PM Bazooka August 2018

Bazooka - August, 2018 Monthly Bulletin for Banking Exams
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Table of Contents
SI No. Topic
1. 100 Important Current Affairs for July
2. Cabinet Ministers and their Constituencies
3. RBI’s 3rd Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement, 2018-19- A
Review
4. Important Days (June and July)
5. All You Need to Know about Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill
2018
6. Banking Awareness Quiz
7. IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test
www.practicemock.com
100 Important Current Affairs for July

Persons in News
1. The central government has renewed the appointment of Prof D Sahasrabudhe as the chairman of the All India Council for
Technical Education (AICTE).
2. Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Corporation (HSBC) has appointed Surendra Rosha as Chief Executive Officer for HSBC
India.
3. K B Vijay Srinivas has been recently appointed as the Director and General Manager of the United India Insurance Company.
4. Andres Manuel Lopez Obrador is the new president of Mexico.
5. Saraswati Prasad was appointed the new chairman and managing director (CMD) of SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited).
6. Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel has been appointed the chairperson of National Green Tribunal.
Events
7. “Agri Vikas 2018”, a conclave on agriculture and allied sectors was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha.
8. The 17th World Sanskrit Conference was inaugurated and attended by Human Resource Development Minister Shri Prakash
Javdekar at Vancouver, Canada.
9. Thaawar Chand Gehlot, Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment attended the Global Disability Summit 2018 held in
London, United Kingdom.
10. Indian Air Force (IAF) contingent will participate in the Pitch Black – 2018 exercise in the Darwin Air Force Base, Australia.
11. Sixth edition of biennial World Cities Summit was held in Singapore. Its theme was “Liveable & Sustainable Cities: Embracing
the Future through Innovation and Collaboration”.
Banking
12. Repco Micro Finance Ltd was awarded the NABARD 2018 award for its service to self-help group (SHG) linkage in Tamil Nadu
for the fiscal year 2017-18.
13. Federal Bank has obtained the regulatory nod from RBI (Reserve Bank of India) to open offices in Bahrain, Kuwait and Singapore.
14. MoU was signed by the Indian Army and SBI (State Bank of India) on the Defence Salary Package.
15. LIC has been cleared to have a 51% controlling stake in the state-run bank IDBI.
16. The Union Cabinet has approved the extension of the scheme of recapitalization of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) for the next
three years i.e. upto 2019-20. This will enable the RRBs to maintain the minimum prescribed Capital to Risk Weighted Assets
Ratio (CRAR) of 9 per cent.
17. SBI Card, the country’s second largest credit card issuer, announced the launch of ELA’ (Electronic Live Assistant), a virtual
assistant for customer support and services.
18. Yes Bank has received approval SEBI to start mutual fund business after RBI’s approval. The name of the Mutual Fund business
is Yes Asset Management (India) Limited (YAMIL).
19. HDFC Bank has gone past Russia's Sberbank to become the most valuable bank in the emerging market outside China.
20. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has launched first of its kind Centre for Climate Change in
South Asia in Uttar Pradesh’s capital Lucknow.
21. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved US $352 million for Lining Project of Son canal in Shahabad-Bhojpur region
of Bihar.
22. Oxigen and Fincare Small Finance Bank signed an agreement to start Branchless Banking services, using Oxigen’s flagship
Point of Sale device called the Oxigen Micro ATM Super PoS.
Business
23. Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) in Assam has become the first oil public sector undertaking (PSU) to adopt an online legal
compliance system by introducing ‘Legatrix’.
24. IIFL is India’s top investment bank for equity issuance by private sector companies, as per report of Prime Database Investment
Bankers League table for FY 2017-18.
25. Athena- a new satellite to provide broadband access to unserved and underserved areas will be launched by Facebook in 2019.
26. Maharashtra government allocated Rs 15 crore for the implementation of a pension scheme for senior journalists, the scheme
is called Acharya Balshastri Jambhekar Sanman Yojana.
27. Commerce Secretary Rita Teaotia chaired the first meeting of the task force set up to recommend the framework for a national
policy on e-commerce.
28. Chief Election Commissioner Shri. O.P. Rawat launched a mobile app, called ‘cVIGIL’, to report on violation of election code of
conduct.
29. The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) has developed a mobile app ‘GST Verify’ to protect interest of
consumers.
30. The government gave the final approval for the merger of Vodafone and Idea Cellular that will result in the creation of India’s
largest mobile operator with 35% market share and nearly 430 million subscribers.
31. According to Japanese rating agency, GDP growth to peak to 7.8% in April-June quarter and then moderate to 7.2 per cent in
the second half of 2018.
32. RIL surpassed TCS to become the most valued firm by market capitalisation (m-cap). The current m-cap of RIL is Rs 7,47,676.35
crore and that of TCS is: Rs 7,39,297.87 crore.
33. HDFC has received the best performing primary lending institution in Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) for the EWS
(Economically Weaker Section) and LIG (Low Income Group) category.
34. Walmart and Microsoft announced a new 5-year partnership to take on Amazon in both technology and retail.
Schemes
35. Telangana Chief Minister K Chandrasekhar recently laid foundation stone for Gattu irrigation project. The state government has
set aside Rs 554 crores to complete the project.
36. The Madhya Pradesh government announced Mukhyamantri Jan Kalyan (Sambal) Yojana 2018 to provide subsidized power. It
is an outstanding power bill waiver scheme for labourers and poor families.
37. Five-year jackfruit mission has been released by Meghalaya Chief Minister Conrad K Sangma.
38. Microsoft has signed an MoU with the Rajasthan government to provide free digital training to 9,500 college students for one
year.
39. Government of Maharashtra launched a scheme for the farmers called “one farmer one transformer”.
40. Gujarat government launched the ‘Urban Sanitation and Cleanliness Policy’ for better management of solid and liquid waste in
cities.
41. Indian Railways organized a programme on Ethics in Public Governance and Launched “Mission Satyanishtha” at National Rail
Museum, New Delhi with an aim to bring transparency and ethics in the work culture and among all railway employees.
42. The Gujarat government gave approval for additional Rs 39 crore to develop infrastructure for state’s “Seema Darshan” or border
tourism project at Nadabet near Suigam in Banaskantha district.
43. Arvind Kejriwal launched the ‘Mukhyanmantri Kisan Aaye Badhotri Solar Yojna’. It aims to increase the income of farmers by
three to five times in the national capital.
44. Under the Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana, the government has cut the minimum annual deposit requirement for accounts to Rs 250
from Rs 1,000 earlier. It will enable more number of people to take advantage of the girl child savings scheme.
45. Union Minister for Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Radha Mohan Singh launched the Rs. 215 crore Meghalaya Milk Mission in
Shillong through National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC).
46. The Environment Ministry re-introduced the ‘Medini Puraskar Yojna’– a scheme that awards Indian authors for their original work
in Hindi on environment, pollution and climate change subjects.
Awards and Ranks
47. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport in Mumbai, the second busiest in India, has been ranked as the fifth least punctual airport
in the world ranked 509, as per a study conducted by OAG, a global leader in providing flight information. Of the total 513 airports
rated on OTP (On Time Punctuality) Hyderabad’s Rajiv Gandhi Int’l airport which is ranked at 246 th in the list.
48. Milan Shankar Tare, a fisherman of Palghar district, Maharashtra, has been selected for 2018 National Maritime Search and
Rescue Award.
49. Michael Ondaatje’s ‘The English Patient’ won the special one-off Golden Man Booker Prize to mark the 50th anniversary of the
literary award at the Man Booker 50 Festival in London.
50. India was ranked 6th in the global optimism index with business optimism tepid in second quarter (Q2) of 2018. The index was
released as part of Grant Thornton’s International Business Report (IBR), a quarterly global business survey.
51. Eminent Poet Ramakanta Rath was conferred with Odisha’s highest literary award Atibadi Jagannath Das Samman for 2018.
52. The Cochin International Airport Limited (CIAL) has been selected for the Champion of Earth Prize-2018. It is the highest
environmental honour instituted by the United Nations.
53. Two Indians Bharat Vatwani and Sonam Wangchuk were named winners of 2018 Ramon Magsaysay Award.
54. Canadian author Michael Ondaatje has again made the Man Booker Prize list with his latest novel “Warlight”.
55. India has become the world’s sixth largest economy overtaking France, according to World Bank data on gross domestic product
(GDP) of countries for 2017. India is $2.597 trillion economy.
56. India has ranked 57th in the Global Innovation Index (GII) developed by Cornell University, the Paris-based business school
Insead and the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) in Geneva.
57. India has become the 69th shareholder of the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD). This would enable
more joint investment with Indian companies across EBRD’s regions of operation.
58. Public Affairs Centre (PAC), a think tank, released Public Affairs Index (PAI) for 2018, its third annual PAI, at an event in
Bengaluru. Kerala has topped the Public Affairs Index (PAI) for 2018 as the best governed state in India for the 3rd continuous
year since 2016 among large states.
59. India ranks 96th in the biannual United Nation’s E-Government Index 2018 among 193 countries released by UN. Denmark is
the world leader, both on E-Government index and E-Participation sub-index.
60. Gopal Krishna Gandhi has been chosen for the 24th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award for his contribution in promoting
communal harmony, peace and goodwill.
61. According to a report by online speed testing platform Ookla, India with 9.12 Mbps in the 4G speed category stands at 109th
position in the world and is behind neighbours Pakistan (14.03 Mbps) and Sri Lanka (16.98). Qatar stood first in the list.
National
62. The Bhitarkanika national park has become the largest habitat of the endangered estuarine crocodiles in the country.
63. According to the World Economic Outlook (WEO) update, The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has cut India’s growth
projection by 0.1 percentage point for 2018-19. It now predicts the GDP growth to be 7.3%.
64. To upgrade the norms for computation of economic data at states and districts level for the purpose of revising the base year for
National Accounts or GDP calculation the government has set up a 13-member committee headed by Ravindra H Dholakia.
65. “Happiness Curriculum” for students of nursery to Class 8 in government schools was recently launched by Delhi Chief
Minister Arvind Kejriwal.
66. The Union Cabinet recently gave its approval to rename the Agartala Airport in Tripura as ‘Maharaja Bir Bikram Manikya Kishore
Airport, Agartala.
67. Coal Mine Surveillance & Management System (CMSMS) and Mobile Application ‘Khan Prahari’ was launched by Union Minister
Piyush Goyal on Swami Vivekananda’s death anniversary in New Delhi.
68. The University Grants Commission (UGC) announced “Institutions of Eminence” status to three public and three private institutes.
IIT-Delhi, IIT-Bombay and the Bengaluru-based Indian Institute of Science (IISc) in the public sector, and Manipal Academy of
Higher Education, BITS Pillani and Jio Institute by Reliance Foundation in the private sector. Former chief election commissioner
N Gopalaswami was appointed chairperson of the empowered expert committee (EEC) to select the institutes.
69. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) entered into an agreement with Andhra Pradesh
Economic Development Board (APEDB) for setting up a ‘Design University for Gaming’ in Visakhapatnam.
70. The Gujarat government has given religious minority status to its Jewish Community.
71. Integral Coach Factory (ICF) of Chennai has announced the launch of indigenously manufactured semi high-speed train, code-
named Train 18.
72. Shri Venkaiah Naidu became the first Chairman of Rajya Sabha to sign MOU with the visiting President of the Senate of the
Republic of Rwanda, Mr. Bernard Makuza.
73. The book “When Coal Turned Gold: The Making of a Maharatna Company” has been written by Coal India Ltd.’s (CIL)’s former
chairman Partha Sarathi Bhattacharyya. This book talks about the transformation of Coal India Ltd.’s (CIL) from a loss-making
enterprise into a profitable Maharatna PSU.
74. The high-level panel on data protection framework headed by Justice B N Srikrishna submitted its report to the government. It
has suggested steps for safeguarding personal information, defining obligations of data processors, rights of individuals, and
penalties for violation.
75. The Government set up a four-member committee headed by Home Secretary Shri Rajiv Gauba, to suggest measures and legal
framework to effectively deal with incidents of mob violence.
76. Government set up a High-Level Empowered Committee headed by Cabinet Secretary Pradeep Kumar Sinha to address the
issues of Stressed Thermal Power Projects.
77. Union Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Minister Dharmendra Pradhan laid the foundation stone for National Skill Training
Institute (NSTI) at Barang, in Bhubaneswar, to be established at a cost of Rs 160 crore.
78. Country’s first Defence Incubator will come up in T-Hub, Hyderabad. It will give boost to Indian Defence and aerospace research
and industry.
79. Prime Minister recently laid the Foundation Stone of the Poorvanchal Expressway in Azamgarh in Uttar Pradesh. It is a 340-
kilometre-long that would provide swifter connectivity between Delhi and Ghazipur.
80. Tripura Chief Minister Biplab Kumar Deb inaugurated the 7 day long “Kharchi Puja”. Kharchi Puja is an annual festival to cleanse
the sins of mortal souls.
81. FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) said that, India’s economic growth remains intact and India’s
GDP is expected to grow at 7.5 % in the current financial year
International
82. 5th Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) Intersessional Ministerial Meeting was held in Tokyo, Japan.
83. Japan’s MORI Building Digital Art Museum in Tokyo has become the world’s first all-digital museum.
84. South Korean President Moon Jae recently visited New Delhi, he along with PM Narendra Modi inaugurated ‘world’s largest
mobile factory’ of Samsung in Noida, India.
85. Justice Tahira Safdar was made the Chief Justice of the Balochistan high court, Pakistan, by Chief Justice Mian Saqib Nisar.
This makes her the first woman chief justice of any court in Pakistan.
86. 15-member UN Security Council adopted Resolution 2427 aimed at formulating a framework for protection, rights, well-being
and empowerment of children throughout the conflict cycle.
87. The US has elevated India’s status in the export control regime and designated it as a Strategic Trade Authorization-1 (STA-1)
country.
88. Union Home minister Rajnath Singh inaugurated the largest Indian visa centre in the world in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
89. Myanmar, after joining International Solar Alliance (ISA), became the 68th member of the association.
Sports
90. Dutee Chand (representing Odisha) broke her 100m national record to become the fastest woman in India in the 58th National
Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships (NISSAC) recently held at in Guwahati, Assam.
91. India defeated Iran to win the six-nation Kabaddi Masters Dubai tournament held in Dubai.
92. Red Bull’s Max Verstappen won the Austrian Grand Prix in Austria. Lewis Hamilton won the German Grand Prix 2018 held at
Hockenheimring track in Germany.
93. Rahul Dravid, Australian Ricky Ponting and retired England woman wicketkeeper-batter Claire Taylor have been inducted into
the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame.
94. Indian squash player Dipika Pallikal was appointed Asia’s representative in the Athletes Advisory Commission of the
Commonwealth Games Federation (CGF).
95. 2018 IAAF World U20 Championships was held in Tampere Stadium also known as Ratina Stadium, in Tampere, Finland.
India’s Hima Das bagged gold medal in the women’s 400 metre event.
96. The 2018 Wimbledon Championships was the 132nd edition of the championship, Djokovic won his fourth Wimbledon title by
defeating Kevin Anderson of South Africa. In women’s category Angelique Kerber of Germany won the title. She defeated Serena
Williams.
Obituary
97. Former chief of naval staff Admiral JG Nadkarni died at naval hospital in Mumbai.
98. Kumaoni folk singer Kabutari Devi died following a heart attack, at a hospital in Uttarakhand.
99. Senior Congress leader and former Meghalaya Governor MM Jacob died due to age-related ailments
100. Journalist J N Sadhu died following a long-term illness in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh.
Cabinet Ministers and their Constituencies

