) progressive burning
(c) neutral burning
(d) dual burning
A 44. Use of aluminium in propellant composition.

(a) improves combustion stability characteristics
I (b) degrades combustion stability characteristics
C (c) improves propellant processing characteristics
(d) degrades mechanical strength characteristics
T
45. The burning rate index of a solid propellant composition should be
E (a) more than 1
(b) less than 1
(c) equal to 1
(d) always negative
A 46. In summer season or hot environment, a solid propellant rocket during static test firing
produces
I (a) more thrust and will have more burning time
(b) less thrust and will have more burning time
C (c) more thrust and will have less burning time
T (d) less thrust and will have less burning time
E 47. In a cryogenic rocket engine where liquid oxygen and liquid hydrogen are used as
propellants, the following gas is used in pressure feed system
(a) nitrogen
(b) helium
(c) xenon
(d) neon
A
48. In liquid rocket engines, the following combination represents hypergolic ignition
I
(a) unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine + nitrogen tetroxide
C (b) liquid oxygen + liquid hydrogen
(c) liquid hydrogen + liquid fluorine
T (d) liquid ammonia + hydrogen peroxide
E 49. In a rocket nozzle, the wall heat flux is maximum near
(a) nozzle inlet
(b) nozzle throat
(c) nozzle exit
(d) at 2/3rd of divergent section length from throat
A
50. The relationship between thrust coefficient (CF), specific impulse (Is) and characteristic
I velocity (C*) is given by (where 'g' is acceleration due to gravity)
(a) gIs = CF C*
C (b) gIs = (CF C*)/2
T (c) gIs = 2CF C*
(d) gIs = CF2 C*
E
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
51. Specific impulse of a rocket

(a) is proportional to combustion chamber temperature
(b) is inversely proportional to square root of molecular weight of combustion
products
(c) is proportional to molecular weight of combustion products
(d) is proportional to square root of molecular weight of combustion products
A
52. A mass of 10 kg when suspended from a spring, causes a static deflection of 1 cm and
I the natural frequency of the system will be
C (a) 2.98 Hz
(b) 3.98 Hz
T (c) 4.98 Hz
(d) 5.98Hz
E
53. A spring-mass –damper system of 2 kg is found to have a damping ratio of 0.4 and a
natural frequency of 10 rad/sec. The damping of the system will be
(a) 8 N/s
(b) 8 kg/s
A (c) 16 N/s
(d) 18 kg/s
I
54. Which of the following method is always over estimates natural frequency of the system?
C (a) Holzer method
T (b) Dunkerlay’s method
(c) Stodola method
E (d) Raleigh’s method
55. A linear spring-mass-dashpot system is under critically damped. In free vibration, the
system undergoes
(a) Oscillatory and periodic motion
(b) Non-oscillatory motion
A (c) Random motion
(d) Oscillatory and non-periodic motion
I
C 56.The number natural frequencies of an elastic beam with cantilever boundary conditions is
(a) 1
T (b) 3
(c) 6
E (d) Infinite
57. Consider a single degree of freedom spring-mass system of spring stiffness k1and mass m
which has a natural frequency of 10 rad/s. Consider another single degree of freedom
spring-mass system of spring stiffness k2and mass m which has a natural frequency of 20
A rad/s. The spring stiffness k2is equal to
(a) 2k1
I (b) k1/2
(c) 4k1
C (d) Qk1/4
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
58. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

(a) diameter of the disc
(b) span of the shaft
(c) eccentricity
(d) all of these
A 59.In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on
the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
I (a) x1/x2
C (b) loge (x1/x2)
(c) log x1/x2
T (d) loge (x1.x2)
E 60. The ratio between force transmitted to force applied is

(a) Force ratio
(b) Force factor
(c) Isolation factor
(d) magnification factor
A
61.Which of the following is steady state aero elastic instability
I (a) Divergence
(b) Buffeting
C (c) Flutter
T (d) Dynamic response
E 62. A ternary flutter mode consist of following elements

(a) torsion and control surface rotation
(b) flexure and control surface rotation
(c) flexure, torsion and control surface rotation
(d) flexure, torsion and control surface translation
A 63. Pressure regulators in the hydraulic system is meant for

(a) Maintaining pressure below the upper limit
I
(b) Reducing pressure
C (c) Increasing pressure
(d) both reducing and increasing the pressure
T
64. A device which is used to detect the sudden increase of flow and shut of the fluid flow is
E (a) Shut –off valve
(b) Check Valve
(c) Hydraulic fuse
(d) Poppet valve
A 65. Cavitation occurs in a flow when there is sudden change in the

(a) Pressure
I (b) Temperature
(c) Density
C (d) Viscosity
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
66. The one of the following is the secondary control

(a) Pitch control
(b) Yaw Control
(c) Roll control
(d) Elevator trim
A 67. A control system in which the movement of the controls are converted to electric signal
is
I (a) Fly-by-optic
C (b) Fly-by-wire
(c) Hydro mechanical
T (d) Hydraulics
E 68. Oleo strut used in aircraft landing is used as

(a) Support
(b) Shock absorber
(c) Retraction of landing gear
(d) Extension of landing gear
A
69. Purging the system means
I (a) Filling refrigerant
(b) refilling refrigerant
C (c) Emptying refrigerant
T (d) to prevent overfilling refrigerant
E 70. Aircraft cabin pressuring system is used

(a) Increase the pressure
(b) Reduce the pressure
(c) Increase the oxygen content
(d) Reduce the oxygen content
A 71. TIT in the fuel system refers to

(a) Total Inlet Temperature
I
(b) Total inlet of turbine
C (c) Turbine inlet temperature
(d) Turbine inlet total
T
72. Gyroscope is driven by
E (a) High pressure pump
(b) Medium pressure pump
(c) Low pressure pump
(d) Vacuum pump
A 73. One of the main factors not influencing the rigidity of a Gyro is
(a) Weight
I (b) Angular velocity
(c) Position
C (d) Bearing friction
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
74. ILS is
(a) Air based
(b) Ground based
(c) Both air based and flight based
(d) neither air based nor ground based
A 75. Which one of the following is not a navigational instrument?

(a) VHF
I (b) ADF
C (c) GPS
(d) Mach meter
T
76. MIL-F-9490 military specifications is for
E (a) Navigation system
(b) Flight control system
(c) Display system
(d) Communication system
A 77. What are the components needed for dead reckoning navigation
(a) Airspeed indicator and gyroscope
I (b) Doppler radar and magnetometer
(c) Altimeter and rate gyro
T
78. The frequency band used by DME is
E (a) High frequency
(b) Very high frequency
(c) Ultra high frequency
(d) L-Band
79. What type of feedbacks is needed to stabilize longitudinal unstable fighter aircraft?
A (a) Angle of attack
(b) Pitch rate feedback
I
(c) Pitch angle feedback
C (d) all the above
T 80. A pitch rate feedback will affect………………damping.

(a) Phugoid
E (b) Short period
(c) Both short period and phugoid
(d) not affect any damping
A PART-B (40x2=80 Marks)
I 81. Calculate the absolute maximum values of bending moment and shear force for the
beamgiven in the figure
C
T
E
Page 12 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
(a) 5 kN-m and 12.5 kN

(b) 10 kN-m and 5.0 kN
(c) 10 kN-m and 7.5 kN
(d) 10 kN and 12.5 Kn
82. If the members of the truss can withstand maximum 10 kN in tension and 8 kN in
A compression, determine the maximum force 'P' that can be applied on the truss.
I
C
T
(a) 2√3 kN
E (b) 4√3 kN
(c) 6 √3kN
(d) 8√3 Kn
83. Determine the vertical displacement of joint C of the truss shown in the figure. Cross-
A sectional area of each member is A=500 mm2 and young's modulus is E=200 GPa.
I
C
T
E
(a) 0.8 mm (downward)
(b) 0.8 mm (upward)
(c) 3.06 mm (downward)
(d) 3.06 mm (upward)
A
84. Determine the tangential rotation at point C of the frame shown in the figure. Young's
I modulus (E)=200 GPa, Moment of inertia (I)=15 x 106 mm4 for both the members.
C
T
E
A (a) 5.25 x 10-3 rad

(b) 8.75 x 10-3 rad
I (c) 6.15 x 10-3 rad
(d) 7.5 x 10-3 rad
C
T
E
Page 13 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
85. The reactions at the support A,B and C for a continuous beam shown in the figure is
given by ______________
A
(a) 41.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 41.25 kN respectively
I (b) 41.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 56.25 kN respectively
(c) 56.25 kN, 41.25 kN and 56.25 kN respectively
C
(d) 56.25 kN, 157.5 kN and 41.25 kN respectively
T
86. A uniform cantilever beam consisting of two stringers and a thin web is loaded as shown
E in figure, the shear flow (qz) is given by __________
A
𝑉
(a) 𝑞𝑧 = 8ℎ𝑧
I
𝑉
(b) 𝑞𝑧 = 6ℎ𝑧
C 𝑉
(c) 𝑞𝑧 = 4ℎ𝑧
T 𝑉𝑧
(d) 𝑞𝑧 =
2ℎ
E
87. Consider the circular section subjected to shear load (Vz) as shown in the figure, the
shear flow (q) is given by __________
A
I
𝑉
C (a) 𝑞 𝛽 = 𝜋𝑅𝑧 sin 𝛽
𝑉
T (b) 𝑞 𝛽 = 𝜋𝑅𝑧 cos 𝛽
𝑧 𝑉
(c) 𝑞 𝛽 = 2𝜋𝑅 sin 𝛽
E 𝑉
𝑧
(d) 𝑞 𝛽 = 2𝜋𝑅 cos 𝛽
88. The channel section of uniform thickness 2mm shown in the figure is subjected to a
torque of 10 N-m. If it is made of a material with shear modulus of 25 GPa, the twist per
A unit length is _________
I
C
T
E
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
A
I (a) 0.11 radians/m
(b) 0.13 radians/m
C (c) 0.15 radians/m
(d) 0.17 radians/m
T
89. The idealized cross-section of a thin walled wing box structure shown in the figure is
E
subjected to an anticlockwise torque of 10 kN-m. The corresponding shear-flow
distribution under this loading condition is shown in the figure. The area of each cell is
A1= 300 x 103 mm2, A2= 250 x 103 mm2. The ratio of x/y is __________
A
I
C
(a) 0.64
T (b) 0.55
(c) 0.46
E (d) 0.37
90. An aircraft wing is idealized as a cantilever beam of constant width and length (l) with a
tip mass of weight (W) in Newton and has a UDL of qo in Newton/m as shown in the
figure. Flexural rigidity is EI and qol=10W. The upward deflection (δ) of the tip of
A aircraft wing under the given loading can be expressed as
𝑊𝑙 3
I 𝛿=𝑘
𝐸𝐼
The value of k is given by ____________
C
T
E (a) 0.56
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.83
(d) 0.92
91Choose the aviation fuel having highest thermal stability among the following.
A
(a) JP2
I (b) JP3
(c) JP4
C (d) JP5
T
E
Page 15 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
92. The following approximate amount of air is used from compressor for turbine blade
cooling in case of a turbojet engine
(a) 5-8%
(b) 1-2%
(c) 20-30%
(d) 0.1 to 0.2%
A
93. If Ø is semi divergence angle of a straight converging-diverging nozzle, then the
I divergence loss factor is
C (a) (1+cosØ)/2
(b) (1+cos2Ø)/2
T (c) (1+2cosØ)/2
(d) (2+cosØ)/2
E
94. Flow distortion in a supersonic intake at a given cross-sectional plane is defined as (p0max
is maximum total pressure, p0min is minimum total pressure and p0mean is mean total
pressure).
(a) 2(p0max - p0min)/p0mean
A (b) (2p0max - p0min)/p0mean
(c) (p0max - p0min)/ p0mean
I (d) (p0max - p0min)/2p0mean
C 95. At high subsonic Mach number like 0.85
T (a) efficiency of turbofan > efficiency of turboprop
(b) efficiency of turbojet > efficiency of turboprop
E (c) efficiency of turbojet > efficiency of turbofan
(d) efficiency of turboprop > efficiency of turbofan
96. Characteristic velocity of a rocket engine is equal to

(a) twice the discharge coefficient
(b) square root of discharge coefficient
A (c) inverse of discharge coefficient
(d) thrust of the rocket divided by initial mass of rocket.
I
C 97. The characteristic chamber length (L*) of combustion chamber of a liquid rocket engine
is defined as (where Vc is the chamber volume and At is nozzle throat area)
T (a) L* = Vc/2At
(b) L* = Vc/At
E (c) L* = 2Vc/At
(d) L* = 3Vc/2At
98. If Ap is initial port cross section area and At is nozzle throat area of a solid propellant
rocket, then the following criterion is to be satisfied
A (a) Ap/At> 2
(b) Ap/At< 1/2
I (c) Ap/At = 1
(d) 1 <Ap/At< 2
C
T
E
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
99. In case of Ion Thruster, the exhaust speed of the jet 've' is related to applied voltage 'V'
and ion charge to mass ratio 'q/m' as follows
(a) ve = (2qV/m)1/2
(b) ve = (qV/m)1/2
(c) ve = (qV/2m)1/2
(d) ve = (qV/4m)1/2
A
100. One of the following is more challenging for scramjet system over rocket system
I (a) thrust modulation
C (b) fuel injection
(c) powered range
T (d) engine integration with airframe
E 101. Analytical addition of motions x1 = 2 cos (ωt + 0.5) and x2 = 5 sin (ωt + 1.0) will be
equal to
(a) 6.17 cos (ωt + 1.28)
(b) 6.17 sin (ωt + 1.28)
(c) 1.28 cos (ωt + 6.17)
A (d) 1.28 sin (ωt + 6.17)
I 102. The damped natural frequency of a system as obtained from a free vibration test, is
9.8Hz.During the forced vibration test with constant exciting force on the same system,
C themaximum amplitude of vibration is found to be at 9.6 Hz. Its natural frequency is
T (a) 10 Hz
(b) 11 Hz
E (c) 12 Hz
(d) 13 Hz
103. For critically damped single degree of freedom spring mass damper system with
damping constant of 8 Ns/m and a spring constant of 32 N/m, the system mass is
(a) 2 kg
A (b) 1 kg
(c) 0.5 kg
I
(d) 0.125 kg
C
104. For the spring mass system shown below, has the following natural frequencies
T
E
𝑘
(a) 0 and 𝑚 1 +𝑚 2
A 𝑘 𝑚 1 +𝑚 2
(b) 0 and 2𝑚 1 𝑚 2
I 𝑘 𝑚 1 +𝑚 2
(c) 0 and 𝑚1𝑚2
C
𝑘
T (d) 0 and
𝑚1𝑚2
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
105.Two shaft A and B shown in Fig.below. The length of an equivalent shaft B is
A
I
𝑑 1 0.5 𝑑 1 0.5
C (a) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 + 𝑙3
𝑑2 𝑑3
𝑑1 2 𝑑 2
1
T (b) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 + 𝑙3
𝑑2 𝑑3
𝑑1 3 𝑑1 3
E (c) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 + 𝑙3
𝑑2 𝑑3
𝑑1 4 𝑑1 4
(d) 𝑙 = 𝑙1 + 𝑙2 + 𝑙3
𝑑2 𝑑3
106. An airplane designer has only limited control over an __________________ and
A _______________but __________________is more controllable.
(a) aerodynamic coupling, inertia coupling, elastic coupling
I (b) inertia coupling, aerodynamiccoupling, elastic coupling
(c) elastic coupling, aerodynamic coupling, inertia coupling
C (d) Mass coupling, aerodynamic coupling, elastic coupling
T 107. Which is the following is NOT correct for symmetrical tail flutter?
E (a) Elevator rotation about hinge line
(b) Vertical bending of fuselage
(c) Pitching of airplane as whole
(d) Torsion of fuselage
108. Choose the correct statement from the following.

A (a) For swept back wings, the aileron reversal speed is lower than the divergence
speed
I (b) For swept back wings, the divergence speed is lower than the aileron reversal
C speed
(c) For sweep forward wings, the divergence speed is higher than flutter speed
T (d) For sweep forward wings, the divergence speed is higher than reversal speed
E 109. A double lever in an aircraft control system is used to

(a) Change the direction of motion
(b) Control of Torque
(c) Control of pressure
(d) Control of fluid
A
110. Gust locks are used in aircraft during
I (a) Landing
(b) Take off
C (c) Parking
(d) Manoeuvring
T
E
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ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
111. The fuel filter used in aircrafts are rated in

(a) Centimetre
(b) Millimetre
(c) Nano-meter
(d) Micrometre
A 112. A reservoir pressurization module is installed close to the

(a) Compressor
I (b) Turbine
C (c) Reservoir
(d) Pump
T
113.To make a spark inside the engines cylinders which is strong enough to ignite the air/fuel
E mixture, the voltage required at normal atmospheric conditions is
(a) 1500 volts
(b) 1000 volts
(c) 600 volts
(d) 2000 volts
A
114. Variometer is used to measure displays that information to the pilot
I (a) Airspeed
(b) Mach number
C (c) Rate of climb
T (d) rated of descent and climb
E 115.Course deviation indicator (CDI) is used in

(a) Altimeter
(b) Mach meter
(c) VOR
(d) Slip indicator
A 116.General cabin pressure differentials allowed in lighter aircraft is

(a) 3-5 psi
I
(b) 10-15 psi
C (c) 6-9psi
(d) 16-20psi
T
117.Two principle guiding documents in laying out the cockpit are
E (a) MIL-STD-200 & FAR 25.1000
(b) MIL-STD-203 & FAR 25.1303
(c) MIL-STD-1553 & FAR 25.1773
(d) MIL-STD-8481 & FAR 25.8481
A 118. An aircraft servo transfer function is modeled as 1/s+500. Find out the time constantof
the system.
I (a) 0.002
(b) 0.02
C (c) 0.1
T (d) 1
E
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO. UG2AEE28
119. After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the output data
from the INS computer to the platform is:
(a) Rate corrections to the gyros
(b) accelerations from the accelerometers
(c) attitude
(d) latitude and longitude
A
120. In an Inertial Navigation System, what is the output of the first stage North/South
I integrator?
C (a) Groundspeed
(b) Latitude
T (c) Velocity along the local meridian
(d) Change of latitude
E
---------------
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
UG AERONAUTICAL ENGINEERING
Code 28-Paper 2
1 A 31 C 61 A 91 D
2 C 32 A 62 C 92 A
3 D 33 A 63 A 93 A
4 A 34 A 64 C 94 C
5 A 35 C 65 C 95 A
6 D 36 A 66 D 96 C
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 B
8 B 38 A 68 B 98 A
9 D 39 B 69 C 99 B
10 A 40 B 70 A 100 D
11 B 41 D 71 C 101 B
12 A 42 D 72 A 102 A
13 A 43 C 73 C 103 C
14 D 44 A 74 B 104 C
15 C 45 B 75 D 105 D
16 D 46 C 76 B 106 C
17 D 47 B 77 B 107 D
18 A 48 A 78 C 108 A
19 B 49 B 79 A 109 A
20 D 50 A 80 B 110 C
21 D 51 B 81 C 111 D
22 C 52 C 82 B 112 C
23 A 53 C 83 A 113 C
24 B 54 D 84 B 114 D
25 C 55 B 85 A 115 C
26 B 56 D 86 D 116 A
27 A 57 C 87 A 117 B
28 A 58 D 88 B 118 A
29 B 59 B 89 A 119 A
30 C 60 B 90 D 120 B
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
I Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
C
PAPER-I
T
Instructions:
questions.
A wrong answer.
Tviii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
1. An equimolar liquid mixture of species 1 and 2 is in equilibrium with its vapour at 400
A
K. At this temperature, the vapour pressures of the species are p1,sat = 180 kPa and
I p2,sat = 120 kPa. Assuming that Raoult’s law is valid, the value of y1 is
(a) 0.3
C (b) 0.41
(c) 0.50
T (d) 0.60
E
2. Kinetic theory of gases stipulates that, the
(a) energy is lost during molecular collisions.
(b) molecules possess appreciable volume.
(c) absolute temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of molecules
(d) none of these.
A
3. The molar composition of a gas is 10% H2, 10% O2, 30% CO2 and balance H2O. If 50%
I H2O condenses, the final mole percent of H2 in the gas on a dry basis will be
(a) 10%
C
(b) 5%
T (c) 18.18%
(d) 20%
E
Page 1 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 4. For the case of a fuel gas undergoing combustion with air, if the air/fuel ratio is
increased, the adiabatic flame temperature will
I (a) increase
C (b) decrease
(c) increase or decrease depending on the fuel type
T (d) not change
E 5. The weight fraction of methanol in an aqueous solution is 0.64. The mole fraction of
methanol xM satisfies
(a) xM< 0 5.
(b) xM = 0.5
(c) 0.5 <xM< 0.64
(d) xM ≥ 0.64
6. A process flow sheet analysis results in the degrees of freedom having a value of –2,
A which one of the following steps must be next carried out?
(a) Identify and add two new independent equations from process model
I
(b) Remove two equations that have been wrongly assumed to be independent
C (c) Assign values of two variables in the process
(d) Assign value to one variable and remove one equation that was wrongly assumed to
T be independent
E 7. The combustion equations of carbon and carbon monoxide are as follows:
C + O2 = CO2, ΔH = - 394 kJ/kg . mole CO + 1/2 O2 = CO2, ΔH = - 284.5 kJ/kg. mole.
The heat of formation of CO is __________ kJ/kg. mole.
(a) -109.5
(b) +109.5
(c) +180
(d) +100
A 8. Heat of neutralisation of a strong acid and strong base is always a constant value, i.e., 57
KJ/Kg mole. This is because
I (a) the strong base and strong acid reacts completely.
C (b) the salt formed does not hydrolyse.
(c) only OH- and H+ ions react in every case.
T (d) the strong base and strong acid reacts in aqueous solution.
E 9. The volume expansivity () is defined by the relation:

1 𝜕𝑉
(a) 𝛽 = 𝑉 𝜕𝑃
𝑇
1 𝜕𝑉
(b) 𝛽 = 𝑉 𝜕𝑇 𝑃
1 𝜕𝑉
(c) 𝛽 = 𝑃 𝜕𝑇 𝑃
A 1 𝜕𝑉
(d) 𝛽 = 𝑇 𝜕𝑃 𝑉
I
10. For one mole of an ideal gas undergoing a isobaric process in a closed system, the work
C done (W) is given by:
T (a) W = R(T1 – T2)
(b) W = R(T1 + T2)
E (c) W = R(T1 T2)
(d) W = R(T1 / T2)
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A 11. The maximum work done by expanding the gas over a given pressure range is done by
which of the following processes?
I (a) Isothermal
C (b) Adiabatic
(c) Isentropic
E 12. Entropy is a measure of the ____________ of a system.

(a) orderly behaviour
(b) temperature changes
(c) disorder
(d) stability
13. Which of the following is not an intensive property?
(a) chemical potential
A (b) surface tension
(c) heat capacity
I (d) none of the above
C 14. Measurement of the absolute temperature is facilitated by which law of
T thermodynamics?
(a) zeroth law
E (b) first law
(c) second law
15. During Joule-Thomson expansion of a gas, which of the following properties remains
constant?
(a) enthalpy
(b) entropy
A
(c) temperature
C 16. The equation PV = nRT is best obeyed by gases at

(a) high pressures and temperatures
T (b) high pressures and low temperatures
(c) low pressures and high temperatures
E
(d) low pressures and low temperatures
17. During reversible isothermal expansion of a gas, the entropy change is

(a) positive
(b) zero
A (c) negative
(d) infinity
I
C 18. Which of the following thermodynamic properties is not affected by temperature?
(a) fugacity
T (b) activity coefficient
(c) Gibbs free energy
E (d) None of the above
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A 19. For an ideal gas, the activity coefficient is

(a) directly proportional to pressure
I (b) inversely proportional to pressure
C (c) unity at all pressures
T
20. The ratio of equilibrium constants (K2/K1) at two different temperatures, T1 and T2 is
E given by
𝑅 1 1
(a) exp ∆𝐻 𝑇 − 𝑇
1 2
∆𝐻 1 1
(b) exp −𝑇
𝑅 𝑇1 2
∆𝐻 1 1
(c) exp −
𝑅 𝑇2 𝑇1
1 1 1
(d) exp −𝑇
𝑅 𝑇1 2
A
I 21. The Gibbs free energy
(a) decreases in all spontaneous (irreversible) processes.
C (b) The total Gibbs free energy change is negative for spontaneous processes.
(c) remains unchanged in reversible processes carried out at constant T and P.
T (d) All of the above.
E
22. The following heat engine produces power of 100,000 kW. The heat engine operates
between 800 K and 300 K. It has a thermal efficiency equal to 50% of that of the Carnot
engine for the same temperature. The rate at which heat is absorbed from the hot
reservoir is
(a) 100,000 kW
(b) 160,000 kW
(c) 200,000 kW
A (d) 320,000 kW
I 23. For the reversible exothermic reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3, increase of pressure would
C (a) shift the equilibrium toward the right.
(b) give higher yield of ammonia.
T (c) both of the above.
(d) none of the above.
E
24. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Minimum degrees of freedom of a system is zero.
(b) Degrees of freedom of a system containing a gaseous mixture of helium, carbon
dioxide and hydrogen is 4.
A (c) For a two-phase system in equilibrium made up of four non-reacting species, the
degrees of freedom is 4.
I (d) Enthalpy and internal energy change is zero during phase change operations like
melting, vaporization and sublimation.
C
T
E
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A 25. What is the gage pressure at point 1 (refer figure given below) in the open storage tank
having fluids of different densities?
I
C
T
E
(a) 𝑃𝑎𝑡𝑚 + 𝜌1 𝑔𝑕1 + 𝜌2 𝑔𝑕2 + 𝜌3 𝑔𝑕3

(b) 𝜌1 𝑔𝑕1 + 𝜌2 𝑔𝑕2 + 𝜌3 𝑔𝑕3
(c) 𝑃𝑎𝑡𝑚 − 𝜌1 𝑔𝑕1 − 𝜌2 𝑔𝑕2 − 𝜌3 𝑔𝑕3
A (d) 𝜌1 𝑔𝑕1 + 𝜌2 𝑔𝑕2 + 𝜌3 𝑔𝑕3 − 𝑃𝑎𝑡𝑚
I
𝑑𝑢 𝑛
26. Shear stress for a general fluid motion is represented by 𝜏 = + 𝐵, where n and B
𝑑𝑦
C
areconstants. A Newtonian fluid is given by
T (a) n>1 and B=0
(b) n<1 and B=0
E (c) n=1 and B=0
(d) n>1 and B≠0
27. The shape of the rotameter tube is so due to the consideration of ------------phenomenon
(a) vortex shedding
(b) vortex flow
(c) drag
A (d) compressibility
I 28. The schedule number of a pipe is an indication of its

(a) Size
C (b) Roughness
(c) material density
T
(d) wall thickness
E
29. Friction factor for a turbulent flow through hydraulically smooth pipe is
(a) Independent of Reynolds number
(b) Independent of surface roughness
(c) Depend on both surface roughness and Reynolds number
A
30. For laminar flow of Newtonion fluids through a circular pipe, for a given pressure drop
I
and length & diameter of pipe, the velocity of fluid is proportional to (where, μ = fluid
C viscosity)
(a) μ2
T (b) 1/μ
(c) μ
E (d) 1/μ2
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A 31. The hydraulic diameter of an annulus of inner and outer radii Ri and Ro, respectively, is
(a) 4(Ro-Ri)
I (b) Ro-Ri
C (c) 2(Ro-Ri)
(d) Ro+Ri
T
32. A fluid is pumped at the rate of 10 lb/sec to a height of 55 ft. The horse power required is
E __________ hp.
(a) 1
(b) 10/55
(c) 5.5
(d) 1/55
33. The general relationship between speed N, head H, power P and discharge Q for a
A centrifugal pump is
I (a) Q∝N : H∝N2 : P∝N3

(b) Q∝N2 : H∝N3 : P∝N
C
(c) Q∝N : H∝N3 : P∝N2
T (d) Q∝N3 : H∝N : P∝N2
E 34. In conduction heat transfer, the heat transfer rate per unit area is proportional to the
(a) normal temperature gradient
(b) normal heat rate
(c) normal irradiation
(d) none
35. Which dimensionless numbers is used in unsteady state heat conduction

(a) Reynolds and Prandtl Number
A
(b) Reynolds and Grashoff’s Number
I (c) Reynolds and Nusselt number
(d) None
C
36. Heat sensitive material like orange juice is concentrated in a
T (a) long tube evaporator
E (b) basket evaporator
(c) falling-film evaporator
(d) none of these
37. For a forced convection heat transfer (laminar flow) on a heated horizontal plate, the heat
transfer coefficient ---------- with increase in distance along the flow direction
A (a) decreases
(b) increases
I (c) remains constant
C (d) decreases and increases
T 38. Water enters a circular tube whose walls are maintained at constant temperature at a
specified flow rate and temperature. For fully developed turbulent flow, the Nusselt
E number can be determined from Nu = 0.023 Re0.8 Pr0.4. The correct temperature
difference to use in Newton’s law of cooling in this case is
Page 6 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A (a) the difference between the inlet and outlet water bulk temperature
(b) the difference between the inlet water bulk temperature and the tube wall temperature
I (c) the log mean temperature difference
C (d) the difference between the average water bulk temperature and the tube temperature
T 39. The monochromatic energy emitted by a radiating surface depends on

(a) temperature of the surface only
E (b) wavelength only
(c) both temperature of surface and wavelength
(d) none
40. Emissivity of a surface usually ------- with temperature of the surface

(a) increases
(b) decreases
A (c) remains constant
(d) increases and then decreases
I
41. The high rate of heat transfer in nucleate boiling is primarily the result of the
C (a) turbulence by dynamic action of bubbles
T (b) conduction of the film formed
(c) radiation contribution
E (d) none
42. The monochromatic emissivity of a surface is equal to its monochromatic absorptivity if

the surface emits in a diffuse manner is the statement of
(a) Stefan Boltz-mann law
(b) Lambert’s law
(c) Kirchoff’s law
(d) Wiens law
A
I 43. In heat exchanger design, increase in Reynolds number leads to
(a) Increase in heat transfer coefficient
C (b) increase in pressure drop
(c) increase in overall heat transfer coefficient
T (d) all the above
E
44. Compared to spray tower absorber, packed tower absorber will have
(a) High interfacial area & less pressure drop
(b) less interfacial area & less pressure drop
(c) high interfacial area & high pressure drop
A
45. In packed bed absorber, to achieve good distribution, the ratio between column diameter
I and particle diameter should be
C (a) Dc/Dp>25
(b) Dc/Dp>35
T (c) Dc/Dp>15
(d) Dc/Dp>10
E
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A 46. In tray towers, weeping should be checked in

(a) Bottom tray
I (b) middle tray
C (c) top tray
T
47. Which of the following has a non-zero self-configuration factor
E (a) Concave surface
(b) Convex surface
(c) flat plate
(d) None
48. LMTD correction factor is used for

(a) Single pass
A (b) concurrent
(c) counter current
I (d) cross current
C 49. How dirt factor will influence the heat transfer coefficient
T (a) Increase
(b) Decrease
E (c) no effect
50. Bond’s crushing law

(a) is less reliable to estimate the power requirements of commercial size reduction
equipment’s
(b) calls for relatively less energy for the smaller product particles than does the
rittinger’s law
A
(c) states that the energy required to produce analogous changes of configuration of
I analogous changes of configuration of geometrically similar bodies varies as the
volume or masses of these bodies
C (d) states that the work required for the crushing is proportional to the new surface
created
T
51. The power required for size reduction in crushing is proportional to
E 1
(a) surface energy of the material
1
(b)
surface energy of the mater ial
(c) Surface energy of the material
(d) Independent of surface energy of the material
A
I 52. In Tyler series, the ratio of the aperture size of a screen to that of the next screen is
1
(a) 2
C
(b) 2
T (c) 1.5
(d) 2
E
Page 8 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
53. Sticky materials are transported using
I (a) Apron conveyor
C (b) Screw conveyor
(c) Belt conveyor
T (d) Hydraulic conveyor
E 54. Match the systems in Group I with equipment used to separate them in Group II
Group I Group II
A. Gas-Solid [1]. Filter Press
B. Liquid-liquid [2]. Cyclone
[3]. Decanter
[4]. Thickener
(a) A-1, B-2
A (b) A-2, B-3
(c) A-3, B-4
I (d) A-4, B-1
C
55. In constant pressure filtration,
T (a) resistance decreases with time
(b) rate of filtration is constant
E (c) rate of filtration increases with time
(d) rate of filtration decreases with time
56. Highly viscous liquids and pastes are agitated by

(a) propellers
(b) turbine agitators
(c) multiple blade paddles
A (d) none of these
I 57. For a non-spherical particle, the sphericity

(a) is defined as the ratio of surface area of a sphere having the same volume as the
C particle to the actual surface area of the particle
(b) has the dimension of length
T
(c) is always less than 1
E (d) is the ratio of volume of a sphere having the same surface area as the particle to the
actual volume of the particle
58. Mesh is defined as the number of openings per linear

(a) Feet of square surface
(b) inch of screen surface
A (c) meter of screen surface
I (d) centimetre of screen surface
C 59. Ultra-centrifuges are used for the separation of

(a) coarse solid particles
T (b) fine solid particles
(c) colloidal solid particles
E (d) dissolved solid particles
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ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
60. Moore filter is a
I (a) leaf filter
C (b) filter press
(c) rotary filter
T (d) sand filter
E 61. At solid-fluidinterfaces, the fluid velocity equals the velocity with which the solid
surface is moving; this statement is applied to
(a) both the tangential and the normalcomponent of the velocity vector
(b) only tangential component of the velocity vector
(c) only normal component of the velocity vector
A 62. The ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal diffusivity is known as

(a) Reynolds Number
I (b) Prandtl Number
(c) Nusselt Number
C (d) Sherwood Number
T
63. A Newtonian fluid of constant density is in a vertical cylinder of radius 𝑅 with the
E cylinder rotating about its axis 𝑧 at angular velocity 𝜔. The shape of the free surface at
steady state is given by
2𝜔 2 𝑟 2
(a) 𝑧 − 𝑧0 = 𝑔 𝑅
2𝜔 2
(b) 𝑧 − 𝑧0 = 𝑟 2
𝑔
𝜔2 2
(c) 𝑧 − 𝑧0 = 𝑟
2𝑔
A 2𝜔 2 𝑅 2
(d) 𝑧 − 𝑧0 = 𝑔 𝑟
I
64. The mass diffusivity, the thermal diffusivity and the eddy momentum diffusivity are
C same for, NPr = NSc = __________
(a) 0
T
(b) 10
E (c) 0.5
(d) 1
65. The temperature reached when the fluid at a particular axial location is removed and
allowed to come to equilibrium with no heat loss to the surroundings is called
(a) Log-mean temperature
A (b) Arithmetic mean temperature
(c) Adiabatic mixing cup temperature
I
(d) Bubble point
C
66. The thermal boundary layer is thinner than the velocity boundary layer when
T (a) Prandtl number is 1
(b) Prandtl number is greater than 1
E (c) Prandtl number is less than 1
(d) Prandtl number is 0
Page 10 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
67. When the acceleration terms in the Navier-Stokes equation are neglected we have
I (a) Stokes flow equation
C (b) Euler equation
(c) Hydrostatic equation
E 68. For mass transfer over a flat plate, convective mass transfer coefficient for laminar flow
can be calculated by the equation
(a) 𝑆𝑕 = 0.664 𝑆𝑐1/3 𝑅𝑒𝐿
(b) 𝑆𝑕 = 0.664 𝑆𝑐 𝑅𝑒𝐿
(c) 𝑆𝑕 = 0.664 𝑆𝑐1/2 𝑅𝑒𝐿
(d) 𝑆𝑕 = 0.664 𝑆𝑐1/3 𝑅𝑒𝐿
A
69. For the equimolar counter diffusion of species in a binary mixture of A and B,
I (a) 𝑁𝐴 = 0, 𝑁𝐵 > 0
(b) 𝑁𝐵 = 0, 𝑁𝐴 > 0
C (c) 𝑁𝐴 = 𝑁𝐵
T (d) 𝑁𝐴 = −𝑁𝐵
E 70. The governing equation for an unsteady heat conduction in one dimension is
𝜕𝑇 𝜕𝑇
(a) 𝜕𝑡 = 𝛼 𝜕𝑥
𝜕2𝑇 𝜕𝑇
(b) =𝛼
𝜕𝑡 2 𝜕𝑥
𝜕𝑇 𝜕2𝑇
(c) = 𝛼 𝜕𝑥 2
𝜕𝑡
𝜕2𝑇 𝜕2𝑇
(d) = 𝛼 𝜕𝑥 2
𝜕𝑡 2
A
I PART-B (30X2=60 Marks)
C
71. At what temperature, given mass of a gas that occupies a volume of 2 litres at N.T.P. will
T occupy a volume of 4 litres, if the pressure of the gas is kept constant?
(a) 200°C
E (b) 100°C
(c) 273°C
(d) 273°K
72. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream of hydrogen. After complete reduction,
A it is found that 3.15 gm of the oxide has yielded 1.05 gm of the metal. It may be inferred
that the
I (a) equivalent weight of the metal is 4.
(b) atomic weight of the metal is 4.
C
(c) atomic weight of the metal is 2.
T (d) equivalent weight of the metal is 8.
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A 73. A liquid mixture of benzene and toluene is in equilibrium with its vapour at 101 kPa and
373 K. The vapour pressure of benzene and toluene at 373 K respectively are 156 and 63
I kPa. Assuming that the system obeys Raoult’s law, the mole fraction of benzene in the
C liquid phase is
(a) 0.65
T (b) 0.41
(c) 0.065
E (d) 0.04
74. Fresh orange juice contains 12% (by weight) solids and the rest water. 90% of the fresh
juice is sent to an evaporator to remove water and subsequently mixed with the
remaining 10% of fresh juice. The resultant product contains 40% solids. The amount of
water removed from 1 kg fresh juice is
(a) 0.4
A (b) 0.5
(c) 0.6
I (d) 0.7
C 75. A sample of natural gas containing 80% methane (CH4) and the rest nitrogen (N2) is
T burnt with 20% excess air. With 80% of the combustibles producing CO2 and the
remainder going to CO, the Orsat analysis in volume percent is
E (a) CO2 : 6.26, CO: 1.56, O2: 3.91, H2O: 15.66, N2: 72.60
(b) CO2 : 7.42, CO: 1.86, O2 :4.64, N2 : 86.02
(c) CO2: 6.39, CO: 1.60, O2 3.99, H2O: 15.96, N2: 72.06
(d) CO2: 7.60, CO: 1.90, O2: 4.75, N2: 85. 74
76. Air is compressed from an initial state of 1 bar and 25C to a final state of 5 bar and
25C by adiabatic compression followed by cooling at constant volume. Assuming air to
be an ideal gas with the constant heat capacities Cp = 3.5R and Cv = 2.5R, the work done
A
(W) in the process is:
I (a) 6500 J
(b) 3200 J
C (c) 5600 J
(d) 7100 J
T
𝐺𝑅 𝑃 𝑉𝑅
E 77. Given that 𝑅𝑇 = 0 𝑅𝑇 𝑑𝑃, find GR at T = 27C and P = 0.2 MPa. The gas may be
assumed to follow the virial equation of state, Z = 1 + BP/RT, where B = 104 m3/mol at
the given conditions. The value of GR in J/mol is
(a) 0.008
(b) 2.4
(c) 20
A (d) 20
I 78. For a gas phase cracking reaction A B + C at 300C, G=2750 J/mol. The pressure
C is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The fractional molar conversion of
A at equilibrium is
T (a) 0.44
(b) 0.50
E (c) 0.64
(d) 0.80
Page 12 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A
79. The standard Gibbs free energy change and enthalpy change at 25C for the liquid phase
I reaction CH3COOH + C2H5OH  CH3COOC2H5 + H2O are given as 4650 J/mol and
3640 J/mol respectively. If the solution is ideal and enthalpy change is assumed to be
C constant, then the equilibrium constant at 95C is
T (a) 0.65
(b) 4.94
E (c) 6.54
(d) 8.65
80. The bubbles seen in soda water and sparkling champagne are due to the carbon dioxide
gas present in the liquid phase. When compared to CO2, air is quite inexpensive and
nontoxic yet is not preferred in these drinks. The reason is
(a) Required pressure will be very high
(b) Required temperature will be very low
A
(c) Large amounts of air will be required
I (d) Traditionally, only CO2 is used.
C Data: Henry’s constant for gases dissolved in water at 25C: Air = 72,950 bar; CO2 =
1,670 bar.
T
E 81. From the following list, identify the properties that are equal in both liquid and vapour
phases at equilibrium. P. Density, Q. Chemical Potential, R. Temperature, S. Enthalpy
(a) P and Q only
(b) S and R only
(c) R and Q only
(d) P and S only
82. The water in a tank is pressurized by air, and the pressure is measured by a multi-fluid
A manometer as shown in Figure. The tank is located on a mountain at an altitude of 1400
m where the atmospheric pressure is 85.6 kPa. Determine the air pressure in the tank if
I h1=0.1 m, h2=0.2 m, and h3=0.35 m. Take the densities of water, oil, and mercury to be
C 1000 kg/m3, 850 kg/m3, and 13,600 kg/m3, respectively.
T
E
A
I (a) 120 kPa
C (b) 130 kPa
(c) 130 Pa
T (d) 120 Pa
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A 83. A bed of spherical particles (specific gravity 2.5) of uniform size 1500 μm is 0.5 m in
diameter and 0.5 m high. In packed bed state, the porosity may be taken as 0.4. Ergun's
I equation for the above fluid-particle system (in SI units) is given as :
𝛥𝑃 2
C = 375x103 𝑉𝑂𝑀 + 10.94x106 𝑉𝑂𝑀 (SI units). If water is to be used as the fluidizing
𝐿
medium, the minimum fluidisation velocity, 𝑉𝑂𝑀 is
T
(a) 12 mm/s
E (b) 16 mm/s
(c) 24 mm/s
(d) 28 mm/s
84. Water if flowing past a long cylinder at a velocity of 1 m/s in a large tunnel. The axis of
the cylinder is perpendicular to the direction of flow. The diameter of the cylinder is
0.09 m. If the drag coefficient is 1.4, The drag force per meter length on the cylinder is
(a) 62.82 N
A (b) 58.82 N
(c) 68.82 N
I
(d) 70.28 N
C 85. Air at 20ºC flows over a 4-m long and 3-m wide surface of a plate whose temperature is
T 80ºC with a velocity of 5 m/s. The length of the surface for which the flow remains
laminar is
E (a) 1.5 m
(b) 1.8 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 2.8 m
(For air, use k = 0.02735 W/m⋅°C, Pr = 0.7228, ν =1.798×10-5 m2/s.)
86. A 2-kW electric resistance heater in a room is turned on and kept on for 50 minutes. The
amount of energy transferred to the room by the heater is
A (a) 2 kJ
(b) 100 kJ
I
(c) 6000 kJ
C (d) 7200 kJ
T 87. The resistance wire of a 1200-W hair dryer is 80 cm long and has a diameter of D = 0.3
cm. Determine the rate of heat generation in the wire per unit volume, in W/cm3, and the
E heat flux on the outer surface of the wire as a result of this heat generation.
(a) 212 W/cm3, 15.9 W/cm2

(b) 315 W/cm3, 19.9 W/cm2
(c) 456 W/cm3, 18.9 W/cm2
(d) 415 W/cm3, 19.9 W/cm2
A
88. The temperatures at the inner and outer surfaces of a 15-cm-thick plane wall are
I
measured to be 40ºC and 28ºC, respectively. The expression for steady, one-dimensional
C variation of temperature in the wall, where x is in m, is,
(a) T ( x)  28x  40
T
(b) T ( x)  40 x  28
E (c) T ( x)  40 x  28
(d) T ( x)  80 x  40
Page 14 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 89. In fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe, the velocity at R/2 (midway between
the wall surface and the center line) is measured to be 6 m/s. Determine the velocity at
I the center of the pipe
C (a) 4 m/s
(b) 14 m/s
T (c) 8 m/s
(d) 10 m/s
E
90. In a counter current heat exchanger inlet and out let temperatures of hot and cold streams
are 160oF, 80oF, and 100oF, 120oF respectively, find LMTD
(a) 30.35oF
(b) 40.25oF
(c) 28.85oF
(d) 29.65oF
A
91. In shell and tube heat exchanger, triangular pitch will lead to
I (a) lower pressure drop
(b) higher heat transfer coefficient
C (c) lower heat transfer coefficient
(d) lower turbulence
T
92. In Tray tower design, column height depends on
E (a) Point efficiency
(b) murphree vapour efficiency
(c) column efficiency
(d) all the above
93. Bubble cap trays are used for

(a) Smaller turn down ratios
A (b) large turn down ratio
(c) moderate turndown ratio
C 94. The particle size distributions of the feed and collected solids (sampled for same
duration) for a gas cyclone are given below.
T
Size range (μm) Weight of feed in Weight of collected solids
E the size range (g) in the size range (g)
1-5 2.0 0.1
5-10 3.0 0.7
10-15 5.0 3.6
15-20 6.0 5.5
A 20-25 3.0 2.9
25-30 1.0 1.0
I
What is the collection efficiency (in PERCENT AGE) of the gas cyclone?
C (a) 31
(b) 60
T (c) 65
E (d) 69
Page 15 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 95. Spherical particles of density 2500 kg/m3 and in the size range 20–100 mm are fed
continuously into a stream of water (density 1000 kg/m3 and viscosity 0.001 Pa.s)
I flowing upwards in a vertical, large diameter pipe. What maximum water velocity
C (mm/s) is required to ensure that no particles of diameter greater than 60 mm are carried
upwards with water?
T (a) 3.6
(b) 2.9
E (c) 6.8
(d) 1.2
96. The kozney-Carman equation, rewritten in terms of non-dimensional numbers gives
∆p
proportional to
ρu 2
L/D p
(a) Re
A R𝑒
(b) D 𝑝 /L
I L/D p
(c) Re 2
C Re 2
(d) L/D p
T
E 97. The energy required per unit mass to grind limestone particles of very large size to 100
μm is 12.7 kW-h/ton. An estimate (using Bond’s law) of the energy to grind the particles
from a very large size to 50 μm is
(a) 6.25 kW-h/ton
(b) kW-h/ton
(c) 18 kW-h/ton
(d) 25.4 kW-h/ton
A 98. Two parallel plates are 10 cm apart. The bottom plate is stationary. The fluid between the
plates is water which has a viscosity of 1 centipoise. The momentum flux if the top plate
I
is in motion at a velocity of 30 cm/s is
C (a) 0.0025 N/m2
(b) 0.003 N/m2
T (c) -0.003 N/m2
(d) -0.0025 N/m2
E
99. The diffusivity of the gas pair O2 − CCl4 , is being determined by observing the steady-
stateevaporation of carbon tetrachloride into a tube containing oxygen.The distance
between the CCl4 , liquid level and the top of the tube is 17.1 cm. Thetotal pressure on the
system is 755 mm Hg, and the temperature is 0°C. The vapor pressure of CCl4 , at that
A temperature is 33.0 mm Hg. The cross-sectional area of the diffusion tube is 0.82cm2.It is
found that 0.0208 cm3of CCl4 , evaporate in a 10-hour period after steady state hasbeen
I attained. The density of CCl4 is 1.59 g/cm3. The diffusivity of the gas pair O2 − CCl4 is
(a) 0.05 cm2/s
C
(b) 0.0636 cm2/s
T (c) 0.0322 cm2/s
(d) 0.01 cm2/s
E
Page 16 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 100. 0.5 L of ethanol is poured into a cylindrical tank of 2 L capacity and the top is quickly
sealed. The total height of the cylinder is 1 m. The cylinder temperature is kept constant
I at 20℃. The density, molecular weight, and saturation vapour pressure of ethanol in air
C at 20℃ are 789 kg/m3, 46, and 43.6 mm Hg, respectively. If the ethanol concentration in
the air reaches 2% of its saturation value in 5 minutes, the mass transfer coefficient is
T
(a) 5x10-5 m/s
E (b) 5x10-2 m/s
(c) 5x10-4 m/s
(d) 5x10-1 m/s
PART –C
A 101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then
I 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable

C
T 102. Which one is not true?
E (a) An orthogonal matrix is always non-singular

is equal to
A 1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
I
C
T
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
E (c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
T
E
Page 17 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function

I 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
C 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
T 𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
E
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

A
I
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
C
T
E (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A
2 𝑥2

T
113. Solution of the differential equation −𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
I
𝑥3 𝑦2
C (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
T
E
Page 18 of 19
ROLL NO.: UG1CHE29
A 115. Particular integral of 𝑥 2 𝐷2 − 3𝑥𝐷 + 5 𝑦 = sin (log 𝑥) is

I 1
C (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥
T
E balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the ball is
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
A
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
I
C eigenvalue is
T 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
A 120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
I
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
C (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 19
UG CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
Code 29-Paper 1
1 D 31 C 61 A 91 B
2 C 32 A 62 B 92 D
3 D 33 A 63 C 93 B
4 B 34 A 64 D 94 D
5 B 35 D 65 C 95 B
6 B 36 C 66 B 96 A
7 A 37 A 67 A 97 C
8 A, C 38 C 68 A 98 C
9 B 39 C 69 D 99 B
10 A 40 A 70 C 100 A
11 A 41 A 71 C 101 A
12 C 42 C 72 A 102 C
13 C 43 D 73 B 103 A
14 A 44 C 74 D 104 D
15 A 45 C 75 A 105 D
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 A
17 B 47 A 77 D 107 A
18 D 48 D 78 D 108 B
19 C 49 B 79 B 109 D
20 B 50 B 80 A 110 B
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 D
22 D 52 B 82 B 112 B
23 C 53 B 83 Marks to all 113 B
24 D 54 B 84 A 114 B
25 B 55 D 85 B 115 B
26 C 56 C 86 C 116 C
27 C 57 A 87 A 117 B
28 D 58 B 88 D 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 C 119 B
30 B 60 A 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
I
C PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
wrong answer.
C
T
1. Structured packings are preferred in packed towers for mass transfer compared to
conventional dumped packings because they provide
(a) less pressure drop though the contact between phases is poor.
(b) better mass transfer with high pressure drop.
(c) better mass transfer with low pressure drop
A (d) none of the reasons given in a, b, c.
I 2. In the design of gas absorption equipment like packed and tray towers, the ratio of actual
liquid rate to minimum liquid rate should preferably in the range of
C (a) 1 – 2
T (b) 1.5 – 2.5
(c) 0.5 – 1.5
E (d) (d) 1.1 – 1.5
3. One of the following set of conditions may be used to enhance the rate of a gas
absorption process
(a) low T & P
(b) high T & P
(c) low T & high P
(d) high T & Low P
A Where T is temperature and P is pressure.
I 4. A coalescer in a mixer-settler liquid-liquid extraction coloumn

(a) comprises of thin bed of substances of extended surface having high porosity.
C (b) helps in increasing the bubble size entering the settler.
T (c) helps in increasing the settling rate of the bubbles.
(d) all 'a', 'b', & 'c'.
E
Page 1 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 5. Pick out the correct statement.

(a) Ponchan-Savarit method is more accurate than McCabe-Thiele method to determine
I
the number of theoretical stages required for the separation of non-ideal binary
C system by distillation
(b) A sharp decrease in pressure drop is an indication of flooding in a distillation column
T (c) Solvent used in extractive distillation should be of high volatility
E (d) Flash distillation is suitable for separating components which have very close boiling
temperature.
6. In the constant rate period of the rate of drying curve for batch drying,
(a) cracks develop on the surface of the solid.
(b) rate of drying decreases abruptly.
(c) surface evaporation of unbound moisture occurs.
(d) none of these.
A
7. Weeping in a distillation column
I (a) increases tray efficiency
(b) provides large interfacial surface for mass transfer
C
(c) results due to very high gas velocity
T (d) results due to very low gas velocity
E 8. Wetted wall tower experiment determines the
(a) molal diffusivity
(b) volumetric co-efficient
(c) mass transfer co-efficient
(d) none of these
9. Corresponding to Nusselt number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in mass

transfer is the __________ number.
A (a) Sherwood
(b) Schmidt
I
(c) Peclet
C (d) Stanton
T 10. The solvent used in liquid extraction should not have high latent heat of vaporisation,
E because
(a) the pressure drop and hence the pumping cost will be very high
(b) it cannot be recovered by distillation
(c) its recovery cost by distillation may be prohibitively high
(d) it will decompose while recovering by distillation
11. The partial pressure distribution of an ideal gas diffusing through another stagnant ideal
gas at steady state follows a/an __________ law.
(a) exponential
A
(b) parabolic
I (c) linear
(d) cubic
C
T
E
Page 2 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 12. The binary diffusivity in gases and liquids vary respectively as

(a) T3/2 and T
I
(b) T and T3/2
C (c) T1/2and T3/2
(d) T3/2 and T1/2
T
E 13. Very tall packed towers are divided into series of beds to
(a) reduce the overall pressure drop
(b) avoid channelling
(c) reduce liquid hold-up
(d) avoid flooding
14. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is called the
__________ moisture.
A (a) unbound
(b) free
I (c) critical
(d) bound
C
T 15. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25°C respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35°C. The air will be
E (a) cooled
(b) humidified
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) dehumidified
16. Penetration theory relates the average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with diffusivity (D)
as
(a) K ∝D
A (b) K ∝ D0.5
(c) K ∝D1.5
I
(d) K ∝D2
C
17. Flash distillation is suitable for the separation of components
T (a) having very close boiling points
E (b) which form maximum boiling azeotrope
(c) having very wide boiling points
(d) which form minimum boiling azeotrope
18. Leaching rate is independent of the

(a) Agitation
(b) temperature
(c) particle size
A (d) none of these
I 19. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an operating line
(a) of slope = 1
C
(b) ofslope = 0.1
T (c) tangential to the equilibrium curve
(d) none of these
E
Page 3 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 20. The value of Lewis number for air-water vapour system is around
(a) 1
I
(b) 0.24
C (c) 3.97
(d) 600
T
E 21. Adiabatic flame temperature of a fuel is dependent on the initial temperature of
(a) the fuel
(b) the air
(c) both fuel and air
(d) neither fuel nor the air
22. Which of the following constituents of a fuel does not contribute to its calorific value on
combustion?
A (a) Hydrogen
(b) Sulphur
I (c) Carbon
(d) none of these
C
T 23. When 92 gm ethanol is completely burnt, ______ gm of carbon dioxide will be formed
(a) 176
E (b) 132
(c) 88
(d) 144
24. Calorific value as determined by bomb calorimeter is

(a) higher calorific value at constant volume
(b) gross calorific value at constant pressure
(c) lower calorific value at constant pressure
A (d) net calorific value at constant volume
I
25. Caking index of a coal is a measure of its
C (a) Abradability
(b) Reactivity
T (c) Agglutinating (binding) properties
E (d) Porosity
26. Main component of sewage gas produced during anaerobic decomposition of organic
waste (by suitable bacteria) during sewage disposal is
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Methane
(c) Carbon-dioxide
(d) Nitrogen
A
27. The shift conversion reaction taking place during water gas manufacture is given by
I (a) C + H2O ↔ CO + H2
(b) C + 2H2O ↔ CO2 + 2H2
C (c) CO + H2O ↔ CO2 + H2
T (d) None of these
E
Page 4 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 28. Higher efficiency in the combustion of solid fuel cannot be achieved by

(a) proper fuel preparation
I
(b) supplying correct quantity of combustion air
C (c) keeping the flue gas exhaust temperature very high
(d) adopting efficient-fuel firing technique & equipment
T
E 29. Washing of coal is done to decreases its
(a) Caking index
(b) Mineral matter content
(c) Carbon content
(d) both (b) and (c)
30. Ratio of primary air to secondary air increases with increase in the rank of coal, because
the
A (a) high rank coals have higher amount of volatile matter
(b) oxygen content progressively decreases
I (c) ratio of fixed carbon to volatile matter increases
(d) calorific value of the coal increases
C
T 31. Experimental batch reactor is usually operated
(a) Isothermally
E (b) Constant volume
(c) Isothermally and at constant volume
(d) None
32. How half-life (t1/2) and initial concentration are related for a nth order irreversible
reaction
(a) t1/2  CAo
1n
t1/ 2  C Ao n 1
A (b)
t  C Ao n
I (c) 1/2
(d) None
C
K1 K2
T 33. If ‘A’ decomposing by two competing paths as follow A R, A S, the rate –rA is
(a) K1 CA
E (b) K2 CA
(c) (K1+ K2) CA
(d) None
34. The rate -rA for an auto catalytic reaction, A+R→R+R is maximum where
(a) CA=CR
(b) CA= 1/2 CR
(c) CA=2CR
A (d) None
I
C
T
E
Page 5 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A K1 K2
35. For the consecutive uni-molecular type 1st order reaction such as A  R  S . Then the
I maximum concentration of R is
K2
C K 1 K 2 −K 1
(a) CA0 K2
T K2
K 2 K 2 −K 1
(b) CA0
E K1
K2
K 1 K 2 −K 1
(c) K2
K2
K 2 K 2 −K 1
(d) K1
36. Consider a isothermal gas phase reaction A→4R, by starting with 25 % inert. What is
fractional volume change (εA)
A (a) 1.75
(b) 2.25
I (c) 1
C (d) 1.5
T 37. For liquid phase reaction, the fraction volume change (εA)
E (a) one
(b) zero
(c) both
(d) None
38. For which type of reactions reactor size is independent of flow

(a) n=0
(b) n>1
(c) n<1
A (d) none
I
39. If recycle ratio, R in recycle reactor becomes zero. Then the behavior of recycle reactor
C is
T (a) Like PFR
(b) Like CSTR
E (c) both a & b
(d) none
40. The fractional yield of R, φ (R/A) for rR = 3CA ; rS = 6𝐶𝐴2

1
(a) 1+2C A
2C A
(b) 1+2C A
A (c) 3CA
I (d) 6CA2
C
T
E
Page 6 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A K1 K2
41. For the consecutive uni-molecular type 1st order reaction such as A B S taking
I place in backmix flow reactor the maximum possible outlet concentration of B is
(a) CA0 K1 K 2 + 1
C 2
1
T (b) CA0
K 1 K 2 +1
2
E (c) CA0 K1 K 2 + 1
(d) None
42. The reciprocal of D/UL is

(a) Peclet number
(b) Reynolds number
(c) Sherwood number
(d) None
A
43. Pore diffusion offers negligible resistance to reaction when
I (a) Thiele modules > 5
C (b) Thiele modules >0.5
(c) Theie modules <0.5
T (d) None
E
44. For the non-catalytic reaction of particles with surrounding fluid, the time need to
achieve the same fractional conversion for particles of different but unchanging sizes is
proportional to the diameter of the particles when
(a) chemical reaction is the controlling resistance
(b) diffusion through ash layer is the controlling resistance
(c) film diffusion is the controlling resistance
(d) all of the above
A 45. A 1st order reaction A→B occurs in an isothermal porous catalyst pellet of spherical
I shape. If the concentration of A at the centre of pellet is much less than that at the
external surface, the process is limited by
C (a) diffusion within the pellet
(b) reaction
T
(c) external mass transfer
E (d) none of the above
46. In solid catalyzed reactions , the diffusional effects are more likely affect the overall rate
of reaction for
(a) fast reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter
(b) fast reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter
(c) slow reactions in catalysts of small pore diameter
(d) slow reactions in catalysts of large pore diameter
A
47. Stimulus response techniques are commonly used to characterize the extend of non-ideal
I flow in vessels. Tracer input signal is used as stimulus. Any material can be used
C (a) as tracer if it can disturb the flow pattern in the vessel
(b) as tracer if it does not disturb the flow pattern in the vessel and it can be detected
T (c) as tracer if it follows ideal flow patterns
(d) as tracer
E
Page 7 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A
48. For large value of Thiele modulus 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷 of a solid catalyzed 1st order reaction, the
I
effectiveness factor (ε) is given by
C (a) 𝜖 = 1
T (b) 𝜖 = 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷
E
(c) 𝜖 = 1 + 𝐿 𝑘 𝐷
1
(d) 𝜖 =
𝐿 𝑘 𝐷
49. Which of the following is a correct statement

(a) Kappa number should be maintained uniform during entire pulping process
(b) Kappa number should increase as pulping process proceeds towards completion
(c) Kappa number should decrease as pulping process proceeds towards completion
A
(d) Kappa number should be increased during initial pulping and then decreased.
I
50. Which of the following catalysts uses carbon dioxide for methanol manufacturing
C process?
T (a) Ni-Ga
(b) Zn-Mn-Cr-Mn
E (c) CuO-ZnO
(d) Feo
51. Commercial production of nitric acid is by

(a) Oxidation of nitrogen
(b) Oxidation of ammonia
(c) Catalytic reaction of ammonia and water
(d) Acidification of nitrate ore
A
52. The molten urea is kept just above melting temperature of urea to
I (a) Avoid carbamate formation
C (b) Avoid biurate formation
(c) Avoid urea decomposition into ammonia and carbon dioxide
T (d) Avoid explosion in prilling tower
E
53. Which of the following compounds is used as a builder in detergent manufacturing?
(a) Sodium sulphate
(b) Sodium tripolyphosphate
(c) Di potassium phosphate
(d) stearic acid
54. The most energy intensive process in pulp and paper production industry is
(a) Pulping
A (b) pulp processing
I (c) recovery process
(d) raw material handling
C
T
E
Page 8 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 55. Ethanol production by direct hydration of ethene uses

(a) Alumina catalyst
I
(b) Silica catalyst
C (c) Phosphoric acid catalyst
(d) ZnO-Ni catalyst
T
E 56. Which of the following is the most adverse factor challenging the choice of mercury
electrolytic cell process for the production of caustic soda?
(a) High cost of mercury.
(b) High specific gravity of mercury.
(c) Non-availability of high purity mercury.
(d) Pollution of water stream by mercury
57. The electrical energy used in electrolysis cell is directly proportional to

A (a) Cell volume
(b) cell potential
I (c) conductivity of electrolyte
(d) cathode product
C
T 58. Purpose of steam impregnation in wood chips is to
(a) break lignin cellulose bond
E (b) digest woodchips
(c) remove air pockets from wood chips
(d) pulping of wood chips
59. Gypsum is chemically

(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulphate
(c) calcium phosphate
A (d) calcium sulphate
I
60. Servo problem is encountered when there is a change in __________________.
C (a) load variable
(b) set point
T (c) manipulated variable
E (d) measured value of the controlled variable
61. When ζ =0,the nature of step response is__________________________.

(a) underdamped
(b) critically damped
(c) overdamped
(d) undamped
1
G (s)  2
A 62. Consider a system with s  s  1 . The percentage overshoot for this system for
a step change is _________________.
I (a) 63.5%
C (b)16.6%
(c) 32 %
T (d)83%
E
Page 9 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 63. Which one of the following second order systems show overdamped behavior for step
input?
I
C 1
(a) G ( s ) 
s 5
2
T
E (b) 1
G( s) 
s 2  1.9s  0.7
1
(c) G ( s ) 
s  3s  2
2
1
(d) G ( s )  2
s s2
A
64. The Bode plot of a stable system gives amplitude ratio corresponding to the phase cross
I over frequency
(a) less than 1
C (b) more than one
T (c) equal to one
E
65. Consider a first order system with a transfer function 5/(2s+1) and a P-controller with
Kc=3 in a closed loop .If there is a unit step change in set point for the system , the offset
is
(a) 0.9375
(b) 0.0627
(c) 1
(d) 0
A
66. As ζ decreases for a second order underdamped system , overshoot _________________
I
C (a) Increases
(b) decreases
T (c) remains same
E (d) cannot say
67. Integral control action makes a process

(a) more oscillatory
(b) less oscillatory
(c) with larger steady state deviations from set point
(d) stable
68. In --------------- controller action, the output of controller is zero at constant error
A condition.
I (a) Proportional
(b) derivative
C (c) integral
T (d) none of these
E
Page 10 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 4
69. The second order system with the transfer function G ( s )  has a damping
I s  2s  4
2
ratio of
C (a) 2.0
(b) 0.5
T
(c) 1.0
E (d) 4.0
70. A tank operating at 10ft head, 5 lpm outflow through a valve offering linear resistance to
flow and has a cross section area of 10 sq ft. Calculate the time constant.
(a) 20min/lpm
(b) 20 min/sq.ft
(c) 568 min/sq.ft
(d) 56.8 min/sq.ft
A
71. In a single tank system (cross sectional area A and time constant τ) with an inlet to the
I top and a pump at the bottom , the transfer function of level to inlet flow rate is
C (a) 1/As
1
(b) 1/𝜏𝑠 + 1
T
(c) 1/(τs+1)
E (d) τs+1
72. The corner frequency for a system with transfer function 1/(4s+2) is
(a) 0.5
(b) 4
(c) 0.25
(d) 2
A 73. A proportional controller with a gain of Kc is used to control a first order process. The
offset
I (a) Increases with increase in Kc
C (b) Decreases with increase in Kc
(c) Does not vary with Kc
T (d) Cannot predict
E
74. A special case of proportional control is on-off control , when its gain Kc is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) 1
75. If the dead time in the process increases, then the process is
(a) Relatively more stable
A (b) Relatively less stable
I (c) Unaffected
(d) Cannot say
C
T
E
Page 11 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 76. Response of a system to a sinusoidal input is called -----------------response

(a) Impulse
I
(b) Unit step
C (c) Frequency
(d) None of these
T
E 77. In process control it is desirable to anticipate the effect of large load changes and reduce
the maximum error; a possible control action to achieve this is
(a) proportional
(b) integral
(c) derivative
(d) PI control
78. Air to open type control valve

A (a) Opens when air pressure fails
(b) closes when air pressure fails
I (c) None of the above
(d) Both of the above
C
T 79. A gain margin of less than one means
(a) unstable system
E (b) Stable system
(c) Critically stable system
(d) underdamped system
80. U tube manometer filled with mercury is an example of --------

(a) Under damped second order system
(b) Over damped second order system
(c) Critically damped second order system
A (d) Non-oscillatory second order system
I
C PART-B (30X2=60 Marks)
T 81. Species A is diffusing at steady state from the surface of a sphere (radius = 1 cm ) into a
E stagnant fluid. If the diffusive flux at a distance r = 3 cm from the centre of the sphere is
27 mol/cm2s-1, the diffusive flux (in mol/cm2s-1) at a distance r = 9 cm is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 27
82. The feed to a binary distillation column has 40 mol% vapour and 60 mol% liquid. Then,
the slope of the q -line in the McCabe-Thiele plot is
A
(a) –1.5
I (b) –0.6
(c) 0.6
C (d) 1.5
T
E
Page 12 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 83. A flash distillation drum is used to separate a methanol-water mixture. The mole fraction
of methanol in the feed is 0.5, and the feed flow rate is 1000 kmol/h. The feed is
I
preheated in a heater with heat duty Qh and is subsequently flashed in the drum. The
C flash drum can be assumed to be an equilibrium stage, operating adiabatically. The
equilibrium relation between the mole fractions of methanol in the vapour and liquid
T phases is y* =4x. The ratio of distillate to feed flow rate is 0.5. The mole fraction of
E methanol in the distillate is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.7
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.9
84. A packed tower containing Berl saddles is operated with a gas-liquid system in the
countercurrent mode. Keeping the gas flow rate constant, if the liquid flow rate is
A continuously increased.
I (a) the void fraction available for the gas to flow will decrease beyond the loading point
(b) the gas pressure drop will decrease
C
(c) liquid will continue to flow freely down the tower beyond the loading point
T (d) the entrainment of liquid in the gas will considerably decrease near the flooding point
E 85. A thin liquid film flows at steady state along a vertical surface. The average velocity of
the liquid film is 0.05 m/s. The viscosity of the liquid is 1 CP and its density is 1000
kg/m3. The initially pure liquid absorbs a sparingly soluble gas from air as it flows
down. The length of the wall is 2 m and its width is 0.5 m. The solubility of the gas in
the liquid is 3.4x 10-2 kmol/ m3 and isothermal conditions may be assumed. If the exit
average concentration in the liquid is measured to be 1.4 x 10-2 kmol/ m3, the total mass
transfer rate (in kmol/s) of the sparingly soluble gas into the liquid is
A (a). 0.133 x 10-4

(b). 0.434 x 10-7
I
(c). 3.4 x 10-2
C (d). 17 x 10-2
T 86. A 50 cm x 50 cm x 1 cm flat wet sheet weighing 2 kg, initially was dried from both the
E sides under constant drying rate period. It took 1000 s for the weight of the sheet to
reduce to 1.75 kg. Another 1mx1mx1 cm flat sheet is to be dried from one side only.
Under the same drying rate and other conditions, time required for drying (in sec) from
initial weight of 4 kg to 3 kg is
(a). 1000
(b). 1500
(c). 2000
(d). 2500
A
I 87. It is desired to reduce the concentration of pyridine in 500 kg of aqueous solution from
20 wt% to 5 wt% in a single batch extraction using chlorobenzene as solvent.
C Equilibrium compositions (end points of the tie line) in terms of weight per cent of
T pyridine-water-chlorobenzene are (5, 95, 0) and (11, 0, 89). The amount of pure solvent
required in kg for the operation is
E
Page 13 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A (a) 607
(b) 639
I
(c) 931
C (d) 1501
T 88. In a laboratory test run, the rate of drying was found to be 0 .5x 10 -3 kg/ m2s, when the
E moisture content reduced from 0.4 to 0.1 on a dry basis. The critical moisture content of
the material is 0.08 on a dry basis. A tray dryer is used to dry 100 kg (dry basis) of the
same material under identical conditions. The surface area of the material is 0.04 m2/kg
of dry solid. The time required (in second) to reduce the moisture content of the solids
from 0.3 to 0.2 (dry basis) is
(a) 2000
(b) 4000
(c) 5000
A (d) 6000
I 89. The interfacial area per unit volume of dispersion, in a gas-liquid contractor, for
fractional hold-up of gas = 0.1 and gas bubble diameter = 0.5 mm is given by (in m2/ m3)
C
(a) 500
T (b) 1200
(c) 900
E (d) 800
90. The individual mass transfer coefficients (mol/ m2s) for absorption of a solute from a gas
mixture into a liquid solvent are kL = 4.5 and kG = 1.5. The slope of the equilibrium line
is 3. Which of the following resistance(s) is/are controlling?
(a) liquid side

(b) gas side
A (c) interfacial
(d) both liquid and gas sides
I
C 91. According to the Fenske equation, what will be the minimum number of plates required
in a distillation column to separate an equimolar binary mixture of components A and B
T into an overhead fraction containing 99 mol % A and a bottoms fraction containing 98
E mol % B? [Assume that the relative volatility (αAB = 2) does not change appreciably in
the column]
(a) 5
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 28
92. A pure drug is administered as a sphere and as a cube. The amount of drug is the same
in the two tablets. Assuming that the shape and size do not influence the mass transfer,
A
the ratio of rate of dissolution in water at t = 0 for the cubic to spherical tablet is
I (a) 0.54
(b) 1.04
C (c) 1.24
T (d) 1.94
E
Page 14 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 93. An air-water vapour mixture has a dry bulb temperature of 60oC and a dew point
temperature of 40oC. The total pressure is 101.3 kPa and the vapour pressures of water at
I
40oC and 60oC are 7.30 kPa and 19.91 kPa, respectively. The humidity of air sample
C expressed as kg of water vapour/kg of dry air is
(a) 0.048
T (b) 0.079
E (c) 0.122
(d) 0.152
94. __________ of the coal is the basis for Seyler's coal classification
(a) Proximate analysis
(b) Ultimate analysis
(c) caking index
(d) Calorific value
A
95. In flue gas analysis by Orsat's apparatus, carbon monoxide is absorbed by
I (a) Cuprous chloride
(b) Potassium hydroxide
C
(c) Alkaline pyrogallol solution
T (d) None of these
E 96. Low temperature carbonisation
(a) produces higher quantity of gas than high temperature carbonisation
(b) is mainly for producing the smokeless domestic coke
(c) produces less quantity of tar than high temperature carbonisation
(d) is meant for the production of 'metallurgical coke'
97. Improper storage condition results in the weathering of coal and spontaneous
combustion, which increases its
A (a) caking index
(b) calorific value
I
(c) friability and Oxygen content
C (d) Yield of carbonised product
T 98. The main useful constituent of natural gas and producer gas respectively is
E (a) CO2+H2 and C2H6
(b) CH4 and CO+H2
(c) C2H6 and CO2+H2
(d)C2H6 and CO2
99. The air to natural gas (stoichiometric) ratio by volume for complete combustion vary
between -------------- to ---------------
(a) 14.5:1 to 22:1

