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Common Proficiency Test (CPT)
Volume - II
Board of Studies
The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
A
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November / 2015 / P1854 (Updated)
Common Proficiency Test (CPT) is an entry level test for Chartered Accountancy Course. It
is an objective type test of 200 marks of four subjects, i.e. Fundamentals of Accounting,
Mercantile Laws, General Economics and Quantitative Aptitude with an objective to test the
basic knowledge in these subject areas. The Board of Studies has prepared comprehensive
study materials on these subjects containing lots of objective type questions which will help
the students in appearing for the Common Proficiency Test. In addition, Model Test Papers
are being published to strengthen the existing question bank given in the Study Material.
Model Test Papers will also serve as a useful and handy reference guide to students while
preparing for Common Proficiency Test (CPT). Further, it will enhance your understanding
about the pattern of questions set and the manner of answering such questions within the
given time frames.
The Model Test Papers have been divided in two volumes, namely Volume I containing 20
Model Test papers comprising of 4,000 objective type questions and Volume II containing 10
Model Test papers comprising of 2,000 objective type questions. These test papers will help
the students to test their level of preparation in each subject. Each Model Test Paper has been
divided into four sections. Section A relates to Fundamentals of Accounting carrying 60 marks
and Section B Mercantile Laws carrying 40 marks. Section C and D relate to General
Economies and Quantitative Aptitude carrying 50 Marks each. All Model Test Papers have
been carefully designed so as to expose to students of all types of questions such as one line
statement questions and fill in the blank questions, numerical based and table based questions,
paragraph based and diagram based questions. The students are advised to answer each test
paper under examination conditions. We are confident that these Model Test papers will enable
you to enhance your speed and guide you to improve your performance in the examinations.
CONTENTS
Questions 1 to 200 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark for each correct answer and
– 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
23. Goodwill of the firm is valued at three year’s purchase of the average profit of the last five
years. The profits are as under
2010 1,60,000 (Profit)
2009 20,000 (Loss)
2008 1,20,000 (Profit)
2007 1,00,000 (Profit)
2006 80,000 (Profit)
Goodwill amount will be
34. A, B and C are the partners sharing profits in the ratio 4 : 3 : 2. C died on 30.06.2010 and
profits for the accounting year 2009-10 were Rs. 72000. How much share in profits for the
period 1st April, 2010 to 30th June 2010 will credited to C’s account
(a) Rs. 4,000 (b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 18,000 (d) Rs. 12,000
35. A bill is drawn on 12th June for 2 months. The maturity date of the bill will be
(a) 12th August (b) 13th August
(c) 14th August (d) 15th August
36. Goods costing Rs. 2,40,000 were sent on consignment basis. Goods are invoiced at cost +
25%. The Invoice price and loading will be
(a) Rs. 2,40,000 and Rs. 60,000 (b) Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 4,00,000 and Rs. 1,60,000 (d) Rs. 3,00,000 and Rs. 60,000
37. Which of these is not a part of double entry system?
(a) Memorandum Joint Venture A/c (b) Joint Venture A/c
(c) Joint Bank A/c (d) Co-venturer A/c
38. Wright Ltd. issued 40000, 8% debentures of Rs. 10 each at par which are redeemable after
8 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written
off every year will be
(a) Rs. 60,000 (b) Rs. 50,000
(c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 8,000
39. Chetan Ltd. recorded the following information as on March 31, 2010
Inventory (1-4-2009) Rs. 40,000
Purchases Rs. 80,000
Sales Rs. 1,00,000
It is noticed that goods worth Rs. 30,000 were destroy due to fire against this, the insurance
company accepted a claim of Rs. 14,000.
The company sells goods at cost plus 33.33%. The value of closing inventory, after taking
into account the above transaction is
45. Machinery costing Rs. 500000 was purchased on 1.4.2008. The installation charges amounting
Rs. 20000 were incurred. The depreciation at 10% per annum on straight line method for
the year ended 31st March, 2010 will be
(a) Rs. 5,00,000 (b) Rs. 50,000
(c) Rs. 52,000 (d) Rs. 45,000
46. Credit balance as per passbook on 31.3.2010 is Rs. 22000. Cheques deposited but not cleared
amount to Rs. 2000 and cheques issued but not presented of Rs. 8000. Balance as per cash
book should be
(a) Rs. 32,000 (b) Rs. 16,000
(c) Rs. 28,000 (d) Rs. 18,000
47. A Company forfeited 2,000 shares Rs. 10 each held by Mr. Mohan for non payment of
allotment money of Rs. 3 per share. The called-up value per share was Rs. 8. On forfeiture,
the amount debited to share capital will be
(a) Rs. 6,000 (b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 1,000 (d) Rs. 16,000
48. Bill of Rs. 5000 accepted by Rajan was endorsed by Rohit to Raj on account of final settlement
of Rs. 5200. The benefit of Rs. 200 earned by Rohit was
(a) Credited to discount received account by Rs. 200
(b) Debited to discount allowed account by Rs. 200
(c) Credited to rebate account by Rs. 200
(d) None of the above
49. Ankur purchased goods costing Rs. 5,000 at an invoice price, which is 50% above cost. On
invoice price he enjoyed 15% trade discount and Rs. 375 cash discount on cash payment of
goods in lump sum at the time of purchase. The purchase price to be recorded in the books
before cash discount will be
(a) Rs. 5,000 (b) Rs. 7,500
(c) Rs. 6,375 (d) Rs. 6,000
50. Kapoor Ltd. issued 7,50,000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10% payable
Rs. 40 on application and balance on allotment. Debentures are redeemable at par after 6
years. All money due on allotment was called up and received. The amount of premium will
be
(a) Rs. 3,00,00,000 (b) Rs. 75,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,25,00,000 (d) Rs. 7,50,00,000
51. Gopi Ltd. purchased land and building from Mohan Ltd. for a book value of
Rs. 200000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a
discount of 20%. The debenture account is credited with
(a) Rs. 2,00,000 (b) Rs. 2,60,000
(c) Rs. 2,50,000 (d) Rs. 1,40,000
52. A company offers to the public 20000 shares for subscription. The company receives
application for 24000 shares. If the shares are allotted on pro-rata basis the application for
24,000 shares are to be allotted as
(a) 5 Shares for every 6 shares applied
(b) 4 Shares for every 5 shares applied
(c) 6 Shares for every 7 shares applied
(d) None of the above
53. Arjun and Bheem are partners in the firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 1 : 1. They
have invested capital of Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. As per partnership deed,
they are entitled to interest on capital @ 2.5% p.a. before sharing the profits. During the
year firm earned a profit of Rs. 5000 before allowing interest. The net profit will be
apportioned as
(a) Rs. 900 to Arjun, Rs. 900 to Bheem
(b) Rs. 875 to Arjun, Rs. 875 to Bheem
(c) Rs. 785 to Arjun, Rs. 785 to Bheem
(d) Rs. 965 to Arjun, Rs. 965 to Bheem
60. Economic life of an enterprise is split into periodic interval as per _______ concept
(a) Materiality (b) Periodicity
(c) Accrual (d) Conservation
Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II 9
79. When the performance of a contract becomes subsequently impossible or unlawful, the
contract becomes
(a) Illegal (b) Void
(c) Invalid (d) Voidable
80. Contract for the sale of future goods is _______.
(a) Sale (b) Agreement to sell
(c) Void (d) Auction sale
81. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 deals with the _______.
(a) Movable goods only
(b) Immovable goods only
(c) Both immovable and movable goods
(d) Tangible goods only
82. A party agrees to pay five lakhs to another party if first party brings to earth a star from
sky. This is known as _______.
(a) Contingent contract (b) Quasi Contract
(c) Implied contract (d) Wagering contract
83. _______ does not affect the free consent of the parties.
(a) Fraud (b) Coercion
(c) incompetence (d) Undue influence
84. Consideration may be _______.
(a) Past (b) Present
(c) Future (d) All of these
85. When the consent of a party is obtained by fraud, the contract is____________.
(a) Valid (b) Voidable
(c) Illegal (d) Void
86. Registration of the partnership firm is done with _______.
(a) Registrar of firms
(b) Registrar of co-operative society
(c) Registrar of companies
(d) All of these
87. An agreement to share earnings of a smuggling business is _______.
(a) Valid (b) Void
(c) Voidable (d) Contingent
92. When one of the parties to the contract has performed his part of the promise, it is known as
_______.
(a) Consideration (b) Past consideration
(c) Future consideration (d) Executory consideration
106. In the case of a straight line demand curve meeting the two axes, the price elasticity of
demand at y-axis of the line would be equal to
107. A firm under perfect competition will be making minimum losses (in the short run) at a
point where:
