Bbank

Chapter 21 Blood Vessels and Circulation 5) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
Multiple Choice Questions A) perforated capillaries.
1) The muscular layer of a blood vessel is the B) discontinuous capillaries.
A) tunica intima. C) fenestrated capillaries.
B) tunica externa. D) sinuses.
C) tunica media. E) vasa vasorum.
D) tunica interna. Answer: C
E) tunica adventitia. Diff: 1
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: C
Diff: 1
6) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in
A) arteries.
2) Compared to arteries, veins B) arterioles.
A) are more elastic. C) veins.
B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media. D) venules.
C) have a pleated endothelium. E) capillaries.
D) have thinner walls. Answer: E
E) hold their shape better when cut. Diff: 1
Answer: D
Diff: 1
7) Materials can move across capillary walls by
A) diffusion.
3) Arrange the structures in the following list in the order that blood will encounter as it flows from the output B) filtration.
side to the input side of the cardiovascular flow circuit. C) reabsorption.
D) all of the above
1. venules E) A and B only
2. arterioles Answer: D
3. capillaries Diff: 1
4. elastic arteries Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
5. medium veins
8) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the
6. large veins
A) vasa vasorum.
7. muscular arteries
B) plexus.
A) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
C) precapillary sphincter.
B) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
D) thoroughfare channel.
C) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
E) venule.
D) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6
E) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6 Answer: C
Diff: 1
Answer: E
Diff: 1
9) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following, except
A) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries.
4) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called
B) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein.
A) continuous capillaries.
C) the respiratory pump.
B) fenestrated capillaries.
D) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood.
C) sinusoidal capillaries.
E) muscular compression.
D) sinusoids.
E) vasa vasorum. Answer: B
Diff: 1
Answer: A
Diff: 1
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Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 8e (Martini) Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 8e (Martini)
10) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations? 15) Blood pressure is highest here.

A) artery A) artery
B) arteriole B) arteriole
C) capillary C) capillary
D) venule D) venule
E) vein E) vein
Answer: C Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
11) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the 16) Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased

A) length of a blood vessel. A) cardiac output.
B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids. B) peripheral resistance.
C) flow characteristics. C) blood volume.
D) blood viscosity. D) parasympathetic innervation.
E) blood vessel diameter. E) force of cardiac contraction.
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
12) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 17) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.

A) pressure builds. A) critical closing
B) pressure drops. B) mean arterial
C) flow becomes turbulent. C) pulse
D) viscosity increases. D) blood
E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller. E) circulatory
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
13) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the 18) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases. A) concentration of plasma sodium ions.
B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases. B) concentration of plasma glucose.
C) veins constrict. C) concentration of plasma waste products.
D) arterioles dilate. D) concentration of plasma proteins.
E) both C and D E) number of red blood cells.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
14) Blood pressure is determined by 19) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial

A) measuring the size of the pulse. space?
B) listening carefully to the pulse. A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space.
C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff. B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary.
D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel. C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure.
E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle. D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid movement.
Answer: C E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero.
Diff: 1 Answer: E
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Diff: 1
Page 551 Page 552
20) When renin is released from the kidney 25) Pulmonary veins carry blood to the
A) angiotensin I is converted to angiotensin II. A) right atrium.
B) angiotensinogen is converted into angiotensin I. B) left atrium.
C) angiotensin I increases salt reabsorption at the kidneys. C) lungs.
D) blood pressure goes down. D) aorta.
E) blood flow to the kidneys decreases. E) pulmonary circuit.
Answer: B Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
21) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure, except 26) Which of the following obeys the rule that arteries carry blood away from the heart?

A) release of renin. A) right coronary artery
B) decrease in blood volume. B) left circumflex artery
C) decreased peripheral resistance. C) common carotid artery
D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). D) marginal artery
E) increased levels of aldosterone. E) left descending artery
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
22) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure, except 27) Each of the following arteries is a component of the cerebral arterial circle, except the

A) increased levels of aldosterone. A) anterior communicating artery.
B) increased levels of angiotensin II. B) anterior cerebral artery.
C) increased blood volume. C) posterior communicating artery.
D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide). D) posterior cerebral artery.
E) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone). E) basilar artery.
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
23) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except 28) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery.

A) increased hematocrit. A) internal carotid
B) increased vessel diameter. B) external carotid
C) increased blood pressure. C) mental
D) decreased peripheral resistance. D) azygos
E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters. E) maxillary
Answer: A Answer: A
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
24) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 29) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein.

A) right atrium. A) vertebral
B) left atrium. B) azygos
C) lungs. C) innominate
D) aorta. D) internal jugular
E) systemic circuit. E) external jugular
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 553 Page 554
30) Which of the following are characteristics of cardiovascular regulation? 35) The hormone that produces cardiovascular effects similar to activation of the sympathetic nervous system is:

A) blood flow through tissues meets the demand for oxygen A) acetylcholine.
B) blood flow changes to match tissue responses B) epinephrine.
C) changes occur without drastically altering blood pressure C) bradykinin.
D) blood flow through tissues meets the demand for nutrients D) tachykinin.
E) all of the above E) sympathetic neuropeptide.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
31) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in 36) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following, except

A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain. A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure.
B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart. B) inhibition of EPO secretion.
C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system. C) activation of ADH secretion.
D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center. D) activation of aldosterone secretion.
E) increased heart rate. E) increased thirst and water intake.
Answer: C Answer: B
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
32) Fear can result in 37) Branches off the aortic arch include the

A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers. A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) increased stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center by higher brain centers. B) left subclavian artery.
C) increased heart rate. C) left common carotid artery.
D) decreased blood pressure. D) all of the above
E) both B and C E) B and C only
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
33) During exercise 38) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies).

A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles. A) radial
B) venous return increases. B) brachial
C) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase. C) lateral thoracic
D) all of the above D) digital
E) A and C only E) both B and C
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
34) In response to hemorrhage, there is 39) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery.

A) peripheral vasoconstriction. A) radial
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. B) ulnar
C) mobilization of the venous reserve. C) brachial
D) all of the above D) axillary
E) A and C only E) digital
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 555 Page 556
40) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery. 45) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta.
A) radial A) pericardium
B) ulnar B) mediastinum
C) brachial C) diaphragm
D) subclavian D) peritoneum
E) digital E) pleura
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
41) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. 46) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following, except the ________ arteries.

A) axillary A) basilar
B) digital B) superior phrenic
C) ulnar C) esophageal
D) subclavian D) bronchial
E) brachiocephalic E) intercostal
Answer: C Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
42) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery, the 47) Near the level of vertebra L4 , the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries.

A) circle of Willis. A) common carotid
B) common carotid artery. B) common iliac
C) external carotid artery. C) femoral
D) internal carotid artery. D) tibial
E) basilar artery. E) popliteal
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
43) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the 48) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries.

A) common carotid artery. A) radial and ulnar
B) basal ring. B) femoral and popliteal
C) cerebral arterial circle. C) femoral and tibial
D) external carotid artery. D) tibial and popliteal
E) arterial bypass E) femoral and deep femoral
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
44) Near the carotid sinus, 49) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery.

A) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch. A) iliac
B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries. B) deep femoral
C) the external carotid forms the internal carotid. C) popliteal
D) veins and arteries anastomose. D) tibial
E) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids. E) peroneal
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 557 Page 558
50) Branches of the popliteal artery include the 55) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm?

A) femoral artery. A) azygos
B) fibular artery. B) hemiazygos
C) iliac artery. C) cephalic
D) dorsalis pedis. D) radial
E) plantar arch. E) basilic
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
51) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the 56) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein.

A) internal jugular vein. A) azygos
B) external jugular vein. B) hemiazygos
C) superior vena cava. C) axillary
D) inferior vena cava. D) brachial
E) coronary sinus. E) basilic
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
52) Veins of the brain empty into 57) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein.

A) coronary sinuses. A) cephalic
B) dural sinuses. B) azygos
C) the circle of Willis. C) subclavian
D) external jugular veins. D) innominate
E) vertebral veins. E) external jugular
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
53) The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the 58) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________

A) heart. vein.
B) lungs. A) azygos
C) brain. B) hemiazygos
D) arms. C) axillary
E) legs. D) iliac
Answer: C E) brachiocephalic
Diff: 1 Answer: E
54) Veins of the upper arm include the ________ vein(s).
A) basilic 59) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the
B) cephalic A) inferior vena cava.
C) brachial B) superior vena cava.
D) A and C only C) innominate vein.
E) A, B, and C D) subclavian vein.
Answer: E E) azygos vein.
Diff: 2 Answer: B
Page 559 Page 560
60) Which of these contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein? 65) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and deep femoral vein.
A) internal iliac A) internal iliac
B) small saphenous and great saphenous B) external iliac
C) anterior and posterior tibial and fibular C) common iliac
D) peroneal and popliteal D) inferior vena cava
E) great saphenous and posterior tibial E) azygous
Answer: C Answer: B
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
61) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drain into a(n) 66) The two common iliac veins form the

A) plantar vein. A) femoral vein.
B) dorsal venous arch. B) greater saphenous vein.
C) small saphenous vein. C) inferior vena cava.
D) peroneal vein. D) hepatic portal vein.
E) iliac vein. E) innominate vein.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
62) Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s). 67) Nutrients from the digestive tract enter the

A) small saphenous A) inferior vena cava.
B) posterior tibial B) superior vena cava.
C) great saphenous C) hepatic portal vein.
D) A, B, and C D) hepatic vein.
E) A and C only E) azygos vein.
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
63) At the knee, the small saphenous, tibial, and fibular veins unite to form the ________ vein. 68) Elderly individuals usually have

A) femoral A) reduced hematocrits.
B) popliteal B) stiff inelastic arteries.
C) external iliac C) increased blood pressure.
D) internal iliac D) decreased cardiac reserve.
E) inferior vena cava E) all of the above
Answer: B Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
64) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein. 69) Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following, except

A) femoral A) hypertension.
B) deep femoral B) venous thrombosis.
C) internal iliac C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) external iliac D) problems with the conducting system of the heart.
E) lumbar E) arteriosclerosis.
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 561 Page 562
70) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? 75) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the

A) decreased plasma albumen A) arteries.
B) increased blood hydrostatic pressure B) arterioles.
C) increased tissue hydrostatic pressure C) capillaries.
D) both A and B D) venules.
E) A, B, and C E) veins.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
71) The smallest arterial branches are called the 76) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?

A) precapillary arterioles. A) tunica intima
B) arterioles. B) external elastic membrane
C) capillaries. C) tunica media
D) venules. D) internal elastic membrane
E) veins. E) tunica externa
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
72) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the 77) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called

A) tunica intima. A) arteries.
B) external elastic membrane. B) arterioles.
C) tunica media. C) capillaries.
D) internal elastic membrane. D) venules.
E) tunica externa. E) veins.
Answer: B Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
73) The thoroughfare channel ends at the 78) In large arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers is called the

A) artery. A) tunica intima.
B) arteriole. B) external elastic membrane.
C) capillary. C) tunica media.
D) venule. D) internal elastic membrane.
E) vein. E) tunica externa.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
74) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? 79) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?

A) tunica intima A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa E) tunica externa
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 563 Page 564
80) RBCs move single file through this structure. 85) Which vessel is known as a resistance vessel?
A) artery A) arteriole
B) arteriole B) elastic
C) capillary C) connective
D) venule D) muscular
E) vein E) venule
Answer: C Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
81) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 86) Elastic fibers in the walls of these vessels are stretched during systole.

A) artery. A) arteries
B) arteriole. B) arterioles
C) capillary. C) capillaries
D) venule. D) venules
E) vein. E) veins
Answer: B Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
82) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery? 87) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery?

A) arteriolar A) hypotension
B) elastic B) quadriplegia
C) connective C) stroke
D) muscular D) myocardial infarction
E) vascular E) pulmonary embolism
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
83) Which of the following lumen diameters would be typical of a muscular artery? 88) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States.

A) 0.2 mm A) 30
B) 1.0 cm B) 60
C) 0.4 mm C) 20
D) 0.4 cm D) 50
E) none of the above E) 25
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
84) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery? 89) These vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply.

A) arteriolar A) artery
B) elastic B) arteriole
C) connective C) capillary
D) muscular D) venule
E) vascular E) vein
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
Page 565 Page 566
90) Arteriosclerosis can lead to 95) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to

A) hypertension. A) arteriovenous pressure.
B) stroke. B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) coronary artery disease. C) arterial pressure.
D) both A and C D) peripheral pressure.
E) A, B, and C E) pulse pressure
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
91) A vein that measures 5 mm would be considered 96) Venous valves are responsible for

A) a large vein. A) preventing anterograde flow.
B) a venule. B) channeling blood away from the heart.
C) a medium vein. C) channeling blood toward the heart.
D) an arteriovenule. D) both A and B
E) a venous valve. E) both A and C
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
92) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the 97) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the

A) venous pressure. arterial and capillary systems.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure. A) doubles; decreases
C) diastolic pressure. B) reduces; increases
D) peripheral pressure. C) decreases; doubles
E) pulse pressure. D) increases; reduces
Answer: B E) none of the above
Diff: 2 Answer: B
93) The inferior vena cava is classified as a(n)
A) large vein. 98) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output.
B) venule. A) much higher than
C) medium vein. B) somewhat higher than
D) arteriovenule. C) equal to
E) venous valve. D) somewhat lower than
Answer: A E) much lower than
Diff: 1 Answer: C
94) Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels?
A) large veins 99) Blood pressure is lowest in the
B) venules A) arteries
C) medium veins B) arterioles
D) arteriovenules C) capillaries
E) venous valves D) venules
Answer: B E) veins
Diff: 1 Answer: E
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Page 567 Page 568
100) Which of the following affects blood flow through the body? 105) Elevated levels of the hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased
A) blood viscosity A) salt and water loss through the kidneys.
B) vessel diameter B) blood volume.
C) turbulence C) sodium ion levels in blood.
D) vascular resistance D) venous return and preload.
E) all of the above E) both B and D
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
101) Venae cavae are the largest of this type of vessel. 106) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the bodyʹs long -term compensation for

A) artery A) a heart attack.
B) arteriole B) hypertension.
C) capillary C) a serious hemorrhage.
D) venule D) prolonged exercise.
E) vein E) a heavy meal.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
102) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the 107) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in

A) tunica adventitia. A) skeletal muscles.
B) tunica media. B) cardiac muscle.
C) tunica intima. C) the pituitary.
D) tunica externa. D) bone.
E) tunica mater. E) skin.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
103) Of the following arteries, the one that is an elastic artery is 108) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium. Blood moves slowly

A) the subclavian artery. through these spaces. This tissue sample most likely came from the
B) the external carotid artery. A) heart.
C) the brachial artery. B) lungs.
D) the femoral artery. C) liver.
E) none of the above D) kidneys.
Answer: A E) skin.
Diff: 2 Answer: C
104) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body
A) accelerates reabsorption of water at the kidneys. 109) Factors that increase the risk of atherosclerosis include which of the following?
B) experiences a recall of interstitial fluids. A) high cholesterol
C) experiences an increase in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure. B) lack of exercise
D) increases water intake. C) smoking
E) all of the above D) obesity
Answer: E E) all of the above
Diff: 2 Answer: E
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Diff: 2
Page 569 Page 570
110) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. 116) Which of the following changes doesnʹt occur during exercise compared to rest?