LIST OF CABINET MINISTERS
S. No Name of minister Name of ministry Constituency
1. Narendra Modi Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh
(Prime Minister) pension
Ministry of Atomic Energy
Ministry of Space
All important Policy Issues, all other

Portfolios not allocated to any Minister.
2. Arun Jaitley Minister without Portfolio Gujarat (Rajya Sabha)

3. Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi Ministry of Minority Affairs Jharkhand (Rajya Sabha)
4. Rajnath Singh Home Affairs Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
5. Suresh Prabhu Minister of Commerce and Industry Andhra Pradesh (Rajya
Sabha)
Ministry of Civil Aviation (Additional Charge)
6. Sushma Swaraj Ministry of External Affairs Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh
7. Nitin Jairam Gadkari Ministry of Road Transport & Highways Nagpur, Maharashtra
Ministry of Shipping
Ministry of Water Resources, River

Development and Ganga Rejuvenation.
8. Prakash Javdekar Ministry of Human Resource Development. Madhya Pradesh (Rajya
Sabha)
9. Ravi Shankar Prasad Minister of Law and Justice Bihar- (Rajya Sabha)
Minister of Electronics and Information

Technology.
10. D.V Sadananda Gowda Minister of Statistics and Programme Bangalore North, Karnataka
Implementation.
11. Uma Bharti Minister of Drinking Water and Sanitation. Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh
12. Ram Vilas Paswan Ministry of Consumer Affairs & Food & Public Hajipur, Bihar
Distribution
13. Maneka Sanjay Gandhi Ministry of Women & Child Development Pilibhit, Uttar Pradesh
14. Ananth Kumar Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers Bangalore South, Karnataka
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
15. Chaudhary Birender Ministry of Steel Haryana (Rajya Sabha)

Singh
16. Jagat Prakash Nadda Ministry of Health & Family Welfare Himachal Pradesh (Rajya
Sabha)
17. Anant Geete Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Raigad, Maharashtra
Enterprises
18. Harsimrat Kaur Badal Ministry of Food Processing Industries Bathinda, Punjab
19. Narendra Singh Tomar Ministry of Rural Development Gwalior, Madhya Pradesh
Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Ministry of Mines
20. Piyush Goyal Ministry of Railways Maharashtra (Rajya Sabha)
Ministry of Coal
Ministry of Finance (Additional Charge)
Ministry of Corporate Affairs (Additional

Charge)
21. Thawar Chand Gehlot Ministry of Social Justice and empowerment Madhya Pradesh (Rajya
Sabha)
22. Jual Oram Ministry of Tribal Affairs Sundargarh, Odisha
23. Radha Mohan Singh Ministry of Agriculture and farmer Welfare Purvi Champaran, Bihar
24. Smriti Zubin Irani Ministry of Textile Gujarat (Rajya Sabha)
25. Dharmendra Pradhan Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas Madhya Pradesh (Rajya
Sabha)
Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship
26. Harsh Vardhan Ministry of Science and Technology Chandni Chowk, Delhi
Ministry of Earth Science
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

Change
27. Nirmala Sitharaman Ministry of Defence Karnataka (Rajya Sabha)
RBI’s 3rd Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement, 2018-19- A Review

Decisions taken by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI can have far-reaching implications for the economy, common
people, investors and every other stake holder of the Indian economy. This decision making is formally called monetary policy-making
and is done by six- member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the RBI.
The meetings (3-day affair) of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be held at least 4 times a year and it shall publish its decisions
after each such meeting. Recently RBI came up with its 3rd bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement for 2018-19.
How this Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted?
Union Government in 2016 amended the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) to provide for a statutory and institutionalised
framework for a Monetary Policy Committee, for maintaining price stability, while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
MPC will feature three members from the RBI — the Governor, a Deputy Governor and another official — and three independent
members to be selected by the Government.
The Government, in consultation with RBI, has also notified the inflation target effective till March 31, 2021 to guide MPC. The targets
are as under: -
Inflation Target: 4%, Upper tolerance level: 6%, Lower tolerance level: 2%
What actually MPC does in its each meeting?
In each meeting MPC assesses current and evolving macroeconomic situation in the country and also global economic activity. The
Committee has been entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the
specified target level.
Six-member Monetary Policy Committee of RBI, currently has the following composition, namely: -
Urijit Patel: (The Governor of RBI), Dr. Viral V. Acharya (Deputy Governor of RBI), Dr. Michael Debabrata Patra (Officer of the RBI
nominated by RBI Board), Shri Chetan Ghate, Professor, Indian Statistical Institute (ISI), Professor Pami Dua, Director, Delhi School
of Economics (DSE), Dr. Ravindra H. Dholakia, Professor, IIM, Ahmedabad.
What does RBI’s 3rd Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement say?
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in its third meeting of the year decided to increase the policy repo rate under the liquidity
adjustment facility (LAF) by 25 basis points to 6.5 per cent.
Consequently, the reverse repo rate under the LAF stands adjusted to 6.25 per cent, and the marginal standing facility (MSF) rate
and the Bank Rate to 6.75 per cent.
The Fourth Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement for 2018-19 will be issued on October 5, 2018.
Important Days (June and July)

