Neet Dropper

Evolution
CAreer Institute NEET – 2019
G et Concept- Building minor Test – viiI

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Date: 11/08/2018
O ptimum
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically
for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
A
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
nalytical 1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Biology, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Physics.
4. Each part has only one section:
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No
L earning
additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers
and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking
your answers on OMR sheet.
S
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each
character of your
heets Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated
places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking
answers.
C. Marking Scheme:
T est
BIOLOGY
Physics
Chemistry
Subject Marking Scheme
70*4
Total Marks
280
Biology : bones , nervous system
S eries
Name of candidate (in Capital letters): __________________________________
Roll Number: _______________________________________________________
Examination Center Number: _________________________________________
Name of Examination: ________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature: ______________ Invigilator’s Signature: __________
Contact us:- A-33, C-Class, Near K.V. No.1, Pratapnagar, Udaipur - 313001
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Section A (BIOLOGY)
1. A : Ball and-socket-joints are the most mobile

joints.
R : Synovial fluid is present here.
2. A : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes
the joint painful.
R : Some toxic substances are deposited at the
joint.
3. Ear ossicle, incus is modified form of which
bone- (MP-PMT-2004)
(1) Jugal (2) Articular
(3) Quadrate (4) Hyomandibular
4. Joint between humerus and ulna is-
(RPMT 2003)
(1) Saddle joint (2) Hinge joint
(3) Fibrous joint (4) Ball and socket
5. An acromian process is characteristically found
in the- (CPMT-2005)
(1) Pelvic girdle of mammals
(2) Pectoral girdle of mammals
(3) Skull of frog
(4) Sperm of mammals
6. Fibulare bones are associated with-
(MP-PMT-2002)
(1) Elbow joint (2) Knee joint
(3) Neck joint (4) Angular joint
7. Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is
called. (MP-PMT-2002)
(1) Membrane bone (2) Dermal bone
(3) Sesamoid bone (4) Cartilage
8. Joint of sternum and ribs is- (CBSE 2000)
(1) Cartilaginous (2) Fibrous joint
(3) Angular joint (4) Hinge joint
9. Sutural joints are present between-
(MPPMT 2000)
(1) Thumb and metatarsal
(2) Humerus and radio-ulna
(3) Parital of skull
(4) Glenoid cavity and pectoral girdle
10. Deltoid groove is present in : (RPMT 1999)
(1) Radio-ulna (2) femur
(3) tibio-fibula (4) humerus
11. Two halves of pelvic girdle are joined together
by- (BHU 1999)
(1) Pubic symphysis
(2) Ischiac symphysis
(3) Ischiopubic symphysis
(4) By fusion
12. From outer to innerside the sequence of three
bones present in the middle ear of mammals is-
(CPMT 2001)
(1) Incus, Malleus, Stapes
(2) Malleus, Incus, Stapes
(3) Malleus, Stapes, Incus
(4) Stapes, Malleus, Incus
13. Joint between atlas and axis is-(CBSE 1999)
(1) Pivot joint (2) Saddle joint
(3) Angular joint (4) Hinge joint
14. Bones of pelvic girdle forms a cavity in which
head of the femur is fitted are - (RPMT 1998)
(1) ilium only (2) ilium and ischium
(3) ilium, ischium and pubis
(4) ischium and pubis
15. Stapes is modification of :-
(1) Hypomandibular (2) Palatine
(3) Quadrate (4) Squamosal
16. Largest foramen of human body is :-

(1) Foramen ovale
(2) Foramen of magendie
(3) Foramen of magnum
(4) Foramen of monro
17. Which of following helps in rotation of the neck:-
(1) Atlas (2) Axis
(3) Cervical
(4) Occipital condyle of skull
18. Total number of vertebra in Man :
(1) 30 (2) 33
(3) 40 (4) 35
19. Scales are exoskeleton of -
(1) Reptiles (2) Fishes
(3) Both (4) None
20. Atlas - Axis joint is :-
(1) Hinge joint (2) Saddle joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) None
21. Joint between malleus & incus is :-
(1) Gliding joint (2) Ball & socket joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) Hinge joint
22. Total number of skull bones in human :-
(1) 28 (2) 49
(3) 39 (4) 19
23. Elbow joint is :-
(1) Ball & socket (2) Pivot
(3) Gliding (4) Hinge
24. Study of joint known as :-