A) arteries A) Cardiac output is higher.
B) arterioles B) Heart blood flow is higher.
C) capillaries C) Skin blood flow is lower.
D) venules D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower.
E) veins E) Kidney blood flow is lower.
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
111) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors slow their discharge, 117) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance, except

A) heart rate increases. A) increased sympathetic stimulation.
B) heart rate decreases. B) elevated levels of epinephrine.
C) stroke volume increases. C) vasodilation.
D) both A and C D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques.
E) both B and C E) elevated hematocrit.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
112) Which of the following would have the greater effect on vascular resistance? 118) Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output, except

A) doubling the length of a blood vessel A) increased venous return.
B) decreasing the diameter of a blood vessel by ½ B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) neither would be greater C) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
Answer: B D) increased blood concentration of glucose.
Diff: 2 E) stimulation of the heart by epinephrine.
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Answer: D
Diff: 2
113) If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
A) doubled.
B) halved. 119) In comparing a trained athlete to a nonathlete, which of these comparisons is false?
C) four times greater. A) The athlete has a lower resting heart rate.
D) 1/4 as much. B) Both hearts weigh about the same.
E) unchanged. C) The athlete has a higher resting stroke volume.
Answer: A D) The athlete has a higher exercise stroke volume.
Diff: 2 E) The athlete has a higher exercise cardiac output.
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Answer: B
Diff: 2
114) In which of the following would the resistance be greater? Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
A) a vessel 10 microns in diameter
B) a vessel 1 mm in diameter 120) Turbulent blood flow occurs
Answer: A A) when there are irregularities in the vessel wall.
Diff: 2 B) at high flow rates.
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts C) when there are sudden changes in vessel diameter.
D) A and C only
115) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest? E) A, B, and C
A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long Answer: E
B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long Diff: 2
C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page 571 Page 572
121) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________ mm Hg. 126) When will the blood pressure is greater?
A) 210 A) when the peripheral vessels dilate
B) 100 B) when the peripheral vessels constrict
C) 93 C) Neither is greater.
D) 105 Answer: B
E) none of the above Diff: 2
Answer: C Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts 127) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased
A) heart rate.
122) The continual movement of fluid through the interstitial spaces produced by capillary filtration serves which of B) cardiac output.
the following functions? C) blood flow to the lungs.
A) accelerates the distribution of nutrients and hormones D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
B) assists the transport of insoluble substances that cannot enter the capillaries E) none of the above
C) helps carry toxins and bacteria to cells of the immune system Answer: D
D) flushes hormones and wastes from the interstitial spaces Diff: 2
E) all of the above Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Answer: E
Diff: 2 128) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position,
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active.
B) venous return is decreased.
123) Edema is favored when C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs.
A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced. D) heart rate is reflexly elevated.
B) endothelial permeability goes up. E) all of the above
C) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated. Answer: E
D) both A and C Diff: 3
E) A, B, and C Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
Answer: E
Diff: 2 129) Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the elevated level of
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts hormone, she exhibits
A) decreased blood volume.
124) Relative to the lumen, which of these vessels has the thickest tunica media? B) increased blood pressure.
A) arteries C) increased body stores of sodium ion.
B) arterioles D) polycythemia.
C) capillaries E) both B and C
D) venules Answer: E
E) veins Diff: 3
Answer: B Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
Diff: 1
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts 130) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel?
A) artery
125) Which of the following is greater? B) arteriole
A) normal stroke volume C) capillary
B) stroke volume during circulatory shock D) venule
C) Both are about the same. E) vein
Answer: A Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 573 Page 574
131) Which of the following would you expect to have the lowest resting heart rate?

A) a trained athlete
B) an unconditioned adult
C) a person with heart failure
D) a teenager with a sedentary lifestyle
E) an 80-year-old woman
Answer: A
Diff: 3
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
132) After losing 25 percent of blood volume in a motorcycle accident, which of the following compensatory
responses would occur?
A) increased heart rate
B) increase of contractility
C) vasoconstriction of the body wall
D) venoconstriction of skin vessels
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 3
133) Paul has a horrible chainsaw accident and cuts several major blood vessels in his head and neck. As a result of
this injury, you would expect to observe all of the following, except a(n)
A) increased heart rate.
B) increase in cardiac output.
C) increased secretion of renin by the kidneys.
D) cold, clammy skin.
E) increased total peripheral resistance.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
134) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release?
A) renal artery thrombus
B) vasospasm of the renal arteries
C) circulatory shock
D) increased sympathetic activity
E) hypertension
Answer: E
Diff: 3 Figure 21- 1 Arteries
Use Figure 21- 1 to answer the following questions:
135) Identify the artery labeled ʺ16.ʺ
A) axillary
B) inferior mesenteric
C) celiac
D) superior mesenteric
E) splenic
Answer: B
Diff: 2
Page 575 Page 576
A) axillary
B) inferior mesenteric
C) celiac trunk
D) superior mesenteric
E) splenic
Answer: C
Diff: 2
A) axillary
B) brachiocephalic
C) common carotid
D) aorta
E) brachial
Answer: B
Diff: 2
138) Identify the arteries labeled ʺ9.ʺ
A) axillary
B) brachiocephalic
C) common carotid
D) aorta
E) brachial
Answer: C
Diff: 2
A) common iliac
B) internal iliac
C) external iliac
D) abdominal aorta
E) femoral
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Figure 21- 2 Veins
140) Identify the vein labeled ʺ9.ʺ
A) axillary
B) brachial
C) cephalic
D) basilic
Page 577 Page 578
E) median cubital 2) The increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the ________.
Answer: A Answer: venous reserve
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
141) Identify the vein labeled ʺ15.ʺ 3) The opening and closing of the precapillary sphincter is called ________.

A) axillary Answer: vasomotion
B) brachial Diff: 1
C) radial Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) basilic
E) ulnar 4) ________ is the regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed.
Answer: E Answer: Autoregulation
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
142) Identify the vein labeled ʺ10.ʺ 5) ________ are multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network.

A) inferior vena cava Answer: Collaterals
B) superior vena cava Diff: 1
C) aorta Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) pulmonary
E) thoracic 6) The direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial ________.
Answer: A Answer: anastomosis
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
143) Identify the vein labeled ʺ8.ʺ 7) A(n) ________ is a direct connection between an arteriole and a venule.

A) superior vena cava Answer: arteriovenous anastomosis
B) brachiocephalic Diff: 1
C) axillary Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) external jugular
E) subclavian 8) The vessel that supplies a capillary plexus from an arteriole is called a(n) ________.
Answer: B Answer: precapillary arteriole
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
144) Identify the vein labeled ʺ6.ʺ 9) The pressure difference between the base of the aorta and the right atrium is the ________.

A) inferior vena cava Answer: circulatory pressure
B) common iliac Diff: 1
C) internal iliac Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) external iliac
E) femoral 10) The term ________ refers to the pressure in the arterial side of the circulatory system.
Answer: D Answer: blood pressure
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
11) ________ refers to all the factors that resist blood flow in the entire circulatory system.
Short Answer Questions
1) The ________ are small blood vessels that nourish tissue components in the wall of large arteries and veins. Answer: Total peripheral resistance
Diff: 1
Answer: vasa vasorum
Diff: 1
Page 579 Page 580
12) In the condition known as ________, the wall of an artery becomes thicker and stiffer. 22) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the ________.
Answer: arteriosclerosis Answer: basilar artery
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
13) The condition known as ________ is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within the wall of arteries. 23) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper arm is the ________.

Answer: atherosclerosis Answer: brachial artery
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
14) ________ are the distinctive sounds heard through the stethoscope due to turbulence during the measurement 24) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the ________.

of blood pressure. Answer: diaphragm
Answer: Sounds of Korotkoff Diff: 1
Diff: 1 Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
25) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the liver, stomach, and spleen is the ________.
15) Points where a muscular artery can be compressed against a bone to control severe bleeding are called Answer: celiac artery
________. Diff: 1
Answer: pressure points Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Diff: 1
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms 26) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the pancreas, the small intestine, and most of the large intestine is the
________.
16) The process of decrease in vessel diameter that occurs due to smooth muscle contraction is called ________. Answer: superior mesenteric artery
Answer: vasoconstriction Diff: 1
27) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain from the anterior direction is the ________.
17) ________ conduct fluid from the interstitial space back to the venous system. Answer: internal carotid artery
Answer: Lymphatic vessels Diff: 1
28) The ________ artery is the kidneyʹs sole blood supply.
18) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________. Answer: renal
Answer: subclavian artery Diff: 1
29) The ________ supplies blood to the face and neck.
19) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the head and neck is the ________. Answer: external carotid artery
Answer: common carotid artery Diff: 1
30) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways.
20) The blood vessel that branches to form a right common carotid and subclavian artery is the ________. Answer: thoracic aorta
Answer: brachiocephalic artery Diff: 1
31) The blood vessels that supply blood to structures within the mediastinum other than the heart and pericardium
21) The blood vessel that branches from the subclavian artery to supply the anterior wall of the chest is the are the ________.
________. Answer: mediastinal arteries
Answer: internal thoracic artery Diff: 1
Page 581 Page 582
32) The common carotid artery divides to form the ________ and ________ carotid arteries. 42) Below the ankle the anterior tibial artery becomes the ________ artery on the top of the foot.

Answer: internal; external Answer: dorsalis pedis
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
33) The blood vessel that supplies venous blood to the liver is the ________. 43) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________ artery.

Answer: hepatic portal vein Answer: tibial
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
34) The small intestine and most of the large intestine receive blood from the ________. 44) The vessel that collects blood from the overlying structures of the head and neck is the ________.

Answer: superior mesenteric artery Answer: external jugular vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
35) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the ________. 45) The cervical region of the spinal cord is drained by the ________.

Answer: inferior mesenteric artery Answer: vertebral vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
36) Ovaries or testes receive a blood supply from the ________. 46) Blood from the brain is drained by the ________.

Answer: gonadal arteries Answer: internal jugular vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
37) The suprarenal glands receive a blood supply from the ________. 47) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________.

Answer: suprarenal arteries Answer: median cubital vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
38) Capillaries are continuous or ________. 48) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.

Answer: fenestrated Answer: basilic
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
39) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the ________. 49) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm.

Answer: lumbar artery Answer: cephalic
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
40) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the ________. 50) The ________ receives all the venous blood from the kidney.

Answer: external iliac artery Answer: renal vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
41) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________. 51) The ________ receives blood from the suprarenal gland.

Answer: internal iliac artery Answer: suprarenal vein
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 583 Page 584
52) The vessels that receive blood from the ovaries or testes are the ________. 62) A(n) ________ is a bulge, or weakened wall, of an artery.
Answer: gonadal veins Answer: aneurysm
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
53) Blood is drained from the liver by the ________. 63) ________ form elaborate networks within tissues that allow very slow blood flow.

Answer: hepatic vein Answer: Sinusoids
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
54) The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm. 64) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as ________.

Answer: phrenic vein Answer: total peripheral pressure
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
55) Blood returns from the gallbladder by way of the ________. 65) ________ are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood—tissue exchange.

Answer: cystic vein Answer: Capillaries
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
56) Blood from the medial border of the stomach is drained by the ________. 66) Venules feed blood into________.

Answer: gastric vein Answer: veins
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
57) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the ________. 67) After the precapillary arteriole, blood enters a ________.

Answer: inferior mesenteric vein Answer: thoroughfare channel
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
58) Veins from the spleen, pancreas, and internal border of the stomach unite to form the ________. True/False Questions

Answer: splenic vein 1) Venules have valves to assist venous return.
Diff: 1 Answer: FALSE
59) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two -thirds of the large intestine.
Answer: superior mesenteric vein 2) The lumen of a vein is bigger than that of its companion artery.
Diff: 1 Answer: TRUE
60) The hepatic portal vein forms from the fusion of the superior ________ and the splenic veins.
Answer: mesenteric 3) The tunica intima of an artery may have a pleated appearance.
61) Arterioles feed blood into________.
Answer: capillaries 4) Most arterioles vasoconstrict under sympathetic stimulation.
Page 585 Page 586
5) Capillaries are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit exchange between the blood and 3) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
interstitial fluids. Answer: The athleteʹs heart will be more massive, and will have a higher resting stroke volume and a lower
Answer: TRUE resting heart rate. During maximum activity, stroke volume will be much greater for the athlete, and
Diff: 1 cardiac output of the athlete may approach 30 liters/minute compared to 20 liters/minute of the
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms nonathlete. Maximum heart rates will be about the same despite the much larger cardiac output, due to
the larger stroke volume.
6) Capillaries feed blood into venules. Diff: 3
Answer: TRUE Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
Diff: 1
7) Blood pressure drops the most within arterioles.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
8) Venous pressure is approximately 18 mm Hg at most.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Essay Questions
1) During exercise, the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation. How does this
work? What other controls on blood flow operate?
Answer: When a skeletal muscle becomes more active, it consumes oxygen and nutrients and releases carbon
dioxide, waste products, and potassium ion. One effect of reduced oxygen is to cause the smooth muscle
cells that block capillary blood flow the precapillary sphincters to relax. As it relaxes, the capillary
opens and plasma and red cells can perfuse the active tissue. After recovery from exercise is complete,
gases and metabolites return to normal and blood flow returns to its resting value. This local mechanism
works along with central control of vasodilation by the sympathetic vasodilator fibers that appear to
utilize nitric oxide (NO) as the transmitter substance.
Diff: 3
2) If a wound overwhelms the clotting mechanism and leads to serious hemorrhage and drop in blood pressure,
what compensations does the body have to defend cardiac output?
Answer: Acutely, the autonomic nervous system undergoes sympathetic activation. Epinephrine from the
suprarenal medulla supports the neural mechanisms. Heart rate and contractility are increased from
trying to maintain cardiac output. Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance, raising blood
pressure and redirecting flow to vital internal organs. Simultaneously, venoconstriction occurs,
increasing venous return and forcing extra blood from the venous to the arterial side of the circulation.
The endocrine system releases ADH, angiotensin II, and aldosterone, which act together to raise blood
volume by reducing fluid loss at the kidney.
Diff: 3
Page 587 Page 588
Chapter 22 The Lymphoid System and Immunity 6) The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions, except the
Multiple Choice Questions A) left breast.
1) The lymphoid system is composed of all of the following, except B) right breast.
A) lymphatic vessels. C) left arm and shoulder.
B) the venae cavae. D) pelvic viscera.
C) the spleen. E) left side of neck.
D) lymph nodes. Answer: B
E) lymph. Diff: 1
Answer: B
Diff: 1
7) Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they
A) produce antibodies.
2) The primary function of the lymphoid system is B) monitor the contents of lymph.
A) circulation of nutrients. C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph.
B) the transport of hormones. D) accumulate cancer cells.
C) defending the body against both environmental hazards and internal threats. E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph.
D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins. Answer: E
E) both B and D Diff: 1
Answer: C
Diff: 1
8) All of the following are true of the thymus gland, except that it
A) activates B cells.
3) The lymphoid system does all of the following, except that it B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life.
A) helps maintain normal blood volume. C) involutes after puberty.
B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes. D) produces T cells.
C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid. E) lies in the anterior mediastinum.
D) transports lipids from the digestive tract. Answer: A
E) fights infection. Diff: 1
Answer: B
Diff: 1
9) In general, lymphocytes
A) spend most of their time in lymphoid tissue.
4) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following, except that they B) have relatively long life spans.
A) have no basement membrane. C) have two nuclei.
B) are larger in diameter. D) all of the above
C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles. E) A and B only
D) are smaller in diameter. Answer: E
E) are frequently irregular in shape. Diff: 1
Answer: D
Diff: 1
10) Lymphocytes
A) are actively phagocytic.
5) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the B) destroy red blood cells.
A) right lymphatic duct. C) respond to antigens.
B) thoracic duct. D) are primarily found in red bone marrow.
C) cisterna chyli. E) decrease in number during infection.
D) hepatic portal vein. Answer: C
E) dural sinus. Diff: 1
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page 589 Page 590
11) Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs? 16) Which class of leucocytes is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?