EVENT DATE THEME
World Ranger Day July 31

World Day against Trafficking in July 30 Responding to the trafficking of children and
Persons young people
8th International Tiger July 29
World Hepatitis Day July 28 Test. Treat. Hepatitis
Nelson Mandela International Day July 18
International Malala Day July 12
World Youth Skills Day July 15
World Population Day July 11 Family Planning is a Human right
Global Forgiveness Day, July 07 Theme of Cooperatives Day: Sustainable
International Co-operative Day, consumption and production
World Chocolate Day
World Zoonosis Day July 06
World UFO day, World Sports July 02
Journalists Day
National Doctor’s Day, GST Day July 01 Doctor Day theme: Zero tolerance to violence
against doctors and clinical establishment.
12th Statistics Day June 29
International Day of Tropics June 29
UN MSME Day June 27 The Youth Dimension
International Day Against Drug June 26 Listen First – Listening to children and youth
Abuse and Illicit Trafficking is the first step to help them grow healthy and
safe
Day for Seafarer June 25 Seafarers wellbeing
United Nations Public Service Day June 23 Transforming governance to realize the
Sustainable Development Goals
World Music Day June 21
International Yoga Day June 21 Yoga for Peace
World Refugee Day June 20 Now More Than Ever, We Need to Stand with
Refugees
International Picnic Day June 18
National Reading Day June 17
World Day to Combat Desertification June 17 Land has true value – invest in it
(WDCD)
World Elder Abuse Awareness Day June 15
(WEAAD)
World Blood Donor Day June 14 Be there for someone else. Give blood. Share
life
World Day Against Child Labour June 12 Generation Safe & Healthy
World Ocean Day and the World June 08
Tumour Day
World Environment Day June 05 Beat the Plastic
International Day of Innocent June 04
Children Victims of Aggression
First World Bicycle Day June 03
Global Day of Parents June 01
All You Need to Know about Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill 2018
With President Ram Nath Kovind giving his assent to Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill 2018 on August 5, India now finally has a law
that will deter economic offenders to flee the country and hence evade legal processes. The bill falls under the purview of Ministry of
Finance and Corporate Affairs.
Why this bill was required?
Incidents where Vijay Mallya fled the country to avoid being arrested for economic fraud and the very recent multi- crore PNB scam
where Nirav Modi and Mehul Choksi fled the country, clearly suggested that existing civil and criminal provisions are not adequate to
deal with such offences.
What actually is the bill?
The bill aims to reign in such offences where a person commits a financial offence and flees the country to avoid due process. The
offences where the total value involved is Rs. 100 crores or more, will come under the purview of this Bill. The bill pushes for
the speedy seizure of the assets in both India and abroad of fugitive economic offenders
Various economic offences are defined under the Prevention of Corruption Act, the Companies Act, Limited Liability Partnership Act,
Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, SEBI Act, Customs Act and also Indian Penal Act.
So, who is a fugitive Economic Offender?
As per the bill a person can be declared as a fugitive economic offender (FEO) if: (i) an arrest warrant has been issued against him
for any specified offences where the value involved is over Rs 100 crore, and (ii) he has left the country and refuses to return to face
prosecution.
What are some additional features of this bill?
This new bill provisions for a Special Court for declaration that an individual is a fugitive economic offender and issuance of notice to
him/her in this regard.
The bill also disentitles fugitive economic offender from defending any civil claim. The bill also says that an Administrator will be
appointed to manage and dispose of the confiscated property.
What impact this bill may have?
The Bill is aimed at re-establishing the rule of law with respect to the fugitive economic offenders as they would be forced to return to
India to face trial for scheduled offences. This would also help the banks and other financial institutions to achieve higher recovery
from financial defaults committed by such fugitive economic offenders, improving the financial health of such institutions.
Banking Awareness Quiz

Q. 1 Through which of its monetary policy instruments/ tools, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) can inject money in the economy for the
short-term requirement?
A. Reverse Repo Rate B. Cash Reserve Ratio C. Bank Rate D. Liquidity Coverage Ratio E. Repo Rate
Q. 2 These days we frequently hear the financial term PCA. What is the full form of PCA?
A. Punitive Curative Action B. Prompt Corrective Action C. Proper Curative Action D. Prescribed
Corrective Action E. Punitive Commercial Action
Q. 3 Recently who was appointed as the first ever Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
A. Mahesh Kumar Jain B. Arijit Basu C. Sarita Nayyar D. R. Gandhi E. Sudha Balakrishnan
Q. 4 Who is the current Finance Secretary of India?
A. Bibek Debroy B. Jairam Patil C. Ashok Lavasa D. Rajiv Gauba E. Hasmukh Adhia
Q. 5 Recently which company became the first $ 1 trillion publicly listed company?
A. Facebook B. Microsoft C. Alibaba D. Apple E. CISCO
Q. 6 Where is the headquarters of New Development Bank (NDB)?
A. Johannesburg, South Africa B. Rio De Janerio, Brazil C. Shanghai, China D. Moscow, Russia
E. Beijing, China
Q. 7 Which of the following is the highest decision-making body of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) structure?
A. Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) B. Union Finance Ministry C. Reserve Bank of India D. Goods and Services
and Tax Council E. Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)
Q. 8 Chief Minister of which state inaugurated Rs 300 crore Rukura Medium Irrigation Dam project recently?
A. Telangana B. Chhattisgarh C. Odisha D. Jharkhand E. Andhra Pradesh
Q. 9 Recently which bank has become the most valuable bank in the emerging market outside China going past Russia's Sberbank?
A. ICICI Bank B. State Bank of India C. Axis Bank D. HDFC Bank E. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Q. 10 Which Non-Banking finance company received NABARD 2018 award for its service to self-help group (SHG) linkage in Tamil
Nadu?
A. Repco Micro Finance Ltd B. Bandhan Financial Services Pvt Ltd C. Grameen Koota Financial Services Pvt Ltd
(GFSPL) D. Grama Vidiyal Micro Finance Pvt Ltd (GVMFL) E. None of these
Q. 11 In this year’s budget the government announced to develop and upgrade how many rural haats into Gramin Agricultural Markets
(GrAMs)?
A. 15,000 B. 22,000 C. 27,000 D. 18,000 E. 56,000
Q. 12 State-run insurer Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) has been allowed to purchase 51 per cent controlling stake in which bank?
A. Punjab National Bank B. IDBI Bank C. Corporation Bank D. Dena Bank E. Allahabad Bank
Q. 13 A type of niche banks, Small finance banks are established as public limited companies under which act?
A. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 C. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
D. Companies Act, 1956 E. None of these
Q. 14 What was India’s rank in the recently released Global Innovation Index (GII)?
A. 57th B. 73rd C. 35th D. 65th E. 41st
Q. 15 RBI recently issued Rs. 200 notes in bright yellow color with a motif of which of the monuments in the obverse side?
A. Konark Sun Temple B. Charminar C. Sanchi Stupa D. Red Fort E. Tirupati Temple
Q. 16 Loan of US $352 million for the lining project of Son canal in Shahabad-Bhojpur region of Bihar has been approved by which
bank?
A. New Development Bank B. Asian Development Bank C. World Bank D. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
E. European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
Q. 17 MCLR refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below which it cannot lend. What does “C” stand for in the abbreviation
MCLR?
A. Capital B. Cash C. Cost D. Currency E. Cheque
Q. 18 The Indian Financial System Code IFSC) which is unique to each branch in India is a which type of code?
A. Alphanumeric Code B. QR Code C. Alphabetic Code D. Binary Coded Decimal (BCD) code
E. Numeric Code
Q. 19 National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) has partnered with which IT company to train youth and entrepreneurs in the
country on digital skills?
A. Yahoo B. Twitter C. Facebook D. IBM E. Microsoft
Q. 20 Who is the head of the 10-member committee constituted to review Companies Act 2013?
A. YM Deosthalee B. Ishwar Sharma C. Ashok Lavasa D. Injeti Srinivas E. Ajay Uppal
Q. 21 What is the current interest rate in Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) scheme?
A. 5.6% B. 8.6% C. 7.6% D. 7.3% E. 7.1%
Q. 22 Where is the headquarters of Dena Bank?
A. New Delhi B. Kolkata C. Surat D. Mumbai E. Mangalore
Q. 23 CMB is a type of short term debt instrument. What does “B” stand for in the acronym CMB?
A. Bond B. Bill C. Borrowed D. Blockchain E. Balance
Q. 24 Which of the following statements is correct about Payment Banks in India?
A. Payment banks in India are a special category of bank that can accept deposits and make payments but cannot issues loans or
other forms of credit including credit cards.
B. Airtel Payments Bank was the first Payments Bank of India.
C. Payments Banks are restricted to holding a maximum balance of Rs. 100,000 per individual customer.
D. Only A is correct
E. A, B and C are correct
Q. 25 According to recent estimates of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) India’s GDP is expected
to grow at what percent in the current financial year?
A. 7.3% B. 7.5% C. 7.2% D. 7.6% E. 7.0%
Q. 26 Jio Payments Bank Limited is a joint venture between the Reliance Industries and which Indian Bank?
A. State Bank of India B. ICICI Bank C. Standard Chartered Bank D. Bank of Baroda
E. Axis Bank
Q. 27 NITI Aayog replaced Planning Commission as the main think-tank of the government of India in 2015. When was Planning
Commission established?
A. 2004 B. 1991 C. 1975 D. 1998 E. 1950
Q. 28 If a private company decides to go public it releases its IPO what is the full form of IPO?
A. Initial Portfolio Offer B. Initial Private Offerings C. Initial Public Operations D. Initial Private
Operations E. Initial Public Offering
Q. 29 Which Small Finance Bank recently partnered with Oxigen to start Branchless Banking services?
A. Fincare Small Finance Bank B. Jana Small Finance Bank C. AU Small Finance Bank D. Ujjivan Small
Finance Bank E. Equitas Small Finance Bank
Q. 30 Which of the following has the authority to auction Government Securities in the primary market?
A. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) B. Union Finance Ministry C. Schedule Commercial Banks D.
State Bank of India (SBI) E. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
ANSWER KEY
1. E Explanation: Under Repo or repurchase option banks borrow money from Reserve bank of India to meet short term needs by
selling securities to RBI, the rate charged by RBI for this transaction is called the repo rate. Repo operations therefore inject liquidity
into the system.
2. B Explanation: Prompt Corrective Action (PCA) of RBI on Public Sector Banks is a remedial framework to maintain sound financial
health of banks. PCA was originally started in 2002.
3. E Explanation: NSDL executive Sudha Balakrishnan has been appointed the first ever chief financial officer (CFO) of the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI).
4. E Explanation: Hasmukh Adhia is an Indian Administrative Service officer, Adhia was designated as the Finance Secretary of
India after the retirement of Ashok Lavasa.
5. D Explanation: Apple Inc became the first $1 trillion publicly listed U.S. company. I-phones are a popular product of Apple Inc.
6. C Explanation: The New Development Bank, formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is a multilateral development
bank established by the BRICS states. The bank is headquartered at Shanghai, China
7. D Explanation: GST council is a governing body to regulate and direct each and every step for the implementation of goods and
service tax in the nation with decisions over tax rates and further implementation measures.
8. C Explanation: Chief Minister of Odisha Naveen Patnaik inaugurated the Rs 300 crore Rukura Medium Irrigation Dam project in
Sundargarh district.
9. D Explanation: HDFC Bank has gone past Russia's Sberbank to become the most valuable bank in the emerging market outside
China.
10. A Explanation: Repco Micro Finance Ltd, a non-banking finance company promoted by Repco Bank, received NABARD 2018
award for its service to self-help group (SHG) linkage in Tamil Nadu for the fiscal year 2017-18.
11. B Explanation: In the 2018 budget Arun Jaitley announced to develop and upgrade existing 22,000 rural haats into Gramin
Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) to take care of the interests of more than 86% small and marginal farmers.
12. B Explanation: The Union Cabinet cleared the purchase of 51 per cent controlling stake in IDBI Bank by state-run insurer Life
Insurance Corporation (LIC). As per the proposal, the debt-laden bank will issue preferential shares to Life Insurance Corporation
(LIC) to raise capital.
13. D Explanation: Small finance banks are established as public limited companies in the private sector under the Companies Act,
1956. They are governed by the provisions of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and other relevant
statutes.
14. A Explanation: India has ranked 57th in the Global Innovation Index (GII) developed by Cornell University, the Paris-based
business school Insead and the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) in Geneva.
15. C Explanation: RBI had issued fresh Rs. 50 notes in fluorescent blue color with motif of Hampi with chariot (Karnataka), Rs. 200
notes in bright yellow color with a motif of the Sanchi Stupa (Madhya Pradesh) and Rs. 10 banknotes in chocolate brown color with
motif of Konark Sun Temple (Odisha). Recently RBI issued Rs. 100 notes in lavender color with the motif of Rani Ki Vav (in Gujarat)
on the observe side.
16. B Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved Lining Project of Son canal in Shahabad-Bhojpur region of
Bihar. The estimated cost of this project is US $503 million (Rs 3272.49 crore) out of which US $352 million is being provided by
ADB.
17. C Explanation: The Marginal Cost of Funds-Based Lending Rate (MCLR) refers to the minimum interest rate of a bank below
which it cannot lend, except in some cases allowed by the RBI. It is an internal benchmark or reference rate for the bank.
18. A Explanation: The Indian Financial System Code (IFS Code or IFSC) is an alphanumeric code that facilitates electronic funds
transfer in India. A code uniquely identifies each bank branch participating in the two main Payment and settlement systems in India
19. C Explanation: Facebook and National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) took joint responsibility to train youth and
entrepreneurs in the country on digital skills. Through this partnership Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
will make use of Facebook’s training on digital marketing skills in its courses.
20. D Explanation: The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) constituted a 10 Member Committee, headed by Injeti Srinivas the
Secretary of Ministry of Corporate Affairs to review Companies Act 2013.
21. D Explanation: Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) which was discontinued in Dec 2011 has been again reintroduced in the Budget 2014
which was presented by Arun Jaitley. Currently the interest rate on KVP investment is 7.3%.
22. D Explanation: Dena Bank is headquartered in Mumbai and it has 1874 branches. The bank was founded in 1938 and the Indian
government nationalized it in 1969.
23. B Explanation: Cash Management Bills (CMBs) are short term bills issued by central government to meet its immediate cash
needs. The bills are issued by the RBI on behalf of the government.
24. E Explanation: Airtel Payment Bank is the oldest payment bank. Payments banks are allowed to accept savings and current
deposits from the customers but the balance in their accounts cannot exceed Rs. 1 lakh at any point in time. Besides this, they cannot
accept term deposits (FDs) from the customers. Similarly, they cannot issue credit cards or grant loans to their customers. However,
to enable their customers to access their funds, such banks can issue ATM/ debit cards.
25. B Explanation: FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) said that, India’s economic growth remains
intact and India’s GDP is expected to grow at 7.5 % in the current financial year.
26. A Explanation: Jio Payments Bank is an Indian payment bank that started operating in 2018. Jio Payments Bank Limited is a
joint venture between the Reliance Industries and the State Bank of India with the stake of 70:30.
27. E Explanation: The NITI Aayog, also National Institution for Transforming India, is a policy think tank of the Government of India,
it was established in 2015, by the NDA government, to replace the Planning Commission which was established in 15 March 1950.
28. E Explanation: An initial public offering, or IPO, is the very first sale of stock issued by a company to the public. Prior to an IPO
the company is considered private, with a relatively small number of shareholders made up primarily of early investors.
29. A Explanation: Oxigen and Fincare Small Finance Bank signed an agreement to start Branchless Banking services, using
Oxigen’s flagship Point of Sale device called the Oxigen Micro ATM Super PoS
30. E Explanation: G-Secs are issued through auctions conducted by RBI. Auctions are conducted on the electronic platform called
the E-Kuber, the Core Banking Solution (CBS) platform of RBI.
IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test