(1) Osteology (2) Arthrology
(3) Craniology (4) Kinesiology
25. False rib in man is :-
(1) 8th 9th & 10th rib (2) 7th 8th, 9th rib
(3) 9th, 10th & 11th rib (4) 6th , 7th & 8th rib
26. Demifacets present at :-
(1) Thoracic vertebra (2) Lumbar vertebra
(3) Sacral vertebra (4) Cervical vertebra
27. A : Nerve impulse is originated from threshold
stimulus.
R : Threshold stimulus is the minimum strength
of stimulus which is applied to the nerve fibre
to stimulate it effectively
28. A : Nerve conduction is the one way
conduction.
R : Nerve impulse is transmitted from dendrite
terminals to axon terminals.
29. A : Motor end plate is a neuromuscular junction
R : Motor end plate is the junction between
motor neuron and muscle fibre.
30. A : Nerve impulses are conducted more rapidly
in nonmyelinated nerve fibres than in myelinated
ones.
R : Mylein sheath insulates the nerve fibre and
prevents its depolarization.
31. A : The chemicals stored in the synaptic vesicles
are termed as neurotransmitters.
R : Synaptic vesicles release these chemicals
in the synaptic cleft
32 A : Motor neuron terminates on a motor end
plate at the neuromuscular junction.
R : Motor end plate acts as receptor for
detecting changes in the muscle fibres.
33 When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not
conducting any inpulse, the axonal
membrane is [CBSE 2011]
(1) Comparatively more permeable to Na+
ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions
(2) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+
ions
(3) Impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
(4) Comparatively more permeable to K+
ions and nearly impermeable to Na+
ions.
34 During the conduction of nerve impulse, the
action potential is the result of movement of:
[Wardha 2007]
(1) Na+ from intracellular fluid to extracellular
fluid
(2) Na+ from extracellular fluid to intracellular
fluid
(3) Na+ towards both directions
(4) None of the above
35 Assertion (A) : The imbalance in
concentration of Na+, K+ and proteins generates
resting potential.
Reason (R) : To maintain the unequal
distribution of Na+ and K+, the neurons use
electrical energy. [AIIMS 2007]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
36 Nerve impulse initiates with the movements of:
[RPMT 2006, BCECE 2007]
(1) K+ (2) Na+
(3) Ca2+ (4) Mg2+
37 Nerve impulse is generated when nerve cell
undergoes : [Chandigarh CET 2006]
(1) Depolarization (2) Repolarization
(3) Hyperpolarization (4) Pseudopolarization
38 Acetylcholinesterase enzyme splits acetylcholine
into - [Pb. PMT 2005]
(1) Acetone and choline
(2) Acetic acid and choline
(3) Amino acid and choline
(4) Aspartic acid and acetylcholine
39 Which of the following substances leads to the
inhibition of central nervous system?
[CPMT-2004]
(1) Glycine (2) GABA
(3) Norepinephrine (4) Both 1 and 2
40 Nervous system developes from -
[RPMT-2000]
(1) Ectoderm (2) Mesoderm
(3) Ectomesoderm (4) Endomesoderm
41 Parkinson's disease (characterized by tremors
and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by
degeneration of brain neurons that involved in
movement control and make use of
neurotransmitter. [AIPMT-2005]
(1) acetylcholine (2) norepinephrine
(3) dopamine (4) GABA
43 Match the following human spinal nerves in