A) tonsils A) T lymphocytes.
B) spleen B) free and fixed macrophages.
C) lymph nodes C) B lymphocytes.
D) thymus D) neutrophils.
E) all of the above E) red blood cells.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
12) ________ are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx. 17) Lymphoid organs differ from lymphoid tissues in what way?

A) Tonsils A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphoid tissues do not.
B) Peyer patches B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphoid tissues are found in the thorax.
C) Lymph nodes C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphoid tissues are not.
D) Immune complexes D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphoid tissues can.
E) Spleens E) both A and B
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
13) ________ are clusters of lymphoid nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine. 18) The largest single collection of lymphoid tissue in the adult body is located in the

A) Tonsils A) liver.
B) Adenoids B) thymus.
C) Peyer patches C) tonsils.
D) Immune complexes D) spleen.
E) Lymph glands E) lymph nodes.
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
14) The term lymphadenopathy refers to 19) The white pulp of the spleen is populated by

A) a congenital lack of lymph nodes. A) lymphocytes.
B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes. B) trabeculae.
C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space. C) arteries.
D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation. D) veins.
E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes. E) fibrous connective tissue.
Answer: B Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
15) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as 20) The bodyʹs nonspecific defenses include all of the following, except

A) Peyer patches. A) the skin.
B) adenoids. B) complement.
C) white pulp. C) interferon.
D) red pulp. D) inflammation.
E) lymph nodes. E) antibodies.
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 591 Page 592
21) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except 26) The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the
A) body hair. A) T cells.
B) epithelium. B) B cells.
C) secretions. C) NK cells.
D) complement. D) phagocytes.
E) basement membranes. E) plasma cells.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
22) An inflammatory response is triggered when 27) Microphages include

A) red blood cells release pyrogens. A) monocytes.
B) T cells release interferon. B) Kupffer cells.
C) mast cells release histamine and heparin. C) neutrophils.
D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria. D) eosinophils.
E) blood flow to an area increases. E) both C and D
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
23) The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would 28) Various types of macrophages are derived from

A) cause inflammation. A) lymphocytes.
B) produce a fever. B) monocytes.
C) activate complement. C) neutrophils.
D) opsonize pathogens. D) eosinophils.
E) activate antibodies. E) basophils.
Answer: B Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
24) Characteristics of specific defenses include 29) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except

A) versatility. A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes.
B) tolerance. B) stimulation of inflammation.
C) memory. C) inhibition of the immune response.
D) specificity. D) opsonization.
E) all of the above E) chemotaxis.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
25) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by 30) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to

A) nonspecific immunity. A) the cell wall of bacteria.
B) specific immunity. B) the plasma membrane of bacteria.
C) immunological surveillance. C) an antibody attached to an antigen.
D) skin defenses. D) a cell surface antigen.
E) fever. E) a plasma protein.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 593 Page 594
31) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity. 36) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.

A) active A) B
B) natural passive B) plasma
C) passive C) helper T
D) auto D) cytotoxic T
E) innate E) suppressor T
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
32) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity. 37) The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.

A) naturally acquired active A) NK
B) natural passive B) B
C) passive C) helper T
D) auto D) cytotoxic T
E) innate E) suppressor T
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
33) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity. 38) The medullary cords of a lymph node contain ________ lymphocytes and plasma cells.

A) active A) cytotoxic T
B) naturally acquired passive B) medullary
C) passive C) NK
D) auto D) B
E) innate E) cordal
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
34) In passive immunization, the 39) Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the

A) immune system attacks normal body cells. A) bone marrow.
B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen. B) liver.
C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans. C) spleen.
D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal. D) thymus.
E) either C or D E) kidneys.
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
35) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells. 40) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

A) NK A) B
B) plasma B) plasma
C) helper T C) helper T
D) thymus D) cytotoxic T
E) liver E) suppressor T
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 595 Page 596
41) Cells that help regulate the immune response are ________ cells. 46) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their
A) B A) asymmetry.
B) plasma B) antigen specificity.
C) helper T C) light-chain variable segments.
D) cytotoxic T D) heavy-chain constant segments.
E) NK E) both C and D
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
42) Suppressor T cells act to 47) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and

A) suppress antigens. bacterial toxins are
B) erase memory T cells. A) IgA.
C) limit antigen proliferation. B) IgD.
D) inhibit T and B cell activities. C) IgE.
E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity. D) IgG.
Answer: D E) IgM.
Diff: 1 Answer: D
43) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.
A) NK 48) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are
B) plasma A) IgA.
C) B B) IgD.
D) helper T C) IgE.
E) suppressor T D) IgG.
Answer: A E) IgM.
Diff: 1 Answer: C
44) Stem cells that will form T cells develop in the
A) bone marrow. 49) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are
B) liver. A) IgA.
C) spleen. B) IgD.
D) thymus. C) IgE.
E) kidneys. D) IgG.
Answer: D E) IgM.
Diff: 1 Answer: B
45) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell.
A) B 50) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection,
B) T are
C) plasma A) IgA.
D) nodule B) IgD.
E) NK C) IgE.
Answer: B D) IgG.
Diff: 1 E) IgM.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: E
Diff: 1
Page 597 Page 598
51) Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are 56) When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.

A) IgA. A) B
B) IgD. B) plasma
C) IgE. C) helper T
D) IgG. D) cytotoxic T
E) IgM. E) NK
Answer: A Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
52) The binding of an antigen to an antibody can result in 57) Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?

A) neutralization of the antigen. A) all body cells with a nucleus
B) agglutination or precipitation. B) red blood cells
C) complement activation and opsonization. C) granulocytes and microphages
D) all of the above D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells
E) A and B only E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
53) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must 58) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell.

A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte. A) plasma
B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte. B) helper T
C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte. C) NK
D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface. D) suppressor T
E) depolarize the lymphocyte. E) cytotoxic T
Answer: D Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
54) The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to 59) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of

A) activate T cells. A) antigens.
B) display antigen fragments. B) antibodies.
C) process antigens. C) helper T cells.
D) produce antibodies. D) macrophages.
E) A, B, and C E) plasma cells.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
55) Which of the following statements about MHC proteins is not true? 60) Helper T cells do all of the following, except

A) bind complement A) trigger B-cell division, plasma cell maturation, and antibody production.
B) allow the body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells B) provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen.
C) function in antigen presentation C) enhance production of memory and cytotoxic T cells.
D) fall into two major classes D) attract and stimulate the activity of NK cells.
E) are found on all nucleated cells E) enhance nonspecific defenses.
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 599 Page 600
61) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. 65) Hormones of the immune system include all of the following, except
A) interleukins.
1. Several cycles of mitosis occur. B) interferons.
2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage. C) natriuretic factor.
3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection. D) thymosins.
4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen. E) tumor necrosis factor.
5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells. Answer: E
6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin. Diff: 1
The correct sequence for these steps is
A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2. 66) Interleukins do all of the following, except
B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6. A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes.
C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6. B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production.
D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6. C) stimulate inflammation.
E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2. D) elevate body temperature.
Answer: B E) stimulate collagen synthesis.
Diff: 2 Answer: E
62) During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur, except
A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately. 67) Newborns gain their immunity initially from
B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory cells. A) early immunizations.
C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. B) contact with viruses and bacteria.
D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances. C) antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother.
E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type. D) contact with siblings.
Answer: D E) breast milk.
Diff: 1 Answer: C
63) All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity, except that it
A) depends on memory B cells. 68) The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are
B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response. A) IgA.
C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers. B) IgD.
D) produces more effective antibodies. C) IgE.
E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two. D) IgG.
Answer: E E) IgM.
Diff: 1 Answer: D
64) All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity, except that it
A) depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell. 69) Autoantibodies
B) requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells. A) are produced by activated T cells.
C) is delayed by the memory cell stage. B) are produced during an allergic reaction.
D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise. C) are directed against the bodyʹs own antigens.
E) peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure. D) are the first step in immunological competence.
Answer: C E) are important in tissue rejection reactions.
Diff: 2 Answer: C
Page 601 Page 602
70) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are 75) Lymphatic capillaries are known for

A) immunodeficiency diseases. A) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation.
B) autoimmune diseases. B) being the smallest lymphatic vessels.
C) allergies. C) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries.
D) the result of stress. D) shingle-like endothelial cells.
E) signs of a weak system. E) all of the above
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
71) Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways, except by 76) Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with

A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release. A) hyaline cartilage.
B) depressing the inflammatory response. B) blood vessels.
C) reducing the number of phagocytes. C) adipose tissue.
D) inhibiting interleukin secretion. D) sensory nerve endings.
E) increasing the level of glucocorticoids. E) both A and C
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
72) Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include 77) The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct.

A) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens. A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections. B) the left jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
C) decreased numbers of T helper cells. C) two great vessels
D) B cells less responsive. D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts
E) all of the above E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
73) Which of the following interleukins stimulates T cells to produce IL-2, promotes inflammation, and causes 78) T is to ________ as B is to ________.

fever? A) top; bottom
A) IL-1 B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived
B) IL-3 C) thyroid; bowel
C) IL-4 D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom
D) IL-8 E) none of the above
E) both A and D Answer: B
Answer: A Diff: 2
Diff: 2 Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
79) Lymphocyte production involves
74) Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except A) bone marrow.
A) the thymus. B) thymus tissue.
B) lymphoid nodules. C) peripheral lymphoid tissues.
C) lymph node organs. D) all of the above
D) the spleen. E) A and B only
E) the brain. Answer: D
Answer: E Diff: 2
Page 603 Page 604
80) If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many protein chains would be set free? 85) Which of these statements about lymph flow in a node is false?
A) 2 A) lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic
B) 4 B) lymph first enters the subcapsular space
C) 6 C) lymph flows past dendritic cells
D) 8 D) the efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum
E) dozens E) the afferent lymphatics enters at the hilum
Answer: B Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
81) Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphoid nodule. 86) Nonspecific defenses include

A) central zone A) phagocytic cells.
B) germinal center B) physical barriers.
C) cortex C) inflammation.
D) both A and B D) interferons.
E) A, B, and C E) all of the above
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
82) Lymph nodes range in diameter from 87) Specific defenses depend on the activities of

A) 1 nm to 10 nm. A) monocytes.
B) 1 inch to 2 inches. B) leukocytes.
C) 1 mm to 25 mm. C) agranulocytes.
D) 1 cm to 25 cm. D) erythrocytes.
E) 1 cm to 1 inch. E) lymphocytes.
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
83) Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except the 88) Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include

A) CNS. A) sebaceous glands.
B) periphery. B) mucus.
C) renal arteries. C) epithelia.
D) groin. D) epidermal layers.
E) throat. E) all of the above
Answer: A Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
84) The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is found in the 89) Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system.

A) pancreas. A) 3
B) liver. B) 5
C) kidney. C) 7
D) spleen. D) 9
E) thyroid gland. E) 11
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 605 Page 606
90) Inflammation produces localized 95) Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the

A) swelling. A) circulation.
B) redness. B) thymus.
C) heat. C) red marrow.
D) pain. D) spleen.
E) all of the above E) yellow marrow.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
91) Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than 96) Which of these is not a property of an IgG heavy chain?

A) 37.2°C. A) has one constant segment
B) 99°F. B) has one variable segment
C) 98.6°F. C) binds one light chain
D) A or C D) binds antigen at both ends
E) A or B E) binds complement in the constant region
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
92) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by 97) Lymphoid tissue is found in the greatest quantity in

A) the variable segment of the light chain A) the adult spleen.
B) the variable segment of the heavy chain B) the adult thymus.
C) the constant segment of the heavy chain C) bone marrow.
D) A + B D) the tonsils.
E) A + C E) Peyer patches.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
93) ________ is the class of antibody first secreted in response to a new antigen. 98) T cells and B cells can be activated only by

A) IgG A) pathogens.
B) IgE B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors.
C) IgD C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.
D) IgM D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
E) IgA E) disease-causing agents.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
94) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants. 99) Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only

A) 1 A) when plasma cells are releasing antibodies.
B) 2 B) in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
C) 4 C) when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited.
D) up to 8 D) when NK cells are activated.
E) as many as a 1000 E) during infections.
Answer: B Answer: B
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
Page 607 Page 608
100) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the 105) Which of these is not a property of AIDS?
number of A) has killed at least ½ million people in the United States
A) B lymphocytes. B) is spread most often through sexual contact
B) NK cells. C) attacks the T helper (CD4) cells
C) T cells. D) is declining worldwide
D) neutrophils. E) almost always eventually fatal.
E) both B and C Answer: D
Answer: C Diff: 2
Diff: 2 Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
106) Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A. What does this medication do?
101) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes A) prevents inflammation from destroying the transplanted kidney
that occur during inflammation, except B) depresses hematopoiesis
A) redness of the inflamed tissue. C) decreases chemotaxis of macrophages to the transplanted kidney
B) chemotaxis of phagocytes. D) weakens antibodies in the blood
C) heat of the inflamed tissue. E) suppresses cytotoxic T cells, thus preventing rejection
D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space. Answer: E
E) swelling of the inflamed tissue. Diff: 2
Answer: B Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts 107) During a primary immune response, the
A) IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.
102) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These B) IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.
antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of C) IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel.
A) innate immunity. Answer: A
B) active immunization. Diff: 2
C) passive immunization. Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
D) natural immunity.
E) alloimmunity. 108) Leslie has a bad sore throat and the lymph glands in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that
Answer: C A) the focus of the infection is the lymph glands.
Diff: 2 B) lymph is not flowing through these lymph glands.
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts C) the affected lymph glands contain an increased number of lymphocytes.
D) the lymph gland is actively producing phagocytes.
103) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ E) the lymph gland has increased its secretion of thymosin.
cells. Answer: C
A) B Diff: 3
B) plasma Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
C) cytotoxic T
D) helper T 109) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons?
E) suppressor T A) secrete strong acid
Answer: D B) secrete organic solvent
Diff: 2 C) secrete free radicals
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis
E) secrete mutant proteins
104) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through Answer: D
A) eating contaminated food. Diff: 1
B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes. Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
C) intimate contact with an infected personʹs body fluids.
D) casual contact with an infected individual.
E) sharing clothes with an infected individual.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page 609 Page 610
110) A sample of Johnʹs blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
A) is feeling achy.
B) is producing T lymphocytes.
C) has a sore throat.
D) is running a fever.
E) has swollen lymph nodes.
Answer: D
Diff: 3
111) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps
virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person
A) has just recovered from mumps.
B) was recently infected with mumps.
C) is allergic to mumps.
D) is immune to mumps.
E) is relying on passive immunity.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
Figure 22- 1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
112) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA -type antibody.
This fluid is probably
A) blood.
B) lymph.
114) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled ʺ6.ʺ
C) serum.
A) T cells
D) tears.
B) B cells
E) interstitial.
C) erythrocytes
Answer: D D) platelets
Diff: 3 E) all of the above
Answer: B
113) In an experiment, Roger injects mice with interleukin-2 (IL-2). After 3 days he examines the blood and lymph Diff: 2
for changes. What would you expect to observe following this treatment?
A) decreased number of T cells
115) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled ʺ4.ʺ
B) increased number of T cells
A) T cells
C) decreased number of B cells
B) B cells
D) increased number of mast cells
C) erythrocytes
E) both A and D
D) platelets
Answer: B E) all of the above
Diff: 3
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page 611 Page 612
116) Identify the structure labeled ʺ1.ʺ 5) ________ are fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system.
A) efferent lymphatic vessel Answer: Microglia
B) venule Diff: 1
C) arteriole Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) afferent lymphatic vessel
E) lymphatic nodule 6) ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver.
Answer: D Answer: Kupffer cells
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
117) Identify the structure labeled ʺ3.ʺ 7) ________ are antigen-presenting cells located in the epithelia of the skin.