Instructions
1. This test is divided into three sections; the structure of the test is as follows:
Sr. No. Section No. of Questions Duration

1. English Language 30 20 minutes
2. Reasoning 35 20 minutes
3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 20 minutes
Total 100 60 minutes
2. The test is of 200 marks; with each question carrying 1 mark. A wrong answer will attract a penalty of 0.25 marks.
All the best!
English Language (30 Questions: 20 Minutes)
Directions for Questions 1-6: In each of the questions given below, a sentence is given, divided into parts. Identify the part that
contains the error, and mark it as the answer. In case the sentence is correct as it is, mark option (e), that is, ‘No error’. Note – The
words in bold are grammatically and contextually correct.
Question 1: I have been involved in rhino and tiger censuses since 1999, and I can said that no method is fool-proof as it all boils
down to the efficiency of the enumerators.
(a) I have been involved in

(b) censuses since 1999, and I can said
(c) that no method is fool-proof as it
(d) all boils down to the efficiency of
(e) No error
Question 2: We let people graze there cattle on the fringes of the park but ensure that they are immunised free of cost, for it is
vital to prevent diseases from spreading to the wild animals.
(a) We let people graze there cattle

(b) of the park but ensure that they
(c) are immunised free of cost, for it is vital
(d) to prevent diseases from spreading to
(e) No error
Question 3: A focus on building an innovation culture is necessary, particularly giving the transformative shifts under way in
sectors critical to India’s economy.
(a) A focus on building an

(b) is necessary, particularly giving
(c) the transformative shifts under
(d) way in sectors critical to
(e) No error
Question 4: The conflict is bound to escalate if improved technologies for water conveyance, delivery and allocation are not find
at the earliest.
(a) The conflict is bound to escalate

(b) technologies for water conveyance,
(c) delivery and allocation
(d) are not find
(e) No error
Question 5: The perception is that the existing rules are not being applied proper at the middle level while there is a laxity at the
higher levels.
(a) The perception is that the

(b) are not being applied proper
(c) at the middle level while
(d) there is a laxity at the
(e) No error
Question 6: The generation of fake news are hardly the work of individual journalists but can be linked to user-generated content
on social media platforms.
(a) The generation of fake news are

(b) the work of individual journalists
(c) but can be linked to
(d) user-generated content on
(e) No error
Directions for Questions 7-10: Match the statements from column 1 with column 2 and find which of the following pair of
statements given in the options make contextually and grammatically correct sense.
Question 7:
Column 1 Column 2
A. In the rat race to do well, as only marks seem to D. dubious ways and means to get through an
decide the future of a student, examination are rampant.
B. Life has become miserable under these E. but Internet penetration for these two countries is
conditions, and below 55%.
C. India and China are leading globally in terms of F. it is not an exaggeration when the territory is
Internet and smartphone users, called one big open-air prison.
(a) A and D
(b) B and E
(c) C and D
(d) C and F
(e) A and E
Question 8:
Column 1 Column 2
A. Rail connectivity is restricted due to technical D. because it felt that communication channels
problems should be kept open.
B. Human beings need a certain minimum E. of food and non-food items to survive.
consumption
C. Austria did not join some of the other EU F. of different gauges, track structures, signalling
members to expel Russian diplomats and so forth.
(a) A and E
(b) B and D
(c) C and D
(d) B and F
(e) C and F
Question 9:
Column 1 Column 2
A. Respecting the space a political opposition D. needs to introspect over its activities under the
occupies NATO umbrella.
B. Before naming Russia a rogue nation, the West E. is a key ingredient of a democracy and in India.
C. Their dreams as black Americans captured not F. but also that of freedom fighters around the world.
only the imagination of America,
(a) A and F
(b) C and D
(c) B and E
(d) A and E
(e) B and F
Question 10:
Column 1 Column 2
A. It was essential that Kashmir’s special status be D. candidate gets more ‘likes’ on social media.
recognised in the Constitution
B. To prevent, mitigate or prosecute even a routine E. because of the extraordinary circumstances
crime, surrounding its accession.
C. Students decide for whom to vote based on F. a police officer seeks timely access to electronic
which data.
(a) A and F
(b) C and E
(c) B and D
(d) A and D
(e) C and D
Directions for Questions 11-14: Select the word(s) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from
the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
Question 11: A. Such a provision can be seen as giving the Union too much power.
B. It has arguably been central to holding India together.
1. While
2. Even though
3. Since
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Question 12: A. The official result is yet to be announced.