column I with II and choose the correct
options:
Column I Column II
(a) Cervical nerves (i) 5 pairs
(b) Thoracic nerves (ii) 1 pair
(c) Lumbar nerves (iii) 12 pairs
(d) Coccygeal nerves (iv) 8 paris
44 During the transmission of nerve impulse
through a nerve fiber, the potential on the inner
side of the plasma membrane has which type
of electric charge ? [AIPMT-2007]
(1) First positive, then negative and continue
to be negative
(2) First negative, then positive and continue
to be positive
(3) First positive, then negative and again back
to positive
(4) First negative, then positive and again back
to negative
45 A typical value of resting membrane potential
is - [KERALA PMT-2006]
(1) - 40 mv (2) - 60 mv
(3) - 70 mv (4) - 80 mv
46 Which of the following statement is correct for
node of Ranvier of nerve - [AIPMT-2002]
(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(3) Both neurilemma & Myelein sheath are
discontinuous
(4) Covered by myelein sheath
47 Depolarization of axolemma during nerve
conduction takes place because of -
[AIPMT-2000]
(1) Equal amount of Na+ & K+ move out
across axolema
(2) Na+ move inside
(3) More Na+ outside
(4) None
48 Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse
through nerve fibre is due to the fact that .
[AIIMS-2004]
(1) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary
sheath.
(2) Sodium pump starts operating only at the
cyton and then continues into nerve fibre.
(3) Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites
and not by axon endings.
(4) Neurotransmitters are released by the axon
endings and not by dendrites
49 In the resting state of the neural membrane,
diffusion due to concentration gradients, if
allowed, would drive - [AIPMT-2004]
(1) K+ and Na+ out of the cell
(2) Na+ into the cell
(3) Na+ out of the cell
(4) K+ into the cell
50 The ..Nissle's granules.. of nerve cells's are
made up of - [RPMT-2003]
(1) Ribosome (2) Protein
(3) DNA (4) Mitochondria
51 Nissl's granules are absent in -
[UP-CPMT 2001]
(1) axon (2) cyton
(3) dendron (4) schwann cells
52 During nerve impulse transmission
permeability of membrane is greater for -
[West Bengal - 2007]
(1) Na+ (2) K+
(3) equal for both (1) and (2)
(4) Ca2+
53 The junction between the axon of one neuron
and the dendrite of the next is called-
[UP-CPMT 2001]
(1) a joint (2) a synapse
(3) constant bridge (4) junction point
54 If myelin sheath is continue in myelinated nerve
fibre than what will happens in neuronal
conduction .
(1) Velocity is increased
(2) Conduction is slow
(3) Conduction is stopped
(4) No effect
55 When the axons membrane is positively charged
outside and negatively charged in side, then the
condition is known as .
(1) Action potential (2) Resting potential
(3) Active potential (4) Differential potential
56 Non Myelinated axons differ from myelinated in
that they .
(1) Are more excitable
(2) Lack nodes of Ranvier
(3) Are not capable of regeneration
(4) Are not associated with schwann cells
57 If GABA is released at synapse area then what
will happens .
(1) Depolarization of neuron
(2) Repolarization of neuron
(3) Hyperpolarization of neuron
(4) No effect
58 Which one of the following types of neurons are
most numerous in the body .
(1) Unipolar (2) Multipolar
(3) Bipolar (4) Pseudounipolar
59 Repolarisation of Neuron is occured due to .
(1) Influx of Na+ (2) Influx of K+
(3) Efflux of Na+ (4) Efflux of K+
61 Myelogenesis (Myelin formation) process occur
in C.N.S. (central nervous system) .
(1) By schwann cells (2) By oligodendrocytes
(3) By Axolemma (4) By neurolemma
62 A short period during which a nerve is unable to
conduct nerve impulse is called
(1) Synaptic delay (2) Refractory period
(3) Resting potential (4) Critical period
63 The function of an axon is .
(1) Transformation of nerve impulse
(2) Reception of stimuli from neurons
(3) Reception of external stimuli
(4) Conduction of nerve impulse
64 Nerve fibres are surrounded by an insulating fatty
layer called .
(1) Adipose sheath (2) Myelin sheath
(3) Hyaline sheath (4) Peritoneum
65 Which cell-organellae absent in neurons .
(1) Mitochondira (2) Ribosome
(3) Centriole (4) Nucleus
66 During refractory period .
(1) Nerve transmits impulse very slowly
(2) Nerve can not transmit impulse
(3) Nerve transmits impulses very rapidly
(4) None of the above
67 Nissl granules occur in which part and what is
their function .
(1) Neurons and help in nutrition & increase
metabolic activity of neuron
(2) Blood and help in nutrition and excretion
(3) Sarcoplasm and help in contraction
(4) Cell and secrete mucous
68 Saltatory conduction occurs in .
(1) Non-myelinated fibers
(2) Myelinated fibers
(3) Both of them
(4) None of these
69 Find out the correct statement :.
(1) Axons receives nourishment from the dendrite
(2) Both axons & dendrites receive nourishment
from the cell body of neuron
(3) Dendrite receive nourishment from axons
(4) The cell body of a neuron receives
nourishment from both axon and dendron
70 Cholinergic nerves at synapses secrete :.
(1) Acetyl cholin (2) Adrenaline
(3) Nor adrenaline (4) Sodium ions
Section B (Chemistry)
1. Which of the following conclusions could not be