111. In the long run under which competition a firm may earn super normal profits?
(a) Monopolistic competition (b) Perfect competition
(c) Oligopoly (d) Monopoly
112. Nationalization means:
(a) Selling of government stake to private sector
(b) Selling of government companies to private sector
(c) Government purchasing 26% shares in private companies
(d) Taking of full control and management from Private Sector
by the government
113. Bank rate is the ———
(a) Rate at which RBI discounts bills of banks
(b) Rate at which SBI gives loans to other banks
(c) Rate at which RBI borrows from general public
(d) Rate at whcih liquidity is to be maintained by nationalised banks
114. Overall Credit and Monetary Policy is the ultimate responsibility of ______ in India
(a) SBI (b) NABARD
(c) RBI (d) SEBI
115. Economics is a Science which deals with wealth was referred by :
(a) Alfred Marshal (b) J. B. Say
(c) Adam Smith (d) A.C. Pigou
116. Average fixed cost can not be:
(a) Less than one (b) One
(c) Zero (d) Greater than one
117. The number of Member Countries of WTO in 2013 is :
(a) 184 (b) 160
(c) 150 (d) 177
118. If as a result of 10% increase in price, the quantity supplied does not change at all, it implies
that the elasticity of Supply is :
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) Equal to one
(d) Greater than Zero but less than one
119. The Law of variable proportions examines the Production function with:
(a) One factor variable and only one factor fixed
(b) One factor variable keeping quantities of other factors fixed
140. What is the approximate life expectancy of the people living in India?
(a) 58 (b) 60
(c) 66.1 (d) 50
141. Which of the following states has the highest percentage of literacy?
(a) Delhi (b) Kerela
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
1 1 4
5
(64) (–32)
2
151. The value of
64
1 3
(a) 17 (b) 17
8 8
7
(c) 11 (d) None of these
8
1 1
152. If a2 + b2 = 45 & ab = 18, then is
a b
1 2
(a) (b)
3 3
1
(c) (d) None of these
2
a a –1
(a) (b)
a –1 2
2 2
(c) (d)
a –1 1– a
(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) None of these
2 2
155. The highest score in an innings was of the total score and the next highest was of the
9 9
remainder. These score differed by 8 runs. What was the total score in the innings?
(a) 162 (b) 152
(c) 142 (d) 1132
156. The third proportional to 15 and 20 is
80
(a) (b) 80
3
80
(c) (d) None of these
7
157. The mean proportional between 9 and 25 is –
(a) 16 (b) 10
(c) 15 (d) None of these
158. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 2:5. If there are 280 students in the
school, find the number of girls in the school.
(a) 200 (b) 250
(c) 150 (d) None of these
159. A bag contains an equal number of one rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins respectively. If the
total value is Rs. 35, how many coins of each type are there.
(a) 30 (b) 20
(c) 25 (d) None of these
160. One-third of a number is greater than one-fourth of its successor by 1. Find the number.
(a) 51 (b) 21
(c) 15 (d) None of these
1
161. The value of log3 is
81
(a) 4 (b) –4
(c) 2 (d) –2
1
162. The value of log 2 2 is
256
16
(a) (b) –4
3
–16
(c) 3 (d)
3
163. If logx 3 2
1 ; then value of x is
15
(a) 8 (b) 32
(c) 16 (d) 64
164. If log4 [log3(log2x)] = 0; then value of x is
(a) 16 (b) 32
(c) 4 (d) None of these
165. The value of logx(0.00001) = –5, then x is
(a) 10 (b) 102
(c) 100 (d) None of these
166. 1230 baskets of mangoes were loaded in three trucks. When unloaded, it was found that 5,
10 and 15 baskets were rotten in the trucks respectively, but the remaining baskets were in
the ratio of 3:4:5. How many baskets were loaded initially in each truck?
(a) 575 (b) 515
(c) 565 (d) None of these
167. Find the ratio x : y : z from 2x + 3y – 5z = 0 and –3x + 2y + 7z = 0
(a) 10:12:13 (b) 30:2:12
(c) 31:1:13 (d) None of these
1
(a) logaA (b) a log1/n A
n
1
(c) A loga (d) None of these
n
log10 4
169. The value of
log10 8
1 4
(a) (b)
3 3
2
(c) (d) None of these
3
170. If log10 12.45 = 1.0952 and log10 3.79 = 0.5786, Find the value of log10 124.5 + log10379
(a) 5.6738 (b) 4.6738
(c) 6.6738 (d) None of these
171. Find the number of even numbers greater than 100 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1,
2, 3?
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) None of these
172. How many numbers between 100 and 1000 can be formed with the digits. 2, 3, 4, 0, 8, 9?
(a) 100 (b) 105
(c) 200 (d) None of these
173. In how many ways can the letters of the word “ALGEBRA” be arranged without changing
the relative order of the vowels?
(a) 82 (b) 70
(c) 72 (d) None of these
174. How many words can be formed with the letters of the word “UNIVERSITY”, the vowels
always remaining together?
(a) 60480 (b) 60482
(c) 60000 (d) None of these
175. In how many ways can the letters of the word “DIRECTOR” be arranged so that the three
vowels are never together?
(a) 180 (b) 18,000
(c) 18,002 (d) None of these
176. If f(x) = 1; if x < 3 , f(x) = ax + b; if 3 < x < 3 , f(x) = 7; if 5 < x. Determine the values of a &
b so that f(x) is continuous.
(a) a=3 & b =– 8 (b) a = 3 & b=8
(c) a–3 & b = 8 (d) None of these
x 9
177. Evaluate lim
x 3 x - 3
– 2
x – 3x
(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) 2 (d) None of these
f(2) – f(x)
178. If f(x) = 4 –x2; then lim is
x 2 x2
2 2
(a) (b) –
5 5
(c) 2 5 (d) 4
dy 1–x
179. Evaluate ; if y =
dx 1 x
1 –1
(a) (b)
(1 x) 1 – x 2 ) (1 x) 1 – x 2 )
1
(c) (d) None of these
(1 x 2 ) 1 – x 2 )
10 x logx dy
180. If y = ; then find .
x dx
10 x (2 –1) 2 – log x
(c) (d) None of these
2x x
24 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II
2 x.x 2 x 3.2 x 2x 1
(c) – c (d) None of these
3 3 (log 2)3
log x
182. Evaluate 3x
dx
1 1 2
(a)
3
log x c (b)
3x
log x c
1 2
(c)
3
log x c (d) None of these
log x
183. Evaluate: x2
dx
1 –1
(a) (1 log x) c (b) log ex c
x x
1 x
(c) log c (d) None of these
x e
e x (x 2 1)
184. Evaluate: x + 1 2
dx
x –1 x 1
(a) ex c (b) ex c
x 1 x –1
x –1
(c) –e x c (d) None of these
x 1
xex
185. Evaluate 1 + x 2
dx
ex xe x
(a) c (b) c
1 x 1 x
ex
(c) 2
c (d) None of these
1 x
1
186. If y = x ; then 2x dy is
x dx
1 1
(a) x– (b) x
x x
1
(c) x– (d) None of these
x
x2 1 x2 – 1 dy
187. if y = , then is
x2 1 – x2 – 1 dx
2x 3 2x 3
(a) 2x – (b) 2x
x4 –1 x4 –1
x3
(c) x– (d) None of these
x4 –1
3
x – 2 then dy is
4
188. If y = log e x
x2 dx
x 2 –1 x2 1
(a) (b)
x2 – 4 x2 – 4
x 2 –1
(c) (d) None of these
x2 4
2 dy
190. If y = xe– x then is
dx
2 3 2
– x2 2 1 – 2x log x – x2 2 1– 3x log x
(a) xe e– x (b) xe e–x
x x2
2
2 1 – 3x log x
(c) e–x (d) None of these
x
191. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P.’s Zero, then the sum of next m terms, where a is the first
term of the A.P. is
–am –am(m n)
(a) (b)
(m n)(n –1) n –1
am(m n)
(c) (d) None of these
n –1
192. First, Second and last terms of a finite A.P. are m, n and 2m respectively, then sum of the
series is
3mn 3mn
(a) (b)
2(n – m) nm
3mn
(c) (d) None of these
2(n m)
193. The first and fifth term of an A.P. of 40 terms are –29 & –15 respectively. Find the sum of all
positive terms of this A.P.
(a) 1605 (b) 1705
(c) 1805 (d) None of these
1 1
194. If mth term of an A.P. is and nth term is , then sum of mn terms is –
n m
1
(a) mn+1 (b) (mn – 1)
2
1
(c) (mn 1) (d) None of these
2
195. The sum of n terms of two A.P.s are in the ratio (7n+1) : (3n+2); find the sum of their 13th terms
(a) 6:7 (b) 16:7
(c) 7:16 (d) None of these
196. If one Arithmetic Mean A and G.M.s G1 and G2 be inserted between any two numbers then
G 13 + G 32 is equal to –
(a) 2G1 G2 (b) 2A G1 G2
(c) 2AG1 (d) None of these
am+1 bm+1
197. If is the G.M. between the numbers a and b, then the value of m is
am bm
1 1
(a) – (b)
2 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
198. If the pth, qth, rth and sth terms of an A.P. are in G.P.; then p–q, q–r and r–s are in
(a) A.P. (b) G.P.
(c) Cannot determine (d) None of these
199. The value of 1.4 is
13 10
(a) (b)
9 9
4
(c) (d) None of these
9
200. The value of 0.356 is
356 353
(a) (b)
999 999
353
(c) (d) None of these
990
28 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II
Questions 1 to 200 have only one correct answer and carry + 1 mark for each correct answer and
– 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
1. Present liability of uncertain amount, which can be measured reliably by using a substantial
degree of estimation is termed as
(a) Contingent liability (b) Liability
(c) Provision (d) Reserve
2. Which one of the following statement is FALSE :
(a) There are many views about accounting principles
(b) Accounting is based on accounting equation
(c) Accounting is commonly treated as language of business
(d) None of the above
3. For charging depreciation, on which of the following assets, the depletion method is adopted?
(a) Wasting Assets (Mines) (b) Land
(c) Goodwill (d) All of the above
4. Cost of Machinery Rs. 75,000, salvage value Nil, estimated life 4 years. Depreciation for
the first year by sum of digit method is
a) Rs. 30,000 b) Rs. 15,000
c) Rs. 12,000 d) Rs. 7,500.