B. A landslide victory has been a certainty all along.
1. Though
2. Since
3. Because
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Question 13: A. Rivers of the country are heavily polluted these days.
B. Sewage and effluents are being discharged into them.
1. Since
2. Because
3. As
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Question 14: A. The reach of the internet is extraordinarily wide and fast.
B. The messages conveyed through them need relentless repetition, suggesting ephemeral value.
1. Because
2. Although
3. But
(a) Only 3
(b) Only 1 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 2
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) All 1, 2 and 3
Directions for Questions 15-19: In each of the questions below, a sentence is given with two words missing. You are given five
options containing a pair of words that can fill the blanks making the paragraph contextually correct. Identify the correct choice.
Question 15: Rivers today are __________ problems of ____________ low flows due to an indiscriminate extraction of water for
use in cities, industries and agriculture.
(a) accepting, extremely

(b) experiencing, hopeless
(c) facing, abysmally
(d) encountering, intensely
(e) witness, inadequately
Question 16: It is ____________ that we continue to believe that paper leaks can be _______ even when the examinations are so
centralised and involve lakhs of students across the country.
(a) strange, prevented

(b) absurd, stop
(c) amusing, profuse
(d) oddly, avert
(e) curiosity, checked
Question 17: Any political party that wants to _________ the BJP needs to have a vision and strategy instead of mere
____________.
(a) oppose, gamed

(b) rivalled, plans
(c) compete, tricks
(d) counter, tactics
(e) face, playful
Question 18: The government appears to have ____________ in providing ___________ infrastructure right from the school level.
(a) succeeded, suitably

(b) failed, sufficient
(c) unsuccessful, enough
(d) passed, adequately
(e) managed, well
Question 19: Shopkeepers joined me in the game of __________ bargaining, but they didn’t nag me or block my way if I moved on
without _________ anything.
(a) endless, buying

(b) continuous, purchase
(c) non-stop, bought
(d) constantly, taking
(e) unending, holding
Directions for Questions 20-24: In these sentences, four words have been highlighted in bold. Find out if the words are
appropriate (grammatically and contextually). Only one word will be inappropriate, mark that as your answer. If all are appropriate,
mark "all are correct".
Question 20: The mere fact that one is a celebrity or holds a position or rank does not place him or her atop the law.
(a) mere
(b) celebrity
(c) rank
(d) atop
(e) All are correct
Question 21: It is a pitiful that water is being thought of as only a political issue rather than as a human right.
(a) pitiful
(b) thought
(c) issue
(d) right
(e) All are correct
Question 22: It is a matter of concern that fraudulent dealings in public and private banks are on the height.
(a) concern
(b) fraudulent
(c) dealings
(d) height
(e) All are correct
Question 23: India continues to be the natural choice for external investors including Chinese multinational enterprises.
(a) continues
(b) choice
(c) including
(d) enterprises
(e) All are correct
Question 24: World powers should urgently provide economic assistance to Gaza to safe it from total collapse.
(a) urgently
(b) assistance
(c) safe
(d) collapse
(e) All are correct
Directions for Questions 25-30: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
As a medical professional working in rural Rajasthan for some years, I encountered several socio-cultural experiences while
interacting with different patients — as any doctor would, in the different regions of the country. One such incident that stands out
for me in my experience is of a young boy that I treated.
The boy, who was 10 years of age, was brought to my clinic after he had had a fall while learning horse-riding. On examination, I
found that a part of his tongue was actually hanging by just a stitch of tissue.
Initially, I was tempted to snip the tongue and do a dressing. However, remembering my Professor of Surgery’s advice on how the
tongue could heal by itself, I decided to suture it instead. Unfortunately, I couldn’t give the boy a local anaesthetic, as that would
have made it impossible to achieve the proper alignment of the two parts of the tongue.
The boy was an extremely cooperative patient. While suturing his tongue, he was absolutely quiet and composed. Throughout the
process, I was taken aback at the child’s high pain threshold. Post the surgery, I gave his attendant the requisite follow-up
instructions and advised the boy to report to me after five days.
During the follow-up appointment, the patient as well as his attendant had smiles on their faces: the tongue had healed completely.
As a result, I removed the stitches as well.
Since this was a unique case, my wife was a witness to both the appointments. Amazed by the boy’s composure during the
surgery, she asked him, “While your tongue was being stitched up, were you in pain?”
When he replied in the affirmative, she exclaimed, “But you didn’t even cry!” To this, he replied in Marwari, “Rota kaise? Rajput joh
thehra! (How could I cry? After all I’m a Rajput!)”. At such a young age, his caste identity and the characteristics that set apart that
identity had been so embedded in the boy.
Question 25: What surprised the author about the boy during his treatment?
(a) the severity of his wound
(b) how the boy was not ready for the treatment
(c) his high pain threshold
(d) the ignorance of his parents
(e) his eagerness to know about the author
Question 26: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
I. doctors cannot avoid treating patients belonging to lower economic status
II. doctors are expected to encounter several socio-cultural experiences while interacting with different patients
III. doctors have the moral responsibility of treating their patients in the best way possible
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) All of (I), (II) and (III)
Question 27: Why did the boy not cry while his tongue was being stitched?
(a) he was mesmerized with the clinic environment
(b) he wanted to be a brave boy
(c) he did not feel any pain
(d) he was afraid of his parents
(e) he was honouring his caste identity
Question 28: Why did the author choose to stitch the boy’s tongue instead of snipping it?
(a) he knew that the tongue could not heal on its own
(b) he did not want the boy to suffer from pain
(c) he wanted to save the boy’s voice
(d) he remembered his Professor of Surgery’s advice
(e) All of the above
Question 29: Choose the word opposite in meaning to the word ‘composure’ as used in the passage.
(a) Repercussion
(b) Agitation
(c) Perfection
(d) Training
(e) Opposition
Question 30: Choose the word closest in meaning to the word ‘affirmative’ as used in the passage.
(a) Delusion
(b) Requirement
(c) Enormous
(d) Strange
(e) Agreement
Reasoning (35 Questions: 20 Minutes)
Directions for Questions 31-34: Answer the following questions based on the information given below.
Certain number of persons is sitting in a row facing north. No seat is vacant in the arrangement.
P is sitting fourth to the left of T. R sits to the immediate right of P. All the persons in the arrangement are sitting between V and X.
There is one person sitting between T and U. U is sitting adjacent to X. There are seven persons between U and Q. U sits to the right
of Q and T. There are two persons between Z and V. Z is adjacent to Q. S sits to the left of Q but not adjacent to V.
Question 31: How many persons are sitting in the row?
(a) Thirteen (b) Ten (c) Nine (d) Fourteen (e) None of these
Question 32: Who among the following sits at the extreme left end?
(a) U (b) X (c) V (d) Z (e) None of these
Question 33: How many persons sit between R and S?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Three (e) None of these
Question 34: How many persons are sitting to the right of T?
(a) Four (b) Three (c) Two (d) One (e) None of these
Question 35: In a vertical row of seats, Tanay is in 13th seat from the front and Manik is in 16th seat from the back. If, after
interchanging their seats, Manik moves 3 seats forward, then how many seats are there between Manik and the 1 st seat from the
front?
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 5 (e) None of the above
Directions for questions 36-37: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The questions consist of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Mark answers as:
(a) The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to
answer the question
(b) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to
answer the question
(c) The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question
(d) The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(e) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Question 36: Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F visit a temple on the different days of a week, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday,
Friday, and Saturday. Who visits the temple on Thursday?
I. E visits before C, who visits on Wednesday. Only one person visits after F.
II. Three persons visit between D and A.
Question 37: In a certain language, words are coded as given below, what is the code for “Nature”
I. “Nature Fascination creatures world” is coded as “clb dlb blb alb” and “High Mountains World Nature” is coded as “alb dlb plb flb”.
II. “Nature flowers sky” is coded as “mlb alb glb” and “High nature fascination” is coded as “alb blb plb”.
Directions for Questions 38-43: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
There are 10 persons namely, A, B, C, D, E, P, Q, R, S and T, who are sitting in two parallel rows. Five persons are sitting in row 1
and are facing south direction and remaining five are sitting in row 2 and are facing north direction. Persons sitting in row 1 are
facing the persons who are sitting row 2. They work in different companies among- Oracle, TCS, Google, Wipro, OLX, Amazon and
Infosys. More than one person can work in the same company.
Q is facing A and is immediate neighbor of B. Both B and A work in Oracle. A is at the extreme end. D, who is facing the person
who works in Oracle, is sitting three places away from P, who works in Wipro. E is immediate neighbor of P, who is not sitting at
extreme end. C, who is not at the end, is sitting to the immediate right of T, who works in Amazon. R is facing the person, who
works in Infosys. Both Q and R work in TCS. The person who works in Google, is facing south direction but is not facing S.
Question 38: S works in which of the following companies?
(a) Infosys (b) TCS (c) Oracle (d) Wipro (e) None of these
Question 39: How many persons work in Oracle?
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Three (d) Either (a) or (b) (e) None of these
Question 40: How many persons are sitting to the right of S?
(a) No one (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Cannot be determined
Question 41: Who is facing the person who works in OLX?
(a) T (b) S (c) R (d) C (e) None of these
Question 42: Who is sitting two places away from R?
(a) C (b) Q (c) B (d) P (e) None of these
Question 43: Who among the following works in Google?
(a) R (b) C (c) S (d) E (e) None of these
If ‘>’ is denoted as ‘#’
‘≥’ is denoted as ‘&’
‘=’ is denoted as ‘$’
‘≤’ is denoted as ‘%’
And ‘<’ is denoted as ‘@’
Question 44: Statements: D & C $ A; C @ K $ H & E; K @ M % N
Conclusions: I. C # N II. C @ M III. A @ M
(a) Only conclusion I is true
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Both conclusions I and III are true
(d) Both conclusions II and III are true
(e) All conclusions I, II and III are true
Question 45: Statements: T & M $ P @ S; M # R # Q; R @ A $ B
Conclusions: I. T & A II. Q $ S III. T @ A
(b) Both conclusions II and III are true
(c) Either conclusion I or III is true
(d) Only conclusion II is true
(e) None is true
Question 46: If each letter of the word LUMINESCENT is replaced by its successor in the alphabetical series, then which of the
following is third alphabet to the left of the fifth alphabet from the left end?
(a) V (b) N (c) T (d) D (e) None of the above
There are six airlines among- P, Q, R, S, T and U. They were established in different months among- January, February, April,
May, August and September of the same year, but not necessarily in the same order. One flight of these airlines departed from
Delhi Airport at different time among- 3:00pm, 3:45pm, 4:15pm, 4:45pm, 5:30pm and 6:00pm on the same day, but not necessarily
in the same order.
S was established after P, and both of them were established in the month which has 30 days. P departed 75 minutes after T.
Difference between the departure times of Q and R, is at least 75 minutes. U was established before R but not in February. S
departed after the flight which was established in April. The flight of the airlines that was established in January departed at
3:00pm. The difference between the departure times of P and Q is 30 minutes. At least three flights departed after Q. The flight that
was established in September departed after 4:45pm. R didn’t depart at last.
Question 47: How many airlines were established after Q?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None of these
Question 48: What is the different between the departure times of U and R?
(a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes (e) None of these
Question 49: How many flights departed before R?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None of these
Question 50: The flight that was established in May departed at what time?
(a) 3:00 pm (b) 3:45 pm (c) 4:45 pm (d) 5:30 pm (e) None of these
There is no single parent in the family. At least one information is mentioned in the question about each of the family members. V is
the brother in law of T, who is the mother of U’s only sister. U’s only sister is the granddaughter of P, who is the father of Q’s only
child. S is the nephew of U’s father’s only sister. U’s father’s siblings are unmarried.
Question 51: How many members are there in the family?
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) Either 8 or 9 (e) None of the above
Question 52: What is the ratio of males to females in the family?
(a) 1:2 (b) 5:4 (c) 4:5 (d) 2:1 (e) Cannot be determined
Question 53: In the question, relationship between some elements is shown in the statements (s). These statements are followed
by two conclusions. Read the statements and given answer.
Statements: P < Q ≤ R > S; T = U ≤ Q > V
Conclusions: I. R ≥ T II. S < U
(b) Only conclusion II is true
(c) Either conclusion I or II is true
(d) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) Both conclusions I and II are true
Question 54: Which of the following will come in place of ‘?’ in the given series:
H%&*#HI%&*HIJ%&HIJK?HIJKL
(a) & (b) % (c) M (d) # (e) None of these
Six boxes are kept one above another such that the bottommost box is numbered as 1 and the topmost as 6. The boxes are divided
into two halves such that in the left column, biscuits are kept and in the right column, snacks are kept. Biscuits are- Anmol, Britannia,
Cerimica, Parle, Patanjali and Oreo and Snacks are- Cheetos, Doritos, Bringles, Lays, Muchos and Uncles. To keep a track of biscuits
and snacks they are given a tag from 1 to 12. The tags are numbered in such a way that the numbers on tags are increasing from
top box to bottom in each column separately. The following information is known,
Parle is in 3rd box with the snack, which is tagged as 5. There are two boxes between Cerimica and Bringles. Lays is in the box just
above Bringles. Anmol, which is tagged as 2, is in the same box as lays. Britannia, which is tagged as 7, is just below Oreo. The
snack, which is tagged as 9, is with the biscuit, which is tagged as 10. The tags of Patanjali and Cerimica are even numbers. The
difference in the tag numbers of Munchos and Cheetos is 1 but the Munchos doesn’t have tag in even number.
Question 55: Which among the following is tagged as 5?
(a) Cheetos (b) Lays (c) Munchos (d) Parle (e) None of these
Question 56: Which of the following snacks is just below Uncles?
(a) Doritos (b) Munchos (c) Bringles (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
Question 57: Which of following snacks is tagged as 3?
(a) Bringles (b) Lays (c) Cheetos (d) Munchos (e) None of these
Question 58: Which biscuit is just above Patanjali?
(a) Parle (b) Cerimica (c) Oreo (d) Britannia (e) None of these
Question 59: If the tag number of Doritos is 11 then what is the tag number of Uncles?
(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 9 (e) None of these
A person starts walking from his office, which is at point O, towards his home. He starts walking from point O, A walks 13m towards
east and reached at point P, turns right and walks for 9m and reached at point Q, turns right and walks 13m and reached at point R,
turns left and walks for 6m and reached at point S, turns right and walks for 20m and reached home, which is at point T.
Question 60: What is the shortest distance between A’s office to his home?
(a) 25m (b) 15m (c) 18m (d) 20m (e) None of the above
Question 61: What is the direction of P with respect to S?
(a) North-west (b) South (c) North (d) North-east (e) None of the above
Directions for Questions 62-65: Study the following information and the answer the questions based on the information given
below.
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The
following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 25 36 54 66 88 75 42 92
Step I: 90 36 54 66 88 75 42 20
Step II: 90 80 54 66 75 42 30 20
Step III: 90 80 70 54 66 40 30 20
Step IV: 90 80 70 60 50 40 30 20
Step V: 4 9 16 25 36 49 64 81
And step V is the last step of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the questions.
Input: 10 22 63 76 37 89
Question 62: Which element is 3rd from the right end in IV step?
Question 63: How many even numbers are there in 2nd step?
Question 64: What is the difference between the twice of the 2nd smallest number and half of the largest number in 3rd step?
Question 65: What is the square of the sum of the first three elements from the left end in the last step?
Quantitative Aptitude (35 Questions: 20 Minutes)
Question 66: Quantity I: The ratio of the number of students in class 9th to the number of students in class 10th is 11:12,
respectively. The ratio of the number of girls in class 9th and 10th together to the number of boys in class 9th and 10th together is 2:3,
respectively. If total number of boys in class 9th and 10th together is 69, then find the total number of students in class 9th.
Quantity II: In a bag there are 84 balls of 3 different colours. The ratio of number of red balls to number of green balls is 1:3,
respectively. If number of white balls in the bag is 24, then find the number of green balls in the bag.
(a) Quantity-I > Quantity-II (b) Quantity-I < Quantity-II (c) Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
(d) Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation (e) Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Question 67: Quantity I: A man deposits Rs. 8750 at 12% per annum compound interest. What will be his interest after 2 years?
Quantity II: A man deposits Rs. 5680 at 8% per annum simple interest. What will be his interest after 5 years.
Question 68: Quantity I: The cost of fencing a circular field at the rate of Rs. 18 per m is Rs. 7128. Find the radius of the circular
field.
Quantity II: The ratio of length and breadth of a rectangular field is 8:7, respectively. If cost of fencing the field at Rs. 23 per m is Rs.
5520, then find the length of the field.
Question 69: Quantity I: The average weight of A, B, C, D, and E is 74 kg. If weight of E is excluded, then the average weight
reduced by 3 kg. Find the weight of E.
Quantity II: The average quantity of rice sold by a shopkeeper from Monday to Thursday was 84 kg while the average quantity of
rice sold by the shopkeeper from Thursday to Sunday was 91.5 kg. Find the quantity of rice sold by the shopkeeper on Thursday, if
average quantity of rice sold by him in entire week is 88 kg.
Question 70: Quantity I: Initially, Rahul had Rs. 900 with him. He gave 30% of amount to Aman and 70% of the remaining amount
to Rohit. What was the amount left with him?
Quantity II: Initially, Shankar had Rs. 1300 with him. He gave 40% of amount to Puneet and 80% of the remaining amount to
Hitesh. What was the amount left with him?
The bar chart represents the percentage of the number of bikes sold with respect to the number of bikes produced and number of
cars sold with respect to the number of cars produced by five different companies.
The line graph represents the total production of bikes and total production of cars by five different companies.
80 72
68
70 64 65
60
60 56 55 55
48
50 44
40
30
20
10
0
Company A Company B Company C Company D Company E
Percentage of bike sold Percentage of car sold
2000
1800 1880
1800
1600
1600 1560
1420
1400 1350
1200 1350 1250
1150 1200
1000
800
600
400
200
0
Company A Company B Company C Company D Company E
Total production of bike Total production of car
Question 71: Find the difference between the number of unsold cars of company D and the number of unsold bikes of company A.
(a) 121 (b) 91 (c) 105
(d) 97 (e) 94
Question 72: What is the ratio of number of unsold bikes of company E to number of unsold cars of company B?
(a) 1:1 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:2
(d) 4:5 (e) 5:4