A) cortex Answer: Dendritic cells
B) capsule Diff: 1
C) subcapsular space Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) trabeculae
E) outer cortex 8) ________ are free phagocytes found in the air sacs of the lungs.
Answer: B Answer: Alveolar macrophages
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
118) Identify the structure labeled ʺ6.ʺ 9) The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called ________.

A) medulla Answer: diapedesis
B) inner cortex Diff: 1
C) outer cortex Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) trabeculae
E) cortical sinus 10) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called ________.
Answer: C Answer: chemotaxis
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Short Answer Questions 11) ________ are antibodies that make it easier for phagocytes to engulf their target cells.

1) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the ________. Answer: Opsonins
Diff: 1
Answer: cisterna chyli
Diff: 1
12) The alternative pathway of complement activation is sometimes called the ________ pathway.
2) ________ are connective tissues dominated by lymphocytes. Answer: properdin
Diff: 1
Answer: Lymphoid tissues
Diff: 1
13) A substance that provokes an immune response is called a(n) ________.
3) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group. Answer: antigen
Diff: 1
Answer: monocyte-macrophage
Diff: 1
14) ________ are antibodies found in body fluids.
4) ________ are phagocytic cells that are permanent residents of specific tissues and organs. Answer: Immunoglobulins
Diff: 1
Answer: Fixed macrophages
Diff: 1
Page 613 Page 614
15) The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the ________. 25) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and complement, rendering it

Answer: antigenic determinant sites more likely to be phagocytized, is called ________.
Diff: 1 Answer: opsonization
16) A(n) ________ is an antigen with at least two antigenic determinant sites.
Answer: complete antigen 26) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same antigen is encountered a
Diff: 1 second time.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: Memory
Diff: 1
17) ________ occurs when an antigen fragment—glycoprotein complex appears in a plasma membrane. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: Antigen presentation
Diff: 1 27) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: Tolerance
Diff: 1
18) A measure of antibody level in the plasma is the ________. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: antibody titer
Diff: 1 28) ________ are hormones that regulate the activity of B cells and T cells and enhance nonspecific defense.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: Interleukins
Diff: 1
19) When an antibody binds to its specific antigen a(n) ________ is formed. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: antibody-antigen complex
Diff: 1 29) ________ are hormones that make a cell and its neighbors resistant to virus infection.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: Interferons
Diff: 1
20) When large numbers of antibodies encounter their antigenic targets, they interact to form a three -dimensional Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
structure known as a(n) ________.
Answer: immune complex 30) Hormones that slow tumor growth are called ________.
Diff: 1 Answer: tumor necrosis factors
21) ________ is the ability to demonstrate an immune response upon exposure to an antigen.
Answer: Immunological competence 31) In a(n) ________ either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune response is blocked.
Diff: 1 Answer: immunodeficiency disease
22) The process by which antibodies bind to antigenic sites on viruses or toxins, rendering them incapable of
binding to other cells, is called ________. 32) ________ develop when the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues.
Answer: neutralization Answer: Autoimmune disorders
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
23) The process by which soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form insoluble immune complexes is called 33) Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called ________.

________. Answer: allergens
Answer: precipitation Diff: 1
34) ________ lymphatics leave the lymph node at the hilum.
24) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large immune complexes, Answer: Efferent
is called ________. Diff: 2
Answer: agglutination Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Diff: 1
Page 615 Page 616
35) Microglia are to ________ as Kupffer cells are to ________. 3) The specificity of an antibody molecule depends on the structure of the constant regions of the light and heavy
Answer: CNS; liver chains.
Diff: 2 Answer: FALSE
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications Diff: 1
36) The immune system is said to exhibit ________ toward those agents that do not stimulate an immune response.
Answer: tolerance Essay Questions
Diff: 1 1) What is MALT? What role does it play in the bodyʹs defenses?
Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa- associated lymphoid tissue. It consists of aggregated lymphoid nodules
deep to the mucosa (gut lining) of the digestive system. Examples include Peyer patches in the small
37) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.
intestine and the vermiform appendix that is attached where the small intestine joins the large intestine.
Answer: cytotoxic; helper These lymphocytes are positioned to detect and neutralize pathogens to enter the body across the
Diff: 2 digestive mucosa. Beside these specific defenses, there is also mucus and other protective secretions.
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications Diff: 3
38) An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphoid nodules in the pharynx is termed ________.
Answer: tonsilitis 2) List and briefly describe the four general properties of immunity.
Diff: 1 Answer: (1) Specificity: The immune response is triggered by a specific antigen and defends against only that
antigen. (2) Versatility: The immune system can differentiate among hundreds of millions of antigens
that it might encounter during a normal lifetime. (3) Memory: The immune response following the
39) What do the letters HIV stand for?
second exposure to a particular antigen is stronger and lasts longer than before. (4) Tolerance: Some
Answer: human immunodeficiency virus antigens, such as those on your own cells, do not elicit an immune response.
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
40) Lymphoid tissues are connective tissues dominated by ________. 3) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphoid system.

Answer: lymphocytes Answer: The lymphoid system consists of (1) lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains a much lower
Diff: 1
concentration of suspended proteins; (2) a network of lymphatic vessels, often called lymphatics, which
begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to veins; (3) an array of lymphoid tissues and
lymphoid organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus scattered throughout the body; and (4)
41) Cyclosporin A is an example of a drug that inhibits ________ of a transplanted organ.
lymphocytes and smaller numbers of phagocytes and other cells such as dendritic cells. The lymphoid
Answer: rejection system is organized to provide specific defenses against a wide array of biological hazards and diseases.
Diff: 1 Diff: 3
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
42) An accumulation of lymph in a region where lymphatic drainage has been blocked is termed ________. 4) You are a researcher interested in studying the cytoskeleton. How can you use antibodies to locate actin - and

Answer: lymphedema tubulin-containing structures?
Diff: 1
Answer: Since those cytoskeletal components are proteins it is possible to immunize an animal with foreign
proteins isolated from tissues. For example, a rabbit could be immunized with the actin and tubulin
purified from tissues of the chicken, a very distant relative of the rabbit. Those antibodies could be
True/False Questions purified from the rabbitʹs blood and then linked to fluorescent tags. When the cells are exposed to the
1) Stromal cells produce the cytokine interleukin- 7, which promotes the differentiation of B cells.
anti-actin and anti-tubulin antibodies, they will stick to those molecules in the cell. If different colored
Answer: TRUE dyes were used to tag the antibodies, it would be possible to localize those cytoskeletal proteins in the
Diff: 2 same cell.
2) Lymphoid organs such as the thymus and spleen are surrounded by a connective tissue capsule.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 1
Page 617 Page 618
Chapter 23 The Respiratory System 6) The openings to the nostrils are the

Multiple Choice Questions A) external nares.
1) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system? B) internal nares.
A) oropharynx C) vestibules.
B) trachea D) conchae.
C) larynx E) nasal apertures.
D) bronchi Answer: A
E) alveoli Diff: 1
Answer: A
Diff: 1
7) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
A) nasopharynx.
2) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the B) vestibule.
A) upper respiratory tract. C) internal chamber.
B) lower respiratory tract. D) conchae.
C) lungs. E) nasal septum.
D) alveoli. Answer: B
E) bronchioles. Diff: 1
Answer: A
Diff: 1
8) The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the
A) nasopharynx.
3) Large airborne particles are filtered by B) oropharynx.
A) choanae. C) laryngopharynx.
B) the soft palate. D) aeropharynx.
C) hairs in the nasal vestibule. E) internal pharynx.
D) the nasal sinuses. Answer: B
E) the nasopharynx. Diff: 1
Answer: C
Diff: 1
9) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
4) The conchae B) glottis.
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side. C) vestibule.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx. D) pharynx.
C) provide a surface for the sense of smell. E) trachea.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus. Answer: D
E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses. Diff: 1
Answer: D
Diff: 1
10) The auditory tubes open into the
A) nasopharynx.
5) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, except B) oropharynx.
A) filtering the air. C) laryngopharynx.
B) warming the air. D) larynx.
C) humidifying the air. E) nasal cavity.
D) acting as a damping chamber when coughing. Answer: A
E) acting as a resonating chamber in speech. Diff: 1
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page 619 Page 620
11) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the 16) The vocal folds are located within the
A) nasopharynx. A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx. B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx. C) larynx.
D) larynx. D) trachea.
E) nasal cavity. E) bronchi.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
12) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium. 17) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the

A) nasopharynx A) thyroid cartilage.
B) trachea B) cricoid cartilage.
C) oropharynx C) corniculate cartilage.
D) larynx D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) nasal cavity E) epiglottis.
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
13) The larynx contains ________ cartilages. 18) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.

A) three unpaired A) thyroid
B) six paired B) cricoid
C) a total of nine C) cuneiform
D) A, B, and C D) arytenoid
E) a variable number of E) epiglottic
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
14) Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the 19) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.

A) lips. A) epiglottis
B) nose. B) cuneiform
C) nasal cavity. C) corniculate
D) pharynx. D) cricoid
E) paranasal sinuses. E) arytenoid
Answer: A Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
15) The glottis is 20) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.

A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate. A) cricothyroid
B) a flap of elastic cartilage. B) innominate
C) the opening to the larynx. C) cuneiform
D) the opening to the pharynx. D) corniculate
E) part of the hard palate. E) arytenoid
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 621 Page 622
21) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the 26) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces

________ cartilage. A) speech.
A) thyroid B) articulation.
B) cuneiform C) phonation.
C) corniculate D) whistling.
D) epiglottic E) ululation.
E) vestibular Answer: C
Answer: A Diff: 1
27) Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the
22) The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n) A) movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
A) intubation. B) extrinsic ligaments.
B) tracheostomy. C) contraction of laryngeal muscles.
C) tunnelization. D) A and C only
D) trachectomy. E) A, B, and C
E) catheterization. Answer: D
Answer: B Diff: 1
28) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
23) The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the A) is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
A) intrinsic ligaments. B) is reinforced with C-shaped cartilages
B) extrinsic ligaments. C) contains many mucous glands
C) vestibular folds. D) alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system
D) cricothyroid ligament. E) is reinforced with D-shaped cartilages
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles. Answer: E
Answer: D Diff: 1
29) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the
24) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the A) trachea.
A) hard palate. B) bronchiole.
B) soft palate. C) laryngopharynx.
C) cribriform plate. D) alveolar duct.
D) internal nares. E) bronchus.
E) pharyngeal septum. Answer: A
Answer: A Diff: 1
30) Secondary bronchi supply air to the
25) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the A) lungs.
A) intrinsic ligaments. B) lobes of the lungs.
B) extrinsic ligaments. C) lobules of the lungs.
C) ventricular folds. D) alveoli.
D) vocal folds. E) alveolar ducts.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles. Answer: B
Answer: D Diff: 1
Page 623 Page 624
31) They branch from the trachea at the carina. 35) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are
A) terminal bronchioles A) bronchioles.
B) secondary bronchi B) terminal bronchioles.
C) tertiary bronchi C) pleural spaces.
D) primary bronchi D) alveoli.
E) alveolar ducts E) interlobular septa.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
32) The following is a list of some airways. 36) The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of

A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
1. secondary bronchus B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
2. bronchioles C) simple squamous epithelium.
3. alveolar ducts D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
4. primary bronchus E) surfactant cells.
5. respiratory bronchiole Answer: C
6. alveoli Diff: 1
7. terminal bronchiole Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
The order in which air passes through is 37) Boyleʹs law states that gas volume is

A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6. A) directly proportional to pressure.
B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6. B) directly proportional to temperature.
C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6. C) inversely proportional to pressure.
D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6. D) inversely proportional to temperature.
E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6. E) both A and B
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
33) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into 38) Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired volume?

A) lobes. A) sternocleidomastoid
B) pulmonary lobules. B) pectoralis minor
C) alveolar sacs. C) scalenes
D) vital capacity and residual volume. D) serratus anterior
E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae. E) all of the above
Answer: B Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
34) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of 39) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle(s).

A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. A) scalene
B) moist cuboidal epithelium. B) diaphragm
C) simple squamous epithelium. C) internal intercostal
D) ciliated squamous epithelium. D) external intercostal
E) surfactant cells. E) serratus anterior
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 625 Page 626
40) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, 45) Henryʹs law states that

A) the volume of the thorax increases. A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases. B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases. C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas
D) the lungs shrink. pressure.
E) expiration occurs. D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the
Answer: A gases in the mixture.
Diff: 1 E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: C
Diff: 1
41) Which of these descriptions best matches the term external intercostal? Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration 46) Daltonʹs law states that
C) primary muscle of inspiration A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
D) contraction increases airway resistance B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
E) affects lung compliance C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas
Answer: C pressure.
Diff: 1 D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
42) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the Answer: D
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. Diff: 1
B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells. 47) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
E) utilization of oxygen. A) 40 mm Hg.
Answer: A B) 45 mm Hg.
Diff: 1 C) 50 mm Hg.
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
43) Alveolar ventilation refers to the Answer: E
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs. Diff: 1
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli. 48) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism. A) 40 mm Hg.
Answer: B B) 45 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
44) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to Answer: B
A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood. Diff: 1
B) supply oxygen to the blood. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space. 49) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles. A) 40 mm Hg.
Answer: C B) 45 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Page 627 Page 628
50) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately 55) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) 35 mm Hg. A) oxygen.
B) 45 mm Hg. B) carbon dioxide.
C) 55 mm Hg. C) bicarbonate ion.
D) 70 mm Hg. D) sodium ion.
E) 100 mm Hg. E) hemoglobin.
Answer: B Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
51) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the blood and interstitial fluids is 56) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will

A) pulmonary ventilation. A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) external respiration. B) increase the rate of breathing.
C) internal respiration. C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) cellular respiration. D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) breathing. E) decrease the vital capacity.
Answer: C Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
52) At a PO of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent saturated with 57) The term hypercapnia refers to

2
A) the cessation of breathing.
oxygen.
B) elevated P CO 2 .
A) 10
B) 25 C) elevated P O2 .
C) 50 D) an increase in pH.
D) 75 E) labored breathing.
E) more than 90 Answer: B
Answer: E Diff: 1
58) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center.
53) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is A) apneustic
A) dissolved in plasma. B) pneumotaxic
B) bound to hemoglobin. C) inspiratory
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma. D) expiratory
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide. E) both A and C
E) carried by white blood cells. Answer: C
Answer: B Diff: 1
59) Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
54) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as A) apneustic
A) solute dissolved in the plasma. B) pneumotaxic
B) carbaminohemoglobin. C) expiratory
C) bicarbonate ions. D) baroreceptor
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells. E) chemoreceptor
E) carbonic acid. Answer: A
Answer: C Diff: 1
Page 629 Page 630
60) The pneumotaxic center of the pons 65) A mucosa consists of

A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern. A) an epithelium.
B) prolongs inspiration. B) an underlying layer of areolar tissue.
C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing. C) stratified squamous cells.
D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla. D) both A and B
E) both B and C E) both B and C
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
61) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the following, except 66) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium

A) cortical association areas. A) Clostridium difficile.
B) the precentral motor gyrus. B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) the limbic system. C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) the hypothalamus. D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
E) Brocaʹs center. E) both A and C
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
62) The Hering-Breuer reflex 67) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.