A
(b) 18.5:1 to 22:1
I (c) 9.5:1 to 10:1
(d) 19.5:1 to 20:1
C
T
E
Page 15 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A K1 K2
100. For the consecutive reaction A  B  C. numerical values are K1 = 0.35 hr-1, K2=0.13 hr-
1
I , CA0=64 kg mol/m3 and CB0= CC0= 0 . What is the maximum concentration attained by
C B when operative as batch reactor
(a) 35.68 kgmol/m3
T (b) 24.71 kgmol/m3
(c) 34.07 kgmol/m3
E (d) 42.30 kgmol/m3
101. The hydrolysis of acetic anhydride is conducted in a reaction battery consisting of two
completely stirred vessels. The temperature of the 1st reactor is maintained at 10oC and
the 2nd at 15oC. the reaction is of the first order with specific reaction rates as below
Temperature oC 10 15
K, min-1 0.0567 0.0806
A The inlet composition is 177 kg mol/m3 and the feed rate is 0.095 m3/min, the vessels are
I all of the same size , and the desired conversion is 95 %. The volume of the vessels
needed will be
C (a) 3.84 m3
T (b) 4.84 m3
(c) 5.84 m3
E (d) 6.84 m3
K1
102. The reaction 2 A  C  D is conducted in CSTR. Data : flow rate : 3 m3/hr; initial
K2
concentration of A,C and D-22 kg/mol/m3, 0.0 and 0.0 respectively. K1 and K2 : 0.7 and
16.0 m3/kg mol hr. Conversion to be obtained is 80% of equilibrium. The volume of
reactor will be
(a) 163 lit
(b) 173 lit
A (c) 183 lit
(d) 193 lit
I K1
103. The liquid phase reaction A  B  C  D , K1= 7 lit/mol-min; K2= 3 lit/mol-min is to
C K2
take place in a 120 litre steady mixed flow reactor.Two feed streams, one containing 2.8
T
mol A/lit and the other containing 1.6 mol B/lit, are to be introduced in equal volumes
E into the reactor, and 75 % conversion of limiting component is desired. What should be
flow rate of each stream, assume constant density throughout.
(a) 4 lit/min of each
(b) 8 lit/min of each
(c) 2 lit/min of each
(d) 6 lit/min of each
10C A
104. For a homogeneous reaction A ⟶B, the rate expression at 300 K is −rA = , where
1+5C A
3
A CA is the concentration of A (in mol/m ). Theoretically, the upper limit for the magnitude
of the reaction rate at 300 K is
I (a) 2
C (b) 2.5
(c) 1
T (d) 4
E
Page 16 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 105. Hydrogen iodide decomposes through the reaction 2HI ⇋ H2+ I2. The value of the
universal gas constant R is 8.314 J mol‒1K‒1. The activation energy for the forward
I
reaction is 168000 J mol‒1. The ratio of the forward reaction rate at 600 K to that at 550
C K is
(a) 25.6
T (b) 21.33
E (c) 24.8
(d) 20.4
106. An isothermal steady state mixed flow reactor of 1 m3 volume is used to carry out the
first order liquid-phase reaction A → products. Fresh feed at a volumetric flow rate of Q
containing reactant A at a concentration CA0 mixes with the recycle steam at a volumetric
flow rate RQ. Data: Q = 0.5 m3/min, CA0 = 1 mol/m3. It is observed that when the
recycle ratio R = 0.5, the exit conversion XAf = 50% When the recycle ratio is increased
A to R = 2, the new exit conversion (in percent) will be
(a) 50.0
I (b) 54.3
(c) 58.7
C
(d) 63.2
T
107. We plan to run the reaction mentioned below - (CA0 = 1 mol/l, FAO = 1000 mol/min) in a
E plug flow reactor kept at 40°C throughout to 90% conversion. The reaction rate constant
for the forward reaction at 40 °C is 1 min-1. Find the volume of reactor needed.
Δ𝐺° 298 = −14 130 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝐴 ⇄𝑅 = 𝐶𝑝𝐴 = 𝐶𝑝𝑅 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
ΔH° 298 = −75 300 𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
(a) 2410 m3
(b) 1205 m3
(c) 241 m3
(d) none of these
A
108. The Thiele modulus for 1st order isothermal reaction for a flat plate geometry catalyst is
I
found to be 2. Calculate the catalyst effectiveness factor
C (a) 0.482
(b) 0.612
T (c) 0.401
E (d) 0.512
109. Gaseous feed with A and B (υ0 = 10m3/hr) pass through a packed bed reactor with
catalyst (W = 4 kg). Reaction occurs as follows: A + B → R + S. Find the conversion of
reactant A if the feed contains CA0= 0.1 mol/m3 and CB0= 10 mol/m3. Reaction rate is
given as
mol
−rA′ = 0.6 CA CB
kg. hr
A (a) 90.9
(b) 91.7
I (c) 92.6
C (d) 89.4
T
E
Page 17 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 110. Consider a catalytic reaction 𝐴 → 4𝑅. Calculate the amount of catalyst needed in a
packed bed reactor (assume plug flow) for 35% conversion of A to R for a feed of 2000
I
mol/hr of pure A at 3.2 atm and 117°C. Reaction rate is given as -rA = KCA
C Data: K = 96 lit/hr. kg catalyst CA0 = 0.1 mol/lit
(a) 150 kg
T (b) 135 kg
E (c) 120 kg
(d) 140 kg
111. Which of the following is used for absorption of sulfur trioxide produced in catalytic
converter?
(a) Water
(b) Oleum
(c) 99% sulphuric acid
A (d) 50% sulphuric acid
I 112. Concentration of NaOH solution produced by mercury electrolytic cell is about

__________ percent.
C
(a) 10
T (b) 25
(c) 50
E (d) 98
113. Which of the following is not a raw material used for the manufacture of ordinary glass?
(a) Iron oxide
(b) Soda ash
(c) Limestone
(d) Silica
A 114. Major Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
(a) salt, limestone and coke.
I
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone.
C (c) ammonia, limestone and coke.
(d) sodium bicarbonate, brine and coke
T
E 115. As a rule of thumb, a good Kraft process for white paper manufacturing should have
Kappa number in range of
(a) 15 to 20
(b) 25 to 30
(c) 60 to 65
(d) 95 to 100
C s  K
Consider a feed back control loop with G s   
M s  1 s 1  2 s 1
116. Where K =
A
0.5 % output / % input and 1 = 1 min., 2 = 2 min. The controller is a proportional
I controller with Gc(s) = Kc,=4 H(s) = Gv (s) = 1,The closed loop transfer function of the
C loop is,
T
E
Page 18 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A (a)
2
I
s  1 2 s  1
C
(b)
T 2
E 2s  3s  3
2
(c)
2
2 s 2  3s  1
(d)
0 .5
A
2 s  3s  1
2
I
C 117. The transfer function of a process and measurement element connected in series is given
by
T
E e 0 .4 s
2 s  1
Write the equations for amplitude ratio (AR) and phase shift (ϕ) .
1
(a) 𝐴𝑅 = and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 2𝜔 − 0.4𝜔
2𝜔 2 +1
A 1
(b) 𝐴𝑅 = and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 2𝜔 − 0.4𝜔
4𝜔 2 +1
I
1
C (c) 𝐴𝑅 = and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 2𝜔
4𝜔 2 +1
T 1
(d) 𝐴𝑅 = and ϕ=−𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 2𝜔
0.4𝜔 2 +1
E
118. An open loop system represented by the transfer function is
(a) Stable and of the minimum phase type

(b) Unstable and of non–minimum phase type
A (c) Stable and of the non–minimum phase type
(d) Unstable and of the minimum phase type
I
C
T
E
Page 19 of 20
ROLL NO.: UG2CHE29
A 119. Consider the function,

I 5
𝐹 𝑠 =
C 𝑠(𝑠 2 + 3𝑠 + 2)
T
Where, F(s) is the Laplace transform of the function f(t). The initial value of f(t) is equal
E to
(a) 5
(b) 2.5
(c) 35
(d) 0
120. The block diagram for a control system is shown below
A
I E(s) U(s)
R(s) + Kc  2 2 Y(s)
C
(2s  1)(3s  1)
T -
E
For a unit step change in the set point,R(s), the steady state offset in the output Y(s) is
A (a) 0.2
(b) 0.3
I (c) 0.4
C (a) 0.5
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 20 of 20
UG CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
Code 29-Paper 2
1 C 31 C 61 D 91 C
2 A 32 A 62 B 92 C
3 C 33 C 63 B, C 93 A
4 D 34 A 64 A 94 B
5 A 35 A 65 B 95 A
6 C 36 B 66 A 96 B
7 D 37 B 67 A 97 C
8 C 38 A 68 B 98 B
9 A 39 A 69 B 99 C
10 C 40 A 70 C 100 A
11 A 41 D 71 A 101 B
12 A 42 A 72 A 102 B
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A
14 B 44 C 74 B 104 A
15 B 45 A 75 B 105 B
16 B 46 A 76 C 106 A
17 C 47 B 77 C 107 A
18 D 48 D 78 B 108 A
19 C 49 C 79 A 109 A
20 A 50 C 80 A 110 D
21 C 51 B 81 B 111 C
22 D 52 B 82 A 112 Marks to all
23 A 53 B 83 C 113 A
24 A 54 A 84 A 114 Marks to all
25 C 55 C 85 B 115 A
26 B 56 D 86 C 116 B
27 C 57 B 87 B 117 B
28 C 58 C 88 C 118 C
29 B 59 D 89 B 119 D
30 C 60 B 90 D 120 A
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
MARINE ENGINEERING

A PAPER-I
I Instructions:
C questions.
T ii. Part-A contains 70 questions, Q1 to Q. 70 of 1 (one) mark each.
E iv. Part-C contains 20 questions, Q101 to Q110 of 1 (one) mark each and Q111 to Q120
wrong answer.
T
E
1. A Carnot cycle operates between 300 K and 727°C. If the rate of heat supply is 1000kW, the
power output is
a) 300 kW
A b) 500 kW
c) 700 kW
I d) 1000 kW
C 2. During the formation of steam, at critical point, any substance will
T a) exist in all possible states
b) change directly from solid to vapour phase
E c) change from ideal to real gas behavior
d) lose phase distinction between liquid and vapour phase
3. Mean effective pressure is

a) the arithmetic average of maximum and minimum cycle pressures
b) the ratio between the work done per cycle and stroke length
A
c) the ratio between the work done per cycle and swept volume
I d) the geometric average of maximum and minimum cycle pressures
C 4. To decelerate subsonic flow, it must be passed through

a) a convergent section
T b) a divergent section
E c) a convergent – divergent section
d) a divergent - convergent section
Page 1 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
5. The effect of friction in the nozzle is to

a) increase the nozzle exit enthalpy
b) decrease the nozzle exit dryness friction
A c) increase the nozzle exit density
d) decrease the nozzle exit entropy
I
6. The divergent section of the nozzle is made longer that the convergent section
C a) to enable complete expansion
T b) to work even under condition of over expansion
c) to enable expansion without flow separation
E d) to accommodate any future damage by modification
7. If A is the nozzle angle with the tangential direction of the rotor, for the maximum efficiency
of a De Laval turbine, the ratio of blade to steam speed is
a) sin A
b) (sin A)/2
A c) cos A
I d) (cosA/2)
C 8. Thermal efficiency of a steam turbine plant can be increased by

a) increasing the steam flow rate
T b) increasing the condenser pressure
c) adding the reheater
E
d) adopting the regenerator
9. Thermal diffusivity is the ratio between

a) the thermal conductivity and heat capacity
b) the thermal resistance and heat capacity
A c) the heat capacity and thermal conductivity
d) the heat capacity and thermal resistance
I
10. Hardenability of steel does not depend on the
C a) Alloy content
T b) Grain size
c) Amount of carbon content
E d) Amount of cold work
11. Case Hardening is The Only Method Suitable For Hardening

a) high alloy steel
b) high carbon steel
c) low carbon steel
A
d) high speed steel
I
12. Which one of the following expands upon solidification?
C a) low c steel
b) high c steel
T c) white cast iron
d) gray cast iron
E
13. The fracture toughness of low strength ductile material is best measured using the following
Page 2 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
experimental method
a) Kic evaluation
b) J integral method
A c) dynamic impact test
d) 3 point bend test
I
14. Hydrogen embrittled steels samples can exhibit
C a) Only cleavage fracture
T b) Cleavage, dimple and intergranular fracture
c) Both cleavage and dimple fracture
E d) Only intergranular fracture
15. The energetic driving force for grain growth is

a) Due to dislocations in the matrix
b) Grain boundary energy
c) Residual strain in the different grains
A d) Stacking fault energy
I
16. The NDT technique used to detect deep lying defects in a large sized casting is
C a) liquid penetrant inspection
b) Magnetic particle inspection
T c) ultrasonic inspection
d) eddy current inspection
E
17. Which of the following is not a partial dislocation?
a) Shockley Partial Dislocations
b) screw dislocation
c) Frank Partial Dislocations
A d) Lomer-Cottrel Lock
I 18. Which of the following type of sand is used to keep the green sand from sticking to the
pattern?
C a) Core sand
T b) burnt sand
c) parting sand
E d)synthetic sand
19. Which stack is used in 8085?

a) FIFO
b) LIFO
c) FILO
A
d) LILO
I
20. The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the:
C a) Shaft Load
b) Step Pulse Frequency
T c) Polarity of Stator current
E d) Magnitude of Stator current
21. Negative feedback ………..
Page 3 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
a) increases the input and output impedances

b) increases the input impedance and bandwidth
c) decreases the output impedance and bandwidth
A d) does not affect impedance or bandwidth
I 22. A latch is __________ sensitive

a) both level and edge
C b) positive edge
T c) level
d) Negative edge
E
23. PROM stands for
a)Permanent Read Only Memory
b) Portable Read Only Memory
c)Programmable Read Only Memory
d) Plugin Read Only Memory
A
I 24. In 1-to-4 demultiplexer, how many select lines are required?
a)2
C b) 3
c) 4
T d) 5
E
25. which is the fastest ADC
a) successive approximation ADC
b) Flash ADC
c) Single slope ADC
d)dual slope ADC
A
26. Basic building blocks of digital multimeter are _________
I a) oscillator, amplifier
b)diode, op amp
C c)rectifier, schmitt trigger
T d) A/D, attenuator, counter
E 27. How many GPS satellites are needed to find your location?
(a)4
(b)2
(c)1
(d) 5
A
28. A synchro transmitter is used with a synchro receiver for the purpose of
I (a) Amplification
(b) Error detection
C (c) Remote sensing
T
E 29. If the system has repeated poles on the imaginary-axis, the system is
(a) Stable
(b) Unstable
Page 4 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
(c) Marginally stable

(d) Conditionally stable
A 30. Electrical time-constant of an armature-controlled dc servomotor is

(a) equal to mechanical time-constant.
I (b) smaller than mechanical time-constant.
(c) larger than mechanical time-constant.
C (d) not related to mechanical time-constant
T
31. The steady-state error of a feedback control system with an acceleration input becomes finite
E in
(a) Type 0 system
(b) Type1 system
(c) Type2 system
(d) Type 3 system
A 32. Identify the controller that exhibits zero order behavior
I (a) Integral
(b) Proportional
C (c) Derivative
(d) PID
T
33. The most frequent malfunction to be expected in a pneumatic controller is a __________.
E (a) leaking air line
(b) plugging of the nozzle restrictor
(c) power failure
(d) rupture of the bellows
A 34. Swell effect and shrink effect in boiler drum level control process is minimum in ______ .
a) Single element control
I b) Two element control
c) Three element control
C d) None of the above
T
35. For a plane immersed in a fluid, the center of pressure (CP) and the centroid (CG) of the plane
E have the following relationship
(a) The CG is above the CP
(b) The CG is below the CP
(c) CG and CP coincide
(d) There is no relationship between CG and CP locations
A 36. For stability of the floating body
I (a) The metacenter should be above the center of gravity
(b) The metacenter should be below the center of gravity
C (c) The center of buoyancy should be below the center of gravity
(d) The center of buoyancy should be above the center of buoyancy.
T
E
Page 5 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
37. The longitudinal metacentric height is the distance between

(a) Keel (K) and longitudinal center of buoyancy (BL)
(b) Center of gravity (G) and longitudinal center of buoyancy (BL)
A (c) Keel (K) and center of gravity (G)
(d) Center of gravity (G) and longitudinal metacenter (ML)
I
C 38. Trim is defined as:
(a) Average of the forward and aft drafts
T (b) Product of the forward and aft drafts
(c) Ratio of the forward and aft drafts
E (d) Difference between the forward and aft drafts
39. A floating body experiences

(a) Six degrees of freedom
(b) Four degrees of freedom
A (c) Three degrees of freedom
(d) Two degrees of freedom
I
40. The underwater bulb attached to the bow of the ship is to
C (a) Reduce the residuary resistance due to the formation of the bow waves
(b) Reduce the frictional resistance
T
(c) Increase the residuary resistance due to the formation of the bow wave
E (d) Increase the frictional resistance
41. If D is the displacement of the vessel, V is its speed and P is the shaft power, the Admiralty
Coefficient C is defined by:
(a) C = D2/3V3/P
(b) C = D1/3V3/P
A (c) C = D2/3V2/P
(d) C = DV3/P2/3
I
C 42. The pitch angle θ for a propeller blade of 2 m diameter and pitch of 1 m is
(a) 9o
T (b) 11o
(c) 13o
E (d) 14.5o
43. A three-bladed propeller rotates at 500 rpm. The frequency transmitted to the hull is
(a) 15 Hz
(b) 20 Hz
A (c) 25 Hz
(d) 30 Hz
I
44. Clearance in compressors
C (a) increases the work done
T (b) decreases the work done
(c) has no effect on work done
E (d) none of the above
Page 6 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
45. Inter-cooling in multistage compressors is done

(a) to cool the refrigerant directly
(b) to enable to use low pressure cyclinders
A (c) to minimize the work of compression
(d) to reduce the cooling capacity
I
46. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is used as a refrigerating
C machine with all other conditions unchanged, the coefficient of performance will be:
T (a) 3.33
(b) 3.00
E (c) 2.33
(d) 1.33
47. Ideal refrigeration mixture is one which

(a) Obeys Raoult's law in liquid phase and does not obey Dalton's law in vapor phase
(b) Does not obey Raoult's law in liquid phase and does not obey Dalton's law in vapor phase
A (c) Obeys Raoult's law in liquid phase and obeys Dalton's law in vapor phase
I (d) Does not obey Raoult's law in liquid phase and obeys Dalton's law in vapor phase
C 48. Which one of the following is the most important function of thermostatic expansion valve?
(a) To control the degree of superheat
T (b) To control the evaporator temperature
(c) To control the pressure drop
E
(d) To control the evaporator pressure
49. Which one of the following refrigerants has the highest critical temperature?
(a) Water
(b)Carbon dioxide
A (c)R 134a
(d)Ammonia
I
50. The correction factor to a heat exchange takes care of
C (a) non-uniform tube material and flow
T (b) multipass arrangements
(c) temperature difference of all fluids
E (d) all of the above
51. ____________is the generally last component adopted for heat recovery in a boiler
(a) Air preheater
(b) Super heater
A
(c) Evaporator
I (d) Economizer
C 52. Superheating of steam is done at

(a) Constant volume
T (b) Constant temperature
E (c) Constant pressure
(d) Constant entropy
Page 7 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
53. In a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred

(a) From a metal wall from one medium to another
(b) From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air from this material
A (c) By direct mixing ,
(d) Heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
I
54. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
C (a) Heating the oil in the settling tanks
T (b) Cooling the oil in the settling tanks
(c) Burning the oil
E (d) Suspension
55. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion
(b) scale
(c) embrittlement
A (d) all of the above.
I
56. A condenser in a steam power plant is.......
C (a) Increases expansion ratio of steam
(b) Reduces back pressure of steam
T (c) Reduces temperature of exhaust steam
E
57. The actual vaccum in a condenser is equal to......
(a) Barometric pressure + actual pressure
(b) Barometric pressure - actual pressure
(c) Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
A (d) Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
I 58. Viscosity numbering system is used to rate the _____ of engine, oil.
(a) Thickness
C (b) Oil weight
T (c) Oil gravity
(d) Oil temperature
E
59. The science of friction, lubrication and wear is called
(a) Endymology
(b) Geology
(c) Tribology
(d) Morphology
A
I 60. When lubrication is failed _____________ governor is used.
(a) Centrifugal
C (b) Emergency
(c) Potter
T (d) None of the mentioned
E
Page 8 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
61. During overload of turbines __________ are used.

(a) throttle governing
(b) nozzle valves
A (c) bypass governing
I
62. Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that
C (a) the forced ventilating system is operating
(b) the cargo pumps are secured
T (c) no mono carbon gases are present
(d) the oily water separator is de-energized
E
63. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must
(a) secure the engine room ventilation
(b) secure the machinery in the engine room
(c) evacuate all engine room personnel
I 64. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tank vessels is to __________.
C (a) allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
(b) prevent outside air from entering the tank
T (c) provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
(d) comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
E
65. _____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire.
(a) Soda acid
(b) Vaporizing liquid
(c) Foam
A (d) Dry chemical
I
66. What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?
C (a) Black pictogram on a yellow background.
(b) White pictogram on a red background.
T (c) White pictogram on a green background.
67. What is the minimum number of fire escapes route(s) for a room?
(a) At LEAST one
(b) Two
(c)Three
(d) Four
A
68. The elements of Fire Triangle are:
I
(a) Heat, Oxygen, Fuel
C (b) Heat, CO2, Fuel
(c)Oxygen, Wood, CO2
E
Page 9 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
69. Fire extinguishers are classified by

(a) The type of fire they are used on
(b) Size of the fire to put out
A (c) The temperature of fire
(d) The color of the fire
I
70. Fires that are fueled by _____ require you to use water fire extinguishers in order to fight
C them.
T (a) Live electricity
(b) Gasoline, kerosene, and other flammable liquids
E (c)Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile
(d) Propane, butane, and other flammable gases
PART –B (30x2 = 60 Marks)
71. If w is the net work in kJ/kg, q is the heat supply in kJ/kg, the Specific Steam Consumption
A (SSC) in kg/kWh is given as
I a) 3600/q
b) 3600/w
C c) 3600q/w
d) 3600w/q
T
72. When the nozzle is operating at the critical condition, the steam flow rate is
E
a) maximum at the entry
b) maximum at the throat
c) maximum at the exit
d) maximum through the nozzle and same at all sections
A 73. A reaction turbine is operating with 80 % degree of reaction, the enthalpy drop across the
stator is 100 kJ, the enthalpy drop across the rotor is
I a) 80 kJ
b) 125 kJ
C
c) 200 kJ
T d) 400 kJ
E 74. A 200 W bulb dissipates 50 % of its energy as heat. It has 100 sq. cm area and convection heat
transfer coefficient is 200 W/m2K, the temperature difference between the bulb and the
environment is
a) 10°C
b) 20°C
A c) 40°C
d) 50°C
I
75. An aluminum alloy rod of diameter 15mm and length 120mm is subjected to a tensile test load
C of 35000N along its axis. The Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio for aluminium are 70GPa
and 0.33 respectively. The elastic strain energy is approximately,
T
a) 200 kJ/m3
E b) 240 kJ/m3
c) 280 kJ/m3
d) 320 kJ/m3
Page 10 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
76. Assuming that a cold worked metal recrystallizes completely in 100 hours at 260°C , but that
at 300°C, the process is complete in only six minutes, what is the activation energy of the
recrystallization process. R=8314.3 J mol-1K-1.
A a) 2.63 x 108 J k mol-1
b) 26.3 x 108 J k mol-1
I c) 263 x 108 J k mol-1
d) 0.263 x108 J k mol-1
C
T 77. The relative amount of ferrite in a steel containing 0.8% carbon find the percentage of ferrite?
a) 87.34%
E b) 86.34%
c) 88.34%
d) 88.94%
78. How many address and data linedo a 8 bit 4K memory will have.
a) address line 10 data line 16
A b) address line 12 data line 16
I c) address line 12 data line 8
d) address line 16 data line 8
C
79. The output of a particular Op-amp increases 8V in 12μs. The slew rate is …….
T a)90 V/μs
b)0.67 V/μs
E
c)1.5V/μs
d) 96 V/μs
80. The cutoff frequency for a given first order LPF with R=10K and C=0.1 uF is
a)109 Hz
A b)159 Hz
c) 209 Hz
I d)140 Hz
C 81. A certain noninverting amplifier has Ri of 1 kΩ and Rf of 100 kΩ. The closed-loop voltage
T gain is ………
a)100,000
E b) 1000
c)101
d) 100
82. Find the poles and zeros of the transfer function G(s) = 1/(s+1)(s+2)
a) Two poles and one zero
A
b) Two zeros and one pole
I c) Two poles and two zeros at infinity
d) Two zeros
C
83. F(s) = (1-exp(-sT))/(s) is the laplace transform of
T a) a pulse of width T
E b) a square wave of period T
c) a unit step delayed by T
d) a ramp delayed by T
Page 11 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
84. Larger differential gap in on-off controller leads to

a) increase in frequency of operation of control valve
A b) decrease in frequency of operation of control valve
c) no change in frequency of operation of control valve
I d) control valve opens to 100%
C 85. The transfer function of a first-order system is T(s)=8/s+4. The final steady state value of the
T unit step response is
a) 0.5
E b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
86. Cascade control involves the use of____________.

a) single measurement and multiple manipulated inputs
A b) multiple measurements and a single manipulated input
I c) multiple measurements and multiple manipulated inputs
d)none of the above
C
87. The load on a bulkhead 5 m wide and 4 m deep with sea water on one side up to a depth of 3
T m in kN is
(a) 22.62
E
(b) 22.07
(c) 30
(d) 59
88. A hollow cylinder is 2 m in diameter and 5 m long and weighs 36.5 kN. At what draught will
A it float in sea water
(a) 1.30 m
I (b) 1.16 m
(c) 1.61 m
C (d) 2.32 m
T
89. A ship burns 200 tons of oil during a sea voyage. If the water plane area Aw = 1000 m2, the
E approximate change in the draught in m is
(a) 0.195
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.305
(d) 0.105
A
90. A vessel displaces 1000 m3 of fresh water. Its centre of gravity is 1 m above the keel and its
I centre of buoyancy is 0.8 m above the keel. The cross-section of the area at the water line is 10
m in the longitudinal direction and 3 m width. The metacentric height in m is
C (a) 0.2
(b) 0.1
T (c) 0
E (d) -0.1
91. The surface area of the hull of a ship is 1250 m2. The coefficient of friction is 0.4 and the
Page 12 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
velocity exponent is 1.8. The power required to overcome the frictional resistance when the
ship is cruising at 20 knots is
(a) 0.62 MW
A (b) 1.13 MW
(c) 1.85 MW
I (d) 1.96 MW
C 92. The ratio of power required to the swept volume flow rate of compressor is
T (a) Mean effective pressure
(b) Volumetric efficiency
E (c) Ideal work of compression
(d) COP
93. Crushed pieces of ice melt faster than a larger piece of ice having same mass. This is because
(a) specific heat is less for crushed pieces
(b) the rate of absorption of heat is proportional to surface area
A (c) the latent heat is small for crushed pieces
C 94. The dew point temperature of humid air is

(a) always higher than the wet bulb temperature
T (b) never higher than the wet bulb temperature
(c) the temperature of air obtained on cooling it till saturation at constant pressure
E
(d) the temperature of air obtained on cooling it till saturation at constant volume
95. A hot fluid enters the counter flow heat exchange at 100oC and leaves at 60oC. The cold fluid
enters the heat exchanger at 40oC. The mean temperature difference between the two
fluids is
A (a) 20oC
(b) 40oC
I (c) 60oC
(d) 80oC
C
T 96. The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is
(a) Below atmospheric pressure
E (b) 25.6 kg/cm2
(c) 125.6 kg/cm2
(d) 225.6 kg/cm2
97. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 bar ) when throttled to atmosphere will
A become
(a) Wet
I (b) Superheated
(c) Remain dry saturated
C (d) Dry
T 98. The commonly used material of pipes in condensers is.......
E (a) Mild steel
(b) Stainless steel
(c) Cast iron
Page 13 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
(d) Admiralty brass
99. The fire assembly point can be best described as:

A a) Where the fire extinguishers are stored
b) An area that has a high risk for fires to occur
I c) An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire
d) An area you are required to avoid in the event of a fire
C
T 100. Which of the following is not true?
(a) A flammable material that is used to facilitate and/or increase the rate of spread of fire
E and/or increase the intensity of fire in known as a fire accelerant.
(b) Well-ventilated char that is undergoing smouldering combustion can produce small
flames.
(c) Given sufficient time and enough ventilation, a smouldering fire will always convert
into a full flaming, char-producing fire.
(d) In conventional fires, the flammable gas that is necessary for the presence of flames
A may arise from the pyrolysis of a solid fuel.
I
C PART –C (30 Marks)
T Engineering Mathematics
E

A
I
C
T (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
E
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A
I
C (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
T
𝑥 𝑦
E 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
Page 14 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
A
I
𝑙
C 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
E 2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

T (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
A
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
I (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
C (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 cot 𝑢 = 0
T ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2
E
𝑑𝑥
I
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
C (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
T 2𝑥 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦 2
E
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
Page 15 of 16
ROLL NO. UG1MAE30
1
A (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) 8 [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
C 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
T red and the other is blue will be
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
A (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

C eigenvalue is
1 1
T (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
A 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
I
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
C
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
T (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 16 of 16
UG MARINE ENGINEERING
Code 30-Paper 1
1 C 31 C 61 C 91 B
2 D 32 B 62 A 92 A
3 C 33 A, C 63 D 93 B
4 B 34 C 64 B 94 B
5 A 35 A 65 C 95 A
6 C 36 A 66 B 96 D
7 D 37 D 67 B 97 B
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 D
9 A 39 A 69 A 99 C
10 D 40 A 70 C 100 C
11 C 41 A 71 B 101 A
12 D 42 A 72 D 102 C
13 B 43 C 73 D 103 A
14 C 44 C 74 D 104 D
15 B 45 C 75 C 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 A 106 A
17 B 47 C 77 C 107 A
18 C 48 A 78 C 108 B
19 B 49 A 79 B 109 D
20 B 50 D 80 B 110 B
21 B 51 A 81 C 111 D
22 C 52 C 82 C 112 B
23 C 53 A 83 B 113 B
24 A 54 A 84 B 114 B
25 B 55 D 85 B 115 B
26 D 56 D 86 B 116 C
27 A 57 B 87 A 117 B
28 B 58 A 88 B 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 A 119 B
30 B 60 B, D 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2MAE30
MARINE ENGINEERING
PAPER - II
Instructions:
A ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
I iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
C v. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
T programmable scientific calculator.
vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
E ball point pen.
viii. Hand over your question paper and OMR sheet to the invigilator on completion of
PART-A (80X1=80 Marks)

A 1. All liquid surfaces tend to stretch. This phenomenon is called
I a) Cohesion
b) Adhesion
C c) Surface tension
d) Velocity gradient
T
2. Which of the following fluids can be classified as non-Newtonian?
E
1. Kerosene oil 2. Diesel oil 3. Human blood 4. Toothpaste 5. Water
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 5
d) d) 1 and 5
A
3. The Jet ratio of a Pelton wheel lies between
I a) 3-5
b) 6-10
C c) 11-15
T d) 20-25
E 4. Specific speed of a Kaplan turbine is in the range of

a) 10-25
b) 50-125
c) 150-250
d) 250-850
A
5. If the diameter of a centrifugal pump impeller is doubled but the discharge is to remain
I same, then the head needs to be reduced by
a) 2 times
C b) 4 times
Page 1 of 17
T
E
ROLL NO. UG2MAE30
c) 8 times
d) 16 times
6. Thermal stress developed in a bar depends upon which of the following

a) Young’s modulus
b) Change in temperature,
c) co-efficient of thermal expansion, Change in temperature, Young’s modulus
A d) co-efficient of thermal expansion
I 7. The relation between shear modulus G, Young’s modulus E and Possion’s ratio 𝜐 is
a) G=E / (1+𝜐)
C b) G=E /2𝜐
T c) G=2E /(1+𝜐)
d) G=E /2 (1+𝜐)
E
8. The point of contraflexure in a beam where
a) the shear force is zero
b) both shear force and Bending Moment are zero
c) It is strong
d) the bending moment is zero
A
I 9. If a slenderness ratio of a column is more than 120. It is termed as
a) Short column
C b) Beam
c) Medium column
T d) Long column
E
10. A shell with wall thickness small compared to internal diameter (d/t  20) is called
a) Thin shell
b) Thick shell
c) Moderately thin shell
d) Moderately thick shell
A
11. When coupling two shafts that are offset with respect to one another, we could use the
I a) Universal Coupling
C b) Oldhams Coupling
c) Flange coupling
T d) Muff coupling
E 12. The axial thrust will be minimum in a shaft which carries the following type of gear
a) Helical gear
b) Zerol Bevel gear
c) Worm gear
d) Herring bone gear
A
13. Sensitiveness of a governor is defined as the ratio of
I a) mean speed to range of speed
b) range of speed to mean speed
C c) maximum equilibrium speed to mean speed
Page 2 of 17
T
E
ROLL NO. UG2MAE30
d) minimum equilibrium speed to mean speed
14. In a vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to unity, for all values of
damping factor if the frequency ratio is
a) equal to one
b) less than 1.414
c) greater than 1.414
A d) equal to 1.414
I 15. In an under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the
amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the logarithmic decrement is
C equal to
T a) x1/ x2
b) log( x1/ x2)
E c) loge( x1/ x2)
d) log( x2/ x1)
16. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force along

the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as
a) tractive force
A b) swaying couple
I c) hammer blow
d) whipping force
C
17. A governor is said to be hunting, if the speed of the engine
T a) remains constant at the mean speed
b) is above the mean speed
E
c) is below the mean speed
d) fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed
18. The direction of rotation of a DC motor can be reversed by ____________

a) Changing the supply
A b) Reversing the armature
c) Reversing the field supply
I d) Reversing either field or armature
C 19. The DC machine type used for precision speed control is _________
T a) Shunt
b) Series
E c) Compound
d) Differentially compounded.
20. The armature of a DC machine is laminated in order to reduce _________

a) Eddy current losses
b) Hysteresis losses
A
c) Copper losses
I d) Both eddy current and copper losses
C
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21. In an AC machine, the hysteresis loss depends on _________

a) frequency1.6
b) frequency2
c) frequency
d) frequency0.5
22. A 3-phase induction motor will operate at ____ power factor under no-load conditions.
A a) Unity
b) Leading
I c) Lagging
C
T 23. The motor which has a speed dependent torque is a _____________.
a) Squirrel cage induction
E b) Double cage induction
c) Slip ring induction
d) Hysteresis type
24. In a 3-phase transmission line, when the spacing between the power conductors
increase, the capacitive reactance _______.
A a) Increases
I b) Decreases
c) Does not change
C d) Frequency regulation
T 25. The relay used for protecting the alternator windings is _______.
a) Mho relay
E
b) Differential protection relay
c) Buchholtz relay
d) All the above
26. In power cables, sheaths are used for _______.

A a) Providing insulation
b) Mechanical integrity
I c) Moisture ingress protection.
d) Reduce skin effect
C
T 27. In a power electronics system, a cyclo-converter is used for effecting _______
conversion.
E a) ac-ac
b) ac-dc
c) dc-dc.
d) All the above.
28. According to the industrial standards, 415V ac is categorized in the _________ range.
A
a) Low voltage
I b) Medium voltage
c) High voltage
C d) None of the above.
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29. In marine navigation,_________is used for direction guidance

a) SART
b) Accelerometers
c) Gyroscope
d) Dynamic positioning system
30. The void space between two bulkheads is called_________

A a) Keel.
b) Cofferdam.
I c) Hull.
d) Aft.
C
T 31. The right side of the ship when looking forward is termed as ______.
a) Port
E b) Aft
c) Starboard
d) Forward
32. In specifying gross tonnage of a carrier vessel, 1 ton refers to ______cubic feet of space.
a) 10
A b) 100
I c) 1000
d) 10000
C 33. The water tight volume of a ship above the water line is called ___________.
a) Reserve buoyancy
T b) Submergence buoyancy
c) Carrying capacity
E
d) All the above.
34. The thrusters used for facilitate easier berthing of a vessel inside the port is __________.
a) Forward
b) Azimuthal
A c) Propulsion
d) Bow
I
35. The following motions of a ship are _______ angular in nature.
C a) Surge, sway and heave
T b) Pitch, roll and heading
c) Surge, sway and roll
E d) Sway, surge and yaw
36. The vessel dynamic positioning system which is highly reliable is _______.
a) DP1
b) DP2
c) DP3
A
d) MIL
I
37. In FPSO turret mooring system helps to _______ .
C a) Cruise faster
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b) Stay against the wind and sea currents

c) Weathervane
d) All the above
38. In India, ship design is certified by _______________.

a) Indian Registrar of Shipping
b) Marine Mercantile Department
A c) Shipping Corporation of India
d) Ministry of Trade
I
39. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the volume of air intake is directly related to engine
C a) compression ratio
T b) valve size
c) fuel pressure
E d) cylinder clearance volume
40. Cylinder heads of marine diesel engines are provided with _________ to relieve any
excessive pressure within the combustion chamber
a) Safety valves
b) Indicator cocks
A c) Relief valves
I d) Bursting discs
C 41. In a VIT equipped jerk type fuel pump:

a) Raising the barrel delays beginning of injection
T b) Lowering the barrel delays beginning of injection
c) Raising the barrel delays end of injection
E
d) Lowering the barrel delays end of injection
42. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

a) Speed
b) Temperature
A c) Volume of the cylinder
d) Mean effective pressure and Indicated Power
I
43. Scavenging is usually done to increase
C a) Thermal efficiency
T b) Speed
c) Power Output
E d) Fuel Consumption
44. In case of constant pressure turbo charging, the exhaust of the cylinders goes into:
a) Small diameter exhaust pipes with exhaust grouping
b) Exhaust compensators
c) Nozzles
A
d) Large diameter pipes
I
45. A Diesel engine with full speed rpm of 1000 drives a propeller at 300 rpm, what is speed
C reduction ratio?
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a) 0.3 to 1
b) 3.33 to 1
c) 33 to 1
d) 300 to 1
46. After an engine has been started using a Bendix drive unit, the drive gear, or pinion
disengages from the flywheel due to
A a) the action of a spring
b) rotation of the starting cam
I c) the higher rotating speed of the flywheel
d) accumulator pressure
C
T 47. Leaking valves in a low-pressure side, reciprocating, air compressor can result from
_____
E a) Reduced compressor volumetric efficiency
b) Operating the compressor at higher speed
c) Uneven piston stroke in the compressor
d) Abrasion by dust and dirt
48. Overall length of pairs of rams is reduced in which of the following tiller designs of a
A steering gear arrangement?
I a) Forked tiller design
b) Round arm tiller design
C c) Conventional
T
49. Insert Gas System on board tankers is used during which of the following operations
E
a) Inerting of empty tanks
b) Inerting during crude oil washing
c) Purging before gas freeing
d) All of the above
A 50. The seating material for perfectly sealing type Ball valves is usually made up of
a) Rubber
I b) PTFE or Nylon
c) Rubber reinforced with steel wire
C d) Stainless steel
T
51. Vacuum evaporators onboard are tested for maximum vacuum by
E a) Testing of evaporator shell at maximum temperature
b) Carry out leak test for distillate pp at sea
c) Carry out leak test for vacuum pp and fittings
d) Leak test evaporator shell
52. By which of the following is the attached vacuum pump of a ballast pump is driven?
A
a) Electrical motor
I b) Hydraulic motor
c) Pump driven clutch
C d) D. All the above
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53. Less vacuum in centrifugal pump

a) Leaky discharge value
b) Loss of gland packing
c) Loss of fluid from suction take place
d) Long suction pipe
A 54. Tube in air compressors, self-compensating for expansion

a) Straight line tube
I b) U tube
c) Coil tube
C d) Floating tube
T
55. Deep well cargo pump is used in
E a) Chemical tanker
b) Product carrier
c) LNG
d) All the above
56. Detergents are added to lubricating oils to

A a) Reduce viscosity
I b) Prevent foaming
c) Reduce viscosity
C d) Increase fire point
T 57. Which controls flow of coolant through a cooling system

a) Radiator
E
b) Motor
c) Pump
d) Thermostat
58. To start a marine engine usually _____ is used

A a) Choke
b) Flywheel
I c) Compressed air
d) Gasoline
C
T 59. Rateau steam turbine is
a) Velocity compounded impulse type
E b) Pressure compounded impulse type
c) Pressure velocity compounded steam turbine
d) Reaction steam turbine
60. The function of a flywheel is

a) Used to limit the inevitable fluctuation of speed during each cycle
A
b) Controls the mean speed of rotation
I c) Stores up energy and gives up whenever required
d) Regulates the speed during one cycle of a prime mover
C
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61. Which of the following is not a part of exhaust system?

a) Muffler
b) Catalytic converter
c) Resonator
d) Glow plug
62. Reducing coupler is used to connect

A a) Two pipes of equal diameter
b) Two pipes of different diameter
I c) Two pipes of equal diameter at 90 degrees
d) A pipe and a dummy of same size
C
T 63. Crankcase ventilation is provided
a) To cool the cylinder
E b) To cool piston
c) To cool crankcase
d) To remove blowby
64. EOT stands for

a) Engine Oil Trailer
A b) Electrical Open Trailer
I c) Energy Optimised Truck
d) Electrically operated Overhead Travelling
C
65. Bearing characteristic number is defined by
T a) Z / P.N
b) Z . N / P
E
c) Z . P/ N
d) Z . N / P
66. Life of a roller bearing is

a) Is inversely proportional to its radial load F
A b) Is inversely proportional to kth power of its radial load F
c) Is directly proportional to kth power of its radial load F
I d) Is directly proportional to the cube of its radial load F
C 67. In a marine diesel engine to minimise knocking
T a) Compression ratio should be smaller
b) Compression ratio should be higher
E c) Ignition delay should be minimum
d) Both b) and c)
68. Modern day IC engines have multiple inlet and exhaust valves because
a) Multi-valves increase thermal efficiency
b) Multi-valve reduces wear and tear
A
c) Use of multi-valves facilitates easy location of spark plug
I d) Multi-valves reduce flow resistance and improve volumetric efficiency
C
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69. 1 nautical mile equals_________ km.
a) 1.652
b) 1.752.
c) 1.852.
d) 1.952.
A 70. System which allows the anchor to be raised or lowered by means of a chain cable is
____
I a) Windlass
b) Crane
C c) Engine
T d) Derrick.
E 71. ______is used by the seamen for hauling ropes during lashing of the ships to the berth.
a) Thrusters
b) Capstan
c) Derrick
d) Deck crane
A 72. A distress message is transmitted using VHF in the frequency ______ .
I a) 156.8 GHz
b) 156.8 MHz
C c) 156.8 kHz
d) 156.8 Hz
T
73. When the Greenwich mean time (GMT) is 6 am, the time in India will be______ .
E
a) 10.30 am
b) 11.30 am
c) 10.30 pm
d) 11.30 pm
A 74. The morning star referenced for marine navigation is ______.

a) Mars
I b) Neptune
c) Pluto
C d) Polaris.
T
75. In a berthed ship rat guard is fixed _______.
E a) On the aft of the vessel
b) Parallel to the deck
c) On the mooring line
d) Pantry room
A 76. ___________ is the device used for locating a survival craft or a vessel which is in
I distress)
a) SART
C b) EPIRB
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c) VHF transmitter
d) Radio telephone
77. The mechanism used to release the life raft container from the ship is ______ .
a) Capstan
b) Remotely Operated Vehicle
c) Hydraulic release unit
A d) Thrust pad
I 78. Recently introduced AIS is used for ___________for/of a ship.

a) Providing route guidance
C b) Providing weather status and operational clearance
T c) Identifying the location and navigational statistics
d) All the above
E
79. A typical ring-type life buoy has a buoyancy of ___N .
a) 2.5
b) 10.
c) 25
A d) 50
I
80. The bill of lading is given by the master of the ship to _________
C a) IRS surveyor
b) Ship owner
T c) Port.
d) Person owning the goods
E
PART-B (40x2 = 80 Marks)
81. A pitot-static tube is used to measure the velocity of water in the pipe centre. The static
and total pressures are 6 mm and 7.5 m respectively. If co-efficient of Pitot tube as 0.98
A then the flow velocity will be _____ m/s
a) 2.32
I b) 3.32
c) 4.32
C d) 5.32
T
82. A 25 mm diameter water jet exerts a force of 450 N in the direction of flow against a flat
E plate which is held inclined at an angle of 30o to the axis of stream. The calculations
shows the flow rate of water in terms of m3/s is
a) 0.0197
b) 0.0297
c) 0.0179
d) 0.0279
A
I 83. A tensile or compressive force (F) acts on a bar of cross-section, A and length, l and the
Young’s modulus of the material, E. The deformation in the bar is
C a) AE/Pl
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b) Pl/AE
c) PE/Al
d) PA/lE
84. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit run over
the whole span, the maximum Bending Moment is equal to
a) wl3/8
A b) wl2/6
c) wl2/8
I d) wl2/4
C 85. In thick cylinders the variation in the radial as well as circumferential stress across the
T thickness is obtained with the help of
a) Clapeyron’s theorem
E b) Lame’s theorem
c) Varignon’s theorem
d) Castigliano’s theorem
86. The deflection at the free end of a cantilever of length l carrying a point load W at its free
end is given as
A a) Wl/2EI
I b) Wl2/2EI
c) Wl3/3EI
C d) Wl3/2EI
T 87. The number of teeth on each of two equal spur gears in mesh is 40. The teeth have 20°
involute profile and the module is 6 mm. Then the circular pitch is given by
E
a) 240mm
b) 120mm
c) 125.67mm
d) 18.85mm
A 88. The maximum value of ‘a’ in a crank-rocker mechanism abcd with ‘a’ as input, b = 2cm,
c=1.5 cm , d =1.25 cm
I a) 0.75 cm
b) 0.7 cm
C c) 2.5 cm
T d) 0.8 cm
E 89. The torsional stiffness of a shaft is given by

a) EI
l3
b) 2m
c) EA
A l
d) GJ
I
l
C
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90. A helical spring having 2n turns is of stiffness k. If the spring is cut into two halves each
of n turns, the resulting stiffness of each spring is
a) equal to k
b) 2k
c) 1/k
d) equal to k/2
A 91. When a 4 pole DC generator with 1000 conductors and flux/pole of 10 milliweber
operates at 1000rpm, then the voltage generated is _________.
I a) 166.7V
b) 186.5V.
C c) 415V.
T d) None of the above
E 92. A 3 phase 4 pole 50Hz induction motor runs at 1460 rpm. The % slip is _______.
a) 1.7
b) 5.
c) 2.7
d) 13.3
A 93. Alternators should be synchronized essentially when thier _________.
I a) Terminal voltage, frequency and phase sequences are same
b) RMS voltages are same.
C c) Power factor is same
d) All the above.
T
94. In a star connected alternator winding the following applies_________.
E
a) Line voltage is always greater than 6.6 kV.
b) Line voltage = Phase voltage
c) Line voltage= Phase voltage /1.732
d) Phase voltage = Line voltage /1.732
A 95. In vessel dynamic positioning systems, DP__ configuration is highly reliable and has
______ redundancy in the control systems.
I a) 2, double
b) 3, triple.
C c) 1, triple
T d) 3, multilevel.
E 96. The roll period of a ship is _______.

a) Inversely proportional to the square root of the metacentric height
b) Directly proportional to the square root of the metacentric height
c) Inversely proportional to the metacentric height
d) Directly proportional to the cube root of the metacentric height
A
97. For a keel angle of 30º , and a distance of 2m between the centre of gravity and center of
I gravity, the righting arm equals _______.
a) 2 m
C b) 0.5 m.
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c) 1 m
d) 0.25 m.
98. The maximum moulded breadth of the ship measured at the ____ is ______.
a) Midship, flange
b) Aft, moulded beam.
c) Forward, moulded flange
A d) Midship, moulded beam.
I 99. The water pressure experienced by a shut valve located 5 m below water is ___bar.
a) 5
C b) 50
T c) No pressure will be felt.
d) 0.5
E
100. A turbo-charged four stroke direct injection diesel engine has a displacement volume of
0.0259 m3. The engine has an output of 950 kW at 2200 rpm. The mean effective
pressurein(MPa)is
a) 2
b) 1
A c) 0.2
I d) 0.1
C 101. A six cylinder, four-stroke diesel engine develops 125 kW at 3000 rpm. Its brake specific
fuel consumption is 200gm/kW h. Calculate the quantity of fuel to be injected per cycle
T per cylinder. Specific gravity of the fuel may be taken as 0.85.
a) 0.0545 cc/cycle
E
b) 0.545 cc/ cycle
c) 5.45 cc/cycle
d)4.55 cc/cycle
A 102. A four stroke, four-cylinder diesel engine develops 100 kW at 3500 rpm. Its brake
specific fuel consumption is 180 g/kWh. Specific gravity of the fuel is 0.88. Calculate the
I quantity of fuel injected per cycle per cylinder in CC
a) 0.0487
C b) 0.0287
T c) 0.0786
d) D. 0.0243
E
103. If the delivery ratio is 1.8, the excess air factor in the case of a two stroke engine is
a) 0.8
b) 0.9
c) 1.8
d) 1.0
A
I 104. In case of constant pressure turbo charging, the exhaust of the cylinders goes into:
a) Small diameter exhaust pipes with exhaust grouping
C b) Exhaust compensators
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c) Nozzles
d) Large diameter pipes
105. A Positive displacement pump having volumetric efficiency of 90% and if it deals
theoretical discharge of 0.08 m3 / S, the actual discharge in m3 / S will be
a) 0.042
b) 0.052
A c) 0.062
d) 0.072
I
106. A pump handling a liquid raises its pressure from 1 bar to 30 bar. Take the density of the
C liquid as 990 kg /m3. The isentropic specific work done by the pump in kJ/kg is
T a) 0.10
b) 0.30
E c) 2.50
d) 2.93
107. The cylinders and intercoolers of most high pressure reciprocating air compressors are
cooled by__
a) Water
A b) Oil
I c) Air
d) CO2
C
108. Most steam traps respond well to cleaning. But when a thermodynamic trap fails to
T operate after cleaning, the next course of action should be:
a) Throttle the steam outlet
E
b) Throttle the steam inlet
c) Lap the disc & seat of the trap
d) Bypass the trap
109. Fixed vane type emergency fire pump priming vacuum pump. After one-week fire pump
A not taking suction. The vacuum pump is engaging, but not developing vacuum in the
suction side. What will be the cause?
I a) Suction filter is clogged
b) Suction filter cover is leaky
C c) Vacuum pump not overhauled properly
T d) All the above
E 110. In reverse osmosis type freshwater generator plants, pretreatment of the feed water is
done to:
a) Soften the feed water
b) Sterilize the feed water
c) To facilitate wash through of salt deposits on the elements
d) Add necessary mineral to water
A
I 111. Piston rod is _______ to the piston
a) Riveted
C b) Welded
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c) Bolted
d) Screwed
112. The provides a seal between the two spaces, stopping oil from being carried up to the
scavenge space in a two stroke marine engine
a) Piston
b) Cross head
A c) Connecting rod
d) Stuffing box
I
113. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter shaft is
C a)10 microns
T b) 1 micron
c) 0.1 micron
E d) 100 microns
114. Two stroke engines with an exhaust valve mounted in the cylinder head are known as
_______ scavenged engines
a) Cross flow
b) Direct
A c) Uniflow
I d) Loop
C 115. The _____ is used to change direction in marine propulsion

a) Gearing
T b) Gyroscope
c) Compass
E
d) Rudder
116. Connecting rod bearings are made up of

a) Nickel
b) Steel
A c) Chromium
d) Babbit
I
117. According to American Bureau of Shipping (ABS), ice class vessels category ___ is
C highly rugged and reliable.
T a) D5
b) B5
E c) C5
d) A5
118. Distressed vessels burn _____ flare, and release ____smoke from canister, for ease of
locating them.
a) Red, orange
A
b) Red, Yellow
I c) Black, Green
d) Red, Blue.
C
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119. In a ship the thruster which has replaced the function of a rudder is ____.
a) Tunnel
b) Bow
c) Azimuth
120. The testing used for identifying the voids in the welded section is ____.
A a) Electrical dielectric
b) Dye penetrant
I c) Hydraulic pressure test
d) Ultrasonic
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
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UG MARINE ENGINEERING
Code 30-Paper 2
1 C 31 C 61 D 91 A
2 B 32 B 62 B 92 C
3 C 33 A 63 D 93 A
4 D 34 D 64 D 94 D
5 D 35 B 65 B 95 B
6 C 36 C 66 B 96 A
7 D 37 C 67 D 97 C
8 D 38 A 68 D 98 D
9 D 39 B 69 C 99 D
10 A 40 C 70 A 100 B
11 B 41 A 71 B 101 A
12 D 42 D 72 B 102 A
13 B 43 C 73 B 103 A
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 Marks to all
15 C 45 B 75 C 105 D
16 C 46 C 76 A 106 D
17 D 47 A 77 C 107 A
18 D 48 A 78 C 108 C
19 A 49 A 79 A 109 D
20 A 50 B 80 D 110 C
21 C 51 D 81 Marks to all 111 C
22 C 52 C 82 D 112 D
23 B 53 B 83 B 113 B
24 A 54 B 84 C 114 C
25 B 55 C 85 B 115 D
26 C 56 B 86 C 116 D
27 A 57 C 87 D 117 D
28 A 58 C, D 88 A 118 A
29 C 59 B 89 D 119 C
30 B 60 B, C 90 B 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
METALLURGY ENGINEERING/METALLURGY & MATERIAL SCIENCE
A PAPER-I
I Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total 120
questions.
wrong answer.
A 1. Vacancy in a metal crystal lattice occurs due to

(a) imperfect packing during the original crystallization.
I (b) thermal vibrations of atoms at elevated temperature.
C (c) both (a) &(b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).
T
E 2. Dislocation is a line defect in a crystal structure and is intimately connected with the
phenomenon of
(a) slip.
(b) strain hardening & creep.
(c) fatigue & brittle fracture.
A (d) all (a), (b) &(c).
I
3. Dislocations rise in a crystal as a result of
C (a) thermal stresses and external stresses causing plastic flow.
T (b) phase transformations
(c) segregation of solute atoms causing mismatches
E (d) all (a), (b) & (c)
4. Substitutional solid solution forms, when the

(a) solute atoms are very small compared to solvent atoms.
(b) solute & solvent atoms possess almost equal diameters.
(c) solvent atoms are very small compared to solute atoms.
(d) none of these.
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5. The line/surface in an equilibrium diagram, which indicates the temperature of the

beginning of solidification or completion of melting is called the ……. temperature
(a) solidus
(b) liquidus
A (c) solidification
(d) melting
I
6. Which of the following is a structural constituent of an alloy?
C
(a) Eutectic
T (b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
E
(d) Bainite
7. Which one involves a solid-solid transformation?

(a) Eutectic
A (b) Peritectic
(c) Eutectoid
I (d) None of these
C 8. Which one has body centered cubic (bcc) lattice of crystals?
T (a) Na
(b) Zn
E (c) Ag
(d) Pb
9. Allotropic forms of metals have the same
(a) physical properties
A
(b) crystal structure
I (c) both (a) &(b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
C
T 10. The major amount of hematite ore found in ……………….
(a) Jharkhand
E (b) Meghalaya
(c) Gao
(d) Madya Pradesh
11. Which of the following is lowest ranked coal?
A (a) Anthracite
I (b) Enargite
(c) Lignite
C (d) Covellite
T
12. % of Moisture present in the sample can be obtained from the equation…………..
E D−A
(a) % of moisture= D×D ×100
D−A
(b) % of moisture= ×100
D
D−A
(c) % of moisture= ×100
A
D−A
(d) % of moisture= A×A ×100
Where D-Wet weight of the sample (g), A-Dry weight of the sample (g)
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13. Gyratory crusher is an example for ……………..

(a) Primary crusher
(b) Secondary crusher
(c) Tertiary crusher
A (d) Special crusher
I 14. Tumbling mills are typically employed in the mineral industry for ………………..
C (a) Only fine grinding
(b) Only coarse grinding
T (c) Both fine and ultra-fine grinding
E (d) Both fine and coarse grinding
15. The main purpose of screening equipment in mineral industry is …………….

(a) Only sizing
(b) Grading and scalping
A (c) Media recovery and Dewatering
I (d) All the above
C 16. Stokes' law is valid for particles below about ………… in diameter.
T (a) 50µm
(b) 60µm
E (c) 70µm
(d) 80µm
17. Depending on the direction of flow of the carrying current, classifiers may be grouped
A into ……. broad classes.
(a) 3
I (b) 2
C (c) 4
T
E 18. Which of the following comes under Horizontal current classifier?
(a) Rake classifier
(b) Spiral classifier
(c) Settling cones
A
I 19. In Jig, separation of minerals takes place based on the …………… of the minerals.
(a) Specific gravity difference
C (b) viscosity difference
T (c) drag force
(d) Turbulence
E
20. One of the oldest types of jig is the ……………
(a) Inline pressure Jig
(b) Harz Jig
(c) Denver mineral Jig
(d) IHC modular radial Jig
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21. In Shaking table concentrator, flowing film depends on …………….

(a) Size
(b) Density
A (c) Both (a) and (b)
I
C 22. First law of thermodynamics is mathematically stated as
(a) dQ = dE + dW
T (b) dQ = dE-dW
E (c) dE = dQ + dW
(d) dW = dE + dQ
23. Enthalpy H is defined as

(a) H=E-PV
A (b) H = E-TS
I (b) H-E=PV
(d) none of these
C
T 24. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy change ΔH of the system is
(a) CV .dT
E (b) CP .dT
(c ) ∫CV . dT
(d) ∫ CP .dT
A 25. Equation which relates pressure, volume and temperature of a gas is called
(a) equation of state
I (b) Gibbs-Duhem equation
C (c) ideal gas equation
(d) none of these
T
E 26. The number of phases (P), number of components (C) and the number of degrees of
freedom ( F) are related by Gibbs phase rule as
(a) P + F -C =2
(b) C= P – F + 2
(c) F = C – P - 2
A (d) P = F – C -2
I
27. Absolute entropy of all crystalline substances at absolute zero temperature is
C (a) negative
T (b) zero
(c) more than zero
E (d) cannot be determined
28. For spontaneous change in an isolated system, the change in entropy is

(a) dS = 0
(b) dS< 0
(c) dS> 0
(d) dSis constant
Page 4 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
29. Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as

(a) G = E – T S
(b) G = H – T S
(c) G = H + T S
A (d) G = E + T S
I 30. The necessary condition for phase equilibrium in multi-component system of N
C components is
(a) chemical potential of a given component should be same in all phases
T (b) chemical potential of all components should be same in a given phase
E (c) sum of chemical potentials of any given components should be same in all phases
(d) none of these
31. The temperature dependency of reaction rate constant (K) by Arrhenius Law is
𝐐
A (a) K α 𝐞− 𝐑𝐓
𝐐
(b) K α 𝐞 𝐑𝐓
I
– 𝐓 𝐐𝐑
(c) K α 𝐞
C 𝐐𝐑
(d) K α 𝐞– 𝐓
T
E 32. The formula to calculate the kinematic viscosity is ……
(a) ηρ
(b) ρ/η
(c) η/ρ
(d) η2/ρ
A
I 33. One given under is not used as a desulphurizing agent …..
C (a) CaC2
(b) Al2O3
T
(c) Mg
E (d) CaO
34. The induction time in a coke oven is ……

(a) 11 hours
(b) 13 hours
A (c) 15 hours
I (d) 17 hours
C 35. The reduction reaction of hematite is ….

(a) 3Fe2O3 + CO = 2Fe3O4 + CO2
T
(b) Fe3O4 + CO = 3FeO + CO2
E (c) FeO + CO = Fe + CO2
36. Einstein’s equation for the mobility B of a particle under the influence of an external
force is …..
(a) B = DκβT
(b) B = D/κβT
(c) B = D/κβT2
(d) B = D2/κβT
Page 5 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
37. The expression for viscosity in terms of activation energy is …..

(a) η = A exp [RT/ΔG‡vis]
(b) η = A exp [RΔG‡vis/T]
(c) η = A exp [TΔG‡vis/R]
A (d) η = A exp [ΔG‡vis/RT]
I 38. In silica crystal, two Al3+ ions can replace two Si4+ ions if one - ion is available to
C maintain electrical neutrality …..
(a) Ca2+
T (b)Na+
E (c) B3+
(d)Pb4+
39. In a molten slag, with respect to its viscosiy, MgO is equivalent to CaO, up to about -
mole percent MgO ….
A (a) 40
(b) 30
I (c) 20
C (d) 10
T 40. According to Newton's law of viscosity the shear stress plotted versus the velocity
gradient should yield a
E
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) sine curve
A
41. Dilatant fluids differ from pseudo-plastics in that the τyxversus γ curve has
I (a) a decreasing slope as stress increases
C (b) an increasing slope as stress increases
(c) a constant slope
T (d) none of the above
E
42. Thixotropic fluids have a structure that ……… with time under shear
(a) breaks down
(b) does not change
(c) reforms
A (d) extends
I 43. For a diffusion controlled system, radius of a precipitate increases ----------time
C (a) Linearly
(b) as square root of
T (c) Square of
E (d) exponentially with
44. In Fe-Fe3C system, the eutectoid product is mixture of ….

(a) Ferrite + cementite
(b) Ferrite + Austenite
(c) Liquid + ferrite
(d) cementite + austenite
Page 6 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
45. Annealing of steels is used for getting a ……………. Steel

(a) Soft
(b) strong
(c) weak
A (d) surface hardened
I 46. Addition of ferrite stabilizers (like chromium, vanadium) to steel----- eutectoid
C transformation temperature
(a) Increases
T (b) decreases
E (c) can increase or decrease based on other elements
(d) has no effect on
47. Fracture surface of a freshly fractured white cast iron will appear as….
(a) White
A (b) black
I (c) Black and white
(d) dull
C
T 48. Bridgeman technique is an example for ----------
(a) Rapid solidification
E (b) slow directional solidification
(c) Rapid directional solidification
(d) metal forming technique
A 49. Equilibrium freezing means …..

(a) Very slow cooling
I (b) rapid cooling
C (c) Independent of cooling rate
(d) all three
T
E 50. Case depth in flame hardening is generally in the range of -----
(a) 0.1 mm to 0.5 mm
(b) 1 mm to 5 mm
(c) 0.1 μm to 5 μm
(d) 1 cm to 3 cm
A
I 51. Which of the following method is suitable to harden selected locations in a non-circular
component?
C (a) Nitriding
T (b) Ageing treatment
(c) Quenching
E (d) Laser beam hardening
52. Amongst following heat treatments, which one will produce maximum hardness?
(a) Quenching of 0.8 wt% C steel
(b) Quenching and tempering of 0.8 wt% C steel
(c) Boronizing of 0.8 wt%C steel
(d) Normalizing of 0.8 wt % C steel
Page 7 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
53. With respect to metallic materials, release of internally stored energy during heating is
called as …..
(a) Recovery
(b) recrystallization
A (c) grain growth
(d) stress relieving
I
C 54. Extraction of metal from ore is a process of
(a) Continuous Cleaning process
T (b) Making impure to pure using science and technology
E (c) both (a) & (b) are true
(d) None
55. Pyrometallurgy technique is widely used for bulk production due to

(a) Accelerated temperature provide high production of metal
A (b) Restrict use of inexpensive reducing agents
I (c) Only (a) is true and (b) is wrong
(d) Both (a) and (b) are true
C
T 56. What is a unit step in extraction?
(a) It is unit operation
E (b) It is unit process
(c) It is combination of both (a) and (b)
(d) Only (a) but not (b)
A 57. Example of solid-state processing in extractive metallurgy

(a) Calcination
I (b) Roasting
C (c) Smelting
(d) Only (a) and (b)
T
E 58. Which is fast roasting process?
(a) Blast Roasting
(b) Hearth roasting
(c) Sinter Roasting
(d) None All
A
I 59. Hydrometallurgy process is suitable for extraction of:
(a) Poor mineral
C (b) Rich mineral
T (c) Both Rich and poor minerals
(d) None
E
60. Presence of Microbes in leaching process work as
(a) Biological catalyst and enhance rate of oxidation reactions
(b) Chemical catalyst and enhance rate of reduction reactions but depends type of
microbes
(c) Only (a) but not (b)
(d) none
Page 8 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
61. The viscosity of a slag formation

(a) Decreases exponentially with increase of temperature
(b) Increases exponentially with increase of temperature
(c) decreases linearly with increase of temperature
A (d) Increases linearly with increase of temperature
I 62. Ultra refinement process technique
C (a) Zone refining
(b) electro-transport and
T (c) iodide decomposition
E (d) all
63. Magnetite, Fe3O4 is a

(a) ferrimagnetic
(b) ferromagnetic
A (c) anti ferromagnetic
I (d) diamagnetic materials.
C 64. Light emitting diode is a
T (a) metal-semiconductor contact
(b) p-n junction diode
E (c) field effect transistor
(d) metal-insulator contact.
65. Superconductor during operation, it is by nature

A (a) paramagnetic
(b) ferromagnetic
I (c) diamagnetic
C (d) ferrimagnetic.
T 66. Permanent magnets are made of
E (a) hard magnetic materials
(b) soft magnetic materials
(c) semi conductors
(d) super conductors
A 67. Operation of an MOSFET is based on
I (a) p-n junction
(b) metal-oxide-semiconductor
C (c) metal-semiconductor contact
T (d) super conductor.
E 68. Ceramics are good
(a) Superconductors
(b) conductors
(c) insulators
(d) semiconductors.
Page 9 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
69. Ionic polarization

(a) decreases with temp
(b) increases with temp
(c) may increase or decrease with temp
A (d) is independent of temp.
I 70. In a dielectric, which kind of polarizations observed at lowest frequency (<100 Hz)
C (a) electronics
(b) ionic
T (c) orientation
E (d) space charge.
A 71. One amu of a material weighs

I (a) 1.66 x 10-24 g
(b) 1.76 x 10-24 g
C (b) 1.86 x 10-24 g
T (c) 1.96 x 10-24 g
E 72. The radius of a palladium atom (FCC crystal structure, density = 12 g/cm3, and atomic
weight = 106.4 g/mol) is
(a) 0.148 nm
(b) 0.138 nm
A (c) 0.128 nm
(d) 0.118 nm
I
C 73. Indium has a tetragonal unit cell for which the a and c lattice parameters are 0.459 and
0.495 nm, respectively. If the atomic packing factor and atomic radius are 0.693 and
T 0.1625 nm, respectively, the number of atoms in each unit cell is
E (a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
A 74. The atomic packing factor for the rock salt crystal structure in which rC/rA = 0.414 is
I (a) 0.79
(b) 0.69
C (c) 0.59
T (d) 0.49
E 75. Iron oxide (FeO) has the rock salt crystal structure and a density of 5.7 g/cm3. Its unit
cell edge length is
(a) 0.437 nm
(b) 0.427 nm
(c) 0.417 nm
(d) 0.407 nm
Page 10 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
76. In Dense Medium Separation, in order to produce a stable suspension of sufficiently high
density, with a reasonably low viscosity, it is necessary to use ……
(a) Fine, high specific gravity solid particles
(b) Coarse, high specific gravity solid particles
A (c) Coarse, low specific gravity solid particles
(d) Fine, low specific gravity solid particles
I
C 77. Flotation is a …………….
(a) Wet chemical analysis
T (b) Physico-chemical separation process
E (c) Magnetic separation process
(d) Heavy medium separation process
78. In flotation concentration, if the gangue is transferred to the froth, or float fraction,
leaving the valuable mineral in the pulp or tailings is known as ……………..
A (a) Direct flotation
I (b) Aggregation
(c) Reverse flotation
C (d) Stages of flotation
T
79. In Froth flotation process, Hydrophobicity has to be imparted to most minerals in order
E to float them. In order to achieve this, ……………….areadded to the pulp.
(a) Collectors
(b) Reagents
(c) Frothers
A (d) Regulators
I 80. Which of the following is considered as pre-concentration step in the beneficiation
C flowchart of iron ore (lumpy as well as fines)?
(a) High intensity magnetic separation
T (b) Agglomeration
E (c) Flotation
(d) Screening
81. If heat contents of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are -17.9, 12.5 and -24.8 kcal/mol respectively,
then ΔH for the reaction,
A CH4 (g) + C2H4 (g) ↔ C3H8 (g)is
I (a) -19.4 kcal
(b) -30.2 kcal
C (c) -55.2 kcal
T (d) +19.4 kcal
E 82. If the pressure on100 c.c. of air is halved, then its volume (at the same temperature)
will be
(a) 100 c.c.
(b) 50 c.c.
(c) 250 c.c.
(d) 200 c.c.
Page 11 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
83. The enthalpy of NiO at 1707 ℃ is

ΔHo298, <NiO>= -240.6 kJ/mol ,Cp, NiO= 54.01 J / K /mol
(a) – 149.7 kJ/mol
(b) – 4.45 kJ/mol
A (b) – 240.6 kJ/mol
(d) -186.59 kJ/mol
I
C 84. ΔGofor reaction, ZrO2 = Zr + O2is ΔGo= 1,087,589 + 18.12 T log T – 247.36 T J
The equilibrium constant for the reactionat1727℃ is
T (a) 2.455 x 1019
E (b) – 18.61
(c) zero
(d) 2.455 x 10-19
85. The latent heat of fusion of ice is ΔH =6.02 kJ/mol. The increase in entropy when one
A mole of ice melts into water at 0℃ is
I (a) 0 J / K / mol
(b) 1643.46 J / K / mol
C (c) 22.04 J /K / mol
T (d) none of these
E 86. Brass contains 70 wt% of copper and rest zinc. The atomic weights of copper and zinc
are 63.54 and 65.38 respectively. The amount of copper in atom% is ,
(a) 44.478
(b) 70.62
A (c) 49.28
(d) insufficient data to calculate
I
C 87. In an induction furnace, the force [(F = 0.0045 x (1.1 x 10-3)2 x 109 /2.5) N] exerted by a
moving aluminium on both sides of a steel flag held in a vertical position is given by
T (a) 2.08
E (b) 2.18 N
(c) 2.28 N
(d) 2.38 N
88. The pressure drop [ΔP = (1.23 x 8100Vo2 L/0.393){(4.2/2.13) + 0.292} N m-2], prior to
A ignition, across a bed of sinter 0.305 m deep for air flowing at 289 K and Vo = 0.25 m s-1
I is
(a) 7.05 x 103 N m-2
C (b) 7.15 x 103 N m-2
T (c) 7.25 x 103 N m-2
(d) 7.35 x 103 N m-2
E
89. The U3O8 is fed into a fluidized bed of Al2O3 particles fluidized with N2 at 750 K to
which a small amount of F2 has been added. The size [Dp = 1.5 {3 x (3.4 x 10-5)2/((4 x
9.8 x 0.48)(8300 - 0.48))}1/3m] of the U3O8 particles staying in the bed is
(a) 4.2 x 10-5 m
(b) 4.3 x 10-5 m
(c) 4.4 x 10-5 m
(d) 4.5 x 10-5 m
Page 12 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
90. A pitot tube is installed with its impact opening along the centerline of a long pipe with
an inside diameter of 300 mm. Air at 339 K and gauge pressure of 8.27 x 104 N m-2
passes through the pipe; the barometric pressure is 9.93 x 104 N m-2. Therefore, the
absolute pressure in the pipe is
A (a) 1.52 x 105 N m-2
(b) 1.62 x 105 N m-2
I (c) 1.72 x 105 N m-2
C (d) 1.82 x 105 N m-2
T 91. Air at 1 atm (1.013 x 105 N m-2) and 290 K flows parallel to a plate’s surface at 15 m s-1.
E The plate, 0.3 m long, is at 360 K. Assuming laminar flow along the entire length, the
thicknesses of the velocity and thermal boundary layers 0.15 m from the leading edge of
the plate (δ = 5x/√(15x/18.4 x 10-6) are
(a) 2.35 mm
(b) 2.25 mm
A (c) 2.15 mm
I (d) 2.05 mm
C
92. A diffusion experiment is done at 400 C on an aluminium alloy for 40 minutes. The
T diffusion length scale is 1 micrometer. Suppose diffusion length scale is to be increased
to 2 micrometers, what should be the new time, at same temperature?
E a) 80 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 160 minutes
A
93. On microstructural examination a plain carbon steel consists of 75 % ferrite and 25 %
I ferrite. Then the steel is likely to have a carbon percentage ----
C a) 0.2 wt% C
b) 0.25 wt% C
T c) 0.75 wt% C
E d) 0.25wt% C.
94. For an eutectoid steel, nose of a TTT curve will appear at 550 C and time…
a) 2 minutes
b) 10 seconds
A
c) 100 seconds
I d) 2 seconds
C
95. Al-4 wt% Cu alloy is subjected to ageing treatment at 175 C. As a function of time,
T which of the following strengthening mechanism will be active?
a) Dispersion strengthening-grain size strengthening- precipitate strengthening
E
b) Solid solution strengthening- Coherence particle strengthening-dispersion
strengthening
c) Coherent particle strengthening-solid solution strengthening- grain size strengthening
Page 13 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
96. Suppose an operator is using ASTM grain size measuring technique. If he reports ASTM
grain size number as 6, how many grains per square inch at 100 x will be observed?
a) 32
b) 16
A c) 64
d) 6
I
C 97. What is true for copper Matte which is obtained from smelting operation?
(a) High electrical connectivity as compared to metal
T (b) Density of matte is between the density of metal and density of slag
E (c) It is a copper foam
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
98. What is diffusion separation process?

(a) Separation take place by movement of individual atomic diffusion
A (b) Separation take place by movement of individual molecular diffusion
I (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
C
T 99. Hall effect may be used for which of the following?
(a) determining whether the semiconductor is p or n type
E (b) determining the carrier concentration
(c) calculating the mobility
(d) All of these.
A 100. Ferrites are

(a) ferromagnetic material
I (b) ferrimagnetic materials
C (c) anti ferromagnetic material
(d) diamagnetic materials.
T
E
PART –C
A
I 𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable
C
T 102. Which one is not true?
Page 14 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) 3 (c) (d)3
3 2
A
C
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
T (c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
E 𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0


E
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
A 𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
I 2 4
3
C 𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦 4
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
T
E (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3
A
I (a) 1/32 (b)2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
C 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
T
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
Page 15 of 16
ROLL NO.: UG1MMS31
2 𝑥2
A
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
I 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
C
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
T (c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
A
I
1
C (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
8
T (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥
E 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7

A
of n is
C
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
T
eigenvalue is
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
A
I
C (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
T (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
E 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
Page 16 of 16
UG METALLURGY ENGINEERING / METALLURGY & MATERIAL SCIENCE
Code 31-Paper 1
1 C 31 A 61 A 91 C
2 D 32 C 62 D 92 D
3 D 33 B 63 A 93 Marks to all
4 B 34 D 64 B 94 D
5 B 35 A 65 C 95 B
6 Marks to all 36 B 66 A 96 A
7 C 37 D 67 B 97 C
8 A 38 A 68 C 98 C
9 D 39 D 69 D 99 D
10 A 40 A 70 D 100 B
11 C 41 B 71 A 101 A
12 B 42 A 72 B 102 C
13 A 43 B 73 D 103 A
14 B 44 A 74 A 104 D
15 D 45 A 75 A 105 D
16 A 46 A 76 A 106 A
17 B 47 A 77 B 107 A
18 D 48 B 78 C 108 B
19 A 49 A 79 A 109 D
20 B 50 B 80 A 110 B
21 C 51 D 81 A 111 D
22 A 52 C 82 D 112 B
23 B 53 A 83 A 113 B
24 D 54 C 84 D 114 B
25 A 55 D 85 C 115 B
26 A 56 C 86 B 116 C
27 B 57 D 87 B 117 B
28 C 58 A 88 C 118 C
29 B 59 C 89 A 119 B
30 A 60 A, C 90 D 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
METALLURGY ENGINEERING/METALLURGY & MATERIAL SCIENCE
A PAPER-II
I
C Instructions:
T ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
wrong answer.
T examination before leaving the examination hall.
E
1. When load is applied to a material, instantaneous strain develops with

A
(a) The speed of light (b) Half the speed of light
I
(c) The speed of sound (d) Infinite speed
C
2. Super alloys are
T
E (a) Al-based (b) Cu-based (c) Ni-based (d) Mg-based
3. In a tensile test of a ductile material, necking starts at
(a) Lower yield point (b) Upper yield point

A
(c) Ultimate tensile stress (d) Just before fracture
I
4. Loading in mode 1 fracture refers to
C
T (a) Opening mode (b) Sliding mode (c) Tearing mode (d) Twisting mode
E
5. The indenter used ina Vicker’s hardness test is
(a) 10 mm diameter steel ball

(b) 1200 diamond cone with a slightly rounded point
(c) 3.2 mn diameter steel ball
(d) Square base diamond pyramid (included angle 1360 between opposite faces)
Page 1 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
6. Hydrogen embrittled steel samples can exhibit

(a) Only cleavage fracture
(b) Cleavage, dimple and intergranular fracture
(c) Both cleavage and dimple fracture
A (d) Only intergranular fracture
I
7. X-ray radiography is used to determine is –
C
(a) soundness of casting (b) chemical composition
T (b) crystal structure (d) phase present
E
8. The yield point phenomena observed in annealed low carbon steels is due to the presence
of
(a) silicon (b) chromium (c) phosphorous (d) carbon

A
9. Cross slip is prevalent in materials with
I
C (a) high stacking fault energy (b) high grain boundary energy
(c) low stacking fault energy (d) low grain boundary energy
T
E 10. The following property can be conventionally measured to monitor the annihilation of
point defects during recovery
(a) hardness (b) impact strength
(c) thermal productivity (d) electrical resistivity
A
11. A truly sessile dislocation in a FCC material is
I
C (a) Shockley partial (b) lomer dislocation
(c)frank partial (d) lomer-cottrell dislocation
T
E 12. In case of close packed structures, octahedral voids have a co-ordination of –
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
13. A high cycle fatigue failure is identified by the presence of

A
(a) dimples (b) beach marking or striations
I (c) slip lines (d) glass like fracture
C
14. The most important property of steels for use in automobiles bodies is –
T
(a) Formability (b) Yield strength (c) Toughness Resilience
E
15. The charpy impact test can be used to determine
(a) The ductile- brittle transition temperature

(b) Yield strength under dynamic loading conditions
(c) hardenability
(d) Ductility
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ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
16. The following fibre has the lowest density
(a) tungsten (b) Kevlar (c) glass (d) graphite
A 17. A flow curve is also called as
I (a) creep curve (b) S-N curve

C (c) True stress-strain curve (d) R-curve
T 18. Electrolytic reduction of alumina is done by ………..