derived from Rutherford’s
α -particle scattering experiement?
(i) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(ii) The radius of the atom is about 10–10 m while
that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
(iii) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed
energy called orbits.
(iv) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by The density of dots in a region represents the
electrostatic forces of attraction. probability density of finding electrons in the
2. Which of the following options does not represent region.
ground state electronic On the basis of above diagram which of the
configuration of an atom? following statements is incorrect?
(i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8 4s2 (i) 1s and 2s orbitals are spherical in shape.
(ii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9 4s2 (ii) The probability of finding the electron is
(iii) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 maximum near the nucleus.
(iv) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1 (iii) The probability of finding the electron at a
3. The probability density plots of 1s and 2s orbitals given distance is equal in all directions.
are given in Fig (iv) The probability density of electrons for 2s
orbital decreases uniformly as distance from the
nucleus increases.
4. Which of the following statement is not correct
about the characteristics of cathode rays? (i) l
(i) They start from the cathode and move towards (ii) n and l
the anode. (iii) n and m
(ii) They travel in straight line in the absence of an (iv) m and s
external electrical or magnetic field. 13. Chlorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and
(iii) Characteristics of cathode rays do not depend Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates the
upon the material of electrodes in cathode ray tube. ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately
(iv) Characteristics of cathode rays depend upon (i) 1:2
the nature of gas present in the cathode ray tube. (ii) 1:1
5. Which of the following statements about the (iii) 1:3
electron is incorrect? (iv) 3:1
(i) It is a negatively charged particle. 14. The pair of ions having same electronic
(ii) The mass of electron is equal to the mass of configuration is __________.
neutron. (i) Cr3+, Fe3+
(iii) It is a basic constituent of all atoms. (ii) Fe3+, Mn2+
(iv) It is a constituent of cathode rays. (iii) Fe3+, Co3+
6. Which of the following properties of atom could be (iv) Sc3+, Cr3+
explained correctly by 15. For the electrons of oxygen atom, which of the
Thomson Model of atom? following statements is correct?
(i) Overall neutrality of atom. (i) Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital is the same as
(ii) Spectra of hydrogen atom. Zeff for an electron in a 2p orbital.
(iii) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in (ii) An electron in the 2s orbital has the same
atom. energy as an electron in the 2p orbital.
(iv) Stability of atom. (iii) Zeff for an electron in 1s orbital is the same as
7. Two atoms are said to be isobars if. Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital.
(i) they have same atomic number but different (iv) The two electrons present in the 2s orbital have
mass number. spin quantum numbers ms but of opposite sign.
(ii) they have same number of electrons but 16. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following
different number of neutrons. matter waves have the
(iii) they have same number of neutrons but shortest wavelength?
different number of electrons. (i) Electron
(iv) sum of the number of protons and neutrons is (ii) Alpha particle (He2+)
same but the number of protons is different. (iii) Neutron
8. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is (iv) Proton
(i) 3 In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A)
(ii) 4 followed by a statement of Reason (R) is given. Choose
(iii) 2 the correct option out of the choices given below each
(iv) 1 question.
9. Number of angular nodes for 4d orbital is _ (i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
(i) 4 A.
(ii) 3 (ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation
(iii) 2 of A.
(iv) 1 (iii) A is true but R is false.
10. Which of the following is responsible to rule out (iv) Both A and R are false.
the existence of definite paths 17. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element
or trajectories of electrons? show the same type of chemical behaviour.
(i) Pauli’s exclusion principle. Reason (R) : The chemical properties of an atom
(ii) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. are controlled by the number of electrons in the
(iii) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity. atom.
(iv) Aufbau principle. 18. Assertion (A) : Black body is an ideal body that
11. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies.
will be __________. Reason (R) : The frequency of radiation emitted
(i) 2 by a body goes from a lower frequency to higher
(ii) 4 frequency with an increase in
(iii) 9 temperature.
(iv) 3 19. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to determine the