5. When the incoming partner brings his share of goodwill in cash, the amount of brought-
in share of goodwill is credited to
(a) Cash Account (b) Bank Account
(c) Premium for Goodwill (d) Old Partner’s Capital Account
7. According to Section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013 the amount in the securities premium
A/c can be used for the purpose of
(a) Issue of fully paid bonus shares (b) Purchase of own securities
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of the above
23. Goods costing Rs. 2,00,000 sent out to consignee at cost + 25%. Invoice price of the
goods will be
(a) 2,40,000 (b) 2,30,000
(c) 2,10,000 (d) 2,50,000
24. A company wishes to earn a 25% profit margin on selling price. Which of the following is
the profit mark up on cost, which will achieve the required profit margin
(a) 33.33% (b) 20%
(c) 30% (d) None of these
25. Ram of Raipur sends out goods costing Rs. 1,00,000 to Amar of Alwar. 3/5th of the goods were
sold by consignee for Rs. 70,000. Commission 2% on sale plus 20% of gross sale less all commission
exceeds cost price. The amount of commission will be
(a) Rs.2,900 (b) Rs.3,333
(c) Rs.2,833 (d) Rs.2,800
26. On 1.7.06, Ravi draws a bill on Raju for Rs. 10,000. At maturity Raju requests Ravi to renew
the bill for 2 months at 15% p.a. interest. Amount of interest will be
(a) Rs. 200 (b) Rs. 250
(c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 325
27. Credit purchase of cotton by cotton dealer worth Rs. 10,000 will be entered in
(a) Sales Book (b) Bill Receivable Book
(c) Purchase Book (d) None of the above
28. Goods worth Rs. 5,000 given as charity should be credited to
(a) Purchases A/c (b) Sales A/c
(c) Capital A/c (d) None of the above
29. Anurag and Basu entered into a joint venture and agreed to share equal profits. Anurag
purchased goods costing 2,00,000, Basu sold 4/5th of the goods for Rs. 2,50,000. Balance
goods were taken over by Basu at cost less 20%. If same set of books is maintained, find out
profit on venture
(a) Rs.90,000 (b) Rs.85,000
(c) Rs.83,000 (d) Rs.82,000
30. Brijlal purchased a machine on 1.1.2010 for Rs. 2,40,000. Installation expenses were Rs.
20,000. Residual value is estimated to be Rs. 5,000. On 1.1.2010, expenses for repair were
increased to the extent of Rs. 5,000. Depreciation is provided under straight line method.
Depreciation rate is 10%. Annual Depreciation will be
(a) Rs.20,000 (b) Rs.26,500
(c) Rs.26,000 (d) Rs.23,000
38. Naveen of Nagpur sends out 1,000 boxes costing 1,00,000 to Deepak of Delhi at cost
+20% consignor’s expenses were:
Freight Rs. 6,000
Insurance Rs. 2,000
Consignee’s expenses were :
Loading and Unloading charges Rs. 10,000
Salesman salary Rs. 6,000 and
Commission 2% on Gross sales.
What will be the amount of profit if 3/4th goods is sold by consignee at Rs. 1,00,000?
(a) Rs. 5,500 (b) Rs. 6,500
(c) Rs. 7,500 (d) Rs. 3,500
39. Manish sold goods to Kamal for Rs. 25,000. Manish will grant 2% discount to Kamal. Kamal
requested Manish to draw a bill. The amount of bill will be
(a) Rs.25,000 (b) Rs.24,750
(c) Rs.24,500 (d) Rs.24,250
40. Edward Motors Ltd. a dealer in cars has the following five vehicles of different models and
makes in their Inventory at the end of the financial year 2005-06
Car Cost (Rs.) Market Price (Rs.)
(i) Zen 2,00,000 2,10,000
(ii) Fiat 3,50,000 3,70,000
(iii) Esteem 3,25,000 3,20,000
(iv) Honda City 6,00,000 6,30,000
(v) Optra 7,25,000 7,00,000
The value of Inventory included in balance sheet of the company as on 31 March, 2006 was
(a) 21,70,000 (b) 22,00,000
(c) 22,30,000 (d) 22,60,000
41. Mr. Anuj sent 2000 units costing Rs. 1800 each to Mr. Mahipal. The goods were to be sold
as to yield a gross profit of 20% on sales. Mr. Mahipal sold 1200 units @ 2050 per unit on
credit and 650 units @ Rs. 2300 per units on cash. Mr. Mahipal is entitled to a commission
Rs. 300 per unit. The amount of commission will be
(a) Rs. 5,55,000 (b) Rs. 5,70,000
(c) Rs. 5,90,000 (d) Rs. 6,10,000
42. Vimal and Vishal are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2 : 1. On 1st Jan
2009, Vasu is admitted with 1/4th share in profits with guaranteed amount of Rs. 25,000.
The profits for the year ended 31 Dec, 2009 amounting to Rs. 76,000. The share of Vishal in
the profits should be
(a) Rs. 19,000 (b) Rs. 17,000
(c) Rs. 15,000 (d) Rs. 13,000
50. Mr. Yogesh was the holder of 700 shares of Rs. 100 each in KFC Ltd. upon which 50 per
share had been called up but he had paid only Rs. 25 per share thereon. The company
forfeited his shares and afterwards sold them to Kamlesh, credited as Rs. 50 per share paid
for Rs. 25,000. The amount to be transfer to capital reserve is
(a) Rs. 7,500 (b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 35,000 (d) Rs. 70,000
51. DBM Ltd. issued 7,000, 5% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 6%, redeemable at a
premium of 5% after 5 years payable as Rs. 50 on application and Rs. 44 on allotment. Total
amount of discount/loss on issue of debenture will be
(a) Rs. 42,000 (b) Rs. 35,000
(c) Rs. 77,000 (d) Rs. 1,22,000
52. From the following figures ascertain the gross profit/loss
Opening Inventory = Rs. 60,000
Cost of good sold = Rs. 2,20,000
Freight on purchase = Rs. 1,20,000
Sale = Rs. 3,00,000
83. Where there is an unconditional contract for sale of _______ , the property passes to
the buyer at the time when contract is made.
(a) Unascertained goods
(b) Specific goods in a deliverable state
(c) Specific goods to be put in a deliverable state
(d) Specific goods in a non-deliverable state
84. Partnership is created by _______ among the partners.
(a) Mutual status (b) Agreement
(c) Understanding (d) Birth
85. Every partner has the right to _______.
(a) Take part in the business of the firm
(b) To share exclusive profits
(c) To use the property of the firm for personal purposes
(d) Pay taxes
86. Nature of the partnership is:
(a) Involuntary and Contractual (b) Statutory and Contractual
(c) Voluntary and Contractual (d) Economical & Ethical
87. The partner who does not take part in the conduct of the business is known as _______.
(a) Sub partner (b) Nominal partner
(c) Sleeping partner (d) All of the above
88. Each partner of a firm is _______.
(a) Principals as well as agents (b) Only agents of the firm
(c) Only representative of the firm (d) Only Co-partners of the firm
89. A partnership firm is _______.
(a) Judicial person
(b) Not a distinct legal entity from its partners
(c) A distinct legal entity from its partners
(d) Either (a) or (c)
90. The members of a club or associations have _______ of the club or association.
(a) Interest in the property (b) Mutual agency
(c) Membership (d) Both (a) and (b)
91. In all the joint Hindu family firms, their _______ are personally liable to third parties.
(a) Kartas and major members (b) Kartas only
(c) All major members (d) All the members
151. If (P+1)th term of A.P. is twice the (q+1)th term; then the ratio of (P+q+1)th term and
(3P+1)th term is:
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
(c) 1:3 (d) None of these
152. If the common difference of an A.P. equals to the first term, then the ratio of its mth term
and nth term is:
(a) n:m (b) m:n
(c) m2 :m2 (d) None of these
1 1
153. If the mth term of A.P. is and the nth term is , then its mnth term is:
n m
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) None of these
1 1 1
154. Sum the series upto n terms + + + ............
2.5 5.8 8.11
n n
(a) (b)
2(3n 2) 2(3n 2)
n
(c) (d) None of these
2(3n 2)
155. Which term of the series 0.004 + 0.02 + 0.1 + ……………… is 12.5
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 6 (d) None of these
157. Find the compound interest on Rs. 2,000 at 5% per annum, compounded yearly for 2½
years.
(a) Rs. 250 (b) Rs. 250.50
(c) Rs. 260.12 (d) None of these
158. The amount will be 9 times its principle in two years the rate if interest is
(a) 100% (b) 200%
(c) 300% (d) None of these
159. If the compound interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 3% be Rs. 101.50, what would be
the S.I.?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 300 (d) None of these
1 th
165. A person runs the first of the distance at 2 km/hr, the next one half at 3 km/hr and the
5
remaining distance at 1 km/hr. Find his average speed.
15 30
(a) km./hr.. (b) km./hr..