E
(a) Pattinson’s process (b) Bayer’s process
(c) Hall and Heroult process (d) Hoop’s process
19. Aluminium is used as ………….agent in steel bath

A
I (a) Oxidizing (b) Deoxidizing (c) recarburizing (d) reducing
C 20. In roasting of the ore, its incipient fusion must takes place
T
(a) True (b) False
E
21. In froth flotation process, pine oil is used as ………….. agent
(a) Collectings (b) Frothing (c) Conditioning (d) modifying

A
22. Galena is the sulphide ore of ..,………………
I
C (a) Zinc (b) Copper (c) Lead (d) Tin
T 23. Cadmium is recovered as a by-product from zinc concentrates, because former has no
E individual ore in plenty
(a) True (b) False
24. Sheelite, the ore of tungsten, is ………………

A
I (a) Magnesium tungstate (b) calcium tungstate
(c) Tungsten trioxide (d) Tungsten sulphate
C
T 25. When aluminium tri hydrate is called at about 1100oC, ……….. is obtained
E (a) Aluminium carbonate (b) Aluminium sulphate

(c) Alumina (d) Sodium aluminate
26. Leaching of copper ore is done by ……… acid in hydrometallurgical operation
(a) Sulphuric (b) Nitric (c) Hydrochloric (d) Phosphoric

(e) None of these
Page 3 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
27. Zinc is obtained from its oxide by ……… retort process.

(a) horizontal (b) vertical
(c) Both horizontal and vertical (d) None of these
A 28. Refining of zinc is done by …………. Process

I (a) Liquation b) Fractional distillation
C (c) Electrolytic refining (d) Both fractional distillation and electrolytic refining
T 29. Thermoplastics and thermosets are commonly joined by

E (a) Arc welding (b) Brazing (c) Gas welding (d) Adhesive bonding
30. Which of the following welding processes finds extensive applications in automobile
industry?
A (a) Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding (b) Metal inert gas (MIG) welding
(c) Submerged arc welding (d) Resistance welding
I
C 31. Which of the following weld defects is inspected by thick break test?
T (a) Slag inclusions (b)Gas pockets (c) Poor Fusion (d) All of the above
E 32. Weld spatter occurs due to
1. High voltage current 2. Low welding current
3. High welding current 4. Arc blow
A Of these:
(a) 2 is true (b) 3 and 4 are true (c) 1 is true (d) 1 and 2 are true
I
C 33. Carburizing flame contain access of
T (a) Ethylene (b) Propylene (c) Acetylene (d) Methylene
E 34. If steel is welded by a carburizing flame, what can result?
(a) The joint becomes stronger in compression
(b) The joint becomes hard and brittle
A (c) The tensile strength of the joint is increased
(d) the Joint becomes stronger in shear
I
35. Consider the following statements:
C
T 1. Electroslag welding is used to join thick materials
2. Electrogas welding is used to join thinner materials
E 3. Carbon arc welding uses consumable electrodes.
4. Arc is hidden in submerged arc welding
Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are true (b) 1, 3 and 4 are true

(c) 3 and 4 are true (d) 2, 3 and 4 are true
Page 4 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
36. Which of the following welding uses a transducer?
(a) Electron beam welding (b) Resistance welding

(c) Shielded metal arc welding (d) Friction welding
A
37. Which are the following parameters need to be carefully controlled in resistance
I welding?
C 1. Pressure
T 2. Heat
3.Current
E 4. Resistance
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 and 3 are true
A (c) 2 and 4 are true (d) 1, 2 and 3 are true
I 38. Which of the following resistance welding is used for making leak-proof joint?
C
(a) Spot welding (b) Projection welding
T (c) Seam welding (d) percussion welding
E
39. Consider the following statements
1) Flash welding requires edge preparation

2) Spot welding and projection welding are same
A 3) Seam welding is a continuous series of spot welding
I Of these statements:
C (a) 1 is true
(b) 3 is true
T (c) 2 and 3 are true
E (d) 1 and 3 are true
40. Thermit mixture consists of

(a) Aluminium oxide and iron (b) Iron oxide and aluminium
A (c) Calcium carbide and iron (d) Iron carbide and calcium
I 41. Braze welding ………….
C (a) Includes both welding and brazing operation
T (b) Is a fusion welding process
(c) Is neither brazing nor welding but it is a separate joining technique for metals
E (d) None of these
42. In thermit welding, heat is developed by ………….
(a) Wounding resistor coil around the work-piece

(b) Producing are between work-piece and electrode
(c) Oxy-acetylene
(d) Exothermic reaction between iron oxide and aluminium powder
Page 5 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
43. Brazing is done above ………….degree centigrade
(a) 50 (b) 100 (c) 350 (d) None of these
A 44. In Brinell hardness tester the load for aluminium is
I (a) 300 kg (b) 1500 kg (c) 500 kg (d) 100 kg

C
45. Endentor used in Vickers hardness testing machine is
T
E (a) 25 mm dia ball (b) 15 mm dia ball
(c) 10 mm dia ball (d) Diamond square-based pyramid
46. The property which enables metals to be drawn into wire is known as
A (a) Malleability (b) Ductility

I (c) Plastic deformation (d) Elastic deformation
C 47. Which of the following is a non-destructive test?

T
(a) Charpy test (b) Izod impact test (c) Cupping test (d) X-ray test
E
48. Spherical metal powders are usually produced by
(a) Electrolytic process (b) Automization (c) Oxidation (d) Milling

A
49. The principle on which a disappearing filament type pyrometer works is known as
I
C (a) Kichhoff’s law (b) Fourier’s law (c) Peltier effect (d) Seeback effect
T 50. The flux used in brazing is usually

E
(a) Common salt (b)Borax
(c) Alum (d) None of the above
51. Electrons of Scanning Electron Microscope are reflected through

A
I (a) Glass funnel (b) Specimen (c) Metal-coated surface (d) Vacuum chamber
C 52. Which of the following is NOT equivalent to 10 micrometers.

T
(a) 0.0001 cm (b) 0.01 mm (c) 10,000 nm (d) 100,000 Angstroms
E
53. Laue’s model pictures XRD as reflection from parallel crystalline planes. Reflection is
different from refraction as
(a) diffraction occurs throughout the bulk

(b) intensity of diffracted beams is less
(c) diffraction in crystals occurs only at Bragg’s angles
Page 6 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
54. X-ray diffraction can only be applied to
(a) Gaseous or vapour materials (b) Solid, crystalline materials

(c) Liquids (d) All of the above
A
55. X-ray diffraction fails to detect the presence of substances:
I
C (a) containing a magnetic field
(b) containing a high concentration of carbon
T (c) comprising less than 5 percent of a mixture
E (d) comprising elements with two or more isotopes
56. Which of the following is not a type of radiation?

(a) Alpha rays (b) Beta rays (c) Delta rays (d) Gamma rays
A
57. The no. of slip systems in an ideal HCP structure is
I
C (a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 48
T 58. The stacking sequence of closed packed planes with a stacking fault is
E
(a) abcabcabc (b) abababab (c) abcacabcab (d) abcabacba
59. A pure tilt boundary may be equivalently represented by
A (a) An array of jogs on an edge dislocation

I (b) A cross grid of screw dislocation
(c) A dislocation pile up consisting of both edge and screw dislocations
C (d) An array of edge dislocations perpendicular to the slip plane
T
60. On a decreasing the grain size of a polycrystalline material, the property most likely to
E deteriorate is ------
(a) Creep (b) Toughness (c) Tensile strength (d) Fatigue
A 61. In age-hardenable allows, maximum ductility is obtained
I (a) In as cast state

C (b) Immediately after solution treatment and subsequent quenching
(c) After optimum ageing
T (d) After over-aging
E
62. The recrystallized grain size will be smaller
(a) Lower the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work
(b) Higher the annealing temperature and lower the amount of prior cold work
(c) Lower the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work
(d) Higher the annealing temperature and higher the amount of prior cold work
Page 7 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
63. Austenitic stainless steel can be strengthened by

(a) Quench hardening (b) Deformation hardening
(c) Irradiation hardening (d) Quenching and tempering
A 64. Ductility can be represented precisely by
I
(a) Percent elongation (b) Percent reduction in area
C (c) True local necking strain (d) True fracture strain
T
65. Increasing the mean stress influences the S-N curve as follows
E
(a) Shifts upward (b) Keeps unaltered
(c) Shifts downwards (d) None of these
66. Dislocation density is defined as

A
(a) Total dislocation length per unit area
I (b) Total dislocation length per unit volume
C (c) Total dislocation per unit area per unit time
(d) None of these
T
E 67. The following is the example of precipitation hardenable material
(a) Al-Si alloy (b) Nichrome
(c) Austenitic stainless steel (d) Cu-Be alloy
A 68. The most widely used glass fiber for polymer composites is
I (a) R glass (b) S glass (c) E glass (d) C glass
C
69. A suitable technique for monitoring a growing crack in an alloy is
T
E (a) Acoustic emission (b) Radiography
(c) Magnetic particle technique (d) Liquid penetrate test
70. Young’s modulus of a material gives an idea about

A (a) Toughness (b) Stiffness (c) Hardness (d) Electrical conductivity
I
71. Fatigue strength of a steel can be increased by
C
(a) Increasing tensile surface residual stresses
T
(b) Introducing hydrogen in steel
E (c) Increasing the grain size
(d) Increasing compressive surface residual stresses
72. The crystal which shows the maximum yield strength is the one containing
(a) No dislocation (b) Very few dislocation

(c) A high density of dislocations (d) Volume imperfection
Page 8 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
73. Co-ordination number of FCC is
(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 16
A 74. Atom per unit cell of FCC
I (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

C
75. In screw dislocation the direction of movement is
T
E (a) Parallel to the stress direction (b) Perpendicular to the stress direction
(c) At 120o to the stress direction (d) None of these
76. In edge dislocation the direction of movement is
A (a) Parallel to the stress direction (b) Perpendicular to the stress direction
I (c) at 60o to the stress direction (d) None of these
C 77. Acetylene is stored in gas cylinder

T
(a) In gaseous form (b) In Liquid form
E (c) In solid form (d) Under higher pressure
78. Martensite in steel is
A (a) An interstitial solid solution of c in alpha iron

(b) A supersaturated in interstitial solid solution of c in BCT iron
I (c) A supersaturated solid solution of C in gamma iron
C (d) A very finely dispersed lamellar structure
T 79. Elastic strain in copper is due to

E
(a) Motion of dislocation (b) Stretching of atomic bonds
(c) Breaking of atomic bonds (d) None of the above
80. The most important property of steel for use in automobiles bodies is
A
I (a) Formability (b) Yield strength (c) Toughness (d) Resilience
C
T PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
E 81. The engineering stress-strain curve for a ceramic material is
(a) Parabolic (b) Exponential (c) Logarithmic (d) Linear
82. A defect that is bounded by two mirror planes is
(a) Twin (b) Stacking fault (c) Grain boundary (d) Edge dislocation
Page 9 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
83. The elastic energy of a dislocation is related to its burgers vector as follows
(a) Directly proportional
(b) Proportional to the square of the burgers vector
(c) Proportional to the square root of the burgers vectors
A (d) Not related to all
I
84. Match the hardness test methods in group I with the indenter used in group 2
C
Group 1 Group 2
T
P. Brinell hardness 1. Brale indenter
E Q. Vicker’s hardness 2. Square base diamond pyramid
R. Rockwell C hardness 3. 10mm diameter steel ball
S. Rockwell B hardness 4. 1.6 mm diameter steel balls
Codes
A P Q R S
(a) 1 2 3 4
I (b) 3 2 1 4
C (c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
T
E 85. Match the loading conditions in group I with the characteristics in group 2
Group 1 Group 2
P. Tensile 1. Barreling
Q. Comprehensive 2. Intergranular cracking
A R. Fatigue 3. Striations
S. Creep 4. Cup and Cone
I
5. Earing
C Codes
T P Q R S
(a) 4 5 3 1
E (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 5 1 4 2
(d) 1 2 3 5
A 86. Match the fracture processes in group I to the fracture surface morphologies in group 2
I Group 1 Group 2
P. Ductile fracture 1. Cleavage
C
Q. Brittle fracture 2. Dimples
T R. Fatigue fracture 3. Striations
E 4. Veins
Codes
P Q R
(a) 4 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2
Page 10 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
87. The conditions necessary for super plastic deformation in an alloy are
P) extremely fine and uniform grain size

Q) high homologous temperature
A R) high strain rate
S) coarse non-uniform grains
I
C (a) P,Q (b) Q,R,S (c) P,Q,R (d) Q,R
T 88. Match the terms from group 1 to their description in group 2

E Group I Group II
P. Half-patch effect 1. Solute-dislocation interaction
Q. Bauschinger effect 2. Dislocation multiplication
R. Cottrell atmosphere 3. Grain boundary strengthening
A 4. Barreling under compression
5. Mechanical hysteresis during plasticity
I
C Codes
P Q R
T
(a) 3 5 1
E (b) 1 4 3
(c) 5 1 2
(d) 3 4 2
89. Match the associate primary changes in group 2 with the corresponding phenomenon in
A
group 1
I
C Group 1 Group 2
P. Recovery 1. Change in dislocation density
T Q. Recrystallization 2. Change in the shape of a phase
E R. Malleabilising 3. Change in vacancy concentration
S. Texture 4. Change in grain orientation
Codes
P Q R S
A
(a) 3 4 1 2
I (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
C
(d) 4 3 1 2
T
90. Match the following failure/fracture observations in group 1 with the likely
E
deformation/process in group 2
Group 1 Group 2
P. Cup and cone fracture 1. Creep failure
Q. Beach marks 2. Brittle failure
R. Cleavage 3. Normal ductile fracture
S. Triple point cracking 4. Completely ductile fracture
5. Fatigue failure
Page 11 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
Codes
P Q R S
(a) 4 1 5 2
(b) 3 5 2 1
A (c) 5 4 1 2
(d) 3 2 5 1
I
C 91. Driving force for grain growth after completion of recrystallization is
T (a) stored energy for cold work (b) vacancy concentration

E (c) dislocation density in the crystal (d) grain boundary curvature
92. A small amount of thoria is doped into tungsten filament wires used in light bulbs. This
is because thoria particles
(a) decrease solute diffusivity
A (b) enhance the mobility of grain boundary
I (c) increase solute segregation to the grain boundary
(d) are effective in limiting grain growth
C
T 93. In one FCC unit cell, there are
E (a) 4 tetrahedral and 8 octahedral sites

(b) 8 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites
(c) 12 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites
(d) 4 tetrahedral and 4 octahedral sites
A
94. Crack propagation in metallic materials is detected by the NDT method
I
C (a) eddy current testing (b) magnetic particle inspection
(c) Acoustic emission testing (d) Ultrasonic testing
T
E 95. Secondary hardening in steel arises out of
(a) the precipitation of fine alloy carbides at high temperature

(b) the refinement of ferrite grain size by working
(c) the decomposition of retained austenite upon heat treatment
A (d) the precipitation of complex intermetallic upon heat treatment
I
96. A fatigue fracture is characterized by
C
T (a) Cup and cone fracture (b) Dimples
(c) Cleavage facets (d) Striations
E
97. Liquid penetration test can be used to detect
(a) Internal porosity in castings

(b) Corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes
(c) Fatigue cracks in magnesium alloys parts
(d) Residual stresses in steels
Page 12 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
98. As the grain size decreases -

(a) Both the yield strength and fracture toughness increases
(b) Yield strength increases but fracture toughness decreases
(c) Yield strength as well as fracture toughness decreases
A (d) Yield strength and fracture toughness remain unaffected
I
99. Ductility of a metallic material after cold working
C
(a) increases (b) decreases
T (c) remains unaffected (d) Unpredictable
E
100. The single most important requirement for a turbine blade material is -
(a) damping (b) resilience (c) creep resistance (d) DBTT
101. Mond process is used for the extraction of ………….
A
(a) Copper (b) Nickel (c) Tin (d) Tungsten
I
C 102. Hydrometallurgical technique is suitable for ………
T (a) High grade copper ore
(b) Lean oxide and mixed copper ore
E (c) The place, where electricity is cheap
(d) The country, where nitric acid is easily available
103. Resistance spot welding is extensively useful for

A
(a) Automobile Industry (b) Aircraft industry
I (c) Reactive metals (d) High melting point metals
C
104. Light aluminium sheets are joined by
T
(a) Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding (b) Metal inert gas (MIG) welding
E (c) Submerged arc welding (d) Resistance welding
105. Presence of sulphur in a welded joint increases its
A (a) Ductility (b) Toughness (c) Brittleness (d) Strength

I 106. Consider the following statements about electron beam welding:
C
1. It produces low heat affected zone.
T 2. There is no need of shielding gas. Flux of filler metal
E 3. Thermal distortion is minimum
4. It produces accurate joint
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are true (b) 2 is true

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are true (d) 2 and 4 are true
Page 13 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
107. The following processes can be used for thermal cutting

1) Atomic hydrogen arc
2) Plasma arc
3) Electron beam
A 4) Laser beam
I Of these:
C (a) 1, 3 and 4 are true
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are true
T (c) 1,2 and 3 are true
E (d) 1 , 2 , 3 and4 are true
108. Consider the followings statement about explosion welding
1) It gives a weaker joint
2) Thinner and thicker work-pieces can be joined by this process
A 3) Is uses dynamite
I Of these statements
C (a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 and 3 are true
T (c) 1 and 3 are true (d) 1, 2 and 3 are true
E 109. Which of the following is true about resistance welding?

(a) high voltage and low current (b) Low voltage and high current
(c) low voltage and low current (d) High voltage and high current
A 110. In arc welding ………….

I (a) The work-piece is connected to negative terminal and electrode is connected to
C positive terminal of welding machine
(b) The work-piece is connected to positive terminal and electrode is connected to
T negative terminal of welding machine
E (c) There is no such restriction about connections of work-piece and electrode to
terminals of welding machine
111. Soldering may be done at 4500C

A
(a) True (b) False
I
C 112. Photograph which is taken from microscope is known as
T (a) Macrograph (b) Monograph (c) Micrograph (d) Pictograph
E
113. Which of the following statements is most correct about Atomic Force Microscopy
(AFM)
(a) AFM can visualise protein bound to DNA molecules
(b) AFM can visualize unfixed specimens in water or buffer
(c) AFM moves a very sharp tip over the surface of the specimen to ‘feel’ its shape
(d) All the statements above are true
Page 14 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG2MMS31
114. Phase Contrast microscopy
(a) Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve
contrast in the specimen
(b) Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell
A
with different refractive indices
I (c) Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phase of the cell
(d) Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them
C
T 115. In Bragg’s equation [nλ=2.d.sinϴ], ϴ is the angle between
E (a) specimen surface and incident rays
(b) normal to specimen surface and incident rays
(c) parallel lattice surfaces d distance apart and incident rays
(d) normal to parallel lattice surfaces d distance apart and incident rays
A
116. The thermodynamic driving force for precipitate coarsening at high temperature is
I
(a) Increase in diffusivity at high temperature
C
(b) Reduction of interfacial energy per unit volume
T (c) Reduction in the yield stress of matrix
(d) Reduction of strain energy due to misfit between precipitate and matrix
E
117. Recrystallization temperature depends on -
(a) Amount of the prior cold work

A (b) Carbon content
(c) Purity of alloy
I (d) Both (a) and (c) above
C
118. Dislocation cross-slip is difficult in those materials which have
T
(a) Large number of slip systems
E (b) High work hardening rate
(c) Coarse grain size
(d) Low stacking fault energy
A 119. Electrode is consumed in
I (a) Arc welding

(b) Tungsten-inert gas welding
C (c) Gas welding
T (d) Thermit welding
E 120. Elastic strain in cropper is due to
(a) Motion of dislocation

(b) Stretching of atomic bonds
(c) Breaking of atomic bonds
Page 15 of 15
UG METALLURGY ENGINEERING / METALLURGY & MATERIAL SCIENCE
Code 31-Paper 2
1 C 31 D 61 B 91 D
2 C 32 B 62 C 92 D
3 C 33 C 63 B 93 B
4 A 34 B 64 A 94 C
5 D 35 A 65 C 95 A
6 C 36 D 66 A 96 D
7 A 37 B 67 D 97 C
8 D 38 C 68 C 98 A
9 A 39 B 69 A 99 B
10 D 40 B 70 B 100 C
11 C 41 B 71 D 101 B
12 C 42 D 72 A 102 B
13 B 43 D 73 C 103 A
14 A 44 D 74 B 104 A
15 A 45 D 75 D 105 C
16 B 46 B 76 A 106 C
17 C 47 D 77 B 107 B
18 B 48 B 78 B 108 B
19 B 49 C 79 B 109 B
20 A 50 B 80 A 110 B
21 B 51 B, C 81 D 111 B
22 C 52 A 82 A 112 C
23 A 53 D 83 B 113 C
24 B 54 B 84 B 114 B
25 C 55 C 85 B 115 C
26 A 56 C 86 B 116 B
27 C 57 A 87 C 117 D
28 D 58 C 88 A 118 D
29 D 59 D 89 C 119 A
30 D 60 A 90 B 120 Marks to all
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A MINING ENGINEERING
I
C
T PAPER-I
E Instructions:
questions.
wrong answer.
C programmable scientific calculator.
T blue ball point pen.
E viii. Do not fold or tamper the OMR Sheet.
1. What are permitted explosives:

A (a) Which are legally permitted
I (b) Which can be used in underground gassy coal mines
(c) Which can be used in underground metal mines
C (d) Which can be used in surface mines
T
2. Which explosive is used as a substitute for TNT:
E (a) ANFO
(b) PETN
(c) Nitroglycerine
(d) Gunpowder
3. P5explosives are used in:

(a) Blasting off solid in coal
A (b) Shaft sinking
(c) VCR method
I
(d) Blasting gallery method
C
4. Electronic detonators give a minimum delay timing in intervals of:
T
(a) 1 ms
E (b) 10 ms
(c) 100 ms
(d) 1000 ms
Page 1 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 5. The “Caisson method” of shaft sinking is intended for:

I (a) Extremely hard ground conditions
(b) For only metal mines
C (c) For Squeezing ground conditions
T (d) Ground incapable of self-supporting
E 6. An opencast mine is primarily opened by:
(a) Longitudinal Cut
(b) Transverse Cut
(c) Box Cut
(d) V-cut
7. The driving pulley of an endless haulage is:

A (a) Clifton pulley
(b) C-pulley
I (c) Surge wheel
C (d) Clifton Pulley, C-pulley & Surge wheel
T 8. A faster and efficient drift development is possible with the deployment of :
E (a) TBM
(b) Scraper
(c) Ripper
(d) Dozer
9. Coal is geologically ----- formation:

(a) Igneous
(b) Sedimentary
A (c) Metamorphic
I (d) Igneous and sedimentary
C 10. Different waves generated by earthquakes are measured using:
T (a) GPR
(b) Microphone
E (c) Seismographs
(d) Ngiogram
11. Which of the following is a stratigraphic unit?

(a) Archean
(b) Pre Cambrian
(c) Tertiary
A (d) All
I 12. Main principle of surveying is to work from:
C (a) Part to the whole
(b) Whole to the part
T (c) Lower to higher level
E (d) Higher to lower level
Page 2 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 13. Accidental errors are proportional to:

I (a) n
(b) n
C (c) 1/n
T (d) 1/ n
E
14. A tie line is run:
(a) To check the accuracy of field work
(b) To locate details which are away from the chain line
(c) Between main survey stations
(d) Parallel to the survey line
15. The height of the instrument (H.I) in levelling is the:

A (a) Height of telescope axis above the ground
(b) Elevation of line of sight with respect to a datum
I
(c) Elevation of line of sight with respect to MSL
C (d) Elevation of line of sight with respect to ground
T
16. The process of determining the plotted position of the station occupied by the plane table
E by means of sights taken towards points of known location is called:
(a) Resection
(b) Intersection
(c) Orientation
(d) Traversing
17. A satellite station is required when a main station:

(a) Cannot be sighted
A
(b) Cannot be occupied
I (c) Can be occupied
(d) Can be sighted
C
T 18. The reason for a person feeling more comfortable on a warm day if seated in front of an
electric fan is that the:
E
(a) Metabolic heat production is reduced
(b) Body loses more heat by convection and evaporation
(c) Body loses more heat by radiation
(d) Body loses more heat by evaporation and radiation
19. The increase in temperature of air with depth is known as:

(a) Auto-decompression
A (b) Increase in enthalpy
(c) Adiabatic lapse rate
I
(d) Geothermal gradient
C
20. The limit of explosibility of a mixture of combustible gases can be computed by which
T of the following equations:
E (a) Pythagorous equation
(b) Le-chetelier equation
(c) Simon’s equation
(d) Solmon’s equation
Page 3 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 21. Reynolds Number is a ratio of:

I (a) Velocity effects to viscous effects
(b) Inertial forces to viscous forces
C (c) Mass flux to viscosity
T (d) Flow rate to kinematic viscosity
E 22. The minimum % of oxygen that should be in mine air as per Directorate General of
Mines Safety is:
(a) 16%
(b) 18%
(c) 19%
(d) 21%
A 23. To compute the “Relative densities” or more commonly called “Densities” of gases, we
require:
I (a) Atomic number
C (b) Atomic mass
(c) Molecular mass
T (d) Molecular number
E
24. Increased lung ventilation in a mine atmosphere is due to the presence of:
(a) CO
(b) H2S
(c) CO2
(d) NO2
25. Which of the following is not a strategic mineral for India:

A (a) Industrial diamond
I (b) Ceramic
(c) Graphite
C (d) Asbestos
T
26. Which of the following is not a main component of the National Mineral Policy:
E (a) Mine safety and environmental law
(b) Taxation policy
(c) Accounting for risk in mining investments
(d) Appraisal of domestic mineral resources
27. Which of the following is not a sampling method:

(a) Borehole sampling
A (b) Grab sampling
(c) Gross sampling
I (d) Bulk sampling
C
28. Which organization is responsible for publishing Indian Minerals Yearbook?
T (a) Geological Survey of India
E (b) Mineral Exploration Corporation Limited
(c) Indian Bureau of Mines
(d) Directorate General of Mines Safety
Page 4 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 29. A bulkhead door is installed in the development heading of a coal mine to control:
I (a) Coal dust explosion
(b) Firedamp explosion
C (c) Sudden inrush of water
T (d) Airflow
E 30. Which of the following is an Escape Apparatus?
(a) Pulmotor
(b) Draeger BG 172
(c) Any open circuit rescue apparatus
(d) Self-rescuer
31. According to Indian Mining Regulations, firedamp accumulation is said to take place in
A a mine when the firedamp in the mine is more than:
(a) 1.20 %
I (b) 1.25 %
C (c) 0.75 %
(d) 1.50 %
T
E 32. Chasnala mine disaster is due to:
(a) Fire
(b) Inundation
(c) Explosion
(d) Noxious gas
33. The CO/O2 deficiency ratio is popularly known as:

(a) Young’s ratio
A (b) Grahm’s ratio
I (c) Jones-Tricket ratio
(d) Respiratory quotient
C
T 34. Low energy detonating cord could be used in:
(a) Bord& Pillar method
E (b) Longwall method
(c) Blasting gallery method
(d) Shortwall method
35. Which of the following is not a continuous mining operation:

(a) Continuous miner
(b) Shovel-dumper
A (c) Bucket wheel excavation
(d) Surface miner
I
C 36. The length of flexible cable with any portable or transportable apparatus in underground
mines as per Indian Electricity Rules, 1956 is:
T (a) Not less than 80 m
E (b) Not less than 120 m
(c) Not less than 100 m
(d) Not less than 150 m
Page 5 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 37. Who acts as secretary to the safety committee constituted as per rule 29 T?
I (a) Safety officer
(b) Sampling In-charge
C (c) Manager
T (d) Ventilation Officer
E 38. As per IER, 1956, the maximum voltage limit for transmission of energy into a mine is:
(a) 11000V
(b) 6600V
(c) 650V
(d) 250V
39. If a person is working below ground, he is eligible for leave with wages at the rate of:
A (a) One day for 15 days attendance
(b) One day for 20 days
I (c) One day for 18 days attendance
C (d) One day for 20 days attendance
T 40. CaCl2 is used --------- in this special shaft sinking method.

E (a) Cementing (b) freezing (c) Caisson (d) piling
41. Which one is an exploratory drilling

(a) Jackhammer (b) DTH (c) diamond drill (d) Tricone roller bit
42. Double tube core barrel is used in the following conditions

A (a) Soft rock (b) hard rock (c) medium hard (d) joined rock mass
I
43. Magnitude Scale based on amplitude of the waves recorded on seismograph is known as
C
(a) Intensity Scale (b) Richter Scale (c) Mercalli Scale (d) Rossi Forrel Scale
T
E 44. A line joining points of equal intensity of earthquake which is usually a closed curve
around the epicentre is termed as
(a) Epicentral Line (b) Isobash (c) Isoseismal Line (d) Isochore
45. Discontinuity between crust and the mantle is known as
(a) Conrad Discontinuity (b) Lehman Discontinuity

A (c) Mohorovicic Discontinuity (d) Gutenberg Discontinuity
I 46. The example of mineral with 3 Directional cleavage is
C
(a) Orthoclase (b) Calcite (c) Apatite (d) Quartz
T
47. Which instrument of the following can not be used of angular measurement?
E
(a) Theodolite (b) Dumpy level (d) Total station (d) Compass
Page 6 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 48. The difference between fore bearing and back bearing of a line which ends are free from
I local attraction is
C (a) 600 (b) 1200 (c) 180 0 (d) 2400
T
49. The purpose of plumbing fork is to -------- the plane table
E
(a) level (b) orient (c)centre (d) focus
50. In India Percentage of inflammable gas should not exceed 0.75 in general body of the
return air of any ventilation district and in any place of the mine is;
(a) 050 (b) 0.65 (c) 0.75 (d) 1.25

A
51. Following two fans generates pressure and delivers the quantities given in the table:
I
C Fan Pressure Pa Quantity m3/s
A 250 12.75
T B 250 8.9
E
What quantity of air delivered in m3/s if both fans are arranged in parallel?
(a) 20 (b) 21.65 (c) 19 (d) 15.50
52. Theoretical head generated by a 250 mm of w-g

Effective head generated by a 225 mn of w-g
Manometric Efficiency of the fan will be
A
I (a) 90% (b) 110% (c) 105% (d) 110
C 53. A mine fan has to deliver 100 m3/s of air at pressure of 200 Pa. If the fan and motor
T efficiencies are 75% and 92%, then motor power will be
E (a) 35.61 kW (b) 28.98 kW (c) 25.55 kW (d) 21.58 kW
54. Cut-off-Grade of mineral is the
(a) Least grade of mining (b) Maximum grade of mining

(c) Lean grade (d) Average grade
A 55. National Mineral Policy lays emphasis on

I (a) Develop mineral resources (b) Waste control
C (c) Afforestation (d) Mineral Processing
T 56. In Hoskold formula which two rate of interests are considered
E
(a) Bank rate and company rate (b) Inflation rate and local rate
(c) Simple rate and compound rate (d) Safe rate and risk rate
Page 7 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 57. If the rate of emission of gas is 5 m3/t of coal, the mine is considered ________
I
(a) Degree I (b) Degree II (c) Degree III (d) None
C
T 58. The firedamp explosions occurs when the percentage of methane is in the range of -----
E (a) 5%-14% (b) 5.4-14.8% (c) 5.1%-15.2% (d) 4%-16%
59. Fires which originate by ignition of combustible materials in mines are called ----
(a) Exogenous fires (b) Endogenous fires (c) Spontaneous heating (d) Extensive fires
60. Oil in water emulsion (95% water & 5% oil) used in Hydraulic Supports is called as ---
A
(a) HS-A (b) HS-B (c) HS-C (d) HS-D
I
C 61. Calculate thickness of a flat dam to resist 200 m of water head. The size of roadway is
2.4 m X 2.4 m and the safe shear strength of material/surrounding rocks is 1.8 MPa
T
E (a) 1.0 m (b) 0.80 m (c) 0.67 m (d) 0.87 m
62. For proved reserve the maximum drill hole spacing should be
(a) 100 m (b) 200m (c) 400m (d) 600m
63. Coal Grade G4 relates to coal with gross calorific value _______ Kcal/kg
A (a) 6701-7000 (b) 5201-5500 (c) 6100-6400 (d) a5501-5800
I
64. In a coal mine with continuous miner the following combination for face transport and
C gate transport is best suited:
T
(a) LHD Belt conveyor (b) LHD chain conveyor
E (c) continuous haulage – belt conveyor (d) SDL-Belt conveyor
65. While planning for man power in a mine, what percentage of additional provision for
manpower is made for category worker to cover leave and sick
(a) 10% (b) 16% (c) 20% (d) 25%
A 66. Calculate the theoretical hourly capacity of solid rock of a shovel having bucket capacity
of 9.6 m3. The cycle time of one pass is 30 sec, the fill factor of bucket is 0.8 and swell
I factor of solid rock is 1.2
C
(a) 654 m3/hr (b) 564 m3/hr (c) 678 m3/hr (d) 768 m3/hr
T
E 67. A mine, producing 0.6 Mt of coal annually, consumes 12 x 106 kwh energy per annum.
Calculate per ton energy consumption.
(a) 200 kwh/t (b) 198 kwh/t (c) 19.8 kwh/t (d) 20 kwh/t
Page 8 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 68. As per coal mine regulation, the factor of safety for components of suspension gears
I shall not be less than
C (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 2
T
69. A spliced rope can be used in…..
E
(a) Drum winding (b) Friction winding
(c) Direct rope haulage (d) Endless rope haulage
70. For working of a contiguous seam, at any time during working, the parting between two
seam/section should not be less than.
(a) 9 meter (b) 7 meter (c) 5 meter (d) 3 meter
A
I
T 71. A limestone deposit of 5 million tonnes is to be mined at a rate of 0.1Million tonnes per
E year. Profit per tonne of limestone mined is Rs. 200. Determine the present worth of
limestone deposit assuming 10% rate of interest:
(a) Rs. 14.8 crores
(b) Rs. 19.8 crores
(c) Rs. 21.8 crores
(d) Rs. 28.8 crores
72. A small mining project requires capital investment of Rs. 10 crores in the first year and
A then generates an income of Rs. 3 crores each year during the next five years. What is the
I internal rate of return?
(a) 13.25%
C (b) 15.25%
T (c) 18.25%
(d) 21.25%
E
73. If h is the difference in the height between the end points of a chain of length L, the slope
correction is approximately equal to:
(a) –h2/2L
(b) –h/2L
(c) -2h2/L
(d) -2h2/2+L
A
74. If the length of a chain line along a slope of θ degrees is L, the required slope correction
I is:
θ
C (a) +2Lcos22
θ
T (b) -2Lcos22
θ
E (c) +2Lsin22
θ
(d) -2Lsin2
2
Page 9 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 75. A fan is ventilating a heading through a duct of 600 mm diameter. It circulates 4 m 3/s of
I air at the face. If the input power of the fan is equal to 2.9 kW and density of air is 1.2
kg/m3, then the heat added to the air by the fan is:
C (a) 2500 W
T (b) 2320 W
(c) 2420 W
E (d) 2452 W
76. Samples of air collected in the intake and return gate roads of an advancing longwall face
show 0.25% and 0.75% CH4, respectively. The panel has a production of 400 tonnes in
an 8 hour shift when an air quantity of 18 m3/s passes through it. Then the methane
emission in m3 per tonne of coal mined is:
(a) 1.60
A (b) 0.81
(c) 2.25
I (d) 6.48
C
77. The quantity of air going down a DC shaft is 7200 m3/min at 80 mm water gauge with
T the fan running at its normal speed. If the speed is reduced, the quantity falls to 4800
E m3/min and the water gauge developed is 32 mm. The natural ventilation pressure (NVP)
produced is:
(a) 3.4 mm water gauge
(b) 4.4 mm water gauge
(c) 5.4 mm water gauge
(d) 6.4 mm water gauge
78. The analysis of mine air and normal air samples are as follows:
A Mine air: O2 = 19.70 %, N2 = 79.08 %, CO2 = 0.39 %, CO = 0.01 %, CH4 = 0.82%
I Normal air: O2 = 20.93 %, N2 = 79.04 %, CO2 = 0.03 %
The amount of Blackdamp present in the mine air in percent is:
C (a) 4.65
T (b) 4.86
(c) 5.01
E (d) 5.05
79. If the slope face angle is 700, the failure plane angle can be:
(a) 650
(b) 700
(c) 750
(d) 800
A
80. Charge per hole is 10kg. Maximum charge per delay is 20kg. If no. of blast holes per
I blast round is 10, then what is total explosive charge per blast:
C (a) 20 kg
(b) 50 kg
T (c) 75 kg
E (d) 100 kg
Page 10 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 81. Calculate spacing for 100 mm dia. Blasthole with 10m depth of hole for bench blasting.
I
(a) 3.0 m (b) 2.5 m (c) 4.5 m (d) 2.0 m
C
T 82. What will be the correct length of a line which is measured as 240 m with a 30 m tape
which is 10 cm too long?
E
(a) 239.20 m (b) 240.80 m (c) 240.10 m (d) 239.90 m
83. If the bearings of the lines PQ are 150030’and 30030’ respectively, then what would be
the included angle PQR?
(a) 60050’ (b) 60030’ (c) 60010’ (d) 60000’

A
84. Line MN is 150 m in length and has 2700 whole circle bearing. What would be the
I latitude and departure of line MN?
C
(a) 0.0m, + 150m (b) 0.0m,-150m (c) +150m, 0.0m (d) -150m, 0.0m
T
E 85. The reduced level of the point P which is on the floor is 200m and the back sight reading
on P is 3.545 m. If the fore sight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 4.675
m, then the reduced level of point B will be
(a) 191.78 (b) 196.45 m (c) 198.87 m (d) 208.22m
86. Following are the TLV’s and measured concentrations of the gases, the gases have
synergetic effect,
A
I Gas TLV Concentration Measured concentration
A 0.5 0.2
C B 10 ppm 2 ppm
T C 5 ppm 1 ppm
E
What is the time weighted average of the mixture?
(a) 0.8 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.55 (d) 0.3
87. What is the air power in kw if air pressure is 200 Pa and air quantity flowing is 150 m3/s?
(a) 31 (b) 32 (c) 30 (d) 29

A
88. Air is supplied at a rate of 5m3/s to ten persons working at a moderate rate in a mine
I
heading. The intake air contains 20.6% of oxygen. Determine the change in
C concentration of oxygen caused by respiration in percentage. For a moderate rate of
activity an individual consumes 0.03 litres/s of oxygen.
T
E (a) 15.52 (b) 17.72 (c) 18.99 (d)20.594
Page 11 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 89. Details of ventilation survey has been given in the table. Suggest which section has least
I resistance in Ns2m-8.
C Station Air Pressure Pa Air Quantity m3/s
T A 300 20
B 250 20
E C 210 20
D 200 20
(a) 0.130 (b) 0.125 (c) 0.10 (d) 0.025
90. Two airways of like cross-section in parallel are respectively 1000 m and 5000 m long.
The total airflow is 90 m3/s. Calculate the air quantity in m3/s flowing in a split of 1000
A m length.
I
(a) 62.2 (b) 50 (c) 80 (d) 70
C 91. What is the average grade of two samples of Cu by channel sampling? (i) 5%, 3m ii)
4% 2m.
T
E (a) 5% (b) 4% (c) 4.6% (d) 9%
92. What is the depreciation per year of equipment worth Rs. 10200, if the life is 10 years
and salvage value is Rs. 200 by straight line method?
(a)Rs. 10200 (b) Rs. 1000 (c) Rs. 1020 (df) Rs.10000
93. The firedamp explosions occurs when the percentage of methane is in the range of
A
(a) 5%-14% (b) 5.4%-14.8% (c) 5%-15.2% (d) 4%-16%
I
C 94. A combustible gas contains 80% CH4, 10%H2, 10% C2H6. Calculate Lower Limit of
Explosibility of above gas mixture
T
(a) 5.2% (b) 4.6% (c) 4.2% (d) 4.8%
E
95. Calculate graham’s ratio for following air analysis:
CO=0.400% O2=16.35% N2=73.24% CO2=0.560
(a) 12.93% (b) 13.1% (c) 13.5% (d) 13.8%
96. Calculate thickness of a flat dam to resist 200 m of water head. The size of roadway is
A 2.4 m X 2.4 m and the safe shear strength of material/surrounding rocks is 1.8 MPa
I (a) 1.0 m (b) 0.80 m (c) 0.67 m (d) 0.87 m
C
97. Calculate Break even stripping ratio if cost of production is Rs. 780/- per ton, Value of
T ore Rs. 1120/- per tone and stripping cost is Rs. 190 per m3 of overburden
E
(a) 2.0 (b) 1.79 (c) 1.65 (d) 1.72
Page 12 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 98. Calculate optimum designed capacity per day of a mine using Taylor’s equation for a
I reserve of 20 Million Tonne.
C (a) 3021 t (b) 4565 t (c) 2252 t (d) 4186 t
T 99. An underground coal mine produces 520 T per day deploying 220, 200 and 192 persons
in three shifts. As per CMR 1957, the maximum quantity of air in m3/min to be
E
delivered at the last ventilation connection of the panel is
(a) 1180 (b) 1240 (c) 1280 (d) 1320
100. As per CMR 1957, if width of a gallery is less than 3 meter and depth of working is less
than 60 meter, the distance between the centres of any two adjacent pillars left in a coal
seam, should not be less than
A (a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 19.5 (d) 15
I
C
T PART –C
E 101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then


A (b) 𝐴 is orthogonal then 𝐴𝑇 is also orthogonal
I (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
C
T 103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then 𝑎
is equal to
E
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) 3 (c) (d)3
3 2
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
A
𝑥 𝑦
I 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
C (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
T
E
Page 13 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function

I
𝑙
C 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
E (a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

A 109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
I probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
C (a) 1/32 (b)2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32

T
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
I
C 2 𝑥2

E
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
I
𝑥3 𝑦2
C (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
T
E
1
Page 14 of 15
ROLL NO.: UG1MIE32
A 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
I balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the ball is
C
T (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
A
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
C 119. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑧 2 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 + 2, then ∇. ∇𝜑 is equal to
T
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
E (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

A (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 15 of 15
UG MINING ENGINEERING
Code 32-Paper 1
1 B 31 B 61 Marks to all 91 C
2 B 32 B 62 C 92 B
3 A 33 B 63 C 93 Marks to all
4 A 34 C 64 C 94 Marks to all
5 C, D 35 B 65 B 95 B
6 C 36 Marks to all 66 D 96 Marks to all
7 D 37 A 67 D 97 B
8 A 38 A 68 A 98 A, B, C, D
9 B 39 A 69 D 99 D
10 C 40 B 70 D 100 A
11 D 41 C 71 B 101 A
12 B 42 A, D 72 B 102 C
13 B 43 B 73 A 103 A
14 B 44 C 74 D 104 D
15 B 45 C 75 C 105 D
16 A 46 B 76 D 106 A
17 B 47 B 77 D 107 A
18 B 48 C 78 D 108 B
19 C 49 C 79 A 109 D
20 B 50 D 80 D 110 B
21 B 51 B 81 Marks to all 111 D
22 C 52 A 82 B 112 B
23 B 53 B 83 Marks to all 113 B
24 C 54 A 84 B 114 B
25 B 55 A 85 D 115 B
26 Marks to all 56 D 86 A 116 C
27 C 57 B 87 C 117 B
28 C 58 B 88 D 118 C
29 C 59 A 89 D 119 B
30 D 60 A 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
MINING ENGINEERING
A
I
C PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
wrong answer.
A
C
E
1. Most stable shape of shaft is:
(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Circular (d) Rhombus
A 2. In an effective sand stowing ……. type of energy is used for pumping the slurry:
I
(a) Electric power (b) Pneumatic
C (c) Mechanical (d) Generally no external energy is required
T
3. Greenspan method is used to access
E
(a) Stress distribution around different shaped openings
(b) strain distribution around different shaped openings
(c) Load distribution in the galleries
(d) Lord distribution on the pillars
4. Ratio between horizontal and vertical stress is

A
(a) 0 to 1 (b) 1 to 5 (c) 5 to 10 (d) 10 to 100
I
5. Compressive strength is approximately how many times of point load strength index:
C
T (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 35
E
Page 1 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
6. Brazilian test is used to determine

A
(a) Compressive strength (b) Tensile strength
I
(c) Shear strength (d) Cohesive strength
C 7. The most suitable shape of a coal pillar in terms of its stability is
T
(a) Square (b) Rectangle (c) Rhombus (d) Circular
E
8. As the berm width of slope increases, the factor of safety
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) No change (d) Cannot be stated
9. Which type of failure takes place in a slope consisting of soft formation

(a) Plane failure (b) Wedge failure (c) Topping failure (d) Circular failure
A
I 10. Griffith, Coloumb, Naviertheories are related to
C (a) Pillar strength (b) Rock failure (c) Subsidence (d) Slope failure
T 11. In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided into two
E parts by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than:
(a) Two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) Three members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) Four members with unknown forces of the frame
(e) Three members with known forces of the frame
12. If a member carries a tensile force „P‟on its area of cross section „A‟, the normal stress
A introduced on an inclined plane making an angle „0‟ with its transverse plane, is
𝑃
I (a) sin2 𝜃
𝐴
𝑃
C (b) cos2 𝜃
𝐴
𝑃
T (c) tan2 𝜃
𝐴
𝑃
E (d) sin2 𝜃
2𝐴
13. For structural analysis, Maxwell‟s reciprocal theorem can be applied to

(a) Plastic structures (b) Elastic structures
(c) Symmetrical structures (d) Asymmetrical structures
14. For hydraulic transportation of solids in pipelines, the ratio of the size of solids to the
A pipe diameter should not be more than
I
(a) 1 to 2 (b) 1 to 3 (c) 1 to 7 (d) 1 to 4
C
15. The overall recovery from thick seams with blasting gallery method of mining is
T
E (a) 70-90% (b) 60% (c) 40% (d) 25%
Page 2 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
16. Coalification has taken place in the order of

A
(a) Peat, lignite, bituminous, anthracite (b) Lignite, peat, bituminous, anthracite
I (c)Peat, lignite, anthracite, bituminous (d) Bituminous, peat, anthracite, lignite
C
17. Maximum number of faces available for working in a shift in a 5 heading bord and pillar
T development district is
E
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 15
18. The seams are called “contiguous”, if the parting between successive seams is less than
(a) 10 m (b) 12 m (c) 9 m (d) 15 m
19. The size of the barrier pillar of a panel is B&P mining is

A
I (a) More than pillar size in the panel
(b) Same as pillar size in the panel
C (c) Less than pillar size in the panel
T (d) Not related to the size of the pillar in the panel
E 20. Which of the following is a u/g coal mine support
(a) Stop-Block (b) Pit prop (c) Jim – crow (d) Back stray
21. The Room & Pillar method of mining is applicable for deposits having a “dip” greater
than
A (a) 600 (b) 450

(c) 380 (d) Mild Slope of less than 100
I
C 22. The VCR technique of mining requires blast holes at an angle of
T (a) 45-500 (b) 900 (c) 35-450 (d) 0-1800

E
23. Narrow vertical opening excavated in a deposit at the end of a slope to provide a bench
face is called:
(a) Winze (b) Slot (c) Ramp (d) Ore pass
24. Artificial roof control in metal mines is NOT achieved by one of the following:
A (a) Roof Bolts (b) Timber Supports (c) Hydraulic jacks (d) Bed Caving
I
25. In one of the following methods, it is possible, with adequate planning, for a rapid
C increase in production, at a very short notice
T
(a) Sublevel caving (b) Shrinkage stoping (c) Block Caving (d) Strip stoping
E
Page 3 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
26. Hydro cyclone is basically used in Mineral Processing operations as

A
(a) Concentrating equipment (b) Classification equipment
I
(c) Filtration equipment (d) Weighing equipment
C
27. “Energy required for reduction of particle size is directly proportional to the new surface
T
area formed”. This Law is referred to as
E
(a) Rittingers Law (b) Kick‟s Law (c) Dobie‟s Law (d) Holme‟s Law
28. “Bartles-Mozley Concentrator” is an example of
(a) Flowing Film Concentrator (b) A variety of Jig Machine

(c) DMS Equipment (d) Hydro Cyclone
A
29. Carbon tetrachloride (CCL4) is mixed along with one of the following for formation of
I Heavy Medium in the laboratory
C
(a) Tetrabromoethane (TBE) (b) Sulphuric Acid
T (c) Ammonium Nitrate (d) Calcium sulphate
E
30. The “Degree of Liberation” necessary for effective concentration processes of many ore
minerals is 100% - True / False
(a) Generally 20-35% (b) Close to 95%

(c) Less than 15% (d) is specific to Mineral species
31. In the design of crushing rolls the NIP ANGLE of the roll crusher should never exceed
A
(a) 45o (b) 65o (c) 300 (d) 100
I
C 32. Xanthates are primarily used as
T
(a) Modifiers (b) Collectors (c) Ph Modifiers (d) Frothers
E
33. The main factor which plays a key role in deciding the stripping ratio is
(a) Labour charges (b) Size of the machinery

(c) Profit margin (d) Market value of minerals
34. In granite quarrying, primary drilling is done

A
(a) For extraction of large blocks (b) For loosening overburden
I (c) To determine the depth of the overburden(c)For sub-dividing the primary blocks
C
35. Ore grade for which revenue from the recoverable reserve exactly equals the cost of
T mining, treatment and marketing is known as
E
(a) Cut-off grade (b) Average grade (c) Break-even grade (d) Liquidation grade
Page 4 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
36. In surface mines, no haul road shall be steeper than

A
(a) 1 in 16 (b) 1 in 14 (c) 1 in 12 (d) 1 in 10
I
C 37. Fluid Coupling is called as
T
(a) Shaft coupling (b) Hydraulic coupling
E (c) Flexible coupling (d) Tooth Gearing
38. In Koepe winding the overwind is prevented by
(a) Detaching hook (b) Automatic contrivances

(c) Convergence of guide rope (d) Guide rope
39. Safety devices used for arresting the forward runway of tub is
A
I (a) Back catch (b) Drop Warwick (c) Stop block (d) Runway switch
C
40. Force required to cause movement is called
T
(a) Drawbar pull (b) Tractive effort (c) Running force (d) Reaction force
E
41. The deformation per unit length is called as__________
(a) Tensile stress (b) Shear stress (c) Shear Strain (d) Linear Strain
42. The ability of material to sustain large deformation is called as ________
A (a) Elasticity (b) Rigidity (c) Ductility (d) Toughness

I
43. A solid circular shaft of diameter ‘d’, length ’L‟ is to be used to transmit power in a
C machine. The maximum shear stress will include at ____________ of the shaft.
T
(a) Centre (b) Surface (c) Centroid (d) Neutral axis
E
44. The state-of-stress at a point is represented by Mohr‟s circle. If the entire circle is
located on right-hand side of vertical axis, then principal stresses are ______ in nature.
(a) Compressive (b) Tensile (c) Shear (d) Twisting
45. The plane on which principal stresses are acting, shear stress is ______ value.
A
(a) zero (b) Maximum (c) Minimum (d) non-zero
I
46. A spherical shell of radius ‘r’ and wall thickness ‘t’ is subjected to internal pressure ‘p’.
C
The stress included in the wall of the shell is given by ___________
T
pr pr pr pr
E (a) (b) (c) (d)
4t t 2t 3t
Page 5 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
47. Melting temperature of white metal which is used in underground metal mines should
A not be more than?
I (a) 200 0C (b) 250 0C (c) 300 0C (d) 350 0C
C 48. A side discharge loader is generally –
T (a) Compressed air operated (b) Electricity operated

E (c) Diesel operated (d) Petrol operated
49. A Creeper is used for?
(a) Elevating the tub (b) Lowering the tub

(c) To unload the material (d) To load the material in tub
50. Which of the following is not a rope haulage safety device?

A
(a) Age craft device (b) Monkey catch
I (c) Bell plate (d) Run away switch
C
51. The term Angle of Fleet is associated with?
T
E (a) Drum Winding (b) Friction Winding
(c) Endless Rope Haulage (d) Belt Conveyor
52. In a fully mechanised bord and pillar mining system, winning of coal and its
transportation from the face is commonly carried out with the combination of
(a) continuous miner, shuttle car, feeder breaker and belt conveyor
(b) continuous miner, LHD, feeder breaker and chain conveyor
(c) continuous miner, SDL, feeder breaker and belt conveyor
A
(d) continuous miner, shuttle car, feeder breaker and chain conveyor
I
53. Surface miner uses one of the following methods of mining the material__________
C
T (a) Horizontal method (b) Terrace method
(c) Wide surface mining method (d) Vertical method
E
54. For haul road construction subgrade material may be assessed using __________
(a) California Bearing Ration (CBR) (b) compressive strength of material

(c) Tensile strength of material (d) Weatherability Index of material
55. An aerial ropeway is called as bi-cable aerial ropeway if it has _____

A
(a) Single rope serving as track rope and traction rope
I (b) one track rope and one traction rope
(c) two track ropes and one traction rope
C
(d) two track ropes and two traction ropes
T
56. Maximum gradient over which belt conveyor can transport material is __________
E
(a) 380 (b) 250 (c) 180 (d) 100
Page 6 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
57. Surface Miner can mine the material with compressive strength upto________
A
(a) 500 MPa (b) 400 MPa (c) 200 MPa (d) 100 MPa
I
58. The “Cut-off-grade” depends on
C
T (a) % of valuable mineral that can be economically extracted
(b) size upto which mineral can be ground
E (c) % of valueablle mineral present in the ore
59. Differential acceleration depends on
(a) Particle size (b) Specific gravity of the mineral

(c) Specific gravity of the medium (d) Electrical properties of the mineral
A
60. BSS Mesh number refers to
I
C (a) Number of openings per square inch
(b) Number of openings per linear inch
T (c) Number of openings per linear meter
E (d) Number of openings per square meter
61. Terminal velocity of a fine particle under laminar flow condition is
(a) Directly proportional to square of the particle radius and inversely proportional to
viscosity of fluid
(b) Inversely proportional to square of the particle radius and inversely proportional to
viscosity of fluid
A (c) Directly proportional to the particle radius and inversely proportional to square of the
I viscosity of fluid
(d) Directly proportional to square root of the particle radius and inversely proportional
C to square of the viscosity of fluid
T
62. Gyratory crusher is a
E
(a) Special type of crusher (b) Tertiary crusher
(c) Primary crusher (d) Secondary crusher
63. Xanthates are used as collectors for flotation of
(a) Sulphides (b) Oxides (c) Silicates (d) Carbonates
A 64. Which rock mass classification is suitable for coal measured rocks
I (a) Barton (b) Bieniawski (c) Deere (d) Trezaghi
C
65. P wave velocity determination method classed under ______
T
(a) Destructive method (b) non-destructive method
E
(c) Static method (d) in situ method
Page 7 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
A 66. Breathing tube is used in installing cement grout bolt for the purpose of____
I (a) injecting grout in the hole (b) inserting bolt in hole
C (c) evacuating air from hole (d) for identification
T 67. In case of Brazilian test in laboratory according to ISRM standards L/D ratio should be
E
(a) 2.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.5 (d) at least 2
68. Life of a panel in coal mine depends on
(a) Incubation period of coal (b) Quality of coal

(c) Degree of Gassiness (d) Seepages in panel
A 69. Which rank of coal is having highest calorific value?

I
(a) Peat (b) Anthracite (c) Bituminous (d) Lignite
C
T 70. Which of these supports is self-advancing support?
E (a) Safari Support (b) Props (c) Rock bolts (d) Power support
71. The right combinations of equipments used with continuous miner are
(a) SDL-Direct rope haulage (b) Shuttle car-squat bolter

(c) SDL-LHD (d) LHD-Direct rope haulage
A 72. Correct order of hardness is
I (a) Apatite<fluorite<Quartz<Orthoclase
C (b) Fluorite<Apatite<Orthoclase<Quartz
(c) Quartz<Orthoclase<Apatite<fluorite
T (d) Orthoclase<apatite<Fluorite<Quartz
E
73. Slake Durability index was given by
(a) Barton (b) Bieniawski (c) Deere (d) Gamble
74. Given S is the setting load & Y is the yield load of a hydraulic prop, the correct
relationship is
A (a) S=Y2 (b) S=1/Y (c) S>Y (d) S<Y

I
75. A Flat Jack is used to determine?
C
T (a) Stresses acting in perpendicular direction
(b) Direction of maximum Horizontal Stresses
E (c) Direction of minimum Horizontal Stresses
(d) Stresses acting in parallel direction
Page 8 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
A 76. Orepasses are used in underground metal mines for

I
(a) Gravity transport of ore (b) Material transport
C (c) level gradient (d) Conveyor ore transport
T
77. In a stoping method 30 to 40% ore is drawn during stoping and rest is stored in the stope;
E is the method of stoping
(a) Cut and fill (b) Square set method

(c) Sublevel stoping (d) Shrinkagestoping
78. Sub level stoping is used for
(a) Thin ore deposit (b) Thick ore deposit

A
(c) Massive deposit (d) Reef
I
79. Ring drilling pattern of blasting is used in
C
T (a) Sub level stoping (b) Raising
(c) Underhand stoping (d) Stope and pillar method
E
80. Lateral development in metal mines includes
(a) Level, drives and drifts (b) Orepass and orechute

(c) Winzes and staple pits (d) Finger raises and manways
A PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

I
81. If a solid circular shaft of diameter (d) is subjected to torque (T), the maximum shear
C stress included in the shaft will be equal to _________
T
64T 32T 16T 8T
(a) 3 (b) (c) (d)
E πd πd3 πd3 πd3
82. A simply supported beam of length „L‟ and flexural rigidity „EI‟, carries a point load of
magnitude „P‟ at mid-span. The maximum slope in the beam is given by ______.
PL3 PL2 PL3 5PL4

(a) (b) (c) (d)
48EI 16EI 24EI 384EI
A 83. A simply supported beam of length ‘L’ and flexural rigidity ‘EI’carries UDL of intensity
‘w’ per unit length on entire span. The maximum deflection of beam is given by ___
I
C wL4 384wL3 wL3 5wL4
(a) (b) (c) (d)
48EI 5EI 24EI 384EI
T
E
Page 9 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32

A
P: Bucket wheel excavator 1: Mine tub
I
Q: Continuous miner 2: A F C
C R: Shearer 3: Shiftable conveyor
S: Load haul duper 4: Shuttle car
T
The correct match is:
E
(a) P 3, Q 2, R 4, S 1 (b) P 3, Q 4, R 2, S 1
(c) P 3, Q 2, R 1, S 4 (d) P 1, Q 4, R 3, S 2
85. A double ended ranging drum shearer is employed in a long wall mine of face length 150
meter. The mining height is 3.5 meter and depth of the web cut is 0.6 meter. The cycle
time for unidirectional cutting is 40 min. Considering density of coal to be 1.4 T/m3,
coal production per cycle from the face in Tonne is?
A
(a) 384 (b) 400 (c) 441 (d) 484
I
86. A bucket wheel excavator with 20 bucket of capacity 0.5 m3, rotates at 5 rev/min. The
C bucket fill factor is 80%. The excavator loads on to 1200 mm wide belt conveyor. The
T cross sectional area (m2) of the material on the belt is 0.1B2, where B is width of bet in
m. The minimum speed of the belt in m/s to avoid spillage of material is:
E
(a) 7.23 (b) 5.79 (c) 4.63 (d) 3.70
87. Given the following Table details of the grade and expenditure
% Copper 0.5% 0.4%
Recoverable copper per tonne 4 kg 2.50 kg
Copper value Rs. 50/kg Rs. 200 Rs. 125
A Mining, Treatment & Selling cost of ore Rs./tonne Rs. 150 Rs. 150
I Net Amount Rs. 50 (-) Rs. 25
C Cut-off grade is
T (a) 0.2% (b) 0.3% (c) 0.60% (d) 0.45%
E
88. One round trip of dumper consumes 15.7 minutes, Haul distance is 2 km, working is 275
days in a year & 17 hours a day, actual working time of dumper per hour 50 minutes,
dumper size 50 tonnes with payload of 45 tonnes, total quantity of ore to be transported
annual is 6X106 tonnes. Number of dumpers required with 60% availability will be____
(a) 13 (b) 12 (c) 11 (d) 9
A 89. For the given information, find out hourly capacity of a dragline
Nominal bucket capacity is 15 m3, swell factor of the material 0.74, bucket fill factor
I 0.90, cycle time of the dragline 58 seconds and operating efficiency is 80%.
C (a) 600 m3/hour (b) 496 m3/hour (c) 550 m3/hour (d) 1100 m3/hour
T
E
Page 10 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
90. 1000 grams of copper zinc ore were ground in a laboratory mill for 12 minutes. The
A power input to the empty mill (contained ball charge only) was 226.9 watts. The power
input to the mill when grinding the sample was 283.2 watts. Feed to the mill was 80% -
I
1530 microns. Product from the mill was 80% -79 microns. Work index of the mineral
C is
T (a) 11.75 K Wh/ton (b) 10.21 K Wh/ton
(c) 11.26 K Wh/ton (d) 12.0 K Wh/ton
E
91. The ROM of a mine measures 26 inches and the mine proposes to install a gyratory
crusher, the minimum tonnage that can justify the gyratory crusher is
(a) 80 tons per hour (b) 55 tons per hour (c) 110 tons per hour (d) 150 tons per hour
92. Feed to a jigging plant assays 55.25% Fe, the jig concentrate produced assays 64.45% Fe
and the tailings assay 40.25% Fe. The recovery is
A (a) 75% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 92%
I
93. Calculate length of roof bolt in metre for a 4.5 m wide tunnel if Excavation Support
C Ratio is 1.1
T (a) 2.49 (b) 2.1 (c) 1.5 (d) 2.21
E
94. Write the correct chronological order of development of engineering rock mass
classification from the oldest to till date
(a) Barton-Biniawiski-Deere – Trezaghi (b) Biniawiski-Barton-Deere – Trezaghi
(c) Trezaghi-Deere Barton-Biniawiski (d) Deere-Barton-Biniawiski-– Trezaghi
95. A mine is being developed by bord and pillar method with a gallery size of 4.8 m X 2.4
m. The mine operates in 3 shifts per day and 6 faces are blasted per shift. The average
A
pull per round of blast is 1.2 m and bulk density of coal is 1.4 t/m3. If the OMS is 4, then
I the average manpower deployed in the development section per shift is
C (a) 25 (b) 29 (c) 34 (d) 18
T
96. A double ended ranking drum shearer is employed in a longwall mine of face length 200
E meter. The mining height is 3 meter and depth of the web cut is 0.6. meter. The cycle
time for cutting the face length is 60 min. and it is assumed that the effective working
hours of shearer is 6 hours per shift. Considering density of coal to be 1.3T/m3, coal
production per shift from the face in Tonne is?
(a) 3874 (b) 3200 (c) 2808 (d) 2436
97. Calculate the % extraction during development if centre to centre distance between the
A pillars is 28 m and width of gallery is 4 m. The height of gallery may be taken as 3 m.
I
(a) 24.62 (b) 26.53 (c) 27.01 (d) 27.53
C
98. The equation of a Mohrs Envelop plotted for a intact rock, is given by τ = 0.47 + 32.47ϭ
T + 32.74 where τ is Shear Stress and ϭ represents the normal stress. The angle of internal
E friction of the rock sample is
(a) 0.47 (b) 18.60 (c) 25.17 (d) 32.74
Page 11 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
99. In Alimak climber raising, which is the correct sequence in cycle

A
(a) Loading-scaling-blasting-drilling (b) Scaling-drilling-loading-blasting
I (c) Drilling-loading-blasting-scaling (d) Blasting-loading-scaling-drilling
C 100. A box of weight 100kN shown in figure below is to be lifted without swinging. If all
T forces are coplanar, the magnitude and direction (θ) of the force (F) with respect to x-
axis should be:
E
A
I (a) F=56.389 kN and θ=28.28°
C (b) F= -56.389 kN and θ= -28.28°
(c) F=9.055 kN and θ=1.414°
T (d) F= -9.055 kN and θ= -1.414°
E
101. The bending moment at E for the structure shown in below figure, is:
A
I
(a) Zero
C
(b) 10 Tm
T (c) 20 Tm
(d) 40 Tm
E
102. The tensile force required to cause an elongation of 0.045mm in steel rod of 1000mm
length and 12mm diameter is, (E=2x106 kg/cm2):
(a) 166 kg
(b) 102 kg
(c) 204 kg
(d) 74 kg
A
103. A 8m long simply supported rectangular beam which carries a distributed load 45kg/m
I
experiences a maximum fiber stress 160 kg/cm2.If the moment of inertia of the beam is
C 640cm4, the overall depth of the beam is:
T (a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
E
(c) 15cm
(d) 16 cm
Page 12 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
104. An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic state of stress as shown in the figure. For no
A change in the volume to occur, what should be its Poisson‟s ratio:
I
C
T
E
(a) 0.00
(b) 0.25
A
(c) 0.50
I (d) 1.00
C 105. If the eccentricity of total self-weight „W‟ of a masonry dam and its base is equal to
T fourth of base width B, then the maximum pressure at the base is given by:
E 2𝑊
(a) 3𝐵
4𝑊
(b) 3𝐵
5𝑊
(c)
3𝐵
8𝑊
(d) 3𝐵
106. If point load strength index is 4MPa, what is the approximate compressive strength:
A
I (a) 100MPa
(b) 50MPa
C (c) 25MPa
T (d) 5MPa
E 107. If later strain is 0.1 and longitudinal strain is 0.4, then what is the value of Poison‟s ratio:
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
(c) 4.0
(d) 1.0
108. In a coal mine, width of the gallery=3m; Immediate roof height=1.75m; Immediate roof
A density=2.5 t/cu.m. Roof condition is fractured. What will be the bolt density, if the
I distance between row of bolts is 1m:
C (a) 2 piece per sq.m

(b) 4 piece per sq.m
T (c) 1 piece per sq.m
E (d) 3 piece per sq.m
Page 13 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
109. A coal heading 4 m wide and 2.5 height has an advance of 1 m per cycle. The amount of
A explosive used in blasting is 6 kg. Taking specific gravity of coal as 1.5, the power factor
is:
I
C (a) 1.66 te/kg
(b) 2.50 te/kg
T
(c) 2.99 te/kg
E (d) 3.32 te/kg
110. A seam is worked at a depth of 70 m from surface and the width of galleries is 3.2 m, the
dimensions of pillars should not exceed:
(a) 15.0 m
(b) 16.5 m
(c) 19.5 m
A
(d) 13.5 m
I
111. Rock quality Designation ( RQD ) is a technique, for evaluating cavability characteristics
C
of stoping operations, in which the percentage of core that is intact is measured,
T wherein all cores are equal to or greater than of -- length are considered:
E
(a) Greater than 8 inches
(b) Greater than 6 inches
(c) Greater than 2.5 inches
(d) Greater than 4 inches
112. Consider a mixture of Galena (Specific Gravity 7.5) and Quartz (Specific Gravity 2.65)
classifying in water and obeying Stokes law. Under these conditions the Free settling
A ratio of these particles is:
I
(a) 2.65
C (b) 1.99
(c) 1.75
T
(d) 2.35
E
113. In which type of Mineral Processing technologies, is an appraisal of “individual ore
particles” undertaken:
(a) Magnetic Concentration

(b) Electronic Ore Sorting
(c) Froth flotation
(d) sedimentation
A
I 114. The ratio of the theoretical power input (p1/p2) of two centrifugal fans having same
specific speed and operating at same speed is given by:
C
T (a) (D1/D2)2
(b) (D1/D2)3
E
(c) (D1/D2)4
(d) (D1/D2)5
Page 14 of 15
ROLL NO. UG2MIE32
115. A wire rope, round standard with fibre core, has a diameter of 2.54 cm. If the steel
A has a tensile strength of 160 kg/mm2, the mass of the rope in SI unit is (Rope
length100m):
I
C (a) 234 kg
(b) 235 kg
T (c) 232 kg
E (d) 200 kg
116. The efficiency of a compressor may be expressed by:
(a) Volumetric efficiency

(b) Isothermal efficiency
(c) Adiabatic efficiency
(d) All the above
A
117. Blasts are being planned in a hard sandstone overburden bench of 10m height. How
I
much should be the value of Burden:
C
(a) 3m
T
(b) 6m
E (c) 8m
(d) 1m
118. A 1.1m wide belt conveyor carries material of bulk density 1.35t/m3 at a speed of
1.75m/s. The average cross sectional area of material is equal to w2/11, where w is the
width of the belt in m. The carrying capacity of the conveyor in t/h is:
(a) 735.55 t/hr

A (b) 1471.11 t/hr
I (c) 1871.11 t/hr
(d) 935.55 t/hr
C
T 119. A rectangular bar of width „b‟ and height „h‟ is being used as cantilever. The loading is
in a plane parallel to the side „b‟. The section modulus is:
E
𝑏ℎ 3
(a) 12
𝑏ℎ 2
(b) 6
𝑏2ℎ
(c) 6
𝑏2ℎ
(d) 3
A
120. According to DGMS guidelines, in surface mines all drivers of the vehicles should have
I clear view for a distance of not less than:
C (a) 5m
T (b) 10 m
(c) 20 m
E (d) 30 m
Page 15 of 15
UG MINING ENGINEERING
Code 32-Paper 2
1 C 31 C 61 A 91 Marks to all
2 D 32 B 62 C 92 Marks to all
4 A, B 34 A 64 B 94 C
5 A, B 35 C 65 B 95 B
6 B 36 A, B 66 C 96 C
7 D 37 B 67 C 97 B
8 A 38 C 68 A 98 Marks to all
9 D 39 B, C, D 69 B 99 C
10 B 40 A, B 70 D 100 A
11 B 41 D 71 B, D 101 A
12 B 42 C 72 B 102 B
13 B 43 B 73 D 103 A
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 C
16 A 46 C 76 A 106 A
17 C 47 C 77 D 107 A
18 C 48 B, C 78 B 108 Marks to all
19 B 49 A 79 A 109 B
20 B 50 C 80 A 110 B
21 D 51 A 81 C 111 D
22 B 52 A, C 82 B 112 B
23 Marks to all 53 C 83 D 113 B
24 D 54 A 84 B 114 D
25 B 55 B 85 C 115 C
26 B 56 C 86 C 116 D
27 A 57 D 87 Marks to all 117 A
28 A 58 A 88 Marks to all 118 D
29 A 59 B 89 Marks to all 119 B
30 D 60 B 90 Marks to all 120 D
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY/ENGINEERING

A
I
PAPER-1
C
T Instructions:
questions.
A
I
C wrong answer.
T vi. No programmable calculator is permitted. However, students can use non-
A
I
C PART-A (70 X 1= 70)
T
E 1. A fibre as a 'textile raw material, generally characterised by
(a) Flexibility, fineness and high ratio of length to thickness
(b) Flexibility, coarse and high ratio of length to thickness
(c) Rigid, fineness and high ratio of length to thickness
(d) Rigid, fineness and low ratio of length to thickness
A
I
C 2. Why different fibres may be blended or mixed?
T
E (a) To compensate for weaker attributes or properties of one type of fibre
(b) To improve the performance of the resulting yarn or fabric
(c) To improve or provide a different appearance
3. Elastomers are defined as materials that

A (a) At room temperature, can be stretched repeatedly to at least twice their original length
I (b) At room temperature, can not be stretched repeatedly
C
T
(c) At high temperature, can be stretched repeatedly
4. Fibre length influences

(a) Strength, evenness and hairiness of a staple yarn
(b) Spinning limit
(c) Twist level in a yarn
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
5. Synthetic filament yarns can be texturised (textured)
(a) To increase the bulkiness of the yarns and the comfort of the fabrics
(b) Better washability, ease of care
A (c) To lower the cost compared to natural fibre fabrics
C
T
E 6. The number of 300 yard 'leas' (hanks) or yarn lengths per pound
(a) Flax count

(b) English Cotton system
(c) Worsted system
A
I 7. Elastane fibres can be spun in
C
T
E (a) Solution dry spinning
(b) Solution wet spinning
(c) Melt spinning
8. The count range of staple-fibre yarns for hosiery

A (a) 2-7.5 tex
I (b) 7.5—40 tex
C
T
(c) 16-40tex
E (d) >40tex
9. The rotor system is mainly used for the production of
(a) Coarse to medium count short staple yarns

(b) Coarser industrial yarns
A (c) Fancy yarns
I
C
T
E 10. Mercerization of cotton is carried by using
(a) Sodium hydroxide

(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Sodium carbonate
A
I 11. The quality of jute fiber depends on
C
T (a) Quality of water and microorganisms
E (b) Nature and control of thick/thin parts in retting
(c) Both of the above
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
12. Which is not a protein fiber ?
(a)Wool
(b) Silk
A (c) Viscose
I (d) Hair
C
T
E 13. Which of the followings is a bastfiber?
(a) Jute
(b) Silk
(c) Wool
(d) Cotton
A
I 14. Which of the followings is not a requirement for fiber forming polymer?
C
T
E (a) Long-chain molecules
(b) Ordered arrangement of molecules
(c) Separation of molecules
(d) Freedom of molecular movement
15. The fibre which has a mineral origin is

A
I (a) Asbestos
C
(b) Silk
T
E (c) Flax
(d) Acrylic
16. The fibre that contains nitrogen and sulfur is

(a) Polyester
A (b) Wool
I (c) Nylon 6
C (d) Kevlar
T
E 17. The protein in wool fiber is known as
(a) Keratin
(b) Fibroin
(c) Sericin
(d) Collagen
A
I 18. The term retting is associated with
C
T (a) Cotton
E (b) Wool
(c) Silk
(d) Jute
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
19. Drying cylinders of sizing are coated with
(d) Chromium
(e) Synthetic rubber
A (c) PTFE
I (d) Starch
C
T
E 20. Which of the following is a preferred material for the sizing of polyester?
(a) Sago starch

(b) Corn starch
(c) Potato starch
(d) Polyvinyl alcohol
A
I 21. Sectional warping is considered more practical than beam warping
C
T
E (a) For executing big orders
(b) For producing striped fabrics
(c) When sizing is considered necessary
(d) When two fold yarn has to be used in warp and weft
22. In an automatic loom