A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure. A) MRSA
B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the P O2 changes. B) Congestive heart failure
C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the P CO 2 changes. C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation.
E) Parkinsonʹs disease
E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.
Answer: C
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Diff: 1
68) The respiratory defense system is important because it
63) Which of the following systems is (are) responsible for elimination of CO 2 as waste?
A) helps filter the air.
A) urinary
B) helps warm the air.
B) respiratory
C) keeps out debris.
C) digestive
D) keeps out pathogens.
D) all of the above
E) all of the above
E) A and B only
Answer: E
Answer: E Diff: 2
69) ________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal
64) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
sinuses.
A) upper respiratory tract.
A) Exposure to noxious stimuli
B) lower respiratory tract.
B) Exposure to unpleasant stimuli
C) internal respiratory tract.
C) Exposure to allergens
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
D) Exposure to debris or pathogens
E) respiratory mucosa.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Answer: E
Diff: 1
Diff: 2
Page 631 Page 632
70) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems. 75) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to its larger diameter
A) pharynx and steeper angle.
B) esophagus A) right primary
C) trachea B) left primary
D) windpipe C) right secondary
E) right mainstem bronchus D) left secondary
Answer: A E) A and B are equal
Diff: 1 Answer: A
71) The laryngeal cartilage not composed of hyaline cartilage is the
A) arytenoid. 76) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
B) corniculate. A) three lobes; two lobes
C) cricoid. B) two lobes; two lobes
D) epiglottis. C) two lobes; three lobes
E) thyroid. D) three lobes; three lobes
Answer: D E) none of the above
Diff: 2 Answer: A
72) The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the
A) hard palate. 77) The most superior portion of the lung is termed the
B) soft palate. A) base.
C) cribriform plate. B) apex.
D) internal nares. C) cardiac notch.
E) pharyngeal septum. D) hilus.
Answer: B E) epipleurium.
Diff: 1 Answer: B
73) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal cartilages.
A) 1.0 cm; 15-20 78) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
B) 1.0 cm; 10-15 A) extrapulmonary bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
C) 2.5 cm; 15-20 B) lobar bronchi; intrapulmonary bronchi
D) 2.5 cm; 40-50 C) intrapulmonary bronchi; lobar bronchi
E) none of the above D) all of the above
Answer: C E) none of the above
Diff: 2 Answer: A
74) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is
known as 79) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each tertiary bronchus.
A) laryngitis. A) 1500
B) laryngospasm. B) 3000
C) acute epiglottitis. C) 6500
D) strep throat. D) 10,000
E) acute pharyngitis. E) 100,000
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
Page 633 Page 634
80) Collectively, the layers through which the respiratory gases diffuse are known as the 85) Determination of blood gases includes testing an arterial sample for

A) pulmonary-basement membrane. A) pH.
B) alveolar-capillary membrane. B) PO2 .
C) pleural-basement membrane. C) PCO 2 .
D) macrophages-basement membrane.
D) all of the above
E) Type I epithelium.
E) both A and C
Answer: B
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Diff: 1
81) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation
86) The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is
A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli.
A) mm Hg.
B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and constrict.
B) torr.
C) increases minute volume.
C) cm H2 O.
D) A and B only
D) psi.
E) A, B, and C
E) A, B, or C are equally favored
Answer: D
Diff: 3 Answer: B
82) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because
87) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that
A) less resistance to flow.
A) they are equal.
B) it combines olfaction with respiration.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) bacteria wonʹt be inhaled from the oral cavity.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) it dries out the mouth.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.
Answer: C
Diff: 2 Answer: A
83) The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between the opposing
88) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intrapleural space.
pleural surfaces is known as
A) pleurisy
A) pleurisy.
B) pneumonia
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) pneumothorax
C) asthma.
D) pulmonary edema
D) emphysema.
E) emphysema
E) COPD.
Answer: C
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Diff: 2
89) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________.
84) A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________ becoming trapped in a pulmonary artery.
A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing
A) blood clots
B) eupnea; costal breathing
B) masses of fat
C) costal breathing; eupnea
C) air bubbles
D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic
D) A or C only
E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea
E) A, B, and C
Answer: B
Answer: E
Diff: 2
Diff: 1
Page 635 Page 636
90) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory muscles to assist with 95) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a clot or similar obstruction is
inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal muscles and sometimes abdominal A) emphysema.
muscles too. B) COPD.
A) Eupnea C) anoxia.
B) Forced breathing D) pulmonary embolism.
C) Costal breathing E) pneumothorax.
D) Vital breathing Answer: D
E) both A and B Diff: 2
Answer: B Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts 96) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse of alveoli is
A) respiratory distress syndrome.
91) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle. B) COPD.
A) Residual volume C) anoxia.
B) Expiratory reserve volume D) pulmonary embolism.
C) Inspiratory reserve volume E) pneumothorax.
D) Tidal volume Answer: A
E) Inspiratory capacity Diff: 2
Answer: D Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms 97) Asthma is
A) a collapsed lung.
92) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume. B) an acute condition resulting from unusually sensitive, irritated conducting airways.
A) Residual inhaled volume C) an obstructive tumor.
B) Expiratory reserve volume D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
C) Inspiratory reserve volume E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) Enhanced tidal volume Answer: B
E) Inspiratory capacity Diff: 1
Answer: C Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms 98) Which of these descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
93) Decompression sickness is a painful condition that develops when a person is exposed to a sudden drop in B) accessory muscle of inspiration
atmospheric pressure. Bubbles of ________ gas are responsible for the problem. C) primary muscle of inspiration
A) nitrogen D) contraction increases airway resistance
B) oxygen E) affects lung compliance
C) carbon dioxide Answer: D
D) helium Diff: 1
E) an unknown Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: A
Diff: 2 99) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts A) large masses of food can pass through the esophagus during swallowing.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea.
94) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen. C) it facilitates turning of the head.
A) 10 D) A, B, and C
B) 20 E) A and B only
C) 30 Answer: A
D) 50 Diff: 1
E) 75 Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: B
Diff: 1
Page 637 Page 638
100) Boyleʹs Law of Gases states that 105) In quiet breathing,

A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal. A) inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.
B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up. B) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures. C) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure. D) inspiration and expiration are both passive.
E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down. E) both C and D
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
101) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen content when it 106) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration, except the

leaves the lungs.. A) PO2 of the alveoli.
A) 25 percent B) PCO 2 of the blood.
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent C) thickness of the respiratory membrane.
D) 90 percent D) diameter of an alveolus.
E) 100 percent E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
102) The apneustic centers of the pons 107) External respiration involves the

A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers. A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) provide continuous stimulation to the inspiratory center. B) diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood.
C) monitor blood gas levels. C) exchange of dissolved gases between the blood and the interstitial fluid.
D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity. D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) generate the gasp reflex. E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
103) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla oblongata, except 108) Breathing that involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements is called

the A) eupnea.
A) olfactory epithelium. B) hyperpnea.
B) medullary chemoreceptors. C) diaphragmatic breathing.
C) aortic body. D) costal breathing.
D) carotid body. E) shallow breathing.
E) all of the above Answer: B
Diff: 2
Answer: A
Diff: 2
109) If a patient being tested inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air
104) Sympathetic input to the smooth muscle tissue in bronchioles causes all of these except expelled would be the patientʹs
A) bronchoconstriction. A) tidal volume.
B) a bigger lumen. B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) less airway resistance. C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) activation of beta-two receptors. D) reserve volume.
E) relaxation. E) vital capacity.
Answer: A Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
Page 639 Page 640
110) ________ equals the respiratory rate × (tidal volume anatomic dead space). 115) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) Vital capacity A) move the arytenoid cartilages.
B) Respiratory minute volume B) close the glottis.
C) Pulmonary ventilation rate C) stretch the vocal folds.
D) Alveolar ventilation rate D) A, B, and C
E) External respiration rate E) A and B only
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
111) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral 116) During swallowing, the

tissues? A) intrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
A) decreased temperature B) extrinsic laryngeal muscles contract.
B) decreased pH C) glottis closes and the epiglottis is depressed.
C) increased tissue PO2 D) all of the above
D) decreased amounts of DPG E) both B and C
E) none of the above Answer: D
Diff: 2
Answer: B
Diff: 2
117) Which is greater?
112) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in A) the number of lobes in the right lung
A) epistaxis. B) the number of lobes in the left lung
B) nasal congestion. C) Neither the number of lobes is usually equal.
C) nosebleeds. Answer: A
D) a deviated septum. Diff: 2
E) A or C Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: E 118) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is

Diff: 2
A) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
B) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
113) Which of the following is not true about the pharynx? C) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
A) shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems D) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
B) nasopharynx is superior E) less than intrapulmonic pressure.
C) oropharynx connects to oral cavity Answer: B
D) laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening Diff: 2
E) solids, liquids, and gases pass through Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Answer: A 119) Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in

Diff: 1
A) a loss of surfactant.
B) an increased rate of gas exchange.
114) Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa? C) increased surface tension in the alveoli
A) humidify the incoming air D) increased tendency to alveolar collapse.
B) dehumidify the outgoing air E) A, C, and D
C) dehumidify the incoming air Answer: E
D) trap particulate matter Diff: 2
E) cool outgoing air Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: C
Diff: 1
Page 641 Page 642
120) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from 125) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will

A) genetic mutation in a membrane channel. A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
B) laryngospasm. B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport. C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) A, B, and C D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) A and C only E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
121) Which statement about the chloride shift is false? 126) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the

A) involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs A) PCO 2 should be high
B) depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter B) pH should be slightly acidic.
C) involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.
D) is driven by a rise in PCO 2
D) DPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.
E) causes RBCs to swell E) PCO 2 should be low.
Answer: E
Diff: 2 Answer: E
122) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung 127) Carbonic anhydrase
B) left lung A) is in RBCs.
C) right primary bronchus B) is an enzyme.
D) left primary bronchus C) can increase the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
E) both B and D D) can decrease the amount of bicarbonate ion in plasma.
E) all of the above
Answer: B
Diff: 1 Answer: E
123) Carbon dioxide is more soluble in water than oxygen. To get the same amount of oxygen to dissolve in plasma
as carbon dioxide, you would have to 128) Which of the following would be greater?
A) increase the temperature of the plasma. A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.6
B) increase the partial pressure of oxygen. B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the pH is 7.2
C) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide. C) Neither is greater.
D) increase the rate of plasma flow through the lungs. Answer: A
E) either B or C Diff: 2
Answer: E
Diff: 2
129) Which of the following would be greater?
A) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees centigrade
124) Which of the following is greater? B) the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees centigrade
A) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level C) Neither is greater.
B) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest Answer: A
C) the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air is constant Diff: 2
Answer: A
Diff: 2
Page 643 Page 644
130) Which of the following would be greater? 135) Pneumotaxic centers in the pons
A) hemoglobinʹs affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high A) inhibit the apneustic centers.
B) hemoglobinʹs affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low B) promote passive or active exhalation.
C) Neither is greater. C) receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum.
Answer: B D) modify respiratory rate and depth.
Diff: 2 E) all of the above
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Answer: E
Diff: 1
131) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation. 136) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies would interfere
C) a shorter respiratory cycle. with the brainʹs ability to regulate breathing in response to
D) less activity in the DRG center. A) changes in PCO 2 .
E) decreased vital capacity. B) changes in PO2 .
Answer: B
C) changes in pH.
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms D) changes in blood pressure.
E) A, B, and C
132) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally, Answer: E
A) a person would stop breathing. Diff: 2
B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) the respiratory minute volume would increase.
D) tidal volumes would decrease. 137) All of the following are present prior to birth, except that the
E) alveolar ventilation would increase. A) pulmonary arterial resistance is high.
B) pulmonary vessels are collapsed.
Answer: A
C) rib cage is compressed.
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms D) alveoli are expanded.
E) lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid.
133) The pneumotaxic center Answer: D
A) is in the pons. Diff: 2
B) excites the apneustic center. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) inhibits the apneustic center.
D) both A and B 138) Which of these changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes its first breaths?
E) both A and C A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases.
B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases.
Answer: E
C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close.
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms D) Air enters the alveoli.
E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
134) Which of the following is greatest? Answer: A
A) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood Diff: 2
B) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
C) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in expired air
D) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in inspired air 139) Which of these age-based changes is false?
E) the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood A) The lungs lose elastic tissue.
B) The lungʹs compliance changes.
Answer: A
C) Vital capacity increases.
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms D) Respiratory muscles weaken.
E) Costal cartilages become more flexible.
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page 645 Page 646
140) As an astronaut is lifted into Earthʹs orbit, what is the first change to take place in response to the drop in cabin 144) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period

pressure? of time you would expect to observe
A) increased hematocrit A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
B) renal hypoxia B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
D) decreased alveolar PO2 D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 3 Diff: 3
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
141) Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following, except 145) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He can actually feel a

A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing. piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time breathing. Joe probably is suffering
B) a drop in tidal volume. from
C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation. A) a collapsed trachea.
D) a disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes. B) an obstruction in the bronchi.
E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing. C) a pneumothorax.
D) decreased surfactant production.
Answer: B
E) a bruised diaphragm.
Diff: 3
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications Answer: C
Diff: 3
142) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low P O2 . This Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
increases the effectiveness of
146) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are known?
A) external respiration.
A) minute volume
B) internal respiration.
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) carbon dioxide transport.
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
D) anatomical dead space
E) acid-base balance.
E) forced vital capacity
Answer: B
Answer: A
Diff: 1
Diff: 3
143) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the
147) Damage to the phrenic nerves would
same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is
A) increase respiratory rate.
A) low pitched and loud.
B) increase the tidal volume.
B) high pitched and loud.
C) force reliance on costal breathing.
C) low pitched and soft.
D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air.
D) high pitched and soft.
E) have little effect on ventilation.
E) medium pitched and soft.
Answer: C
Answer: B Diff: 3
Diff: 3 Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
148) In emphysema, which of these occur?
A) alveoli collapse
B) compliance increases
C) elevated PCO 2 in the blood
D) all of the above
E) A and C only
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page 647 Page 648
149) The obstructive lung disease in which elastic fibers are lost, leading to collapse of alveoli and 151) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ
bronchioles, is called A) internal nares
A) asthma. B) esophagus
B) bronchitis. C) glottis
C) emphysema. D) oropharynx
D) tuberculosis. E) laryngopharynx
E) pneumonia. Answer: D
Answer: C Diff: 2
152) Which structure vibrates to produce sound?
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 11
E) 19
Answer: D
Diff: 2
153) What is the function of the structures labeled ʺ12ʺ?
A) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
B) improve warming of incoming air
C) create narrow passages
D) help olfaction
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Diff: 2
154) Identify the structure labeled ʺ2.ʺ
A) olfactory organ
B) oropharynx
C) nasopharynx
D) internal nares
Figure 23- 1 The Upper Airways
E) nasal sinus
Use Figure 23- 1 to answer the following questions: Answer: D