17 17
17
(c) km./hr.. (d) None of these
30
166. The mean of 100 observations is 50. If one of the observations which was 50 is replaced by
40, the resulting mean will be
(a) 40 (b) 49.90
(c) 50 (d) None of these
167. The combined mean of three groups is 12 and the combined mean of first two groups is
3. If the first, second and third groups have 2, 3 and 5 items respectively, then the mean
of third group is
(a) 10 (b) 21
(c) 12 (d) 13
168. Mode is
(a) Least frequent value (b) Middle most value
(c) Most frequent value (d) None of these
169. If the arithmetic mean of two numbers is 10 and their geometric mean is 8, the numbers are
(a) 20,5 (b) 16,4
(c) 15,5 (d) 12,8
170. A frequency distribution can be presented graphically by a
(a) Pie diagram (b) Histogram
(c) Pictogram (d) Line diagram.
171. In co - variance method the sum of difference of rank is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) Cannot say
172. The relation between the production of Pig iron and Soot content in a factory is
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) 0 (d) None of these
173. If the relation between two random variables x and y is 2x + 3y = 4, then the correlation
coefficient between them is
(a) –2/3 (b) 1
(c) –1 (d) None of these
174. For a two way frequency table having (m×n) classification the total number of cells is
(a) m (b) n
(c) m+n (d) mn
175. For a m×n two way or bivariate frequency table, the maximum number of marginal
distributions is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) m+n (d) m.n
P1Q1
178. For factor reversal test: P01 Q 01
P0Q0 = True Value Ratio (T.V.R.) This is
1 2
(a) (b)
5 5
3
(c) (d) None of these
5
182. A card is drawn from a pack of playing cards at random. What is the probability that the
card drawn is neither a king nor a heart?
4 9
(a) (b)
13 13
2
(c) (d) None of these
13
183. A bag contains 3 red, 5 yellow and 4 green balls. 3 balls are drawn at random. Find the
chance that balls drawn contain exactly two green balls.
12 10
(a) (b)
55 55
13
(c) (d) None of these
55
184. A husband and a wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of husband’s selection is 3/5 and that of wife’s selection is 1/5. Then the
probability that only one of them is selected is
16 17
(a) (b)
25 25
14
(c) (d) None of these
25
185. A bag contain 4 white balls and 2 black balls. Another contains 3 white and 5 black balls. If
one ball is drawn from each bag. Then the probability that one is white and one is black is
11 13
(a) (b)
24 24
15
(c) (d) None of these
25
186. Poison distribution is a biparametric distribution. This is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
187. Binomial distribution is a biparametric distribution. This is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
188. If x and y are two independent variance follow poison distribution in the parameters
m1 & m2 respectively. If z = x + y and also follows the poison distribution then the
parameter of Z is
(a) m1 – m2 (b) m1. m2
(c) m1+ m2 (d) None of these
189. If x and y are two independent variables such that x ~ B (n1, P) and y ~ B (n2, p) then the
parameter of Z = x + y is
(a) (n1+n2), P (b) (n1–n2), P
(c) (n1+n2), 2P (d) None of these
32 1
(a) (b)
99 3
74
(c) (d) None of these
99
193. A committee of 4 persons is to be appointed from 3 officers of the production department, 4
officers of the purchase department, two officers of the sales department and 1 Chartered
Accountant. Find the chance there must be one from each category.
4 3
(a) (b)
35 35
1
(c) (d) None of these
7
194. A committee of 4 persons is to be appointed from 3 officers of the production department, 4
officers of the purchase department, two officers of the sales department and 1 Chartered
Accountant. Find the chance that it should have at least one from the purchase department.
4 39
(a) (b)
35 42
42
(c) (d) None of these
105
195. A committee of 4 persons is to be appointed from 3 officers of the production department, 4
officers of the purchase department, two officers of the sales department and 1 Chartered
Accountant. Find the chance that the Chartered Accountant must be in the committee.
4 39
(a) (b)
35 42
42
(c) (d) None of these
105
196. Six boys and five girls are to be seated in a row such that no two girls and no two boys sit
together. Find the number of ways in which this can be done.
(a) 86,400 (b) 85,000
(c) 85,400 (d) None of these
197. A six faced die is so biased that it is twice as likely to show an even number as an odd number
when it is thrown. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers is even.
4 5
(a) (b)
9 9
3
(c) (d) None of these
8
198. A and B select a digit at random from 0, 1, 2, 3, ………….. 9 independently. Find the chance
that the product of the two digits chosen is Zero.
1 2
(a) (b)
5 5
4
(c) (d) None of these
5
195 n 3 P3
199. In the sequence (xn) where xn & n belongs to N, the set of natural numbers.
4n! (n 1)!
The number of positive terms is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 5
1 1 1
200. If , , are in A.P., then x, y, z are in
x + y 2y y + 2
(a) A.P. (b) G.P.
(c) Cannot determined (d) None of these
54 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II
Questions 1 to 200 have only one correct answer and carry + 1mark for each correct answer and
– 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
23. Ram and Shyam are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. On admission
Mohan brings Rs. 70,000 cash as capital and Rs. 48,000 against goodwill. New profit sharing
ratio between Ram, Shyam and Mohan are 7:5:4. The sacrificing ratio between Ram and
Shyam will be
(a) 2:1 (b) 5:4
(c) 3:1 (d) 4:2
24. Nikhil of Delhi sent out goods costing Rs. 45,000 to Shyam of Kolkata at cost +33 1/3%.
1/10th of goods were lost in transit and 2/3rd of the remaining goods are sold at 20% above
IP. The amount of sales value will be
(a) Rs.36,000 (b) Rs.60,000
(c) Rs.54,000 (d) Rs.43,200
25. Debit balance as per cash book of Shyam enterprises as on 31.3.2010 is Rs. 1,500. Cheques
deposited but not cleared amount Rs. 100 and cheque issued but not presented is Rs. 150.
The bank allowed interest amounting Rs. 50 and collected dividend Rs. 50 on behalf of
ABC enterprises. Balance as per pass book should be
(a) Rs.1,650 (b) Rs.1,600
(c) Rs.1,850 (d) Rs.1,450
26. A business purchased goods for Rs. 10,00,000 and sold 60% of such goods during the financial
year ended 31st March 2010. The market value of the remaining goods was Rs. 3,00,000.
They valued the closing Inventory at cost. He violated the concept of
(a) Periodicity (b) Cost
(c) Conservatism (d) Money Measurement
27. A Company forfeited 2,000 shares of Rs. 10 each (which were issued at par) held by
Mr. John for non-payment of allotment money of Rs. 4 per share. The called-up value per
share was Rs. 9. On forfeiture the amount debited to share capital Account will be
(a) Rs.18,000 (b) Rs.8,000
(c) Rs.10,000 (d) Rs.2,000
28. Ram and Rahim are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. The firm’s
profit or loss of last four years amounting Rs. 18,000, Rs. 8,500 (loss), Rs. 30,000 and Rs.
16,500 respectively. The value of goodwill on the basis of one and a half year’s purchase of
average profits of last four years will be
(a) Rs.14,000 (b) Rs.6,000
(c) Rs.17,000 (d) Rs.21,000
35. Books of Ram shows on 1st January 2010 furniture Rs. 20,000. During the year a part of
the furniture whose book value on 1st January 2010 is Rs. 1,200 has been exchanged
with another furniture by paying additional Rs. 500. Ram charge depreciation @ 10%
p.a. The net amount of the furniture to be shown in the balance sheet will be
(a) Rs. 18,478 (b) Rs. 18,600
(c) Rs. 18,504 (d) Rs. 18,784
36. X, Y and Z takes a joint life policy; their profit sharing ratio is 2:2:1. On death of Y, X and Z
decides to share profits equally. They had taken a Joint life policy of Rs. 2,50,000 with the
surrender value Rs. 50,000. What will be the treatment in the partner’s capital account on
receiving the JLP amount if joint life policy is maintained at surrender value along with the
reserve?
(a) Rs. 2,50,000 created to all the partners in old ratio
(b) Rs. 2,00,000 credited to all the partner in old ratio
(c) Distribute JLP reserve account in old profit sharing ratio
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
37. Mohit Ltd. had 10,000, 10% redeemable preference shares of Rs. 10 each, fully paid up.
The company decided to redeem these preference shares at par by the issue of sufficient
number of equity shares of Rs. 10 each fully paid up. The number of equity share issued
should be
(a) 11,000 (b) 9,000
(c) 7,000 (d) 10,000
38. Goods costing Rs. 2,00,000 is sent on consignment basis. These goods are invoiced to give a
gross margin of 20% on invoice price. The amount of loading is :
(a) Rs.50,000 (b) Rs.40,000
(c) Rs.60,000 (d) Rs.55,000
39. A lease is purchased on 1st January 2010 for 4 years at a cost of Rs. 1,00,000. Lease is to be
depreciated by the annuity method charging 5% interest. Annuity of Re. 1 over 4 years
charging 5% interest is Re. 0.282012. The amount of annual depreciation will be
(a) Rs.26,405 (b) Rs.27,612
(c) Rs.28,201 (d) Rs.28,000
40. Ashok Ltd. purchased land and building from Vivek Ltd. for a book value of Rs. 2,00,000.
The consideration was paid by issue of 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of
20%. The debenture account is credited with
(a) Rs.2,50,000 (b) Rs.2,40,000
(c) Rs.2,70,000 (d) Rs.1,90,000
48. Which one of these is not a cause of difference in balance as per pass book and as per
cash book
(a) Errors in cash book
(b) Errors in pass book
(c) Cheques deposited and cleared
(d) Cheques issued but not presented for payment.