A
I (a) Weft-break is repaired automatically
C
(b) Warp-break is repaired automatically
T
E (c) Exhausted weft bobbin is replaced automatically
(d) Exhausted warp beam is replaced automatically
23. Which of the followings is a secondary motion in weaving?
(a) Shedding
A (b) Picking
I (c) Beating-up
C
T
(d) Let-off
E
24. In shuttleless weaving, weft waste is minimum on
(c) Air-jet loom

(b) Water-jet loom
(c) Rapier loom
(d) Gripper (or projectile) loom
A
I
C 25. Circular looks are preferred over conventional looks
T
E (a) When weft pattern is complicated
(b)When the silk yarn is involved
(c) When hose type of fabrics are required
(d)Because circular looks give higher efficiency
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
26. Fabric cover on a loom is improved by
(a) Raising the back rest

(b) Having early shedding
A (c) Having late picking
C
T
E 27. Pirn winding is an essential preparatory process for weaving on
(a) Air jet loom

(b) Water jet loom
(c) Rapier loom
(d) Drop box loom
A
I 28. In air jet-looms
C
T
E (a) All the relay nozzles start jetting at same time
(b) Each relay nozzles has separate jetting time
(c) Relay nozzles of a group stat jetting at a same time
(d) Main and relay nozzles have same jetting time
29. Increase in the ratio of the length of crank to the length of connecting rod leads to
A
I (a) Increase in sley eccentricity
C
(b) Decrease in sley eccentricity
T
E (c) No change in sley eccentricity
(d) Initial increase and then decrease in sley eccentricity
30. The power required for picking in a shuttle loom depends on
(a) Weave of the fabric

A (b) Number of heald shafts
I (c) Reed width
C
T
(d) Number of picking cams
E
31. ‘Coagulation’ is a term which is associated with
(a) Reaction spinning

(b) Melt spinning
(c) Dry spinning
(d) Wet spinning
A
I
C 32. Viscose rayon is produced through the process of manufacturing known as
T
E (a) Solution spinning
(b) Melt spinning
(c) Gel spinning
(d) Dry-jet spinning
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
33. Drawing of fibers generally result in
(a) Increase in tenacity and decrease in elongation

(b) Increase in tenacity and increase in elongation
A (c) Decrease in tenacity and increase in elongation
C
T
E 34. The melting point of a polymer is dependent on

(b) Initial modulus
(c) Elongation
A
I 35. At low temperatures, amorphous polymers are glassy, hard, and brittle. This is related to
C
T
E (a) Melting point
(b) Glass transition
(c) Tenacity of polymers
36. A good fibre forming polymer should not have

A
I (a) Linear polymeric chain
C
(b) Branched polymeric chain
T
E (c) High DP
(d) High inter-molecular interaction
37. The technology which uses all the terms - "dead spots", "die-swell" and "POY" is
(a) Dry spinning

A (b) Wet spinning
I (c) Melt spinning
C
T
(d) Dry jet wet spinning
E
38. Polyester fiber is soluble in
(a) Acetone
(b) Formic acid
(c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Metacresol
A
I
C 39. The main purpose of mixing larger No. of bales is
T
E (a) Produce stronger yarn
(b) Reduce waste
(c) To get consistent yarn quality
(d) Improve cleaning efficiency
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
40. Roller and clearer card is used for carding of
(a) Cotton
(b) Cotton waste
A (c) Wool fibres
I (d) Man-made fibres
C
T
E 41. The most preferred beater for processing man-made fibres is
(a) Shirley opener

(b) Kirschner beater
(c) Creighton
(d) Three bladed beater
A
I 42. The technique used for sampling of cotton fibers from a sliver is
C
T
E (a) Zoning
(b) Cut squaring
(c) Dye sampling
(d) Core sampling
43. The 'twist factor' is also known as:

A
I (a) Twist enhancer
C
(b) Twist multiplier
T
E (c) Twist contractor
(c) None of the above
44. While processing of synthetic fibers, the negative carding angle is seen in
(a) Licker-in
A (b) Cylinder
I
C
(c) Flat
T (d) Doffer
E
45. Fibre parallelization in drawn sliver improves with
(a) Increase in draft

(b) Increase in doubling
(c) Decrease in roller setting
A (d) Increase in roller pressure
I
C 46. A machine that does not improve the mass evenness is
T
E (a) Drawframe
(b) Ring doubler
(c) Speedframe
(d) Ribbon lap
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
47. Condensers in speed frame are used to
(a) Control spreading of fibres

(b) Control short fibres
A (c) Control long fibres
C
T 48. For a given rotor yarn count, finer the fibre, the irregularity of yarn is
E
(a) Low
(b) High
(c) There is no relation
A
I 49. The warp breakage rate is very largely governed by
C
T (a) Yarn quality
E (b) Yarn clearing
(c) Efficacy of sizing
50. The process parameters which govern the removal of yarn faults are
A (a) Slub catcher setting
I
C (b) Unwinding tension
T (c) Type of slub catcher assembly
51. The extent of improvement in tensile strength of yarn depends on
(a) Type of sizing material

(b) Type of yarn
A (c) Size add-on
I
T
E 52. The manmade fibre which is spun on the cotton system
(a) Polyester
(b) Viscose Rayon
(c) Acrylic
A
I 53. Which fibre characteristic influence the processing of staple fibres?
C
T (a) Crimp
E (b) Friction
(c) Moisture regain
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
54. Which fibre characteristic influences the quality of staple yarns?
(a)Staple length
(b) Denier
A (c) Fibre strength
C
T
E 55. The compatibility of blend fibres is required in terms of properties like
(a) Length
(b) Denier
(c) Breaking elongation
A
I 56. The blend ratio influences
C
T
E (a) Yarn construction
(b) Fabric construction
(c) Final finishing of the fabric
57. Lap blending can be said to have the following advantage

A
I (a) Ensure good blend homogeneity
C
(b) Easy to work
T
E (c) Good control on the use of recovered fibre waste
58. Which one of the following fibres needs longer opening sequence in blowroom
(a) Polyester
A (b) Acrylic
I (c) Viscose
C
T
(d) None
E
59. There is a common problem of lap licking to process acrylic fibres due to
(a) High bulk

(b) Low inter-fibre cohesion
(c) Low compressibility
A
I
C 60. Roller lapping is caused due to
T
E (a) Static accumulation
(b) Fibre tackiness
(c) Poor inter-fibre cohesion
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
61. The optimum roving twist depends on
(a) Fibre length

(b) Fibre Denier
A (c) Roving hank
C
T
E 62. The 50s blend yarn spun from 38mm polyester, the twist multiplier should be
(a) 3.6-3.8
(b) 4-4.2
(c) 2.7-3.3
A
I
63. Top roller weighing for manmade and blends
C
T
E (a) Higher than 100% cotton
(b) Higher than 100% viscose
(c) 1.5-1.7kg/cm at the nip is adequate
64. Fibre lubricating film on the running track of the ring

A
I (a) A very effective lubricant
C
T (b) Allows a higher traveller speed
E (c) Prevents damage to the new ring surface
65. Neps are produced in yarn due to
(a) Finer and longer fibres

A (b) Excessive beating of fibres in the blowroom
I
(c) Loading of licker-in and cylinder at the card
C
E
66. Unevenness of the product increases from stage to stage after drawframe because
(a) Number of fibres /cross section decreases

(b) Uniform arrangement of fibres becomes difficult
(c) Fibres movement difficult to control
A
I
C 67. When a fibre is gripped in two points with different speeds in drafting zone
T
E (a) Fibre will be broken if its strength is lesser than tensile force
(b) Fibre will be pulled out if its strength is lesser than tensile force
(c) Fibre will be easily come out if its strength is greater than tensile force
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
68. Guidance of the floating fibres in the drafting zone is influenced by
(a) A sufficient number of long fibres as carrier fibres

(b) Guiding devices such as rollers, aprons etc
A (c) A well developed friction field
C
T
E 69. In which operating stage, the drafting takes place
(a) Decrimping of fibres
(b) Elongation of fibres
(c) Sliding of the fibres out of the surrounding fibre strand
A 70. The fibres in the card web have

I (a) More than 50% trailing hooks
C
T
(b) Less than 50% trailing hooks
E (c) Approximate 50% trailing hooks
PART-C (30X2=60 Marks)
71. If 6 sliver each having CV% of six are doubled, the CV% of the resultant sliver will be
A
I (a) √6
C
(b) 6
T
E (c) 12
(d) 25
72. The speed of tappet shaft on a loom weaving design on 4 ends and 3 picks will be
(a) Same as that of crankshaft

A (b) Half that of crankshaft
I (c) One third that of crankshaft
C
T
E
73. A 2.5 crossing drum means there are
(a) 2.5 turns in a double traverse

(b) 5 turns in a double traverse
(c) 5 turns in a single traverse
A
I
C 74. Special luster of silk is related to
T
E (a) Fine denier of silk
(b) Triangular cross section of filaments
(c) High uniformity of filament denier
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
75. Balloon control rings are more effective
(a) At the end of the doff

(b) At the middle of the doff
A (c) At the beginning of the doff
I (d) Throughout the doff
C
T
E 76. Strength of rotor spun yarn is higher than
(a) Ring spun yarn
(b) Air-jet yarn
(c) Dref yarn
(d) Compact yarn
A
I 77. The twist in the roving made from finer fibres should be comparatively
C
T (a) Same
E
(b) Higher
(c) Lower
(d) Zero
78. Unripe cotton fibres lead to

A
I (a) Varying dyeability
C (b) Smooth processing in card
T (c) Increase in spinning limit
79. Long fibre length influences
(a) Handle of the product

A (b) Proportion of short fibres
I (c) Processing in card
T
E
80. Fibre fineness influences primarily:
(a) Drape of the fabric product

(b) Percentage loss in yarn strength
(c) Varying dyeability
(d) Staple diagram
A
I 81. The breaking strength of cotton fibre
C
T
E (a) 35-60 cN/tex
(b) 15-40 cN/tex
(c) 12-18 cN/tex
Page 12 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
82. If N is the number of fibres in a yarn cross section, the limiting irregularity is
proportional to
(a) 1/N
A (b) 1/N2
I (c) 1/√N
C
T
(d) N
E
83. A direct determination of the melting point of PVA is difficult. The reason behind this
statement is
(a) The polymer is very complex and do not melt at one go

(b) Decomposition starts near the melting point
A (c) PVA is amorphous and has no melting point
C
T
E 84. For a comparative study of all manufactured yarns, the lowest and highest twist factors
are generally for
(a) Knitting and voile yarn

(b) Voile and knitting yarn
(c) Warp and Hosiery yarn
A (d) Hosiery and warp yarn
I
C
85. In precision winder, the parameter which remains constant during winding is
T
E
(a) Wind per double traverse
(b)Winding speed
(c) Angle of wind
(d) Coil angle
A 86. In under-pick mechanism, the velocity of the shuttle can be varied by

I
C (a) Increasing the length of the check strap
T (b) Decreasing the length of the check strap
E (c) Changing the position of the lug strap
(d) By increasing the swell pressure
87. As sley eccentricity increases
(a) Maximum velocity is reached earlier and beat up becomes less effective
(b) Maximum velocity is reached later and beat up becomes more effective
A (c) Maximum velocity is reached earlier and beat up becomes more effective
I
C
(d) Maximum velocity is reached later and beat up becomes less effective
T
E 88. As the roving bobbin builds up, the speed of bobbin in a bobbin leading roving frame
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Increases at the start and decreases at the end
(d) Remains constant
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
89. In a sectional warping machine, an increase of taper angle requires
(a) Higher warping speed

(b) Lower warping speed
A (c) Higher traverse speed
I (d) Lower traverse speed
C
T
E 90. On producing a coarse count yarn from short staple trashy cotton sliver, the most suitable
rotoris
(a) Small diameter rotor with narrow groove
(b) Large diameter rotor with narrow groove
(c) Large diameter rotor with wide groove
A (d) Small diameter rotor with wide groove
I
C 91. A shuttle loom producing 3 up 1 down twill fabric is running at 180 picks per minute.
T The angular velocity of the tappet (cam) shaft in radian per second, would be
E
(a) 4.7
(b) 3.2
(c) 4
(d) 5.5
A
I 92. Nylon is an ideal fibre to make the hosiery fabrics due to
C
T (a) A good tensile modulus
E
(b) A good recovery
(c) A good resiliency
(d)All of the above
93. The fibres selected for blending should be compatible with respect to
A (a) Fibre length, fineness (denier)
I (b) Strength, extensibility
C
(c) Dyeing behaviour
T
94. Texturing greatly influences which properties in apparel applications

(a) Thermal insulation behaviour,
(b) Tactile properties
(c) Moisture transport properties
I
C 95. Which properties in the end-products are improved by polyester fibres with different
T cross-sections?
E
(a) Aesthetic,
(b) Tactile
(c) Comfort
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
96. Fibre deposition in the core of rotor spun yarn
(a) Parallel, helical

(b) Less parallel, helical
A (c) Parallel w/o twist
C
T
E 97. The hydrogen bond is stronger than
(a) Van der Waals bond

(b) Covalent
(c) Ionic bond
(d) Dipole association
A
I 98. Uneven twills are those in which
C
T
E (a) The warp comes to the surface to either a greater or lesser extent than does the weft
(b) The warp and weft come to the surface to the same extent
(c) Both warp and weft predominate on the face
99. A mordent use in dyeing is

A
I (a) Catalyst
C
(b) Polymer
T
E (c) A chemical with affinity for dye and fibre
100. Some sources of faults in knitted fabrics
(a) Raw material (yarn)

A (b) Yarn feeding and feed regulator
I (c) Machine setting
C
E
PART –C

I
T
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) 3 (c) (d)3
A 3 2
I
C 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
T
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
A (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
C 106. The differential equations of the family of lines passing through the origin is
T
E (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
A 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
I 𝑓 𝑥 = is
𝑙
C 𝑘 𝑙−𝑥 ; ≤𝑥≤𝑙
T 2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
E (a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

I
C
E probability of obtaining at most one negative value in five trial is
(a) 1/32 (b)2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
A (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1

I
𝑥+𝑦
C 111. If function 𝑢 = cos−1 , then it satisfies the following
T 𝑥+ 𝑦
E
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO. UG1TTE33
2 𝑥2

A (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
I
C 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
T 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
E
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
A
I 𝑥3 𝑦2
C (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
T
E
1
A 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
C
T
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
A (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

I
C 118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the remaining
T eigenvalue is
E
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
A (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
I
C
T 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
E 120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
Page 17 of 17
UG TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY / ENGINEERING
Code 33-Paper 1
1 A 31 D 61 D 91 A
3 A 33 A 63 A 93 A, B
4 D 34 A 64 D 94 D
5 A 35 B 65 D 95 D
6 A 36 B 66 D 96 B
7 D 37 C 67 A 97 A
8 B 38 D 68 D 98 A
9 A 39 C 69 C 99 C
10 A 40 C 70 A 100 D
11 C 41 B 71 Marks to all 101 A
12 C 42 B 72 C 102 C
13 A 43 B 73 B 103 A
14 C 44 A 74 B 104 D
15 A 45 A 75 D 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 A
17 A 47 A 77 C 107 A
18 D 48 A 78 A 108 B
19 C 49 D 79 A 109 D
20 D 50 D 80 A 110 B
21 B 51 D 81 A, B 111 D
22 C 52 D 82 C 112 B
23 D 53 D 83 B 113 B
24 D 54 D 84 A, D 114 B
25 C 55 D 85 A 115 B
26 A 56 D 86 C 116 C
27 D 57 D 87 C 117 B
28 C 58 C 88 B 118 C
29 A 59 D 89 D 119 B
30 C 60 D 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY / ENGINEERING

PAPER-II
Instructions:
A
C iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to
T the wrong answer.
viii. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion
A of examination before leaving the examination hall.
I
PART-A (80x1=80 Marks)
C
1. Disperse dyes are used for dyes
T
a) Ionic
E b) Non-ionic
c) Natural
2. Which is not a popular method for dyeing indigo

A a) Slasher dyeing
b) Rope Dyeing
I c) Fiber dyeing
C d) None of the above
T 3. Sodium chlorite bleaching of cotton is carrier out in the temperature range of

E (a) 50-600C
(b) 80-850 C
(c) 30-400 C
(d) 95-1100C
A 4. Ziegler Natta catalyst is used in the polymerization of

(a) PET
I (b) Nylon
(c) Acetate
C
(d) Polypropylene
T
5. Cellulase is
E (a) A fiber
(b) An enzyme
(c) An oxidizing agent
(d) A reducing agent
Page 1 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
6. Wool and silk can be bleached with

(a) Na2S204
(b) NaCIO
(c) NaBO3
(d) H202
A
7. Sizing of single cotton yard leads to an increase in
I (a) Strength and extensibility but decrease in bending rigidity and hairiness
(b) Strength and bending rigidity but decrease inextensibility and hairiness
C (c) Strength and hairiness but decrease in extensibility and bending rigidity
T (d) Bending rigidity and extensibility but decrease in strength and hairiness
E 8. Reactive dyes are held with cotton fibers by

(a) Hydrogen bond
(b) Van der Walls force
(c) Covalent bond
(d) Dipole-diploe attraction
A
I 9. Polypropylene fibers are
(a) Dope dyed
C (b) Dyed with acid dyes
(c) Dyed with direct dyes
T
(c) Dyed with disperse dyes
E
10. Indigo is a
(a) Vat dye
(b) Direct dye
(c) Acid dye
A (d) Basic dye
I 11. Rot proof finish is given to
C (a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
T (c) Polyester
E (d) Polypropylene
12. Stone wash finish is more commonly used for

(a) Poplin
(b) Shirting
A (c) Suiting
(d) Denim
I
13. Bronzing is a term associated with
C
(a) Direct dyes
T (b) Vat dye
(c) Sulphur dye
Page 2 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
14. Reactive dyes generally form an………..Bond

(a) Electrovalent
(b) Covalent
(c) Coordinate
A
15. A dye which can be used for PTT and PlA can be
I (a) Direct
(b) Vat
C (c) Disperse
E 16. Sodium persulphate is used in

(a) Bleaching
(b) Scouring
(c) Mercerization
(d) Desizing
A
I 17. The chemical structure given below can possibly function as a
C
T
E
a) Vat dye
b) Direct dye
c) Acid dye
d) Disperse dye
A
18. Singeing of cotton is carried out to
I (a) Remove protruding fibres from fabrics surface
(b) Impart luster
C
(c) Cut long threads from fabric surface
E 19. Dyeing of polyester is carried out by using
(a) Acid dyes
(b) Direct dyes
(c) Disperse dyes
(d) Vat dyes
A
I 20. The most productive method for textile printing is
(a) Rotary screen-printing
C (b) Automatic Flat-bed screen-printing
T (c) Block printing
(d) Discharge printing
E
21. Sublimation Transfer printing is most suitable for .
(a) Wool
(b) Jute
Page 3 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
(c) Polyester
(d) Cotton
22. Wash & Wear finishing of cotton is carried out to improve

(a) Crease resistance
(b) Fabric feel
A
(c) Abrasion resistance
C 23. Batch-wise scouring can be carried out in
T (a) Winch
(c) Jigger
E (d) Kier
(e) J-Box
24. The most important ingredient of a scouring composition is

(a) Wetting agent
A (b) Alkali
I (c) Emulsifying agent
(d) Sodium silicate
C
25. HT-HP Jet-dyeing machine is commonly used for dyeing of
T
(a) Wool
E (b) Cotton
(c) Polyester
(d) Acrylic
26. Enzyme treatment of cotton is carried out to remove

A (a) Size
(b) Colouring matter
I (c) Nitrogenous substances
C (d) Wexes
T 27. Dyeing of silk is carried out by using

E (a) Disperse dyes
(b) Acid dyes
(c) Pigment colours
A 28. Weight reduction finish is more commonly given to

(a) Nylon
I (b) Silk
(c) Polyester
C
(d) Cotton
T
29. Heat-setting of polyester is carried out on
E (a) Mercerizing machine
(b) Pin stenter
(c) Open width washing machine
Page 4 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
30. Highest order of tensile strength

(a) Cotton
(b) Viscose
(c) Wool
(d) Ramie
A
I 31. Highest moisture regain at 65% RH and 200C
(a) Cotton
C (b) PET
T (c) Nylon 6
(d) Viscose
E
32. Highest possibility of static charge generation under standard conditions
(a) Wool
(b) Silk
(c) Polyester
A (d) Cotton
I
33. Lowest density fibre
C (a) Cotton
(b) Polypropylene
T
(c) Nylon
E (d) Polyester
34. Density of cotton fibre in g/cc is

(a) 1.52
(b) 1.39
A (c) 1.10
(d) .0.91
I
C 35. Percentage moisture regain of nylon is
(a) 0.4
T (b) 4
E (c) 6
(d) 8
36. Alkali resistance is highest in case of

(a) Cotton
A (b) Wool
(c) Silk
I (d) Polyester
C
37. Imperfections are sum total of
T (a) Thick places and thin place
(b) All classimat faults
E (c) Thick places and neps
(d) Thick places, thin places and neps
Page 5 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
38. The count (Ne) of a cotton yarn of 1.62 g weight and 120 yd length is
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 80
(d) 100
A
39. Yarn strength for longer gauge length
I (a) Lower
(b) Higher
C (c) Depends on tensile tester
T (d) Remains the same
E 40. The load cell in Instron basically contains:

(a) Resistance
(b) Capacitance
(c) Strain gauges
A
I 41. The final breaking properties of a fibre is given by:
(a) Modulus
C (b) Work of rapture
(c) Elongation
T
(d) Tenacity
E
42. One newton force is equivalent to
(a) 98 gf
(b) 100 gf
(c) 102 gf
A (d) 1000 gf
I 43. The unit of twist multiplier in yarn is
C (a) inch-1.Ne-0.5
(b) inch-1.Ne0.5
T (c) inch.Ne-0.5
E (d) dimensionless)
44. Generally drawing of a filament is done above:

(a) Melting temperature
(b) Degradation Temperature
A (c) Glass Transition Temperature
I
45. Which of the following is a preferred material for the sizing of polyester
C
(a) Sago starch
T (b) Corn starch
(c) Potato starch
E (d) Polyvinyl alcohol
Page 6 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
46. A regular satin can be woven with minimum repeat size of

(a) 4x4
(b) 5x5
(c) 2x2
(d) 3x3
A
47. The percent crystallinity of cotton fiber is approximately
I (a) 25
(b) 33
C (c) 50
T (d) 67
E 48. Which of the following nonwoven fabrics display random fiber orientation?
(a) Air-laid
(b) Carded
(c) Spunbond
(d) Meltblown
A
I 49. The property of fabric which influences drape the most is
(a) Tensile
C (b) Compressional
(c) Shear
T
(d) Surface
E
50. Softener reduces the bending rigidity of fabrics by decreasing
(a) Inter-fibre and inter-yarn friction
(b) Modulus of the fibres
(c) Glass transition temperature of the fibres
A (d) Packing coefficient of yarns
I 51. A 25 tex cotton yarn has a twist factor of 30. The yarn twist, in turns per cm, is
C (a) 4
(b) 5
T (c) 6
E (d) 7
52. Drawing
(a) Increases crystallinity
(b) Increases birefringence
A (c) Decreases crystalline
(d) Increase strength
I
53. Which type of weave produces lustrous surface?
C
(a) Twill
T (b) Satin
(c) Jacquard
E (d) Pile weaves
Page 7 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
54. The unique ability of woven fabric to drape in multiple curvature is mainly
due to
(a) High tensile modulus
(b) Low shear rigidity
(c) Low compressibility
(d) High bending rigidity
A
I 55. The plain weave is variously known as
(a) Crepe
C (b) Grecians
T (c) Cretonne
(d) Calico
E
56. A fabric constructed with a hole-punch loom attachment that weaves different
colors into large, complex patterns is
(a) Jacquard weave
(b) Twill weave
A (c) Satin weave
I (d) Rachel knit
C 57. In weft knitted fabrics of the same mass per unit area produced from the same
yarns, the structure which will give the highest thickness is
T
(a) Plain
E (b) Rib
(c) Purl
(d) Interlock
58. 500-end double lift, single cylinder jacquard has

A (a) 500 hooks and 500 needles
(b) 500 hooks and 1000 needles
I (c) 1000 hooks and 500 needles
C (d) 1000 hooks and 1000 needles
T 59. Flatbed knitting machine can have

E (a) Only one bed
(b) Only two beds
(c) One or two beds
(d) Three or more beds
A 60. The major application of warp knitted fabric is

(a) Apparel
I (b) Filters
(c) Industrial textiles
C
(d) Wipes
T
61. Components of latch needle are
E (a) Latch, butt, hook, stem
(b) Butt, bed, latch, stem
(c) Butt, hook, eye, stem
(d) Latch, butt, hook, eye
Page 8 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
62. Which of the following is not a weft knitted structure

(a) Single jersey
(b) Rib
(c) Interlock
(d) Under lap
A
63. In a flat bed knitting machine, the loop length is controlled by
I (a) Raising cam
(b) Stitch cam
C (c) Clearing cam
T (d) Guard cam
E 64. What would be the resultant color of a warp knitted fabric if the front bar is
equipped with red colored threads and back bar with blue colored ones?
(a) Blue
(b) Red
(c) Red and blue both
A (d) None of these
I
65. Relation between the weight of fabric knitted and the number of feeders on a
C machine is
(a) Directly proportional
T
(b) Inversely proportional
E (c) Proportional to square root
66. Gauge of the knitting machine

(a) No. of needless in two inches
A (b) No. of needle per inch
(c) No. of sinkers
I (d) Total no. of needles
C
67. Which of the following needles is used for making velour fabric?
T (a) Triangular needle
E (b) Star bladed needle
(c) Fork needle
(d) Crown needle
68. In the context of thermal bonding of nonwoven web, the statement which is
A not true is
(a) A thermoplastic component has to be present in the text
I (b) Heat is applied until the thermoplastic component is melt
(c) The polymer flows by surface tension and capillary action to fibre cross over
C
points
T (d) Chemical reaction takes place
E 69. Identify the most suitable fabric for use on outdoor furniture
(a) Cotton fibre, carded yarn, twill weave fabric
(b) Nylon fibre, staple spun yarn, warp knit fabric
(c) Polyester fibre, filament yarn, plain weave fabric
Page 9 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
(d) Viscose rayon fibre, filament yarn, satin weave fabric
70. Large multi-coloured graphic designs on mass-produced T-shirts are achieved

by which of the following fabric decoration methods?
(a) Embroidery
(b) Resist dyeing
A
(c) Screen printing
I (d) Roller printing
C 71. Which of the following yarn and fabric structures would best maximise the
T heat retention of a micro-fibre blanket?
(a) A core spun yarn in a plain weave
E (b) A textured, monofilament yarn in a warp knit
(c) A low twist level, staple spun yarn in a pile weave
(d) A high twist level, multifilament yarn in a weft knit
72. Which of the following would be the most suitable fibre, yarn and fabric
A structure in the manufacture of school socks?
I (a) Polyester fibre, plain weave
(b) Viscose staple spun yarn, weft rib knit
C (c) Polyester and cotton core spun yarn, warp knit
(d) Cotton and nylon blended staple spun yarn, weft knit
T
E 73. A balanced fabric or weave has the ratio of warp and weft yarn
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 3:2
A
74. Stain-woven fabrics are used in
I (a) Clothing and apparel
C (b) Wedding dresses
(c) Drapery linings
E
75. Reasons for weaving a double cloth are to form
(a) A tube
(b) To produce a cloth of different colours on either side
(c) To produce quilt-like effects
I 76. Jacquard weave structures are used in

(a) Apparel and clothing
C
(b) Furnishing
T (c) Utility fabrics
E
Page 10 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
77. If the honeycomb structure is made with woollen yarns then it becomes
(a) Very absorbent of moisture
(b) Very absorbent liquids
(c) It absorbs heat, especially body heat
A
78. Gauge is a term often used to describe
I (a) The fineness of the fabric
(b) The number of needles (per inch) within the needle bed
C (c) The gauge is expressed as number of needles per 1.5 inches
E 79. The structure and properties of spunbond are influenced by

(a) Polymer properties
(b) Molecular weight and molecular weight distribution
(c) Process settings
A
I 80. Which of the following process sequences is correct for melt-blown process?
(a) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, attenuation, lay-down, winding.
C (b) Preparation, extrusion, drawing, attenuation, lay-down, winding
(c) Preparation, extrusion, quenching, lay-down, attenuation, winding
T
(d) Preparation, quenching, extrusion, attenuation, lay-down, winding
E
PART- B (40X2=80 Marks)
81. A design repeating on 10cm along length and 6cm along width of fabric
A having
40 ends and 30 picks per cm will require jacquard capacity of
I (a) 180
C (b) 240
(c) 300
T (d) 400
E
82. If 10 cm of yarn produces 9 cm of fabric, the yarn crimp is
(a) 11.1%
(b) 10%
(c) Data is incomplete
A (d) 9%
I 83. 1 kg of 20 Nm will have a length of

(a) 16,800 meters
C
(b) 33,600 meters
T (c) 20,000 meters
(d) 16,800 meters
E
84. A fabric having 30 tex in warp and 20 tex in weft, and having 40x30 ends and
picks per centimetre respectively. The GSM of the fabric is
2
(a) 90 g/m
Page 11 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
(b) 170 g/m2

(c) 180 g/m2
(d) 250 g/m2
85. Limiting oxygen index is determined to test the efficiency of

(a) Wash and wear finishing
A
(b) Water proofing
I (c) Flame retardant finishing
C
T 86. Metric count (Nm) equivalent of 90 denier yarn is
(a) 9
E (b) 10
(c) 90
(d) 100
87. Average molecular orientation can be measured by

A (a) X-ray diffraction
I (b) Infrared spectra
(c) Scanning electron microscopy
C (d) Birefringence
T
88. Among the following, strength/weight ratio is highest of
E (a) Steel
(b) Nylon
(c) Kevlar
(d) Polyester
A 89. The end groups in PET are

(a) Carboxyl
I (b) Hydroxyl
C (c) Carboxyl and hydroxyl
(d) Carboxyl and Amino
T
E 90. With increasing moisture regain in cotton fibres, the tenacity of the fibres
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) Increases rapidly
A
91. The coarser fibres preferentially migrate
I (a) To the surface of the yarn
(b) To the core of the yarn
C
(c) At random
T (d) Surface to core and back
E 92. In acontinuous filament yarn, at the centre of the yarn
(a) Fibre extension = yarn extension
(b) Yarn extension > fibre extension
(c) Fibre extension > yarn extension
Page 12 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
93. Twist multiplier (TM)) is a better indicator of twist characteristic of yarn than
T.P.I because
(a) TM is directly proportional to the tangent of twist angle
(b) TM describe level of twist in yarn irrespective of linear density
A
(c) TS is related to both the above characters
C 94. In a open packing of fibres in yarn, the maximum number of fibres in 3rd layer
T is:
(a) 6
E (b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 18
95. As a guide line, the optimum level of comber waste should be

A (a) Equal to short fibre%
I (b) Twice the short fibre %
(c) 1.3 times the short fibre %
C (d) 0.5 times the short fibre %
T
96. If the index of blend irregularity (IBI) is less; it means
E (a) Blending is better
(b) Blending is poor
(c) A moderate blending
A 97. During length measurement on fibrograph, 2.5% span length was found to be
25 mm. It means
I (a) .2.5% of fibres clamped are 25 mm is length
C (b) .2.5% of fibres clamped are longer than 25 mm
(c) 2.5% of fibres clamped are 25 mm or longer
E
98. The RKm of a yarn is equal to
(a) g/tex
(b) g/den
(c) Breaking length in Km
A (d) CSP
I 99. In a spinning mill, fibre bundle strength is preferred over single fibre strength,
because
C
(a) Bundle strength test is easy and quick
T (b) It gives less variation
(c) It has better correlation with yarn strength
E (d) It gives benefit of all above three
100. Number of 2 denier fibres in 10s cotton count yarn will be nearly
(a) 66
Page 13 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
(b) 100
(c) 200
(d) 266
101. The correct relationship between specific surface(s) and diameter (d) of a fibre
can be described by
A
(a) s = 1/d
I (b) s = 4/d
(c) s = perimeter of cross-section / area of cross - section
C (d) None of the above.
T
102. The breaking extension of the fibers in the order of highest to lowest
E elongation
(a) Silk> Cotton> Flax> Jute
(b) Cotton> Jute > Silk > Flax
(c) Flax > Jute >Silk>Cotton
(d) Cotton >Jute>Flax>Silk
A
I 103. If ‘W’ is weight of moist sample, ÓD’ is oven dry weight, than regain can be
defined as:
C (a) (W-OD)/OD
(b) (OD-W)/OD
T
(c) (W-OD)/ODX100
E (d) (OD-W)/ODX100
104. Uniformity ratio is defined as:

(a) S2.5%//S50%
(b) S50%/S2.5%
A (c) S2.5%/S50% X100
(d) S50%S2.5%X100
I
C 105. CRE and CRL tester would typically result in ‘_______________’ load
elongation curves.
T (a) Different
E (b) Same
(c) Similar
106. A yarn has a cotton count of 10s. The denier of the yarn would be:
A (a) 53.15
(b) 531.50
I (c) 59.05
(d) 590.5
C
T 107. A synthetic yarn is stretched by 5% and kept in the extended condition. With
time, the registered stress wil
E (a) Increase linearly
(b) Decrease linearly
(c) Decrease exponentially
(d) Increase exponentially
Page 14 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
108. The K/S value can be calculated if one knows the

(a) Lab
(b) CIE
A
(c) XYZ
I (d) Reflectance values
C 109. The relation between the cloth cover and air permeability is
T (a) Linear
(b) Exponential
E (c) Parabolic
(d) Hyperbolic
110. While weaving a cloth bumping increases with

(a) Increasing warp tension
A (b) Decreasing loom speed
I (c) Increasing picks per cm
(d) Decrease of yarn linear density (tex)
C
111. A plain woven fabric is produced with four healds and skip draft
T
(a) Minimum 8 cams are needed and they must be mounted on tappet shaft
E (b) Minimum 4 cams are needed and they must be mounted on bottom shaft.
(c) Minimum 2 cams are needed and they must be mounted on tappet shaft
(d) Minimum 2 cams are needed and they could be mounted either on bottom shaft
or on tappet shaft.
A 112. The color of an object depends on

(a) The nature of light incident on the object
I (b) The nature of interaction with the material
C (c) The nature of the observer
T
E 113. The chemical groups present in a fiber can be identified by
(a) SEM
(b) DSC
(c) FTIR
(d) TGA
A
114. Which of the following fibers has the highest elongation-at-break?
I (a) Wool
(b) Silk
C
(c) Jute
T (d) Cotton
E 115. The diameter (in mm) of a cotton yarn of 50 tex count and 60% porosity is
(a) 0.20
(b) 0.26
(c) 0.32
Page 15 of 16
ROLL NO. UG2TTE33
(d) 0.38
116.The decrease in yarn strength with the increase of twist is due to

(a) Fiber slippage
(b) Fiber breakage
A
(c) Fiber compaction
I (d) Fiber obliquity
C 117. With the increase in size percentage, the frequency of end breakage
T (a) Decreases
(b) Increases
E (c) Initially decreases and then increases
(d) Remains constant
118. The maximum number of binding points in a woven fabric is obtained with
(a) Twill weave
A (b) Plain weave
I (c) Satin weave
(d) Sateen weave
C
119.In Perice’s fabric geometry, the yarn axis is assumed to be
T
(a) A straight line
E (b) A curved line
(c) A combination of two ring arcs and one straight line
(d) A combination of two ring arcs and one curved line
120.The test statistic used to carry out a statistical test of hypothesis for the
A equality of two variances is
(a) z
I (b) t
C (c) 𝜒 2
(d) F
T
E ------------------------
A
I
C
T
E
Page 16 of 16
UG TEXTILE TECHNOLOGY / ENGINEERING
Code 33-Paper 2
1 Marks to all 31 D 61 A 91 A
2 C 32 C 62 D 92 A
3 B 33 B 63 B 93 B
4 D 34 A 64 B 94 B
5 B 35 B 65 A 95 D
6 D 36 A 66 A, B 96 A
7 B 37 D 67 C, D 97 C
8 C 38 A 68 D 98 C
9 A 39 A 69 C 99 D
10 A 40 C 70 C 100 D
11 A 41 D 71 C 101 B
12 D 42 C 72 D 102 A
13 C 43 Marks to all 73 A 103 C
14 B 44 C 74 D 104 D
15 C 45 D 75 D 105 A
16 D 46 B 76 D 106 B
17 B 47 D 77 C 107 C
18 A, B 48 A, D 78 C, D 108 D
19 C 49 C 79 D 109 B
20 A 50 A 80 B 110 C
21 C 51 C 81 B 111 D
22 A 52 A, B, D 82 A 112 D
23 A, C, D 53 B 83 C 113 C
24 B 54 B 84 C 114 A
25 C 55 D 85 C 115 C
26 A, B, C, D 56 A 86 D 116 D
27 B 57 D 87 D 117 C
28 C 58 C 88 C 118 B
29 B 59 C 89 C 119 C
30 D 60 C 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG1CVE11
CIVIL ENGINEERING
A
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
questions.
wrong answer.
E
1. For a given shear force across a symmetrical I – section the intensity of shear stress is
A maximum at
(a) Centroid of the section
I (b) At the junction of the flange and web, but on the web
(c) Extreme fibres
C (d) At the junction of the flange and web, but on the flange
T
2. A rectangular element subjected to like principle stresses σ1 and σ2 in two mutually
E perpendicular directions x and y, the maximum shear stress will occur
(a) Plane normal to x – axis
(b) Plane at 45° and 135° to the y – direction
(c) Plane normal to y – axis
(d) Plane at 45° to y – direction
3. The ratio of moment carrying capacity of a square section of side ‘d’ to the circular
section of diameter ‘d’ is
A
(a) 3π/16
I (b) 3π/8
(c) 16/3π
C (d) 4/3π
T 4. Polar moment of inertia of the cross section of a member is determined to assess the
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1CVE11
strength of member in
A
(a) Torsion
I (b) Bending
(c) Axial force
C (d) Shear
T 5. Maximum stress theory of failure is applicable to
E (a) Ductile materials only
(b) Brittle materials only
(c) Both brittle and ductile materials
(d) All structural materials
6. The ratio between the stress produced in a bar by impact loading as compared to the
stress produced by the gradual application of the same load is
(a) 1.5
A (b) 2.5
(c) 2.0
I
(d) 2.25
C
7. The ratio of Young’s modulus to modulus of rigidity for a material having Poisson’s
T ratio 0.25 is
(a) 2.0
E (b) 2.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 1.67
8. In the analysis of closely coiled helical spring under axial load, which of the following
are negligible:
1. Torsion
A 2. Bending
3. Axial force in the wire
I (a) 1 alone
(b) 2 and 3
C
(c) 1 and 2
T (d) 1 and 3
E 9. A circular shaft is subjected to a twisting moment T and bending moment M. The ratio
of maximum shear stress to maximum bending stress is
(a) 2T/M
(b) M/2T
(c) 2M/T
(d) T/2M
A 10. A beam is said to be uniform strength, if

(a) Shear stress is same throughout the beam
I (b) Bending moment is same throughout the beam
(c) Deflection is same throughout the beam
C (d) Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis.
T
11. Number of unknown internal forces in each member of a rigid jointed plane frame is
E
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(a) 1
A
(b) 2
I (c) 3
(d) 4
C
12. Carryover factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed
T (a) 0
E (b) 1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) 1
13. The ordinates of influence line diagram for bending moment always have the
dimensions of
(a) force
(b) length
A (c) force x length
(d) force/length
I
C 14. In a three hinged parabolic arch, if the temper rises, the stress at any section of arch
due to change in temperature
T (a) increases
(b) decreases
E (c) zero
(d) all the above
15. The static indeterminacy of a two hinged arch is

(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
A (d) 1
I 16. In the stiffness method of a structural analysis, the basic unknowns are
(a) forces
C
(b) displacements
T (c) displacements and forces
E
17. The Muller- Breslau principle is used to
(a) determine the shape of the influence line
(b) indicate the parts of the structure to be loaded to obtain the maximum effect.
(c) calculate the ordinates of the influence lines.
(d) all the above.
A 18. A three hinged symmetrical arch carries UDL throughout the span, then any section of
the arch subjected to
I (a) Normal thrust only
(b) Shear force and Bending Moment
C (c) Shear force only
(d) Bending Moment only
T
19. Sum of the distribution factors of all the members meeting at a joint in moment
E
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distribution method is equal to

A
(a) 0.5
I (b) 1.0
(c) 1.5
C (d) 2.0
T 20. Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a force method
E (a) slope deflection method
(b) column analogy method
(c) moment distribution method
21. The size range of particles within which Stoke’s law is applicable is
(a) 2 mm - 0.002mm
(b) >0.005mm
A (c) 0.20 mm – 0.0002mm
(d) 0.5mm-0.005mm
I
C 22. In a wet soil mass, air occupies one-sixth of its volume and water occupies one-third
of its volume. The void ratio of soil is
T (a) 0.50
(b) 0.25
E (c) 0.75
(d) 1.0
23. Newmark’s influence chart is based on the theory of

(a) Boussinesq
(b) Westergaard
(c) Fenske
A (d) Rankine
I 24. For a flow net with nf = 5 and nd = 20, the shape factor is
(a) 4.0
C
(b) 0.25
T (c) 100
(d) d) 1000
E
25. The Skempton’s pore pressure coefficient, Af, can be negative in case of
(a) NC- soil
(b) OC -soil
(c) Lose sand
(d) Sensitive soil
A 26. The capillary rise in soils

(a) Increases the effective stress
I (b) Decreases the effective stress
(c) Increases the pore water pressure below water table
C (d) Does not influence effective stress
27. A fully saturated clay sample is subjected to a pressure increment of 200 kPa in
T
consolidation test. If after certain time period, the pore pressure is recorded as 50 kPa,
E
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the degree of consolidation is

A
(a) 40%
I (b) 25%
(c) 75%
C (d) 50%
T 28. The deviator stress required for failure of a sand sample with ϕ = 300 in drained
E triaxial test under σ3 = 100 kPa is
(a) 100 kPa
(b) 300 kPa
(c) 250 kPa
(d) 200 kPa
29. For an undisturbed soil sample, the area ratio of the sampler should be
(a) 1%
A (b) <10%
(c) 10%-20%
I
(d) >20%
C
30. Line of optimums corresponds a percent air voids of
T (a) 5
(b) 7
E (c) 8
(d) 12
31. Property of fresh concrete in which the water in the mix rises to the top surface while
placing and compacting is called
(a) Segregation
(b) bleeding
A (c) shrinkage
(d) creep
I
32. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in Reinforced concrete as per IS:456-2000 is
C (a) M15
(b) M20
T (c) M25
(d) M30
E
33. According to IS:456-2000, maximum reinforcement in a column is
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 8%
A 34. Lap length of bars in compression shall not be less than

(a) 10 φ
I (b) 16 φ
(c) 24 φ
C (d) 28 φ
35. Which of the following retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond 6m
T (a) L Shaped wall
E
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(b) T Shaped wall

A
(c) Cantilever type wall
I (d) Counterfort type wall
C 36. For the deflection of a simply supported beam to be within permissible limit, the basic
span to depth ratio is
T (a) 7
E (b) 20
(c) 26
(d) 32
37. In the limit state method of design, the failure criterion for reinforced concrete beams
and columns is
(a) Maximum principal stress theory
(b) Maximum principal strain theory
A (c) Maximum shear stress theory
(d) Maximum strain energy theory
I
C 38. What is the maximum size of the reinforcement allowed according to Is:456-2000 if
the slab thickness is 120mm
T (a) 15mm
(b) 20mm
E (c) 25mm
(d) 30mm
39. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 MPa, what is the depth of neutral
axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section is
(a) 0.5d
(b) 0.45d
A (c) 0.4d
(d) 0.35d
I
40. When a nominal shear stress exceed the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced
C
by
T (a) increasing the thickness of slab
(b) providing the shear reinforcement
E (c) using the high strength steel
(d) using small size bars more in number
41. The angle which failure plane behind a vertical wall under passive pressure case make
with horizontal is
(a) 45 – ϕ/2
(b) 45 + ϕ
A (c) 45 + ϕ/2
(d) (d) 45 - ϕ
I
C
T
42. Shape factor (Sc) for a strip footing with width of 2m is
E
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(a) 1
A
(b) 0.5
I (c) 0.4
(d) 2
C
43. The compatibility conditions in terms of strain in a two-dimensional problem are
T associated with
E (a) stresses
(b) forces
(c) properties of materials
(d) deformations
44. A spread footing which supports two or more columns is termed as

(a) stepped footing
(b) combined footing
A (c) strip footing
(d) column footings
I
C 45. For site exploration hand augers can be used up to a maximum depth of
(a) 4m
T (b) 6m
(c) 2m
E (d) 10m
46. Piles driven at an inclination to resist inclined or horizontal forces

(a) Fender piles
(b) Sheet piles
(c) Anchor piles
(d) Battered piles
A
47. The compression index of the soil:
I (a) Increases with the increase in liquid limit
(b) Decreases with the increase in liquid limit
C
(c) Has no relation with liquid limit
T (d) Increases with increase in plastic limit
E 48. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its

(a) density
(b) moisture content
(c) shear strength
(d) porosity
49. The number of blows recorded in a standard penetration test is for a penetration of
A (a) 10 cm
(b) 25 cm
I (c) 30 cm
(d) 40 cm
C
50. The maximum permissible differential settlement in case of strip foundation in clayey
T
soil is limited to
E
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(a) 15mm
A
(b) 40mm
I (c) 75mm
(d) 100mm
C
51. In a steel plate with bolted connections, the rupture of the net section is a mode of
T failure under:
(a) Tension
E (b) Compression
(c) Flexure
(d) Shear
52. The Moment - Curvature relation at a Plastic hinge is :

(a) Linear
(b) Parabolic
A (c) Constant Moment for all curvatures
(d) Constant Curvature for all Moments
I
53. A fillet weld is known as standard fillet weld if the cross section of the fillet weld is a
C triangle of the angle:
T (a) 450
(b) 600
E (c) 300
(d) None of the Above
54. The Statical method of plastic analysis satisfies :

(a) Equilibrium and Mechanism conditions
(b) Equilibrium and Plastic moment conditions
(c) Mechanism and Plastic moment conditions
(d) Equilibrium condition only
A
55. In eccentric riveted connections if the rivet plane is perpendicular to the load plane
I the rivets are subjected to:
(a) Axial stress only
C
(b) Shear stress only
T (c) Axial and Shear stress
(d) None
E
56. The minimum thickness of steel of the tension members not exposed directly to
weather is :
(a) 4mm
(b) 6mm
(c) 10mm
(d) 8mm
A 57. The effective length of the battened column is increased by
(a) 10%
I (b) 15%
C (c) 20%
(d) 5%
T 58. The maximum projection of a compression member beyond the connections with un-
stiffened edges is:
E
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(a) 12t
A
(b) 16t
I (c) 20t
(d) 32t
C
59. Economical depth of plate girder concept is based on :
T (a) Minimum weight
E (b) Minimum depth
(c) Minimum width
(d) Minimum thickness of web
60. Other conditions being same, the Load factor in indeterminate structure is:
(a) Equal to Load factors in determinate structures
(b) More than the Load factors in determinate structures
(c) Less than the Load factors in determinate structures
A (d) Unpredictable
I
61. An accurate estimate in which each item of work is worked out separately is
C (a) Approximate estimate
(b) Detailed estimate
T (c) Abstract estimate
E
62. The floor area includes the area of balcony up to
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
A 63. Gantt chart indicate

(a) Comparison of actual progress with the scheduled progress
I (b) Balance of work to be done
(c) Progressive costs of project
C
(d) Inventory costs
T
64. For each critical activity, total, free and independent floats are equal to
E (a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0
(d) 3
65. Given that d = effective depth; b = width and D = overall depth, the maximum area of
compression reinforcement in a beam is
A (a) 0.04bd
(b) 0.04bD
I (c) 0.12bd
(d) 0.12bD
C
66. In long and short wall method of estimation the length of the long wall is the centre to
T
centre distance between walls and
E
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(a) Breadth of the wall

A
(b) half breadth of the wall on each side
I (c) One fourth breadth of the wall on each side
(d) all the above
C
67. The system in which owner acquires land, prepare drawings & estimation and the
T contractor execute the work, operate and collect fee from the users till the full cost is
realized is known as
E
(a) Rate contract
(b) BOT
(c) Lumpsum contract
(d) Turnkey
68. Earliest start and completion times of the various activities of a project are obtained by
(a) Backward pass
A (b) Shortest path
(c) Forward pass
C 69. When additional works were found necessary during construction, which were
T contemplated at the beginning, the estimate prepared for such items is known as
(a) Preliminary estimate
E (b) Complimentary estimate
(c) Supplementary estimate
(d) Revised estimate
70. The item of steel work which is measured in square meter is

(a) Collapsible gates
(b) Rolling shutters
(c) Steel doors
A (d) All the above
I
C
71. An axial pull of 60 kN suddenly applied to a steel rod 50 mm in diameter and 4 m
T long. If E = 2.06 x 105 N/mm2, instantaneous elongation of the rod is
E (a) 1.19 mm
(b) 2.19 mm
(c) 3.19 mm
(d) 11.9 mm
72. A bar 50 mm in diameter is subjected to an axial load of 40 kN. The extension of the
bar over a gauge length of 20 cm is 0.04 cm. The decrease in diameter is 0.0028 cm.
The Poisson’s ratio is
A (a) 0.28
(b) 0.25
I (c) 0.30
C (d) 0.33
73. A uniform bar circular in cross section simply supported on a span of one meter is
T found to deflect 10 mm due to central load of 480 N (including self-weight). Euler’s
critical load on the same bar for two meter length with both ends pinned will be
E
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(a) 150 π2
A
(b) 250 π2
I (c) 200 π2
(d) 333.3 π2
C
74. A simply supported beam of rectangular section of width 150 mm and depth 300 mm
T subjected to a maximum bending moment of 22.5 kN-m. The maximum bending
E stress induced in the beam will be
(a) 20 MPa
(b) 15 MPa
(c) 10 MPa
(d) 25 MPa
75. Two closely coiled springs A and B of the same material and same number of turns
are subjected to an axial load W. The mean radius of spring ‘A’ is half that of spring
A ‘B’. The ratio of deflection of spring ‘B’ to that of spring ‘A’
(a) 8
I
(b) 6
C (c) 1/8
(d) 4
T
76. A Simply supported beam of span 10 m, ILD for B.M. is drawn at a section 4m from
E the left support. The maximum Bending moment at a section due to a moving
concentrated load of 160 kN is
(a) 830 kN-m
(b) 384 kN-m
(c) 450 kN-m
(d) 300 kN-m
77. For the frame shown in Figure, the distribution factors for members BC and BA at
A
joint B are
I
C
T
E
(a) 0.4, 0.6

A
(b) 0.5, 0.5
I (c) 0.6, 0.4
(d) 0.7, 0.3
C 78. For the portal frame shown in figure having same EI, due to side sway, the ratio of
fixed end moments MBA / MCD would be
T
E
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A
I
C
T
E
(a) 1;1
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:3
(d) d) 2:1
79. A three hinged semi-circular arch of radius R carries a concentrated load W at the
crown. Horizontal thrust acting on the arch at the hinge is
A
(a) W/2
I (b) W/2π
(c) 2W/3
C (d) d) 4W/3π
T 80. A load of 160 kPa is uniformly distributed over a circular area of 6 m diameter at the
E ground surface. The vertical stress at a point ‘P’ which is at a depth of 5 m directly
below the centre of the loaded area is
(a) 69
(b) 80
(c) 59
(d) 27
81. A borrow soil has: Gravel = 12%, Sand = 46%, Silt = 28%, Clay = 14%, Liquid limit
A = 42%, Plastic limit = 18% and Shrinkage limit = 15%. The IS soil classification is
(a) SM
I (b) SC
C (c) SC – SM
(d) GC
T
82. A soil has discharge velocity of 6x10-7 m/sec and void ratio of 0.50. Its seepage
E velocity is
(a) 18x10-7 m/sec
(b) 12 x 10-7 m/sec
(c) 24x10-7 m/sec
(d) 36 x10-7 m/sec
83. A clay layer settles by 15 cm in 5 years under double drainage. If there is only single
A drainage, the time required for the same settlement is
(a) 5 years
I (b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
C (d) 20 years
T 84. Overall depth of a solid slab is 200 mm and effective depth is 150 mm. The horizontal
distance between parallel main reinforcement should not be more than
E
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(a) 600 mm
A
(b) 400 mm
I (c) 450 mm
(d) d) 300 mm
C
85. In limit state method, the design bond stress of M30 grade concrete for plain bars in
T tension is
E (a) 1.0 MPa
(b) 1.2 MPa
(c) 1.4 MPa
(d) 1.5 MPa
86. Total side face reinforcement in case of deep beam of size 300 mm x 700 mm, should
not be less than
(a) 110 mm2
A (b) 210 mm2
(c) 310 mm2
I
(d) d) 410 mm2
C
87. The anchorage value of a standard U type hook of a reinforcing bar of diameter 20
T mm is
(a) 320 mm
E (b) 160 mm
(c) 240 mm
(d) d) 400 mm
88. For heavily reinforced concrete member, the nominal maximum size of the coarse
aggregates should be restricted to
(a) 5 mm less than the minimum clear distance between the main bars
A (b) 5 mm less than the minimum cover to the reinforcement.
(c) smaller of a and b
I (d) d) greater of a and b
C
89. A concentrated load of 1000 kN acts vertically at a point on the soil surface.
T According to Boussinesq’s equation, the ratio of the vertical stresses at depths of 3 m
and 5 m is
E (a) 0.35
(b) 0.70
(c) 1.75
(d) 2.78
90. Under a given load, void ratio of a submerged, saturated clay decreases from 1.0 to
0.92. The ultimate settlement of 2 m thick clay layer will be
(a) 2.0 cm
A (b) 4.0 cm
(c) 8.0 cm
I (d) 16.0 cm
C 91. When water level rises to ground level from a great depth, the ultimate capacity of a
strip footing in sandy soils decreases approximately to
T
(a) 30%
E
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(b) 40%
A
(c) 50%
I (d) 100%
C 92. A homogeneous gravity retaining wall with a rectangular cross-section of width 4m is

supporting cohesionless backfill of 6m depth. The lateral active earth pressure at the
T bottom of the wall is 40 kPa. The minimum weight of the wall (expressed in kN per m
E length) required to prevent it from overturning about its toe is
(a) 120
(b) 180
(c) 240
(d) 360
93. The maximum shear force at a section is 56 kN. An ISWB of height 350 mm breadth
200 mm, thickness of web 8 mm with a section modulus of 887 cm3 is used as a beam
A at the section. The shearing stress is
(a) 10 N/mm2
I (b) 20 N/mm2
C (c) 28.4 N/mm2
(d) 41.6 N/mm2
T
94. The outstand of the flange of built up beams from the line of connection should not
E extend beyond
(a) 10T
(b) 85T
(c) 256T / fy1/2
(d) 180tw
T is the thickness of the flange and tw is the thickness of web
95. The Design of welded tension members , consider the following statements:
A 1. The entire cross-sectional area of the connected leg is assumed to contribute to the
effective area in case of angles.
I
2. Two angles back to back and tack welded as per the codal requirements may be
C assumed to behave as a tee section.
3. A check on slenderness ratio may be necessary in some cases.
T The TRUE statements are
(a) 1 and 2
E (b) Only 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
96. A compound column of two I-sections (depth d) placed side by side and effectively
connected by lacing system will have rxx = ryy when the webs of the I-sections are
placed at a distance of :
A (a) 2d
(b) D
I (c) 1.5d to 1.6d
(d) 0.5 to 1.5d
C 97. For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1:6 on 100 square meter new brick work, the
quantity of cement required is
T
(a) 0.200 m3
E
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(b) 0.247 m3
A
(c) 0.274 m3
I (d) 0.295 m3
C 98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
T List-I List-II
E A. Bar Chart 1. Activity dependencies can be implied
B. Milestone Bar Chart 2. Resource requirement can be depicted
C. WBS 3. Higher level of authority can effect
monitoring and control
D. Linked Bar Chart 4. Trade based site supervision can be assigned
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
A
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
I (d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C 99. A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular of

radius 1000 m of the centre line and subtends 1800 atthe center. If the height of the
T bank is 1 m at lower end and side slope 2:1 the earth work involved
E (a) 26,000 m3
(b) 26,500 m3
(c) 1,500 m3
(d) 2,000 m3
100. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time estimates of an activity are 5, 10 and
21 days, respectively. The expected completion time and standard deviation of the
activity in days, respectively, are
A (a) 11, 2.67
(b) 11, 4.23
I (c) 12, 3.45
C (d) 10, 7.50
T
E PART –C

I
C
E
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A
I
C is equal to
T 1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
A 𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I
C
T
E
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
A
3
I 108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 +𝑦 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
C
E 109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
A (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
I 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
C
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
(a) 𝑥 +𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 +𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
T 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦
E
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𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
2 𝑥2
C
E
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
I 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
C
T
1
A (a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
C
T (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
A (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
I
C 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
T 1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
E
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A
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
I (c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG CIVIL ENGINEERING
Code 11-Paper 1
1 A 31 B 61 B 91 C
2 B 32 B 62 C 92 A
3 Marks to all 33 B 63 A 93 B
4 A 34 C 64 C 94 C
5 B 35 D 65 B 95 D
6 C 36 B 66 B 96 Marks to all
7 B 37 B 67 B 97 C
8 B 38 A 68 C 98 A
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 C
10 D 40 B 70 D 100 A
11 C 41 A 71 A 101 A
12 B 42 A 72 Marks to all 102 C
13 B 43 D 73 B 103 A
14 C 44 B 74 C 104 D
16 B 46 D 76 B 106 A
17 D 47 A 77 A 107 A
18 Marks to all 48 C 78 C 108 B
19 B 49 C 79 A 109 D
20 C 50 Marks to all 80 C 110 B
21 C 51 A 81 B 111 D
22 D 52 C 82 A 112 B
23 A, B 53 A 83 D 113 B
24 B 54 B 84 D 114 B
25 B 55 C 85 D 115 B
26 A 56 Marks to all 86 B 116 C
27 C 57 A 87 A 117 B
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 C
29 B 59 A 89 D 119 B
30 A 60 B 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
CIVIL ENGINEERING
A
I PAPER-II
C
Instructions:
T i. The question paper contains two parts, Part-A & Part-B, total 120 questions.
E
wrong answer.
I
C
E 1. The number of days required for the seasoning of timber in air is about:
a) 30 to 60
b) 60 to 120
c) 120 to 180
d) 180 to 240
2. This disease of dry rot in timber is caused by

a) lack of ventilation
A
b) alternate wet and dry conditions
I c) complete submerge in water
C
3. Which one of the following statements is correct as regards tensile strength of wood?
T a) Minimum in the direction parallel to the grains
b) Maximum in the direction parallel to the grains
E
c) Maximum in the direction across the grains
d) Same in all directions
4. As a construction material, plywood is preferred to thin planks of timber because of

a) good strength and dimensional stability in both lateral and longitudinal directions
b) good dimensional stability in both longitudinal and lateral directions
c) good strength in both longitudinal and lateral directions
A d) savings in cost and environmental considerations
I 5. The nominal size of the modular brick is
a) 19cm x 9cm x 8cm
C
b) 19cm x 19cm x 9cm
T c) 20cm x 10cm x 10cm
d) 20cm x 20cm x 10cm
E
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6. The main function of alumina is brick earth is

A
a) to impart plasticity
I b) to make the brick durable
c) to prevent shrinkage
C d) to make the brick impermeable
T 7. Percentage of silica in a good brick lies between
E a) 5 to 10 %
b) 20 to 30 %
c) 50 to 60 %
d) 70 to 80%
8. The frog of the brick in brick masonry is generally kept on

a) bottom face
b) top face
A c) shorter side
d) longer side
I
C 9. In high tensile steel carbon content should be about
a) 0 %
T b) 0.5 %
c) 0.25 %
E d) 1.0 %
10. The ultimate strength of cold drawn steel wires

a) Increases with the increase in the diameter of the bar
b) Increases with reduction on the diameter of the bar
c) Does not depend upon the changes in the diameter of the bar
A
11. Crudest form of Iron is
I a) mild steel
b) pig iron
C
c) wrought iron
T d) cast iron
E 12. The approximate ratio of the strength of the cement concrete of 7 days to that of 28 days
curing is
a) 0.40
b) 0.50
c) 0.65
d) 0.75
A 13. Reciprocal ranging is employed when

a) the two ends of a line are not intervisible
I b) one end of a line is inaccessible
c) both the ends are inaccessible
C d) the ends of the line are not visible even from intermediate points
T
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14. Modern EDM instruments work on the principle of measuring

A
a) the reflected energy generated by electromagnetic waves
I b) total time taken by electromagnetic wave in travelling the distance
c) the change in frequency of the electromagnetic waves
C d) the phase difference between the transmitted and the reflected electromagnetic
T 15. The correction for sag is
E a) always additive
b) always subtractive
c) always zero
d) either additive or subtractive
16. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

a) steep slope
b) gentle slope
A c) uniform slope
d) plane slope
I
C 17. A level line is a
a) horizontal line
T b) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface of earth
c) line passing through the centre of cross hairs and the centre of eye piece
E d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye piece of a dumpy level
18. The length of a chain is measured from

a) centre of one handle to centre of other handle
b) outside of one handle to outside of other handle
c) outside of one handle to inside of other handle
d) inside of one handle to inside of other handle
A
19. Contour interval is
I a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of the ground
C
c) larger for accurate works
T d) larger if the time available is more
E 20. Benchmark is established by

a) Hypsometry
b) Barometric levelling
c) Spirit levelling
d) Trigonometrical levelling
21. A metallic tape is made of

A a) Steel
b) Invar
I c) Linen
d) Cloth and wires
C
T
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22. Planimeter is used to find

A
a) Areas
I b) Volumes
c) Lengths
C d) Heights
T 23. The resultant of hydrostatic force acts through;
E a) Centre of pressure
b) Centre of Buoyancy
c) Meta-centre
d) Centre of gravity
24. A floating body with its centre of gravity at G, Centre of Buoyancy at B, and
metacentre at M, is stable when;
a) G lies above B;
A b) B lies above M;
c) B lies below M;
I
d) G lies below M
C
25. The specific energy in an open channel is defined as;
T a) Total energy measured in a horizontal datum;
b) Kinetic energy plotted above the free surface;
E c) Total energy measured with respect to the channel bottom taken as the datum;
d) Total energy of a specified weight of liquid
26. The laminar sub layer is;

a) Exists only in smooth turbulent flow;
b) Exists only in rough turbulent flow;
c) Exists in smooth as well as rough turbulent flow;
A d) Increases in thickness with an increase in Reynolds number
I 27. The drag and lift forces are due to;

a) Pressure and gravity
C
b) viscosity and turbulence
T c) Pressure and viscosity
d) pressure and turbulence
E
28. The concept of stream function, ψ, is applicable to;
a) Uniform flow cases only
b) Irotational flows only
c) two dimensional flows only
d) Three dimensional flows only
A 29. When compared to an orifice having the same diameter, d, and discharging head, H, the
discharge through the mouth piece will be
I a) The same as that through the orifice
b) More than the discharge through the orifice
C c) Less than that through the orifice
d) some time more and some times less than the orifice
T
E
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30. The hydraulic-grade line indicates the variation of

A
a) The energy of the flow in the direction of flow;
I b) Velocity head in the direction of flow
c) Piezometric head in the direction of flow
C d) Pressure head in the direction of flow
T 31. The minor losses in flow through pipes are
E a) Due to friction in pipe
b) significant in laminar flow only
c) Substantial in pipes of small length
d) Due to local disturbance in flow
32. A 4m wide rectangular channel carries a uniform discharge of 12m3/s at its normal depth
of 1m. What type of slope is in the channel
a) Mild
A b) Critical
c) Steep
I
d) Adverse
C
33. Critical depth is defined as the depth of flow at which the;
T a) Specific energy is maximum
b) Unit discharge, q, is minimum
E c) Specific energy is minimum
d) Froude number is greater than unity.
34. Reynolds number is the ratio of

a) Inertial flow to viscous flow
b) Stable flow to unstable flow
c) Uniform flow to Non uniform flow
A d) Rotational flow to Stable flow
I 35. The order of engineering surveys for road alignment as follows

a) Reconnaissance, Detailed Study and Preliminary study and Map study
C
b) Reconnaissance, Map study, Detailed Study and Preliminary study
T c) Preliminary study Map study, Preliminary study and Map study
d) Map Study, Reconnaissance, Preliminary study and Detailed Study
E
36. Los Angeles abrasion test on aggregate is conducted to determine
a) Toughness
b) Stiffness
c) Deflection
d) Hardness
A 37. A change in the original shape of the pavement is known as

a) Rutting
I b) Deformation
c) Deflection
C d) Depression
T
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38. In concrete pavement the strength of Subgrade is expressed in terms of

A
a) Resilient Modulus
I b) Effective CBR value
c) Modulus of Subgrade reaction
C d) Dynamic Modulus
T 39. Stopping sight distance is always
E a) equal to overtaking sight distance
b) more than overtaking sight distance
c) less than overtaking sight distance
40. The entry radius of rotary for urban roads as per Indian road congress is
a) 10 to 15 m
b) 15 to 20 m
A c) 20 to 30 m
d) 20 to 35 m
I
C 41. Vehicular live load of highway bridges is expressed in terms
a) Design axles and lane loading
T b) Design pressure and lane loading
c) Design lanes and lane loading
E d) Design width and lane loading
42. In Construction of wet mix macadam compaction the speed of the roller shall not exceed
a) 5 kmph
b) 8 kmph
c) 10 kmph
d) 12kmph
A
43. The duration of time that elapses between start of one green period and for a given
I approach and the start of the next green periods for the same approach in referred to
as
C
a) Reaction time
T b) Cycle length
c) Lag time
E d) Phase length
44. Which type of grading system is followed in India, for grading bitumen
a) Super pave grading
b) Viscosity grading
c) Penetration grading
d) Performance grading
A
45. Select the correct statement.
I a) Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.
b) Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
C c) Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
d) Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
T
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46. The rainfall hyetograph is the graph drawn between;

A
a) Cumulative rainfall and time
I b) Rainfall intensity and time
c) Rainfall depth and Area
C d) Rainfall intensity and cumulative rainfall
T 47. The average pan coefficient for standard Indian Standard Class A pan is
E a) 0.85
b) 0.70
c) 0.90
d) 0.20
48. The instrument Lysimeter is used to measure;

a) Infiltration
b) Evaporation
A c) Evapotransportation
d) Vapour Pressure
I
C 49. The slope-area method is extensively used in ;
a) Development of rating curve
T b) Estimation of flood discharge based on high-water marks;
c) Cases where shifting control exists
E d) Cases where backwater effect is present
50. The inflection point on the recession side of the hydrograph indicates the end of;
a) The base flow
b) the direct rainfall
c) the overland flow
d) rainfall
A
51. If in a flow-mass curve, a demand line drawn tangent to the lowest point in a valley of
I the curve does not intersect the mass curve at an earlier time period , it represents that;
a) The storage is in adequate
C
b) The reservoir will not be full at the start of the dry period
T c) The reservoir is full at the beginning of the dry period
d) The reservoir is wasting later by spill
E
52. The hydrologic flood –routing methods use;
a) Equation of continuity only
b) both momentum and continuity equations
c) energy equation only
d) equation of motion only
A 53. In routing a flood through a reach, the point of intersection of inflow and outflow
hydrographs coincides with the peak of outflow hydrograph;
I a) In all cases of flood routing
b) When inflow is into a reservoir with an uncontrolled outlet
C c) In channel routing only
d) In all cases of reservoir routing
T
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54. A unit hydrograph has one unit of;

A
a) Peak discharge
I b) rainfall duration
c) direct runoff
C d) the time base of direct runoff
T 55. The discharge per unit draw down at well is known as;
E a) Specific yield
b) specific storage
c) safe yield
d) specific capacity
56. The surface joining the static water levels in several wells penetrating a confined
aquifer represents;
a) water-table surface
A b) capillary fringe
c) Piezometricsurface of the aquifer
I
d) cone of depression
C
57. Coincident draft in relation to water demand, is based on
T a) Peak hourly demand
b) Maximum daily + fire demand
E c) Maximum daily demand
d) Greater of (a) and (b)
58. A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water sample
is
a) 10-9.25 mmoles/L
b) 3.020 mg/L
A c) 0.302 mg/L
d) 10-4.75 mmoles/L
I
59. Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure of
C
a) total organic nitrogen
T b) total organic and ammonia nitrogen
c) total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
E d) total ammonia nitrogen
60. The organism, which exhibits very nearly the characteristics of an ideal
pathogenicindicator is
a) Salmonella typhi
b) Entamoebahistolytica
c) Vibrio comma
A d) Escherichia coli
I 61. A sample of domestic sewage is digested with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid, potassium
dichromate and mercuric sulphate in chemical oxygen demand (COD) test. The digested
C sample is then titrated with standard ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) to determine the
unreacted amount of
T
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ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
a) mercuric sulphate
A
b) silver sulphate
I c) potassium dichromate
d) sulphuric acid
C
62. The self cleansing velocity for all the sewers in India is usually
T a) Less than 1 m/s
E b) 1 m/s to 1.2 m/s
c) 1.5 m/s to 2.0 m/s
d) 3.0 m/s to 3.5 m/s
63. A manhole is generally classified as a deep manhole, if its depth is more than
a) 1.2 m
b) 0.9 m
c) 2.0 m
A d) 1.5 m
I
64. A major photochemical oxidant is
C a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Ozone
T c) Nitrogen oxides
d) Sulphur oxides
E
65. Which of the following on inhalation dissolved in the blood hemoglobin more rapidly
than oxygen?
a) SO2
b) CO
c) O3
d) NO
A
66. During temperature inversion in the atmosphere, air pollutant tend to
I a) Accumulate above inversion layer
b) accumulate below inversion layer
C
c) disperse laterally
T d) disperse vertically
E 67. A coastal city produces municipal solid waste (MSW) with high moisture content, high
organic materials, low calorific value and low inorganic materials. The most effective
and sustainable option for MSW management in that city is
a) Incineration
b) Dumping in sea
c) Composting
d) Landfill
A
68. Partial combustion of a carbonaceous fuel to generate a combustible fuel gas, rich in
I carbon monoxide and oxygen is called
a) Gasification
C b) Incineration
c) Pyrolysis
T
d) Thermal cracking
E
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69. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the
A
effective gradient on runway is 0.5 per cent, the revised runway length will be
I a) 2845 m
b) 2910 m
C c) 3030 m
d) 3130 m
T
E 70. On taxi way the speed is in the range of
a) 50 to 100kmph
b) 60 to 100kmph
c) 70 to 100kmph
d) 80 to 100kmph
71. Gauagetolerance for BG on straight track are

a) -6mm to +6mm
A b) -6mm to +15mm
c) -3mm to +6mm
I
d) upto to +20mm
C
72. The wheel load of the air craft can also be expressed in
T a) TONs
b) MCV
E c) LCN
d) LNC
73. A welded rail joint is

a) supported on a sleeper
b) supported on a metal plate
c) left suspended
A d) support on ballast
I 74. On Indian railways the number of a crossings is defined as

a) sine of angle of crossing
C
b) cosine of angel of crossing
T c) tangent of angel of crossing
d) cotangent of angel of crossing
E
75. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component
should not exceed
a) 15 kmph
b) 25 kmph
c) 35 kmph
d) 45 kmph
A
76. Creep is the
I a) Difference in two level of rails
b) Lateral movement of rail
C c) Vertical movement of rail
d) Longitudinal movement of rail
T
E
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77. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is

A
a) Equal to empty operating weight
I b) Equal to maximum landing weight
c) less than empty operating weight
C d) Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
T 78. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
E a) 80 m
b) 130 m
c) 180 m
d) 260 m
79. Degree of a curve for a radius of 875 m is

a) 10
b) 20
A c) 1.50
d) 30
I
C 80. As per the new classification of accidents a level crossing accidents comes under which
category
T a) Consequential train accidents
b) Other train accidents
E c) Indicative accidents
d) Unusual accidents

Cement concrete is a/an
A 1. Elastic material
2. Visco-elastic material
I 3. Visco-plastic material
Which of these statements is /are correct?
C
a) 1, 2, and 3
T b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
E d) 1 only
82. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has

a) high compressive strength
b) high tensile strength
c) low compressive strength
d) low tensile strength
A The correct answer is
a) a and b
I b) b and c
c) c and d
C d) a and d
T
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83. Normally the rise of the steps would be between

A
a) 10 cm to 15 cm
I b) 20 cm to 25 cm
c) 5 cm to 10 cm
C d) 25 cm to 30 cm
T 84. Dog-legged stair is a
E a) half-turn stair
b) quarter-turn stair
c) three-quarter turn stair
d) continuous stair
85. In some brick masonry walls, patches of whitish crystals were found on the exposed
surfaces, also chipping and spalling of bricks took place from the same walls. Which
among the following are the causes of these defects?
A 1. Settlement of foundation
2. Overloading of the walls
I
3. Sulphate attack
C 4. Efflorescence
Select the correct answer from the codes below:
T a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
E c) 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4
86. Assertion (A): Knots, one of the common defects of timber, are associated with the
beginning of branches
Reason (R): Knots greatly improve the workability.
Choose the correct statement
A a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
I c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
C
T 87. The true length of a line is known to be 500 m. The line was again measured with a 20
m tape and found to be 502 m. The correct length of the tape is
E a) 20.50 m
b) 19.92 m
c) 22.00 m
d) 20.00 m
88. If two points A and B 125m apart, have difference in elevation of 0.5m, the slope
correction to the measured length is
A a) +0.001m
b) +0.01m
I c) +0.1m
d) +0.0125m
C
89. A lighthouse is visible just above the horizon at a certain station at the sea level. The
T
distance between the station and the lighthouse is 40 km. The height of the light house is
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2CVE11
approximately
A
a) 187 m
I b) 137.7 m
c) 107.7 m
C d) 87.3 m
90. The magnetic bearing of a line AB read in 1878 was N26015’E. The declination at the
T time and place was 7015’W. In 2017, the declination was 4030’E. The magnetic bearing
E in 2017 is
a) N33030’E
b) N2900’E
c) N14030’E
d) N23030’E
91. The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is
2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the
A R.L. of point B will be
a) 94.80m
I b) 99.71m
C c) 100.29m
d) 105.20m
T
92. If the fore bearing of line CD is 60030’ and the back bearing of line BC is 160030’, then
E included angle at B is
a) 22000’
b) 240030’
c) 10000’
d) 100030’
93. An oil fluid having µ=0.44N.s/m2 and ρ= 888 kg/m3, is filled in the space between two
parallel plates which are 18mm apart. The upper plate is moving at a velocity of 4m/s.
A What is the shear stress on the plate is
a) 97.8N/m2
I b) 48.9N/m2
C c) 79.8N/m2
d) 87.9N/m2
T
94. When a circular plate of 1m diameter is submerged vertically in water with its upper
E edge at 8m below the free surface of water, the total hydrostatic pressure force on one
side of the plate is;
a) 6.7kN
b) 77.0kN
c) 45.0kN
d) 65.4kN
95. Two pipes of length 1800m and diameter 500mm each are connected in parallel to make
A it a compound pipe. The equivalent length of 400 mm diameter pipe is
a) 1475m
I
b) 1180m
C c) 390m
d) 2360m
T 96. The value of friction factor, f, for a smooth pipe at Reynolds number of 105 is nearly
equal to;
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a) 0.0178
A
b) 0.0152
I c) 0.0243
d) 0.025
C 97. An 8m wide rectangular channel carries a discharge of 18m3/s. The Manning’s
coefficient for the channel is 0.018. What could be the critical flow depth in the channel?
T a) 8.02m
E b) 0.802m
c) 0.082m
d) 2.08m
98. When a head over a 90o Triangular notch is increased from 0.15m to 0.30m, the ratio of
the new discharge to the original discharge is;
a) 5.657
b) 2.000
A c) 4.000
d) 1.414
I
C 99. If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above road
surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the
T centrifugal ratio should always be
a) less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
E b) less than b/2h and also greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
c) less than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
d) less than b/2h and also greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
100. In a rural area where the rain fall is light a water bound macadam road of 3.75 m wide is
to be constructed. Select the appropriate camber recommended by Indian Road Congress
for the above case and what will be height of crown with reference to the edges.
A a) 1 in 20 and height of crown is 0.045m
b) 1 in 40 and height of crown is 0.047m
I c) 1 in 50 and height of crown is 0.050m
d) 1 in 30 and height of crown is 0.052m
C
T 101. Flexible pavement design using IRC 37-2012 in its revision included the following
salient features. Identify which one is n correct statement
E a) Computation of effective CBR is not included for Subgrade
b) Incorporation of cement and emulsion treated base were included
c) Design for Drainage layer was addressed
d) Use of rut resistant surface layer was also included in the design
102. The background colour of the informatory sign board is

a) Red
A b) Yellow
c) Green
I d) White
C 103. If the average centre to center spacing of vehicles is 20 m, then the basic capacity of a
traffic lane at a speed of 50 kmph is
T
a) 2400 vehicle per day
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b) 2600 vehicles per hour

A
c) 2500 vehicles per hour
I d) 2900 vehicles per hour
C 104. For a circular curve of radius 200 m, the coefficient of lateral friction of 0.15 and the
design speed is 40 kmph. The equilibrium super elevation (for equal pressure on inner
T and outer wheel) would be
E a) 21.3
b) 7
c) 6.3
d) 4.6
105. The Thiessen weights of 4 rainguages A, B, C and D covering a river basin are 0.15,
0.25, 0.30 and 0.30 respectively. If the average depth of rainfall for the basin is 5cm, and
the rainfall recorded at B, C and D are 5cm, 4cm, and 5cm respectively. How much is
A the rainfall recorded at rainguage station A?
a) 5cm
I
b) 6cm
C c) 7cm
d) 8cm
T
106. The rainfall of a five successive days on a catchment was 2,6,9,5 and 3cm. If the φ-index
E for the storm can be assumed as 3cm/day, the total direct runoff depth from the
catchment is;
a) 20cm
b) 11cm
c) 10cm
d) 22cm
A 107. When the stage in the river is 4.8m and the water surface slope is 1 in 1000 and the
discharge is measured to be 600m3/s. What would be the discharge carried by the river
I when the stage is same but the water surface slope is 1 in 1440?
a) 300m3/s
C
b) 400m3/s ;
T c) 500m3/s;
d) 600m3/s
E
108. An S-curve hydrograph is derived for a basin of 540km2 from a 6-hour unit hydrograph.
The equilibrium discharge in the S-curve is
a) 277.8m3/s
b) 250m3/s
c) 540 x 106 m3/s
d) 3240 m3/s
A
I
109. The peak ordinate of the Instantaneous Unit Hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment was
C obtained from Nash Model as 0.03cm/hour. If the area of the catchment is 550km2, the
value of peak ordinate in m3/s is;
T
a) 16.5
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b) 45.83
A
c) 30.78
I d) 183.3
C 110. What would be the volume stored in a saturated column of aquifer with a porosity of
0.35, cross sectional area of 1 m2 and of 3.0m depth?
T a) 3.0m3
E b) 2.0m3
c) 1.05m3
d) 0.105m3
111. The average increase in the population of a town per decade over a period of 6 decades
was 5500 and the average incremental increase was 667. If the population at the end of
the sixth decade was 47000, estimate the population three decades later by incremental
increase method.
A a) 60001
b) 58000
I
c) 67502
C d) 63500
T 112. A 100 ml sample of water is titrated with 0.01N H2SO4. The initial pH is 9.5 and 6.2 ml
of acid is required to reach the pH 8.3 endpoint. An additional 9.8 ml is required to reach
E the pH 4.5 endpoint. Determine the concentration of bicarbonate alkalinity present.
a) 19.6
b) 31.4
c) 18.7
d) 49.5
113. A BOD analysis is begun on Tuesday. 30 ml of waste with dissolved oxygen (DO) of
A zero is mixed with 270 mL of dilution water with a DO of 10 mg/L. The sample is then
put in the incubator. Since the 5th day falls on Sunday and the lab personal do not work
I on Sunday, the final DO was measured on Monday and is found to be 4.0 mg/L.
However, it is discovered that the incubator was set at 30oC. Assume a k1 value of 0.2 at
C
20oC. Determine the 5-day, 20oC BOD of the sample.
T a) 50 mg/L
b) 58.8 mg/L
E c) 37.17 mg/L
d) 31.61 mg/L
114. Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in series. The fractional efficiencies of the
upstream and downstream ESPs for size dp are 80% and 65%, respectively. What is the
overall efficiency of the system for the same dpis
a) 93%
A b) 73%
c) 80%
I d) 100%
115. Solid waste generated from an industry contains only two components, X and Y as
C shown in the table below. Determine the composite density of the solid waste.
Component Composition (%) Density (kg/m3)
T
weight)
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X 60% 290
A
Y 40% 480
I a) 380.33
b) 29.02
C
c) 366
T d) 344.5
E 116. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a singletrack is 6
m, then impact factor is taken as
a) 0
b) Between 0.25 and 0.5
c) Between 0.5 and 1
d) 1.0
117. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and
A
gate utilization factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
I a) 15 aircrafts per hour
b) 16 aircrafts per hour
C c) 4 aircrafts per hour
d) 2 aircraft per hour
T
118. A horizontal curve of 480 m for 7.5 m two lane road is to be designed for a speed of 80
E
kmph. The raising of the outer edge of the pavement with respect to centre to cater to the
mixed traffic condition is
a) 0.20 m
b) 0.22 m
c) 0.24 m
d) 0.27 m
A 119. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is
25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the
I year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is
a) 32oC
C b) 35oC
T c) 48oC
d) 45oC
E
120. Using a sleeper density of M+6 for a BG track, determine the number of sleepers
required or construction of 100 panels of 13 m each
a) 1000
b) 1500
c) 1900
d) 2000
A
I
C
T
E
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UG CIVIL ENGINEERING
Code 11-Paper 2
1 C 31 D 61 C 91 D
2 A 32 A 62 A 92 C
3 B 33 C 63 C 93 A
4 A 34 A 64 B 94 D
5 C 35 D 65 B 95 Marks to all
7 C 37 A, B, C, D 67 C 97 B
8 B 38 C 68 A 98 A
9 D 39 C 69 D 99 C
10 B 40 B, C, D 70 A 100 B
11 B 41 C 71 A 101 A
12 C 42 A 72 C 102 B
13 A 43 B 73 C 103 C
14 D 44 B 74 D 104 C
15 B 45 D 75 B 105 C
16 A 46 B 76 D 106 B
17 B, D 47 A 77 D 107 C
18 B 48 C 78 C 108 B
20 A 50 C 80 A 110 C
21 D 51 C 81 D 111 C
22 A 52 A 82 D 112 C
23 A 53 B 83 Marks to all 113 Marks to all
24 D 54 C 84 A 114 A
25 C 55 D 85 D 115 D
26 A 56 C 86 C 116 C
27 C 57 B 87 B 117 C
28 C 58 C 88 A 118 B
29 B 59 B 89 C 119 C
30 C 60 D 90 C 120 C
ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
CIVIL AND ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

A
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
questions.
wrong answer.
T
E
1. What is the quality of cement (in kg) and dry sand (in m3), respectively required for
preparing 1 m3 of wet cement mortar of 1:5 proportion?
(a) 270 and 1.00
(b) 290 and 1.05
(c) 290 and 1.00
(d) 310 and 1.05
A 2. The minimum compressive strength of first class bricks should be

(a) 5.0 N/mm2
I (b) 7.5 N/mm2
(c) 10.0 N/mm2
C (d) 12.5 N/mm2
T 3. If the Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for a material is
E (a) Three times its shear modulus
(b) Four times its shear modulus
(c) Equal to its shear modulus
(d) Not determinable
4. A mild steel bar of uniform cross-section A and length L is subjected to an axial load W.
The strain energy stored in the bar would be
𝑊𝐿
(a) 2𝐴𝐸
𝑊2𝐿
A (b) 4𝐴𝐸
I
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𝑊𝐿
A (c) 4𝐴𝐸
I 𝑊2𝐿
(d) 2𝐴𝐸
C
5. A simply supported beam AB of span L carried two concentrated loads W each at points
T L/3 from A and B. What is the SF in the middle one-third portion of the beam?
(a) W/2
E (b) 2W
(c) W
(d) Zero
6. If the principal stress at a point in a stressed body is 150 kN/m2 tensile and 50 kN/m2
compressive, then maximum shear stress at this point will be
(a) 100 kN/m2
(b) 150 kN/m2
(c) 200 kN/m2
A (d) 250 kN/m2
I 7. Offsets are
C (a) Lateral measurements made with respect to main survey lines
(b) Perpendiculars erected from chain lines
T (c) Taken to avoid unnecessary waling between stations
(d) Measurements which are not made at right angles to the chain lines
E
8. A scale of 1 inch = 50 ft is mentioned on a old map. What is the corresponding
equivalent scale?
(a) 1 cm = 5 m
(b) 1 cm = 6 m
(c) 1 cm = 10 m
(d) 1 cm = 12 m
9. Which of the following sights will be applicable for a change point?