Diff: 2
150) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ8ʺ?
A) forces air into the lungs
B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
C) prevents food from entering the larynx
D) acts like a supplementary air pump
E) prevents food from entering the pharynx
Answer: C
Diff: 2
Page 649 Page 650
158) What is the relationship between the pressures at label ʺ8ʺ?
A) P outside = P inside
B) P outside > P inside
C) P outside < P inside
D) P outside + P inside
E) P outside - P inside
Answer: C
Diff: 2
159) Which muscle(s) contract(s) to cause the movement indicated by the arrows labeled ʺ6ʺ and ʺ7ʺ?
Figure 23- 2 Mechanics of Ventilation A) rectus abdominis
B) internal intercostals
Use Figure 23- 2 to answer the following questions: C) external intercostals
D) diaphragm
155) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled ʺ1ʺ? E) both A and B
A) rectus abdominis
Answer: E
B) internal intercostals
Diff: 2
C) external intercostals
D) diaphragm
E) both A and C
Short Answer Questions
Answer: C 1) Gas exchange between air and circulating blood takes place within ________.
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts Answer: alveoli
Diff: 1
156) What is the relationship between the pressures at label ʺ3ʺ?
A) P outside = P inside
2) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the ________.
B) P outside > P inside
C) P outside < P inside Answer: respiratory defense system
Diff: 1
D) P outside + P inside
E) P outside - P inside
Answer: B 3) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n) ________.
Diff: 2
Answer: mucus escalator
Diff: 1
157) What pressure will be present in the space labeled ʺ4ʺ?
A) alveolar pressure
4) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of ________.
B) interpleural pressure
C) subalveolar pressure Answer: elastic rebound
Diff: 1
D) subatmospheric pressure
E) atmospheric pressure
Answer: D 5) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs expand and contract.
Diff: 3
Answer: compliance
Diff: 1
6) In the condition known as ________ the partial pressure of oxygen in the tissues is low.
Answer: hypoxia
Diff: 1
Page 651 Page 652
7) Moving air to and from exchange surfaces is termed ________. True/False Questions
Answer: ventilation 1) The volume of air that can be forcefully expelled from the lungs following a normal exhalation is termed
Diff: 1 expiratory reserve volume.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
8) The technical term for quiet breathing is ________. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: eupnea
Diff: 1 2) Sound production at the larynx is called phonation.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
9) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing or ________ . Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: hyperpnea
Diff: 1 3) The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a forced expiration is termed residual volume.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
10) Ventilation performed by contraction of the external intercostals muscle is known as ________ breathing. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: costal
Diff: 1 4) Pneumothorax occurs when atmospheric gas enters the intrapleural space.
Answer: TRUE
Diff: 2
11) The ________ extends from the sixth cervical vertebra to the fifth thoracic vertebra. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
Answer: trachea
Diff: 1 Essay Questions
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms 1) A newborn infant is found dead, abandoned by the road. Among the many questions that the police would like
answered is whether the infant was stillborn. How could the medical examiner tell?
12) The movement of chloride ions into the RBCs in exchange for bicarbonate ions is known as the ________.
Answer: If the infant had been born alive, its first breaths would inflate the alveoli from the dense condition
Answer: chloride shift
during fetal development. Thus, the medical examiner would focus on the lungs. If they are spongy,
Diff: 1
filled with air, it was a live birth. If not, the infant was stillborn. A simple test is to place the lungs in
water. If they float, they are air-filled.
Diff: 3
13) Internal respiration refers to exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the ________ and the ________.
Answer: blood; tissues
Diff: 2 2) Ralph is taking scuba diving classes, and is warned not to hold his breath when ascending from depth but to
continuously release air from his mouth. What is the basis of this instruction and what is the risk if it is
ignored?
14) The technique of ________ provides air to a person who has stopped breathing.
Answer: When breathing underwater with scuba equipment, gas is supplied by the tank at higher than
Answer: artificial respiration
atmospheric pressure to overcome the extra pressure imposed by the overlying water. According to
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Boyleʹs Law, during ascent when the pressure falls, the volume of gas contained in the lungs will
expand. If not permitted to escape through the mouth, it will damage the lung, sending air into the
15) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from ________ breaths each minute, or roughly one for bloodstream. A massive air embolism in the pulmonary arteries could be suddenly fatal.
every four heartbeats. Diff: 3
Answer: 12 to 18
Diff: 1 3) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Answer: (1) Provide an extensive area for gas exchange between inhaled air and the circulation; (2) move air to
16) The volume of air moved in a single respiratory cycle is termed ________. and from the exchange surfaces of the lungs; (3) protect the respiratory surfaces from dehydration,
temperature changes, and other environmental variations and defend the respiratory system and other
Answer: tidal volume
tissues from invasion by pathogens; (4) produce sounds involved in speaking, singing, or nonverbal
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms auditory communication; (5) direct incoming air to the olfactory epithelium in support of olfaction; (6)
indirectly contribute to regulation of blood volume, blood pressure, and pH.
Diff: 2
Page 653 Page 654
4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes? Chapter 24 The Digestive System

Answer: Hypercapnia refers to a condition of elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide. This rise is detected by Multiple Choice Questions
chemoreceptors in the aortic and carotid bodies and powerfully stimulates ventilation through effects on 1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract, except the
pontine nuclei. Hypercapnia results from increased production as during exercise or reduced A) stomach.
elimination as in reduced alveolar ventilation. B) pharynx.
Diff: 3 C) esophagus.
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications D) bladder.
E) colon.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A) appendix
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
Answer: B
Diff: 1
3) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) B and C only
E) A, B, and C
Answer: D
Diff: 1
4) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) mechanical processing
B) absorption
C) compaction
D) ingestion
E) filtration
Answer: E
Diff: 1
5) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.
Answer: D
Diff: 1
Page 655 Page 656
6) Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus? 11) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A) component of mucosa A) mucosa.
B) sensory neural network B) submucosa.
C) secretes a watery fluid C) muscularis.
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa D) adventitia.
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels E) serosa.
Answer: D Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
7) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds. 12) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the

A) mucosa A) lamina propria.
B) submucosa B) muscularis mucosae.
C) submucosal plexus C) submucosa.
D) muscularis mucosa D) submucosal plexus.
E) adventitia E) myenteric plexus.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
8) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, 13) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following, except in the

lymphatics, and blood vessels. A) anal canal.
A) serosa B) esophagus.
B) adventitia C) stomach.
C) mesenteries D) oropharynx.
D) fibrosa E) oral cavity.
E) lamina propria Answer: C
Answer: C Diff: 1
14) A feature of the digestive epithelium that assists expansion of the organ is the presence of
9) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the A) transitional cells.
A) mucosa. B) plicae.
B) serosa. C) elastic cells.
C) adventitia. D) rugae.
D) submucosal plexus. E) both B and D
E) lamina propria. Answer: E
Answer: D Diff: 1
15) Which of these descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?
10) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the A) component of mucosa
A) mucosa. B) sensory neural network
B) submucosa. C) secretes a watery fluid
C) muscularis mucosa. D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
D) myenteric plexus. E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels
E) submucosal plexus. Answer: B
Answer: D Diff: 1
Page 657 Page 658
16) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called 21) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.

A) segmentation. A) submaxillary
B) pendular movements. B) submandibular
C) peristalsis. C) parotid
D) churning movements. D) sublingual
E) mastication. E) vestibular
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
17) Powerful peristaltic contractions that occur a few times each day in the colon are called 22) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the

A) segmentation. A) uvula.
B) pendular movements. B) pharyngeal arch.
C) haustral churning. C) palatoglossal arch.
D) defecation. D) palatopharyngeal arch.
E) mass movements. E) epiglottis.
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
18) The activities of the digestive system are regulated by 23) Functions of the tongue include all of the following, except

A) hormones. A) mechanical processing of food.
B) parasympathetic and sympathetic neurons. B) manipulation of food.
C) the contents of the digestive tract. C) sensory analysis of food.
D) intrinsic nerve plexuses. D) aiding in speech.
E) all of the above E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.
Answer: E Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
19) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except 24) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called

A) analysis of material before swallowing. A) enamel.
B) mechanical processing of food. B) cementum.
C) lubrication. C) dentin.
D) absorption of monosaccharides. D) pulp.
E) digestion of carbohydrates. E) periodontium.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
20) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity. 25) The chamber within a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the

A) One A) enamel.
B) Two B) cementum.
C) Three C) dentin.
D) Four D) pulp cavity.
E) Six to Ten E) periodontium.
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 659 Page 660
26) The root of a tooth is covered by 31) The space between the cheeks or lips and the teeth is called the
A) enamel. A) pharynx.
B) cementum. B) larynx.
C) dentin. C) fauces.
D) pulp. D) vestibule.
E) the root canal. E) dip sulcus.
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
27) The crown of a tooth is covered by 32) The ridge of oral mucosa that surrounds the base of a tooth is the

A) enamel. A) vestibule.
B) cementum. B) gingiva.
C) dentin. C) alveolus.
D) pulp. D) uvula.
E) periodontium. E) faux.
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
28) During deglutition, 33) The connection of the anterior portion of the tongue to the underlying epithelium is the

A) the soft palate elevates. A) uvula.
B) the larynx elevates and the epiglottis closes. B) faux.
C) the lower esophageal sphincter opens. C) lingual frenulum.
D) all of the above D) labial frenulum.
E) A and C only E) glossal septum.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
29) Which of the following is false about secretions from the salivary glands? 34) The uvula is located at the

A) are mostly water A) posterior of the tongue.
B) help control bacterial populations in the mouth B) margin of the vestibule.
C) help lubricate the oral cavity and its contents C) base of a tooth.
D) contain enzymes for the digestion of polysaccharides D) posterior margin of the soft palate.
E) contain enzymes for the digestion of disaccharides E) margin of the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
30) The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the 35) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.

A) vestibule. A) Canines
B) hard palate. B) Bicuspids
C) soft palate. C) Cuspids
D) A, B, and C D) Incisors
E) B and C only E) Molars
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 661 Page 662
36) ________ are pointed teeth that are adapted for tearing and slashing. 41) Chief cells secrete

A) Incisors A) pepsinogen.
B) Bicuspids B) gastrin.
C) Premolars C) mucus.
D) Cuspids D) hydrochloric acid.
E) Molars E) intrinsic factor.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
37) ________ are teeth with flattened crowns and prominent ridges that are adapted for crushing and grinding. 42) G cells of the stomach secrete

A) Molars A) cholecystokinin.
B) Cuspids B) secretin.
C) Eye teeth C) gastrin.
D) Canines D) enteropeptidase.
E) Dentins E) pepsin.
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
38) The esophagus has several variations from the standard plan of the gut tube. These include 43) Which region of the stomach does the esophagus connect to?

A) epithelium of mucosa is stratified squamous. A) fundus
B) epithelium of mucosa is simple columnar. B) cardia
C) muscularis externa may be striated muscle. C) body
D) A and C only D) antrum
E) B and C only E) pylorus
Answer: D Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
39) Functions of the stomach include all of the following, except 44) The portion of the stomach that is superior to the junction between the stomach and the esophagus is the

A) storage of ingested food. A) cardia.
B) denaturation of proteins. B) pylorus.
C) initiation of protein digestion. C) fundus.
D) absorption of triglycerides. D) antrum.
E) mechanical breakdown of food. E) body.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
40) Parietal cells secrete 45) The part of the stomach that functions as a mixing chamber for food and secretions is the

A) pepsinogen. A) body.
B) gastrin. B) antrum.
C) mucus. C) pylorus.
D) hydrochloric acid. D) cardia.
E) enteropeptidase. E) fundus.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 663 Page 664
46) The region of the stomach that empties into the duodenum is the 51) An enzyme secreted by the gastric mucosa of a newborn that coagulates milk proteins is
A) antrum. A) pepsin.
B) fundus. B) trypsin.
C) body. C) gastrin.
D) cardia. D) rennin.
E) pylorus. E) cholecystokinin.
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
47) The prominent ridges in the lining of the empty stomach are called 52) Lacteals

A) cardia. A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) papillae. B) carry absorbed fats to the lymphatic system.
C) rugae. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) plicae. D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) villi. E) produce milk.
Answer: C Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
48) The greater omentum is 53) Plicae and intestinal villi

A) the entrance to the stomach. A) increase the surface area of the mucosa of the small intestine.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature. B) carry products of digestion that will not pass through the walls of blood capillaries.
C) important in the digestion of fats. C) produce new cells for the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera. D) secrete digestive enzymes.
E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver. E) produce hormones.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
49) Gastric pits are 54) Submucosal glands that secrete mucus are characteristic of the

A) ridges in the body of the stomach. A) duodenum.
B) involved in absorption of liquids from the stomach. B) jejunum.
C) openings into gastric glands. C) ileum.
D) acid scars in the esophagus. D) pancreas.
E) hollows where proteins are stored. E) liver.
Answer: C Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
50) The enzyme pepsin digests 55) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the

A) carbohydrates. A) duodenum and the jejunum.
B) proteins. B) duodenum and the pylorus.
C) lipids. C) common bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
D) nucleic acids. D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
E) vitamins. E) duodenum and the bile duct.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 665 Page 666
56) The villi are most developed in the 61) The middle segment of the small intestine is the

A) stomach. A) ileum.
B) duodenum. B) duodenum.
C) jejunum. C) jejunum.
D) gall bladder. D) pylorus.
E) cecum. E) cecum.
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
57) Peyer patches are characteristic of the 62) The portion of the small intestine that attaches to the cecum is the

A) stomach. A) haustrum.
B) duodenum. B) appendix.
C) jejunum. C) ileum.
D) ileum. D) duodenum.
E) colon. E) jejunum.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
58) Which of these enhance the absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine? 63) Plicae circulares are

A) the plicae circulares A) ridges in the wall of the stomach.
B) the villi B) circumferential folds in the mucosa and submucosa of the small intestine.
C) the microvilli C) fingerlike projections on the surface of the mucosa of the small intestine.
D) intestinal movements D) sacculations in the colon.
E) all of the above E) abnormal structures formed by excessive pressure in the small intestine.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
59) Brunner glands are characteristic of the 64) An intestinal hormone that stimulates mucus secretion by the submucosal duodenal glands is

A) stomach. A) secretin.
B) duodenum. B) cholecystokinin.
C) jejunum. C) enterocrinin.
D) ileum. D) GIP.
E) colon. E) gastrin.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
60) The pylorus empties into the 65) The intestinal hormone that stimulates the pancreas to release a watery, bicarbonate -rich fluid is

A) ileum. A) enterocrinin.
B) colon. B) secretin.
C) cecum. C) cholecystokinin.
D) jejunum. D) GIP.
E) duodenum. E) gastrin.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 667 Page 668
66) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is 71) The fusion of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct forms the
A) enteropeptidase. A) hepatic portal vein.
B) secretin. B) porta hepatis.
C) cholecystokinin. C) common bile duct.
D) GIP. D) common pancreatic duct.
E) gastrin. E) bile canaliculus.
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
67) An intestinal hormone that stimulates the release of insulin from the pancreatic islet cells is 72) In the center of a liver lobule there is a

A) enterocrinin. A) hepatic duct.
B) enteropeptidase. B) portal area.
C) secretin. C) sinusoid.
D) cholecystokinin. D) central vein.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). E) portal vein.
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
68) An intestinal hormone that stimulates gastric secretion is 73) The exocrine portion of the pancreas is composed of

A) secretin. A) islets of Langerhans.
B) cholecystokinin. B) pancreatic crypts.
C) enteropeptidase. C) pancreatic acini.
D) gastrin. D) pancreatic lobules.
E) gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP). E) triads.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
69) Which of these descriptions best matches the term gastrin? 74) Each of the following is a function of the liver, except