49. If average stock = Rs. 20,000. Closing stock is Rs. 4,000 more than opening stock then
the value of closing stock will be
(a) Rs.16,000 (b) Rs.18,000
(c) Rs.20,000 (d) Rs.22,000
50. If sales is Rs. 10,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25%, then the cost of
goods sold will be
(a) Rs. 2,000 (b) Rs. 8,000
(c) Rs. 2,500 (d) Rs. 10,000
51. Rajesh of Ramnagar sends out goods costing Rs. 2,00,000 to Gopal of Gujarat.
3/5th of the goods were sold by consignee for Rs. 1,50,000. Commission 2% on sales plus
10% of gross sales less all commission exceeds cost price. The amount of commission will be
(a) Rs. 4,545.45 (b) Rs. 5,454.54
(c) Rs. 6,363.63 (d) Rs. 7,272.72
52. Ankit, Anu and Anurag are partners sharing profits in the ratio 4:3:2. On retirement of
Anu, goodwill was valued Rs. 90,000. The contribution of Ankit and Anurag to compensate
Anu will be
(a) Rs. 20,000 and Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 8,700 and Rs. 21,300
(d) Rs. 10,800 and Rs. 18,200
53. Jai Ltd. purchased machinery from Om Ltd. for Rs. 8,00,000. The consideration was paid
by issue of 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 20%. Number of debentures
issued by Jai Ltd. will be
(a) 8,000 (b) 10,000
(c) 12,000 (d) 15,000
54. Ankur purchased a computer costing Rs. 24,000. Repairing expenses Rs.1,500 & other charges
(loading & unloading) Rs. 1,500 were incurred by him. He sold the computer at 25% margin
on selling price. The profit on sale will be
(a) Rs. 8,500 (b) Rs. 9,000
(c) Rs. 10,000 (d) Rs. 11,500
61. A Minor admitted to the benefits of the firm, towards third party
(a) He is personally liable (b) He is not personally liable
(c) He is liable only upto his share in the firm (d) He has no liability at all.
62. The reconstitution of the firm takes place in case of
(a) Admission of a partner (b) Retirement of a partner
(c) Expulsion or death of a partner (d) All of the above.
79. A contract to do or to abstain from doing a certain thing on the happening of an event
(a) Cannot be enforced
(b) Can be enforced when the event has happened
(c) Can be enforced at any time
(d) Can not be lawful
80. A person having possession of goods under voidable contract can sell the goods before
_________ of the contract by the agreed party.
(a) Confirmation (b) Execution
(c) Rescission (d) Ratification
81. When the seller gives physical delivery of the goods to the buyer it is called ________ delivery.
(a) Systematic (b) Actual
(c) Construction (d) Symbolic
82. In the case of ______, in addition to the implied conditions as to merchantability, there is
another implied condition that the goods shall be wholesome.
(a) Eatables (b) Shares
(c) Gold (d) Machineries
83. An ‘auction sale’ is a mode of selling property by inviting bids.
(a) Privately (b) Publicly
(c) Cordially (d) All of the above
84. If the changes taking place in a registered firm are not registered with the registrar of firms,
it is _________.
(a) No more a registered firm
(b) Needs to be re-registered
(c) Cannot file suit against other party
(d) Can not claim its statutory rights
85. The public notice is not required if partner __________.
(a) Retires (b) Expelled
(c) Dies (d) Either (a) or (b)
86. Extension or restriction of implied authority can be made by
(a) Any one of partner (b) Majority of the partners
(c) All the partners unanimously (d) At least 75% of total partners’ strength
87. ____________ means a claim to any debt or any beneficial interest in movable property not
in possession and which can be enforced through the court of law.
(a) Actionable claim (b) Auctionable claim
(c) Default claim (d) None of the above
101. The definition “Science which deals with wealth” was given by:
(a) Alfred Marshall (b) A.C. Pigou
(c) Adam Smith (d) J. B. Say
102. Questions like what should be the level of national income, what should be the wage rate fall
within the scope of:
(a) Positive Science (b) Normative Science
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
103. The shape of PPC is concave due to:
(a) Falling opportunity cost between two goods
(b) Rising opportunity cost between two goods
(c) Constant opportunity cost between two goods
(d) None of the above
104. Which of the following is not one of the features of capitalist economy?
(a) Right of private property
(b) Freedom of choice by the consumers
(c) No profit, No Loss motive
(d) Competition
131. Which of the following has not been a part of the land reforms programme in India?
(a) Ceiling an holding (b) Consolidation of holding
(c) Abolition of zamindari system (d) Agricultural holding tax
132. Disguised unemployment in India is maximum in:
(a) Agricultural Sector (b) Secondary Sector
(c) Tertiary Sector (d) Both (a) and (c)
133. Which of the following is an economic activity?
(a) Seeing T.V.
(b) Teaching one’s own son at home
(c) Medical Facilities rendered by a charitable hospital
(d) A housewife preparing food for the household
134. The cost incurred on the factor of production is known as:
(a) Accounting cost (b) Economic cost
(c) Marginal cost (d) Implicit cost
135. Which of the following is considerered as economic cost?
(a) The normal return on money capital invested
(b) Salary of entrepreneur
(c) The interest on capital invested
(d) All of the above
136. Economic cost means
(a) Accounting cost + Implicit cost (b) Accounting cost + Marginal cost
(c) Cash cost + Opportunity cost (d) Implicit cost
137. When is average product at its maximum point
(a) When AP intersects MP (b) When AP intersects TP
(c) When MP is highest (d) At the point of inflexion
138. When is TP maximum?
(a) When AP becomes Zero
(b) When MP becomes Zero
(c) At the intersecting point of AP and MP
(d) When MP is highest
139. Variable cost includes the cost of
(a) Buying land and building
(b) Hire charges of machinery
(c) Insurance premium
(d) Material bought
147. A firms average fixed cost is Rs.20 at 6 units of output. What will it be at 4 units of
output:
(a) Rs. 60 (b) Rs. 30
(c) Rs. 40 (d) Rs. 20
148. A firm has producing 7 units of output has an average total cost of Rs. 150 and has to
pay Rs. 350 to its fixed factors of production whether it produces or not. How much of
the average total cost is made up of variable cost?
(a) 200 (b) 50
(c) 300 (d) 100
149. A firm has variable cost of Rs.1,000 at 5 units of output. If fixed cost are Rs.400, what will be
the average total cost at 5 units of output?
(a) 380 (b) 280
(c) 60 (d) 400
150. The vertical difference between TVC and TC is equal to:
(a) MC (b) AVC
(c) TFC (d) None of the above
SECTION – D : QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE (50 MARKS)
151. The ratio of the sum and the difference of two numbers is 7:1. Find the ratio of those two
numbers.
(a) 5:3 (b) 4:3
(c) 4:5 (d) None of these
152. The difference between a two digit number and the number obtained by inter–changing the
digit is 54. What is the difference of the two digits of the number?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 6 (d) None of these
153. The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than its denominator. If the numerator is decreased by
2 and the denominator is increased by 1, then the denominator is eight times the numerator.
Then the fraction is
(a) 3/7 (b) 4/7
(c) 9/7 (d) None of these
154. Father is six times as old as his son. Four years hence he will be four times as old as his son.
Then the present ages are
(a) 42, 8 (b) 36, 6
(c) 40, 10 (d) None of these
0.03
156. If log3 = 0.48 and log 7 = 0.84, then the value of log is
0.7
(a) – 2.26 (b) – 3.26
(c) – 1.36 (d) None of these
157. Evaluate 4
0.5173
(a) 0.8480 (b) 0.8210
(c) 0.6480 (d) None of these
3
0.7214 20.37
158. Evaluate
69.8
(a) 1.5948 (b) 0.5948
(c) 0.2348 (d) None of these
159. A sum of Rs. 4,000 is invested in an account that pays 6% interest compounded annually. If
yields Rs. 5,353 after a number of years. Determine the number of years for which the sum
was inverted.
(a) 8 (b) 5
(c) 10 (d) None of these
23
160. If log2 x + log8x + log32x = then the value of x is
15
(a) 8 (b) 5
(c) 2 (d) None of these
161. The number of ways in which n different books can be arranged in an almirah so that two
particular books are always together is –
(a) n!×2! (b) (n–1)! × 2!
(c) (n–2)! (d) None of these
162. There are 3 copies each of two books and two copies each of five books. In how many ways
can a book seller arrange the 16 books in a shelf so that the copies of the same book are never
separated?
(a) 5040 (b) 5000
(c) 5030 (d) None of these
163. How many words can be formed with the letters of the world “PARALLEL” so that all
L’s do not come together?