A (a) Back sight
(b) Intermediate sight and fore sight
I (c) Back sight and fore sight
(d) Fore sight
C
10. The plotting of inaccessible points in a plane-table survey can be done by the method of
T (a) Interpolation
(b) Radiation
E
(c) Intersection
(d) Traversing
11. Limit state of serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep-shrinkage
and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and applications of finishes as
applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to
(a) Span/150
(b) Span/200
(c) Span/250
A (d) Span/350
I
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12. What is the value of flexural strength of M 25 concrete?

A
(a) 2.5 MPa
I (b) 3.5 MPa
(c) 4.5 MPa
C (d) 5.5 MPa
T 13. The minimum grade of reinforced concrete in seawater as per IS 456-2000 is
E (a) M 20
(b) M 25
(c) M 30
(d) M 35
14. For the purpose of design as per IS :456, deflection of RC slab or beam is limited to
(a) 0.15% of span
(b) 0.2% of span
(c) 0.3% of span
(d) 0.4% of span
A
I 15. In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main reinforcement is provided
(a) Above the neutral axis
C (b) As vertical stirrups
(c) As a helical reinforcement
T (d) Below the neutral axis
E
16. The minimum strain at failure in the tensile reinforcement (fy = 400 MPa) of RCC beam
as per limit state method is
(a) 0.0020
(b) 0.0028
(c) 0.0037
(d) 0.0045
17. Shear span is defined as the zone where

(a) Bending moment is zero
A (b) Shear force is zero
(c) Shear force is constant
I (d) Bending moment is constant
C
18. The maximum permissible shear stress τc,max given in IS:456-2000 is based on
T (a) Diagonal tension failure
(b) Diagonal compression failure
E (c) Flexural tension failure
(d) Flexural compression failure
19. Lap length of reinforcement in compression shall not be less than, where φ= diameter of
bar
(a) 35 φ
(b) 30 φ
(c) 24 φ
(d) 20 φ
A
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20. Minimum clear cover (in mm) top the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing
A
respectively are
I (a) 10, 15, 20, 25
(b) 15, 25, 40, 40
C (c) 20, 25, 30, 40
(d) 20, 35, 40, 75
T
E 21. The load carrying capacity of a column designed by working stress method is 500 kN.
The collapse load of the column is
(a) 500.0kN
(b) 662.5 kN
(c) 750.0kN
(d) 1100.0Kn
22. An axially loaded column is 300mm x 300 mm size. Effective length of column is 3 m.
What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial load for the column?
(a) 0
A (b) 10 mm
I (c) 16 mm
(d) 20 mm
C
23. According to IS 456:2000, maximum slenderness ratio for a short concrete column is
T (a) Less than 12
(b) Between 12 and 18
E
(c) Between 18 and 24
(d) More than 24
24. For a space truss, if m = Number of members; n = Number of joints; and r = Number of
reaction elements then the static indeterminacy is given by
(a) 6m + r – 6n
(b) m + r – 3n
(c) 6m + r – 3n
(d) 3m + r – 3n
A
25. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a single bay
I portal frame fixed at base?
C (a) 2
(b) 3
T (c) 4
(d) 6
E
26. A suspension bridge with a two-hinged stiffening girder is statically
(a) Determinate
(b) Indeterminate to 1 degree
(c) Indeterminate to 2 degree
(d) Indeterminate to 3 degree
A
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27. What is the shape of influence line diagram, for the maximum bending moment in
A
respect of a simply supported beam?
I (a) Rectangular
(b) Triangular
C (c) Parabolic
(d) Circular
T
E 28. Muller-Breslau Principle is applicable to get influence line for which one of the
following?
(a) Reaction at the ends of a simple beam
(b) Bending moment at a section
(c) Shear force at a section
(d) Forces and moments at any section
29. Due to some point load anywhere on a fixed beam, the maximum free bending moment
is M. Then the sum of fixed end moments is
(a) M
A (b) 1.5 M
I (c) 2.0 M
(d) 3.0 M
C
30. A uniform beam of span L is rigidly fixed at both supports. It carries a uniformly
T distributed load w per unit length. The bending moment at mid span is
𝑤 𝐿2
E (a) 8
𝑤 𝐿2
(b) 12
𝑤 𝐿2
(c) 16
𝑤 𝐿2
(d) 24
31. A uniform beam of length 2L and flexural rigidity EI is fixed at both the ends. What is
the moment requiredfor unit rotation at the centre of span?
2𝐸𝐼
A (a) 𝐿
4𝐸𝐼
(b)
I 𝐿
6𝐸𝐼
(c)
C 𝐿
8𝐸𝐼
(d) 𝐿
T
32. Maximum pressure rise due to water hammer in a pipeline (a = area of pipe; V0 =
E
velocity; g = acceleration due to gravity; t = time period; L = length of the pipeline) is
𝑎𝑉
(a) 2𝑔𝑜
𝑎𝑉𝑜 2
(b) 2𝑔
𝐿𝑉𝑜
(c) 𝑔𝑡
(d) Independent of the dimensions of pipe

A
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A
33. Which one of the following statements is correct?
I (a) Dynamic velocity of water is nearly 50 times that of air
(b) Kinematic viscosity of water is 30 times that of air
C (c) Water in soil is able to ride a considerable distance above the groundwater table due
to viscosity.
T (d) Vapour pressure of a liquid is inversely proportional to the temperature
E
34. The Bernoulli’s equation is applicable to
(a) Both steady and unsteady flows
(b) Real fluids
(c) All fluids and flows along a stream tube
(d) Steady flow of ideal fluids along a stream tube
35. Penman’s equation is based on

(a) Energy budget equation only
(b) Energy budgeting and water budgeting
A (c) Energy budgeting and mass transfer
I (d) Water budgeting and mass transfer
C 36. A two-hour storm hydrograph has 5 units of direct runoff. The two-hour unit hydrograph
for this storm can be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the storm hydrograph by
T (a) 5
(b) 5/2
E
(c) 2
(d) 2/5
37. The probability that a 100 year flood is equaled or exceeded at least once in 100 years is
(a) 99%
(b) 64%
(c) 36%
(d) 1%
A 38. Gypsum is used as an admixture in cement for

(a) accelerating the settling time
I (b) retarding the settling time
C (c) increasing the plasticity
(d) reducing the grout shrinkage
T
39. Before testing settling time of cement one should test for
E (a) soundness
(b) strength
(c) fineness
(d) consistency
40. The fineness of cement is tested by

(a) air-content method
(b) air-permeability method
(c) Le-Chatelier apparatus
A (d) Vicat’s apparatus
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A
41. A mortar for which both cement and lime are mixed is called
I (a) gauged mortar
(b) cement mortar
C (c) lime mortar
(d) light weight mortar
T
E 42. Guniting is the application of motor
(a) on a surface under pneumatic pressure
(b) on a vertical surface
(c) on brickwork by manual method
(d) of fluid consistency for repair works
43. Which of the following aggregates gives maximum strength in concrete?

(a) Rounded aggregate
(b) Elongated aggregate
(c) Flaky aggregate
A (d) Cubical aggregate
I
44. On which one of the following factors, does strength of concrete depend primarily?
C (a) Quality of coarse aggregate
(b) Quality of fine aggregate
T (c) Fineness of cement
(d) Water-cement ratio
E
45. King closers are related to
(a) doors and windows
(b) king post truss
(c) queen post truss
(d) brick masonry
46. Radial splits in timber originating from ‘bark’ and narrowing towards the ‘pith’ are
known as
A (a) heart shakes
(b) star shakes
I (c) cup shakes
C (d) knots
T 47. In a closed traverse, the sum of south latitudes exceeds the sum of north latitudes and the
sum of east departures exceeds the sum of west departures. The closed line will lie in the
E (a) N-W quadrant
(b) N-E quadrant
(c) S-E quadrant
(d) S-W quadrant
48. In a transit theodolite, error due to eccentricity of verniers is eliminated by reading

(a) both verniers
(b) both right swing and left swing
(c) right and left faces
A (d) different parts of main scale
I
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49. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is an indicator of its
I (a) density
(b) moisture content
C (c) shear strength
(d) porosity
T
50. Liquefaction of foundation soil during an earthquake shall not be the reason for cracking
E
of
(a) only floors in the building
(b) walls and roof in the building
(c) beams and columns in the building
(d) only balcony in the building
51. Reduction in volume of soil primarily due to squeezing out of water from the voids is
called
(a) primary consolidation
A (b) plastic flow
(c) creep
I (d) secondary consolidation
C 52. An isobar is a line which connects all points below the ground surface at which
T (a) the local ground elevation is same
(b) the settlement is same
E (c) the vertical stress is the same
(d) the ground elevation is varying
53. If instead of single drainage, the number of drainage faces is increased to two in
responding soils, the rate of compression will be
(a) 4 time slower
(b) 2 times slower
(c) 4 time faster
(d) 2 times faster
A 54. The configuration of flow nets depends upon
(a) the permeability of the soil
I
(b) the difference in the head between upstream and downstream sides
C (c) the boundary condition of flow
(d) the amount of seepage that takes place
T
55. Sheep-foot rollers are recommended for compacting
E (a) granular soils
(b) cohesive soils
(c) hard rock
(d) any type of soil
56. Soil is compacted at which one of the following when a higher compactive effort
produces highest increase in dry density?
(a) optimum water content
(b) dry side of the optimum moisture content
A (c) Wet side of the optimum moisture content
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(d) Saturation moisture content

A
57. Laboratory vane shear test can also be used to determine
I (a) shear parameters of silty sand
(b) shear parameters of sandy clay
C (c) liquid limit of silty clay
(d) plastic limit of clayey silt
T
E 58. The correct sequence of the given parameters in descending order of earth pressure
intensity is
(a) active, passive, at rest
(b) passive, active, at rest
(c) passive, at rest, active
(d) at rest, passive, active
59. The cavitation and pitting can be prevented by creating which one of the following
conditions?
(a) Reducing the pressure head
A (b) Reducing the velocity head
I (c) Increasing the elevation head
(d) Reducing the piezometric head
C
60. As the depth of immersion of a vertical plane surface increases, the location of centre of
T pressure
(a) falls closer to the centre of gravity of the area
E
(b) moves away from the centre of gravity of the area
(c) ultimately coincides with the centre of gravity of the area
(d) falls much below the centre of gravity of the area
61. Flow measurements with a Prandtl-Pilot tube showed that the tip readings varied only
across the flow while the side –opening readings varied only in the direction of flow. The
type of flow is
(a) Uniform irrotational
(b) Uniform rotational
A (c) Non-uniform irrotational
(d) Non-uniform rotational
I
C 62. In fluid flow, the line of constant piezometric head passes through two points which have
the same
T (a) elevation
(b) pressure
E (c) velocity
(d) velocity potential
63. Among weirs used in open flow metrology, critical depth of the flow is the relevant
criterion in:
(a) Broad-crested weir
(b) Cippoletti weir
(c) Parabolic weir
(d) Sharp-crested weir
A
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64. Laminar flow occurs between extensive stationary plates. The kinetic energy correction
A
factor is nearly
I (a) 1.0
(b) 1.5
C (c) 2.0
(d) 2.3
T
E 65. If the velocity of flow as well as the diameter of the flowing pipe is doubled through pipe
system in use since long, the head loss will thereafter be
(a) Halved
(b) Doubled
(c) Increase 4 times
(d) No change
66. A flat plate with a sharp leading edge is placed along a free stream of fluid flow. Local
Reynolds number at 3 cm from the leading edge is 105. What is the thickness of the
A boundary layer?
I (a) 0.47 mm
(b) 0.35 mm
C (c) 0.23 mm
(d) 0.12 mm
T
67. Inconsistency of rainfall data can be checked by which of the following method?
E
(a) Normal ratio method
(b) Mass curve method
(c) Double-mass curve method
(d) Depth duration frequency curve
68. Calibration of current meter for use, in channel flow measurement is done in a
(a) wind tunnel
(b) water tunnel
(c) towing tank
A (d) flume
I 69. The trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
C (a) inflow into the reservoir
(b) ratio of inflow to storage capacity
T (c) ratio of reservoir capacity to inflow
(d) reservoir capacity
E
70. The Muskingham method of flood routing is a
(a) form of hydraulic routing of flood
(b) form of reservoir routing
(c) complete numerical solution of St. Venant equations
(d) hydrological channel routing method
A
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A
I
C 71. A bar of diameter 30 mm is subjected to a tensile load such that the measured extension
on a gauge length of 200 mm is 0.09 mm and the change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. The
T Poisson’s ratio will be
a) 1/4
E b) 1/3
c) 1/5
d) 1/6
72. A soil has discharge velocity of 6 x 107 m/s and void ratio of 0.5. Its seepage velocity in
m/s is
(a) 18 X 107
(b) 12 X 107
(c) 6 X 107
A (d) 3 X 107
I 73. Two planks each of 50 mm x 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form
a section 50 mm x 100 mm; and used as a beam. If the shear force at a section is 1000 N,
C
what is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
T (a) 0.15 MPa
(b) 0.30 MPa
E (c) 0.60 MPa
(d) 2.40 MPa
74. A beam of length 10 m carries a UDL of 20 kN/m over its entire length and rests on two
simple supports. In order that the maximum BM produced in the beam is the least
possible, the supports must be placed from the ends at a distance of
(a) 5.86 m
(b) 4.14 m
(c) 2.93 m
A (d) 2.07 m
I 75. The whole circle bearings of lines OP and OQ are 180 15’ and 3350 45’ respectively.
What is the value of the included angle QOP?
C (a) 420 30’
(b) 3070 30’
T
(c) 3540 00’
E (d) 1770 00’
76. RL of a floor level is 200.49 m. Staff reading on the floor is 1.695 m. Reading on the
staff held upside down against the bottom of the roof is 3.305 m. Height of the ceiling is
(a) 5.0 m
(b) 4.0 m
(c) 3.5 m
(d) 3.0 m
A
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77. A parabolic vertical curve is to be set out connecting two uniform grades of +0.6% and
A
+1.0%. the rate of change of grade is to be 0.06% per 30 m. the length of the curve will
I be
2
(a) 663 m
C
1
T (b) 1333 m
E (c) 200 m
2
(d) 2663 m
78. If two triangulation signals of 6.75 m height each, are to be just visible over ground
mutually, what is the maximum distance between their locations on the ground surface?
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
A (d) 40 km
I 79. The measured radius of a circle is 80 m with a possible error of 0.05 m in its diameter.
The error in the computed area will nearly be
C (a) +6.5 m2
T (b) -0.65 m2
(c) ±8.2 m2
E (d) ±12.6 m2
80. The main reinforcement of a RC slab consists of 10 mm bars at 10 cm spacing. If it is

desired to replace 10 mm bars by 12 mm bars, then the spacing of 12 mm bars should be
(a) 12.0 cm
(b) 14.4 cm
(c) 16.5 cm
(d) 18.0 cm
81. A square slab 4 m x 4 m is isotropically reinforced at the bottom. If it is subjected to a

A
working load of 12kPa (including self-weight), the moment capacity required as per
I yield line theory is
(a) 6 kN-m/m
C (b) 8 kN-m/m
(c) 10 kN-m/m
T (d) 12 kN-m/m
E
82. A uniformly distributed load of length 8 m crosses a simply supported girder of span 20
m. The maximum bending moment at the left quarter-span point occurs when the
distance between the point of CG of the total load and mid-span is
(a) 0 m
(b) 2 m
(c) 3 m
(d) 4 m
A
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83. The moment at the indeterminate support of a two-span continuous beam of 6 m each
A
with simple support at the ends carrying a UDL of 20 kN/m over only the left span is
I (Flexural rigidity is the same for both the spans)
(a) 90 kN-m hogging
C (b) 45 kN-m hogging
(c) 45 kN-mm sagging
T (d) zero
E
84. If a point load acting at the mid-span of fixed beam of uniform section produces fixed
end moments of 60 kN-m, then the same load spread uniformly over the entire span will
produce fixed end moments equal to
(a) 20 kN-m
(b) 30 kN-m
(c) 40 kN-m
(d) 45 kN-m
85. The liquid limit and plastic limit of sample are 65% and 29%, respectively. The percent
A of soil fraction with grain size finer than 0.002 mm is 24. The activity ratio of the soil is
I (a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
C (c) 1.5
(d) 2.0
T
86. A soil has discharge velocity of 6 x 10-7 m/s and void ratio of 0.5. Its seepage velocity in
E m/s is
(a) 18 X 10-7
(b) 12 X 10-7
(c) 6 X 10-7
(d) 3 X 10-7
87. The absolute pressure at a point 2.5 m below the clear water surface is measured as
125.703 kN/m2. If the atmospheric pressure is taken as 101.325 kN/m2, the gauge
pressure in kN/m2 at this point would be
A (a) 113.514
(b) 24.378
I (c) 45.401
(d) 56.757
C
88. When the water surface coincides with the top edge of a rectangular vertical gate
T 40 m (wide) X 3 m (deep), then the depth of centre of pressure is
(a) 1.0 m
E
(b) 1.5 m
(c) 2.0 m
(d) 2.5 m
89. A ship has a metacentric height of 0.9 m and its period of rolling is 20 seconds. The
relevant radius of gyration is nearly
(a) 5.5 m
(b) 7.5 m
(c) 9.5 m
A (d) 11.5 m
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90. The stream function for a two-dimensional flow is given by Ψ = 2xy. The velocity at (2,
A
2) is
I (a) 4 2
(b) 4
C (c) 2 2
T (d) 2
E 91. The coefficient of variation of the rainfall for six rain gauge stations in catchments was
found to be 29.54%. The optimum number of stations in the catchments for an
admissible 10% error in the estimation of the mean rainfall will be
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
92. An unconfined aquifer of porosity 30%, permeability 35 m/day and specific yield of 0.20
A has an area of 100 km2. If the water table falls by 0.25 m during a drought, the volume of
water lost from storage, in million cubic meters, is
I (a) 2
(b) 5
C (c) 1
T (d) 4
E 93. The SPT N value (Blow count) at the top of a 20 m long and 800 mm diameter bored
cost-in-situ pile in a sandy soil is 32. The end boring resistance is
(a) 502.73 t
(b) 167.57 t
(c) 640.48 t
(d) 723.82 t
94. Four piles of 400 mm dia are engaged in a square pattern with centre to centredistance
of 1.2 m in a clay structure. Length of the piles below the ground level is 10 m. The
A undrained cohesion of the clay is 40 kPa. The group capacity of pile group, assuming
that the group fails as the single block act individually, is
I
(a) 3481.6 kN
C (b) 2438.6 kN
(c) 1188.6 kN
T (d) 921.6 kN
E
95. For bearing capacity calculations if total load acts at an eccentricity of 0.2 m with respect
to the axis. The corrected length and width of a square footing of 2 m x 2 m is
(a) 1.8 m, 1.8 m
(b) 1.6 m, 1.6 m
(c) 1.8 m, 1.6 m
(d) 1.6 m, 1.8 m
A
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96. The maximum vertical depth of excavation that can be made in a saturated soft clay,
A
having c = 30 kN/m2 and γ = 20 kN/m3 without any lateral support, is
I (a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
C (c) 8 m
(d) 9 m
T
E 97. An S-curve hydrograph is derived for a basin of 540 km2 for a 6 h unit hydrograph. The
equilibrium discharge in the S-curve is
(a) 270 m3/s
(b) 250 m3/s
(c) 3240 m3/s
(d) 540m3/s
98. A 40 cm diameter well draws water from an artesian aquifer. After pumping for 15h, it
drawdown in the pumped well becomes 30 m and is 10 m in an observation well located
at a distance of 50 m from it. What is the change in its drawdown per unit distance log
A scale
I (a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
C (c) 8 m
(d) 10 m
T
99. For the stress state, σxx = σyy = 5 MPa and the shear stress τxy = τyx = τ MPa. The major
E principal stress is 10 MPa. The shear stress in MPa is
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 2.5
(d) 0
100. In a certain river, the flood discharge of 2000 cumec was exceeded 48 times during a
period of 27 years. What will be the annual probability and average recurrence interval
of flood?
A (a) 80%, 0.56 y
(b) 50%, 0.84 y
I (c) 75%, 0.75 y
(d) 92%, 1 y
C
PART –C
T
E

A (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
I
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A
is equal to
C
1 1 1
T (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
E 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0

C
E 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

T (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
I
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ROLL NO.: UG1CEV12
A ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2
I
C (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
T 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
E
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
A 115. Particular integral of 𝑥 2 𝐷2 − 3𝑥𝐷 + 5 𝑦 = sin (log 𝑥) is

I 1
C (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
I
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
C
E (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
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UG - CIVIL & ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
Code 12-Paper 1
1 D 31 D 61 A 91 C
2 C 32 C 62 C 92 Marks to all
4 D 34 D 64 C 94 D
5 D 35 C 65 B 95 B
6 A 36 A 66 A 96 B
7 B 37 B 67 C 97 B
8 B 38 B 68 C 98 C
9 C 39 D 69 C 99 B
10 C 40 B 70 D 100 A
11 D 41 A 71 B 101 A
12 Marks to all 42 A 72 Marks to all 102 C
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 A
14 C 44 D 74 D 104 D
15 A 45 D 75 A 105 D
16 A 46 B 76 A 106 A
17 C 47 C 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 B
19 C 49 C 79 Marks to all 109 D
20 B 50 D 80 B 110 B
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 D
22 D 52 C 82 C 112 B
23 A 53 C 83 B 113 B
24 B 54 C 84 C 114 B
25 B 55 B 85 C 115 B
26 B 56 B 86 A 116 C
27 C 57 Marks to all 87 B 117 B
28 A, B, C, D 58 C 88 C 118 C
29 A 59 B 89 C 119 B
30 D 60 A 90 A 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
CIVIL AND ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
I
PAPER-II
T
E Instructions:
wrong answer.
I
T
1. Eutrophication of water bodies is caused by the

a) Presence of toxic substances
b) Presence of nutrients
c) Presence of suspended solids
d) Presence of chlorides
A
2. Zero hardness of water can be achieved by
I a) Using lime soda process
b) Excess lime treatment
C c) Ion exchange method
d) Using excess alum dosage
T
3. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for enteric fever?
E a) Salmonella typhi
b) ECHO
c) Entamoeba histolytica
d) Echinococcus
4. After which of the following treatment units, the turbidity is maximum?

a) Chlorination
A b) Primary sedimentation
c) Flocculation basin
I d) Secondary sedimentation
C 5. Which one of the following cations impart(s) pseudo-hardness to water?
a) Calcium only
T b) Magnesium only
c) Calcium and magnesium
E
d) Sodium
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6. What is the most common cause of acidity in water?
I a) Carbon monoxide
C b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
T d) Carbon dioxide
E 7. The maximum safe permissible limit of nitrate in drinking water supply as per IS 10500-
2012 is
a) 25 mg/L
b) 45 mg/L
c) 65 mg/L
d) 85 mg/L
A 8. The cleaning of slow sand filter is done by

a) Reversing the direction of flow water
I b) Passing air through the filter
c) Passing a solution of alum and lime through the filter
C d) Scraping off top layers of sand and admitting water
T
9. Uniformity coefficient of filter sand is given by
E a) D50/D5
b) D50/D10
c) D60/D5
d) D60/D10
10. In a water treatment plant, dissolved iron and manganese can be removed from the water
by
a) Aeration and KMnO4 addition
A
b) Aeration and sedimentation
I c) Aeration and flocculation
d) Coagulation and chlorination
C
11. Which one of the following filters will produce water of higher bacteriological quality?
T a) Slow sand filter
E b) Rapid sand filter
c) Pressure filter
d) Dual media filter
12. Air binding may occur in

a) Filter
b) Artesian well
c) Aerator
A d) Flocculator
I
13. Which one of the following is not a specific criterion for calculating surface overflow
C rate in sedimentation tank design?
a) Total depth of the tank
T b) Total quantity of water to be treated
c) Total length of the tank
E d) Total surface area available in the tank
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14. Which one of the following chemicals is employed for de-chlorination of water?
I a) Sodium sulphite
C b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Calcium carbonate
T d) Hydrogen peroxide
E 15. Chlorides from water are removed by

a) Lime soda process
b) Reverse osmosis
c) Cation exchange process
d) Chemical coagulation
16. Which one of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen?

A a) Green algae
b) Blue green algae
I c) Red algae
d) Brown algae
C
17. Which one of the following tests of water/wastewater employs Erichrome Black T as an
T indicator?
E a) Hardenss
b) COD
c) Residual chlorine
d) DO
18. In high rate trickling filter problem of ponding can be solved by
a) Raking and chlorination
b) Flooding and raking
A c) Chlorination and aeration
d) Flooding and aeration
I
19. Sludge bulking can be controlled by
C a) chlorination
b) coagulation
T
c) aeration
E d) denitrification
20. In transition of sewers from smaller diameter sewers to larger diameter sewers, the
continuity of sewers is maintained at the
a) Inverts of the sewers
b) Bottom of the concrete bed of sewers
c) Crowns of the sewers
d) Hydraulic gradients of the sewers
A
21. The maximum flow occurs in an egg shaped sewer when the ratio of flow to vertical
I diameter is
a) 0.33
C
b) 0.50
T c) 0.95
d) 1.00
E
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A
22. A sewer is commonly designed to attain self-cleaning velocity at
I a) Peak hourly rate of flow
C b) Average hourly rate of flow
c) Minimum hourly rate of flow
T d) Sewer running half full
E 23. If the slope of sewer A is 1/100 and that of sewerB is 1/400, the velocity of flow in the
two sewers will have a ratio of (size and material of the both the sewers being the same).
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 3/2
d) 2
A 24. Which one is not a water borne disease?

a) Malaria
I b) Tuberculosis
c) Typhoid
C d) Dysentery
T
25. If 1000 bacterial cells were originally present in a medium which lead to a final bacterial
E count of 100 million cells, the number of generations, n, is
a) 8.5
b) 10.0
c) 14.2
d) 16.5
26. The typical density in kg/m3 (in situ) of well-compacted municipal solid waste in landfill
is in the range of
A a) 100 to 300
b) 310 to 500
I c) 550 to 850
C d) 900 to 1100
T 27. Sewage sickness is a term used for

a) Persons who become sick after drinking sewage contaminated water
E b) Odor coming from a treatment plant which does not function properly
c) A treatment where flora and fauna die due to sewage inflow
d) The condition of land where sewage is applied continuously for a long period
28. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists of which one of the following
a) Geomembrane
b) Compacted soil
c) Geotextile
A d) Geocomposite
I 29. Which one of the following would help prevent the entry of foul sewer gases into the
C building?
a) air gap
T b) vent pipe
c) gully gap
E d) water seal
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30. Which one of the following solid waste disposal methods is ecologically most
I acceptable?
C a) Sanitary landfill
b) Incineration
T c) Composting
d) Pyrolysis
E
31. For fish habitat in a river, the minimum dissolved oxygen required is
a) 2 mg/L
b) 4 mg/L
c) 8 mg/L
d) 10 mg/L
A 32. Which one of the following sets of processes is a part of self-purification of streams?
a) Settling, bio-degradation and desalination
I b) Settling, bio-degradation and aeration
c) Floatation, ion exchange and desalination
C d) Desalination, ion exchange and reverse osmosis
T
33. The process of disposal wastewater into a running stream, called stream sanitation, is
E modelled using
a) Fick’s diffusion equation
b) Streeter-Phelps equation
c) Navier-Stoke’s equation
d) Gaussian equation
34. The term ‘Refuse’ generally does not include

a) Putrescible solid waste
A b) Excreta
I c) Non-putrescible solid waste
d) Ashes
C
35. Shallow ponds in which dissolved oxygen is present at all depths are called
T a) Aerobic lagoons
b) Aerobic ponds
E
c) Facultative lagoons
d) Facultative ponds
36. One litre of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of 27
cm3. If the dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 grams, then its sludge volume in cm3 will be
a) 9 cms
b) 24cms
A c) 30cms
d) 81cms
I
C 37. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
a) BOD : Strength of sewage
T b) UASB : Anaerobic Process
c) COD : Biodegradability of wastewater
E d) Nitrate : Methaemoglobinemia
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I 38. Fresh sludge has moisture content of 99% and, after thickening; its moisture content is
C reduced to 96%. The reduction in volume of sludge is
a) 3%
T b) 5%
c) 75%
E d) 97%
39. In the oxidation ditch, the excess sludge is taken to

a) Anaerobic digester
b) Aerobic digester
c) Drying beds
d) Incinerator
A
40. Which one of the following sewage treatment units has a Parshall flume?
I a) Trickling filter
b) Oxidation ditch
C c) Grit chamber
T d) Aerated lagoon
E 41. Which one of the following principal types of reactors is related to trickling filter?
a) Plug flow
b) Complete-mix
c) Packed bed
d) Fluidized bed
42. The function of algae in oxidation pond is to

a) Provide a mat over the surface of oxidation pond so as to prevent evaporation of
A water
I b) Provide oxygen for bacteria to degrade organic matter
c) Provide a greenish appearance to the pond
C d) Prevent the odour nuisance
T 43. Sewage may be disposed off without treatment into a water body if the available dilution
is
E
a) Less than 150
b) More than 150
c) Less than 500
d) More than 500
44. In an activated sludge process, the sludge volume index can be controlled by
a) Aeration
A b) Adding chlorine
c) Reducing recycling ratio
I d) Increasing recycling ratio
C
45. In aerobic conditions, the microbial decomposition of organics results in the formation of
T which one of the following?
a) Stable and objectionable end products
E b) Unstable and objectionable end products
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c) Unstable and acceptable end products
I d) Stable and less objectionable end products
C 46. Presence of nitrogen in a wastewater sample is due to the decomposition of
a) Carbohydrates
T b) Proteins
c) Fats
E d) Vitamins
47. Which one of the following methods of solid waste management conserves energy
efficiently in the form of gas or oil?
a) Incineration with heat recovery
b) Combusting
c) Fluidized-bed incineration
A d) Pyrolysis
I 48. In an aerobic attached-culture system, the biomass at the biofilm-medium surface

interface experiences
C a) Aerobic and endogenous metabolism
b) Anaerobic and endogenous metabolism
T c) Anaerobic and exogenous metabolism
d) Aerobic and exogenous metabolism
E
49. A sewage sludge has a water content of 99%. What will be the concentration of
suspended solids in the sludge?
a) 10 mg/L
b) 100 mg/L
c) 1000 mg/L
d) 10,000 mg/L
A 50. A sludge volume index for mixed liquor having suspended solids concentration of 2000
I mg/L and showing a settled volume of 200 ml from a one litre sample would be
a) 0.1
C b) 1000
c) 100
T d) 10
E 51. Noise level of general conversational speech is:
a) 20 dB
b) 40 dB
c) 60 dB
d) 100 dB
52. Aerosol is
a) Carbon particles of microscopic size
A
b) Dispersion of small solid or liquid particles in gaseous media
I c) Finely divided particles of ash
d) Diffused liquid particles
C
53. Which one of the following plume behaviors occurs when atmospheric inversion begins
T from the ground level and continues?
a) Looping
E b) Fumigation
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c) Coning
I d) Fanning
C 54. Which one of the following pairs of pollutants is formed due to photochemical reactions?
a) CO and HC
T b) O3 and PAN
c) NOx and NH3
E d) NH3 and CO
55. Find the odd one from the following terms in respect of bacterial metabolism:
a) Oxidative phosphorylation
b) Substrate-level phosphorylation
c) Product-level phosphorylation
d) Photophosphorylation
A 56. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide. It is
hazardous because it
I a) affects our sense of smell
C b) carcinogenic in nature
c) combines with hemoglobin
T d) Causes blindness
E 57. Which one of the following procedures is used for sampling of the flue gas in a chimney
for SPM?
a) Isothermal sampling
b) Isokinetic sampling
c) Adiabatic condition
d) Variable rate of sampling
58. Which type of light energy is effectively adsorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of the
A troposphere?
a) X-rays
I b) UV-rays
C c) Visible light
d) Infra-red rays
T
59. What type of noise can be abated by providing lining on walls and ceiling with sound
E adsorbing materials?
a) Source noise
b) Reflection noise
c) Structural noise
d) Direct air-borne noise
60. Which of the following statement related to C/N ratio is not correct?
a) Lower initial C/N ratio leads to loss of nitrogen and slows down the rate of
A
decomposition
I b) Higher initial C/N ratio leads to cell destruction to obtain nutrition
c) Higher initial C/N ratio leads to lower conservation of nitrogen in the finished
C compost
d) An initial C/N ratio of 30 to 50 is optimal for composting
T
61. The term ‘biological magnification’ indicates which one of the following?
E
a) Likelihood of increasing size of animals during evolution
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b) Magnification of bacteria using microscopy
I c) Accumulation of pollutants in soil
C d) Accumulation of pollutants in successive consumers
62. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to inhalation of which one of the following?
T a) Silica
b) NOx
E c) Lead
d) Cadmium
63. Which one of the following conditions of automobile gives unburned hydrocarbons?
a) Idling
b) Cruise
c) Acceleration
A d) Deceleration
I 64. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for which one of the following industries?
a) Tannery
C b) Sulphuric acid industry
T c) Cement industry
d) Textile factory
E
65. Assuming annual average travel for each vehicle to be 20000 km, what is the annual
quantity of NOx produced from 50000 vehicles with emission rate of 2 g/km/vehicle?
a) 1800 tonnes
b) 1900 tonnes
c) 2000 tonnes
d) 2100 tonnes
A 66. Environmental impact assessment include
I a) Environmental statement
b) Environmental management plan
C c) Risk and hazard assessment and mitigation
d) All the above
T
67. The correct relationship between theoreticaloxygen demand (TOD), biochemical oxygen
E
demand (BOD) and chemical oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD > BOD > COD
b) TOD > COD > BOD
c) COD > BOD > TOD
d) BOD > COD > TOD
68. Main gas from land fill is

A a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
I c) Carbon monoxide
C d) Methane
T 69. Which of the following is natural source of air pollution?

a) Carbonmonoxide from automobiles
E b) Emissions from chemical factories
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c) Ozones from lightening
I d) Emissions from biomass burning
C
70. Swimming pool water requires
T a) Pre chlorination
b) Super-chlorination
E c) Dual-chlorination
d) De-chlorination
71. Which one of the following methods can be employed for plastic and rubber waste
disposal?
a) Composting
b) Incineration
A c) Sanitary landfill
d) Pyrolysis
I
72. Vaccum filters are used for
C a) Slowing down bacterial activity
T b) Dewatering of sludge
c) Filtration of sludge
E d) Filtration of released water
73. Sodium is usually estimated by which of the following analytical method

a) Colorimetry
b) Flame photometry
c) HPLC
d) UV spectrophotometry
A 74. Conductivity reflects which type of the solids:
I a) TS
b) TSS
C c) TDS
d) TVS
T
75. Main purpose of Jar test is to determine the
E a) Chlorine residual
b) Detention time
c) Filration rate
d) Alum dose
76. A sedimentation tank has dimensions 10 m x 10 m x 2 m. If the flow rate is 20 MLD,

what will be the detention time in min
A a) 10
b) 24
I c) 14
C d) 60
T 77. The primary water quality indicator which is used to monitor filtration process is
a) Turbidity
E b) Head loss
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c) Odour
I d) pH
C
78. Which one of the following is not a pollution prevention approach?
T a) source reduction
b) recycle and reuse
E c) good house keeping
79. The residual pressure head in a water distribution system, where two storied buildings
are common, is
a) 7 m
b) 12 m
c) 17 m
A
d) 22 m
I
80. The coefficient of correlation
C a) has a value less than 1
b) has a value greater than 1
T c) has a value between 0 and 1
d) has a value between -1 and +1
E
81. Consider the following impurities:

1. CO2 and H2S
2. Finely divided suspended matter
A 3. Disease causing bacteria
4. Excess alkalinity
I The correct sequence of the removal of these impurities in a conventional water
treatment plant is
C
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
T b) 1, 4, 3, 2
c) 1, 4, 2, 3
E d) 4, 1, 3, 2
82. A BOD analysis is begun on Tuesday. 30 mL of waste with dissolved oxygen (DO) of
zero is mixed with 270 mL of dilution water with a DO of 10 mg/L. The sample is then
put in the incubator. Since the 5th day falls on Sunday and the lab personal do not work
on Sunday, the final DO was measured on Monday and is found to be 4.0 mg/L.
However, it is discovered that the incubator was set at 30oC. Assume a k1 value of 0.2 at
A 20oC. Determine the 5-day, 20oC BOD of the sample (ϴ = 1.05).
a) 50.00 mg/L
I b) 58.88 mg/L
c) 37.22 mg/L
C d) 60.00 mg/L
T 83. Noise of 90 db for 8 h represents 100% dose. If the noise of 93 db for 1 h duration, it
represents a dose of
E
a) 25%
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b) 50%
I c) 75%
C d) 100%
T 84. pH of a water sample is 7. pH of another water sample of the same quantity is 8, then pH
of the mixture is
E a) 7.26
b) 7.50
c) 7.80
d) 7.65
85. The flocculation basin is 15 m x1 5 m x 2.5 m. The detention time achieved for a flow
of 30 ML/d is
A a) 30 s
b) 5 min
I c) 20 min
d) 30 min
C
T 86. If settling velocity of alum floc is 25 mm/min, how long would it take for the alum floc
to settle through a depth of 3.0 m, when the overflow rate is 20.0 m3/m2.d?
E a) 1.5 h
b) 2.5 h
c) 3.5 h
d) 4.5 h
87. The surface area of a rapid sand filter is 36 m2. What should the backwashing pumping
rate (L/s) be to achieve a backwash rate of 8 L/s.m2?
a) 4.5
A
b) 450
I c) 29
d) 290
C
88. The COD equivalent of biomass is
T a) 1.10 g COD/g biomass
E b) 1.21 g COD/g biomass
c) 1.42 g COD/g biomass
d) 1.90 g COD/g biomass
89. In a bag house, fabric filters of 0.3 m dia and 6.0 m long are used. Bag house receives 10
m3/s of flue gas. If the filtering velocity is limited to 2 m/min, the number of bags
a) 50
b) 52
A c) 54
d) 56
I
C 90. Effective stack height required to limit the pollutant concentration Cmax
a) 2σz
T b) σyσz
c) 1.732 σz
E d) 1.414 σz
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
I
C
91. The AAQS for NOx 80 µg/m3 is equivalent to
T (N – 14, O - 16)
a) 0.05 ppm
E b) 0.08 ppm
c) 0.16 ppm
d) 0.01 ppm
92. Which of the following are removed by rapid sand filter from water?
1. Dissolved solids
2. Suspended solids
A 3. Bacteria
4. Helminths
I Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
C b) 2 and 3
T c) 1 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
E
93. Which of the following statements regarding industrial water supply is/are correct?
1. Industrial water supplies need not be disinfected
2. Water for industrial use requires chemical treatment
3. Standards of purity and methods of treatment of water or industrial use are often
different from those for domestic water supplies.
4. It is more economical to use water from surface sources than groundwater sources
for industrial water supplies.
A
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
I a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 4
C c) 3 and 4
d) 3 only
T
E 94. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
A. Anabolism 1. Providing energy for synthesis of new cells and
maintenance of other cell functions
B. Autotrophs 2. Obtaining energy and material for growth from organic
sources
C. Catabolism 3. Providing the material necessary for cell growth
A D. Heterotrophs 4. Obtaining energy and material for growth from inorganic
sources
I
C Choose the most appropriate option
a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
T b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
E d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
I
C
95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
T
List-I List-II
E 5. Colorimetry 1. Benzene-ring containing compounds
6. UV Spectroscopy 2. Heavy Metals
7. Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy 3. Pesticides
8. Gas Chromatography 4. Lambert’s law
Choose the most appropriate option

a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
A b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
I d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
C Directions for questions16 to 20:

The following items consist of two statements: one labeled as Assertion (A)and the other
T
as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers
E to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
96. Assertion (A): A small quantity of ammonia is added to water before carrying out
A disinfection using chlorine.
Reason (R): Chloramines are persistent disinfectants, which provide continued protection
I
against re-growth of microorganisms is a water distribution system.
C
97. Assertion (A): Large weir overflow rates will result in excessive velocities at the outlet
T of a settling basin.
Reason (R): These excessive velocities will extend backward into the settling zone,
E causing particles and flocs which would otherwise be removed as sludge to be drawn
into the outlet.
98. Assertion (A): Flocculating particles settle in a curved path in a long rectangular
sedimentation tank designed for a constant flow rate.
Reason (R): The downward settling velocities of particles as well as their horizontal
velocities remain constant during their stay in the tank.
A
99. Assertion (A): Break point chlorination ensures a residual of free available chlorine.
I Reason (R): A super high chlorine dose inactivates the pathogens in a very short time.
C
100. Assertion (A): In electrostatic precipitator corona discharge is used for removing
T particulates from the gas stream.
Reason (R): The corona discharge charges the particles which makes the particles to
E move to opposite electrode and deposit
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
I
C 101. What is the settling velocity of a discrete particle in a wide body of water when the
relevant Reynold’s number is less than 0.5? The diameter and specific gravity of the
T particle are 2 x 10-3 cm and 2.65, respectively. Water temperature is 20 0C. (Kinematic
viscosity = 2 x 10-2 cm2/s).
E a) 0.018 cm/s
b) 0.025 cm/s
c) 0.180 cm/s
d) 0.250 cm/s
102. If the length dimension of a square filter bed increase to two times (while the rate of
filtration remains unchanged), the amount of water filtered would become
a) 4 times
A
b) 2 times
I c) 1 time
d) 16 times
C
103. For proper slow mixing in the flocculator of a water treatment plant, the temporal mean
T velocity gradient G needs to be of the order of
a) 5 to 10 s-1
E b) 20 to 80 s-1
c) 100 to 200 s-1
d) 250 to 350 s-1
104. A rural water supply scheme serves a population of 10,000 at the rate of 50 litres per
capita per day. For the chlorine dose of 2 ppm, the required amount of bleaching powder
with 20% available chlorine will be
a) 0.5 kg
A b) 2.5 kg
c) 5 kg
I
d) 10 kg
C 105. 10 MLD water is to be chlorinated in a clear water reservoir (CWR) with 0.8 mg/L
chlorine dose with providing contact time of 40 minutes. The required CWR capacity is
T
nearly
E a) 220 m3
b) 280 m3
c) 28 m3
d) 22 m3
106. For a colony of 10,000 persons having sewage flow rate of 200 L/capita/day. BOD of
applied sewage of 300 mg/L and organic loading of 300 kg/day/hectare, the area of an
oxidation pond required for treating the sewage of the colony is
A a) 0.2 hectares
b) 1.0 hectares
I c) 2.0 hectares
C d) 6hectares
107. A certain industrial waste has a BOD of 162 mg/L and its flow is 1000 m3/day. If the
T domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 g per capita, the population equivalent of the waste
E would be
a) 20.25
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
b) 1296
I c) 2025
C d) 12960
108. Two sources generate noise levels of 90dB and 94 dB respectively. The cumulative
T effect of these two noise levels on the human ear is
a) 184 dB
E b) 95.5 dB
c) 92 dB
d) 85.5 dB
109. The specific capacity of a well is 0.5 L/s.m. What is the maximum yield of the well, if
the maximum allowable drawdown is 18 m?
a) 36 L/s
A b) 25 L/s
c) 18 L/s
I d) 9 L/s
C 110. What is the specific yield of a 0.5 m diameter artesian well, if transmissivity of the
T pumped aquifer is 100 m3/d and the radius of influence is 1200 m?
a) 100 m3/m.d
E b) 50 m3/m.d
c) 24 m3/m.d
d) 12 m3/m.d
111. For a growing town, if the incremental rate of growth is 33% per decade, how many
years will it take to double the population?
a) 12
b) 18
A
c) 24
I d) 36
C 112. If the discharge of a pump is 0.16 m3/s, the economical diameter of the rising main is
a) 40 cm
T b) 60 cm
E c) 80 cm
d) 20 cm
113. If 20 mL of odorous water, when mixed with 180 mL of odour free water results in the
bare detectability of the odour, the TON is
a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
A d) 200
I
114. 20 L of 10% liquid chemical is added to 200 L capacity feeding tank. How many liters of
C water should be added to make a 2.5 % solution?
a) 60 L
T b) 80 L
c) 120 L
E d) 190 L
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
I
C
115. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 300 mg/L glucose (C6H12O6) solution?
T a) 316mg/L
b) 600 mg/L
E c) 640 mg/L
d) 320 mg/L
116. In a provincial park facility, a 2 % solution is fed at the rate of 10 L/d to treat water flow
of 50 kL/d. If the chlorine residual required is 0.6 mg/L, determine the chlorine demand
of the lake water.
a) 0.23 mg/L
A b) 2.3 mg/L
c) 3.6 mg/L
I d) 3.4 g/L
C 117. Two reservoirs are connected by a 300 mm diameter and 1200 m long pipe line.
Assuming f = 0.02, what is the flow rate when the water level in the lower reservoir is
T 32 m below the water level in the upper reservoir?
E a) 110 L/s
b) 150 L/s
c) 200 L/s
d) 250 L/s
118. What is the TCE concentration in g/m3 for a contaminated soil having density of 2 g/cm3
and TCE concentration of 4 ppm
a) 0.002
A b) 0.004
c) 0.006
I d) 0.008
C 119. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
T List-I List-II
E A. Movement of water 1. H+ ions
B. Electrochemical process 2. Tuberculation
C. Sulphate reducing bacteria 3.Cathodic protection
D. Bimetallic action 4. Cavitation
Choose the most appropriate option

a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
A c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
I
120. If the pH of a water sample is measured as 10, then the OH- alkalinity in mg/L as CaCO3
C
is
T a) 50
b) 5
E c) 10-4
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ROLL NO.: UG2CEV12
A
d) 4
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG - CIVIL & ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
Code 12-Paper 2
1 B 31 B 61 D 91 A
2 C 32 B 62 A 92 D
3 A 33 B 63 A 93 B
4 C 34 B 64 C 94 A
5 D 35 B 65 C 95 D
6 D 36 A 66 D 96 A
7 B 37 C 67 B 97 B
8 D 38 C 68 D 98 C
9 D 39 C 69 C 99 B
10 B 40 C 70 D 100 A
11 A 41 C 71 D 101 A
12 A 42 B 72 B 102 A
13 A 43 D 73 B 103 B
14 A 44 C 74 C 104 C
15 B 45 D 75 D 105 B
16 B 46 B 76 C 106 C
17 A 47 D 77 A 107 C
18 A 48 B 78 D 108 B
19 A 49 D 79 B 109 D
20 C 50 C 80 D 110 C
21 C 51 C 81 C 111 C
22 A 52 B 82 Marks to all 112 A
23 D 53 D 83 Marks to all 113 A
24 A, B 54 B 84 A 114 A
27 D 57 B 87 D 117 C
28 B 58 D 88 C 118 D
29 D 59 B 89 C 119 D
30 A 60 C 90 D 120 B
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING

Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks:160
A PAPER-1
I
Instructions:
C i. The question paper contains three parts, Part-A, Part-B & Part-C, total 120
questions.
E
wrong answer.
A programmable scientific calculator.
T
E
PART-A (70 X 1= 70)
1. The shear modulus (G), modulus of electricity (E) and poisson‟s ratio (μ) of material are
related as
𝐸 𝐸
(a) 𝐺 = 2(1+μ) (b) 𝐺 = 2(1−μ)
A
𝐺 2𝐸
I (c) 𝐸 = 2(1+μ) (d) 𝐺 = (1+μ)
C
2. A cantilever beam curved in plane is subjected to lateral loads will develop at any section
T
(a) Bending Moment and shear force
E (b) Bending Moment and Twisting Moment
(c) Twisting Moment and Shear Force
(d) Bending Moment, Twisting Moment and Shear Force
3. Pick the incorrect statement from the following statements

(a) On the plane which carries maximum normal stress, the shear stress is zero
A (b) The principal planes are mutually orthogonal
(c) On the plane which carries maximum shear stress, the normal stress is zero
I (d) The principal stress axis and principal strain axis coincide for an isotropic material
C 4. If a small concrete is submerged deep in still water in such a way that pressure exerted
T
on all faces of the cube is P, then the maximum shear stress developed is
E (a) Zero (b) P/2 (c) P (d) 2P
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
5. The „plane section remain plane‟ assumption in beginning theory implies:

(a) stress profile is linear (b) Strain profile is linear
A (c) Both profiles are linear (d) Shear deformation is neglected
6. A long shaft of diameter D is subjected to twisting moment at its ends. The maximum
I normal stress acting at this cross-section is equal to
C (a) Zero (b) 16T/πD3 (c) 64T/πD3 (d) 32T/πD3
T
7. The point within the cross-section plane of a beam through which the resultant of the
E external loading on the beam has to pass through to ensure pure bending without twisting
of the cross-section of the beam is called:
(a) Moment centre (b) Centroid (c) Shear Centre (d) Elastic Centre
8. The ratio of the theoretical critical bucking load for a column with fixed ends to that of
A another column with same dimension and material, but with pinned ends, is equal to:
I (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
C
9. The effective length of a column of length L fixed against rotation and translation at one
T end is
E (a) 0.5L (b) 0.7L (c) 1.414L (d) 2L
10. The magnitude of the bending moment at the fixed support of the beam is equal to
A
I
T (a) P.a (b) P.a/2 (c) P.b (c) P.(a+b)

E
11. A propped cantilever of span 1, is loaded with uniformly distributed load of intensity
w/unit length, all through the span. Bending moment at the fixed end is:
(a) W12/8 (b) W12/2 (c) W12/12 (d) W12/24

12. For the frame shown in figure, the maximum bending moment (in KN-m) in the column
is:
A
I
E (a) Zero (b) 400 (c) 100 (d) 200
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
13. Identify the false statement for the following, pertaining to the effects due to a
temperature rise ∆T in the bar BD alone in the plane truss shown below:
A
I
(a) No reactions develop at support A and D

(b) The bar BD will be subjected to tensile force
A
(c) The bar AC will be subjected to compressive force
I (d) The bar BC will be subjected to tensile force
C
14. The unit load method used in structural analysis is
T
(a) Applicable only to statically indeterminate structure
E (b) Another name for stiffness method
(c) An extension of mexwell‟s reciprocal theorem
(d) Derived from catigliano‟s theorem
15. The force (in KN) in the member DE of the truss shown in the figure is
A
I
(a) 100.0 (b) Zero (c) 35.5 (d) 25.0
A
I
16. For the plane truss shown
C in the figure, the number of
zero force members for
T the given loading is
E
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
A
I
E
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 11 (d) 13
17. For the truss shown in figure, the force in the member QR is
A
I
A (a) Zero (b) P/√2 (c) P (d) √2 (P)

I 18. Consider the following plane truss with load P as shown in the figure. Let the horizontal
C and vertical reactions at the join B be HBand VB, respectively and VC is the vertical
reaction at joint C.
T
A
I
Which one of the following sets gives the correct values of HB,VB andVC respectively?
C
(a) Zero, Zero, P (b) P/2, Zero, P/2
T (c) P/2, P(Sin60o), P/2 (d) P, P(Cos60o), Zero
E
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
19. The maximum strain in the tension reinforcement in the section at failure when design
for limit state of collapse should be
A
I
20. Minimum shear reinforcement is provided to

(a) Resist shear force at support
(b) Resist shear on account of accidental torsion
(c) Arrest the longitudinal cracks on side face due to shrinkage and temperature variation
A
(d) Resist shear in concrete developing on account of non-homogeneity of concrete
I
21. What is the anchorage value of a standard hook of the reinforced bar of diameter d?
C
(a) 4d (b) 8d (c) 12d (d) 16 d
T
22. Torsional resisting capacity of a given RCC section
E
(a) Decrease with decrease in stirrup spacing
(b) Decrease with increase in longitudinal bars
(c) does not depend upon stirrup and longitudinal steels
(d) Increase with the increase in stirrup and longitudinal steels
23. Limit state of serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creeps, shrinkage
A and temperature occurring after erecting of partitions and application of finishes as
applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to
I
(a) Span/150 (b) Span/200 (c) Span/250 (d) Span/350
C
T 24. Flexural collapse in over reinforced beams is due to
E (a) Primary compression failure (b) Secondary compression failure

(c) Primary tension failure (d) Bond failure
25. Which of the following type of design is preferred in earthquake?
(a) Strong beam, strong column (b) weak column, strong beam
(c) Week beam, strong column (d) Beam and column with equal strength
A
26. How can shear strength be ensured in a beam?
I
C (a) By providing binding wire on main bars

(b) by providing HYSD bars instead of mild steel bars
T (c) by providing rounded aggregates
(d) by providing stirrups
E 27. Which of the following is a compression member?
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
(a) Purlin (b) Stanchion (c) Girt (d) Tie

A 28. The minimum pitch of rivet holes of diameter d should not be less than
I
(a) d (b) 12.5 d (c) 1.5 d (d) 2.5 d
C
29. The equivalent axial tensile load Pe, which produces an average axial tensile stress in the
T section equivalent to the combined stress due to axial tension P and bending M, at the
E
extreme fibre of the section, is given by (where Z is the section modulus of the section)
(a) Pe = P + MA/Z (b) Pe = P - MA/Z (c) Pe = P – Z/MA (d) Pe = P + Z/MA
30. The slenderness ratio of a column is zero when its length
A (a) is zero
(b) is equal to its radius of gyration
I (c) is supported on all sides throughout its length
(d) is between the points of zero moments
C
T
31. A steel beam is connected to a steel column by means of two angles placed on the two
sides of the web of the beam. What it is called?
E
(a) Stiffened seat connection (b) unstiffened seat connection
(c) Framed connection (d) Rigid connection
32. When two plates are placed end to end and are joined by two cover plates, the joint is
known as
A
(a) Lap joint (b) double cover butt joint
I (c) Chair riveted lap joint (d) Butt Joint
C 33. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15o, where access is not provided to roof, is
T
taken as
(a) 0.65 kN/m2 (b) 0.75 kN/m2 (c) 1.35 kN/m2 (d) 1.50 kN/m2
E
34. Which of the following elements of pitched roof industrial steel building primarily resists
lateral load parallel to the ridge?
(a) Bracing (b) Purlin (c) Truss (d) Column
35. Reduction of architectural from a structure is a crucial aspect of:

A
(a) Bauhaus (b) Structuralism (c) Brutalism (d) Dom-Ino Model
I
36. „Absence of harmony and impression of Fragmentation‟ are features of
C
T (a) Brutalism (b) Minimalism (c) Constructivism (d) De-constructivism
E
37. “Less is more” is often associated with
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
(a) Walter Gropius (b) Ludwig Mies Van DerRohe

(c) Robert Venturi (d) None of the above
A
38. „Ornament equal crime‟ is a philosophy by
I
(a) Adolf Loos (b) Victor Horta (c) Eric Mendelsohn (d) Le Corbusier
C
T 39. The amalgamation of new materials with traditional forms as opposed to internarional
style was seen in
E
(a) Metabolism (b) Post-Modernism (c) Modernism (d) Art Nouveau
40. Founder of the Bauhaus

(a) Walter Gropius (b) Peter Behrens (c) Victor Horta (d) Adolf Meier
A 41. Who designed RashtrapatiBhavan in New Delhi?
I (a) Herbert Baker (b) Edward Lutyens
(c) Henry Irwin (d) Sir William Emerson
C
42. Which of these is a characteristic of Post Modern Architecture:
T
(a) References to Earlier Architectural movements
E (b) Embraces Ornamentation
(c) Playfulness in design
(d) All of these
43. Which of the following rejects Traditional system in search of new ones:
A (a) Art Nouveau (b) Gothic Revival
(c) Arts and Crafts Movement (d) None of these
I
C 44. The 'Lotus Temple' is made in which architecture style
T (a) Expressionism (b) Post Modern (c) Constructivism (d) Contemporary

E 45. This architect is known for his initiatives in cost effective energy efficient architecture
and aesthetic sensibility
(a) Lauri Baker (b) Nari Gandhi (c) AnanthRaje (d) UC Jain
46. Who is the architect of Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal?
A (a) Louis I Kahn (b) Raj Rewel (c) Hafeez Contractor (d) AnantRaje
I 47. This famous Architect modernized symbolically Indian traditional housing style and
C forms, freely using the technique of western modern architecture and works includes
STC Building.
T
(a) Raj Rewal (b) Charles Moore (c) Satish Gujral (d) BrindaSomaya
E
48. What is the design concept of Jawahar Kala Kendra by Charles Correa?
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
(a) Navgrah Mandala (9 squares) (b) Village cluster

(c) Regionalism (d) Spiritual linkage
A
49. Which style did Louis I Kahn primarily used in his buildings?
I
C (a) Modern and monumental design (b) Art deco style

(c) Post- modern (d) DE-constructivism
T
50. The curves, colours and layout of the Crystal Bridges Museum of American Art
E emphasizes its connections to what?
(a) The hills of Ozarks (b) The coastline of Atlantic seaboard

(c) The history of Canadian Cities (d) The flat and open plains
51. What is the construction practice used in 'Habitat67' by Moshe Safdie

A
I (a) Stone masonry (b) Glass reinforced concrete
(c) Prefabricated concrete forms (d) Post tensioning
C
52. 'I l don't think that architecture is only about shelter, is only about a very simple
T enclosure. It should be able to excite you, calm you, to make you think" is a famous
E quote by
(a) Frank Lloyd Wright (b) ZahaHadid (c) Rem Koolhaas (d) Daniel Libeskind
53. The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 m2 in plan area with a depth not
exceeding 0.3 m, is termed as
A
(a) Excavation (b) Surface dressing
I (c) Surface excavation (d) Cutting
C 54. The measurement is not made in square metres in which case
T
(a)Damp Proof Course (b) Form works
E (c) Concrete Jeffries (d) R.C. Chhajja
55. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate
exceeds
(a) 5.0 % (b) 2.5 % (c)4.0 % (d) 7.5 %
56. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A
(a) Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01 m
I (b) Areas are measured to the nearest 0.1 sq.m
C (c) Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.01 cum
(d) Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes
T
57. In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to
E centre distance between the walls and
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
(a)Breadth of the wall (b) Half breadth of wall on each side

(c) One fourth breadth of wall on each side (d) None of these
A
I
58. According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is
C (a) 23 cm x11.5 cm x 7.5 cm (b) 25 cm x13 cm x7.5 cm

(c) 19 cm x9 cm x9 cm (d) 20 cm x 10 cm x10 cm
T
E 59. The measurement is made in square metre in case of
(a) Cement concrete in foundation (b) R.C.C. structure

(c) Hollow concrete block wall (d) Honey comb brick work
60. For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1:6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of
A cement required, is
I (a) 0.200 cum (b) 0.274 cum (c) 0.247 cum (d) 0.295 cum
C
61. The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is
T
(a) Collapsible gates (b) Rolling shutters
E (c) Ventilators and glazing (d) All the above
62. The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in
(a) Cub. m (b) Sq. m (c) Metres (d) None of these

A 63. Minimum compressive Strength as per BIS:1077-1957 for standard bricks shall be-
I
(a) 3.5 N/mm2 (b) 10 N/mm2 (c) 2.5N/mm2 (d) 14 N/mm2
C
64. Correct position of Purlin is-
T
(a) Parallel to rafters (b) Perpendicular to Rafters
E (c) Are provided on vertical plane of truss (d) On the ridge of the rafter
65. M20 grade concrete refers to-

(a) 10 cm cube at 14 days (b) 15cm cube at 14 days
(c) 10 cm cube at 28 days (d) 15 cm cube at 28 days
66. Which type of Brick bonds have alternate course of Headers and Stretchers
A
I (a) English (b) Flemish (c) Rat-Trap Bond (d) Dutch Bond
C 67. Which of the following is not a constituent of Paints

T (a) Solvent (b) Binder (c) Pigments (d) Winder
68. Pre stressed Concrete shall have concrete grade of minimum
E
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ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
(a) M20 (b) M25 (c) M30 (d) M35
69. The elastic stress strain behaviour of rubber is -

A
(a) linear (b) non-linear (c) plastic (d) unpredictable behaviour.
I
C 70. In spread footing, the thickness of concrete bed should not be less than
T (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 30 cm
E
71. For the loading given in the figure below, the two statements (1) and (2) are made:
A
I
T
(1) Member AB carries shear force and bending moment
E
(2) Member BC carries axial load and shear force
Which of these statements are true:

(a) Statement (1) and ( 2) is false (b) Statement (1) and (2) is true
(c) Statement (1) is true and (2) is false (d) Statement (1) is false and (2) is true
A
I
C (1) On a principal plane, only normal stress acts

(2) On a principal plane, both normal and shear stress acts
T (3) On a principal plane, only shear stress acts
(4) Isolatic state of stress is independent of frame of reference
E
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
73. For the simply supported beam of length L, subjected to a uniformly distributed moment
M KN-m/unit length over the whole span. The bending moment (in KN-m) at the mid
span of the beam is:
A
(a) Zero (b) M (c) ML (d) M/L
I
74. The shear stress (in N/mm2) at the neutral axis in a beam of triangular section with the
C
base of 40 mm and height 20 mm, subjected to a shear force of 3 KN is:
T
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 16
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
75. In a system, two connected rigid bars AC and DC are of identical length, L with pin
supports at A and B. The bars are interconnected at C by a frictionless hinge. The
rotation of the hinge is restrained by a rotational spring of stiffness K. The system
A initially assumes a straight line configuration, ACB. Assuming both the bars as
I
weightless, the rotation at supports, A and B due to transverse load, P applied at C is:
C (a) PL/4K (b) PL/2K (c) P/4K (d) PK/4L

T
76. The capacity of single ISA 100x100x10 mn as tension member connected by one leg
E only using 6 rivets of 20 mn diameter is
(The allowable stress is 150 N/mm2)
(a) 333 kN (b) 253 kN (c) 238 kN (d) 210 kN
77. In a beam to column connection in steel construction, if torsion is permitted at the ends
A of ss beam by not providing the cleats, the
I
(a) Effective length of the beam is increases by 20%
C (b) Effective length remains same as the actual length
(c) Permissible bending stresses are increased by around 10%
T (d) Joint has to be designed for torsion
E
78. Consider the following statements regarding roofing of an industrial structure:
1. The conoidal shell is preferable to north – light steel trussed roof
2. The ware-house flat slab construction is not suitable
3. Loads other than self-weight have insignificant effect on the design
4. Consideration of corrosive environment cannot be ignored as it affects the durability
A
Which of these statements are correct?
I (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
C 79. The base plate of a roof tuss is attached to the concrete pier with the help of 16 mm
diameter mild steel anchor bolts of grade f=250 MPa. What is the maximum pull the
T
base can be subjected to, if the root area of bolt = 0.75 times shank area?
E
(a) 30 kN (b) 67.5 kN (c) 90kN (d) 120 kN
80. How did the Bauhaus School react to industrialisation and mass production?
(a) They rejected it

(b) They believed it was good for the society but should not intervene in art production
A (c) They integrated art with machine culture
(d) None of these
I
81. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Minimalist Architecture?
C
T (a) Elimination of inessentials (b) Simplicity of form and volume

(c) Use of Organic curves (d) Clean and smooth finishes
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
82. Which is TRUE about Post Modern Architecture
(a) Uplifts architecture as both functional and artistic in nature

A (b) Adapts diverse aesthetics giving unique forms
I
(c) Rejects formal rules of styles
(d) All of these
C
83. „Form follows Function' is explicitly seen in:
T
E
(a) Modern Architecture (b) Art Nouveau (c) Art Deco (d) All of these
84. „Blobitecture‟ or „Blobism‟a Post Modern architecture style is characterized by
(a) Blocky, volume geometry (b) Sleek, sharp built form

(c) Organic, round, bulging form (d) Unornamented, plain geometrical forms
A
85. Contextualism or contextual architecture includes
I
(a) Vernacularism (b) Regionalism (c) Critical regionalism (d) All of the above
C
T
86. What is the design concept of 'Santa Monica home' by Frank O Gehry.
E (a) Expressionism (c) Futurism

(c) Art deco (d) Deconstructivism
87. Height of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and side slopes
2:1. If the falling gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork
calculated by Prismoidal formula, is
A
(a) 3250 cum (b) 3225 cum (c) 3275 cum (d) 3300 cum
I
C
88. The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment in the given
figure is
T
A (a)
(b)
I
(c)
C (d)
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
89. The cross-section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given
figure. The area of the shaded portion is
A
I
(a)
(b)
)
A (c)
)
I
(d)
C )
T
90. The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure, is
(a)
A (a)
I (b)
)
C (c)
)(d)
T
)
E 91. The raft foundations are generally used when the area of footing is
(a) more than one-fourth (b) less than one –fourth
(c) more than one-half (d) less than one-half
92. All the members of the frame shown below have same flexural rigidity EI and length L.
If a moment M is applied by joint B, the rotation of the joint is
A
I
E
(a) ML/12EI (b) ML/11EI (c) ML/8EI (d) ML/7EI
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
93. The uniform beam (EI= constant) PQ in the form of a quarter circle of radius R is fixed
at end P and free at the end Q, where a load W is applied as shown. The vertical
downward displacement δQ at the loaded point Q is given by δQ = β(WR3/EI). Find the
A value of β
I
(a) π/2 (b) 1 (c) π/4 (d) π/3
A
94. The portal frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical load
I
w(per unit length).
w kN/m
C
The bending moment in the beam at the joint 'Q' is:

A (a) Zero (b) wL2/24 (hogging)
(c) wL2/12 (hogging) (d) wL2/8 (sagging)
I
C
95. A truss is shown in the figure. Members are of equal cross section A and modulus of
T elasticity E. A vertical force P is applied at point C.
E P
A
Force in the member AB of the truss is:
I
C (a) P/√2 (b) P/√3 (c) P/2 (d) P
Page 14 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
96. Match list-1 with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
A List — 1 List- 2
I A. Doubly reinforced section 1. Serviceability
B. Limit state design 2. Durability
C
C. Minimum cover 3. Reduction in section depth
T D. span to depth ratio 4. Ultimate moment capacity
E Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
A (d) 4 3 1 2
I
97. Consider the following statement dealing with flexural reinforcement to be terminated in
C tension zone:
l. The shear at cut off point not to exceed two-third of the Otherwise permitted value
T 2. Shear reinforcement is provided along each terminated bar Overlapping three fourth of
E
appropriate distance from the cut-off Point
3. For 36 mm and smaller bars, the continuing bars shall provide double the area
required for flexural at the cut-off point and shear does not exceed three-fourth of the
permitted value.
Which of these statements is/are correct?