A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum A) synthesis and secretion of bile.
B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids B) antibody production.
C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid C) synthesis of plasma proteins.
D) causes gall bladder to contract D) inactivation of toxins.
E) stimulates gastric secretion E) storage of glycogen and iron reserves.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
70) The human liver is composed of ________ lobe(s). 75) The basic functional unit of the liver is the

A) one A) hepatocyte.
B) two B) Kupffer cell.
C) three C) lobule.
D) four D) portal area.
E) two large, four small E) bile canaliculus.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 669 Page 670
76) ________ are arranged within a lobule of the liver into a series of plates converging toward a central vein. 81) Bile is stored in the

A) Kupffer cells A) liver.
B) Hepatocytes B) duodenum.
C) Bile canaliculi C) pancreas.
D) Portal areas D) gallbladder.
E) Hepatic ducts E) appendix.
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
77) The Kupffer cells of the liver 82) During the cephalic phase of gastric secretion,

A) destroy RBCs. A) the stomach responds to distention.
B) destroy bacteria. B) secretin inhibits parietal and chief cells.
C) present antigens. C) there is an increased flow of action potentials along the vagus nerve to the stomach.
D) are phagocytic. D) the intestinal reflex inhibits gastric emptying.
E) all of the above E) production of gastric juice slows down.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
78) The pancreas produces 83) The gastric phase of gastric secretion is triggered by the

A) lipases and amylase. A) sight, thought, or smell of food.
B) nucleases. B) entry of food into the stomach.
C) peptidases and proteinases. C) entry of chyme into the small intestine.
D) all of the above D) entry of chyme into the large intestine.
E) A and C only E) release of cholecystokinin and secretin by the small intestine.
Answer: D Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
79) The pancreas produces ________-digesting enzymes in the form of proenzymes. 84) All of the following are true of the intestinal phase of gastric digestion, except that it

A) carbohydrate A) precedes the gastric phase.
B) protein B) functions to control the rate of gastric emptying.
C) sugar C) involves both neural and endocrine reflexes.
D) lipid D) helps ensure that the functions of the small intestine proceed with relative efficiency.
E) nucleic acid E) begins when chyme enters the small intestine.
Answer: B Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
80) The structure that marks the division between the right and left lobes of the liver is the 85) Enzymes secreted by the pancreas include

A) lesser omentum. A) trypsin (as trypsinogen).
B) greater omentum. B) amylase.
C) falciform ligament. C) lactase.
D) ligamentum teres. D) A and B only
E) hepatic ligament. E) A, B, and C
Answer: C Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 671 Page 672
86) The gastroileal reflex 91) Haustra are
A) empties the duodenum. A) expansible pouches of the colon.
B) promotes gastric secretion. B) strips of muscle in the colon.
C) decreases peristaltic activity. C) glands in the large intestine that secrete mucus.
D) moves some chyme to the colon. D) the source of colon hormones.
E) is relayed through the CNS. E) compact feces stored in the rectum.
Answer: D Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
87) Nutrients are absorbed by all of the following, except 92) The taenia coli are

A) active transport. A) tears of the colon.
B) diffusion. B) longitudinal bands of smooth muscle in the colon wall.
C) facilitated diffusion. C) ridges in the mucosa of the colon.
D) cotransport. D) polyps that obstruct the sigmoid colon.
E) osmosis. E) tumors normally confined in the sigmoid colon.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
88) Functions of the large intestine include 93) The saclike structure that joins the ileum at the ileocecal valve is the

A) absorption of bile salts. A) appendix.
B) absorption of vitamins. B) sigmoid colon.
C) resorption of water and compaction of feces. C) rectum.
D) all of the above. D) haustra.
E) B and C only E) cecum.
Answer: E Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
89) At the hepatic flexure, the colon becomes the 94) A small, wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the

A) ascending colon. A) haustra.
B) transverse colon. B) pancreas.
C) descending colon. C) gallbladder.
D) sigmoid colon. D) appendix.
E) rectum. E) ileum.
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
90) Approximately the last 15 cm of the digestive tract is the 95) Movements unique to the large intestine are ________ movements.

A) anus. A) peristaltic
B) anal canal. B) segmentation
C) rectum. C) mass
D) sigmoid colon. D) pendular
E) rectal column. E) writhing
Answer: C Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 673 Page 674
96) The enzyme amylase digests 101) The digestive tract is also referred to as the

A) peptides. A) alimentary canal.
B) polysaccharides. B) esophagus.
C) disaccharides. C) GI tract.
D) triglycerides. D) both A and C
E) nucleotides. E) all of the above
Answer: B Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
97) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is 102) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement.

A) lipase. A) falciform ligament
B) amylase. B) greater omentum
C) nuclease. C) mesentery proper
D) maltase. D) lesser omentum
E) trypsin. E) diaphragm
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
98) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the 103) This organ is primarily responsible for water absorption.

A) mouth. A) small intestine
B) esophagus. B) esophagus
C) stomach. C) large intestine
D) duodenum. D) stomach
E) ileum. E) anus
Answer: A Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
99) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by 104) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of

A) capillaries. the abdomen?
B) veins. A) falciform ligament
C) lymphatic vessels. B) greater omentum
D) the interstitial fluid. C) mesentery proper
E) the arterioles. D) lesser omentum
Answer: C E) diaphragm
Diff: 1 Answer: B
100) The absorption of some sugars in the small intestine involves
A) osmosis. 105) Which of these descriptions best matches the term cholecystokinin (CCK)?
B) diffusion. A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
C) cotransport. B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
D) phagocytosis. C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
E) pinocytosis. D) causes gall bladder to contract
Answer: C E) stimulates gastric secretion
Diff: 1 Answer: D
Page 675 Page 676
106) The ________ mechanically digests ingested food. 111) Which of the following is not a component of the hepatic triad found at the edges of a liver lobule?
A) small intestine A) hepatic artery
B) esophagus B) bile duct
C) large intestine C) central vein
D) stomach D) hepatic portal vein
E) anus E) None of the above all are present in the hepatic triad.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
107) Which layer of the digestive tract has a dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the muscularis 112) Which of the following is classified as being either squamous or columnar?

mucosae? A) submucosa
A) submucosa B) digestive epithelium
B) digestive epithelium C) muscularis mucosae
C) muscularis mucosae D) lamina propria
D) lamina propria E) mucosa
E) mucosa Answer: B
Answer: A Diff: 1
113) Approximately ________ liters of fluid are secreted and reabsorbed into the digestive system each day.
108) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials? A) 5
A) small intestine B) 10
B) esophagus C) 2
C) large intestine D) 1
D) stomach E) 7
E) anus Answer: E
Answer: C Diff: 1
114) Identify the salivary gland that secretes a watery mixture rich in salivary amylase and bicarbonate ion.
109) The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity A) mandibular
A) secretes peritoneal fluid. B) sublingual
B) decreases friction. C) lingual
C) lubricates the cavity. D) submandibular
D) prevents irritation. E) parotid
E) all of the above Answer: E
Answer: E Diff: 2
115) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called
110) Which of the following contains a remnant of the fetal umbilical vein? A) peritoneal sheets.
A) falciform ligament B) mesenteries.
B) greater omentum C) ascites.
C) mesentery proper D) the diaphragm.
D) lesser omentum E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums.
E) diaphragm Answer: B
Answer: A Diff: 1
Page 677 Page 678
116) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver? 121) ________ are also known as canines.

A) falciform ligament A) Bicuspids
B) greater omentum B) Incisors
C) mesentery proper C) Molars
D) lesser omentum D) Secondary teeth
E) diaphragm E) Cuspids
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
117) Which layer of the digestive tract directly underlies the epithelium? 122) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.

A) submucosa A) simple squamous
B) digestive epithelium B) stratified squamous
C) muscularis mucosae C) pseudostratified
D) lamina propria D) stratified columnar
E) lymphoid nodules E) transitional
Answer: D Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
118) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium, except the 123) The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth.

A) stomach. A) mandibular
B) transverse colon. B) sublingual
C) esophagus. C) lingual
D) small intestine. D) submandibular
E) large intestine. E) parotid
Answer: C Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
119) Which of the following is surrounded by a serosa? 124) Which of these statements about the tongue is false?

A) rectum A) dorsal surface covered with papillae
B) pharynx B) composed of large extrinsic and small intrinsic muscles
C) esophagus C) lingual frenulum attaches ventral surface to floor of oral cavity
D) small intestine D) secretes lingual lipase
E) oral cavity E) secretes salivary amylase
Answer: D Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
120) Gastrin secretion in response to elevated luminal pH is an example of 125) Which of these descriptions best matches the term duodenal ampulla?

A) neural stimulation. A) where pancreatic juice and bile enter duodenum
B) local stimulation. B) carries absorbed sugars and amino acids
C) muscular stimulation. C) stimulates pancreas to secrete bicarbonate-rich fluid
D) hormone stimulation. D) causes gall bladder to contract
E) none of the above E) stimulates gastric secretion
Answer: B Answer: A
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Page 679 Page 680
126) Which of the following is a function of the tongue? 131) The part of the digestive tract that plays the primary role in the digestion and absorption of nutrients is the
A) manipulation to assist with chewing A) cecum.
B) mechanical processing B) jejunum.
C) sensory analysis C) stomach.
D) secretion of mucins D) duodenum.
E) all of the above E) colon.
Answer: E Answer: B
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
127) Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase? 132) The hormone that stimulates secretion and contraction by the stomach is

A) mandibular A) gastrin.
B) sublingual B) enteropeptidase.
C) lingual C) secretin.
D) submandibular D) cholecystokinin.
E) parotid E) CCK.
Answer: E Answer: A
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
128) Absorption of glucose from the gut lumen depends on 133) The essential functions of the liver include

A) the sodium-potassium pump in the basolateral membrane of the epithelial cell. A) metabolic regulation.
B) cotransporter proteins in the apical membrane of the epithelial cell. B) hematological regulation.
C) higher sodium ion concentration in the lumen than in the epithelial cell. C) bile production.
D) A and B only D) all of the above
E) A, B, and C E) A and C only
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
129) Functions of teeth include 134) If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive, an individual

A) tearing. A) has a condition called ankyloglossia.
B) crushing. B) has difficulty eating.
C) cutting. C) cannot speak normally.
D) clipping. D) all of the above
E) all of the above E) A and C only
Answer: E Answer: D
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
130) ________ crush and grind food. 135) Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from

A) Bicuspids A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) Incisors B) hormonal stimulation.
C) Molars C) parasympathetic stimulation.
D) Cuspids D) myenteric reflexes.
E) both A and C E) hunger.
Answer: E Answer: C
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
Page 681 Page 682
136) The secretion of acid and enzymes by the gastric mucosa is controlled and regulated by 141) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in

A) the central nervous system. A) mastication.
B) short reflexes coordinated in the stomach wall. B) moving the tongue.
C) digestive tract hormones. C) swallowing.
D) A, B, and C D) esophageal peristalsis.
E) A and C only E) opening the cardiac sphincter.
Answer: D Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
137) At the splenic flexure, the colon becomes the 142) All of the following are true of the lining of the stomach, except that it

A) ascending colon. A) has a simple columnar epithelium.
B) transverse colon. B) is covered by a thick, viscous mucus.
C) descending colon. C) is constantly being replaced.
D) sigmoid colon. D) contains gastric pits.
E) rectum. E) recycles bile.
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 1 Diff: 2
138) Blockage of the common hepatic duct would interfere with digestion of 143) Which of the following is greater?

A) proteins. A) the pH of the blood in gastric veins during digestion of a large meal
B) fats. B) the pH of the blood in gastric veins following a 24 -hour fast
C) disaccharides. C) Can be either.
D) complex carbohydrates. D) Blood pH is constant because of buffering.
E) vitamins. Answer: A
Answer: B Diff: 2
144) Enterogastric reflexes
139) During deglutition, which of the following phases is not present? A) inhibit gastric motility.
A) voluntary B) inhibit gastric secretion.
B) pharyngeal C) are triggered by chyme entering the duodenum.
C) laryngeal D) involve the enteric nervous system.
D) esophageal E) all of the above
E) None of the above. All are phases in deglutition. Answer: E
Answer: C Diff: 2
145) The part of the small intestine most likely to develop an ulcer from exposure to gastric juice is the
140) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would A) pylorus.
A) increase intestinal motility. B) duodenum.
B) decrease intestinal motility. C) ileum.
C) increase gastric secretion. D) caecum.
D) decrease gastric secretion. E) jejunum.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion. Answer: B
Answer: B Diff: 2
Page 683 Page 684
146) In response to the arrival of acid chyme in the duodenum, the 151) All of the following are true of the process known as cotransport, except that
A) blood levels of secretin rise. A) only neutral compounds such as sugars are transported.
B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall. B) more than one molecule or ion is moved through the cell membrane at one time.
C) blood levels of gastrin rise. C) ATP is not required by the transport protein.
D) blood levels of enterocrinin fall. D) saturation phenomenon can be observed.
E) both C and D E) molecules can be moved against a concentration gradient.
Answer: A Answer: A
Diff: 2 Diff: 2
147) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would 152) Parietal cells secrete

A) reduce delivery of saliva. A) pepsinogen.
B) cause mumps-like swelling of the face. B) gastrin.
C) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth. C) mucus.
D) A, B, and C D) intrinsic factor.
E) B and C only E) vitamin B12.
Answer: D Answer: D
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
148) In response to the hormone secretin, the pancreas secretes a fluid 153) The stomach is able to distend a great deal as it receives food because of all of the following, except that

A) rich in enzymes. A) there is a great deal of loose tissue in the form of rugae.
B) rich in bicarbonate ion. B) the smooth muscle of the stomach is very elastic.
C) rich in bile. C) the hormone gastrin relaxes stomach smooth muscle.
D) rich in mucus. D) sympathetic stimulation decreases the tonus of the gastric smooth muscle.
E) that contains only amylase. E) the gastric smooth muscle is very extensible.
Answer: B Answer: C
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
149) In response to the hormone cholecystokinin, the pancreas secretes a fluid 154) A drug that blocks the action of carbonic anhydrase in parietal cells would result in

A) rich in enzymes. A) a lower pH during gastric digestion.
B) rich in bicarbonate. B) a higher pH during gastric digestion.
C) rich in bile. C) decreased production of pepsinogen by chief cells.
D) rich in mucus. D) increased protein digestion in the stomach.
E) that contains only amylase. E) decreased gastrin production.
Answer: A Answer: B
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
150) If digestion of a carbohydrate results in equal amounts of glucose and galactose, this carbohydrate is probably 155) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect

A) sucrose. A) acid production by the stomach.
B) maltose. B) the composition of pancreatic secretions.
C) lactose. C) the delivery of bile.
D) cellulose. D) B and C only
E) glycogen. E) A, B, and C
Answer: C Answer: E
Diff: 2 Diff: 3
Page 685 Page 686
156) An obstruction of the common bile duct often results in
A) undigested fat in the feces.
B) jaundice.
C) inability to digest protein.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
Answer: D
Diff: 3
157) If the pancreatic duct was obstructed, you would expect to see elevated blood levels of
A) bilirubin.
B) amylase.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) secretin.
E) gastrin.
Answer: B
Diff: 3
158) Mary had her stomach mostly removed to try to overcome obesity. As a result you would expect Mary to be at
risk for
A) protein malnutrition.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) diarrhea.
D) dehydration.
E) an ulcer. Figure 24- 1 The Stomach (dissected)
Answer: B
Diff: 3 Use Figure 24- 1 to answer the following questions:
161) What is the function of the structure labeled ʺ6ʺ?
159) Tom has hepatitis, an inflammation of the liver. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to observe A) strains materials entering the stomach
in Tom? B) regulates gastric emptying
A) jaundice C) mixes stomach juice into food
B) elevated levels of blood glucose D) controls contraction of stomach muscles
C) impaired digestion of protein E) prevents food from entering the esophagus
D) blood in the feces Answer: B
E) overproduction of blood plasma albumin Diff: 2
Answer: A Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Diff: 3
Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications 162) Identify the structure labeled ʺ10.ʺ
A) longitudinal muscle layer
160) Tony is a chronic alcoholic with cirrhosis of the liver, a condition in which liver cells die and are replaced by B) circular muscle layer
connective tissue. Which of the following signs would you expect to observe in Tony? C) oblique muscle layer
A) increased clotting time D) rugae
B) jaundice E) submucosa
C) portal hypertension and ascites Answer: C
D) all of the above Diff: 2
E) B and C only Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts
Answer: D
Diff: 3
Page 687 Page 688
163) Identify the structure labeled ʺ12.ʺ
A) fundus
B) cardia
C) lesser curvature
D) greater curvature
E) pylorus
Answer: A
Diff: 2
164) Which structure helps the stomach to stretch as it fills with food?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 9
Answer: E
Diff: 2
165) Identify the structure labeled ʺ7.ʺ \
A) esophagus Figure 24- 2 The Wall of the Small Intestine
B) cardia
C) lesser curvature Use Figure 24- 2 to answer the following questions:
D) greater curvature
E) pylorus 166) What is produced by the structure labeled ʺ7ʺ?
Answer: E A) sodium bicarbonate
Diff: 2 B) lipase
Skill: Level 2 Questions: Reviewing Concepts C) antibodies
D) hydrochloric acid
E) pepsinogen
Answer: C
Diff: 2
167) Which structure controls the contraction of the muscularis externa?
A) 2
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Answer: D
Diff: 2
Page 689 Page 690
168) Contraction of the muscle layer labeled ʺ9ʺ causes the digestive tract to 5) The technical term for chewing is ________.