(a) 2000 (b) 3000
(c) 4000 (d) None of these
164. Find the sum of four digit numbers made by the given digits 1, 3, 3, 0?
(a) 22554 (b) 22550
(c) 22,000 (d) None of these
165. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word “ BANANA”
(a) 720 (b) 140
(c) 280 (d) 256
3
166. Evaluate x 3 5x 4 dx
1 3/ 2 1 2/3
(a)
9
6x 3 11 c (b)
9
3 5x 4 c
1 3/ 2
(c)
30
3 5x 4 c (d) None of these
2x + 1
167. Evaluate: x(x + 1) dx
(a) log (x2 – x) + c (b) log (x2 + x) + c
(c) log (x2 + 1) + c (d) None of these
dx
168. Evaluate: x+ x
log x
169. Evaluate 3x
dx
1 2 1
(a)
3
log x c (b)
3x
log x c
1
(c)
3x
log 3x x c
(d) None of these
x 3 3x x 2e 2x e2x x 2e 2x xe 2x e 2x
(a) e c (b) c
3 2 4 2 2 4
x 3e 2x x 2 e x
(c) c (d) None of these
3 2
5
x2
171. Evaluate: 2 dx
0
x (5 x)2
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) –1 (d) None of these
2x 1
172. Evaluate: lim
x 0 1 x –1
(a) 2 log 2 (b) log 2
(c) 0 (d) None of these
|x –1|
173. Evaluate: lim
x 0 x –1
(a) –1 (b) 1
(c) Does not exist (d) None of these
x– | x |
174. If f(x) = , x 0 and f(x) = 2 for x = 0 is f(x) continuous at x = 0?
x
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Cannot say (d) None of these
dy
175. If y = log3 log3 x, find
dx
1 1
(a) (b)
x log 3.log x x log 3.log x
1
(c) (d) None of these
log 3.log x
176. A sum of money is put at compound interest for 2 years at 20% p.a. It would earn Rs. 482
more, if the interest were payable half-yearly than it were payable yearly; then the sum is
(a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 26,000 (d) None of these
177. What is the amount of an annuity if the size of the each payment is Rs. 3,000 payable at the
end of each year for 3 years at an interest rate of 9% compounded annually?
(a) Rs. 9,000 (b) Rs. 9,800.50
(c) Rs. 9,833.33 (d) None of these
178. Find the present value of an annuity of Rs. 1,000 payable at the end of each year for 10 years,
if the money is worth 5% effective.
(a) Rs. 7,724 (b) Rs. 7000
(c) Rs. 8000 (d) None of these
179. A company sets aside a sum of Rs. 45,000 annually for 9 years to pay off a debenture issue of
Rs. 5,00,000. If the fund accumulates at 6% p.a., find the surplus after full redemption of the
debenture issue.
(a) Rs. 15,500 (b) Rs. 16,500
(c) Rs. 17,500 (d) None of these
180. A company may obtain a machine either by leasing it for 5 years, (useful life) at an annual
rent of Rs. 2,000 or by purchasing it for Rs, 8,100. If the company can borrow money at 10%
p.a., which alternative is preferable?
(a) Leasing is preferable (b) Leasing is not preferable
(c) Cannot say (d) None of these
181. The sum of deviations of the given values from their ………… is always 0.
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) G.M.
(c) H.M. (d) Median
182. The sum of squares of the deviations of the given values from their ………… is minimum.
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None of these
183. Which is greatly affected by the extreme values?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) None of these
184. Which is not amenable to further algebraic treatment?
(a) Arithmetic Mean (b) Median
(c) Mode (d) Both (b) and (c)
17 15
(a) (b)
32 32
13
(c) (d) None of these
32
192. A, B, C are three mutually exclusive and exhaustive events associated with a random
experiment. Find P(A), given that P(B) = 3/2 P(A) and P(C) = 1/2 P (B)
3 4
(a) (b)
13 13
5
(c) (d) None of these
13
193. A committee of four has to be formed from among 3 economists, 4 engineers, 2 statisticians
and 1 doctor. What the probability that the committee consists of the doctor and at least one
economist?
(a) 0.3048 (b) 0.6048
(c) 0.9048 (d) None of these
194. The probability that a company executive will travel by plane is 2/3 and that he will travel
by train is 1/5. Find the probability of his traveling by plane or train.
11 13
(a) (b)
55 15
14
(c) (d) None of these
15
195. The probability that a contractor will get a plumbing contract is 2/3, and the probability
that he will not get an electric contract is 5/9. If the probability of getting at least one contract
is 4/5. What is the probability that he will get both the contracts?
14 13
(a) (b)
45 45
11
(c) (d) None of these
45
196. The mean of normal distribution is 50 and 5% of the values are greater than 60; then the
Standard Deviation of the distribution is: (Given the area under Standard Normal Curve
between z = 0 & z = 1.64 is 0.45)
(a) 6.7 (b) 7.6
(c) 6.82 (d) None of these
197. The mean monthly expenditure of a batch of students is Rs. 100 with standard deviation Rs.
20. If the expenditure is normally distributed find out the maximum expenditure of those
10% of the students whose expenditure is the lowest.
(a) Rs. 80 (b) Rs. 80.50
(c) Rs. 74.40 (d) None of these
Questions 1 to 200 have only one correct answer and carry + 1mark for each correct answer and
– 0.25 mark for each wrong answer.
4. In the case of downward revaluation of an asset, which is for the first time revalued,
................account is debited.
(a) Fixed Asset (b) Revaluation Reserve
(c) Profit and Loss A/c (d) General Reserve
Common
83 Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II 83
7. The value of an asset after deducting depreciation from the historical cost is known as
9. Overdraft as per cash book is Rs. 6,340. Interest on overdraft for 6 month ending
31st December, 2011 Rs. 160 is entered in pass book. Interest on investment collected
by bank and credited in the pass book Rs. 1,200. Overdraft as per pass book will be
(a) Rs. 5,300 (b) Rs. 7,380
(c) Rs. 7,700 (d) Rs. 4,980.
23. A building purchased on 1st January 2006 at Rs. 15,00,000 having useful life of 15 years
was depreciated on straight line basis. On 1st January 2009 the same building was revalued
upward by Rs. 3 lakhs. The revised amount of depreciation for the year 2009 will
(a) Rs. 1,33,000 (b) Rs. 1,26,000
(c) Rs. 1,25,000 (d) Rs. 1,30,000
24. Gopal sent out certain goods to Ramesh of Delhi. 1/10th of the goods were lost in transit.
Invoice value of goods lost is Rs. 12,500. Invoice value of goods sent out on consignment will be
(a) Rs. 1,25,000 (b) Rs. 1,20,000
(c) Rs. 1,40,000 (d) Rs. 1,00,000
25. Ram drew a bill on Shyam for Rs. 50,000 for 3 months proceeds of which are to be shared
equally. Ram got the bill discounted at 12% p.a. and remits proceeds to Shyam. The amount
of such remittance will be
(a) Rs. 16,167 (b) Rs. 32,333
(c) Rs. 24,250 (d) Rs. 25,000
26. If sales are Rs. 2,000 and the rate of gross profit on cost of goods sold is 25% than the cost of
goods sold will be
(a) Rs. 1,600 (b) Rs. 1,700
(c) Rs. 1,500 (d) Rs. 1,800
27. The profit of last three years are Rs. 42,000, Rs. 39,000 and Rs. 45,000. Find out the goodwill
at two year’s purchase.
(a) Rs. 1,26,000 (b) Rs. 42,000
(c) Rs. 36,000 (d) Rs. 84,000
28. If a purchase return of Rs. 1,000 has been wrongly posted to the debit of the sales return
account, but has been correctly entered in the suppliers account then the total of the
(a) The credit side of the trial balance will be Rs. 2000 more than the debit side
(b) The debit side of the trial balance will be Rs. 2000 more than the credit side
(c) Trial balance would show the credit side to be Rs. 1000 more than the debit
(d) Trial balance would show the debit side to be Rs. 1000 more than the credit
29. 10,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each were issued to public at a premium of Rs. 2 per share.