A
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
I
C 1. Reinforcement that is no longer required for flexural beyond a certain section,
shall however be extended by d or 12Ø, whichever is greater, before being
T
curtailed.
E 2. At least half the bars should be bend up at the cut-off point.
3. The shear capacity at cut-off point does not exceed two third of the permitted
value, including the shear strength of the web reinforcement.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

A
99. Match list-I with list-2 and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
I lists:
List-I List-2
C
A. bond stress 1. zero at center of cross section
T B. thermal stress 2. circumferential stress
C. hoop stress 3. linear stress
E D. torsional stress 4. Longitudinal shear stress
5. zero on surface
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
Code:
A B C D
A (a) 5 2 4 1
I (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 5 2 3
C (d) 1 3 4 5
T
E 100. Calculate the approximate depth of isolated footing of a column of size 300x300mm
with a footing size of 1mx1m.
(a) 250mm (b) 350mm (c) 450mm (d) 550mm
A PART –C
I
C
T
E

is equal to
C
1 1 1
T (𝑎) (b) 3 (c) (d)3
3 2
2 3 2
E 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 𝑧 − 2𝑦 𝑧 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
A
C (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

T
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13

𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
A 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
I 𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
C
3
T 108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 +𝑦 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
E (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3

(a) 1/32 (b)2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32

A
I
C (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
T 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
E
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A 112. The Integral 𝑑𝑥 is
2 𝑥2
I
C (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
T 𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
E
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
A 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
I
C
1
T (a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) 8 [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO: UG1CAE13
A
I
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
C 117. In a binomial distribution 𝐵(𝑛, 𝑝) the mean is 100 and the variance is 80. Then the value
of n is
T
E
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
A
I
C (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
T
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
E
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
A
I
Page 18 of 18
UG CIVIL & ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING
Code 13-Paper 1
1 A 31 C 61 D 91 C
2 D 32 B 62 B 92 Marks to all
3 C 33 B 63 A 93 C
4 A 34 B 64 B 94 C
5 B 35 D 65 D 95 C
6 A 36 D 66 A 96 A
7 C 37 B 67 D 97 A
8 D 38 A 68 C 98 B
9 D 39 B 69 B 99 B
10 B 40 A 70 B 100 Marks to all
11 A 41 A, B 71 C 101 A
12 D 42 D 72 A 102 C
13 B 43 A 73 A 103 A
14 D 44 A 74 Marks to all 104 D
15 B 45 A 75 A 105 D
16 Marks to all 46 D 76 D 106 A
17 C 47 A 77 A 107 A
18 A 48 A 78 Marks to all 108 B
19 A 49 A 79 Marks to all 109 D
20 C 50 A 80 C 110 B
21 D 51 C 81 C 111 D
22 D 52 B 82 D 112 B
23 D 53 C 83 A 113 B
24 A 54 D 84 C 114 B
25 C 55 A 85 D 115 B
26 D 56 B 86 D 116 C
27 B 57 B 87 B 117 B
28 D 58 C 88 C 118 C
29 Marks to all 59 D 89 A 119 B
30 D 60 B 90 B 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
CIVIL AND ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING

A
I
PAPER-II
C Instructions:
E iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
I examination before leaving the examination hall.
C
T
1. In Indus valley cities, roads were laid at
E
(a) Obtuse angle (b) acute angles (c) right angles (d) radial
2. A typical Buddhist Chaitya had
(a) Circular Plan (b) Apsidal End

A (c) Square Plan with offsets (d) None of the Above
I 3. A typical Dravidian temple Vimana has
C (a) Pyramidal form (b) Domical form (c) Lantern roof (d) Cylindrical form
T 4. Temple group at Khajuraho belongs to
E (a) Nagara style (b) Vesara Style (c) Dravida Style (d) Gurjara Style
5. Tughlaqshahi buildings are constructed using
A (a) Random rubble masonry (b) Ashlar Masonry

(c) Dry Masonry (d) Coursed stone masonry
I
6. Lodi tombs were built on
C
(a) Only square plan (b) Only octagonal plan
T (c) both Octagonal and square plans (d) Neither octagonal nor square plans
Page 1 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
7. Which of the mosques does not have a central courtyard

A
(a) Jama Mosque Gulbarga (b) Moti Mosque Delhi
(c) Jama Mosque Delhi (d) Taj UI Masjid Bhopal
I
8. FatehpurSikri building complex uses
C
(a) Red sand stone and white marble (b) Pink marble and white marble
T (c) Red sandstone and white sand stone (d) White marble only
9. The central tomb chamber of Taj Mahal, Agra has a
E
(a) Single dome (b) Double dome
(c) Multilayered dome (d) Not a domed roof
10. The Char Bagh idea is frequently used in
A (a) Lodi gardens (b) Hindu gardens (c) Moughul gardens (d) Adilshahi gardens
I 11. An Ancient Greek Portico, a long colonnaded shelter used as a public space is known as
C (a)Pteroma (b) Stoa (c)Antefix (d) Anthemion
T 12. A twin Temple in Athenian Acropolis that is dedicated to Athena and Poseidon
E a) Parthenon b) Anthem ion c) Erechtheion d) Athena Nike
13. A prototypical building that served as an entrance pavilion to Greek Complexes like the
imposing Entrance to Acropolis in Athens?
(a) Hypostyle (b) Erechtheion (c) Propylaea (d) Pylons

A
14. The great Pyramid at Gizah was built in the 4th Dynasty by
I
(a) Djoser (b) Ramesses Il (c) Khafre (d) Mycerinus
C
15. The capital Order used in the Parthenon
T
(a) Doric (b) Ionic (c)Tuscan (d) Corinthian
E
16. Under whose patronage was Pantheon completed in 120 AD?
(a) Vitruvius (b) Apollodorus (c) Hadrian (d) Agrippa

A
17. Which order is essentially a simplification of Doric Order?
I
(a) Ionic (b) Corinthian (c) Tuscan (d)Composite
C
18. The Ten Books named as De Architectura have been written by which Author?
T
(a) Anthemius of Tralles (b) Isidore of Miletus
E (c) MarcusAgrippa (d) Vitruvius
Page 2 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
19. Identify the column order

A
T
(a)Tuscan (b)Corinthian (c) Composite (d) Ionic
E
20. What is the name given to carved, full length female figures used like columns,
inClassical Architecture?
(a) Terms (b) Caryatids (c) Herms (d) Atlantes
A 21. Church plan of Early Christian Churches was?
I (a) Basilica (b) Latin Cross (c) Greek Cross (d) CalvaryCross
C 22. Under the patronage of which byzantine emperor was Hagia Sophia built?
T (a)Justinian (b) Constantine (c) Theodosius (d) Romanos
E 23. St. Basils, Moscow reflects which architectural style?
(a) Byzantine (b) Gothic (c) EarlyChristian (d) Romanesque
24. Where did the Gothic Style originate?
A (a)England (b) Italy (c) Germany (d) France
I 25. Pisa Cathedral belongs to which architectural style?
C (a) Romanesque (b) Gothic (c) Byzantine (d) Renaissance
T 26. Construction of which dome marks the beginning of Renaissance in Architecture?
E (a) Dome of theRock (b) Dome ofFlorenceCathedral

(c) Dome of Sienna Cathedral (d) Dome of St.PetersBasilica
27. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Gothic style?

A
(a) HeavyMasonry (b) PointedArches (c) RibbedVaults (d) Flying Buttresses
I
28. Who is the architect of Palazzo Medici Recardi?
C
(a) Aandrea Palladio (b) Giuliano daSangallo
T (c) RaphaelSanzioda Urbino (d) MichelozzodiBartolomeo
Page 3 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
29. Who is the Architect of San Carlino, Rome Italy?

A
(a) GianLorenzo Bernini (b) FrancescoBorromini
I (c) GuarinoGuarini (d) Pietro da Cortona
C 30. The latter part of the Renaissance period developed into an oranate architectural style
called ------------
T
(a) Beaux Arts (b) Baroque (c) Art Nouveau (d) Art Deco
E
31. The most significant parameter that determines climate of a place is
(a) Distance from sea (b) Latitude

(c) Direction of winds (d) Ocean currents
A 32. The maximum seasonal contrast is observed in
I (a) Low Latitudes (b) High Latitudes

(c) Sub Tropics (d) Mid Latitudes
C
33. The lines on a weather map joining places of equal sunshine is known as
T
(a) Isohels (b) Isobars (c) Isotheres (d) Isotherms
E
34. The atmospheric layer in which most of the weather phenomenon takes place is
(a) Ionosphere (b) Mesosphere (c) Troposphere (d) Stratosphere
35. The fog along the sea coast is caused due to

A
(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Advection (d) Radiation
I
36. The inequality between duration of day and night become greater or more marked as one
C
travels from to …………
T
(a) East to West (b) Tropic of Cancer to Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Equator to Poles (d) West to East
E
37. Contours are the lines on map showing
(a) Places on Earth of equal rainfall (a) Places on Earth at the same altitude
A
(c) Places on Earth with similar temperature (d) None of these
I
38. The temperature at which air becomes saturated is known as
C
(a) Peak point (b) Frost point (c) Dew point (d) Kelvin point
T
39. The rate of decrease in temperature with increase in height is known as
E
Page 4 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) Lapse Rate (b) Decrement Rate (c) Reverse Repo Rate (d) Inverse Rate
A 40. Mean Radiant Temperature is measured by
I (a)Keta Thermometer (b) Globe Thermometer

(c) Pyranometer (d) Maximum-Minimum. Thermometer
C
41. Aeration of water is done to remove
T
(a) Colour (b) Odour (c) Turbidity (d) Bacteria
E
42. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to
(a) Calcium Bicarbonate (b) Magnesium Sulphate

c) Calcium Nitrate (d) Calcium Sulphate
A 43. For an area developed in haphazard manner the most appropriate water distribution
system is
I
(a) Dead End System (b) Grid Iron System
C (c) Radial System (d) Ring System
T 44. Which of the following method of sewage disposal is commonly used in cities?
E (a) Conservancy method (b) Dry method

(c) Water carriage method (d) Refuse chutes
45. Pick the false statement, Manholes are provided at
(a) At all changes of direction (b) At all Intersections of sewers

A (c) At all changes of gradient (d)At all open drains for storm water
I 46. For the sewers of diameter less than 600 mm, the type of joint preferred is
C (a) Spigot and socket joint (b) Collar joint

(c) Mechanical joint (d) Bandage joint
T
47. When making a layout of toilet, the distance between centre of water closet and wall is
E
(a) 300 mm (b) 450 mm (c) 600 mm (d) 750 mm
48. The recommended formula to calculate velocity of free flow of water in conduits under
A gravity is
I (a) Manning's formula (b) Hazen and William's formula

(c) Terzaghi's formula (d) Bernaullis formula
C
49. Acceptable limit of total dissolved solids in water supply should be
T
(a) 500 mg/litre (b) 1000 mg/litre (c) 1500 mg/litre (d) 200 mg/litre
E
Page 5 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
A
50. Yield from rapid gravity filter is more than slow sand filters by
I
(a) 10 times (b)20 times (c) 30 times (d) 40 times
C
51. In a circuit the effective greatest root-mean-square difference of potential between any
T two conductors refers to the
E (a) Current (b) Wattage (c) Resistance (d) Voltage
52. Ability of conductor without being overheated is called?
(a) Resistance (b) Capacity (c) Ampacity (d) Resilience
A 53. The Code of practice for Electrical Wiring Installations is:
I (a) IS 456:1968 (b) IS 12032 :1987 (c) IS 732: 1989 (d) IS 464: 2001
54. In power distribution, a group of electric conductors which originate at a main

C
distribution center and supply electricity to one or more secondary distributions, or to
one or more branch circuit, or to a combination of these are called?
T
(a) Earthwire (b) Raceway (c) Neutral (d) Feeder
E
55. Why is it necessary to plan and place the data connection cables and electrical cables
separated by a minimum distance and also perpendicular to each other?
(a) Data cables are expensive (b) To avoid visual chaos
(c) To optimize data transfer speed (d) To avoid fire accidents
A
56. This equipment uses a stream of compressed air directed downwards to form a shield to
I exclude drafts?
C (a) Air exhaust (b) Air sweeper (c) Air curtain (d) Air Handling Unit
T 57. The ratio of lumen actually received on working plane to lumen actually emitted from
light source is called?
E
(a) Maintenance factor (b) Depreciation factor
(c) Utilization factor (d) All of above
A 58. The unit of measuring luminous intensity of a light source is.

(a) Lux (b) Candela (c) Steradian (d) Lumen
I
59. A 100 candela light source radiates out a total flux of
C
(a) 0.1257 lumen (b) 1.257 lumen (c) 12.57 lumen (d) 1257 lumen
T
60. Direct lighting scheme for indoor illumination.
E
Page 6 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) Is ideal for drawing offices (b) Is best suited to room with high ceilings
A (c) Produces hard shadows (d) Is often used for composing rooms
61. Which of the following tree has columnar form?
I
(a) DelonixRegia (b)TamarindusIndica
C (c) Polyathialongifolia (d) Callistemon Lanceolatus
T 62. As per CPWD Guidelines and Space Standard for Barrier free environment, the
minimum turning radius for a wheel chair in mm is:
E
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 1800
63. The Scientific/botanical name of Gulmohar tree is:

(a) Lagerstroemia Speciosa (b) Cassia Fistula
(c) AzardichtaIndica (d) Delonixregia
A
64. The botanical name of Kachnar tree is:
I
(a) FicusBenghalensis (b) Bauhinia variegate
C (c) Cassia fistula (d) Delonixregia
T 65. The most appropriate tree for designing a smell sensory pathway is:
E (a) DelonixRegia (b) Baugainvillea

(c) CasiaFistulia (d) JasminumAngustifolium
66. Recommended temperature for HVAC systems inoffice buildings in India are:
(a) 21OC with maximum of 300C in summer and 25 0C in winter

A (b) 29 oc with maximum of 320C in summer and 360C in winter
(c) 300C with maximum of 360C in summer and 320C in winter
I (d) 21 oc with maximum of 240C in summer and 220C in winter
C 67. Ideal width to depth ratio of an air conditioning duct will be
T (a) 1:6 (b) 1:3 (c) 3:1 (d) 6:1
E 68. Which of the following are reasons to use mulch on the top soil of newly planted shrubs?
(a) Aid to water Retention (b) Prevent soil temperature fluctuation

(c) Discourage weed growth (d) All of the above
A
69. For large and close building, the fire hydrant should be located at a distance of
I
(a) 50m-80m (b) 90m-120m (c) 120m-150m (d) 150-180 m
C
70. Plants which can block sunlight/daylight during a particular season and allow it to pass
T through other season of the year are known as:
E (a) Deciduous (b) Evergreen Confiers

Page 7 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(c) Broad leaf evergreen (d) None of the above

A
71. Class A Fire involves:
I
(a) Electrical Equipment (b) Flammable Gases
C (c)Petroleum products (d) Combustible solids
72. Which if the Indian tree is evergreen
T
(a) Gulmohar (b) Kancnar (c) Amaltas (d) Mango
E
73. Balance, Symmetry and harmony alongwith water flow manipulated variously were
highlights of
(a) Zen Garden (b) English Garden (c) Mughal Garden (d) Spanish Garden
74. The garden Design based on Spiritual concepts are:

A
(a)Mughal Gardens (b) French Gardens (c) English Gardens (d) Japanese Gardens
I
75. The duct size of an Air-conditioning system is dependent on amount of air flow and its:
C (a) Velocity (b) Relative Humidity (c) Temperature (d) Latent Heat
T 76. Symbolic representation of water by sand is frequently found in
E (a) French Garden (b) Mughal Garden (c) English Garden (d) None of the above
77. Fire Rating of Doors in buildings shall be in:
(a) Watts/hours (b) Hours (c) Lux (d) Joules
78. Variable Air Volume system of HVAC has:

A
(a) Constant air temperature and constant air flow
I (b) Constant air temperature and variable air flow
(c) Variable air temperature and variable air flow
C (d) Variable air temperature and constant air flow
T 79. The energy Efficiency of central air-conditioning system is measured in terms of:
E (a) Energy Efficiency Ratio (b) British Thermal Unit

(c) Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio (d) Payback time
80. The number of elevators required in a building can be calculated by the number of
A persons requiring service during a peak of ………. Minutes period
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 15
I
C
T
81. The "Torana or Gateway" of Sanchi Stupa is adorned with stone carvings depicting
E
Page 8 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) Aesop stories (b) Jatak stories

A (c) Upnishadik stories (d) Geometrical patterns
82. With reference to Buddhist monuments of Amaravathi, which of the following is/are
I true?
(1) Amaravati Stupa was constructed in third century.
C (2) Amaravati has Mahachaitya
(3) Similar to sanchi stupa, Amaravathi Stupa has Pradakshinapatha enclosed within a
T vedika.
Select the correct answer from the following codes
E
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3
83. RekhaDeul and Pidadeul are parts of

(a) Bengal temples (b) Chalukyan temples (c) Orissan temples (d) Braj temples
A
84. Latina and Bhumija mode of roof construction was popular in
I (a) Rock cut temples (b) Nagara Temples (c) Haveli temples (d) None of the above
C 85. With reference to architecture at FatehpurSikri, which of the following is correct

statements?
T
(a) One can notice combination of both trabeate (of pillar and beam) and arcuate (using
E arches and domes) styles at FatehpurSikri
(b) FatehpurSikri presents only indigenous architecture of India.
(c) FatehpurSikri is laid out on strictly Persian lines of city planning
(d) There are several gardens in FatehpurSikari complex
86. How were the Romans able to create Structures with great spans?
A (a) Use of arches vaults (b) Use of Stonepiles together
(c) Stone corbel systems (d) Large column and stone beams
I
87. Parts of Entablature in sequence from top to bottom (i) Cornice (ii) Architrave (iii) frieze
C
(a) i, ii, iii (b) ii, i iii (c) iii, i ii (d) i, iii, ii
T
88. TheNorth South oriented avenue in Roman towns along which mostly the commercial
activities are located
E
(a) Procenium (b) Aisle (c) Cardo (d) Decumanus
89. Which of the option is in the correct chronological order for the following?
A
1. Dai el Bahari
I 2. Saqqara
3. Dahshur
C 4. Gizeh
T (a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 1, 3, 2 4 (c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 4, 2, 3 1
E 90. The angle of repose for Snefru's red pyramid was
Page 9 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) 31.600 (b) 41.60 (c)51.600 (d) 450

A
91. Which of the following is in the correct chronological order for the architectural styles?
I
(a) Byzantine BaroqueRomanesqueGothic Renaissance
(b) Byzantine Gothic RomanesqueRenaissance Baroque
C
(c) Byzantine RomanesqueGothic Renaissance Baroque
(d) Byzantine Romanesque Gothic Baroque Renaissance
T
92. Which of the following example of Byzantine Architecture features a quincunx - five
E
domes arranged in a cross?
(a) Hagia Irene, Constantinople,
(b) HagiaSophia,Constantinople
(c) St. Marks,Vienice
(d) HosiosLoukas,Distomo
A
93. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Romanesque style?
I
(a) Heavy StoneMasonry (b) SmallPunchedWindows
C (c) Geometric Blocking (d) PointedArches
T 94. Which regional variation in Gothic Style evolved in England?
E (a) High Gothic (b) PerpendicularGothic

(c) RayonnantGothic (d) FlamboyantGothic
95. Who codified the principles of geometrically accurate linear perspective, making
possible the exact representation of a 3-dimensional object on a 2-dimensional surface?
A (a) FilippoBrunelleschi (b) Leonardo daVinci

(c) Michelangelo (d) DonatoBramante
I
96. Which one of the following statement is not true
C
(a) Within the Arctic and Antarctic circles there is at least one day in the year without sun
T rise
(b) At the North Pole there is darkness during half of the year
E (c) At the summer solstice the sun rises vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn
(d) The sun shines vertically over the Equator twice in the year
97. In a cold winter night in hilly areas, it is observed that trees on the hill top are safe
A whereas those in the valley are frost bitten. It can be explained by phenomena of
I (a) Temperature conversion (b) Temperature inversion

(c) Temperature revulsion (d) None of these
C
98. Horizontal shadow angle is calculated for shading devices and Vertical
T shadow angle is calculated for shading devices
E (a) Vertical, Horizontal (b) Horizontal, Vertical
Page 10 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(c) Inclined, Oblique (d) Oblique, Inclined

A
99. The Effective Temperature Index does not include
I
(a) Air Temperature (b) Humidity (c) Air Velocity (d) Vapor Pressure
C 100. The body temperature always increases by ……… and it always decreases by ………
T (a) Conduction, Convection (b) Convection, Radiation
(c) Metabolism, Evaporation (d) Radiation, Conduction
E
101. Calculate the depth of a septic tank for a guest house with 20 occupants and daily water
consumption of 100 litre/person. The detention period of the septic tank is 3 days, length
and width of the tank is 3m and 1 m respectively, assume the top freeboard clearance as
300mm.
(a) 1m (b) 1.7m (c) 2m (d) 2.3m
A
102. The recommended gradient in a 300m diameter drainage pipe is to maintain a velocity of
I 0.75m/sec is
C (a) 1:100 (b) 1:150 (c) 1:200 (d) 1: 250
T 103. The velocity of water in the pipe is 1.8m/Sec. What is the diameter of pipe used?
(a) 10cm (b) 15cm (c) 25cm (d) 40cm
E
104. Total head at any point in a water supply conduit flowing full is equal to-
(a) Pressure energy+ Potential energy
(b) Pressure energy+ Potential energy+ Kinetic energy
(c) Potential energy+ Kinetic energy
A (d) Pressure energy+ Kinetic energy
I 105. An incandescent lamp having luminous intensity of 60cd in all direction gives an
illumination of 15 lux at the surface of the table vertically below it, then the distance of
C the lamp from the table is.
(a) 1.5 metres (b) 1.75 metres (c) 2.0 metres (d) 2.5 metres
T
106. Assuming that the hall measuring 15m x 21m and 3.0 m upto truss is to be illuminated to
E the level of 300 lux. Assume space height ratio, utilization factor, depreciation factor and
lamp efficiency as 1.0, 0.9, 0.8 and 20 lumen/W respectively, find out the wattage of
lamps?
A (a) 187.5 (b) 190 (c) 175 (d) 177.5
I 107. In an auditorium how much increase in total absorption area will result in reduction of
noise level by 6dB without altering other parameters?
C
(a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 300% (d) 400%
T 108. The resultant sound level of sources producing sound of 82dB, 100dB, 106dB, 102dB,
90dB, 52db,34dB & 72dB will be
E
Page 11 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) 106 dB (b)108 dB (c) 109 dB (d) 110 dB

A
109. Find out the number of lighting fixtures in a hall measuring 10m x 20m x 3m if the space
I height ratio is unity? Assume the mounting height of fixture as 2.0m above working
plane.
C
(a) 45 (b) 50 (c) 55 (d) 60
T
110. Major Characteristics of French Gardens are:
E (a) Symmetrical Layout, water Cascade, entombment
(b) Radial Layout, Symmetrical sculpture, boulevards
(c) Occult symmetry, pontoon Bridges, Stepping Stones
(d) Heriarcy of courts, hierarchy of gates, zoomorphic forms
111. Major Characteristics of Mughal Gardens are:

A
(a) Symmetrical Layout, water Cascade, entombment
I (b) Radial Layout, Symmetrical sculpture, boulevards
(c) Occult symmetry, pontoon Bridges, Stepping Stones
C (d) Lake, Rolling Lawns, Classical Temples, bridges and other Picturesque architecture
T 112. A site has 6 contour lines and the length of the line joining the midpoints of the highest
contour and lowest contour is 300 m. If the slope of line is 1 in 10, then the contour
E interval (in meters) is
(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 60 (d) 70
113. A site map shows five contour lines. A line drawn across the lowest and highest contour
measures 125m and has slope of 8%. Determine the contour interval
A
(a) 5m (b) 2.5m (c) 10m (d) 2m
I
114. Ecological footprint Corresponds to:
C
(a) The land area required to preserve as forest to ensure sufficient levels of oxygen for a
T community
(b) The land area necessary to supply natural resources to community and disposal of its
E waste
(c) The land area required to take care of solid wastes and sewage of a community
(d) The land area per person per year from which trees are cut.
A 115. The harmful components of fire effluent are the following:
I i) Asphyxiant gases: carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide (C02), hydrogen cyanide
(HCN), oxygen-depleted air;
C ii) Irritant gases: halogen acids (HCI, HBr, HF), partially oxidized organic molecules
(e.g. acrolein, formaldehyde), nitrogen oxides, other fuel-specific gases;
T iii) Aerosols and soot particles, particularly those of size that are readily reparable and
those that scatter light efficiently;
E iv) Heat (radioactive and convective) and elevated temperature.
Page 12 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2CAE13
(a) i (b) ii& iii (c)i& iv (d) all of the above

A
116. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
I i) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the outside
temperatures during winter are normally very low
C ii) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the peak
load normally occurs before sunrise
T iii) Steady state methods are justified in case of heating load calculations as the
outside temperature variation is normally low during winter months
E iv) Neglecting internal heat sources while calculating heating loads underestimates
the required capacity
(a) i& ii (b) ii only (c) ii& iii (d) iv only
117. Shalbhanjika sculptures in Sanchi Stupa represents

A
(a) Bodhisattva attendants (b) Lady holding branch of tree
I (c) Yaksha’s and Yakshini’s (d) None
C 118. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
T 1. An all year air conditioning system has to be switched from winter mode to summer
mode as the outdoor temperature exceeds the outdoor temperature at balance point
E 2. An all year air conditioning system has to be switched from summer mode to winter
mode as the outdoor temperature exceeds the outdoor temperature at balance point
3. outdoor temperature at balance point increases as the amount of insulation increases
4. outdoor temperature at balance point decreases as the amount of insulation increases
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3 (c) 3 & 4 (d) 1&4

A
119. What shall be dimension of a water storage tank having capacity of 6000 litres
I
(a) 2x2x1.5 m (b)2x2.5x1 m (c) 2x1.5x1 m (d) 2x1.5x1.5 m
C
120. The Term “Vista” in Architecture refers to
T
(a) A line of vision, contained by buildings of landscaping to a building or other features
E which terminates the view
(b) A large public space surrounded by imposing buildings
(c) Visual connection from one landmark to other
(d) Variation in the plane of a building wall, often used to provide visual interest
A
Page 13 of 13
UG CIVIL & ARCHITECTURAL ENGINEERING
Code 13-Paper 2
1 C 31 B 61 C 91 C
2 B 32 D 62 A 92 C
3 A 33 A 63 D 93 D
4 A 34 C 64 B 94 B
5 A 35 C 65 D 95 A
6 C 36 C 66 D 96 C
7 A 37 A 67 B 97 B
8 A 38 C 68 D 98 A
9 B 39 A 69 A 99 D
10 C 40 B 70 A 100 C
11 B 41 B 71 D 101 D
12 C 42 A 72 D 102 C
13 C 43 A 73 C 103 D
14 C 44 C 74 D 104 B
15 A 45 D 75 A 105 C
16 C 46 A 76 D 106 A
17 C 47 A, B 77 B 107 D
18 D 48 A 78 B 108 B
19 D 49 A 79 C 109 B
20 B 50 C 80 B 110 B
21 B 51 D 81 B 111 A
22 A 52 C 82 D 112 C
23 A 53 C 83 C 113 B
24 D 54 D 84 B 114 B
25 A 55 C 85 A 115 D
26 B 56 C 86 A 116 C
27 A 57 C 87 D 117 B
28 D 58 B 88 C 118 D
29 B 59 D 89 A 119 A
30 B 60 C 90 B 120 A
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
ELECTRICAL AND POWER ENGINEERING

A
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
E
questions.
wrong answer.
E
1. In an R-C series circuit excited by a voltage E, the change across capacitor at t=0+ is
(a) Zero
(b) CE
A (c) CE(1-e-t/RC)
(d) CE(1-et/RC)
I
C 2. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
(a) The real parts of all poles must be negative
T (b) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative
(c) The real parts of all poles and zeroes must be negative or zero
E (d) The real parts of all zeroes must be negative
3. A sinusoidal voltage has peak to peak value of 100 V. The rms value is
(a) 50 V
(b) 70.7 V
(c) 35.35 V
(d) 141.41 V
A
4. RMS value of i(t) = 10[1 + sin (-t)] is
I (a) 10
(b) 10/2
C
(c) 150
T (d) 102
E
Page 1 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
5. A circuit is replaced by its Thevenin’s equivalent to find current through a certain branch.
A
If VTH= 10 V and RTH= 20Ω, the current through the branch
I (a) will always be 0.5 A
(b) will always be less than 0.5 A
C (c) will always be equal to or less than 0.5 A
(d) may be 0.5 A or more or less
T
E 6. A constant k band pass filter has a pass band from 100 to 400 Hz. The resonant frequency
of series and shunt arms is
(a) 3000 Hz
(b) 2500 Hz
(c) 2000 Hz
(d) 1500 Hz
7. An RL admittance function can also be realized as

A (a) RC admittance function
(b) RC impedance function
I
(c) LC admittance function
C (d) LC impedance function
T 8. In active filters inductances are divided because they

(a) Are always associated with some resistance
E (b) Are bulky and unsuitable for miniaturization
(c) Are non-linear
(d) Saturate quickly
9. Three resistances of 15 Ω each are connected in delta. The resistance of equivalent star
will have a value of
(a) 15 Ω
A (b) 5 Ω
(c) 5/3 Ω
I (d) 45 Ω
C 10. In a reactance function
(a) All poles are simple
T (b) All poles and zeros are simple
E (c) All poles and zeros are simple and lie on jω axis
(d) All poles and zeros lie on negative real axis
11. Energy stored in a capacitor over a cycle, when excited by an AC source is

(a) The same that of DC source of equivalent magnitude
(b) Half of that due to a DC source of equivalent magnitude
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite
A
12. In hydro power plant, the graph between discharge and time is known as
I (a) Monograph
C (b) Load graph
(c) Discharge graph
T (d) Hydro graph
E
Page 2 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
13. A gas turbine basically works on

A
(a) Carnot cycle
I (b) Rankin cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
C (d) Dual cycle
T 14. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant is less than of a conventional fuel fired thermal
E plant because of
(a) Less injection of heat in the condenser
(b) Higher temperature conditions
(c) Higher pressure conditions
(d) Low temperature and pressure conditions
15. The energy radiated by sun on a bright sunny day is approximately ____
(a) 700 W/m2
A (b) 750 W/m2
(c) 1 kW/m2
I
(d) 2 kW/m2
C
16. The draught produced by chimney is __
T (a) Forced draught
(b) Induced draught
E (c) Balanced draught
(d) Natural draught
17. Air standard efficiency of a diesel depends upon

(a) Expansion ratio
(b) Compression ratio
(c) Fuel used
A (d) Number of running hours
I 18. Gas turbine is widely used in

(a) Locomotives
C (b) Automobiles
T (c) Aircrafts
(d) Pumping station
E
19. In a DC shunt generator working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the direction
of rotation. As a result of this, commutation will
(a) Improve but terminal voltage will fall
(b) Worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) Improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) Worsen and terminal voltage will rise
A
20. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding
I produces
(a) Damping torque
C (b) Eddy current torque
(c) Torques aiding the developed to torque
T (d) No torque
E
Page 3 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
21. If a 230 V dc series motor is connected to a 230 V ac supply,
I (a) The motor will vibrate violently
(b) The motor will run with less efficiency and more sparking
C (c) The motor will not run
(d) The fuse will be blown
T
E 22. The interpoles in dc machines have a tapering shape in order to
(a) Reduce the overall weight
(b) Reduce the saturation in the interpole
(c) Economise on the material requiredfor interpoles and their windings.
(d) Increase the acceleration of commutation
23. A synchronous motor is operating on no load at unity power factor. If the field current is
increased, the power factor will become
A (a) Leading and the current will decrease
(b) Lagging and the current will increase
I
(c) Lagging and the current will decrease
C (d) Leading and the current will increase
T 24. Full-load voltage regulation of a power transformer is zero, when power factor of the load
is near to
E (a) Unity and leading
(b) Zero and leading
(c) Zero and lagging
(d) Unity and lagging
25. Which one of the following defects is responsible for creeping in an induction type
energy meter?
A (a) Imperfect lag compensation
(b) Over friction compensation
I (c) Imperfect overload compensation
(d) Misalignment of brake magnet
C
26. The dummy coils in d.c. machines are useful to
T (a) Increase the efficiency
(b) Improve the commutation
E
(c) Reduce the cost of the machine
(d) Maintain mechanical balance of armature
27. The crawling in the induction motor is caused by

(a) Improper design of stator laminations
(b) Low voltage supply
(c) High loads
A (d) Harmonics developed in motor
I 28. Which one of the following types of motors is most suitable for a computer printer drive?
(a) Reluctance motor
C (b) Hysteresis motor
(c) Shaded pole motor
T
(d) Stepper motor
E
Page 4 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
29. A 6-pole lap wound DC machine armature has 720 conductors and it draws 50 A from
A
supply mains. What is the flux distribution produced by the armature reaction per pole?
I (a) Rectangular in wave shape with a peak of 500 AT
(b) Rectangular in wave shape with a peak of 100 AT
C (c) Triangular in wave shape with a peak of 500 AT
(d) Triangular in wave shape with a peak of 1000 AT
T
E 30. The stator and the rotor of a 3-phase, 4-pole wound-rotor induction motor are excited,
respectively, from a 50 Hz and a 30 Hz source of appropriate voltage. Neglecting all
losses, what is/are the possible no-load speed/speeds at which the motor would run?
(a) 1500 rpm and 900 rpm
(b) 2400 rpm and 600 rpm
(c) 2400 rpm only
(d) 600 rpm only
A 31. A starting torque of 80 Nm is developed in an induction motor by an auto-transformer

starter with a tapping of 30%. If the tapping of auto-transformer starter is 60%, then what
I
is the starting torque?
C (a) 40 Nm
(b) 160 Nm
T (c) 240 Nm
(d) 320 Nm
E
32. A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1 Hz and 80 Hz; zeroes at 5 Hz, 100 Hz and 200 Hz. The
approximate phase of the system response at 20 Hz is
(a) -90o
(b) 0o
(c) 90o
(d) -180o
A
33. The polar plot of the transfer function G(s)=10(s+1)/(s+10) for 0 < ω <∞ will be in the
I (a) First quadrant
(b) Second quadrant
C (c) Third quadrant
T (d) Fourth quadrant
E 34. The gain margin for the system with open loop transfer function G(s)H(s)=2(1+s)/s2, is
(a) ∞
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) -∞
35. Which of the following is the input to a controller?

A (a) Servo signal
(b) Desired variable value
I (c) Error signal
(d) Sensed signal
C
T
E
Page 5 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
36. Which of the following statements is not necessarily correct for open control system?
A
(a) Input command is the sole factor responsible for providing the control action
I (b) Presence of non-linearities causes malfunctioning
(c) Less expensive
C (d) Less stable than closed loop system
T 37. A good control system has all the following features except
E (a) Good stability
(b) Slow response
(c) Good accuracy
(d) Sufficient power handling capacity
38. An increase in gain, in most systems, leads to

(a) Larger damping ratio
(b) Constant damping ratio
A (c) Zero damping ratio
(d) Smaller damping ratio
I
C 39. As a result of introduction of negative feedback which of the following will not decrease?
(a) Overall gain
T (b) Distortion
(c) Instability
E (d) Bandwidth
40. Regenerative feedback implies feedback with

(a) Oscillations
(b) Step input
(c) Negative sign
(d) Positive sign
A
41. The output of a feedback control system must be a function of
I (a) Reference and output
(b) Reference and input
C (c) Input and feedback signal
T (d) Output and feedback signal
E 42. The transient response, with feedback system

(a) Rises slowly
(b) Rises quickly
(c) Decays slowly
(d) Decays quickly
43. In a stable control system backlash can cause which of the following
A (a) Underdamping
(b) Overdamping
I (c) Poor stability at reduced values of open loop gain
(d) Low-level oscillations
C
T
E
Page 6 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
44. A controller, essentially, is a

A
(a) Sensor
I (b) Clipper
(c) Comparator
C (d) Amplifier
T 45. In a system zero initial condition means that
E (a) The system is at rest and no energy is stored in any of its components
(b) The system is working with zero stored energy
(c) The system is working with zero reference signal
(d) Laplace transform is not possible
46. In the case of power measurement by two wattmeter method in a balanced 3-phase
system with a pure inductive load,
(a) Both wattmeters will indicate the same value but of opposite sign
A (b) Both the wattmeters will indicate zero
(c) Both the wattmeters will indicate the same value of the same sign
I
(d) One wattmeter will indicate zero and the other will indicate some non zero value.
C
47. The resistance of a shunt for a precision grade ammeter can be best measured by
T (a) De Sauty bridge
(b) Schering bridge
E (c) Maxwell bridge
(d) Kelvin double bridge
48. When reading is taken at half scale in the instrument, the error is
(a) Exactly equal to half of full-scale error
(b) Equal to full-scale error
(c) Less than full-scale error
A (d) More than full-scale error
I 49. An indicating instrument is more sensitive if its torque to weight ratio is

(a) Much larger than unity
C (b) Of the order of unity
T (c) Much less than unity
(d) Made deflection-dependent
E
50. Which one of the following has the highest accuracy?
(a) Standard resistance
(b) Standard inductance
(c) Standard capacitance
(d) Standard mutual inductance
A 51. The X-and Y-inputs of a CRO are respectively Vsinωt and –Vsinωt. The resulting
Lissajous pattern will be
I (a) A straight line
(b) A circle
C (c) An ellipse
(d) A figure of eight
T
E
Page 7 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
52. High frequency transformer cores are generally made of

A
(a) Cast iron
I (b) Mu-metal
(c) Ferrite
C (d) Graphite
T 53. Vibration galvanometers, tuneable amplifiers and head phones are used in
E (a) d.c. bridges
(b) a.c. bridges
(c) Both d.c. and a.c. bridges
(d) Kelvin double bridge
54. The capacitance and loss angle of a given capacitor specimen are best measured by
(a) Wheatstone bridge
(b) Maxwell bridge
A (c) Anderson bridge
(d) Schering bridge
I
C 55. The pressure coil of an induction type energy meter is
(a) Highly resistive
T (b) Highly inductive
(c) Purely resistive
E (d) Purely inductive
56. Which one of the following materials is used in the fabrication of swamping resistance of
a PMMC instrument?
(a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Manganin
A (d) Tungsten
I 57. What is clamp-on ammeter used for?

(a) Low a.c. current
C (b) High a.c. current
T (c) Low d.c. current
(d) High d.c. current
E
58. Which amplifier is used in an electronic multimeter?
(a) Power amplifier
(b) Buffer amplifier
(c) Differential amplifier
(d) Wideband amplifier
A 59. For an op-amp having differential gain Av and common-mode gain Ac the CMRR is
given by
I (a) Av+ Ac
(b) Av/Ac
C (c) Av/Ac+ 1
(d) Ac/Av
T
E
Page 8 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
60. The integrator circuit is designed with the help of operational amplifier having a step-
A
input, the output will be
I (a) A triangular wave with dc bias
(b) A sinusoidal wave
C (c) A rectangular wave
(d) A ramp
T
61. Hysteresis is most preferred in Schmitt- trigger circuit, because
E (a) Energy is to be stored/discharged in parasitic capacitances
(b) Devices in the circuit should be allowed time for saturation and desaturation
(c) Effects of temperature would be compensated
(d) It would prevent noise from causing false triggering
62. The minimum number of flip- flops required to design a mod- 75 counter is
(a) 5
A (b) 6
(c) 7
I (d) 8
C 63. The control terminal (pin5) of 555 timer IC is normally connected to ground through a
capacitor ( ~ 0.01μF). This is to
T (a) Protect the IC from inadvertent application of high voltage
E (b) Prevent false triggering by noise coupled onto the pin
(c) Convert the trigger input to sharp pulse by differentiation
(d) Suppress any negative triggering pulse
64. The forward characteristics of a diode has a slope of approximately 50mA/V at a desired
point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is
(a) 50 Ω
(b) 35 Ω
A (c) 20 Ω
(d) 10 Ω
I
65. A bistablemultivibrator is a
C (a) Free running oscillator
(b) Crystal oscillator
T (c) Saw tooth wave generator
(d) Triggered oscillator
E
66. A 8-bit DAC wired for unipolar operation has a full scale voltage range from 0 to 5.12 V.
What is the output voltage change per bit?
(a) 0.64 V
(b) 0.04 V
(c) 0.06 V
(d) 0.02 V
A
67. If a multivibrator is running at 952 Hz and R= R1= R2= 500 Ω, the value of C where C=
I C1= C2 is
(a) 1500 nF
C (b) 1700 nF
(c) 1850 nF
T
(d) 1910 nF
E
Page 9 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
68. In a clamping circuit, the peak- to peak voltage of the waveform being clamped is
A
(a) Affected by the clamping
I (b) Not affected by the clamping
(c) Determined by the clamping voltage value
C (d) Determined by the ratio of rms voltage of the waveform and the clamping voltage
T 69. The most suitable circuit for generating 1 kHz signal is
(a) Colpitts oscillator
E (b) Hartley oscillator
(c) Tuned collector oscillator
(d) Wien bridge oscillator
70. The overall bandwidth of two identical voltage amplifiers connected in cascade will
(a) Remain the same as that of a single stage
(b) Be worse than that of a single stage
A (c) Be better than that of a single stage
(d) Be better if stage gain is low and worse if stage gain is high
I
T 71. Taking the density of water to be 1000 kg/m3, how much power would be developed by a
E hydro electric generator unit, assume 100% efficiency, with 1 m head and 1m 3/s
discharge?
(a) 9.81 kW
(b) 2.90 kW
(c) 4.45 kW
(d) 19.60 kW
72. A 100 MW steam station uses coal of calorific value 6400 kcal/kg. thermal efficiency of
A the station is 30% and electrical efficiency is 92%. Calculate the coal consumption per
hour when the station is delivering its full rated output
I (a) 47.687 tonnes
(b) 48.687 tonnes
C
(c) 50.687 tonnes
T (d) 45.687 tonnes
E 73. A model of Francis turbine developed 4.1 H.P. at speed of 360.r.p.m. under a head of 1.8
m. Find the power of a prototype machine when working under head of 6m. The model is
1/5th of prototype.
(a) 700 HP
(b) 720 HP
(c) 620 HP
(d) 550 HP
A 74. A small generating plant of 100 kw capacity uses gas calorific value of 1000kcal/m 3. The
I overall efficiency of the plant is 20%, determine the volume of gas required per hour
when the plant is running at full load conditions.
C (a) 430 m3/hr
(b) 437 m3/hr
T (c) 440 m3/hr
E
Page 10 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
(d) 400 m3/hr

A
75. The maximum demand of a power plant is 40 MW. The capacity factor is 0.4 and
I utilization factor is 0.8. Find the load factor of the power plant.
(a) 2
C (b) 0.32
(c) 0.5
T (d) 1.6
E
76. The annual load duration curve of a small hydro plant shows 438x104kWh of energy
during the year. It is a peak load plant with 20% annual load factor. Plant capacity factor
is 15%, find reserve capacity of the plant.
(a) 0.5 MW
(b) 0.765 MW
(c) 0.833 MW
(d) 0.25 MW
A
77. A linear ac servomotor must have:
I
(a) High rotor resistance
C (b) High reactance
(c) A large air gap
T (d) Both high rotor resistance and reactance
E 78. The armature resistance of a permanent magnet dc motor is 0.8 Ω. At no load, the motor
draws 1.5 A from a supply voltage of 25 V and runs at 1500 rpm. The efficiency of the
motor while it is operating on load at 1500 rpm drawing a current of 3.5 A from the same
source will be
(a) 48.0 %
(b) 57.1 %
(c) 59.2 %
A (d) 88.8 %
I 79. The speed of a 4-pole induction motor is controlled by varying the supply frequency
while maintaining the ratio of supply voltage to supply frequency (v/f) constant. At rated
C frequency of 50 Hz and rated voltage of 400 V, its speed is 1440 rpm. Find the speed at
T 30 Hz, if the load torque is constant.
(a) 882 rpm
E (b) 864 rpm
(c) 840 rpm
(d) 828 rpm
80. A single-phase 50 kVA, 250 V/500 V two winding transformer has an efficiency of 95 %
at full load, unity power factor. If it is reconfigured as a 500 V/750 V autotransformer, its
efficiency at its new rated load at unity power factor will be
A (a) 95.752 %
(b) 97.851 %
I (c) 98.276 %
(d) 99.851 %
C
T
E
Page 11 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
81. A negative-feedback closed-loop system is supplied to an input of 5 V. The system has a
I forward gain of 1 and a feedback gain of 1. What is the output voltage?
(a) 1.0 V
C (b) 1.5 V
(c) 2.0 V
T (d) 2.5 V
E
82. The unit impulse response of a system is f(t)=e-t, t ≥ 0. For this system, the steady state
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) ∞
A 83. Assertion (A): Feedback control system offer more accurate control over open-loop
systems.
I
Reason (R): The feedback path establishes a link for input and output comparison and
C subsequent error correction
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
T (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
E (d) A is false but R is true
84. A lead compensator network includes a parallel combination of R and C in the feed
forward path. If the transfer function of the compensator is Gc(s)=(s+2)/(s+4), the value
of RC is
(a) Zero
(b) 0.1
A (c) 0.5
(d) 1
I
85. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
C frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?
T (a) -80 dB/decade
(b) -40 dB/decade
E (c) +40 dB/decade
(d) +80 dB/decade
86. A 3½ digit voltmeter having a resolution of 100 mV can be used to measure maximum
voltage of
(a) 100V
(b) 200V
A (c) 1000V
(d) 5000V
I
87. On a voltage scale, zero dBM in a 600-ohm system would refer to
C (a) 1.732 V
(b) 1.0 V
T (c) 0.7746 V
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
(d) 0.5 V
A
I 88. Two resistors R1=36 Ω and R2=75 Ω, each having tolerances of ±5% are connected in
series. The value of the resultant resistance will be
C (a) 111 ± 0 Ω
(b) 111 ± 2.778 Ω
T (c) 111 ± 5.55 Ω
E (d) 111 ± 7.23 Ω
89. In terms of LMTQ system of dimensional parameters, the dimension of ‘permittivity’ can
be expressed as
(a) L-3M-1T2Q2
(b) L-1M-1T2Q2
(c) L2MT-1Q-1
(d) L-2M-1T2Q2
A
90. What is the effect of inductance in the pressure coil on performance of a dynamometer
I
type wattmeter?
C (a) It reads low on lagging power factor and high on leading power factor
(b) It reads high on lagging power factor and low on leading power factor
T (c) Its reading is not affected at all
(d) It always reads low
E
91. Which one of the following methods decreases the error due to connections in a
dynamometer type Wattmeter?
(a) Using bifilar compensating winding in place of current coil
(b) Using non-inductive pressure coil circuit
(c) Using a capacitor across a part of high resistance of pressure coil circuit
(d) Using a swamping resistance
A
92. Which one of the following decides the time of response of an indicating instrument?
I (a) Deflecting system
(b) Controlling system
C (c) Damping system
T (d) Pivot and Jewel bearing
E 93. A Wien-bridge is used to measure the frequency of the input signal. However, the input
signal has 10% third harmonic distortion. Specifically, the signal is 2 sin 400 wt + 0.2 sin
1200 wt. With this input the balance will
(a) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to a frequency of 200Hz
(b) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 260Hz
(c) Lead to a null indication and setting will correspond to 400Hz
(d) Not lead to a null indication
A
94. Transformer and emitter follower can both be used for impedance matching at the output
I of an audio amplifier. The basic relationship between the input power Pinand output
power Pout in both the cases is
C (a) Pin< Pout for transformer and Pin = Poutfor emitter follower
(b) Pin> Poutfor both transformer and emitter follower
T (c) Pin = Pout for both transformer and emitter follower
E
Page 13 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
(d) Pin = Pout for transformer and Pin< Pout for emitter follower
A
I 95. The response of an initially relaxed linear constant parameter network to a unit impulse
applied at t=0 is 4e-2t. The response of this network to a unit step function will be:
C (a) 2 [1-e-2t ] u(t)
(b) 4 [ e-1-e-2t ] u(t)
T (c) sin 2t
E (d) (1-4e-4t ) u(t)
96. A network contains linear resistors and ideal voltage sources. If values of all the resistors
are doubled, then the voltage across each resistor is:
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) increases by four times
(d) not changed
A
97. The number of independent loops for a network with n nodes and b branches is:
I
(a) n-1
C (b) b-n
(c) b-n+1
T (d) Independent of the number of nodes
E 98. The necessary and sufficient condition for a rational function of s. T(s) to be driving point
impedance of an RC network is that all poles and zeros should be:
(a) Simple and lie on negative axis in the s-plane
(b) Complex and lie in the left half of the s-plane
(c) Complex and lie in the right half of the s-plane
(d) Simple and lie on the positive real axis of the s-plane
A 99. Two two-port networks are connected in cascade. The combination is to be represented as
a single two-port network. The parameters of the network are obtained by multiplying the
I individual
(a) Z-parameter matrix
C (b) h-parameter matrix
T (c) y-parameter matrix
(d) ABCD parameter matrix
E
100. H(s)=V(s)/I(s)=(s+4)/(s+3)2 and i(t) is a unit step, then V(t) in the steady state is given by
(a) 4/9
(b) 4/3
(c) 0
(d) ∞
A PART –C
I
C
T
E
Page 14 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
I 102. Which one is not true?
C (a) An orthogonal matrix is always non-singular

T (c) 𝐴 is orthogonal matrix then 𝐴−1 need not be orthogonal
E (d) Determinant of an orthogonal matrix is ±1
is equal to
1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
A 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is
I (a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
C
𝑥 𝑦
T 105. The function u = sin−1 + tan−1 is a homogeneous function of degree
𝑦 𝑥
E (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0


A
𝑙
I 𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
C 𝑘 𝑙−𝑥 ; ≤𝑥≤𝑙
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
T (a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
E 𝑑2𝑦
3
𝑑𝑦 4
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

I (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
T
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
E
Page 15 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
I
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
C (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
T (c) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + cosec 𝑢 = 0 (d) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 2 cot 𝑢 = 0
E ∞ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥
2 𝑥2

𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
A 𝑑𝑥
I (a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
C
T 114. The singular solution of the differential equation 𝑦 = − , 𝑥 > 0 is
E 𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6

1
A
C
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
T
of n is
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
A 1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
C
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
T (c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
E
Page 16 of 17
ROLL NO.: UG1EPE19
A
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
I 120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
C
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
T
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 17
UG ELECTRICAL & POWER ENGINEERING
Code 19-Paper 1
1 A 31 D 61 B 91 C
2 C 32 A 62 C 92 C
3 C 33 A 63 B 93 D
4 Marks to all 34 B 64 C 94 C
5 B, C 35 C 65 D 95 A
6 C 36 D 66 D 96 D
7 B 37 B 67 D 97 C
8 B 38 B 68 D 98 A
9 B 39 D 69 D 99 D
10 C 40 D 70 A 100 A
11 C 41 A 71 A 101 A
12 D 42 D 72 B 102 C
13 C 43 D 73 C 103 A
14 D 44 D 74 Marks to all 104 D
15 C 45 A 75 C 105 D
16 D 46 A 76 C 106 A
17 B 47 D 77 A 107 A
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 B
19 A 49 B 79 C 109 D
20 D 50 A 80 C 110 B
21 B 51 A 81 D 111 D
22 B 52 C 82 C 112 B
23 D 53 B 83 A 113 B
24 A 54 D 84 C 114 B
25 B 55 B 85 A 115 B
26 D 56 C 86 A 116 C
27 D 57 B 87 C 117 B
28 D 58 Marks to all 88 C 118 C
29 C 59 D 89 A 119 B
30 B 60 A 90 B 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A ELECTRICAL AND POWER ENGINEERING

C PAPER-II
T Instructions:
E ii. Part-A contains 80 questions, Q1 to Q80 of 1 (one) mark each.
wrong answer.
C
T
E
1. If a self-excited dc generator is failed to run, this refers to

(a) Zero residual voltage
(b) Field MMF, that is not cumulative
(c) Resistance is greater than critical resistance
(d) Speed is equal to rated speed
A 2. Consider a dc generator running at the rated speed of 2000 rpm, suddenly there is an
I insulator falls on the field circuit and breaks it. Then
(a) The motor stops in a few rounds
C (b) It continues to run, but as dc motor
T (c) It continues to run as a motor
E
3. Which excitation system employs amplidyne (metadyne)
(a) Brushless excitation system
(b) Static excitation system
(c) DC excitation system
(d) Rotating thyristor excitation system
4. Which sequence is followed first while closing a circuit breaker?

A (a) Close the isolator
(b) Open earthing switch
I (c) Close circuit breaker
C (d) Any of these
T
E
Page 1 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 5. Which material is used for indoor bus bar?

(a) Copper
I
(b) Aluminium
C (c) Silver
(d) Galvanized steel
T
E 6. What is the range of MHV substations?
(a) All voltages above 1000 V AC
(b) Voltages between 1 kV and 33 kV
(c) Between 33 kV and 110 kV
(d) Between 220 kV and 400 kV
7. Phase advancers are used for which among the following machines?
(a) Transformers
(b) Synchronous machines
A
(c) Induction motors
I (d) DC machines
C 8. The load sharing between two steam driven alternators operating in parallel may be
T adjusted by varying the
(a) Power factor
E (b) Speed of the alternator
(c) Steam supply to the prime mover
(d) None of these
9. Which part of DC motor can sustain maximum temperature rise?

(a) Armature winding
(b) Field winding
(c) Slip ring
A (d) Commutator
I 10. In DC machine the fractional pitch winding is used
C (a) To reduce the harmonics in generated EMF
(b) To improve cooling
T (c) To increase EMF
E (d) To reduce copper loss
11. What will happen when the field of a DC shunt motor get opened while the motor is
running
(a) Continue to run at same speed
(b) Speed of motor will be reduced
(c) Armature current will be reduced
(d) Motor will attain dangerous high speed
A 12. Which dc motor is used for conveyor?
I (a) Series motor
(b) Cumulative compound motor
C (c) Differentially compound motor
T (d) Shunt motor
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 13. Overspeed protection of generator is done by

(a) Differential relay
I
(b) Over current relay
C (c) Alarm
(d) Governor
T
E 14. An alternator is said to be over excited when it is operating at
(a) Leading power factor
(b) Lagging power factor
(c) Unity power factor
(d) None of these
15. The shaft of an induction motor must be of

(a) Solid
(b) Hollow
A
(c) Flexible
I (d) Laminated
C 16. In a transformer hysteresis and eddy current losses depend upon
T (a) Load current
(b) Supply frequency
E (c) Maximum flux density
(d) Supply frequency and maximum flux density
17. Role of power system stabilizer in excitation system is to

(a) Provide dc power to the synchronous machine field winding
(b) Processes and amplifies input current signal
(c) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to damp power system oscillation
(d) Provide an additional input signal to regulator to boost system frequency
A
18. Which of the following distance relay is having inherent directional property
I (a) Impedance relay
C (b) Mho relay
(c) Reactance relay
T (d) None
E
19. Resistance switching is normally employed in
(a) Bulk oil breakers
(b) Minimum oil breakers
(c) SF6 circuit breakers
(d) Air blast circuit breakers
20. The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is

(a) In the phase with arc current
A (b) Lagging the arc current by 90°
I (c) Leading the arc current by 90°
(d) Lagging the arc current by 45°
C
T
E
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A 21. Which of the following distance relay is preferred for grounding fault?
(a) Differential relay
I
(b) Impedance relay
C (c) IDMT relay
(d) Reactance relay
T
E 22. The relay used for feeder protection is
(a) Translay relay
(b) Under voltage relay
(c) Thermal relay
(d) Buchholz relay
23. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure for the induction type relay is
(a) Shaded pole structure
(b) Watt hour meter structure
A
(c) Induction cup structure
I (d) Single induction loop structure
C 24. For which among the following the current ratings are not required?
T (a) Circuit breakers
(b) Relays
E (c) Isolators
(d) Load break switch
25. A negative sequence relay is commonly used to protect

(a) Transformers
(b) Transmission lines
(c) Alternators
(d) Bus bar
A
26. Thermal relays are employed for the protection of motors against over currents due to
I (a) Earth faults
C (b) Short circuits
(c) Heavy loading
T (d) All of above
E
27. The ratio of reset to pick up current for an induction cup relay is approx:
(a) 0.99
(b) 1.01
(c) 0.75
28. The magnetising-inrush-current in a transformer is rich in:

(a) 7th harmonics
A (b) 2nd harmonics
I (c) 5th harmonics
(d) 3rd harmonics
C
T 29. In a system of 132kV, the line to ground capacitance is 0.01µF and the inductance is
5H. If a magnetising current of 5 amps (instantaneous value) is interrupted, the voltage
E
Page 4 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A that appears across the pole of a C.B is nearly?

(a) 132kV
I
(b) 112kV
C (c) 140 kV
(d) 200kV
T
E 30. The rotation of disc of an induction disc relay under the poles is:
(a) It depends upon the magnitude of current
(b) It depends upon the C.T. secondary connection
(c) From shaded pole to unshaded pole
(d) From unshaded pole to shaded pole
31. If the fault current is 3000 amps, the relay setting 50% and the C.T. ratio is 400/5, then
the plug setting multiplier will be:
(a) 25 amps
A
(b) 15 amps
I (c) 50 amps
(d) 30 amps
C
T 32. The frequency of the carrier in the case of carrier current-pilot scheme is in the range of
(a) 1 kHz to 10 kHz
E (b) 15 kHz to 25 kHz
(c) 25 kHz to 50 kHz
(d) 50 kHz to 500 kHz
33. In a HRC fuse the time between the cut off and the final current zero is called?
(a) Pre- arcing time
(b) Arcing time
(c) Total operating time
A (d) Dead time
I 34. Bimetallic thermometer measure temperature in the range of ……C.
C (a) 0 to 400
(b) -40 to 1000
T (c) 700 to 1500
E (d) 45 to 500
35. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Infinite
36. Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of an instrument?

A (a) High drift
I (b) High measuring lag
(c) High fidelity
C (d) Poor reproducibility
T 37. Zirconia probe is used for the continuous measurement of ……flue gases going out of
the furnace.
E
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A (a) Oxygen in
(b) Carbon dioxide in
I
(c) Carbon monoxide in
C (d) Temperature of
T 38. Working principle of mercury in glass thermometer is ……
E (a) Volumetric expansion
(b) Pressure rise with temperature
(c) Linear expansion
(d) Temperature rise with pressure
39. Gamma rays is used for the measurement of

(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Liquid level
A
(d) Flow
I
40. Which of the following is not a differential pressure flow meter?
C (a) Rota meter
T (b) Flow nuzzle
(c) Venturi meter
E (d) Orifice meter
41. Which of the following is not a variable area flow meter?

(a) Rota meter
(b) Piston type meter
(c) Magnetic flow meter
(d) Venturi meter
A 42. Configuration of bourdon spring tube is never made of …… shape?

(a) Circular
I (b) Semi- circular
C (c) Helical
(d) Spiral
T
E 43. Pilot tube is used ……….
(a) For highly accurate flow measurement
(b) When the fluid contains lot of suspended materials
(c) When the line is large and the velocity is high
(d) When the line is small and velocity is low
44. Pneumatic control valves are generally designed for pressure up to ……….kgf/cm2
(a) 10
(b) 100
A (c) 160
I (d) 400
C
T 45. Continuous measurement of specific gravity of a liquid is done by ……
(a) Hydrometer
E
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A (b) Contact-type electric indicators

(c) Displacement reactions
I
(d) Hydrometer and displacement reaction
C
46. Which of the following is not a mechanical pressure sensing element?
T (a) Bellows
E (b) Diaphragm
(c) Bourdon tube
(d) U-tube
47. The principle of hall effect is made use of in the construction of which one of the
following?
(a) Ammeter
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Gauss meter
A
(d) Galvanometer
I
48. How is the voltage and frequency controlled in automatic generation control?
C (a) By controlling the excitation
T (b) By controlling the turbine action
(c) Excitation control for voltage and turbine speed control for frequency
E (d) Turbine speed control for voltage and excitation control for frequency
49. Unit up- time in unit commitment problem is

(a) A unit minimum operating time
(b) A unit minimum repair time
(c) A unit total life time
(d) A unit minimum designing time
A 50. In India, under which tariff regime the electricity sector is operating?
(a) Cost Plus
I (b) Market Determined
C (c) Fixed Regime
(d) Variable Regime
T
E 51. Renewable energy target in India for 2022.
(a) 170 GW
(b) 175 GW
(c) 150 GW
(d) 125 GW
52. Power frequency control is slow due to
(a) Turbine and generator moment of inertia
(b) Turbine and generator torque
A (c) Turbine and generator force
(d) Turbine and generator speed
I
C
T 53. Head office of ERLDC is located at
(a) Mumbai
E
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A (b) Kolkata
(c) Bangalore
I
(d) Shillong
C
54. Elements (atom) of SCADA systems
T (a) Graphical displays
(b) Tags
E (c) Alarm
(d) Trends
55. Optimal system operation involved
(a) Economy of operation
(b) System security
(c) Emissions at certain fossil- fuels
A 56. In India, which organisation performs the role of Independent System Operator (ISO)
I (a) CEA
(b) PGCIL
C (c) POSOCO
T (d) CERC
E 57. In restricted power system which entity is still operating in regulated mode
(a) GENCO
(b) TRANSCO
(c) RETAILCO
(d) Consumer
58. The conduction loss versus device current characteristic of a power MOSFET is best
approximated by
(a) Parabola
A (b) Straight line
I (c) Rectangular Hyperbola
(d) Exponentially decaying function
C
T 59. A single- phase full bridge inverter can operate in load commutation mode in the case
load consists of
E (a) RL
(b) RLC under damped
(c) RLC over damped
(d) RLC critically damped
60. In single pulse- width modulation of PWM inverters, fifth harmonic can be eliminated
if pulse width is equal to
(a) 30°
A (b) 72°
(c) 36°
I (d) 108°
C
T 61. The cycloconverters (CC’s) require natural or forced commutation as under
(a) Natural commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s
E
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A (b) Forced commutation in both step- up and step- down CC’s

(c) Forced commutation in step- up CC’s
I
(d) Forced commutation in step- down CC’s
C
62. McMurray commutation is superior to parallel capacitor commutation in respect of
T (a) Number of components
E (b) Overvoltage’s spike at the output
(c) Instantaneous reduction in SCR current
(d) Trigger current
63. Regarding Ward- Leonard system of speed control, which statement is false?
(a) It is usually used where wide and very sensitive speed control is required
(b) It is used for motors having ratings from 750kW to 4000kW
(c) Capital outlay involved in the system is right since it uses two extra machines
(d) It gives a speed range of 10:1 but in one direction only
A
I 64. The six- stepped load phase voltage of a 3- phase square wave inverter, with a dc link
voltage of 100 volts, will have the following rms magnitudes of 1st , 3rd and 5th
C harmonic voltages
T (a) 10 V, 30 V and 50 V respectively
(b) 100 V, 33.3 V and 20 V respectively
E (c) 90 V, 30 V and 0 V respectively
(d) 45 V, 0 V and 9 V respectively
65. A fly-back converter has primary to secondary turns ratio of 15:1. The input voltage is
constant at 200 volts and the output voltage is maintained at 18 volts. What should be
the snubber capacitor voltage under steady state?
(a) More than 270 volts
(b) More than 200 volts but less than 270 volts
A (c) Less than 18 volts
(d) Not related to input or output voltage
I
66. Circuit turn off time of an SCR is defined as the time
C (a) Taken by the SCR turn off
T (b) For which the SCR is reverse biased by the commutation circuit
(c) For which the SCR is reverse biased to reduce its current below the holding
E current
(d) Required for the SCR current to become zero.
67. The typical ratio of latching current to holding current in a 20 A Thyristor is
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
A 68. The output voltage waveform of a three-phase square wave inverter contains
I (a) Only even harmonics
(b) Both even and odd harmonics
C (c) Only odd harmonics
(d) Only triple harmonics
T
69. A fully controlled converter bridge feeds a highly inductive load with ripple free load
E
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A current. The input supply to the bridge is a sinusoidal source. Triggering angle of the
bridge converter is α=30°. The input power factor of the bridge is
I
(a) 0.86
C (b) 0.78
(c) 0.92
T (d) 0.90
E 70. A three-phase fully controlled thyristor bridge converter is used as line commutated
inverter to feed 50 kW power 420 V dc to a three-phase 415 V (line), 50 Hz ac mains.
Consider dc link current to be constant. The rms current of the thyristor is
(a) 119.05 A
(b) 79.37 A
(c) 68.73 A
(d) 39.68 A
71. SCR is considered to be a semi-controlled device because
A
(a) It can be turned OFF but not ON with a gate pulse
I (b) It conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave
(c) It can be turned ON but not OFF with a gate pulse
C (d) It can be turned ON only during one half cycle of an alternating voltage wave
T 72. A half controlled single-phase bridge rectifier is supplying an RL load. It is operated at
E a firing angle α and the load current is continuous. The fraction of cycle that the free-
wheeling diode conduct is
(a) ½
(b) 1-(α/π)
(c) α/2π
(d) α/π
73. Snubber circuit is used to limit the
(a) Rise of current
A (b) Conduction period
(c) Rise of voltage across device
I (d) Commutation period
C 74. The dimension of outer conductor are b and c and that of inner conductor is a, the ratio
T of inner and outer current densities is
(a) (c2-b2)/a2
E (b) a2/(c2-b2)
(c) (c-b)/a
(d) (cb)/a2
75. The following statement is correct for uniform plane waves:

(a) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is higher in all real media than they are
in free space
(b) The wavelength λ is longer and velocity v is lower in all real media than they are
A in free space
(c) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is higher in all real media than they
I are in free space
(d) The wavelength λ is shorter and velocity v is lower in all real media than they are
C
in free space
T
76. A lossless dielectric slab has εR=9. Its intrinsic impedance is
E
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A (a) 360πΩ
(b) 120πΩ
I
(c) 40πΩ
C (d) 30πΩ
T 77. The electric flux density, D=5r3arC/m2, with in sphere of radius r ≤ 4 m. the volume
charge density at r = 2 m is
E
(a) 200 C/m3
(b) 100 C/m3
(c) 50 C/m3
(d) 25 C/m3
78. If D=10 y2 ax + 10 x2 y ay + 15 az, the total charge enclosed within the region 0<x,y,z<1
m is
(a) 40/3 C
A (b) 20/3 C
(c) 10/3 C
I
(d) 5/3 C
C
79. A perfect dielectric medium has a uniform plane wave. Which of the following
T statements for the wave are correct?
E
(a) The electric and magnetic fields are in the same direction
(b) The electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to each other
(c) The electric and magnetic fields are opposite to each other
(d) The electric and magnetic fields do not occur in the medium
80. The magnetic flux density in the air gap between two iron surfaces is B g. The force
between the iron surfaces at this flux density is F. if the flux density is reduced to (3/4)
Bg, the decrease in the force would be
A (a) (3/4) F
(b) (7/16) F
I (c) (1/4) F
C (d) (9/16) F
T PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

E 81. Supply to one terminal of star-delta connected three phase core type transformer which
is no load, fails. Assuming magnetic circuit symmetry, voltage on secondary side will
be
(a) 230, 230, 115
(b) 230, 115, 115
(c) 345, 115, 115
(d) 345, 0, 345
A 82. The winding of a Q kVA, V1/V2 volts and three phase delta connected core type
transformer are connected to work as single-phase transformer. The maximum voltage
I of power rating of new configuration are
(a) V1/V2, 3Q
C
(b) V1/V2, Q/3
T (c) √3 V1/V2 , 2Q
(d) 2 V1/V2, 2Q/3
E
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A 83. A 50 Hz 220/400, 50 kVA, single-phase transformer operates on 220 V, 40 Hz supply

with secondary winding. Then
I
(a) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer decreases
C (b) The eddy current loss and hysteresis loss of the transformer increases
(c) Hysteresis loss of the transformer increases while eddy current loss remains
T same.
E (d) The eddy current loss decreases while hysteresis loss remains same.
84. A 50 MVA turbo-alternator has a total loss of 1500 kW. Calculate the volume of air
required per second if the temperature rise in the machine is to be limited at 30°C.
Assume inlet temperature of air = 25°C and barometric height = 760 mm of mercury.
(a) 4.25 m3/s
(b) 5.46 m3/s
(c) 42.6 m3/s
(d) 54.6 m3/s
A
I 85. A 120 MW turbo-alternator is supplying power to 80 MW load at lagging p.f. Suddenly
the steam supply to the turbine is cut off and the alternator remains connected to the
C supply network if field supply also remains on, what will happen to the alternator?
T (a) The stator winding of the alternator will get burnt
(b) The rotor winding of the alternator will get burnt
E (c) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the same
direction
(d) The alternator will continue to run as a synchronous motor rotating in the
opposite direction
86. A system is said to be effectively grounded if its

(a) 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1, X0/X1> 3
(b) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, R0/X1> 1
A (c) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 3, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 1
(d) 0 ≤ X0/X1 ≤ 1, 0 ≤ R0/X1 ≤ 3
I
C 87. In a short circuit test on a 132 kV, 3-phase system, the breaker gave the following
results: p.f. of the fault 0.4, recovery voltage 0.95 of full line value; the breaking
T current is symmetrical and the restriking transient had a natural frequency of 16 kHz.
E Its active recovery voltage is?
(a) 89.55 kV
(b) 93.85 kV
(c) 68.73 kV
(d) 115.64 kV
88. A 3-phase 11/66 kV, delta/star transformer, protected by Merz-price scheme has CT
ratio of 400/5 on L.T. side. Ratio of CT on H.T. side will be equal to
(a) 1:23
A
(b) 23:1
I (c) 23:√3
(d) 3:√23
C
T
E
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A 89. According to Indian Standard specifications, for a relay in radial system to operate, its
operating value should be
I
(a) ≤ 1.2 Isetting
C (b) ≥ 1.3 Isetting
(c) ≥ 1.5 Isetting
T (d) ≥ 1.73 Isetting
E
90. A fuse wire of circular cross-section has a radius of 0.8 mm. The wire blows off at a
current of 8 A. What is the radius of the wire that will blow off at a current of 1 A.
(a) 1.6 mm
(b) 0.4 mm
(c) 0.2 mm
(d) 0.1 mm
91. In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as the ratio of

A
(a) Operating coil current and restraining coil current
I (b) Fault current and operating current
(c) Number of turns of restraining and operating coil
C (d) Fault current and restraining coil current
T
92. A generator connected through a 3-cycle circuit breaker to a transformer is rated 10
E MVA, 13.8kV with reactance of Xd”=10%, Xd’=15% and Xd=100%. It is operating at
no load and rated voltage when a 3-phase scort circuit occurs between the breaker and
the transformer. The maximum possible d.c. component of the short circuit current in
the breaker is?
(a) 4180 A
(b) 6280 A
(c) 3500 A
(d) 5910 A
A
93. A 50 Hz overhead line has line to earth capacitance of 10µF. It is decided to use an
I earth fault neutralizer. What is the reactance to neutralise the capacitance of 80% of the
C length of the line.
(a) 132.6 Ω
T (b) 152.6 Ω
E (c) 172.8 Ω
(d) 220 Ω
94. A liquid is undergone a change of pressure from 6.87 MPa to 13.73 MPa to make the
volumetric change of 0.0113 m3 to 0.0111 m3. What is the bulk modulus of elasticity of
the liquid?
(a) 287.59 MPa

(b) 387.59 MPa
A (c) 380.73 MPa
I (d) 280.73 MPa
C
T 95. A thermocouple has a linear sensitivity of 30µV/°C, calibrated at a cold junction
E
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A temperature of 0°C. It is used to measure an unknown temperature with the cold

junction temperature of 30°C. Find the actual hot junction temperature if the emf
I
generated is 3 mV.
C (a) 120°C
(b) 150°C
T (c) 130°C
E (d) 160°C
96. A bimetallic thermometer is made up of strips of a nickel-chromium alloy and Invar
bounded together at 25°C. each strip has the thickness of 1 mm and length of 50 mm.
Calculate the radius of the curvature produced when the strips are unstrained and are
subjected to a temperature of 200°C. For nickel-chrome alloy and Invar, the moduli of
elasticity and co-efficient of expansion are 216 GN/m2, 147 GN/m2, 12.5x10-6 /°C,
1.7x10-6 /°C
(a) 711 mm
A (b) 721 mm
(c) 821 mm
I
(d) 811 mm
C
97. The successive approximation A/D output for a 4 bit converter to a 8.217 Volt input (if
T the reference is 5 V) will be:
(a) 1101
E
(b) 0110
(c) 1010
(d) 1001
98. A digital displacement indicator based on a linear voltage differential transformer