Question 73: The total number of bikes sold by company B and C together is approximately what percentage of the total number of
cars sold by same companies together?
(a) 122% (b) 112% (c) 141%
(d) 109% (e) 132%

Question 74: Which company has the 3rd highest production (bikes + cars)?
(a) Company A (b) Company B (c) Company C
(d) Company D (e) Company E

Question 75: What percentage of the total production (bikes + cars) of company C is not sold?
(a) 37.8% (b) 40.5% (c) 38.6%
(d) 34.8% (e) 35.2%

Question 76: There are 45 balls in a bag containing balls of three different colors. The probability of drawing a red color and a
black color ball is 12/55 and the probability of drawing a white ball is 1/3. Find the number of black balls in the bag.
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) Either 12 or 18
(d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these

Question 77: A and B started a business with investment of Rs. 1200 and Rs. 1600, respectively. After a year, A increased his
investment by 15% and B decreased his investment by 30%. What was the profit share of A out of the total profit of Rs. 8480 at the
end of 2 years?
(a) Rs. 4188 (b) Rs. 3842 (c) Rs. 4224
(d) Rs. 4012 (e) None of these

Question 78: Arun takes 3 hours 30 minutes to reach point B from point A with his original speed. But after travelling 120 km, he
reduces his speed by 25% and reaches point B 40 minutes late. What will be the time taken by Tarun to reach point A from B with
the speed of 70 km/h?
(a) 3.5 hours (b) 4 hours (c) 4.5 hours
(d) 4 hours 20 minutes (e) None of these

Question 79: A shopkeeper sold an article at 12% loss after giving a discount of 29.6%. If the shopkeeper had allowed 13%
discount then he would have earned Rs. 332 more. Find the cost price of the article.
(a) Rs. 1500 (b) Rs. 2000 (c) Rs. 1200
(d) Rs. 1600 (e) None of these

Question 80: The ratio of age of Neha and Payal is 6:11 respectively, while the ratio of age of Payal and Rani is 5:6, respectively.
If difference between age of Neha and Rani is 36 years, then find the age of Payal.
(a) 66 years (b) 55 years (c) 44 years
(d) 33 years (e) None of these
The table below shows the population (male + female) of five different villages (A, B, C, D and E) and the percentage of male
population in each of the given villages. It also shows the number of males who are not eligible for voting.
Note: Total number of male population = Number of eligible male voters + number of non eligible male voters
Village Total population Percentage of male Male population not

population eligible for voting
A 4800 64 1226
B 5400 60 1840
C 4200 62 1040
D 3600 58 968
E 2500 52 400
Question 81: The number of eligible male voters of village A is what percentage of the total population of the same village?
(a) 45.12% (b) 42.68% (c) 32.14%
(d) 38.46% (e) None of these

Question 82: Find the ratio of the number of eligible male voters of village B to the number of eligible male voters of village E.
(a) 17:13 (b) 14:9 (c) 9:7
(d) 13:9 (e) None of these

Question 83: Find the average of the male population of village A, B and C together.
(a) 2884 (b) 2972 (c) 2952
(d) 3024 (e) None of these

Question 84: Find the number of eligible female voters of village D which is 50% of the total female population of village D.
(a) 756 (b) 748 (c) 752

Question 85: Find the difference between the number of eligible male voters of village C and the number of eligible male voters of
village D.
(a) 504 (b) 474 (c) 524
There are three pizza outlets, A, B and C. The total number of pizzas sold by an outlet in a week is equal to the sum of the number
of veg pizzas sold and non-veg pizzas sold in a week by that outlet.
1. The ratio of the number of veg pizzas sold in a week to the number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet A is 4:5
respectively
2. The number of veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet B is 50 more than the number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by the same
outlet.
3. The number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet A is equal to the number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet B.
4. The number of veg-pizzas sold in a week by outlet C is twice the number of veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet A.
5. The number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet C is 60 more than the number of veg pizzas sold in a week by the same
outlet.
6. The average number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by each outlet is 200.
Question 86: Find the total number of pizzas sold in a week by outlet A.
(a) 315 (b) 225 (c) 360

Question 87: The number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet C is what percentage of the total number of non-veg pizzas
sold in a week by all the three outlets together?
(a) 33.33% (b) 50% (c) 25%
(d) 66.67% (e) None of these