Applications were received for 12,000 shares. Amount of securities premium account will be
(a) Rs. 40,000 (b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 24,000
30. Rachna and Payal are partners sharing profits and losses equally. They admitted Ashna for
1/3 share in the firm. The new profit sharing ratio will be
(a) 2:2:1 (b) 3:2:1
(c) 1:2:1 (d) 1:1:1
38. Goods costing Rs. 2,00,000 sent out to consignee at cost + 25%. Invoice value of the
goods will be
(a) Rs. 2,40,000 (b) Rs. 2,30,000
(c) Rs. 2,50,000 (d) None of the above
39. The Board of Directors of a company decides to issue minimum number of equity shares of
Rs. 9 each to redeem Rs. 5,00,000 preference shares. The maximum amount of divisible
profits available for redemption is Rs. 3,00,000. The number of share to be issued by the
company will be
(a) 18,182 shares (b) 22,223 shares
(c) 20,000 shares (d) 25,000 shares
40. Ajay bought goods of the value Rs. 20,000 and consigned them to Saroj to be sold by them on
a joint venture, profits being divided equally. Ajay draws a bill on Saroj for an amount
equivalent to 80% of cost of consignment. The amount of bill will be
(a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 4,000
(c) Rs. 16,000 (d) None of the above
41. Beta Ltd. was formed as a public limited company with on authorised capital of Rs. 20,00,000
divided into shares of Rs. 10 each. Beta Ltd. issued fully paid up shares of Rs. 10 each in
consideration of acquiring asset worth Rs. 3,80,000 from M/s Rahim Bros. The shares are
issued at a premium of 25%. To record this transaction share capital need to be credited by
(a) Rs. 3,04,000 (b) Rs. 76,000
(c) Rs. 3,80,000 (d) Rs. 3,00,000
42. Manish purchased a car for Rs. 5,00,000 making a down payment of Rs. 1,00,000 and signing
a bill payable of Rs. 4,00,000. As result of this transaction
(a) Asset will increase by 4,00,000
(b) Liabilities will increase by 4,00,000
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Asset will increase by 5,00,000
43. The cash-book showed on overdraft of Rs. 1,500 but the pass book made up to the same date
showed that cheque of Rs. 100, Rs. 50 and Rs. 125 respectively had not been presented for
payment and the cheque of Rs. 400 paid into account had not been cleared. The balance as
per the pass book will be
(a) Rs. 1,625 (b) Rs. 1,375
(c) Rs. 2,175 (d) Rs. 1,100
44. If repair cost is Rs. 25,000, white wash expenses are Rs. 5,000 cost of extension of building is
Rs. 2,50,000 and cost of improvement in electrical wiring is Rs. 19,000. The amount to be
capitalized will be
(a) Rs. 2,69,000 (b) Rs. 2,99,000
(c) Rs. 2,80,000 (d) Rs. 2,74,000
53. Ryan Ltd. issued 5,000, 12% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a premium of 10% which are
redeemed after 10 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debenture
to be written off every year will be
(a) Rs.8,000 (b) Rs.10,000
(c) Rs.30,000 (d) Rs.40,000
54. As per the Companies Act, “Interest accrued and due on debentures” should be shown
in the balance sheet
(a) Under Debentures Account
(b) As Other Current liabilities
(c) As Provision
(d) As a reduction of bank balance
55. Preference shares amounting to Rs. 2,00,000 are redeemed at a premium of 5% by
issue of equity shares amounting to Rs. 1,00,000 at a premium of 10% the amount to be
transferred to capital redemption reserve account will be
(a) Rs.1,05,000 (b) Rs.1,00,000
(c) Rs.2,00,000 (d) Rs.1,11,000
56. If the rate of depreciation is same then the amount of depreciation under straight line
method vis-a-vis written down value method will be
(a) Equal in all years
(b) Equal in the first year but higher in subsequent years
(c) Equal in the first year but lower in subsequent years
(d) Lower in the first year but equal in subsequent years
57. A of Mumbai sends goods to B of Delhi, the goods are to be sold at 125% of cost which is
invoice price or above. B was entitled to the commission of 10% on sales plus 25% on any
surplus realised above invoice price. 10% of goods sent out on consignment (invoice value
of which is Rs. 12,500) were destroyed. 75% of the total consignment is sold by B at Rs.
1,00,000. The amount of commission payable will be
(a) Rs.10,000 (b) Rs.11,562.50
(c) Rs.9,700 (d) Rs.9,000
58. A and B enter into a joint venture sharing profits and losses in the ratio 2:3. Goods purchased
by A for Rs. 45,000. Expense incurred by A Rs. 13,500 and by B Rs. 5,200. B sold the
goods for Rs. 85,000. Remaining Inventory taken over by B as Rs. 7,200. The profit of
the venture will be
(a) Rs.9,800 (b) Rs.35,700
(c) Rs.21,300 (d) Rs.28,500
59. On 1.4.2009 Mohan invested Rs. 1,00,000 in a business. Interest on capital is to be
allowed @ 12% p.a. Accounting year is financial year. Amount of interest to be charged
to Profit and Loss account for the year 2009-2010 is
(a) Rs.12,000 (b) Rs.9,000
(c) Rs.10,000 (d) Rs.11,000
61. Which of the following is not the legal requirements of a valid offer?
(a) It must be communicated to the offeree
(b) It must be made with a view to obtain offeree’s assent
(c) It must express offeror’s final willingness
(d) It must be made to specific person and not to public at large
62. A promisee is a person:
(a) Who makes a promise
(b) A person who monitors the statement intentions of two parties
(c) To whom the promise is made
(d) Who fails to perform the promise
63. Silence cannot amount to offer by conduct. It is:
(a) True (b) Partly true
(c) False (d) Partly false
64. If the contract is impossible in itself physically or legally the agreement is:
(a) Void Contract (b) Voidable
(c) Void ab initio (d) None of these
65. ‘A’ Offers to sell his car to ‘B’. Only A can accept or reject it. This is a case of:
(a) General offer (b) Express offer
(c) Specific offer (d) Standing offer
66. A voidable contract is one which:
(a) Can be enforced at the option of aggrieved party
(b) Cannot be enforced in a court of law
(c) Can be enforced at the option of both the parties
(d) Courts prohibit
67. According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872 an agreement must be:
(a) In writing
(b) Registered
(c) Out of natural love and affection between two near relations
(d) All of the above
84. In a contract of sale of goods, implied condition as to description of goods applies where
goods are sold by _________.
(a) Sample (b) Description
(c) Sample and description (d) Junk dealer
85. When the goods have not been sold on credit and the buyer fails to pay the ________, the
unpaid seller can exercise his right of lien.
(a) Substantial portion of the price
(b) Whole of the price
(c) Part of the price
(d) Minimum portion of the price
86. In the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, partners in a firm are entitled to share profits _____and
contribute to losses ________ :
(a) Equally, equally
(b) Equally in capital contribution ratio
(c) Profit sharing ratio, in capital contribution ratio
(d) Capital contribution ratio, equally
87. A travel agency operates buses from Jaipur to Agra. The bus standing at its bus terminals is
with a view to taking the passengers. There is __________to take passengers.
(a) Internal offer (b) External offer
(c) Implied offer (d) Express offer
88. The parties to a contract should be __________ to contract.
(a) Able (b) Competent
(c) Reliable (d) Incapacitated
89. In a wagering agreement, the future event is the _________ in determining the agreement.
(a) Collateral aspect (b) Primary factor
(c) Secondary factor (d) (a) and (b)
90. In case of firms carrying on business other than banking, maximum numbers of partners
are ________.
(a) 20 (b) 21
(c) 25 (d) 10
91. _________ is an error of belief about something.
(a) Fraud (b) Representation
(c) Mistake (d) Misrepresentation
92. There can be a stranger to a ________.
(a) Contract (b) Consideration
(c) Agreement (d) Promise
94. When a seller of goodwill of a business agrees not to carry on similar business, the limits
and conditions imposed have to be _________ having regard to the nature of the business.
(a) Reasonable (b) Understandable
(c) Considerable (d) Unreasonable
95. _________ awarded with a view to punish the defendant, and not solely with the idea of
awarding compensation.
(a) Nominal Damages (b) Special Damages
(c) Vindictive Damages (d) Ordinary Damages
97. In a contract of auction sale, the property in the goods passes with _______.
(a) Payment of price (b) Fall of the hammer
(c) Consent of the owner goods (d) Happening of all the above
99. ‘A’ contracts to sing for ‘B’ at concert for Rs. 5000 which is paid in advance. ‘A’ is too ill
to sing. Decide.
(a) A will not refund the advance of Rs. 5000 to B.
(b) A must refund the advance of Rs. 5000 to ‘B’
(c) A should make a new contract for sing
(d) B will compel A to sing
101. The definition “Economics is the science which studies human behavior as a relationship
between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses” was given by:
(a) J. B. Say (b) Alfred Marshal
(c) Robbins (d) Paul. A. Samuelson
102. Economics is _________.
(a) Not a normative science.
(b) Not a positive science.
(c) Partly science and partly art
(d) Neither a normative nor a positive science.
103. Which of the following statements is incorrect in case of capitalist economy?
(a) There is equality of income among people in the economy
(b) Profit-motive gets precedence over social motive
(c) Freedom of enterprise about what to produce
(d) Right to own property
104. Which of the following is likely to cause an inward shift in a country’s PPC?
(a) Scientist discovering new techniques of production
(b) Workers getting job in making fly-over
(c) War destroying resources of the country
(d) The country finds new techniques of agricultural production
105. Calculate Income-elasticity for the household when the income of a household rises by 5%
and the demand for bajra falls by 2%.
(a) + 2.5 (b) – 2.5
(c) - .4 (d) + .4
106. The consumer surplus concept is derived from:
(a) Law of demand
(b) Indifference curve analysis
(c) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(d) All of above
107. The consumer is in equilibrium when:
(a) When marginal utility is constant
(b) When marginal utility is greater than price of the good
(c) When marginal utility is less than price of the good
(d) When marginal utility is equal to price of the good
118. About ———— percent of sick units are other than small units
(a) 90% (b) 10%
(c) 5% (d) 30%
119. The industrial sector depends on the agricultural sector because:
(a) The agricultural sector provides food and other products for the consumption purpose of
industrial sector
(b) The agricultural sector provider market for the industrial products
(c) The agricultural sector provides raw – materials to industry
(d) All of the above
120. The service sector in India now accounts for:
(a) 50-60% of GDP (b) 70-80% of GDP
(c) 40-50% of GDP (d) 30-40% of GDP
121. On which of the following, income tax is not imposed in India?
(a) Income from salary. (b) Income from house property.
(c) Interest on fixed deposits. (d) None of the above
122. PPF stands for:
(a) Private Provident Fund (b) Personal Provident Fund
(c) Public Provident Fund (d) Public Presidency Fund
123. Income Tax was introduced first time in India in 1860 and then discontinued in 1873. It was
re-introduced in the year:
(a) 1885 (b) 1886
(c) 1887 (d) 1890
124. Which of the following is not the example of direct tax?
(a) VAT (b) Wealth Tax
(c) Corporate Tax (d) Income Tax
125. Excise duty is imposed on
(a) Goods imported in India (b) Goods sold in India
(c) Goods manufactured in India (d) Goods exported from India
126. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Expenditure on financial assets which are produced and owned within the country is
included in national expenditure
(b) Expenditure on financial assets of foreign countries is included in national expenditure
(c) Goods produced in preceding years are also included in national income.