(LVDT) transducer and A/D conversion used a LVDT with a sensitivity of 1 mV/mm.
If the smallest displacement to be measured is 0.1 mm and the maximum displacement
of the LVDT core is 10 cm, then the digital display required for the instrument has to
A be
I (a) 2 digit type
(b) 2½ digit type
C (c) 3 digit type
(d) 3½ digit type
T
E 99. A resistance wire strain gauge with gauge factor of 2 is bounded to a steel structural
member subjected to a tensile stress of 100 mega N/m2. The modulus of elasticity of
steel is 200 Giga N/m2. The percentage change in gauge resistance due to the applied
stress is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5
A
100. The strain gauge with a resistance of 250 Ω undergoes a change of 0.150 Ω during a
I test. The strain is 1.5x10-4. Then the gauge factor is
(a) 2.0
C
(b) 3.0
T (c) 4.0
(d) 100
E
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A
101. The fuel cost of two power plants:
I
Plant P1: C1=0.05Pg12+A Pg1 +B
C Plant P2: C2=0.10Pg22+3A Pg2 +2B
Where Pg1 and Pg2 are the generated power of two plants, and A and B are constants. If
T the two plants optimally share 1000 MW load at an international fuel cost of 100
E Rs/MWh, the ratio of load shared by plant P1 and P2 is
(a) 1:4
(b) 2:3
(c) 3:2
(d) 4:1
102. A shunt reactor at 100 MVAr is operated at 98% of its rated voltage and at 96% of its
rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is
(a) 98 MVAr
A
(b) 104.02 MVAr
I (c) 96.04 MVAr
(d) 100.04 MVAr
C
T 103. Three generators rated at 300 MW, 500 MW and 600 MW have speed droop
characteristics of 5%, 4% and 3% respectively. The generators are operating in parallel
E at 60 Hz frequency. Now, the system frequency increases by 0.3Hz due to change in
load. What is the change in the system load in MW?
(a) -192.5 MW
(b) +192.5 MW
(c) -200.5 MW
(d) +200.5 MW
104. By increasing the transmission voltage to double of its original value, the same power
A can be dispatched keeping the line loss
(a) Equal to original value
I (b) Half the original value
C (c) Double the original value
(d) One-fourth of original value
T
E 105. For the synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus through a transmission line,
how are the change of voltage (∆V) and change of frequency (∆f) related to the active
power (P) and the reactive power (Q)?
(a) ∆V is proportional to P and ∆f to Q
(b) ∆V is proportional to Q and ∆f to P
(c) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to P
(d) Both ∆V and ∆f are proportional to Q
106. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turbo-alternator rated at 100 MVA, 11 kV has an inertia constant of 8.0
A MJ/MVA. Neglect mechanical and electrical losses. If the mechanical input is suddenly
I raised to 80 MW for an electrical load of 50 MW. What is the value of rotor
acceleration in elect-deg/sec2?
C (a) 112.5
T (b) 1350
(c) 337.5
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2EPE19
A (d) 2.66
107. A 500 kW plant costs $1000 per kW installed. Fixed charges are estimated at 14% and
I
operating cost is 13 cents per kWh. The plant averages 200 kW for 5000 hrs of the
C year, 450 kW for 1200 hrs and 80 kW for the remaining period. The average cost of
production of electricity per kWh will be close to
T (a) 5 cent
E (b) 12 cent
(c) 17 cent
(d) 37 cent
108. The separately excited dc motor in the figure below has a rated armature current of 20
A and a rated armature voltage of 150 V. An ideal chopper switching at 5 kHz is used
to control the armature voltage. If La = 0.1 mH, Ra = 1 Ω, neglecting armature reaction,
the duty ratio of the chopper to obtain 50% of the rated torque at the rated speed and the
rated field current is
A
I
C La,Ra
T
E (a) 0.7
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.4
109. A three-phase, 440 V, 50 Hz ac mains fed thyristor bridge is feeding a 40 V DC, 15

kW, 1500 rpm separately excited dc motor with a ripple free continuous current in the
DC link under all operating conditions. Neglecting the losses the power factor of the ac
A mains at half the rated speed is
(a) 0.354
I (b) 0.372
(c) 0.955
C
(d) 0.905
T
110. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter with freewheeling diode is fed from 400 V,
E 50 Hz AC source and is operating at a firing angle of 60°. The load current is assumed
constant at 10 A due to high load inductance. The input displacement factor (IDF) and
the input power factor (IPF) of the converter will be
(a) 0.5 & 0.318
(b) 0.5 & 0.478
(c) 0.867 & 0.552
(d) 0.867 & 0.828
A 111. A six-pulse thyristor rectifier bridge is connected to a balanced 50 Hz 3-phase AC

source. Assuming that the DC output current of the rectifier is constant, the lowest
I
frequency harmonic component in the ac source line current is
C (a) 100 Hz
(b) 150 Hz
T (c) 250 Hz
E
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A (d) 300 Hz
112. A 3-phase fully controlled bridge converter is feeding a load drawing a constant and
I
ripple free load current of 10 A at a firing angle of 30°. The approximate total harmonic
C distortion (%THD) and the rms value of fundamental component of input current will
respectively be
T (a) 66% and 7.8 A
E (b) 66% and 6.8 A
(c) 31% and 7.8 A
(d) 31% and 6.8 A
113. PV panel of 350 V is feeding power to an ac supply of 440 V, 50 Hz through a 3-phase

fully controlled bridge converter. A large inductance is connected in the dc circuit to
maintain the dc current at 20 A. If the PV panel resistance is 0.5Ω, then each thyristor
will be reverse biased for a period of
(a) 55°
A
(b) 60°
I (c) 120°
(d) 125°
C
T 114. When the diode connects the ac source to a pure inductance L, the diode conducts for
(a) 90°
E (b) 180°
(c) 270°
(d) 360°
115. A constant v/f speed control of inverter fed induction motor name plate details are 415
V, 50 Hz, 2850 rpm, 2 poles and 20 A. The motor runs with the inverter output
frequency set at 40 Hz and with half the rated slip. The running speed of the motor is
(a) 2230 rpm
A (b) 2280 rpm
(c) 2340 rpm
I (d) 2790 rpm
C
116. A lossless coaxial transmission line has a length of 10 cm. find the lowest resonant
T frequency if the line is air filled
E (a) 374.5 MHz
(b) 474 MHz
(c) 581 MHz
(d) 749 MHz
117. The transmission line operating at 500 Mrad/s has L=0.5µH/m, C=32pF/m,
G=100µmho/m and R=25 Ω/m, the propagation constant is
(a) γ = (2.002 + j0.1061) Ω/m
(b) γ = (0.1061 + j0.2002) Ω/m
A (c) γ = (0.2122 + j4.004) Ω/m
I (d) γ = (0.6366 + j6.006) Ω/m
C 118. Two capacitors with capacitances C and 2C are connected in series. The terminal
T voltage and energy stored of the series combination are V and W se respectively. Next
the capacitors are connected in parallel. The terminal voltage and energy stored of the
E
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A parallel combination are V/2 and Wpa respectively. The ratio of Wse / Wpa is
(a) 16/9
I
(b) 8/9
C (c) 4/9
(d) 2/9
T
E 119. Two regions 1 and 2 in a magnetic field have a common boundary surface. The
permeability of region 2 is twice that of region 1. The magnetic field intensity at the
boundary in region 2 is 30° with the normal to the boundary. The angle of the field
intensity at the boundary in region 2 is
(a) 15°
(b) 60°
(c) Nearly 49°
(d) Nearly 16°
A
120. The complex electric and magnetic field intensities in an electromagnetic field in terms
I of real and imaginary parts are E=(Ea+jEi)axand H=(Ha+jHi)ay where the quantities
are amplitudes. Which of the following expressions gives the real part of the complex
C pointing vector
T (a) (Ex(t)Hy(t) – Ey(t)Hx(t))az
(b) (Ex(t)Hy(t) + Ey(t)Hx(t))az
E (c) (Ex(t)Hx(t) – Ey(t)Hy(t))az
(d) (Ex(t)Hx(t) + Ey(t)Hy(t))az
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG ELECTRICAL & POWER ENGINEERING
Code 19-Paper 2
1 A, B, C 31 B 61 C 91 C
2 A 32 D 62 C 92 D
3 C 33 B 63 D 93 A
4 B 34 A 64 D 94 B
5 A 35 A 65 A 95 C
6 B 36 C 66 B 96 Marks to all
7 C 37 A 67 B 97 D
8 C 38 Marks to all 68 C 98 D
9 B 39 C 69 B 99 A
10 Marks to all 40 A 70 C 100 C
11 D 41 D 71 C 101 D
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 D
13 D 43 C 73 C 103 A
14 B 44 A 74 A 104 D
15 A 45 A 75 D 105 B
16 D 46 D 76 Marks to all 106 C
17 C 47 C 77 B 107 C
18 B 48 D 78 C 108 A
19 D 49 Marks to all 79 B 109 A
20 A 50 A 80 D 110 B
21 D 51 B 81 B 111 C
22 A 52 A 82 Marks to all 112 C
23 C 53 B 83 C 113 A
24 C 54 A 84 Marks to all 114 B, D
25 C 55 D 85 C 115 C
26 C 56 C 86 C 116 D
27 A 57 Marks to all 87 Marks to all 117 Marks to all
28 B 58 A 88 Marks to all 118 B
29 B 59 B 89 B 119 Marks to all
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 A
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING/ELECTRONICS AND

TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
I
T PAPER-I
E Instructions:
questions.
A wrong answer.
E

1. Unilateral Laplace Transform is applicable for the determination of linear constant
coefficient differential equations with ________
a) Zero initial condition
A b) Non-zero initial condition
c) Zero final condition
I
d) Non-zero final condition
C 2. Duality Theorem/ Property of Fourier Transform states that _________
T a) Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
b) Shape of signal in frequency domain & shape of spectrum can be interchangeable
E c) Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can never be interchangeable
d) Shape of signal in time domain & shape of spectrum can never be interchangeable
3. Which among the following belongs tothe category of non-recursive systems?
a) Non-causal IIR Systems
b)Causal IIR Systems
c) Non-causal FIR Systems
d) Causal FIR Systems
A
4. Damped sinusoids are_____
I a) sinusoid signals multiplied by growing exponentials
b)sinusoid signals divided by growing exponentials
C c) sinusoid signalsmultiplied by decaying exponentials
d) sinusoid signals divided by decaying exponentials
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 5. Under which conditionsdoes an initially relaxed system become unstable?

a) only if bounded inputgenerates unbounded output
I b) only if bounded input generates boundedoutput
c) only if unbounded input generates unbounded output
C
d) onlyif unbounded input generates bounded output
T
6. Double integration of a unit step function would leadto
E a) an impulse
b) a parabola
c) a ramp
d) a doublet
7. In RLC circuits, the state variables generally selected are

a)voltages across capacitors
A b) currents through resistances and voltages across capacitors
c) currents through resistances and capacitances
I d) currents through inductances and voltages across capacitances
C 8. What does the spectral density function of any signalspecify?
T a) Distribution of energy or power
b) Consumption of energyor power
E c) Conservation of energy or power
d) Generation of energy or power
9. What is the value of an area under the conditional PDF ?

a) Greaterthan ‘0’ but less than ‘1’
b) Greater than ‘1’
c) Equal to ‘1’
d) Infinite
A
I 10. Accordingto Rayleigh’s theorem, it becomes possible to determine the energy of a signal
by________
C a) Estimating the area under the square root of its amplitude spectrum
b) Estimating the area under the square of its amplitude spectrum
T c) Estimating the area under the one-fourth power of its amplitude spectrum
d) Estimating the area exactly half as that of its amplitude spectrum
E
A clamper circuit
1. adds or subtracts a dc voltage to a waveform
2. does not change the waveform
3. amplifies the waveform
Which are correct?
A a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
I c) 1, 2, 3
C d) 2, 3
T
12. The emitter of the transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it
E
Page 2 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A (a) has to dissipate maximum power

(b) has to supply the charge carrier
I (c) is the first region of transistor
(d) must possess low resistance
C
T 13. In case of Enhancement n-channel MOSFETs
(a) VGS has positive polarity and VDS has negative polarity.
E (b) VGS and VDS have positive polarity.
(c) Both VGS and VDS have negative polarity.
(d) VGS has negative polarity and VDS has positive polarity.
14. The typical input stage of an op amp has a

(a) Single-ended input and single-ended output
(b) Single-ended input and differential output
A (c) Differential input and single-ended output
(d) Differential input and differential output
I
15. The positive part of the output signal in a transistor circuit starts clipping, if Q point of
C the circuit moves
T (a) toward the saturation point
(b) toward the cutoff point
E (c) toward the center of the load line
16. The Q-point in a voltage amplifier is selected in the middle of the active region because
(a) it gives better stability
(b) the circuit needs a small
(c) the biasing circuit then need less number of resistors
(d) it gives distortions less output
A
I 17. The pinch off voltage for a n-channel JFET is 4 V, when VGS = 1 V, the pinch– off
occurs for VDS equal to
C (a) 3 V
(b) 5 V
T (c) 4 V
(d) 1 V
E
18. To calculate Thevenin’s equivalent value in a circuit
(a) all independent voltage sources are opened and all independent current sources are
short circuited.
(b) both voltage and current sources are open circuited
(c) all voltage and current sources are shorted.
(d) all voltage sources are shorted while current sources are opened.
A
19. The Characteristic Impedance of a low pass filter in attenuation Band is
I (a) Purely imaginary.
(b) Zero.
C (c) Complex quantity.
(d) Real value.
T
20. Asymmetrical two port networks have
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A Z sc1  Z oc 2
(a)
I Z sc1  Z sc 2
(b)
Z oc1  Z oc 2
C (c)
Z oc1  Z oc 2 and Z sc1  Z sc 2
(d)
T
21. All pass filter
E (a) passes whole of the audio band.
(b) passes whole of the radio band.
(c) passes all frequencies with very low attenuation.
(d) passes all frequencies without attenuation but phase is changed.
22. An ideal filter should have

(a) Zero attenuation in the pass band.
A (b) Zero attenuation in the attenuation band.
(c) Infinite attenuation in the pass band.
I (d)Infinite attenuation in the attenuation band.
C
23. If f1 and f 2 are half power frequencies and f 0 is the resonance frequency, the
T selectivity of RLC circuit is given by
f f
E (a) 2 1
f0
f f
(b) 2 1
2 f0
f f
(c) 2 1
f1  f 0
f f
A (d) 2 0
f1  f 0
I
24. Superposition theorem is not applicable in:
C (a) Voltage responses
(b) Power responses
T
(c) Current responses
E (d) All the three
25. The maximum power efficiency of an AM modulator is

(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 33%
(d) 100%
A
26. A bandlimited signal is sampled at the Nyquist rate. The signal can be recovered by
I passing the samples through
(a) an RC filter
C (b) an envelope detector
(c) a PLL
T (d) an ideal low-pass filter with the appropriate bandwidth
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 27. Four independent massages have bandwidths of 100 Hz. 100 Hz, 200 Hz and 400 Hz,
respectively. Each is sampled at the Nyquist rate, and the samples are Time Division
I Multiplexed (TDM) and transmitted. The transmitted rate (in Hz) is
(a) 1600
C
(b) 800
T (c) 400
(d) 200
E
28. An analog voltage in the range 0 to 8 V is divided in 16 equal intervals for conversion to
4-bit digital output. The maximum quantization error (in V) is _____________
(a) 250 mV
(b) 125 mV
(c) 0 mV
(d) 500 mV
A
29. If the number bits per sample in a PCM system is increased from n to (n+1), the
I improvement in signal to quantization nose ratio will be
(a) 3 dB
C (b) 6 dB
T (c) 2 n dB
(d) n dB
E
30. In delta modulation, the slope overload distortion can be reduced by
(a) decreasing the step size
(b) decreasing the granular noise
(c) decreasing the sampling noise
(d) increasing the step size
31. The amplitude spectrum of a Gaussian pulse is

A (a) uniform
I (b) a sine function
(c) Gaussian
C (d) an impulse function
T 32. A 2 bit binary multiplier can be implemented using

(a) 2 input ANDs only
E
(b) 2 input X-ORs and 4-input AND gates only
(c) Two input NORs and one XNOR gate
(d) XOR gates and shift registers
33. What are the minimum number of 2-to-1 multiplexers required to generate a 2- input
AND gate and a 2-input Ex-OR gate?
(a) 1 and 2
A (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1and 1
I (d) 2 and 2
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 34. In a 4 bit D/A converter, The offset error is the output voltage when input digital voltage
is
I (a) 1111
(b) 0000
C
(c) Either 1111 or 0000
E 35. Which is known as flash converter?

(a) Weighted resistor D/A converter
(b) Parallel A/D converter
(c) Stair step A/D converter
(d) Up – down counter type A/D converter
36. The advantage of using a dual slope ADC in a digital voltmeter is that
(a) Its conversion time is small
A (b) Its accuracy is high
(c) It gives output in BCD format
I (d) It does not require a comparator
C 37. ATTL circuit with totem pole output has
T (a) High output impedance
(b) Low output impedance
E (c) Very high output impedance
38. The output of a logic gate is ‘1’ when all its input are at logic 0.The gate is either
(a) NAND or an EX OR gate
(b) NOR or an EX-NOR gate
(c) an OR or an EX NOR gate
(d) an AND or an EX-OR gate
A
39. The electric field strength at distant point, P, due to a point charge, +q, located at the
I origin, is 100 μV/m. If the point charge is now enclosed by a perfectly conducting metal
sheet sphere whose center is at the origin, then the electric field strength at the point, P,
C outside the sphere, becomes
T (a) Zero
(b) 100 μV/m
E (c) –100 μV/m
(d) 50 μV/m
40. The unit of ∇×𝐻 is
(a) Ampere
(b) Ampere/meter
(c) Ampere/meter2
(d) Ampere-meter
A
41. The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with increasing
I (a) Conductivity
(b) Permeability
C
(c) Wavelength
T (d) Permittivity
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 42. A transmission line is distortion less if

(a) 𝑅𝐿=1/RC
I (b) 𝑅𝐿=𝐺𝐶
C (c) 𝑅𝐿=𝑅𝐶
(d) 𝑅𝐿=𝐿𝐶
T
43. The VSWR can have any value between
E (a) 0 and 1
(b) – 1 and + 1
(c) 0 and ∞
(d) 1 and ∞
44. Which signal is anti-causal/non-causal

(a) x(t)=0,t<0
A (b) x(t)=0,t>0
(c) x(t)=1,t=0
I (d) x(t)=1,t<0
C 45. Signal x(t) is an odd signal if
T (a) x(t)=x(-t)
(b)x(t)=-x(-t)
E (c) x(t)=x(t+T/2)
(d) x(t)=x(t-T/2)
46. Average power of a periodic signal is equal to

(a) average power of even harmonics of the signal
(b) average power of odd harmonics of the signal
(c) average power of all harmonics of the signal
(d) average power is zero
A
1
I 47. Inverse Laplace transform of 𝑠 (1-e-2S) is
(a) u(t)-2u (t)
C
(b) u(t)-u(t-2)
T (c) u(t-2)
(d) t*u(t-2)
E
48. In a network
(a Number of links = Number of branches - number of nodes + I
(b) Number of links=Number of branches - number of nodes
(c) Number of links = Number of branches - number of nodes - 1
(d) Number of links = Number of branches - number of nodes - 2
A 49. Which one of the following is a cut set of the graph in the given figure?
I
C
T
E
Page 7 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A (a) 1 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3,4 and 6
I (c) 1,4,5 and 6
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
C
T 50. In FM signal with a modulation index mf is passed through a frequency tripler. The
wave in the output of the tripler will have a modulation index of
E (a) mf
(b) 3mf
(c) mf/3
(d) mf/9
51. A 400 W carrier is amplitude modulated with m=0.75. The total power in AM is
(a) 400W
A (b) 512W
(c) 588W
I (d) 650W
C 52. As the frequency increases, the absorption of ground wave by earth's surface
T (a)decreases
(b) remains the same
E (c) increases
(d) either (a) or (b)
53. A receiver has poor IF selectivity. It will therefore also have poor
(a)blocking
(b) double spotting
(c) diversity reception
(d) sensitivity
A
I 54. The probability density function of thermal noise is
(a)Binomial
C (b) Gaussian
(c) Poisson
E
55. The autocorrelation function of white noise is
(a) Impulse function
(b) Step function
(c) Constant
56. The point at which the output signal power has fallen to 0.707 of its peak value is called
A as
(a) 3dB point
I (b) half power point
C (c) both of the mentioned
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 57. A power amplifier has a gain of 20 dB and an input level of 2 volts. Assuming that the
input and output impedances are the same, what is the voltage level at the amplifier
I output?
(a) 10 V
C
(b) 20V
T (c) 30V
(d) 40V
E
58. Pinch off voltage of FET depends on
(a) channel width
(b) doping of n and p regions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none
A 59. First stage of operational amplifier is

(a) differential amplifier
I (b) level shifter circuit
(c) multistage amplifier
C (d) power amplifier
T
60. Comparator application of OP-Amp works in which mode?
E (a) Open loop
(b) Negative feedback
(c) Positive feedback
(d) None
61. Schmitt trigger is a

(a) Square wave generator
(b) Triangular wave generator
A (c) Sweep generator
I (d) Sine wave generator
C 62. Ideal CMRR should be

(a) Infinite
T (b) Zero
(c) Very small
E
(d) 100
63. What is the "power factor"?

(a) Ratio of true power to apparent power
(b) Peak power times .707
(c) Sine of the phase difference between E and I
(d) Cosine of the phase angle between true power and apparent power
A
64. Convert the 101101 Binary number into octal no
I (a) 65
C (b) 55
(c) 51
T (d) 45
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 65. How many flip-flops are required to construct Mod -12 counter
(a) 5
I (b) 4
(c) 12
C
(d) 8
T 66. By adding inverters to the inputs and output of a AND gate we can obtain --------
E (a) OR
(b) AND
(c) NOT
(d) X-OR
67. Radar is
(a) Detects only stationary objects
(b) Detects only moving targets
A (c) Detects only moving targets
(d) Detects both stationary and moving targets
I
68. Radar gun
C (a) Measure speed of target
(b) Measure height of target
T (c) Tracks fast moving targets
E (d) Controls the target motion
69. A Radar X-Band is
(a) 8 GHz – 12 GHz
(b) 4 GHz – 8 GHz
(c) 2 GHz – 4 GHz
(d) 1 GHz – 2 GHz
70. The magnetic field of an antenna is perpendicular to earth. The antenna's polarization is
A (a) horizontal
(b) vertical
I
(c) elliptical
C (d) circular
T
E
71. The Fourier Transform of a conjugate symmetric function is always:
(a) imaginary
(b) conjugate anti-symmetric
(c) real
(d) conjugate symmetric
72. A causal LTI system is described by the difference equation
A
2y[n] αy[n-2] - 2x[n] + βx[n-1]
I The system is stable only if
C (a) lαl = 2 lβl < 2

(b) lαl > 2 lβl > 2
T (c) lαl < 2, any value of β
(d) lβl < 2, any value of α
E
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A
1 2
73. If the region of convergence of x1[n]-x2 [n] is 3< l z l <3 , then the region of convergence
I
of x1[n]-x2 [n] includes
C 1
(a) 3< l z l < 3
2
T 𝑏 <lzl<3
3
3
E (c) 2< l z l < 3
1 2
(d) 3< l z l <3
74. In the circuit of figure, the switch is closed at t=0. At t=0+ the current through C is
A
I
C
T
(a) 4 A
E (b) 2.5 A
(c) 3.1 A
(d) 0 A
75. White Gaussian noise is passed through a linear narrow band filter. The probability
density function of the envelope of output of the filter is
(a) Gaussian
(b) Uniform
A
(c) Rayleigh
I (d) Poisson
C 76. A computer generates binary words, each consisting of 16 bits, at the rate 20,000 ' words
per second. The BW required to transmit the output as a binary PAM signal is
T (a) 240 kHz
E (b) 80 kHz
(c) 320 kHz
(d) 160 kHz
77. The waveformAcos (w1t+kcosw2) is

(a) AM
(b) FM
(c) PM
A (d) FM as well as PM
I 78. PCM systems use non-uniform quantization in order to
(a) raise SNR for low level signals
C (b) increases the maximum SNR
T (c) cut down the required bandwidth for transmission
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A
79. The gain of a negative feedback amplifier is 40 dB. If the attenuation of the feedback
I path is 50 dB, then the gain of the amplifier without feedback is:
(a) 78.92
C
(b) 146.32
T (c) 215.51
(d) 317.23
E
80. The 6 V Zenerdiode shown in figure has zero resistance and a knee current of 5Ma. The
minimum value of R so that the voltage across it does not fall below 6 V is
A
I
C
T
(a) 1.2 kΩ
E (b) 75 Ω
(c) 50 Ω
(d) 0 Ω
81. On performing the subtraction (110000)2 from (100)2 we have

(a) (101100)2
(b) (1100)2
(c) -(101100)2
A (d) -(1100)2
I
82. The simplified sum of products expression for F(A,B,C,D) = ∑(0,1,2,5,8,9,10) is
C (a) A’BD+CD’
(b) B’D’+A’D+AC’D
T (c) BCD+A’C’
(d) B’D’+B’C’+A’C’D
E
83. The octal equivalent of hexa decimal number A9 is
(a) 350
(b) 520
(c) 251
(d) 350
A 84. Let at z=0 in Patna, the electric field is given as Ex=Exo cos 𝓌𝑡, find the field at Kolkata
about 500 km east.
I
(a) Ex=Exo cos (𝓌𝑡-5 x 103z)
C (b) Ex=Exo cos (𝓌𝑡 -5 x 103t)
(c) Ex=Exo cos (𝓌𝑡 -0.0167t)
T (d) Ex=Exo cos (𝓌𝑡 +0.0167t)
E
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 85. The circuit below implements a filter between the input current ii and the output Voltage,
I vo . Assume that the op-amp is ideal. The filter implemented is a
C
T
E
(a) low pass filter

(b) band pass filter
A (c) band stop filter
(d) high pass filter
I
C 86. In the circuit shown below, Q1 has negligible collector-to-emitter saturation voltage and
the diode drops negligible voltage across it under forward bias. If Vccis +5 V, X and Y
T are digital signals with 0 V as logic 0 and Vccas logic 1, then the Boolean expression for
Z is
E
A
I
(a) XY
C
(b) XY
T (c) XY
(d) XY
E
87. A voltage doubler circuit is fed by a voltage Vm sin t . The output voltage will be nearly
2Vm only if
(a) load resistance is small
(b) load resistance is large
(c) load resistance neither small nor large
A (d) either (a) or (c)
I 88. When the initial slope of a sine wave is greater than the slew rate
(a) Distortion occurs
C (b) Linear operation occurs
(c) Voltage gain is maximum
T (d) The op amp works best
E
Page 13 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 89. A delta connection contains three impedances of 60 Ω each. The impedances of

equivalent star connection will be
I (a) 15 Ω
(b) 20 Ω
C
(c) 30 Ω
T (d) 40 Ω
E 90. A (3 + 4j) voltage source delivers a current of (4 + j5) A. The power delivered by the
source is
(a) 12 W
(b) 15 W
(c) 20 W
(d) 32 W
A 91. A constant voltage source with 10V and series internal resistance of 100 Ω is equivalent
to a current source of
I (a) 100 mA in parallel with 100 Ω
(b) 1000 mA in parallel with 100 Ω
C (c) 100 V in parallel with 10-Ω
T (d) 100 mA in parallel with 1000 Ω
E 1
92. A message signal given by m(t )  (cos 1t  sin 2t ) is amplitude modulated with a
2
carrier of frequency c generate s(t )  [1  m(t )]cos ct . What is the power efficiency
achieved by this modulation scheme?
(a) 8.33%
(b) 11.11%
(c) 20%
A (d) 25%
I 93. A higher value of Q is characterized by

1. Narrow band of frequency
C
2. Sharp resonance
T 3. Poor selectivity
E (a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
94. A MOS capacitor made using p-type substrate is in accumulation mode. The dominant
charge in the channel is due to the presence of
A (a) holes
(b) electrons
I (c) positively charged ions
(d) negatively charged ions
C
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 95. White Gaussian noise is passed through a linear narrow band filter. The probability
density function of the envelope of the noise at the filter output is
I (a) Uniform
(b) Poisson
C
(c) Gaussian
T (d) Rayleigh
E 96. A 1 mW video signal having a bandwidth of 100 MHz is transmitted to a receiver

through a cable that has 40 dB loss. If the effective one-sided noise spectral density at the
receiver is 10-20 Watt/Hz, then the signal-to-noise ratio at the receiver is
(a) 50 dB
(b) 30 dB
(c) 40 dB
(d) 60 dB
A
97. An 8 bit successive approximation analog to digital converter has full scale reading of
I 2.55 V and its conversion time for an analog input of 1V is 20μs. The conversion time
for a 2V input will be
C (a) 10 μs
T (b) 20 μs
(c) 40 μs
E (d) 50 μs
98. The incoming solar radiation at a place on the surface of the earth is 1.2 KW/m2. The
amplitude of the electric field corresponding to this incident power is nearly equal to
(a) 80 mV/m
(b) 2.5 V/m
(c) 30 V/m
(d) 950 V/ m
A
I 99. A lossless transmission line having 50 Ω characteristic impedance and length 𝜆/4 is short
circuited at one end and connected to an ideal voltage source of 1V at the other end. The
C current drawn from the voltage sources is
(a) 0
T (b) 0.02 A
(c) ∞
E
(d) None of the these
100. A uniform plane electromagnetic wave incident normally on a plane surface of a

dielectric material is reflected with a VSWR of 3. What is the percentage of incident
power that is reflected
(a) 10%
(b) 25%
A (c) 50%
(d) 75%
I
C
T
E
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A PART –C
I
C
T
E (c) 𝑀 is not invertible (d) Determinant of 𝑀 is 5

is equal to
C
1 1 1
T (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
A (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
C (a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
T (c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
E 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
A 3
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
I
C (a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3
T
E
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ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
A 109. In an experiment, positive and negative values are equally likely to occur. The
I
C (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
T 110. The probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53 Sundays is
E (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A
2 𝑥2
C
T (c) Limit does not exists (d) None
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
A
𝑥3 𝑦2
I (a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
C
T
1
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7

A
of n is
C
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
T
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG1ECE20
eigenvalue is
I
1 1
C (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1

E (a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
2 2
(c) 8𝑥 + 8𝑦 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

A
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION / TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Code 20-Paper 1
1 A 31 C 61 A 91 A
2 A 32 C, B 62 A 92 C
3 D 33 C 63 A 93 A
4 A, C 34 B 64 B 94 A
5 A 35 B 65 B 95 D
6 B 36 B 66 A 96 A
7 D 37 B 67 D 97 B
8 A 38 A, B 68 A 98 D
9 C 39 A 69 A 99 A
10 B 40 C 70 A 100 B
11 A 41 C 71 C 101 A
12 B 42 Marks to all 72 Marks to all 102 C
13 B 43 D 73 D 103 A
14 C 44 D 74 A 104 D
15 B 45 B 75 C 105 D
16 D 46 C 76 D 106 A
17 A 47 B 77 D 107 A
18 D 48 A 78 A 108 B
19 A 49 D 79 B 109 D
20 D 50 B 80 Marks to all 110 B
21 D 51 B 81 D 111 D
22 A, D 52 C 82 D 112 B
23 A 53 A 83 C 113 B
24 B 54 B 84 Marks to all 114 B
25 C 55 A 85 D 115 B
26 D 56 C 86 B 116 C
27 B 57 B 87 B 117 B
28 A 58 C 88 A 118 C
29 B 59 A 89 B 119 B
30 D 60 A 90 Marks to all 120 D
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION ENGINEERING/ELECTRONICS AND

I TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
C Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 160
T PAPER-II
E
Instructions:
iii. Part-B contains 40 questions, Q81 to Q120 of 2 (two) marks each.
wrong answer.
A
C
T
1. The symbol error performance for coherently detected M-ary PSK signaling is given by
(a) 2Q( 2Es N0 Sin  M )
(b) Q( 2Es N0 Sin  M )
(c) Q( 2Es N0 Sin 2 M )
(d) 2Q( Es N0 Sin  M )
A
2. Rayleigh PDF is given by,
I
(a) x 2 2 exp( x2 /  2 ) ,
C
(b) x  2 exp( x2 /  2 ) ,
T (c) x 2 2 exp(2 x2 /  2 ) ,
E (d) x  2 exp( x2 / 2 2 )
3. The modulation scheme used by GSM (Global system for mobile) system is
(a) BPSK
(b) QAM
(c) GMSK
(d) QPSK
A
4. The range of frequency used by the UHF (ultrahigh frequency) waves is
I (a) 30 MHz-300MHz
C (b) 300 MHz-3GHz
(c) 3GHz-30GHz
T (d) None of them
E
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 5. If the baud rate for a 8-QAM signal is 3000, what is the bit rate?
I (a) 300
(b) 3000
C (c) 1000
T (d) 9000
E 6. For an n-stage maximum length pseudo random sequence generator, the sequence length
is
(a) n
(b) n–1
(c) 2n– 1
7. Which logic family is preferable in systems requiring low power consumption?

(a) ECL
A (b) MOS
I (c) TTL
(d) CMOS
C
T 8. The ripple factor for a half-wave rectifier is
(a) 0.48
E (b) 1.21
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.81
9. The Fourier Transform of a Gaussian function is a

(a) Rayleigh function
(b) Gaussian function
(c) Exponential function
(d) Bessel function
A
I 10. A necessary and sufficient condition for a DSP system to be stable is,
n 
C (a) 
n 
h( n)  
T
n 
E (b)  h( n)  
n 
n 
(c) 
n 
h( n)  
n 
(d)  h( n)  
n 
A
I 11. Which is not true about matched filter?
C (a) Can be used for correlation detection
(b) Optimum detector for known signal in AWGN
T (c) Maximizes the input signal-to-noise ratio
E (d) Used for binary detection
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 12. If x(n) is a finite duration causal signal, then the ROC (Region of convergence)
I (a) Includes the entire z-plane except z = 0
(b) Includes the entire z-plane except z = 
C (c) Includes the entire z-plane except z = 0 and z = 
E 13. V number for the fundamental mode HE11 is
(a) 2.405
(b) 2.706
(c) 3.14
(d) 4.14
14. In Pulse Code Modulation (PCM) efficient exchange of increased channel bandwidth for
improved SNR obeys
(a) Linear law
A (b) Square law
I (c) Exponential law
C
T 15. Time-bandwidth product (WTb) of a GMSK is standardized at
(a) 0.4
E (b) 0.3
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.9
16. Which devices are used for Wavelength Division Demultiplexing?

(a) Thin Film Filters,
(b) Fiber Bragg Gratings,
(c) Littrow Gratings,
(d) Any one
A
I 17. Symbol duration of M-ary PAM is related to the bit rate Tb of equivalent binary PAM as
(a) T = 2Tb log 2 M
C
(b) T= 2Tb log 2 2 M
T
(c) T= Tb log 2 M
E (d) None of them
18. The electronic charge is

(a) 1 C
(b) 1.6 µC
(c) 1.6×10-19 C
(d) 1.6×10-19 µC
A
19. The Fermi level in a pure semiconductor lies
I (a) near the middle of the forbidden gap
C (b) in the valence band,
(c) in the conduction band
T (d) None of them
E
20. The intrinsic concentration of a semiconductor at 0 K is
Page 3 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A (a) zero
I (b) infinity
(c) 1019 m-3
C (d) None of them
T
21. If α = 0.95, then the value of β of the transistor is
E (a) 190
(b) 19
(c) 0.05
(d) None of them
22. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as:

(a) Transceivers
(b) Transponders
(c) Transducers
A (d) TWT
I
23. What is the most appropriate multipath model for micro-cellular transmission, where a
C dominant line-of-sight plus many weak reflections are present?
T (a) Rayleigh Fading,
(b) Rician Fading,
E (c) Nakagami Fading,
(d) Shadow fading
24. A PIN diode is:

(a) a metal semiconductor point-contact diode
(b) a microwave mixer diode
(c) often used as a microwave detector
(d) suitable for use as a microwave switch
A 25. In order to reduce cross-sectional dimensions, the waveguide to use is:
I (a) circular
(b) ridged
C (c) rectangular
T (d) flexible
E 26. Which of the following material is suitable for making LED?
(a) GaAs
(b) Silicon,
(c) InGaAsP
(d) GaAlAs
27. Which of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of
A receivers?
(a) Noise figure,
I (b) Equivalent noise resistance
C (c) Input noise voltage
(d) Noise temperature
T
E 28. The autocorrelation function is
(a) an odd function in to
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A (b) an even function in to

I (c) an exponential function in to
(d) a linear function in to
C
T 29. By which of the following processes, one can reject an undesired signal from the
channel?
E (a) Cross correlation
(b) Convolution,
(c) Autocorrelation
(d) Windowing
30. By channel coding, the information transmission efficiency

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
A (d) Sometimes increases, sometimes decreases
I
31. On the constellation diagram, the allowable phase margin in 8PSK scheme is in degrees
C (a) 45
T (b) 90
(c) 22.5
E (d) 180
32. The EDGE is a

(a) 2 G technology
(b) 3 G technology
(c) 2.5 G technology
(d) 4 G technology
33. To reduce side lobes, in which region of the filter the frequency specifications has to be
A optimized?
I (a) Stop band
(b) Pass band
C (c) Transition band
T (d) None of the mentioned
E 34. Which of the following is introduced in the frequency sampling realization of the FIR
filter?
a) Poles are more in number on unit circle
b) Zeros are more in number on the unit circle
c) Poles and zeros at equally spaced points on the unit circle
A 35. Which of the following filter design is used in the formulation of design of optimum equi
ripple linear phase FIR filter?
I a) Butterworth approximation
C b) Chebyshev approximation
c) Hamming approximation
E
36. The Nyquist theorem for sampling
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 1) Relates the conditions in time domain and frequency domain

I 2) Helps in quantization
3) Limits the bandwidth requirement
C 4) Gives the spectrum of the signal
T
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
E b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) All the four are correct
37. The transforming relations performed by DTFT are

1) Linearity
2) Modulation
3) Shifting
4) Convolution
A
I a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
C c) 1 and 3 are correct
T d) All the four are correct
E 38. FFT may be used to calculate
1) DFT
2) IDFT
3) Direct Z transform
4) Indirect Z transform

A d) All the four are correct
I
39. The similarity between the Fourier transform and the z transform is that
C a) Both convert frequency spectrum domain to discrete time domain
T b) Both convert discrete time domain to frequency spectrum domain
c) Both convert analog signal to digital signal
E d) Both convert digital signal to analog signal
40. Which among the following represent/s the characteristic/s of an ideal filter?
a) Constant gain in passband
b) Zero gain in stop band
c) Linear Phase Response
d) All of the above
A
41. FIR filters_____________
I A. are non – recursive
C B. do not adopt any feedback
C. are recursive
T D. use feedback
E
a) A & B
Page 6 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A b) C & D
I c) A & D
d) B & C
C
T 42. A discrete time signal may be
1) Samples of a continuous signal
E 2) A time series which is a domain of integers
3) Time series of sequence of quantities
4) Amplitude modulated wave

A 43. The probability of error for digital carrier modulation system is minimum for
I a) Coherent ASK
b) Coherent PSK
C c) Coherent FSK
T d) Non-coherent FSK
E 44. The Bandwidth efficiency of QPSK modulation is double compared to BPSK
modulation. The probability of error for QPSK is
a) Double of BPSK
b) Half of BPSK
c) Same as BPSK
d) One-fourth of BPSK
45. Channel coding is used for

a) Increasing compactness
A b) Control Errors
I c) Decrease Bandwidth
d) Multiplexing
C
T 46. ISI may be removed by using
a) Partial response signalling
E b) Manchester coding
c) Viterbi coding
d) Shannon-Fano coding
47. PCM system requires regenerative repeaters over long distances. The correct sequences
of the operations in which such a repeater performs is
a) Timing, equalization & thresholding
A b) Equalization, timing & thresholding
c) Timing, thresholding & equalization
I d) Timing, equalization & thresholding
C
48. With Golay code (23, 12) is a codeword of length 23 which may correct
T a) 2 errors
E b) 3 errors
c) 5 errors
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A d) 8 errors
I 49. With eye pattern, the time interval over which the received signal may be sampled
without error may be explained by
C a) Width of eye opening
T b) Rate of closure of eye
c) Height of the eye opening
E d) All of the above
50. A geostationary satellite

a) is motionless in space except for its spin
b) appears stationary over earth’s magnetic poles
c) orbits the Earth with a 24 hr period
d) is located at a height of 25800 km from earth’s surface
51. Quadrature amplitude modulation is a combination of

A a) FSK and DPSK
I b) ASK and FSK
c) DPSK and ASK
C d) ASK and PSK
T
52. The forbidden gap for germanium is
E a) 1.12 eV
b) 0.72 eV
c) 0.30 eV
d) None of these
53. The mobility of electrons in a material is expressed in unit of:

a) V/s
b) m2/V-s
c) m2/s
A d) J/K
I
54. In the diode equation, the voltage equivalent of temperature is
C a) 11600/T
T b) T/11600
c) T x 11600
E d) 11600/T2
55. Which of these has highly doped p and n region?

a) PIN diode
b) Tunnel diode
c) Schottky diode
d) Photo diode
A
56. The transit time of the current carries through the channel of a JEET decides its
I __________________ characteristic
C a) Source
b) Drain
T c) GATE
E d) Source and drain
Page 8 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 57. In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation
I (using steam or water vapour) produces
a) Superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
C b) Inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
T c) Inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
d) Superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
E
58. The rules for exchanging data between computers are called
a) Interconnections
b) synchronous packages
c) protocols
d) data transmission synchronization
59. A dual-gate MOSFET is

a) a depletion MOSFET
A b) an enhancement MOSFET
I c) a VMOSFET
d) either a depletion or an enhancement MOSFET
C
T 60. Which of the following devices has the highest input resistance?
a) Diode
E b) JFET
c) MOSFET
d) Bipolar junction transistor
61. Which of the following is a type of error associated with digital-to-analog converters
(DACs)?
a) nonmonotonic error
b) incorrect output codes
c) offset error
A d) nonmonotonic and offset error
I
62. A comparator is an example of a(n)
C a) Linear circuit
T b) Current source
c) Nonlinear circuit
E d) Active filter
63. PLAs, CPLDs, and FPGAs are all which type of device?
a) SRAM
b) SLD
c) PLD
d) EPROM
A
64. In a flash analog-to-digital converter, the output of each comparator is connected to an
I input of a:
C a) decoder
b) priority encoder
T c) multiplexer
E d) demultiplexer
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 65. The main advantage of C-MOS is its

I a) High power rating
b) Small signal operation
C c) Switching capability
T d) Low power consumption
E 66. The most popular form of IC package is
a) DIL
b) Flat pack
c) TO-5
67. Which ICs are the most commonly used

a) Thin Film
b) Monolithic
A c) Hybrid
I d) None of the above
C 68. Frequency selectivity characteristics of DFT refers to:
T (a) Ability to resolve different frequency components from input signal
(b) Ability to translate into frequency domain
E (c) Ability to convert into discrete signal
69. Decimation is aprocess in which the sampling rate is _____________

(a) Enhanced
(b) Stable
(c) Reduced
(d) Unpredictable
A 70. A system with gain margin close to unity and phase margin close to zero is
I (a) Highly stable
(b) Oscillatory
C (c) Relatively stable
T (d) Unstable
E 71. In control system how the steady state error can be reduced?
(a) By increasing system gain
(b) By decreasing the type of the system
(c) By decreasing the static error constant
(d) By increasing the input
72. Which of the following statement is correct for Routh Hurwitz criterion?
A a) It gives absolute stability
I b) It gives gain and phase margin
c) It gives the number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane
C
d) It gives gain, phase margin and number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane
T
E 73. Which of the following material used to construct Tunnel diodes?
Page 10 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A a) Germanium and silicon materials

I b) AIGaAs
c) AIGaInP
C d) ZnTe
T
74. Determine the time period of monostable 555 multivibrator.
E (a) T=0.33RC
(b) T=3RC
(c) T=1.1RC
(d) T=RC
75. The fabrication of JFET is similar to that of:

a) Diode fabrication
b) BJT fabrication
A c) FET fabrication
C 76. How many complex multiplications are performed in computing the N-point DFT of a
sequence using divide and conquer method if N=LM?
T
a) N(L+M+2)
E b) N(L+M-2)
c) N(L+M-1)
d) N(L+M+1)
77. The phase margin of a system with open-loop transfer function

G(s)H(s)=(1-s)/((1+s)(2+s))
(a) 0º
(b) 63.4 º
(c) 90º
A (d) Infinite
I
78. Compression in PCM refers to relative compression of
C (a) Higher signal amplitudes
(b) Lower signal amplitudes
T
(c) Lower signal frequencies
E (d) Higher signal frequencies
79. Thermistor is a transducer. Its temperature coefficient is

(a) Negative
(b)Positive
(c)Zero
(d)Infinite
A
80. The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by:
I (a) Fast turn ON
(b) Fast turn OFF
C
(c) Large collector base reverse bias
T (d) Large emitter base forward bias
E
Page 11 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A
I PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)
C 81. Which of the following codes are single error correcting Hamming codes?
T (a) (15, 11),
(b) (7, 4),
E (c) (10, 4),
(d) both A and B
82. Lempel-Ziv coding is used as:
(a) Source coding,
(b) Channel coding,
(c) Can be used as both source coding and channel coding,
(d) None of them
A 83. In input characteristics of CB configuration of BJT, the magnitude of emitter current for
open circuited collector-base junction is
I (a) Less than that of short circuited collector base junction.
C (b) Greater than that of short circuited collector base junction.
(c) Equal to that of short circuited collector base junction.
T (d) None of the above.
E 84. A silicon PN junction is forward biased with a constant current at room temperature.
When the temperature is increased by 10℃, the forward bias voltage across the PN
junction
(a) increases by 60 mV
(b) decreases by 60 mV
(c) increases by 25 mV
(d) decreases by 25 mV
85. Drift current in semiconductors depends upon

A (a) Only the electric field
(b) Only the carrier concentration gradient
I
(c) Both the electric field and the carrier concentration
C (d) Both the electric field and the carrier concentration gradient
T 86. In a forward biased PN junction diode, the sequence of events that best describes the
E mechanism of current flow is
(a) injection, and subsequent diffusion and recombination of minority carriers
(b) injection, and subsequent drift and generation of minority carriers
(c) extraction, and subsequent diffusion and generation of minority carriers
(d) extraction, and subsequent drift and recombination of minority carriers
87. In IC technology, dry oxidation (using dry oxygen) as compared to wet oxidation (using
steam or water vapor) produces
A (a) superior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
I (b) inferior quality oxide with a higher growth rate
(c) inferior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
C (d) superior quality oxide with a lower growth rate
T 88. The ICBO is the current that flows when some dc voltage is applied
E (a) in the forward direction to the emitter junction with collector open
Page 12 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A (b) in the reverse direction to the emitter junction with collector open
I (c) in the reverse direction to the collector junction with emitter open
(d) in the forward direction to the collector junction with emitter open
C
T 89. In a MOSFET operating in the saturation region, the channel length modulation effect
causes
E (a) an increase in the gate-source capacitance
(b) a decrease in the transconductance
(c) a decrease in the unity-gain cutoff frequency
(d) a decrease in the output resistance
90. A semiconductor is doped with ND (ND>>ni) and has a resistance R1. The same
semiconductor is then doped with an unknown amount of acceptors NA (NA>>ND),
yielding a resistance of 0.5R1. Find NA in terms of ND if Dn/Dp=50.
(a) NA=50ND
A (b) NA=ND
(c) NA=2ND
I (d) 20NA=ND
C
91. The diffusion capacitance of a forward biased P N junction diode with a steady current I
T depends on
(a) Width of the depleted region
E
(b) Mean life-time of the electrons
(c) Junction area
(d) Mean life-time of the holes
1 𝑛 1 𝑛
92. 𝑥𝑛 = − 𝑢 𝑛 the region of convergence in Z plane is
3 2
1
(a) < 𝑍 <3
3
1
(b) < 𝑍 <3
2
A 1 1
(c) < 𝑍 <2
3
I (d)
1
< 𝑍
3
C
T 93. The root locus plot for a system is given below. The open loop transfer function
corresponding to this plot is given by
E
A
𝑠(𝑠+1)
I (a) G(s)H(s) = k 𝑠+2 (𝑠+3)
C (𝑠+1)
(b) G(s)H(s) = k𝑠 𝑠+2 𝑠+3 ^2
T 1
(c) G(s)H(s) = k𝑠(𝑠−1)(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3)
E (𝑠+1)
(d) G(s)H(s) = k𝑠 𝑠+2 (𝑠+3)
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A 94. If the unit step response of a network is (1-e-αt), then its unit impulse response is
I (a) αe-αt
(b) α-1e-αt
C (c) (1-α-1)e-αt
T (d) (1-α)e-αt
E 95. An input x(t)= exp(-2t)u(t) + δ(t-6)is applied to an LTI system with impulse response h(t)=
u(t). The output is:
(a) [1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t+6)]
(b) [1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t-6)]
(c) 0.5[1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t+6)
(d) 0.5[1- exp(-2t)] u(t) + u(t-6)
2
96. The gain margin (in dB) of a system having loop transfer function G ( s ) H ( s )  is
s ( s  1)
A (a) 0
(b) 3
I
(c) 6
C (d) Infinity
T 97. If the characteristics equation of a closed-loop system is s 2  2s  2  0 , then the system
E is
(a) overdamped
(b) critically damped
(c) underdamped
(d) undamped
98. Indicate which one of the following will not exist in a rectangular resonant cavity.
(a) TE110
(b) TE011
(c) TM110
A
(d) TM111
I
99. What is meant by the rise time of a waveform?
C (a) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 10% to 90% of the height of a
T step.
(b) The time taken for the waveform to increase from 0% to 90% of the height of a step.
E (c) The time delay from when the input step changes by 50% to when the output step
changes by 50%.
(d) The time taken for the waveform to decrease from 90% to 10% of the height of a
step.
100. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) ECL is widely used in high-speed applications.
A (b) ECL suffers from low noise immunity.
(c) ECL is one of the fastest forms of electronic logic.
I (d) ECL has high power consumption.
C
T (a) Some PLDs are programmed using electrically operated switches.
E (b) Some PLDs are programmed using anti-fuses that are selectively joined.
(c) Some PLDs are programmed using mechanical switches.
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ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A (d) Some PLDs are programmed using fuses that are selectively blown.
I
C (a) Dynamic RAM stores information by charging or discharging capacitors.
T (b) RAM is volatile.
(c) Static RAM stores information by energizing or de-energising inductors.
E (d) RAM is memory that can be written and read quickly.
103. The filter that may not be realized by approximation of derivatives techniques are
1) Band pass filters
2) High pass filters
3) Low pass filters
4) Band reject filters
A b) 2 and 4 are correct
I
C
104. In direct form for realization of IIR filters
T 1. Denominator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths
E 2. Multipliers in the feedback paths are the positives of the denominator coefficients
3. Numerator coefficients are the multipliers in the feed forward paths
4. Multipliers in the feedback paths are the negatives of the denominator coefficients
Which statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
A 105. A certain source has 8 symbols and emits data in blocks of 3 symbols at the rate of 1000
I blocks per second. The first symbol in each block is always the same, for
synchronization purposes; the remaining 2 places are filled by any of the 8 symbols with
C equal probability. The source information rate is
T a) 3 Kbps
b) 8 Kbps
E c) 9 Kbps
d) 6 Kbps
106. If the signal (as mentioned in the previous question) has to be transmitted as M-ary PAM
over a 60 kHz channel, what value of M is needed?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 4
A
d) 32
I
107. The minimum number of bits required for PCM with a dynamic range of 40Db is
C a) 4
T b) 5
c) 6
E d) 7
Page 15 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A
I The following statement is given for question with serial nos. 108 and 109:
An air-filled circular cylindrical cavity resonator with dimensions; radius of 3.4 cm
C and length of 12 cm resonates in TE111 mode. The 3 dBbandwidth is 2.4 GHz, given
T that P11 =1.841.
108. The resonant frequency is
E a) 1.871 GHz
b) 3.871 GHz
c) 4.871 GHz
d) 2.871 GHz
109. The Q (quality factor) of the cavity is

a) 1296.80
b) 1096.80
c) 1196.80
A d) 1398.80
I
110. For a BJT, the common – base current gain α= 0.98 and the collector base junction
C reverse bias saturation current I CO = 0.6 𝜇A. This BJT is connected in the common
T emitter mode and operated in the active region with a base drive current IB =20𝜇A. The
collector current IC for this mode of operation is
E a) 0.98 mA
b) 0.99 mA
c) 1.0 mA
d) 1.01 mA
111. Group I lists four different semiconductor device. Match each device in Group I with its
characteristics property in Group II
Group – I Group – II
P. BJT 1. Population inversion
A Q.MOS Capacitor 2. Pinch – off Voltage
R. LASER diode 3. Early Effect
I
S. JFET 4.Flat – band Voltage
C
P Q R S
T
(a) 3 1 4 2
E (b) 2 4 3 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
112. A three stage amplifier has individual stage gains of 5 dB, 20dB and 4dB. What is the
cascade gain?
a) 400 dB
b) 200 dB
A
c) 29 dB
I d) 11 dB
C
113. Most look-up tables in field – programmable gate arrays (FGPAs) use_______ inputs,
T resulting in ________possible outputs.
E a) 4, 16
b) 8, 16
Page 16 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A c) 4, 12
I d) 6, 12
C 114. The resolution of a 0-5 V 6-bit digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is:
T a) 63%
b) 64%
E c) 1.56%
d) 15.6%
115. The open loop DC gain of a unity negative feedback system with closed loop transfer
(a) 4/13
(b) 4/9
(c) 4
(d) 13
A
I 116. In a Bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all pole system?
C (a) -80 dB/decade
T (b) -40 dB/decade
(c) +40 dB/decade
E (d) +80 dB/decade
117. Let x(t)↔X(jω) be Fourier Transform pair. The Fourier Transform of the signal x(5t-3)
in terms of X(jω) is given as
(a) 15e-j3ω/5 X(jω/5)
(b) 15ej3ω/5 X(jω/5)
(c) 15e-j3ω X(jω/5)
(d) 15ej3ω X(jω/5)
A 118. The initial and final values of z-domain signal given by 2z-1/(1-1.8z-1+0.8z-2) are
I (a) 10, 1
(b) 1, 10
C (c) 0, 10
T (d) 0, infinity
E 119. Which of the following signal is non periodic
(a) x(t)= cos2t + cos3t + cos5t
(b) x(t)=exp(j8πt)
(c)x(t)=exp(-7t) sin10πt
(d)x(t)= cos2t cos4t
120. The capacity of a communication channel with 4KHz bandwidth and 15dB SNR is
A approximately
(a) 20Kbps
I (b) 16 Kbps
C (c) 10 Kbps
(d) 32 Kbps
T ------------
E
Page 17 of 18
ROLL NO.: UG2ECE20
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 18 of 18
UG ELECTRONICS & COMMUNICATION / TELECOMMUNICATION ENGINEERING
Code 20-Paper 2
1 A 31 C 61 D 91 B
2 D 32 C 62 C 92 C
3 C 33 C 63 C 93 B
4 B 34 C 64 B 94 A
5 D 35 B 65 D 95 D
6 C 36 C 66 A, B 96 D
7 D 37 D 67 B 97 C
8 B 38 B 68 A 98 A
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 A
10 C 40 D 70 C 100 A
11 C 41 A 71 A 101 C
12 A 42 A 72 D 102 C
13 A 43 B 73 A 103 B
14 C 44 C 74 C 104 C
15 B 45 B 75 B 105 D
16 D 46 A 76 D 106 Marks to all
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 D
18 C 48 B 78 B 108 D
20 A 50 C 80 C 110 D
21 B 51 D 81 D 111 C
22 B 52 B 82 A 112 C
23 B 53 B 83 A 113 A
24 D 54 B 84 D 114 C
25 B 55 B 85 C 115 Marks to all
26 A 56 B 86 A 116 A
27 C 57 D 87 D 117 Marks to all
28 B 58 C 88 C 118 Marks to all
29 A 59 D 89 D 119 C
30 B 60 C 90 A 120 A
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING / INSTRUMENTATION& CONTROL

ENGINEERING
A
I
C PAPER-I
T Instructions:
E questions.
wrong answer.
T
E ix. Hand over your Question Paper and OMR Sheet to the Invigilator on completion of
1. Which one of the following is applicable to any network linear or non-linear, active or
passive, time varying and invariant as long as Kirchhoff‟s law are not violate?
a) Tellegen‟s Theorem
A b) Reciprocity Theorem
c) Maximum Power Transfer Theorem
I
d) Superposition Theorem
C
2. Which of the following is true for Thevenin‟s equivalent circuit?
T a) Current source in parallel with a resistor
b) Voltage source in series with a resistor
E c) Voltage source in parallel with a resistor
d) Current source in series with a resistor
3. Another name of „self-generating transducer‟ is

a) Passive transducer
A b) Inverse transducer
c) Active transducer
I
d) Analog transducer
C
4. What is the relation between scale factor and sensitivity of a transducer?
T a) Scale factor is double of sensitivity
b) Scale factor is inverse of sensitivity
E c) Sensitivity is inverse of scale factor
d) Sensitivity is equal to scale factor
Page 1 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
5. The principle of operation of LVDT is

a) Mutual inductance
A b) Self inductance
c) Permanence
I d) Reluctance
C
6. Which of the following is used in photo conductive cell?
T a) Selenium
b) Quartz
E c) Rochelle salt
d) Lithium sulphate
7. Which of the following device is used for measuring relative humidity?

a) Capacitive pressure transducer
A b) Hygrometer
c) Capacitive strain transducer
I d) Capacitive moisture transducer
C 8. By using the variations on a Wheatstone bridge we can

a) Measure quantities such as voltage, current and power
T
b) Measure high resistance values
E c) Measure quantities such as complex power
d) Measure quantities such as capacitance, inductance and impedance
9 The detector used in a high voltage Schering bridge is _____________

a) Tunable circuit
b) EMF source
c) vibration galvanometer
d) headphone
A
I 10 Kelvin‟s bridge consists of ____________
a) Double bridge
C b) Single bridge
c) Half bridge
T d) Three fourth bridge
E 11 Effect of negative voltage to the grid in CRO is ______________
a) No force
b) A gravitational force
c) An attractive force
d) A repulsive force
A
12 In a CRT deflection system consist of _____________
I
a) 4 plates
C b) 6 plates
c) 2 plates
T d) 8 plates
E
Page 2 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
13 The gain of the first order low pass filter

a) Increases at the rate of 20 dB/decade
A b) Increases at the rate 40 dB/decade
c) Decreases at the rate 20 dB/decade
I d) Decreases at the rate 40 dB/decade
C
14 A system with gain margin close to unity and phase margin close to zero is
T a) Highly stable
b) Oscillatory
E c) Relatively stable
d) Unstable
15 Feedback control system are:

a) Insensitive to both forward and feedback path parameter changes
A b) Less sensitive to feedback path parameter changes than to forward path
parameter changes
I c) Less sensitive to forward path parameter changes that to feedback path
parameter changes
C d) Equally sensitive to forward feedback path parameter changes
T
16 Transfer function of a system is used to calculate which of the following?
E a) The order of the system
b) The time constant
c) The output for any given input
d) The steady state gain
17 Transient response analysis is done for ____________ systems

a) Unstable
b) Stable
A c) Conditionally stable
d) Marginally stable
I
C 18 Consider a system with transfer function G(s) = s+6/ks2+s+6. Its camping ratio will be
0.5 when the value of k is:
T a) 2/6
b) 3
E c) 1/6
d) 6
19 The peak percentage overshoot of the closed loop system is:

a) 5.0%
A b) 10.0%
c) 16.3%
I d) 1.63%
C 20 In control system how the steady state error can be reduced?
a) By increasing system gain
T b) By decreasing the type of the system
c) By decreasing the static error constant
E
d) By increasing the input
Page 3 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
21 Stray capacitance effects can be minimized by ____________

a) Making use of an inductance
A b) Connecting a resistance in series
c) Shielding and grounding
I d) Using a galvanometer
C
22 Medium of transmission in landline telemetry may be______________
T a) Electrical line
b) Pneumatic line
E c) Electrical and pneumatic line
23 Amplitude of data from pulse telemetry will be ________________

a) Cannot retrieve amplitude data
A b) Pulse characteristics
c) Number of pulses
C 24 Radio telemetry is useful when source and receiver is at

a) Long distance separation
T
b) Short distance separation
E c) Varying separation distance
25 For space telemetry, carrier frequency should be ____________

a) Very high value
b) Very low value
c) Frequency appropriate to distance
d) Any value greater than 100 Hz
A
I 26 For FM modulation, what is the bandwidth allowed?
a) 0.2 MHz
C b) 0.5 MHz
c) 0.9 MHz
T d) 1 MHz
E 27 FDM is associated with __________
a) FM modulation
b) PDM/FM modulation
c) Both FM/FM and PDM/FM modulation
A
28 FM Telemetry is a/an
I
a) Analog telemetry system
C b) Digital telemetry system
c) Analog or digital depending on design
E
Page 4 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
29 For temperature measurement, thermocouple generate output voltage according to ____

a) Circuit parameters
A b) Humidity
c) Temperature
I d) Voltage
C
30 Data logger deals with _____________
T a) Digital signals
b) Analog signals
E c) Both digital and analog signals
31 Gauss law cannot be expressed in which of the following forms?

a) Differential
A b) Integral
c) Point
I d) Stokes theorem
C 32 With Gauss law as reference which of the following law can be derived?
a) Faraday‟s law
T
b) Ampere law
E c) Coulomb‟s law
d) Ohm‟s law
33 The electric flux density and electric field intensity have which of the following relation
a) Linear
b) Nonlinear
c) Inversely linear
d) Inversely nonlinear
A
I 34 Capacitor preferred when there is high frequency in the circuits is__________
a) Electrolyte capacitor
C b) Mica capacitor
c) Air capacitor
T d) Glass capacitor
E 35 What will happen to the capacitor when the source is removed?
a) It will not remain in its charged state
b) It will remain in its charged state
c) It will start discharging
d) It will become zero
A
36 The basic laws for analyzing an electric circuit are
I
a) Einstein‟s theory
C b) Newton‟s laws
c) Kirchhoff‟s laws
T d) Faraday‟s laws
E 37 A junction where two (or) more than two network elements meet is known as a _____
a) Loop
Page 5 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
b) Branch
c) Node
A d) Mesh
I 38 An ideal voltmeter has ________ equivalent resistance and ideal ammeter has
________ equivalent resistance
C a) Infinite, zero
T b) Zero, infinite
c) Unity, unity
E d) Zero, zero
39 A 25mV, 2mA D‟Arsonval movement is used in voltmeter whose full scale reading is
100V. The resistance inserted by 100V meter into the circuit is:.
a) 1 * 105 Ω
b) 1 * 106Ω
A c) 2 * 104 Ω
d) 2 * 103 Ω
I
40 Which of the following represents correct relationship between linear frequency and
C
angular frequency?
T a) f=πω
b) ω=πf
E c) f=2πω
d) ω=2 πf
41 Which of the following device can be used for measurement of frequency?

a) Voltmeter
b) Ammeter
c) Stroboscope
A
42 Which of the following frequency range represents audible frequency range of humans?
I a) Below 20Hz
C b) Between 20 Hz and 20 KHz
c) Above 20 KHz
T d) All of the mentioned
E 43 Process of physical deformation on application of electric field is described by _______

a) Electromagnetic property
b) Electro mechanical property
c) Magnetostriction property
d) Electrostriction property
A 44 Which of the following represents piezoelectric materials?
I a) Quartz
b) Rochelle salt
C c) Bernilite
T 45 Force exerted by magnetic field in Hall effect transducer is _______________
a) Lorentz force
E
b) Hall effect force
c) Magnetic force
Page 6 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
d) Electric force
A 46 LDR‟s are also called _________

a) Photo voltaic cell
I b) Photo resistive cell
C c) Photo emissive cell
T
47 Which of the following type sound generators are not possible?
E a) Piezo electric
b) Magnetostrictive
c) Both piezo electric and magnetostrictive
A 48 Piezo electric sensor can be

a) Digital transducer
I b) Temperature transducer
c) Digital transducer
C d) Inverse transducer
T
49 Strain gauge measurement involves _____________
E a) Wheatston bridge
b) Kelvin bridge
c) De Sauty‟s bridge
d) Andeson bridge
50 Strain is a ________
a) Fractional change in volume
b) Fractional change in area
A c) Fractional change in length
I d) Fractional change in height
C 51 In a typical semiconductor, strain gauge consists of how many dummy gauge?

a) 2
T b) 4
c) 6
E d) 10
52 In instrumentation, load cells are calibrated such that _________

a) Force varies inversely with resistance
b) Force varies as the square of resistance
A c) Force remains constant with resistance
d) Force varies directly with resistance
I
C
T 53 Load cell with strain gauge works on the principle of ______________
a) Variation resistance
E b) Variation of capacitance
c) Variation of inductance
Page 7 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
d) Variation of area
A 54 Poisson‟s ratio is given by _

∆𝑑/𝑑
a) 𝜇 = − ∆𝐼/𝐼
I
∆𝑑
b) 𝜇 = − ∆𝐼/𝐼
C 𝑑
c) 𝜇 = − ∆𝐼/𝐼
T ∆𝑑/𝑑
d) 𝜇 = − ∆𝐼
E
55 Which of the following strain gauge is highly sensitive?

a) Film type
b) Bounded
A c) Unbounded
d) Semiconductor
I
56 Thermistors have
C a) Positive temperature coefficient
T b) Negative temperature coefficient
c) Zero temperature coefficient
E d) Infinite temperature coefficient
57 Mutual inductance depends on _________

a) Self-inductance
b) Self-inductance and coefficient of coupling
c) Coefficient of coupling
d) Permittivity of air
A 58 What is a current transformer?
a) Transformer used with an A.C. ammeter
I b) Transformer used with an D.C. ammeter
C c) Transformer used with an A.C. voltmeter
d) Transformer used with an D.C. voltmeter
T
59 What is a potential transformer?
E a) Transformer used with an D.C. ammeter
b) Transformer used with an A.C. Voltmeter
c) Transformer used with an D.C. ammeter
d) Transformer used with an A.C. voltmeter
A 60 The primary winding of a C.T. has _________

a) A large number of turns
I b) No turns at all
c) Intermediate number of turns
C d) A few turns
T
61 In control system Bounded input and bounded output stability notion concerns with:
E a) A system under influence of input
b) A system not under influence of input
c) A system under influence of output
Page 8 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
d) A system not under influence of output
A 62 If the roots of the have negative real parts, then the response is _______
a) Stable
I b) Unstable
C c) Marginally stable
d) Bounded
T
63 Routh Hurwitz criterion gives:
E a) Number of roots in the right half of the s-plane
b) Value of the roots
c) Number of roots in the left half of the s-plane
d) Number of roots in the top half of the s-plane
A 64 Which of the following statement is correct for Routh Hurwitz criterion?

a) It gives absolute stability
I b) It gives gain and phase margin
c) It gives the number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane
C d) It gives gain, phase margin and number of roots lying in RHS of the s-plane
T
65 The addition of open loop poles pulls the root locus towards:
E a) The right and system becomes unstable
b) Imaginary axis and system becomes marginally stable
c) The left and system becomes unstable
d) The right and system becomes unstable
66 Which of the following statements is/are correct?

a) Root locus is for the negative feedback systems
b) Complementary root locus is for the positive feedback systems
A c) Root locus is for the negative feedback and complementary root locus is for the
I positive feedback systems
d) Complementary root locus is for the negative feedback system
C
67 Nichol‟s chart gives information about:
T i. Closed loop frequency response
ii. The value of the peak magnitude of the closed loop frequency response Mp.
E iii. The frequency at which Mp occurs
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) i and iii
b) i and ii
c) i and iii
A d) i, ii and iii
I
C 68 In a bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high
frequencies by a 4th order all-pole system?
T a) -80db/decade
b) -40db/decade
E c) 40db/decade
d) 80db/decade
Page 9 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
69 Real and imaginary part in the roots of the characteristic equation of the second order
A system represents the:
a) Damped frequency and damping
I b) Damping and damped frequency
C c) Natural frequency and damping ratio
d) Damping ratio and natural frequency
T
70 Which of the following gives an advantage of using Laplace transformation technique?
E a) Permit use of simple algebra
b) Converts function of t-domain to s-domain
c) Initial conditions are automatically taken care of
d) All of the above
A PART-B (30X2 = 60 Marks)

71 A device used for measuring a specific gravity of a liquid is known as:
I a) Hydrograph
b) Hydrometer
C c) Hydroscope
d) Hydrostat
T
E 72 Twelve wires of the same length and same cross section are connected in the form of a
cube as shown in figure below. If the resistance of each wire is R, then the effective
resistance between P and Q will be:
A
I
C
T
E
Q
a) R
b) 5/6R
c) 3/4R
A d) 4/3R
I
73 A capacitor “C” is to be connected across the terminals „A‟ and „B‟ as shown in the
C figure so that the power factor of the parallel combination becomes unity. The value of
the capacitance required in μF is:
T
E
Page 10 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
a) 120
A b) 45
c) 187.24
I d) 125.35
C 74 Find IN and RN in the figure given below:
T
E
A
I
C
T
E a) 3A, 3.33Ω
b) 10A, 4 Ω
c) 1.4A, 6 Ω
d) 1.5A, 4 Ω
A 75 Convert the given Delta circuit to star circuit and give the resistance values in the
obtained star circuit:
I
C
T
E
Page 11 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
13
A ΩΩ D
A
I 12 14
C ΩΩ ΩΩ
T
B C
E a) 5 Ω, 4.5 Ω, 4.67 Ω
b) 4 Ω, 4.30 Ω, 4.66 Ω
c) 3 Ω, 4Ω, 5Ω
d) 5.2 Ω, 4.2 Ω, 4.89 Ω
A 76 In the circuit given below find VAB if IAB = 5A
I 3
ΩΩ
C 2 5
T ΩΩ ΩΩ
E 5 10
A ΩΩ ΩΩ B
3 10
ΩΩ ΩΩ
9
a) 32.76V ΩΩ
A
b) 35.56V
I c) 36.12V
d) 34.21V
C
77 Calculate the current following through 10Ω resistor in the circuit shown below:
T
E
A
I
C
T
a) ±0.435A
E b) ±0.985A
c) 1.217A
d) 2.782A
Page 12 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
78 Find the power delivered by the voltage source in the network given below:
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T a) 75 Watts
b) 78 Watts
E c) 63 Watts
d) 76 Watts
79 Find the Thevenin‟s resistance for the network given:
A
I
C
T
E
A
a) 6.75Ω
I b) 6.85Ω
C c) 4.79Ω
d) 4.675Ω
T
80 Find the current rhough (5+j4)Ω resistor
E
Page 13 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
A
a) 0.9-j0.2A
I b) 1.78-j0.1 A
C c) 1.7-j0.5 A
d) 1A
T
81 Find the Norton‟s current for the circuit given below:
E
A
I
C
T
E
a) 7A
b) 4.33A
A c) 4A
d) 1.66A
I
C 82 Find the current in the 1Ω resistor of the given circuit
T
E
Page 14 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
A a) 4A
I b) 2.33A
c) 2A
C d) 4.3A
T 83 Find the gain for the following circuit.

E
A
I
C
T
a) -2
E b) 2
c) -1
d) 1
84 Determine current I1, I2 and I3.

A
I
C
T
E
Page 15 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
a) -3.3A, -8.5A, 2.4A

b) 3A, -8A, 2A
A c) 3.3A, 8.5A, -2.4A
d) 3.2A, 8.6A, 2.3A
I
C 85 Compute the voltage gain for the following circuit with input frequency 1.5 kHz.
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
a) 4dB
b) 15dB
c) 6dB
d) 12dB
A
I 86 State space analysis is applicable even if the initial conditions are _________
a) Zero
C b) Non-zero
c) Equal
T d) Not equal
E 87 Three charged cylindrical sheets are present in three spaces with σ = 5 at R = 2m, σ = -2
at R=4m and σ = -3 at R =5m. find the flux density at R=1m.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
A d) 3
I
88 A system has poles at 0.01 Hz, 1Hz and 80 Hz, zeroes at 5Hz, 100Hz and 200Hz. The
C approximate phase of the system response at 20 Hz is:
a) -90O
T b) 0O
c) 90O
E d) -180O
Page 16 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
89 The circuit shown in the figure contains a dependent current source between A and B
terminals. The Thevenin‟s equivalent resistance in kΩ between the terminals C and D
A is:
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
a) 20
T b) 27
c) 38
E d) 45
90 For given:
𝜋
𝑥 𝑡 = 3sin⁡ (1000𝜋𝑡) and 𝑦 𝑡 = 5cos⁡
(1000𝜋𝑡 + 4 )
The x-y plot will be
a) A circle
b) A multi loop closed curve
c) A hyperbola
A
d) An ellipse
I 91 A mass spring damper system with force as input and displacement of the mass as
C output has a transfer function G(s) = 1/(s2+24s+900). A force input F(t) = 10sin (70t)
Newton is applied at time t=0s. a beam form an option stroboscope is focused on the
T mass. In steady state, the strobe frequency in hertz at which the mass appears to be
stationary is
E a) 5/П
b) 15/П
c) 35/П
d) 50/П
A 92 When light falls on the photodiode shown in the following circuit, the reverse saturation
current of the photodiode changes from 100 micro ampere to 200 micro ampere
I
C
T
E
Page 17 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
Assume the op-amp to be ideal, the output voltage, Vout of the circuit
a) Does not change
b) Changes from 1V to 2V
c) Changes from 2V to 1V
d) Changes from -1V to -2
A
I 93 A strain gauge, with the specifications given above ae mounted on a structural number
in a push pull configuration, connected in a bridge along-with two standard resistances,
C whose output is fed to an amplifier as shown in the figure. The output voltage V0 per
unit battery voltage, under maximum loading, is:
T
E
A
I
a) -0.4V
C b) -0.37V
c) 3.37V
T
d) 3.4V
E
94 A thermometer at room temperature 30OC is dipped suddenly into a bath of boiling
water at 100OC. It takes 30 seconds to reach 96.5OC. The time required to reach a
temperature of 98OC is
a) 32.5s
A b) 34.6
c) 35.6s
I d) 38.6s
C 95 Calculate the resistance between A and B:

T
E
Page 18 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
A
I a) 3.56ohm
b) 7 ohm
C
c) 14.26 ohm
T d) 29.69 ohm
E 96 What is the correct expression for the phase angle in an RLC series circuit?
a) ϕ = tan-1(XL-XC)/R
b) ϕ = tan-1(XL+XC)/R
c) ϕ = tan (XL-XC)/R
d) ϕ = tan-1(XL-XC)
97 Calculate the power in an inductive circuit if the inductance is 10H, the current flowing
A in the inductor is 2A in 4s.
a) 50W
I b) 4W
c) 5W
C d) 10W
T 98 Find the source voltage when the voltage across the capacitor is 1000V and the Q factor
E is 10.
a) 10V
b) 200V
c) 100V
d) 90V
A
99 The gain of multiple-feedback band pass filter above is equal to which of the
I following? Assume C=C1 =C2.
C
T
E
Page 19 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C a) A0 = R2 /R1
b) A0 = R1 /R2
T c) A0 =R2 / 2 R1
E d) A0 = R1 / 2R2
100 Refer to the given figure. The cut-off frequency of this filter is ________, and the
circuit is known as a _____________.
A
I
C
T
E
A a) 721 Hz, low pass filter

b) 721 Hz, high pass filter
I c) 872 Hz, low pass filter
d) 821 Hz, band pass filter
C
T
E
Page 20 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
PART –C(30 Marks)

A Engineering Mathematics
I 101. Let 𝑀 be a 3 × 3 matrix over real numbers and let 1,2,3 be eigenvalues of 𝑀. Then
C
E 102. Which one is not true?