A) constrict. Answer: mastication
B) shorten. Diff: 1
C) dilate. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) fold for increased surface area.
E) secrete enzymes. 6) The small, semisolid mass of food formed during mastication is called a(n) ________.
Answer: A Answer: bolus
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
169) What type of epithelium covers the structure labeled ʺ6ʺ? 7) After food and gastric juices combine, the gastric contents are referred to as ________.

A) simple squamous Answer: chyme
B) stratified squamous Diff: 1
C) simple cuboidal Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) simple columnar
E) pseudostratified ciliated columnar 8) Bile salts aid in the digestion of fats by ________ large fat droplets.
Answer: D Answer: emulsifying
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
170) The structure labeled ʺ5ʺ 9) ________ is gas produced by bacteria in the colon as they metabolize indigestible carbohydrates.

A) contributes to the mesentery of the small intestine. Answer: Flatus
B) has a simple squamous epithelium. Diff: 1
C) is part of the visceral peritoneum. Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms
D) is called the serosa.
E) all of the above 10) The enzyme that digests starch into disaccharides and trisaccharides is ________.
Answer: E Answer: amylase
Diff: 2 Diff: 1
Short Answer Questions 11) Maltose is hydrolyzed into monosaccharides by the enzyme ________.

1) The oral cavity is also known as the ________ cavity. Answer: maltase
Diff: 1
Answer: buccal
Diff: 1
12) Sucrose is hydrolyzed by sucrase into glucose and ________.
2) The first teeth to appear are the ________ teeth. Answer: fructose
Diff: 2
Answer: deciduous
Diff: 1
13) People who lack the enzyme ________ often experience GI upset after consuming milk and other dairy
3) There are normally a total of ________ primary teeth. products.
Answer: 20 Answer: lactase

Diff: 1 Diff: 1
4) The secondary dentition usually comprises ________ teeth. 14) ________ are complexes of fatty acids, monoglycerides, and bile salts.
Answer: 32 Answer: Micelles

Diff: 1 Diff: 1
Page 691 Page 692
15) The ________ is formed by the union of the cystic duct and the common hepatic duct. 2) Dentin is the hardest substance found in teeth.
Answer: common bile duct Answer: FALSE
Diff: 1 Diff: 1
16) Your patient with liver failure has a firm rounded abdomen due to accumulation of fluid. This is known Essay Questions

clinically as ________. 1) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
Answer: ascites Answer: Levels of ghrelin, a hormone produced by P/D1 cells, lining the fundic region of the stomach, rise before
Diff: 3 meals to initiate hunger and decline shortly after eating to curb appetite. Ghrelin is also antagonistic to
leptin, a fat-tissue-derived hormone that induces satiety. Another hormone from the stomach and small
intestine, obestatin, decreases appetite. The same gene encodes both ghrelin and obestatin.
17) The circumferential folds that encircle the digestive tract are known as ________.
Diff: 3
Answer: plicae Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
Diff: 2
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms 2) Outline the usual pathway for digestion and absorption of triglycerides (fats).
Answer: Fats are not soluble in water and so need special handling. The liver produces bile for fat digestion. Bile
18) Within the oral cavity, both mechanical and chemical ________ begin.
causes fat molecules to break up into tiny droplets called micelles. Pancreatic lipase attaches to these
Answer: digestion micelles and hydrolyses the triglycerides, freeing fatty acids, monoglycerides, and glycerol. The glycerol
Diff: 1 enters the columnar epithelial cells by facilitated diffusion and the fatty acids enter by simple diffusion
because of their lipid nature. Within the epithelial cell glycerol or monoglycerides are reconnected to
fatty acids. These fat molecules form tiny droplets within the Golgi and pass into the lamina propria.
19) The oral cavity performs sensory ________ prior to swallowing.
Here they enter lacteals, which are lymphatics, eventually being carried to the venous circulation at the
Answer: analysis thoracic duct.
Diff: 1 Diff: 3
Skill: Level 1 Questions: Reviewing Facts and Terms Skill: Level 3 Questions: Critical Thinking & Clinical Applications
20) The dangling process that aids in keeping food out of the nasopharynx is known as the ________. 3) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?

Answer: uvula Answer: The gallbladder functions to concentrate and store bile produced by the liver. In this capacity, the
Diff: 2
gallbladder reabsorbs water from the bile. Since bile salts are produced from cholesterol, these salts will
be precipitated as cholesterol-like gallstones if too much water is reabsorbed. Whenever bile is released
by the gallbladder in response to the presence of fats in the duodenum, the smooth muscle in the wall of
21) A viral infection that often involves the parotid glands, which swell noticeably, is ________.
the gallbladder must contract. This generates severe pain if the cystic duct or common bile duct are
Answer: mumps blocked by kidney stones. To minimize or prevent this pain Leonʹs doctor prescribes a low -fat : less fat
Diff: 2
in the diet, less contraction of the gallbladder, and less pain.
Diff: 3
22) Match the term with its activity.
4) Imagine eating a soda cracker, which is basically starch, fat, protein, and salt. How would each of these
1. gallbladder A) stores bile components be digested? Where within the digestive system would they be digested? Are any accessory
2. esophagus B) secretes digestive enzymes organs involved?
3. pancreas C) transports material to stomach
Answer: Digestion begins in the oral cavity. Food triggers saliva from the parotids, rich in amylase, and from the
Answer: 1-A; 2-C; 3-B submandibulars, rich in mucus. The tongue and teeth cooperate to mix all together and form a bolus.
Diff: 1
Digestion of fats and starch begins due to lingual lipase and salivary amylase. Swallowing reflexes send
it to the stomach. Acid and pepsin greet the bolus. Peptides form from the wheat proteins due to action
of pepsin. It then travels into the small intestine, where pancreatic lipase and amylase complete fat and
True/False Questions starch digestion. Pancreatic proteinases and peptidases reduce peptides to amino acids. These are
1) The dorsal mesentery of the fetus develops into the greater omentum of the adult.
absorbed by cotransport. Maltose from starch is split into glucose molecules, which are absorbed by
Answer: TRUE cotransport. The salt in the cracker is absorbed during cotransport. Fatty acids diffuse into the epithelial
Diff: 1 cells because of their lipid character.
Diff: 3
Page 693 Page 694
5) What local reflexes control the GI tract?
Answer: The GI tract has extensive sensory and motor neuron plexuses that communicate along the entire length
of the digestive tube. These systems enable simple reflex behavior. Vomiting is a familiar example.
Toxins are detected by sensory neurons in the GI tract. They trigger a reflex reverse peristalsis, emptying
the stomach and esophagus of the offensive material. The gastroileal reflex is triggered by stomach
distension, causing food to move from the ileum into the colon. Similarly, stomach stretch can trigger
reflex mass movements that send chyme into the rectum, promoting a sense of urgency. Another is the
gastroenteric reflex, also initiated by stretch receptors in the stomach, that stimulates motility and
secretion along the entire small intestine. Finally, the enterogastric reflex causes the emptying and other
movements of the stomach to pause for a few moments when gastric contents contact the duodenal
mucosa. This is a good example of local autonomic regulation.
Diff: 3
Page 695
Fundamentals of Anatomy & Physiology, 8e (Martini)

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Chapter 21 Blood Vessels and Circulation 5) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called

10) Metabolites exchange by diffusion with tissue cells in which of the following locations? 15) Blood pressure is highest here.

11) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following, except the 16) Blood pressure increases with all of the following, except increased

12) As blood travels from arteries to veins, 17) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.

13) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the 18) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the

14) Blood pressure is determined by 19) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between capillaries and interstitial

21) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure, except 26) Which of the following obeys the rule that arteries carry blood away from the heart?

22) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure, except 27) Each of the following arteries is a component of the cerebral arterial circle, except the

23) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue, except 28) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery.

24) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the 29) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein.

30) Which of the following are characteristics of cardiovascular regulation? 35) The hormone that produces cardiovascular effects similar to activation of the sympathetic nervous system is:

31) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexly results in 36) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following, except

32) Fear can result in 37) Branches off the aortic arch include the

33) During exercise 38) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies).

34) In response to hemorrhage, there is 39) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery.

41) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries. 46) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following, except the ________ arteries.

42) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery, the 47) Near the level of vertebra L4 , the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries.

43) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the 48) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries.

44) Near the carotid sinus, 49) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery.

50) Branches of the popliteal artery include the 55) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm?

51) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the 56) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein.

52) Veins of the brain empty into 57) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein.

53) The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the 58) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external jugulars is the ________

61) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drain into a(n) 66) The two common iliac veins form the

62) Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s). 67) Nutrients from the digestive tract enter the

63) At the knee, the small saphenous, tibial, and fibular veins unite to form the ________ vein. 68) Elderly individuals usually have

64) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein. 69) Elderly individuals are more prone than are younger individuals to have all of the following, except

70) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries? 75) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the

71) The smallest arterial branches are called the 76) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?

72) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the 77) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called

73) The thoroughfare channel ends at the 78) In large arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers is called the

74) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers? 79) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?

81) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the 86) Elastic fibers in the walls of these vessels are stretched during systole.

82) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery? 87) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery?

83) Which of the following lumen diameters would be typical of a muscular artery? 88) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in the United States.

84) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery? 89) These vessels hold the largest percentage of the blood supply.

90) Arteriosclerosis can lead to 95) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to

91) A vein that measures 5 mm would be considered 96) Venous valves are responsible for

92) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the 97) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________ the volume in the

101) Venae cavae are the largest of this type of vessel. 106) ADH and aldosterone secretion are part of the bodyʹs long -term compensation for

102) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the 107) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in

103) Of the following arteries, the one that is an elastic artery is 108) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium. Blood moves slowly

110) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated. 116) Which of the following changes doesnʹt occur during exercise compared to rest?

111) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors slow their discharge, 117) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance, except

112) Which of the following would have the greater effect on vascular resistance? 118) Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output, except

131) Which of the following would you expect to have the lowest resting heart rate?

141) Identify the vein labeled ʺ15.ʺ 3) The opening and closing of the precapillary sphincter is called ________.

142) Identify the vein labeled ʺ10.ʺ 5) ________ are multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network.

143) Identify the vein labeled ʺ8.ʺ 7) A(n) ________ is a direct connection between an arteriole and a venule.

144) Identify the vein labeled ʺ6.ʺ 9) The pressure difference between the base of the aorta and the right atrium is the ________.

13) The condition known as ________ is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within the wall of arteries. 23) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper arm is the ________.

14) ________ are the distinctive sounds heard through the stethoscope due to turbulence during the measurement 24) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the ________.

32) The common carotid artery divides to form the ________ and ________ carotid arteries. 42) Below the ankle the anterior tibial artery becomes the ________ artery on the top of the foot.

33) The blood vessel that supplies venous blood to the liver is the ________. 43) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________ artery.

34) The small intestine and most of the large intestine receive blood from the ________. 44) The vessel that collects blood from the overlying structures of the head and neck is the ________.

35) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the ________. 45) The cervical region of the spinal cord is drained by the ________.

36) Ovaries or testes receive a blood supply from the ________. 46) Blood from the brain is drained by the ________.

37) The suprarenal glands receive a blood supply from the ________. 47) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________.

38) Capillaries are continuous or ________. 48) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.

39) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the ________. 49) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm.

40) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the ________. 50) The ________ receives all the venous blood from the kidney.

41) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________. 51) The ________ receives blood from the suprarenal gland.

53) Blood is drained from the liver by the ________. 63) ________ form elaborate networks within tissues that allow very slow blood flow.

41) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and arteries. 46) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following, except the arteries.

92) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the 97) Venoconstriction the amount of blood within the venous system, which the volume in the

13) The condition known as is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within the wall of arteries. 23) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper arm is the .

14) are the distinctive sounds heard through the stethoscope due to turbulence during the measurement 24) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the .

32) The common carotid artery divides to form the and carotid arteries. 42) Below the ankle the anterior tibial artery becomes the artery on the top of the foot.

33) The blood vessel that supplies venous blood to the liver is the . 43) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior artery.

34) The small intestine and most of the large intestine receive blood from the . 44) The vessel that collects blood from the overlying structures of the head and neck is the .

35) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the . 45) The cervical region of the spinal cord is drained by the .

36) Ovaries or testes receive a blood supply from the . 46) Blood from the brain is drained by the .

37) The suprarenal glands receive a blood supply from the . 47) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the .

38) Capillaries are continuous or . 48) The vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.

39) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the . 49) The vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm.

40) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the . 50) The receives all the venous blood from the kidney.

41) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the . 51) The receives blood from the suprarenal gland.

53) Blood is drained from the liver by the . 63) form elaborate networks within tissues that allow very slow blood flow.

54) The receives blood from the diaphragm. 64) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as .

55) Blood returns from the gallbladder by way of the . 65) are the only blood vessels whose walls are thin enough to permit blood—tissue exchange.

56) Blood from the medial border of the stomach is drained by the . 66) Venules feed blood into.

57) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the . 67) After the precapillary arteriole, blood enters a .

31) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called immunity. 36) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the cells.

32) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called immunity. 37) The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the cells.

33) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called immunity. 38) The medullary cords of a lymph node contain lymphocytes and plasma cells.

35) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are cells. 40) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are cells.

73) Which of the following interleukins stimulates T cells to produce IL-2, promotes inflammation, and causes 78) T is to as B is to .

13) The larynx contains cartilages. 18) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the cartilage.