12. Orbital angular momentum depends on exact position and exact momentum of an electron
__________. simultaneously.
Reason (R) : The path of an electron in an atom is
clearly defined.
20. Assertion : Cu is less reactive than hydrogen.
Reason : E Cu2+ /Cu is negative.
21. Assertion : ECell should have a positive value for
the cell to function.
Reason : Ecathode < Eanode
22. Assertion : Conductivity of all electrolytes
decreases on dilution.
Reason : On dilution number of ions per unit
volume decreases.
23. Assertion : m Λ for weak electrolytes shows a
sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is
diluted.
Reason : For weak electrolytes degree of
dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
24. Assertion : Mercury cell does not give steady
potential.
Reason : In the cell reaction, ions are not
involved in solution.
25. Assertion : Electrolysis of NaCl solution gives
chlorine at anode instead of O2.
Reason : Formation of oxygen at anode requires
overvoltage.
26. Assertion : For measuring resistance of an ionic
solution an AC source is used.
Reason : Concentration of ionic solution will
change if DC source is used.
27. Assertion : Current stops flowing when ECell = 0.
Reason : Equilibrium of the cell reaction is
attained.
28. Assertion : EAg+ /Ag increases with increase in
concentration of Ag+ ions.
Reason : E Ag+/Ag has a positive value. 32. Which of the following statement is correct?
29. Assertion : Copper sulphate can be stored in (i) ECell and ΔrG of cell reaction both are extensive
zinc vessel. properties.
Reason : Zinc is less reactive than copper. (ii) ECell and ΔrG of cell reaction both are
Which cell will measure standard electrode intensive properties.
30.
potential of copper electrode? (iii) ECell is an intensive property while ΔrG of cell
(i) Pt (s) H2 (g,0.1 bar) H+ (aq.,1 M) Cu2+(aq.,1M) reaction is an extensive property.
Cu (iv) ECell is an extensive property while ΔrG of cell
(ii) Pt(s) H2 (g, 1 bar) H+ (aq.,1 M) Cu2+ (aq.,2 M) reaction is an intensive property.
Cu 33. The difference between the electrode potentials
(iii) Pt(s) H2 (g, 1 bar) H+ (aq.,1 M) Cu2+ (aq.,1 M) of two electrodes when no current is drawn
Cu through the cell is called ___________.
(iv) Pt(s) H2 (g, 1 bar) H+ (aq.,0.1 M) Cu2+ (aq.,1 (i) Cell potential
M) Cu (ii) Cell emf
Electrode potential for Mg electrode varies (iii) Potential difference
31.
according to the equation (iv) Cell voltage
34. Which of the following statement is not correct
about an inert electrode in a cell?
(i) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(ii) It provides surface either for oxidation or for
reduction reaction.
(iii) It provides surface for conduction of
electrons.
(iv) It provides surface for redox reaction.
35. An electrochemical cell can behave like an (ii) 6F
electrolytic cell when ____________. (iii) 3F
(i) Ecell = 0 (iv) 2F
(ii) Ecell > Eext 43. The cell constant of a conductivity cell
(iii) Eext > Ecell _____________.
(iv) Ecell = Eext (i) changes with change of electrolyte.
36. Which of the statements about solutions of (ii) changes with change of concentration of
electrolytes is not correct? electrolyte.
(i) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of (iii) changes with temperature of electrolyte.
ions. (iv) remains constant for a cell.
(ii) Conductivity depends upon viscosiy of 44. While charging the lead storage battery
solution. ______________.
(iii) Conductivity does not depend upon (i) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb.
solvation of ions present in solution. (ii) PbSO4 cathode is reduced to Pb.
(iv) Conductivity of solution increases with (iii) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb.
temperature. (iv) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2.
37. Using the data given below find out the 45.
strongest reducing agent.
(i) Cl–
(ii) Cr
(iii) Cr3+
(iv) Mn2+
38. Use the data given in Q.37 and find out which of
the following is the strongest oxidising agent.
(i) Cl–
(ii) Mn2+
(iii) MnO4
–
(iv) Cr3+
39. Using the data given in Q.37 find out in which
option the order of reducing
power is correct.
(i) Cr3+ < Cl– < Mn2+ < Cr
(ii) Mn2+ < Cl– < Cr3+ < Cr
(iii) Cr3+ < Cl– < Cr2O72– < MnO4–
(iv) Mn2+ < Cr3+ < Cl– < Cr
40. Use the data given in Q.37 and find out the most
stable ion in its reduced form.
(i) Cl–
(ii) Cr3+
(iii) Cr
(iv) Mn2+
41. Use the data of Q.37 and find out the most stable
oxidised species.
(i) Cr3+
(ii) MnO4–
(iii) Cr2O72–
(iv) Mn2+
42. The quantity of charge required to obtain one
mole of aluminium from Al2O3 is
___________.
(i) 1F
Section C (Physics)
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Evolution

CAreer Institute NEET – 2019

G et Concept- Building minor Test – viiI

Biology : bones , nervous system

Candidate’s Signature: ____ Invigilator’s Signature:

1. A : Ball and-socket-joints are the most mobile

16. Largest foramen of human body is :-

24. Study of joint known as :-

43 Match the following human spinal nerves in

1. Which of the following conclusions could not be

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