A
103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then
I 𝑎 is equal to
C 1 1 1
(𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
T
E
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘
(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
I (c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
C 107. The value of 𝑎0 in Fourier cosine series expansion of function
T
𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
E 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
3
A 108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 +𝑦 + 𝑦 4 = 0is
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
I
C (c) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4 (d) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 4
E
(a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
Page 21 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21
A
(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
I
C 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
T
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
E (a) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + sec 𝑢 = 0 (b) 𝑥 𝜕𝑥 + 𝑦 𝜕𝑦 + 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑢 = 0
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
2 𝑥2
A
I
C
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
T 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
E (a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
A
I
1
C
T
116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4
E green balls. One ball is drawn at random from each urn. The probability that one of the
ball is red and the other is blue will be
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
A 117. In a binomial distribution 𝐵(𝑛, 𝑝) the mean is 100 and the variance is 80. Then the
value of n is
I
C (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
T 118. If 3 × 3 real skew symmetric matrix has an Eigen Value 2𝑖, then one of the
remaining eigenvalue is
E
1 1
(a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
Page 22 of 23
ROLL NO. UG1ICE21

A
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
I
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
C
1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
T 120. The determinant of 1 1+𝑦 1 + 𝑦 + 𝑦 2 is equal to
1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
E
(a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2
(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 23 of 23
UG INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING / INSTRUMENTATION & CONTROL ENGINEERING
Code 21-Paper 1
1 A 31 D 61 A 91 C
2 B 32 C 62 A, D 92 D
3 C 33 A 63 A 93 Marks to all
4 D 34 B 64 A, C 94 C
5 A 35 B 65 D 95 A
6 A 36 C 66 C 96 A
7 B 37 C 67 D 97 C
8 D 38 A 68 A 98 C
9 C 39 Marks to all 69 B 99 C
10 A 40 D 70 D 100 A
11 D 41 C 71 B 101 A
12 A 42 B 72 B 102 C
13 C 43 D 73 C 103 A
14 C 44 D 74 A 104 D
15 C 45 A 75 B 105 D
16 A, B, C, D 46 B 76 D 106 A
17 B 47 D 77 A 107 A
18 C 48 B 78 C 108 B
19 A 49 A 79 A 109 D
20 A, D 50 C 80 A 110 B
21 C 51 A 81 C 111 D
22 C 52 D 82 A 112 B
23 B 53 A 83 A 113 B
24 A, B, C, D 54 A 84 Marks to all 114 B
25 A 55 D 85 D 115 B
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 C
27 A 57 A, B, C 87 A 117 B
28 A 58 A 88 A 118 C
29 C 59 B, D 89 A 119 B
30 A 60 D 90 D 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING/INSTRUMENTATION &

CONTROL ENGINEERING
A
I
PAPER-II
C Instructions:
E iv. There is no negative mark for the wrong answer. Zero mark will be awarded to the
wrong answer.
vi. Use OMR Sheet to answer the question by darkening the circle using a black or blue
A ball point pen.
C
E 1. Which of the following parameters plays an important role in improving the

performance of MOSFET device?
a) Dielectric constant
b) Threshold voltage
c) Gate to drain voltage
d) Power supply voltage
A
I 2. The range of tunnel diode voltage VD, for which slope of its V-I characteristics is
negative would be? (The VP is the peak voltage and VV is the valley voltage).
C a) VD>0
b) 0<VD<VP
T c) VD>VV
d) VV>VD>VP
E
3 Which of the following material used to construct Tunnel diodes?
a) Germanium and silicon materials
b) AIGaAs
c) AIGaInP
A d) ZnTe
I 4 Which of the following is true about the temperature coefficient or TC of the zener
diode?
C a) For zener voltage less than 5V, TC is negative
b) For zener voltage around 5V, TC can be made zero
T c) For higher values of Zener voltage, TC is positive
E d) All of the mentioned
Page 1 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
5 Which of the following can be used in series with a Zener diode so that combination has
almost zero temperature coefficient?
A a) Transistor
b) Resistor
I
c) Diode
C d) MOSFET
T 6 Zener diodes can be effectively used in voltage regulator. However, they are these days
being replaced by
E a) Operational amplifier
b) MOSFET
c) Integrated circuits
A 7 For a BJT Vt is 5V, Rc = 1000 ohm and bias current Ic is 12mA. The value of the
voltage gain is _________
I a) -1.2 V/V
b) -2.4 V/V
C c) -3.6 V/V
T d) -4.6 V/V
E 8 Find out the input resistance is a common emitter transistor amplifier has a collector
current of 10mA, when its base current is 25μA at the room temperature.
a) 2kΩ
b) 1kΩ
c) 8kΩ
d) 7 kΩ
A
I 9 A depletion type N channel MOSFET with kn W/L = 2mA/V2 and Vt = 3V has its
source and gate grounded. For Vd = 0.1V and neglecting channel length modulating
C effect. Find drain current
a) 1.28 mA
T b) 0.89 mA
c) 0.69 mA
E d) 0.34 mA
10 Which of the following is the correct relationship between IB and IE?

IE = (β + 1) IB
IB = IE
A IB = (β + 1) IE
IB = β IE
I
C
T
E
Page 2 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
11 Find out the configuration of the following MOSFET circuit
A
I
C
T
E
a) Common source (CS)

b) Common Drain (CD)
c) Common Gate (CG)
A
I 12 Find out which of the following device can be operated as a fastest switching device.
a) MOSFET
C b) Triode
c) JEFT
T d) BJT
E
13 Which of the following technique is used to reduce the magnitude of threshold voltage
of MOSFET?
a) Use of silicon nitride
b) Use of complementary MOSFET
c) Using thin film technology
A d) None of the mentioned
I 14 During the construction of ICs why MOSFET is preferred over BJT?

a) MOSFET has low packing density
C
b) MOSFET has medium packing density
T c) MOSFET has high packing density
d) MOSFET has no packing density
E
15 Which type of power transistor is chosen for a discrete power booster?
a) Emitter follower stage
b) collector follower stage
c) Base follower stage
A
I 16 Output current in the case of general purpose op-amp can be increased by using
a) Power booster
C b) Power amplifier
c) Power resistor
T d) Power comparator
E
Page 3 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
17 Which of the following device is a non-linear device?

a) Diode
A b) Resistance
c) Op-amp
I
d) Capacitor
C
18 Which of the following represents LC tuned circuit?
T a) Wien bridge oscillator
b) T oscillator
E c) Hartley oscillator
19 Which of the following oscillators have higher stability at higher frequency?

a) Wien bridge oscillator
A b) Crystal oscillator
c) RC phase shift oscillator
I d) All of the mentioned
C 20 In a multiplexer the output depends on its:
T a) Data inputs
b) Select inputs
E c) Select outputs
21 Determine the time period of monostable 555 multivibrator:

a) T=0.33RC
b) T=3RC
A c) T=1.1RC
I d) T=RC
22 In the Astable multivibrator Free running frequency is given as:
C
a) f=1.45/(RA+2RB)C
T b) f=1.45 (RA+2RB)C
c) f=1.45C/(RA+2RB)
E d) f=1.45 RA/(RA+RB)
23 The fabrication of JFET is similar to that of:
a) Diode fabrication
b) BJT fabrication
c) FET fabrication
A d) None of the mentioned
I 24 The result obtained after (100101-011110) is:
a) 000111
C
b) 111000
T c) 010101
d) 101010
E
Page 4 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
25 Carry out BCD subtraction for (68) – (61) using 10’s complement method:
a) 00000111
A b) 01110000
c) 10000011
I
d) 01111000
C
26 How many bits would be required to encode decimal numbers 0 to 9999 in straight
T binary codes:
a) 12
E b) 14
c) 18
d) 16
27 In Boolean algebra, the OR operation is performed by which properties?

A a) Associative properties
b) Commutative properties
I c) Distributive properties
C
T 28 Simplify Y = AB’ + (A’ + B)C
a) AB’ + C
E b) AB + AC
c) A’B + AC’
d) AB + A
29 Which expression is shown by the Y = AB+BC+AC

a) EX-OR
A b) POS
I c) SOP
d) NOR
C
30 The canonical sum of product form of the function y(A,B) = A+B is
T a) AB + BB + A’A
b) AB + AB’ + A’B
E c) BA + BA’ + A’B’
31 The K-map based Boolean reduction is based on the following Unifying Theorem:
A + A’ = 1
A a) Impact
b) Non-Impact
I c) Force
C
T
E
Page 5 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
32 Using the transformation method, you can realize any POS realization of OR – AND
with only
A a) XOR
b) NAND
I
c) AND
C d) NOR
T 33 Which of the following logic families has the shortest propagation delay?
a) S-TTL
E b) AS-TTL
c) HS-TTL
d) HCMOS
34 What causes low power Schottky TTL to use less power than the 74XX series in TTL?
A a) A larger value resistor
b) The Schottky clamped transistor
I c) Using NAND gates
C
T 35 Which two broad categories can be classified according to the IC fabrication process of
logic families:
E a) HTL and MOS
b) RTL and TTL
c) ECL and DTL
d) Bipolar and MOS
36 The limitations of the one transistor RTL NOR gate are overcome by
A a) Multi transistor RTL implementation
I b) Three transistor RTL implementation
c) Two transistor RTL implementation
C d) None of the mentioned
T 37 TTL circuits with “totem-pole” output stage minimize

a) The power dissipation in RTL
E b) The time consumption in RTL
c) The speed of transferring rate in RTL
d) Nothing
38 The ECL circuits are generally operated with the

A a) Negative voltage
b) Positive voltage
I c) Grounded voltage
C
T
E
Page 6 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
39 The input of a controller is

a) Sensed signal
A b) Error signal
c) Desired variable value
I
d) Signal of fixed amplitude not dependent on desired variable value
C
40 In control system excessive bandwidth is not employed because
T a) Noise is proportional to bandwidth
b) It leads to low relative stability
E c) It leads to slower time response
d) Noise is proportional to the square of the bandwidth
41 Assertion (A): Electric actuators are used control system for high torque application.
Reason (R): Due to linear Speed-Torque characteristics.
A a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
I c) A is true but R is false
C
T 42 The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the
a) Input current
E b) Step pulse frequency
c) Polarity of stator current
d) Magnitude of stator current
43 In a stepper motor having 8 stator poles and 4 rotor poles, what will be the step angle of
a permanent magnet.
A a) 80O
I b) 45O
c) 30O
C d) 25O
T 44 On the basis of internal bus architecture, the micro controllers, can be classified as
a) 8,16,32,64 bits
E b) 4,8,16,32 bits
c) 8,16 bits
d) 4,16,32 bits
45 Micro controllers are not considered as general purpose devices because

A a) They are based on VLSI technology
b) They are not meant to do a single work at a time
I c) They are cheap
d) They consume low power
C
T
E
Page 7 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
46 Which of the following supports CISC as well as Harvard architecture?

a) ARM7
A b) SHARC
c) ARM9
I
C
47 Which instruction in microprocessor is used to check the status of a single bit?
T a) MOV A, P0
b) ADD A,#05H
E c) JNB PO.0, label
d) CLR P0.05H
48 AT89C2051 Has RAM of

a) 128 bytes
b) 256 bytes
A c) 64 bytes
I d) 512 bytes
C 49 In the microprocessor/ microcontroller the advantages of assembly level programming is

a) Flexibility of programming is more
T b) Chances of error are less
c) Debugging is easy
E d) All of the mentioned
50 The stack follows the sequence as

a) First-in-first out
b) First-in-last out
c) Last -in-first out
A d) last-in-last out
I 51 The INTR interrupt may be
C a) Nonmaskable
b) Maskable
T c) Maskable and nonmaskable
E
52 At the end of ISR, the instruction should be
a) END
b) ENDS
c) IRET
d) INTR
A
53 The cascaded mode, the number of vectored interrupts provided by 8259A is
I
a) 32
C b) 8
c) 16
T d) 64
E
Page 8 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
54 In 8255A BSR mode, only port C can be used to

a) Set individual ports
A b) Reset individual ports
c) Set and reset individual ports
I
d) Programmable I/O ports
C
55 The feature of mode 2 of 8255 is
T a) Single 8 bit port is available
b) Both input and outputs are latched
E c) Port C is used for generating handshake signals
56 Which of the following have four transfer modes?

a) Intel 8237
A b) Intel 8254
c) Intel 8259
I d) Intel 8253
C 57 Which of the following requires its own local memory and program?
T a) DMA controller
b) DMA address
E c) DMA CPU
d) DMA peripheral
58 How many types of exceptions are associated with the asynchronous imprecise?
a) 1
b) 2
A c) 3
I d) 4
C 59 The most basic nonvolatile memory is

a) ROM
T b) PROM
c) EPROM
E d) Flash Memory
60 How many memory locations can be accessed by 8086?
a) 1M
b) 2M
A c) 3M
d) 4M
I
61 What does SIMM stand for?
C a) Single in line memory module
b) Single interrupt memory module
T c) Single information memory module
d) Same in line memory module
E
Page 9 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
62 Which of the following signals is monotonic?

a) x(t) = t3 -2t
A b) x(t) = sin(t)
c) x(t) = sin22(t) + cos22(t)-2t
I
d) x(t) = log(cos(t))
C
63 An example of a discrete set of information/system is
T a) The trajectory of the Sun
b) Data on a CD
E c) Universe time scale
d) Movement of water through a pipe
64 In the discrete time system comment on the causality of: y[n] = x[n+3].
a) Anti-Causal
A b) Non Casual
c) Casual
C 65 If n tends to infinity, Is the accumulator function an unstable one?
T a) The function is marginally stable
b) The function is unstable
E c) The function is stable
66 Is the system h(t) = exp(-jwt) stable?

a) Yes
b) No
A c) Cannot say
C 67 The consequences of marginally stable system are:

a) The system will turn out to be critically damped
T b) The system will be an overdamped system
c) It will be damped system
E d) Purely oscillatory system
68 IF h1, h2 and h3 are cascaded, and h1 = u(t), h2 = exp(t) and h3 = sin(t), find the overall
impulse response:
a) sin(t)*exp(t)*u(t)
A b) sin(t)+exp(t)+u(t)
c) u(t)*sin(t)
I d) all of the mentioned
C
T
E
Page 10 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
69 The emitter current IE in a transistor is 3mA. If the leakage current ICBO is 5µA and
α=0.98, calculate the collector and base current
A a) 3.64mA and 35µA
b) 2.945mA and 55µA
I
c) 3.64mA and 33µA
C d) 5.89mA and 65µA
T 70 How many complex multiplications are performed in computing the N-point DFT of a
sequence using divide and conquer method if N=LM?
E a) N(L+M+2)
b) N(L+M-2)
c) N(L+M-1)
d) N(L+M+1)
A 71 What is the z transformation of the finite duration signal?

𝑥 (n)= {2,4,5,7,0,1}
I ↑
a) 2+4z +5z2+7z3 +z4
C b) 2+4z +5z2+7z3 +z5
T c) 2+4z-1 +5z-2+7z-3 +z-5
d) 2z2+4z +5 +7z-1 +z-3
E
72 In biomedical the signals generated by body sign al is known as
a) Ionic voltage
b) Monitory single
c) Magnetic signal
A
I 73 Resting potential is shown by the which of the following cell
a) Depolarized cell
C b) Polarized cell
c) Ionic cell
T d) Resting cell
E 74 What are the tolerance value that are obtained by using ECG process?
a) ±0.01 mm
b) ±0.03 mm
c) ±0.05 mm
d) ±0.07 mm
A
75 The tolerance values in ECG depend on which of the following factors?
I a) Electrolyte flow
b) Feed rate
C c) Metallurgy of material
T d) All of the mentioned
E
Page 11 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
76 What are the values of radii of corners obtained in ECG?

a) 0.13 to 0.227 mm
A b) 0.25 to 0.375 mm
c) 0.46 to 0.525 mm
I
d) 0.55 to 0.675 mm
C
77 The vectored address corresponding to the software interrupt command RST7 in 8085
T microprocessors is
a) 0017H
E b) 0027H
c) 0038H
d) 0700H
78 Watervapour absorbs electromagnetic radiation primarily in the range of
a) X-ray
A b) IR
I c) UV
d) Gamma-ray
C
79 Which one of the following cannot be connected directly to the output module of PLC?
T a) Lamp
b) Push button
E c) LED
d) Motor
80 Signal averaging is a technique used to
a) Fuse the sensory information
b) Remove errors in repetitive signal
A c) Add multi sensor information
d) None of above
I
C PART-B (40X2 = 80 Marks)
T 81 A 9.1-V zener diode exhibits its nominal voltage at a test current of 28 mA. At this
current the incremental resistance is specified as 5Ω. Find Vz0 of the zener model.
E a) 8.96V
b) 9.03V
c) 9.17V
d) 9.24V
82 A designer requires a shunt regulator of approximately 20V. Two kinds of Zener diodes
A are available: 6.8V devices with rz of 10Ω and 5.1V devices with rz of 30Ω. For the two
major choices possible, find the load regulation. Inthis calculation neglect the effect of
I
the regulator resistance R.
C a) -30mV/mA and 120 mV/mA respectively
b) 30mV/mA and 60 mV/mA respectively
T c) -60mV/mA and +60 mV/mA respectively
d) -30mV/mA and -120 mV/mA respectively
E
Page 12 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
83 Efficiency of a centre tapped full wave rectifier is __________.

a) 52%
A b) 46%
c) 70%
I
d) 81.2%
C
84 A full wave rectifier delivers 50W to a load of 200Ω. If the ripple factor is 2%, calculate
T the AC ripple across the load
a) 2V
E b) 5V
c) 4V
d) 1V
85 Ripple factor of a half wave rectifier is ________ (Im is the peak current and RL is load
A resistance).
a) 1.414
I b) 1.21
c) 1.4
C d) 0.48
T
86 Find the output waveform for when Vin< Vref as the circuit given below:
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
87 The transistor in the circuit below is biased at a dc collector current of 0.5 mA. What is
I the voltage gain?
C
T
E
Page 13 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
I
C
T
a) -100 V/V
E
b) -10 V/V
c) -1 V/V
d) -1000 V/V
88 For the amplifier circuit of fig. The transistor has β of 800. The mid band voltage gain
A VO/VIN of the circuit will be ______________
I
C
T
E
A
I
a) 0
C b) <1
c) =1
T d) 800
E 89 In the NMOS transistor of the circuit shown below is biased to have gm =1mA/V and
ro=100kΩ.
A
I
C
T
E
Page 14 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
Find fH if Cgs = 1 pF and Cgd =0.2pF
C a) 875 kHz
T b) 875 kHz
c) 875 Khz
E d) 875 kHz
90 An inverting amplifier with nominal gain of -20V/V employs an op amp having a dc

gain of 104 and unity gain frequency of 106 Hz. What is the 3-db frequency f3dB of
closed loop amplifier?
a) 2π 23.8 kHz
A b) 2π 47.6 kHz
c) 2π 71.4 kHz
I
d) 2π 95.2 kHz
C
91 A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400 rpm has a
T pulse rate of –pps
a) 4000
E b) 8000
c) 6000
d) 10000
92 If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36O and a step angle of 9O, the number of
A its phases must be
a) 4
I b) 6
c) 3
C
d) 8
T
E
Page 15 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
93 What is the DFT of the four point sequence x(n)={0,1,2,3}?

a) {6, -2+2j-2,-2-2j}
A b) {6,-2-2j,2,-2+2j}
c) {6,-2+2j,-2,-2-2j}
I
d) {6,-2-2j,-2,-2+2j}
C
94 Which of the following operation is performed by the blocks given in the figure below?
T
E
A
I a) Sampling rate conversion by factor I
b) Sampling rate conversion by factor D
C c) Sampling rate conversion by factor D/I
d) Sampling rate conversion by factor I/D
T
E 95 The impulses response of an LTI system is given as:sin wcn
𝜔𝑐
n=0
𝜋
=sin wcn n ≠0
𝜋𝑛
A It represents an ideal
a) Non causal, low pass filter
I b) Causal, low pass filter
c) Non causal, high pass filter
C d) Causal, high pass filter
T 96 Discrete time signal x[n] is obtained by sampling an analog signal at 10 kHz. The signal
x[n] is filtered by a system with impulse response h[n]=0.5 {δ[n]+ δ[n-1]}. The 3db
E
cutoff frequency of the filter is
a) 1.25 kHz
b) 2.50 kHz
c) 4.00 kHz
d) 5.00 kHz
A
97 A plant has an open loop transfer function,
I
20
Gp(s)= (𝑠+0.1)(𝑠+2)(𝑠+100)
C
The approximate model obtained by retaining only one of the above poles, which is
T close to the frequency response of the original transfer function at low frequency is
E
Page 16 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
0.1
(a)
𝑠+0.1
A (b)
2
𝑠+2
I 100
(c)
𝑠+100
C
20
(d)
𝑠+0.1
T
E 98 In order to remove respiration related motion artifacts from an ECG signal, the
following filter should be used:
a) Low pass filter with fc=0.5 Hz
b) High pass filter with fc=0.5 Hz
c) High pass filter with fc=49.5 Hz
d) Band pass filter with pass band between 0.1 Hz and 0.5 Hz
A
99 Consider the control system shown in figure with feed forward action for rejection of a
I measurable disturbance d(t). the value of K, for which the disturbance response at the
output y(t) is zero mean, is:
C
T
E
A
a) 1
I b) -1
c) 2
C
d) -2
T
100 Given the discrete time sequence x[n] = [2,0, -1, -3,4,1, -1], X(ejΠ) is
E a) 8
b) 6Π
c) 8Π
d) 6
101 For N-bit successive approximation ADCs other parameters such as clock frequency
A
remaining constant, the conversion time is proportional to
I a) N2
C b)
c) logN
T d) N
E
Page 17 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
102 In the circuit shown in the figure, assuming ideal diode characteristics with zero forward
resistance and 0.7V forward drop, the average value of Vo when the input waveform is
A as shown as:
I
C
T
E
A a) -0.7 V
b) -1.0 V
I
c) -2.0 V
C d) -2.7 V
T 103 In an 8085 microprocessor the value of the stack pointer (SP) is 2010 and that of DE
register pair is 1234H before the following code is executed. The value of the DE
E register pair after the following code is executed is
LXI H, 0000H
PUSH H
PUSH H
POP B
A DAID SP
XCHG
I
a) 200EH
C b) 200CH
T c) 2010H
d) 1232H
E
104 Notwithstanding overflow, the addition and subtraction of K-bit signed binary number
can be realized using One K-bit full adde3r and
a) K 2-Input AND Gates
b) K 2-Input NOR Gates
c) K 2-Input OR Gates
A d) K 2-Input XOR Gates
I
105 Identify the logic gate given in the figure
C
T
E
Page 18 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
a) NOR
b) NAND
A c) AND
d) OR
I
106 A quartz clock employs a ceramic crystal with a nominal resonance frequency of 32.768
C kHz. The clock loose 30.32 s every 23 days. The actual resonance frequency of the
crystal is
T
a) 32.7685 kHz
E b) 32.768 kHz
c) 32.7675 kHz
d) 32.7670 kHz
107 The parameters of the JEET in Fig. are: gm= 1 mA/V, rd = 15kΩ. Neglecting the effect
of capacitor for A.C., analysis, the small signal A.C. voltage gain for the circuit is
A
I
C
T
E
a) -30
b) -10
A c) +4
d) +60
I
108 The sink current of the TTL NAND gate shown in Fig is 16mA and the input
C capacitance of the CMOS NAND gate is 10pF. The minimum pull up time constant in
ns for the CMOS gate with these specifications is
T
E
Page 19 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
a) 10.2
b) 7.5
c) 8.5
d) 6.5
A 109 In Fig., initially Q=A=B=0. After three clock triggers, the states of Q,A and B will be
respectively
I
C
T
E
a) 110
A b) 011
I c) 001
d) 101
C
110 7EH and 5FH and XORed. The output is multiplied by 10H. The result is
T a) 0210H
b) 7E5FH
E
c) 5F7EH
d) 2100H
111 The following 8085 instructions are executed sequentially

PROG: XRA A
A MOV L,A
MOV H, L
I INX H
DAD H
C
T
E
Page 20 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A After execution, the content of HL register pair is

a) 0000H
I
b) 0101H
C c) 0001H
d) 0002H
T
E 112 Consider the linear circuit with and ideal op-amp shown in the figure:
A
I
C
T
E
The Z-parameters of the two port feedback network are Z11 = Z22 = 11kΩ and Z12 =
Z21 = 1kΩ. The gain of the amplifier is
a) +110
b) +11
c) -1
A
d) -120
I
C 113 A FET source follower is shown in the figure below
T
E
A
I
The nature of feedback in this circuit is
C a) Positive current
b) Negative current
T c) Positive voltage
d) Negative voltage
E
Page 21 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
114 The ECG of a patient is being recorded using the three standard frontal plane leads. If,
I
the cardiac vector is oriented at an angle of 45 degrees to Lead I and has amagnitude of
C 3mV, the voltages seen on leads, I, II and III are:
a) 1.50, 2.27 and 0.77 mV
T b) 2.12, 0.77, and 2.89 mV
c) 2.12, 3.15 and 1.03 mV
E d) 2.12, 2.89, and 0.77 Mv
115 The H-D curves of two X-ray films, F1 and F2, are shown below:
A
I
C
T
E
a) The curves show that, for the save change in exposure, F1 has
b) Higher contrast than F2 but the same fog level
A c) Lower contrast than F2 but the same fog level
d) Higher contrast and higher fog level than F2
I e) Lower contract than F2 but higher fog level
C
116 Match the following biomedical instrumentation techniques with their application
T P. Otoscopy U. Respiratory volume measurement
Q. Ultrasound Technique V. Ear Diagnostics
E R. Spirometry W. Echo cardiography
S. Thermodilution technique X. Heart volume measurement
a) P-U;Q-V;R-X;S-W
a) P-V;Q-U;R-X;S-W
b) P-V;Q-W;R-U;S-X
A c) P-V;Q-W,R-X,S-U
I
C
T
E
Page 22 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
117 Find the op-amp common mode configuration:
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
118 Calculate the common mode voltage gain for the circuit:
A
I
C
T
E
a) 30*10-3
b) 17*10-3
A c) 51*10-3
I d) 2.4*10-3
C 119 Determine the common mode output voltage. Given CMRR=65db
T
E
Page 23 of 24
ROLL NO. UG2ICE21
A
I
C
T
E
a) 2.81mV
A b) 281.17mV
c) 28.11mV
I d) 0.281Mv
C
120 In CB configuration, the value of α = 0.98A. A voltage drop of 4.9V is obtained across
T the resistor of 5KΩ when connected in collector circuit. Find the base current.
a) 0.01mA
E b) 0.07 mA
c) 0.02 mA
d) 0.05 mA
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 24 of 24
UG INSTRUMENTATION ENGINEERING / INSTRUMENTATION & CONTROL ENGINEERING
Code 21-Paper 2
1 B 31 B 61 A 91 Marks to all
2 D 32 D 62 C 92 A
3 A 33 B 63 B 93 C
4 D 34 A 64 A 94 Marks to all
5 C 35 D 65 B 95 Marks to all
6 C 36 A 66 Marks to all 96 B
7 Marks to all 37 A 67 D 97 A, D
8 B 38 A 68 A 98 B
9 Marks to all 39 B 69 B 99 D
10 A 40 A 70 D 100 D
11 C 41 A 71 C 101 D
12 A 42 B 72 A 102 B
13 A 43 B 73 B 103 A
14 C 44 A 74 Marks to all 104 D
16 A 46 B 76 Marks to all 106 C
17 A 47 C 77 C 107 B
18 C 48 A 78 C 108 B
19 B 49 D 79 B 109 D
20 B 50 C 80 B 110 A
21 C 51 B 81 A 111 D
22 A 52 C 82 D 112 D
23 B 53 D 83 D 113 D
24 A 54 C 84 A 114 D
26 B 56 A 86 Marks to all 116 Marks to all
27 D 57 C 87 A 117 B
28 A 58 B 88 C 118 D
29 C 59 A 89 A, B, C, D 119 Marks to all
30 B 60 A 90 Marks to all 120 C
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING/MECHANICAL & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

A
I
C PAPER-1
T Instructions:
E questions.
A wrong answer.
E
PART-A (70 X 1= 70)
1. The deformation of a bar under its own weight as compared to that when subjected to a
direct axial load equal to its own weight will be
A
(a) the same (b) one-fourth (c) half (d) double
I
2. Which one of the following statements is correct? A beam is said to be of uniform
C
strength, if
T (a) the bending moment is the same throughout the beam
(b) the shear stress is the same throughout the beam
E (c) the deflection is the same throughout the beam
(d) the bending stress is the same at every section along its longitudinal axis
3. lf the value of Poisson's ratio is zero, then it means that

(a) the material is rigid.
(b) the material is perfectly plastic.
A (c) there is no longitudinal strain in the material
(d) the longitudinal strain in the material is infinite
I
4. What is the phenomenon of progressive extension of the material i.e. strain increasing
C with the time at a constant load, called
T (a) Plasticity (b) Yielding (c) Creeping (d) Breaking
E
Page 1 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
5. Which one of the following features improves the fatigue strength of a metallic material?
A (a) Increasing the temperature (b) Scratching the surface
(c) Overstressing (d) Under stressing
I
6. An axial residual compressive stress due to a manufacturing process is present on the
C outer surface of a rotating shaft subjected to bending. Under a given bending load, the
fatigue life of the shaft in the presence of the residual compressive stress is
T (a) decreased
(b) increased or decreased, depending on the external bending load
E (c) neither decreased nor increased
(d) increased
7. For a linearly elastic, isotropic and homogeneous material, the number of elastic
constants required to relate stress and strain is
A
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) six
I
8. The independent elastic constants for a homogenous and isotropic material are
C
(a) E, G, K, v (b) E, G, K (c) E, G, v (d) E, G
T
9. The number of elastic constants for a completely anisotropic elastic material which
E follows Hook’s Law is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 21 (d) 25
10. The unit of elastic modulus is the same as those of
A (a) stress, shear modulus and pressure

(b) strain, shear modulus and force
I (c) shear modulus, stress and force
(d) Stress, strain and pressure
C
11. For an isotropic, homogeneous and linearly elastic material, which obeys Hooke’s Law,
T the number of independent elastic constant is
E (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 6
12. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of nut on a bolt
1. Tensile stress due to the stretching of bolt

2. Bending stress due to the bending of bolt
A
3. Crushing and shear stresses in threads
4. Torsional shear stress due to frictional resistance between the nut and the bolt
I
C Select the correct answer using the codes given below
T Codes
(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
E
Page 2 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
13. The temperature stress is a function of

1. Coefficient of linear expansion
A 2. Temperature rise
3. Modulus of elasticity
I
The correct answer is
C
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
T
14. During tensile-testing of a specimen using a Universal Testing Machine, the parameters
actually measured include
E
(a) true stress and true strain (b) Poisson’s ratio and Young’s modulus
(c) engineering stress and engineering strain (d) load and elongation

A (1) A round bar in a round hole form a turning pair
(2) A square bar in a square hole forms a sliding pair
I (3) A vertical shaft in a foot step bearing forms a successful constraint
C Of these statements
T
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
E
16. The minimum number of links in a single degree-of-freedom planar mechanism with
both Higher and lower kinematic pairs is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

A
17. Which of the following are examples of forced closed kinematic pairs?
I 1. Cam and roller mechanism 2. Door closing mechanism
3. Slider-crank mechanism 4. Automotive clutch operating mechanism
C
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
T
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
E
18. Consider the following pairs of parts:
1. Pair of gear in mesh 2. Belt and pulley 3. Cylinder and Piston 4. Cam and follower
Among these, the higher pairs are

A
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
I
19. Which of the following is a higher pair?
C
(a) Gear Pair (b) Turning pair (c) Screw pair (d) Sliding pair
T
E
Page 3 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
20. In a four-ink kinematic chain, the relation between the number of links (L) and number
of pair (j) is
A
(a) L=2j+4 (b) L=2j-4 (c) L=4j+2 (d) L=4j-2
I
21. f=3(n-1)-2j. In the Grubler’s equation for planar mechanisms given, j is the
C
T (a) Number of mobile links (b) Number of links

(c) Number of lower pairs (d) Length of the longest link
E
22. For L number of link in a mechanism, the number of possible in versions is equal to
(a) L-2 (b) L-1 (c) L (d) L+1
23. The number of inversions for a slider crank mechanisms

A
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
I
24. A four-bar chain has
C
(a) all turning pairs
T (b) one turning pair and the others are sliding pairs
(c) one sliding pair and the others are turning pairs
E (d) all sliding pairs
25. Iron is
(a) Paramagnetic (b) Ferroelectric (c) Dielectric (d) Ferromagnetic

A 26. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of
I (a) Sulphur, Phosphorus, lead (b) Chromium and Nickel
(b) Vanadium, Aluminium (d) Zinc
C
27. Cyaniding is the process of
T
E (a) Dipping steel in cyanide batch (b) Obtaining cyanide salts

(c) Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment (d) None of the above
28. Brass (alloy of Copper and Zinc) is an example of
(a) Substitutional solid solution (c) Interstitial solid solution

A (b) Intermetallic compounds (d) None of the above
I 29. The hardness of steel depends primarily on
C (a) % of carbon
(b) % of alloying elements
T (c) Shape of carbides and their distribution
(d) Heat Treatment method
E
Page 4 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
30. Pearlite is a combination of

A (a) Ferrite and cementite (b) Cementite and gamma iron
(c) Pearlite and ferrite (d) Ferrite andiron graphite
I
31. Which element when added to steel imparts high strength and toughness
C
T (a) Magnesium (b) Manganese (c) Sulphur (d) Tungsten
E 32. The imperfection in the crystal structure of metal is called
(a) Dislocation (b) Slip (c) Fracture (d) Impurity
33. In which of the following cases, creep is important
A (a) Gas turbine blades (b) Cycle chains

(c) Cast iron pipes (d) Flywheel of steam engine
I
34. Which of the following is used for bearing liner
C
(a) Gun metal (b) Bell metal (c) Babbit metal (d) Brass
T
35. The crystal structure of brass is
E
(a) FCC (b) BCC
(c) HCP (d) OCS (Orthorhombic Crystalline structure)
36. In structure, all metals are

A (a) Crystalline (b) Granular (c) Wrought (d) Amorphous
I 37. Foundry crucibles are made of
C
(a) Mild steel (b) Lead (c) Graphite (d) Cast Iron
T
38. The basic unit of angular measurement is
E (a) Degree (b) Minute (c) Right angle (d) Second
39. Quick return mechanism is used in
(a) Milling machine (b) Broaching machine

(c) Slotting machine (d) Welding machine
A
40. What is the usual ratio of forward to return stroke in a shaper?
I
(a) 3:2 (b) 2:1 (c)1:2 (d) 2:3
C 41. Drilling is an example of
T (a) Orthogonal cutting (b) Oblique cutting
(c) Uniform cutting (d) Simple cutting
E
Page 5 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
42. Which of the following abrasives is hardest?

A (a) Aluminium oxide (b) Silicon carbide
(c) Cubic boron carbide (d) Diamond
I
43. The number of helical grooves which are present in a standard twist drill is usually
C
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
T
44. Chromium in HSS tool is
E
(a) 0.6% (b) 1.0 % (c) 2.0% (d) 4.0%
45. The operation of sharpening a grinding wheel is called
(a) Trueing (b) Aligning (c) Dressing (d) Balancing

A
46. A heat engine receives heat from a source at 1500 K at a rate of 600 kJ/s and rejects the
I waste heat to a sink at 300 K. If the power output of the engine is 400 kW, the second-
law efficiency of this heat engine is
C
(a) 42% (b) 53% (c) 83% (d)67%
T
47. Keeping the limitations imposed by the second-law of thermodynamics in mind, choose
E the wrong statement below:
(a) A heat engine cannot have a thermal efficiency of 100%

(b) For all reversible processes, the second-law efficiency is 100%
(c) The second-law efficiency of a heat engine cannot be greater than its thermal
efficiency
A
(d) the second-law efficiency of a process is 100% if no entropy is generated during that
I process.
C 48. For specified limits for the maximum and minimum temperatures, the ideal cycle with
the lowest thermal efficiency is
T
(a) Carnot (b) Stirling (c) Ericsson (d) Otto
E
49. For a gas whose equation of state is P(v-b)=RT, the specific heat difference cp – cv is
equal to
(a) R (b) R-b (c) R+b (d) 0
A 50. A substance whose Joule-Thomson coefficient is negative is throttled to a lower

pressure. During this process, (select the correct statement)
I
(a) the temperature of the substance will increase
C (b) the temperature of the substance will decrease
(c) the entropy of the substance will remain constant
T (d) the entropy of the substance will decrease
E
Page 6 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
51. Consider a gas mixture that consists of three components. The number of independent
variables that need to be specified to fix the state of the mixture is
A
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
I
52. The heat conduction equation in a medium is given in its simplest form as
C
Select the wrong statement below
T
(a) the medium is of cylindrical shape
E (b) the thermal conductivity of the medium is constant
(c) heat transfer through the medium is steady
(d) heat conduction through the medium is one-dimensional
53. The Biot number can be thought of as the ratio of
A (a) the conduction thermal resistance to the convective thermal resistance

(b) the convective thermal resistance to the conduction thermal resistance
I (c) the thermal energy storage capacity to the conduction thermal resistance
(d) the thermal energy storage capacity to the convection thermal resistance
C
54. The ------- number is a significant dimensionless parameter for forced convection and the
T ------- number is a significant dimensionless parameter for natural convection.
E (a) Reynolds, Grashof (b) Reynolds, Mach

(c) Reynolds, Eckert (d) Reynolds, Schmidt
55. For the same initial conditions, one can expect the laminar thermal and momentum
boundary layers on a flat plate to have the same thickness when the Prandtl number of
the flowing fluid is
A
(a) Close to zero (b) Small (c) Approximately one (d) Large
I
56. The coefficient of friction Cf for a fluid flowing across a surface in terms of the surface
C
shear stress, τs, is given by
T
(a) 2ρV2 / τs (b) 2τs /ρV2 (c) 2τs /ρV2∆T (d) 4τs /ρV2
E
57. The bulk or mixed temperature of a fluid flowing through a pipe or duct is defined as
1 1
(a) 𝑇𝑏 = 𝐴 𝑇𝑑𝐴𝑐 (b) 𝑇𝑏 = 𝑚 𝑇𝜌𝑉𝑑𝐴𝑐
𝑐 𝐴𝑐 𝐴𝑐
1 1
A (c) 𝑇𝑏 = 𝑚 𝐴𝑐
ℎ𝜌𝑉𝑑𝐴𝑐 (d) 𝑇𝑏 = 𝐴 𝐴𝑐
ℎ𝑑𝐴𝑐
𝐶
I 58. When boiling a saturated liquid, one must be careful while increasing the heat flux to
avoid ‘burnout’. Burnout occurs when the boiling transitions from-------- boiling.
C
(a) convection to nucleate (b) convection to film
T
(c) film to nucleate (d) nucleate to film
E
Page 7 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
59. When the ------ is unity, one can expect the momentum and mass transfer by diffusion to
be the same
A
(a) Grashof (b) Reynolds (c) Lewis (d) Schmidt
I
60. The absolute viscosity μ of a fluid is primarily a function of
C
T (a) density (b) temperature (c) pressure (d) velocity
E 61. A floating body will always be stable when its
(a) CG is above the center of buoyancy

(b) center of buoyancy is below the waterline
(c) center of buoyancy is above itsmetacentre
(d) metacentre is above CG
A
62. In flow through a straight, smooth pipe, the Reynolds number based on diameter for
I transition to turbulence is generally taken to be
C (a) 1500 (b) 2300 (c) 4000 (d) 250,000
T 63. A low specific speed Francis turbine is
E (a) Axial flow turbine (b)Tangential flow turbine

(c) Mixed flow turbine (d) Radial flow turbine
64. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following
(a) Newton’s Law of motion (b) Newton’s law of viscosity

A (c) Pascal Law (d) Continuity equation
I 65. Which of the following is dimensionless?
C
(a) specific weight (b) specific volume (c) specific speed (d) specific gravity
T
66. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain
E
(a) tensile stress (b) compressive stress (c) shear stress (d) bending stress
67. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low

A (b) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(c) its density is less
I (d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
C 68. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a submarine
moving in deep sea
T
(a) Venturimeter (b) Orifice plate (c) pitot tube (d) rotameter
E
Page 8 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
69. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature

A (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains unaffected (d) unpredictable
I
70. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow
C
(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
T (b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
E (d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
71. A wooden beam of rectangular cross-section 10 cm deep by 5 cm wide carries maximum

A shear force of 2000 kg. Shear stress at neutral axis of the beam section is
I (a) zero (b) 40 kgf/cm2 (c) 60 kgf/cm2 (d) 80 kgf/cm2
C 72. The ratio of average shear stress to the maximum shear stress in a beam with a square
cross-section is
T
(a) 1 (b) 2/3 (c) 3/2 (d) 2
E
73. A circular shaft subjected to twisting moment results in maximum shear stress of 60
MPa. Then the maximum compressive stress in the material is

A 74. A solid circular shaft is subjected to the pure torsion. The ratio of maximum shear to
maximum normal stress at any point would be
I
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 2:1 (d) 2:3
C
75. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 N.m. The value of
T
maximum shear stress developed is
E
(a) 37.72 MPa (b) 47.72 MPa (c) 57.72 MPa (d) 67.72 MPa
76. The number of degrees of freedom of a planar linkage with 8 links and 9 simple revolute
joints is
A (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
I 77. When a cylinder is located in a Vee-lock, then number of degrees of freedom which are
arrested is
C
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 8
T
E
Page 9 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
78. Coriolis component of acceleration is used in

A (a) four bar mechanism (b) Slider crank mechanism
(c) Quick return motion mechanism (d) Hand pump mechanism
I
79. A planar mechanism has 8 links and 10 rotary joints. The number of degrees of freedom
C
of the mechanism, using Grubler’s criterion, is
T
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
E
80. A point on a connecting line (excluding endpoints) of a double slider crank Mechanism
traces a
(a) straight line path (b) hyperbolic path

(c) parabolic path (d) elliptical path
A
81. For same tool life, maximum material per minute is removed by increasing
I
(a) Cutting speed (b) Feed (c) Depth of cut (d) Clearance angle
C
82. Discontinuous chips will be formed when mechanism speed is
T
(a) High (b) Low (c) Medium (d) Irrespective of cutting speed
E
83. Which of the following is a natural abrasive?
(a) Al2O3 (b) Corundum (c) SiC (d) Boron Carbide
84. In spark erosion machining process, removal of metal takes place during
A
(a) Charging of the capacitor (b) Discharging of the capacitor
I (c) Alternate cycles only (d) All the times
C 85. Which of the following is not a production process for gears?

(a) Milling (b) Stamping (c) Hot rolling (d) Broaching
T
86. An oil has a kinematic viscosity of 1.25E-4 m2/s and a specific gravity of 0.80. What is
E its dynamic (absolute) viscosity in kg/m·s)?
(a) 0.08 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.125 (d) 1.0
87. Two parallel plates, one moving at 4 m/s and the other fixed, are separated by a 5-mm-
thick layer of oil of specific gravity 0.80 and kinematic viscosity 1.25E-4 m2/s. what is
A the average shear stress in the oil?
I (a) 80 Pa (b) 100 Pa (c) 125 Pa (d) 160 Pa

88. Given the steady, incompressible velocity distribution V = 3xi + Cyj +0k, where C is a
C constant, if conservation of mass is satisfied, the value of C should be
T (a) -3 (b) 3/2 (c) 0 (d) -3/2
E
Page 10 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
89. Oil (μ=0.1 kg/(m.s), SG=0.9) flows through a 50-m-long smooth 8-cm diameter pipe.
The maximum pressure drop for which laminar flow is expected is approximately
A
(a) 30 kPa (b) 70 kPa (c) 50kPa (d) 60 kPa
I
90. What is the excess pressure in a cylindrical liquid jet over the pressure of the surrounding
C
atmosphere? If σ is the surface tension and r is the radius of the jet
T
(a) ∆p = 2σ/r (b) ∆p = 4σ/r (c) ∆p = σ/r (d) ∆p = r/σ
E
91. A 2-kW electric resistance heater in a room is turned on and kept on for 30 min. The
amount of energy transferred to the room by the heater is
(a) 1kJ (b) 60 kJ (c) 1800 kJ (d) 3600 kJ
A 92. Heat is transferred steadily through a 0.2 m thick 8 m by 4 m wall at a rate of 1.6 kW.
The inner and outer surface temperatures of the wall are measured to be 15oC to 5oC.
I The average thermal conductivity of the wall is
C (a) 0.001 W/m.oC (b) 0.5 W/m.oC (c) 1.0 W/m.oC (d) 2.0 W/m.oC
T 93. A heat engine receives heat from a source at 1000oC and rejects the waste heat to a sink
at 50oC. If heat is supplied to this engine at a rate of 100 kJ/s, the maximum power this
E heat engine can produce is
(a) 25.4 kW (b) 55.4 kW (c) 74.6 kW (d) 95.0 kW
94. An apple with an average mass of 0.15 kg and average specific heat of 3.65 kJ/kgoC is
cooled from 20oC to 5oC. The entropy change of the apple is
A
(a) – 0.0288 kJ/K (b) – 0.192 kJ/K (c) – 0.526 kJ/K (d) 0 kJ/K
I
95. An ideal gas mixture whose apparent molar mass is 36 kg/kmol consist of nitrogen N2
C
and three other gases. If the mole fraction of nitrogen is 0.30, its mass fraction is
T
(a) 0.15 (b) 0.23 (c) 0.30 (d) 0.39
E
96. The variation of temperature in a plane wall is determined to be T(x) =110-48x where x
is in m and T is in oC. If the thickness of the wall is 0.75 m, the temperature difference
between the inner and outer surface of the wall is
(a) 110oC (b) 74oC (c) 55oC (d) 36oC

A
97. Heat is generated in a 1 cm long and 0.3 cm diameter cylindrical electrical heater at a
I rate of 150 W/cm3. The heat flux at the surface of the heater in steady operation is
C (a) 42.7 W/cm2 (b) 159 W/cm2 (c) 150 W/cm2 (d) 11.3 W/cm2
E
Page 11 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24
98. Consider two walls, A and B, with the same surface areas and the same temperature
drops across their thicknesses. The ratio of thermal conductivities is kA/kB=4 and the
A ratio of the wall thicknesses is LA/LB =2. The ratio of heat transfer rates through the
wall is
I
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4
C
99. Engine oil at 60oC (μ=0.07399 kg/m.s, ρ = 864 kg/m3) flows in a 5-cm-diameter tube
T with a velocity of 1.3 m/s. The pressure drop along a fully developed 6-m long section
of the tube is
E (a) 2.9 kPa (b) 5.2 kPa (c) 7.4 kPa (d) 10.5 kPa
100. Consider a surface at -5oC in an environment at 25oC. The maximum rate of heat that
can be emitted from this surface by radiation is
(a) 0 W/m2 (b) 155 W/m2 (c) 293 W/m2 (d) 354 W/m2
A
I PART –C
C
T
E

A (b) 𝐴 is orthogonal then 𝐴𝑇 is also orthogonal
I (d) Determinant of an orthogonal matrix is ±1
C 103. If the area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 2 and 𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 is 1 (one square unit). Then 𝑎
is equal to
T
1 1 1
E (𝑎) (b) (c) (d) 3
3 3 2
104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2)
2
is
(a) 2𝑖 + 28𝑗 + 9𝑘 (b) 2𝑖 − 24𝑗 − 9𝑘

(c) 2𝑖 + 24𝑗 − 9𝑘 (d) 2𝑖 − 28𝑗 + 9𝑘
A 𝑥 𝑦
𝑦 𝑥
I (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0
C
T (A) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0
E
Page 12 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24

A 𝑙
𝑘𝑥; 0 < 𝑥 ≤ 2
I 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑙 is
2
C 𝑘𝑙 𝑘𝑙
(a) (b) 𝑘𝑙 (c) 2𝑘𝑙 (d)
2 4
T 3
108. The differential equation 𝑥 2 +𝑦 + 𝑦 4 = 0 is
E 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

I (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32
T (a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1
E 𝑥+𝑦
𝑥+ 𝑦
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 𝜕𝑢 1
A
2 𝑥2

T
𝑑𝑦 2 𝑑𝑦
E 113. Solution of the differential equation − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0 is
𝑑𝑥
(a) 𝑦 = 2 (b) 𝑦 = 2𝑥
(c) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 4 (d) 𝑦 = 2𝑥 2 − 4
I
𝑥3 𝑦2
(a) 𝑦 = ±𝑥 2 (b) 𝑦 = (c) 𝑦 = 𝑥 (d) 𝑥 =
6 6
C
E
Page 13 of 14
ROLL NO. UG1AME24

A 1
(a) sin (log 𝑥) − cos(log 𝑥) (b) [sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥)]
8
C 116. Two urns, one containing 4 red and 3 green and the other containing 3 blue and 4 green
T
E
(a) 1/7 (b) 9/49 (c) 12/49 (d) 3/7
of n is
A (a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000
eigenvalue is
C
1 1
T (a)2𝑖 (b) − 2𝑖 (c) 0 (d) 1
E 119. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑦 2 𝑧 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑧 2 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 + 2, then ∇. ∇𝜑 is equal to
(a) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 (b) 4𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 2 + 4𝑧 2
(c) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 (d) 8𝑥 2 + 8𝑦 2 + 8𝑧 2
A 1 1+𝑥 1 + 𝑥 + 𝑥2
I 1 1+𝑧 1 + 𝑧 + 𝑧2
C (a) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑥 − 𝑧) (b) 𝑥 − 𝑦 2 𝑦 − 𝑧 2 (𝑧 − 𝑥)2

(c) (𝑥 2 − 𝑦 2 )(𝑦 2 − 𝑧 2 )(𝑧 2 − 𝑥 2 ) (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 𝑦 − 𝑧 (𝑧 − 𝑥)
T
E
Page 14 of 14
UG AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING / MECHANICAL & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
Code 24-Paper 1
1 C 31 B 61 D 91 D
2 D 32 A 62 B 92 C
3 A 33 A 63 D 93 C
4 C 34 C 64 D 94 A
5 Marks to all 35 A 65 D 95 B
6 D 36 A 66 C 96 D
7 A 37 C 67 A 97 D
8 D 38 Marks to all 68 C 98 C
9 A 39 C 69 B 99 C
10 A 40 Marks to all 70 D 100 B
11 B 41 B 71 C 101 A
12 Marks to all 42 D 72 B 102 C
13 D 43 B 73 B 103 A
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 D
15 B 45 C 75 A 105 D
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 A
17 A 47 C 77 C 107 A
18 A 48 D 78 C 108 B
19 A 49 A 79 B 109 D
20 B 50 A 80 D 110 B
21 C 51 D 81 C 111 D
22 C 52 A 82 Marks to all 112 B
23 C 53 A 83 B 113 B
24 A 54 A 84 B 114 B
25 D 55 C 85 Marks to all 115 B
26 B 56 B 86 B 116 C
27 A, C 57 B 87 A 117 B
28 A 58 D 88 A 118 C
29 Marks to all 59 D 89 B 119 B
30 A 60 B 90 C 120 D
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING/MECHANICAL & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

A
PAPER-II
I
C Instructions:
wrong answer.
E
1. Large speed reduction (greater than 20) in one stage of a gear train are possible through
A
(a) Spur gearing (b) Worm gearing (c) Bevel gearing (d) Helical gearing
I
C 2. Which one of the following is used to convert a rotational motion into a translational
motion?
T
E (a) Bevel gears (b) Double helical gears
(c) Worm gears (d) Rack and pinion gears
3. Which one of the following is criterion in the design of hydrodynamic Journal bearing?
A (a) Sommerfeld number (b) Rating life
I (c) specific dynamic capacity (d) rotation factor
C 4. Following type of cam is used for high speed engine
T
(a) involute (b) cycloidal (c) harmonic (d) flat
E
5. Anti-friction bearings are
(a) sleeve bearing (b) gas lubricated bearings
(c) ball and roller bearings (d) plastic bearing
6. The standard angle between the sides of V-belt is

(a) 25o (b) 30o (c) 40o (d) 60o
Page 1 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
7. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

(a) thin vessel (b) thick vessel (c) solid shaft (d) hollow shaft
A 8. Air craft body is usually fabricated by
I
(a) Welding (b) Precasting (d) Rivetting (d) Casting
C
T 9. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
E (a) ductile material (b) brittle material
(c) equally serious in both cases (d) unpredictable
10. If compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from 5 to 6, its air
A standard efficiency will increase by
I (a) 1% (b) 20% (c) 16.67% (d) 08%
C
11. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
T
E (a) fuel pump (b) governor (c) injector (d) carburettor
12. Scavenging is usually done to increase
(a) thermal efficiency (b) power output

A (c) speed (d) fuel consumption
I
13. Hunting occurs due to
C
T (a) over control by the governor (b) poor control by the governor
(c) faulty governor (d) bad engine design
E
14. A two stoke engine is usually identified by
(a) size of fly wheel (b) weight of engine

A (c) type of lubrication system (d) absence of valves
I 15. Fins are provided over engine cylinder in scooter for
C
(a) higher strength of cylinder (b) better cooling
T (c) good appearance (d) higher efficiency
E 16. The system of lubrication used for motor cycle and scooters is by
(a) forced lubrication system (b) Splash lubrication
(c) wet sump method (d) mixing about 5% lub oil with petrol
17. The firing order in a six cylinder I.C engine is
(a) 1-3-6-5-2-4 (b) 1-4-2-5-6-3 (c) 1-6-2-5-4-3 (d) 1-5-3-4-2-6
Page 2 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
18. The top piston ring nearer to the piston crown is known as
(a) compression ring (b)oil ring (c) scrapper ring (d) groove ring
A
19. In a cycle the spark lasts roughly for
I
C (a) 1 sec (b) 0.1 sec (c) 0.01 sec (d) 0.001 sec
T 20. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc
E
(a) fuel tank capacity (b) lub oil capacity (d) swept volume (d) cylinder volume
21. Rocker arms are used in following types of IC engines

A (a) side valve engines (b) radial engines
I (c) stationary engines (d) overhead valve engines
C 22. The clutch is installed between the transmission and the
T
(a) engine (b) rear axle (c) propeller shaft (d) differential
E
23. If the tractive effort is the highest for a given velocity, then vehicle must be in
(a) top gear (b) third gear (c) second gear (d) first gear
A
24. The main disadvantage of sliding mesh transmission is
I
C (a) high noise level (b) low mechanical efficiency
(c) high skilled required by the driver (d) all of the above.
T
E 25. The type of rear axle on trucks is
(a) Semi floating (b) fully floating

(c) three quarter floating (d) none of the above
A 26. The component of the wheel cylinder which seals the brake fluid is
I
(a) piston (b) spring (c) dust cover (d) cup
C
T 27. The parking brake usually operates on
E (a) front wheels (b) rear wheels (c) left wheels (d) all the wheels
28. Which of the classifications indicates a multigrade oil?
(a) SAE 30 (b) API SF (c) SAE 20W-50 (d) API 50
29. The distance between the centres of the front wheels is called as
(a) wheel track (b) wheel base (c) axle width (d) turning circle
Page 3 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
30. Which of the following type of spring is most commonly used for suspension in heavy
vehicles?
A (a) Coil spring (b) Semi elliptic leaf spring

(c) Quarter elliptic leaf spring (d) Plastic spring
I
C 31. If the engines run at high speed, producing high temperature and load, the linings in the
bearings are made of
T
E (a) babbit metal (b) cadmium silver alloys
(c) carbon graphite (d) steel
32. The type of bearing most commonly used for main bearing and connecting rod bearing is
A (a) ball bearing (b) plain bearing
I (c) needle roller bearing (d) taper roller bearing
C 33. In order to transfer torque, the torque converter uses
T
(a) air (b) ATF (c) gears (d) a steel belt
E
34. Vapour lock is most apt to occur in the
(a) fuel lines or pump (b) fuel pump or tank

A (c) carburettor or tank (d) tank or gauge line
I 35. Marketing means
C
(a) selling products
T (b) searching for consumer
E (c) conversion of place and possession characteristics of a product
36. Most suitable layout for Job production is

A (a) Line layout (b) Matrix labour (c) process layout (d) product layout
I
37. At break-even point the organisation will have
C
T (a) maximum profit (b) No loss and no gain
(c) Maximum loss (d) Moderate profit
E
38. The act of assessing the future and make provisions for it is known as
(a) Planning (b) Forecasting (c) Assessment (d) Scheduling
39. Wave like fluctuations in data is known as
(a) cyclic component (b) wave trend (c) wave fluctuations (d) seasonal trend
Page 4 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
40. One of the advantage of method of least square is
(a) it is very easy method

A (b) it does not use mathematics
(c) Trend values of all years of the series may be obtained
C
41. In VED analysis, the letter V stands for
T
E (a) Very important material (b) Viscous material
(c) Weighty material (d) Vital material
42. The lead-time is the time

A (a) to place orders for materials
I (b) time of receiving materials
(c) time between receipt of materials and using materials
C (d) time between placing the order and receiving the materials
T
43. The first stage in production planning is
E
(a) Process Planning (b) Factory Planning
(c) Operation Planning (d) Layout planning
A 44. Assessment problem is solved by

I (a) Jhonson and Bellman method (b) Simulation
C (c) Transportation algorithm (d) Flood’s techniques
T 45. Z-chart is a chart used in
E (a) Programme control (b) Job control
(c) Cost control (d) Quality Control
46. Dispatching is toughest in

A
(a) Job production (b) Mass Production (c) Batch production (d) Flow production
I
47. Computers are used in production control in this area
C
T (a) Follow up activity (b) to control labour
(c) to disseminate information (d) loading, scheduling and assignment work
E
48. T-code in CNC programming defines
(a) tool and tool offset (b) spindle rotation speed
(c) machine operation (d) alter offset
49. M23 in M code stands for
(a) low gear (b) thread chamfer on

(c) thread chamfer off (d) Program end and rewind
Page 5 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
50. Degree of freedom for robot are
(a) 10 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5

A
51. CNC Machines are also called
I
C (a) Soft wired (b) Hard wired
(c) Hard as well as soft wired (d) None of the above
T
E 52. The advantage of DNC are
(a) elimination of punched tape

(b) greater flexibility
(c) convenient storage of NC part program in computer files
A (d) all of the above
I
53. Scaling is used to
C
T (a) make the image small (b) enlarge the image
(C) enlarge the image as well as make it small (d) None of the above
E
54. Purpose of air cleaner is
(a) increase air velocity (b) increase mass flow

A (c) increase air pressure (d) segregate foreign particles
I 55. Flameless combustion can be
C
(a) isothermal (b) inert gas (c) catalytic (d) none of the above
T
E 56. Number of gear boxes used in four wheel drive are
(a) two (b) one (c) six (d) four
57. If diesel is fed into petrol engine, the engine will

A
I (a) not run (b) knock (c) detonate (d) give lot of smoke
C 58. In an alternator, the magnetic field is produced in the
T
(a) rotor (b) stator (c) frame (d) regulator
E
59. A solenoid uses two coils. These are called
(a) push-in and pull-out (b) pull-in and push out
(c) push-in and hold-out (d) pull-in and hold-in
60. The colour of tail light in a vehicle is

(a) red (b) white (c) green (d) yellow
Page 6 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
61. The type of reflector used for automobile head lights is
(a) spherical (b) parabolic (c) hyperbolic (d) circular

A
62. The combustion chambers are formed between the cylinder head and the
I
C (a) cylinder block (b) intake manifold (c) valve stem (d) pistons
T 63. Connecting rod is connected to crank shaft by
E
(a) big end (b) crank pin (c) crank web (d) small end
64. The ignition quality of petrol fuel is determined by

A (a) detonation (b) octane number (c) pre-ignition (d) cetane number
I
65. The knocking tendency in CI engines increase with
C
(a) decrease of compression ratio (b) increaseof compression ratio
T (c) increase in temperature of inlet air (d) increase in cooling water temperature
E
66. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works is
(a) Otto cycle (b) Joule cycle (c) Rankine cycle (d) Stirling cycle
A 67. The thermal efficiency of petrol engine is about

I (a) 15% (b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 70%
C
68. The commonly used material in the thermostat to control the movement of the valve,
T according to the coolant temperature is
E (a) wax (b) rubber (c) bimetal (d) thermistor
69. The amount of voltage that can be obtained from a single cell of a storage battery is
about
A
(a) 2 V (b) 4 V (c) 6 V (d) 8V
I
70. The ignition condenser
C
T (a) reduces arcing at the contacts (b) reduces secondary spark
(c) protects plugs form load (d) increases contact arcing
E
71. The type of starter motor employed in automobile vehicle is the
(a) shunt wound motor (b) series wound motor
(c) induction motor (d) none of the above
72. The earthing of the fuel tank is coloured
(a) green (b) blue (c) black (d) red
Page 7 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
73. Chassis grease is used for lubricating the
(a) generator (b) gear box (c) propeller shaft (d) all of the above
A
74. The term of a patent in India is
I
C (a) 10 years (b) 15 years
(c) till the lifetime of the invertor (d) 20 years
T
E 75. The patent specification is both a technical as well as a legal document
(a) No, it is only a technical document as it describes an invention

(b) Yes, it is both
(c) It is neither a technical nor a legal document
A (d) It is only a legal document
I
76. The Budapest Treaty is concerned with
C
T (a) Patent Cooperation Treaty (b) International Patent Cooperation
(b) Deposit of Microorganism (d) None of the above
E
77. Trademark can be
(a) name only (b) symbol only

A (c) slogan only (d) a combination of or any one of the above
I 78. International protection for trademark is through
C
(a) Madrid System (b) Hague Agreement
T (c) Lisbon Agreement (d) None of the above
E
79. The term of a trademark registration in India is
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years (c) 15 years (d) 30 years

A 80. The International classification system used for industrial designs is
I
(a) Dewey Decimal Classification (b) Universal Decimal Classification
C (c) International Patent Classification (d) Locarno Classification
T
E PART-B(40 X 2=80 Marks)
81. A football was inflated to a gauge pressure of 1 bar when the ambient temperature was
15oC. When the game started next day, the air temperature at the stadium was 5oC.
Assume that the volume of football remains constant at 2500cm3. Gauge pressure of air
to which the ball must have been originally inflated so that it would equal 1 bar gauge at
the stadium is
(a) 2.23 bar (b) 1.94 bar (c) 1.07 bar (d) 1.00 bar
Page 8 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
82. What is the speed of sound in Neon gas at a temperature of 500 K? Gas constant of
Neon is 0.4210 kJ/kg K.
A (a) 492 m/s (b) 460 m/s (c) 592 m/s (d) 543 m/s
I 83. A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain
C amount of heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K.
The net work output (in kJ)of the cycle is
T
E (a) 0.8 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.4 (d) 2.0
84. In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187
kJ/kg, the specific steam consumption (in kg/kW-h) of the cycle based on net output is
A (a) 3.71 (b) 4.71 (c) 5.71 (d) 2.71
I
85. The unit of energy in SI Units is
C
T (a) Watt (b) Joule (c) Joule/s (d) Joule/m
E 86. Cochran boiler is a
(a) horizontal fire tube boiler (b) horizontal water tube boiler
(c) vertical water tube boiler (d) vertical fire tube boiler
A
87. In a four-bar linkages, S denotes the shortest link length, L is the longest link length, P
I and Q are the lengths of other two links. At least one of the three moving links will
C rotate by 360oC if
T (a) S+L<P+Q (b) S+L>P+Q (c) S+P<L+Q (d) S+P>L+Q
E
88. In a certain slider crank mechanism, lengths of crank rotates with a uniform angular
speed of 14 rad/s and the crank length is 300 mm, the maximum acceleration of the slider
(in m2/s) is
A (a) 58.8 (b) 117.6 (c) 176.4 (d) 235.2
I
89. For an involute gear, the ratio pitch circle radius to base circle radius is (ϕ is the pressure
C angle)
T
(a) Sin ϕ (b) Cos ϕ (c) Sec ϕ (d) Cosec ϕ
E
90. A flywheel connected to a punching machine has to supply energy of 400 Nm while
running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s. If the total fluctuation of speed is not to
exceed + 2%, the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel in kg-m2 is
(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 125
Page 9 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
91. In a spring-mass system, the mass is 0.1 kg and the stiffness of the spring is 1 kN/m. By
introducing a damper, the frequency of oscillation is found to be 90% of the original
value. What is the damping coefficient of the damper?
A
(a) 1.2 N.s/m (b) 3.4 N.s/m (c) 8.7 N.s/m (d) 12.0 N.s/m
I
C 92. A 200x100x50 mm steel block is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 15 MPa. The
Young’s modulus and ratio of the material are 200 GPa and 0.3 respectively. The
T change in the volume of the block in mm3 is
E
(a) 85 (b) 90 (c) 100 (d) 110
93. A simply supported beam of span length 6 m and 75 mm diameter carries a uniform
distributed load of 1.5 kN/m. What is the maximum value of bending stress?
A
I (a) 162.98 MPa (b) 325.95 MPa (c) 625.95 MPa (d) 651.90 MPa
C 94. A solid circular shaft of 60 mm diameter transmits a torque of 1600 Nm. The value of
T maximum shear developed is
E (a) 37.72 MPa (b) 47.72 MPa (c) 57.72 MPa (d) 67.72 MPa
95. A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a moment M at the free end. The moment
of inertia of the beam cross section about the neutral axis is I and the Young”s modulus
A is E. The magnitude of the maximum deflection is
I (a) ML2/2EI (b) ML3/EI (c) 2ML2/EI (d) 4ML2/EI
C
96. A column has a rectangular cross section of 10 mm x 20 mm and a length of 1 m. The
T slenderness ratio of the column is
E
(a) 200 (b) 346 (c) 477 (d) 1000
97. Which of the following is an amorphous material?

A (a) mica (b) lead (c) rubber (d) glass
I
98. Crystallographic structure of austenite is
C
T (a) BCC (b) FCC (c) CPH (d) Simple Cubic
E 99. The S-N curve for steel becomes asymptotic nearly at
(a) 103 cycle (b) 104 cycle (c) 106 cycle (d) 109 cycle
100. Hot Chamber die casting is NOT suited for
(a) Lead and its alloys (b) Zinc and its alloys
(c) Tin and its alloys (d) Aluminium and its alloys
Page 10 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
101. The rake angle of a cutting tools is 15o, shear angle 45o and cutting velocity 35 m/min.
What is the velocity of chip along the tool face?
A (a) 28.5 m/min (b) 27.3 m/min (d) 25.3 m/min (d) 23.5 m/min
I 102. In a shaping process, the number of double strokes per minute is 30 and the quick return
C ratio is 0.6. If the length of the stroke is 250 mm, the average cutting velocity in
mm/min is
T
E (a) 3.0 (b) 4.5 (c) 7.5 (d) 12.0
103. A brass billet is to be extruded from its initial diameter of 100 mm to a final diameter of
50 mm. The working temperature is 700oC and the extrusion constant is 250 MPa. The
force required for extrusion is
A
I (a) 5.44 MN (b) 2.72 MN (c) 1.36 MN (d) 0.36 MN
C 104. A metal disc of 200 mm diameter is to be punched from a sheet of 2mm thickness. The
T punch and the die clearance is 3%. The required punch diameter is
E (a) 19.88 mm (b) 19.94 mm (c) 20.06 mm (d) 20.12 mm
105. A resistance-capacitance relaxation circuit is used in an electrical discharge machining

process. The discharge voltage is 100 V. At a spark cycle time of μS, the average power
A input required is 1 kW. The capacitance (in μF) in the circuit is
I (a) 2.5 (b) 5.0 (c) 7.5 (d) 10.0
C
106. Turret lathes equipped with spindles which can be fitted with a universal 2-Jaw chuck
T are referred to as
E
(a) drum type machines (b) saddle type machines
(c) chucking machines (d) universal lathes
107. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by

A
I (a) brazing (b) grinding
(c) hot machining (d) electro-machining process
C
T 108. Gear shaper can be used to cut following type of gear
E (a) Internal (b) External (c) Accurate (d) All of the above
109. Oil in hydraulic cylinder is compressed from an initial volume 2 m3to 1.96 m3. If the
pressure of oil in the cylinder changes from 40 MPa to 80 MPa during compression, the
bulk modulus of elasticity of oil is
Page 11 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
110. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2m x 1 m with its top 2 m
surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
A (a) 500 kg (b) 1000 kg (c) 1500kg (d) 2000 kg

I 111. The velocity field of an incompressible flow is given by
C V=(a1x +a2 y+a3 z)i + (b1x +b2 y+b3 z)j+ (c1x +c2 y+c3 z) k
Where a1 = 2 and c3 = -4. The value of b2 is
T
E (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 0
112. Two pipes of uniform section but different diameters carry water at the same volumetric
flow rate. Water properties are the same in the two pipes. The Reynolds number based
on the pipe diameter
A
I (a) is the same in the both pipes (b) is large in the narrow pipe
(c) is small in the narrow pipe (d) depends on the pipe material
C
T 113. An incompressible fluid flows over a flat plate with zero pressure gradient. The
boundary layer thickness is 1 mm at a location where the Reynolds number is 1000. If
E the velocity of a the fluid alone is increased by a factor of 4, then the boundary layer
thickness at the same location, in mm will be
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.25

A
114. At a hydro electric power plant site, available head and flow rate are 24.5 and 10.1 m3/s
I respectively. If the turbine to be installed is required to run at 4.0 revolution per second
C with an overall efficiency of 90%, then suitable type of turbine for this site is
T (a) Francis (b) Kaplan (c) Pelton (d) Propeller
E
115. A long glass cylinder of inner diameter =0.03 m and outer diameter =0.05 m carries hot
fluid inside. If the thermal conductivity of glass =1.05W/mK, the thermal resistance
(K/W) per unit length of the cylinder is
A (a) 0.031 (b) 0.077 (c) 0.17 (d) 0.34
I
116. Water (Prandtl number=6) flows over a flat plate which is heated over the entire length.
C Which one of the following relationship between the hydrodynamic boundary layer
T thickness (δ) and thermal boundary layer thickness (δt) is true?
E (a) δt=δ (b) δt<δ (c) (a) δt> δ (d) can not be predicted
117. What is the value of view factor for which inclined flat plates having common edge of
equal width and with an angle of 20o?
(a) 0.83 (b) 1.17 (c) 0.66 (d) 1.34
Page 12 of 13
ROLL NO. UG2AME24
118. The dimensionless mass transfer number corresponding to the Nusselt number is
(a) Sherwood Number (b) Lewis Number

A (c) Schmidt Number (d) Grashoff Number
I 119. Heat transfer takes place as per
C
(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamics
T (c) Second law of thermodynamics (d) Kirchoff’s Law
E
120. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is
(a) higher (b) lower

(c) same (d) Depends on shape of body
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
A
I
C
T
E
Page 13 of 13
UG AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING / MECHANICAL & AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING
Code 24-Paper 2
1 B 31 B 61 B 91 C
2 D 32 B 62 D 92 B
3 A 33 B 63 A, B 93 B
4 B 34 A 64 B 94 A
5 C 35 C 65 A 95 A
6 C 36 C 66 A 96 B
7 D 37 B 67 B 97 D
8 C 38 B 68 A 98 B
9 B 39 A 69 A 99 C
10 D 40 C 70 A 100 D
11 D 41 D 71 B 101 A
12 B 42 D 72 C 102 D
13 A 43 B 73 C 103 B
14 D 44 A 74 D 104 A
15 B 45 A 75 B 105 A
16 D 46 C 76 B 106 C
17 D 47 D 77 D 107 D
18 A 48 A 78 A 108 D
19 D 49 B 79 A 109 B
20 C 50 B 80 D 110 D
21 D 51 A 81 C 111 A
22 A 52 D 82 C, D 112 B
23 D 53 C 83 C 113 C
24 A 54 D 84 A 114 A
25 B 55 C 85 B 115 B
26 D 56 A 86 D 116 B
27 B 57 A 87 A 117 A
28 C 58 A 88 B 118 A
29 A 59 D 89 C 119 C
30 B 60 A 90 A 120 B

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ROLL NO.

A COMPUTER SCIENCE& ENGINEERING/COMPUTER ENGINEERING/

PART-A (70 X 1= 70 Marks)

A 7. If we record any music in any recorder, such types of process is called

9. In J-K flip-flop, "no change" condition appears when

11. The storage element for a static RAM is the______________.

I 17. Let G be a simple undirected planar graph on 10 vertices with 15 edges. If G is a

A 36. For ∑ = {a, b} the regular expression r = (aa)*(bb)*b denotes

40. The logic of pumping lemma is an example of ________________.

43. Pumping Lemma is generally used for proving

A 46. Computers use addressing mode techniques for________________________.

E 57. Assuming P != NP, which of the following is true?

69. Shadow Paging has

PART-B (30X2=60 Marks)

A (c) (iii) only

92. (2FAOC)16 is equivalent to

A (c) Both (A) and (B)

94. Four matrices M1, M2, M3 and M4 of dimensions p × q, q × r, r × s and s × t

97. Consider the relation R(ABCDE)

100. Given a relation R ( ABCDEFGHIJ) having functional Dependencies

𝑎 𝑀 is necessarily diagonalisable (b) 𝑀 is need not be diagonalisable

A 102. Which one is not true?

A 104. If 𝜑 𝑥, 𝑦, 𝑧 = 𝑥𝑦 2 𝑧 − 2𝑦 3 𝑧 2 , then ∇𝜑 at the point (1, -1, 2) is

(a) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (b) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

A (c) 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0

(a) Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3 (b) Non-Linear, Order = 2, Degree = 3

T (a) 1/32 (b) 2/32 (c) 3/32 (d) 6/32

(a) 1/7 (b) 2/7 (c) 0 (d) 1

A (c) sin (log 𝑥) + cos(log 𝑥) (d) sin 𝑥 − cos 𝑥

(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 600 (d) 1000

A COMPUTER SCIENCE& ENGINEERING/COMPUTER ENGINEERING/

1. IPv6 addresses have a size of

I 2. A circledrawn on the screen appears to be elliptical as-

7. 90 degree clockwise rotation about X axis would transfer point-

9. Which one of the following protocol is not used in internet?

11. The result of midpoint subdivision algorithm is to perform-

15. Which of the following term is least related to Artificial Intelligence?

17. A* Algorithms is based on:

E 19. Different learning methods does not include

21. What is a heuristic function?

C 24. In an Unsupervised learning

E 27. Decision support programs are designed to help managers make:

28. In tuple relational calculus P1 →P2 is equivalent to

30. The command to remove rows from a table 'CUSTOMER' is:

33. Key to represent relationship between tables is called

36. The techniques used to handle the phantom problems are

40. A Trigger is _________________

42. The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

44. A relation is in this form if it is in BCNF and has no multivalued dependencies:

48. Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?

I 51. Protocol which assigns IP address to client connected in internet is

T 55. The natural join is equal to:

56. In a compiler, keywords of a language are recognized during

59. Which one of the following is a top-down parser?

61. Type checking is normally done during

63. The number of tokens in the following C statement is

65. Common gateway interface is used to

I 66. XLL definition is used along with XML to specify

71. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ with two firewalls?

75. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral Model?

PART-B (40 X 2= 80 Marks)

82. In 2D graphics, the transformation

89. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?

A 36. For ∑ = {a, b} the regular expression r = (aa)(bb)b denotes