Question 88: Find the total number of veg pizzas sold in a week by all the outlets together.
(a) 580 (b) 560 (c) 570

Question 89: Find the difference between the total number of pizzas sold in a week by outlet B and the total number of pizzas sold
in a week by outlet C.
(a) 170 (b) 175 (c) 180

Question 90: The number of veg pizzas sold by another outlet D is 25% more than the number of veg pizzas sold by outlet C in a
week and total number of pizzas sold by outlet D is 480, then find the number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet D.
(a) 160 (b) 180 (c) 220
(d) 200 (e) 210

Directions for Questions 91-95: In the questions, numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.
Question 91: 47, 54, 68, 89, 117, 154
(a) 154 (b) 117 (c) 89
(d) 68 (e) 54
Question 92: 108, 117, 147, 191, 272, 393
(a) 272 (b) 191 (c) 147

Question 93: 17, 21, 26, 32, 39, 48
(a) 39 (b) 48 (c) 26
(d) 32 (e) 21
Question 94: 12, 15, 24, 45, 48, 90, 96, 405
(a) 24 (b) 45 (c) 48
(d) 90 (e) 96
Question 95: 78, 79, 81, 85, 93, 109
(a) 81 (b) 85 (c) 93
Directions (96-98): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (Note: You are
not expected to calculate the exact value.)
Question 96. ? = 24.78% of 479.21 + 872.33 – (783.87 ÷ 7.97)
(a) 812 (b) 894 (c) 794
(d) 936 (e) 854
Question 97. ? = 17.91% of {36.2 × (144.01 + 5.95)} + 17.71
(a) 900 (b) 820 (c) 990
(d) 1070 (e) 1140
Question 98. ? = (33.912.01 + 11.982.02) ÷ (15.982.003 + 2560.249)
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10
(d) 15 (e) 12
Question 99. The number of ways of choosing ‘x’ and ‘x + 2’ toffees from a bag containing some toffees is same. If 2 toffees can
be chosen from the bag in 15 ways, then find the value of ‘x’.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4
Question 100. A and B individually can complete the work in 20 days and 24 days respectively. If both started the work together
and worked for ‘x’ days, then A left the work and the remaining work is completed by B alone in 13 days, then find the value of ‘x’.
(a) 4 days (b) 5 days (c) 6 days
(d) 5.5 days (e) None of these
Answers and explanations:
1. (b) Replace SAID with SAY, as modal verbs such as CAN always take the base form of the main verb following them.
2. (a) Replace THERE with THEIR, as the former is an adverb while the latter is a possessive pronoun that is being used to refer to
the people’s (subject) cattle.
3. (e) The sentence is grammatically correct and free of error.
4. (d) Replace FIND with FOUND. We need the past participle (third form) of the verb here as the passive voice construction IS/
ARE + VERB, takes the verb in its third form. FIND is the first form.
5. (b) Replace PROPER with PROPERLY, as the former is an adjective, while the latter is an adverb. We need an adverb here to
modify the verb APPLIED.
6. (a) Replace ARE with IS as there is an error of subject-verb agreement. The subject of the verb GENERATION will assume a
singular form, and will take the singular verb IS.
7. (a) The correct pairs are AD, BF and CE. AD - A tells us how marks decide the future of the student, and D follows by telling us
how this has led to greater use of dishonest means to pass an exam.
8. (c) The correct pairs are AF, BE and CD. CD - C talks about how Austria did not join to expel Russian diplomats, and D gives us
the reason for this.
9. (d) The correct pairs are AE, BD and CF. AE - A talks about the practice of respecting the space of the political opposition, and E
continues by telling us how this practice is a key aspect of democracy.
10. (e) The correct pairs are AE, BF and CD. CD - C talks about the decision of students regarding whom they should vote for, and
D tells us how this decision is made.
11. (c) The two sentences are contrasting/ contradictory - A tells us that this provision would give the Union too much power
(negative) and B tells us that it will hold the country together (positive).
WHILE and EVEN THOUGH can be used to join contradictory statements. SINCE joins cause-effect clauses.
12. (a) The two sentences are contradictory - A tells us that the result has not been announced yet, and B tells us that a victory is
certain. Only THOUGH can be used here. SINCE and BECAUSE show a cause-effect relationship, which is not the case here.
13. (e) The two sentences share a cause-effect relationship - A tells us the effect, i.e. the rivers are polluted, and B tells us the
cause for it. All 3 can be used to join the sentences.
14. (d) The sentences are contradictory to each other - A tells us that the reach of the internet is wide and fast (positive), and B tells
us that the messages transmitted through it need repetition (negative). ALTHOUGH and BUT can be used here. BECAUSE is used
to show a cause-effect relation, which is not the case here.
15. (c) We need a verb in continuous form (‘ing’ form) for the first blank, as the helping verb ARE has been used. For the second
blank, we need an adverb to modify the adjective LOW.
The sentence tells us that the there are problems of low flows of rivers today, so FACING and ABYSMALLY (extremely) will be
contextually appropriate.
16. (a) For the first blank, we need an adjective to modify the pronoun IT, and for the second blank, we need the past participle
form of the verb owing to the use of the passive voice construction BE + VERB. The sentence tells us that paper leaks are
unavoidable, and it would be foolish to believe that they can be stopped. So, STRANGE and PREVENTED can be used here.
17. (d) For the first blank, we need the base form of a verb to fit with the infinitive construction TO + VERB. For the second blank,
we need a noun as it is being modified by the adjective MERE.
The sentence talks of a political party that can challenge the BJP, so COUNTER (oppose) will fit here. It tells us that such a party
needs a vision and strategy to win. TACTICS (strategy) will fit in the second blank, as the sentence shows that mere strategy is not
enough.
18. (b) For the first blank, we need the past participle of the verb, as the construction HAVE + VERB has been used. For the
second blank, we need an adjective to modify the noun INFRASTRUCTURE. For the second blank, only a positive word will fit, as
the government would seek to provide only good infrastructure. Both FAILED and SUFFICIENT will fit here.
19. (a) For the first blank, we need an adjective to modify the noun phrase BARGAINING. For the second blank, we need a present
participle (‘ing’ form). The sentence talks about bargaining which is a relentless act, so ENDLESS will fit here. For the second
blank, the context is of a shop so BUYING or PURCHASING will be suitable.
20. (d) Replace ATOP with ABOVE. The former means on top of something (a surface), which cannot be used figuratively. It is
obvious that one cannot be physically on top of the law; that would be absurd. ABOVE the law would mean at a position where one
is not obliged to obey the law, which is the meaning implied by the sentence.
21. (a) Replace PITIFUL with PITY, as the former is an adjective, and the latter is a noun. We need a noun here, as denoted by the
use of article A before it. Articles are used to modify only nouns.
22. (d) Replace HEIGHT with RISE. The phrase ON THE RISE means steadily increasing, which will be contextually appropriate
here, as the sentence talks about bank frauds, which are increasing.
23. (e) All the highlighted words are contextually appropriate in the sentence. Thus, E is the right answer.
24. (c) Replace SAFE with SAVE. Here, we need a verb in its base form to fit in with the infinitive construction TO + VERB. SAFE is
an adjective, while SAVE is a verb that means to protect.
25. (c) Refer to paragraph 4, “The boy was an extremely cooperative patient. While suturing his tongue, he was absolutely quiet
and composed. Throughout the process, I was taken aback at the child’s high pain threshold.”
26. (b) Refer to paragraph 1, “As a medical professional working in rural Rajasthan for some years, I encountered several socio-
cultural experiences while interacting with different patients — as any doctor would, in the different regions of the country.”
27. (e) Refer to the last paragraph, “When he replied in the affirmative, she exclaimed, “But you didn’t even cry!” To this, he replied
in Marwari, “Rota kaise? Rajput joh thehra! (How could I cry? After all I’m a Rajput!)”. At such a young age, his caste identity and
the characteristics that set apart that identity had been so embedded in the boy.”
28. (d) Refer to paragraph 3, “Initially, I was tempted to snip the tongue and do a dressing. However, remembering my Professor of
Surgery’s advice on how the tongue could heal by itself, I decided to stitch it instead.”
29. (b) The word COMPOSURE has been used in the passage to refer to a quality the boy at the clinic had. It means the state or
feeling of being calm and in control of oneself. On the other hand, the word AGITATION means a state of anxiety or nervous
excitement.
30. (e) The word AFFIRMATIVE has been used in the passage to add a response to a question, and thus, it means a position of
agreement or confirmation.
31-34: P is sitting fourth to the left of T. R sits to the immediate right of P. There is one person sitting between T and U. U sits to the
right of Q and T. U is sitting adjacent to X. So, X sits at the extreme right end. There are seven persons between U and Q. So, Q
must be to the left of U. Z is adjacent to Q. So, Z is either immediate left or right of Q. There are two persons between Z and V. S sits
to the left of Q but not adjacent to V. So, S sits to the immediate left of Z. And, V sits at extreme left end and one person sits between
V and S.
The arrangement is shown below,
1. V 2. 3. S 4. Z 5. Q 6. 7. P 8. R 9. 10. 11. T 12. 13. U 14. X
Answers: 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b)
35. (b) If Manik and Shiv interchange their seats, Manik will be sitting at 13th seat, now, he moves 3 seats forward and will be at 10th
seat. So, there will be 8 seats between Manik’s seat and the 1st seat.
36. (e) From the statements alone, we don’t get the answer.
On combining statement I and statement II,
From statement I, we get to know that C visits on Wednesday and F visits on Friday. E visits either on Monday or Tuesday and from
statement II, three persons visit between A and D, so, the only possibility is that E visits on Monday and A visits on Tuesday and
Saturday. So, B must visit on Thursday.
Day Person
Monday E
Tuesday D/A
Wednesday C
Thursday B
Friday F
Saturday A/D
We get the answer from the statements I and II together.
37. (b) From statement I alone, ‘nature’ is coded as ‘alb’ or ‘dlb’.
From statement II alone, ‘nature’ is coded as ‘alb’.
Therefore, statement II alone is required to give answer.
38-43: First we number the sitting positions from 1 to 10 starting from the right end of row 1 (when facing south) to the right end of
row 2 (when facing north). Both Q and R work in TCS. Q is facing A and is immediate neighbour of B. Both B and A, who is sitting at
extreme end, work in Oracle, so, A, Q and B will either sit at (1, 6, 7) or (5, 10, 9) or (6, 1, 2) or (10, 5, 4). D, who is facing the person
who works in Oracle, is sitting three places away P, who works in Wipro, and E is immediate neighbour of P, who is not sitting at
extreme end.
Case 1: If A, Q and B will either sit at (5, 10, 9) respectively, then P, E and D will sit at (4, 3, 1)respectively. C is not at the end. C is
sitting to the immediate right of T, who works in Amazon, so, T and C will sit at 7 and 8 respectively. R is facing the perso n, who
works in Infosys, so, this case will be rejected.
Case 2: If A, Q and B will either sit at (6, 1, 2) respectively, then P, E and D will sit at (7, 8, 10)respectively. C, who is not at the end,
is sitting to the immediate right of T, who works in Amazon, so, T and C will sit at 4 and 3 respectively. R is facing the person, who
works in Infosys, so, this case will be rejected.
is sitting to the immediate right of T, who works in Amazon, so, T and C will sit at 3 and 2 respectively. S will sit at 1, so, this case will
be rejected.
is sitting to the immediate right of T, who works in Amazon, so, T and C will sit at 8 and 9 respectively. S will sit at 10.The person who
works in Google, is facing south direction but is not facing S, so, E and D work in Google and OLX respectively. The final arrangement
is shown below:
Row 1 (facing 1. A (Oracle) 2. P (Wipro) 3. E (Google) 4. R (TCS) 5. D (OLX)