(d) None of the above
135. Indian Government aimed at reducing the maternal mortality rate to — per thousand
birth by the end of Eleventh Plan
(a) 5 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
136. The main objective of fiscal policy in developing countries is to:
(a) Promote economic growth
(b) Mobilise resources for economic growth
(c) Ensure economic growth and equitable distribution
(d) All the above
137. Suppose income of the consumers increases by 50 % and the demand for commodity x
increases by 20 % what will be the income elasticity of demand for commodity x ?
(a) . 04 (b) .4
(c) 4 (d) –4
138. ———— depicts complete picture of consumer tastes and preferences.
(a) Budget line (b) Average cost curve
(c) Indifference map (d) Marginal revenue curve
139. The share of Indirect taxes in the gross tax revenue (centre and state combined) is about
(a) 40 % (b) 65 %
(c) 59 % (d) 70 %
140. Population explosion occurs in ——— stage of the theory of demographic transition
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
141. A higher indifference curve shows:
(a) A higher level of satisfaction (b) A higher level of production
(c) A higher level of income (d) None of the above
142. In fiscal deficit we add borrowing and other liabilities to the ———
(a) Primary Deficit (b) Capital Deficit
(c) Budget Deficit (d) Money Deficit
143. In the case of a Giffen good, the demand curve will be
(a) Downward sloping to the right (b) Upward sloping to the right
(c) Vertical (d) None of the above
144. In case of an inferior good the income elasticity of demand is:
(a) Zero (b) Positive
(c) Negative (d) None of the above
151. A person opened a savings bank account 4 months ago, which has now a balance of
Rs. 21,315. If the bank pays 4.5% simple interest, how much money was deposited by
him, initially?
(a) Rs. 21,000 (b) Rs. 20,000
(c) Rs. 15,000 (d) None of these
152. Mohan deposits Rs. 500 into an account paying 8% simple interest. He makes two more
deposits of Rs. 1,000 each; first after 3 months and second after 6 months. How much will be
in his account at the end of the year, if he makes no other deposits and withdrawals during
the time?
(a) Rs. 2,600 (b) Rs. 2,650
(c) Rs. 2,640 (d) None of these
153. How long will it take Rs. 1,200 to amount Rs. 2,000 at 5% converted quarterly at
Compound Interest?
(a) 10 years 3 months (b) 10 years 5 months
(c) 10 years (d) None of these
154. A man borrowed Rs. 20,000 from a money lender but he could not repay the amount for a
period of 4 years. According the money lender’s demand showed Rs. 26,500 due from him.
At what rate percent annum compound interest did the money lender lend his money?
(a) 7% (b) 8%
(c) 7.5% (d) None of these
155. The compound interest earned by a money lender on Rs. 7,000 for 3 years if the rate of
interest for 3 years are 7%, 8% and 8.5% respectively is
(a) Rs. 1750 (b) Rs. 1800
(c) Rs. 1776 (d) None of these
156. What annual payment will discharge a debt of Rs. 770 due in years, the rate of interest being
5% per annum?
(a) Rs. 150 (b) Rs. 140
(c) Rs. 130 (d) None of these
157. The rate of interest for the first 2 years is 3% per annum, for the next 3 years is 8% per
annum and for the period beyond 5 years, 10% per annum. If a man gets Rs. 1520 as a
simple interest for 6 years; how much money did he deposit?
(a) Rs. 3800 (b) Rs. 3000
(c) Rs. 4000 (d) None of these
158. Rs. 7500 is borrowed at compound interest at the rate of 4% per annum. What will be the
amount to be paid after 6 months, if interest is compounded quarterly?
(a) Rs. 7650.75 (b) Rs. 7600.50
(c) Rs. 7000 (d) None of these
159. The compound interest on any sum at the rate of 5% for two years is Rs. 512.50. Find the
sum.
(a) Rs. 4000 (b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 3,000 (d) None of these
160. In what rate per cent per annum will Rs. 1,000 amount to Rs. 1331 in 3 years? The interest
is compounded yearly is:
(a) 10% (b) 12%
(c) 11% (d) None of these
abcde
(a) a+5 (b)
5
(c) 5(a + b + c + d + e) (d) a+4
168. A cricketer scored 180 runs in the first test and 258 runs in the second. How many runs
should be score in the third test so that his average score in three tests would be 230
runs.
(a) 219 (b) 242
(c) 334 (d) None of these
169. In a coconut grove, (x+2) trees yield 60 nuts per year, x trees yield 120 nuts per year and
(x–2) trees yield 180 nuts per year. If the average yield per year per tree be 100, then the
value of x is –
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 8 (d) 2
170. The average age of 24 students and the class teacher is 16 years. If the class teachers age is
excluded, the average reduces by 1 year. What is the age of the class teacher?
(a) 50 years (b) 40 years
(c) 60 years (d) None of these
171. If r = 0, then
(a) There is a perfect correlation between x & y.
(b) x and y are not correlated.
(c) There is a positive correlation between x & y.
(d) Do not exist.
172. If Covariance (x, y) < 0; then the relation between two variable is
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) (a) or (b) (d) None of these
173. Consider the two regression lines 3x+2y = 26 & 6x + y = 31. Find the mean values of x and y.
174. Consider the two regression lines 3x+2y = 26 & 6x + y = 31. Find the correlation coefficient
between x & y.
(a) 0.5 (b) –0.5
(c) 0.6 (d) None of these
175. Two regression lines are
(a) Reversible (b) not reversible
(c) cannot say (d) None of these
176. A problem of Mathematics is given to three students X, Y and Z whose chances of solving it
1 1 1
are , and respectively. Find the chance that the problem will be solved?
3 4 5
4 2
(a) (b)
5 5
3
(c) (d) None of these
5
104 Common Proficiency Test (CPT) Volume - II
3 1
(a) (b)
4 4
2
(c) (d) None of these
5
1 1 1
178. If P(A) = ; P(B) = and P( A B ) = then the value of P( A B ) is
2 3 4
1 11
(a) (b)
3 12
(c) 1 / 12 (d) None of these
1 1 1
179. If P(A) = ; P(B) = and P( A B ) = then the value of P ( A B ) is
2 3 4
5 7
(a) (b)
12 12
1
(c) (d) None of these
2
1 1 1
180. If P(A) = ; P(B) = and P( A B ) = then the value of P ( A B ) is
2 3 4
1 3
(a) (b)
4 4
2
(c) (d) None of these
5
181. From the following probability distribution table, find E(x).
x: 1 2 3
1 1 1
f(x):
2 3 6
54 1
(a) (b)
55 55
45
(c) (d) None of these
50
184. A and B are two candidates seeking admission in I.I.T. The probability that A is selected is
0.5 and the probability both A and B are selected is at most 0.3. Then the probability of B
getting selected is
(a) < 0.8 (b) < 0.9
(c) < 0.7 (d) None of these
185. One of the two events must happen. Given that the chance of one is two – third that of the
other. Then the odds in favour of the other
(a) 3:5 (b) 3:2
(c) 5:3 (d) None of these
186. If x be a poison variates with parameter 1; then find P(3<x<5) (Given: e–1 = 0.36783)
(a) 0.015326 (b) 0.15326
(c) 0.012326 (d) None of these
187. Find the probability that at least 5 defective bolts will be found in a box of 200 bolts. If it is
known that 2% of such bolts are expected to be defective (Given:
e–4 = 0.0183)
(a) 0.4717 (b) 0.3717
(c) 0.3017 (d) None of these
188. A man is dealt 4 spade cards from an ordinary pack of 52 cards. If he is given three more
cards, find the probability p that at least one of the additional cards is also a spade.
(a) 0.5718 (b) 0.3718
(c) 0.4718 (d) None of these
191. A random sample of the heights of 500 oranges was taken from a large consignement. 65
were found to be defective. Find Standard Error of the proportion of defectives.
(a) 0.015 (b) 0.15
(c) 0.017 (d) None of these
192. A random sample of the heights of 100 students from a large population of students in
a College having Standard Deviation of 0.75 ft. has an average height of 5.6 ft., Find
95% confidence limits for the average height of all the students of the College. (For
95%, Z = 1.96)
(a) 5.453, 5.747 (b) 16.453, 7.747
(c) 6.485, 7.647 (d) None of these
193. A sample of size 64 was drawn from a population consisting of 128 units. The sample
mean of the measurements on a certain characteristic was found to be 28. If the
population Standard Deviation is 4 then find the 96% confidence limit for the population
mean? (For 96%, Z = 2.05)
(a) 30.72, 27.32 (b) 27.272, 28.728
(c) 30.272, 32.728 (d) None of these
194. In a large consignment of oranges a random sample of 500 oranges revealed that 65 oranges
were bad. Find the 99.73% Confidence limit of bad ones? (For 99.73%, Z = 3)
(a) 8.5%, 17.5% (b) 0.85%, 0.175%
(c) 8%, 12% (d) None of these
195. Find the sample size such that the probability of the sample means differing from the
1
population mean by not more than th of the Standard Deviation is 0.95.
10
(a) 300 (b) 384
(c) 395 (d) None of these
196. The variance of 10 observations is 4, then their Standard Deviation is +2 or –2. This is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
199. The 95% confidence limit for the sample mean x is 1.96 . This is
n
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
200. The mean and variance of Binomial distribution is 12. This is
(a) True (b) False
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of these