south)
Row 2 (facing 6. Q (TCS) 7. B (Oracle) 8. T (Amazon) 9. C (Infosys) 10. S (Oracle)

north)
Answers: 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (d)
44. (d) Decoding the signs of the statements, statement becomes
D ≥ C = A; C < K = H ≥ E; K < M ≤ N
On combining, we get
A=C<K<M≤N
Conclusions:
I. C # N means C > N: False (As, C < K < M ≤ N)
II. C @ M means C < M: True (As, C < K < M)
III. A @ M means A < M: True (As, A = C < K < M ≤ N)
45. (c) Decoding the signs of the statements, statement becomes
T ≥ M = P < S; M > R > Q; R < A = B
On combining, we get
T ≥ M > R < A; Q < R < M = P < S
Conclusions:
I. T & A means T ≥ A: False (T ≥ M > R < A) so, either I or III is true.
II. Q $ S means Q = S: False (Q < R < M = P < S)
III. T @ A means T< A: False (T ≥ M > R < A) so, either I or III is true.
46. (a) LUMINESCENT
After replacing the alphabets, we get M V N J O F T D F O U
Now, the third alphabet to the left of the fifth alphabet from the left end is V.
47-50: S was established after P, and both of them were established in the month which has 30 days, so, P and S were established
in April and September respectively. P departed 75 minutes after T. S departed after the flight which was established in April. So, T,
P departed at (3pm, 4:15pm) or (4:15pm, 5:30pm) respectively. If T, P departed at (4:15pm, 5:30pm) respectively, then as the
difference between the departure times of P and Q is 30 minutes, Q departed at 6pm.At least three flights departed after Q. So, T, P
departed at (3pm, 4:15pm) respectively. Thus, Q departed at 3:45pm.The flight of the airlines that was established in January
departed at 3:00pm. So, T was established in January. U was established before R but not in February. U, R established in May and
August respectively. Thus, Q was established in February. The flight that was established in September departed after 4:45pm. R
didn’t depart at last. U departed at 4:45 pm as difference between the departure times of Q and R, is at least 75 minutes. As R didn’t
depart at last, R, S departed at (5:30pm, 6pm) respectively.
The final arrangement is shown below:
Airline Month Time (at pm)

T January 3:00
Q February 3:45
P April 4:15
U May 4:45
R August 5:30
S September 6:00
Answers: 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51-52: V is the brother in law of T, who is the mother of U’s only sister, who is the granddaughter of P, who is the father of Q’s only
child. S is the nephew of U’s father’s only sister. U’s father’s siblings are unmarried. It means that U and S are siblings. Thus, U’s
father has one brother and one sister.
Family tree:
Answers: 51. (b) 52. (e)
53. (a) On combining, we get,
R ≥ Q ≥ U = T and R ≥ Q > V
Conclusions: I. R ≥ T: True (As, R ≥ Q ≥ U = T, so, R ≥ T)
II. S < U: False (As U ≤ Q ≤ R > S, so, we cannot establish the exact relation between S and U)
54. (b) The alphabet H is followed by four symbols in the given series. Then one alphabet is added to the right of previous alphabet
and similarly one symbol is removed from the right side. So, if we follow the same sequence, then “%” will come at the place of “?”.
55-59: Parle is in 3rd box with the snack, which is tagged as 5. Anmol, which is tagged as 2, is in the same box as lays. The tags are
numbered in such a way that the numbers on tags are increasing from top box to bottom in each column separately. It implies that
Anmol is kept in 6th box. Thus, the snacks in 6th, 5th, 4th boxes are tagged as (1,3,4) respectively. Also, Lays is tagged as 1. Lays is
in the box just above Bringles. Bringles is kept in 5th box. Britannia, which is tagged as 7, is just below Oreo. Britannia has to be in
4th box and Oreo in 5th box. Thus, Oreo is tagged as 6. The snack, which is tagged as 9, is with the biscuit, which is tagged as 10.
So, they must be in 2nd box. The tags of Patanjali and Cerimica are even numbers. Their tags must be (10,12) respectively as there
are two boxes between Cerimica and Bringles. Patanjali is kept in 1 st box. Therefore, the snack in 1st box is tagged as 11. The
difference in the tag numbers of Munchos and Cheetos is 1 but the Munchos doesn’t have tag in even number. Munchos and Cheetos
are kept in (3rd, 4th) boxes respectively. So, Doritos and Uncles have 9 and 11 tags but not necessarily in same order.
The table is shown below,
Box Biscuits Snacks
6th Anmol(2) Lays(1)
5th Oreo(6) Bringles(3)
4th Britannia(7) Cheetos(4)
3rd Parle(8) Munchos(5)
2nd Cerimica(10) Uncles/Doritos(9)
1st Patanjali(12) Doritos/Uncles(11)
Answers: 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (d)
60-61: Figure:
Answers: 60. (a) 61. (d)
62-65: By observing the output we get, the largest number is arranged at the leftmost position and the lowest number is arranged at
the rightmost position and the unit's digits of the left-most and right-most numbers are simultaneously being subtracted from the
numbers themselves, for e.g. (92-2=90)This is followed by the 2 nd highest number and the second lowest number which arranged to
the to the right of the left-most one, and to the left of the right-most one.
And in the last step, the square of the ten’s digits of the numbers are arranged in such way, square of unit digit of 1st number from
the leftmost is swapped with square of unit digit of 1st number from the rightmost end and 2nd from the leftmost is swapped with 2nd
from the rightmost and so on.
Given Input: 10 22 63 76 37 89
Step I: 80 22 37 76 63 10
Step II: 80 70 37 63 20 10
Step III: 80 70 60 30 20 10
Step IV: 1 4 9 36 49 64
Answers: 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (c)
66. (a) Quantity I: Total number of girls in class 9th and 10th together = (2/3) × 69 = 46
Total number of students in class 9th and 10th together = 69 + 46 = 115
Total number of students in class 9th = (11/23) × 115 = 55
Quantity II: Total number of red and green colour balls in the bag = 84 – 24 = 60
Number of green colour balls = (3/4) × 60 = 45
67. (b) Quantity I: Compound interest earned= 8750 × {(1.12)2 – 1}= Rs. 2226
Quantity II: Simple interest earned= (5680 × 8 × 5)/100 = Rs. 2272
68. (b) Quantity I: Circumference of field = 7128/18 = 396 m
So, radius of field = (396 × 7)/ (2 × 22) = 63 m
Quantity II: Let the length and breadth of field be ‘8x’ m and ‘7x’ m, respectively.
Perimeter of field = 5520/23 = 240 m. So, 2 × (8x + 7x) = 240 → 15x = 120, x = 8
Length of field = 8 × 8 = 64 m
69. (d) Quantity I: Weight of E = 74 × 5 – 71 × 4 = (370 – 284) = 86 kg
Quantity II: Quantity of rice sold by shopkeeper on Thursday = (91.5 × 4 + 84 × 4) – 88 × 7 = 366 + 336 – 616 = 86 kg
70. (a) Quantity I: Amount left with Rahul = 30% of 70% of 900 = Rs. 189
Quantity II: Amount left with Shankar = 20% of 60% of 1300 = Rs. 156
71-75:
Number of bikes Number of unsold Number of cars Number of unsold cars

sold bikes sold
Company A 56% of 1350 = 756 1350 – 756 = 594 64% of 1150 = 736 1150 – 736 = 414
Company B 44% of 1600 = 704 1600 – 704 = 896 48% of 1350 = 648 1350 – 648 = 702
Company C 68% of 1800 = 1224 1800 – 1224 = 576 60% of 1200 = 720 1200 – 720 = 480
Company D 72% of 1250 = 900 1250 – 900 = 350 65% of 1420 = 923 1420 – 923 = 497
Company E 55% of 1560 = 858 1560 – 858 = 702 55% of 1880 =1034 1880 – 1034 = 846
71. (d) Required difference = 594 – 497 = 97.
72. (a) Required ratio = 702: 702 = 1: 1.
73. (c) Total number of bikes sold by company B and C together = 704 + 1224 = 1928
Total number of cars sold company B and C together = 648 + 720 = 1368
Required percentage = (1928/1368) × 100 = 141%.
74. (b) Total production of company A = 1350 + 1150 = 2500
Total production of company B = 1600 + 1350 = 2950
Total production of company C = 1800 + 1200 = 3000
Total production of company D = 1250 + 1420 = 2670
Total production of company E = 1560 + 1880 = 3440
So, company B has 3rd highest production.
75. (e) Total production of company C = 1800 + 1200 = 3000
Production of company C which is not sold = 576 + 480 = 1056
Required percentage = (1056/3000) × 100 = 35.2%.
76. (c) Number of white ball = (1/3) × 45 = 15
Let the number of red ball and black ball be ‘x’ and ‘y’, respectively.
So, {(xC1×yC1)/45C2} = 12/55
{2xy/ (45 × 44)} = 12/55 → xy = 216
Also, x + y = 30 → x = 30 – y
So, (30 – y) × y = 216
y2 – 30y + 216 = 0
y2 – 12y – 18y + 216 = 0
y (y – 12) – 18y (y – 12) = 0
(y – 12) (y – 18) = 0 → y = 12, 18
So, the number of black color balls in bag is either 12 or 18.
77. (e) Total investment of A = 1200 + 115% of 1200 = 1200 + 1380 = Rs. 2580
Total investment of B = 1600 + 70% of 1600 = 1600 + 1120 = Rs. 2720
Ratio of investment = 129: 136
Profit share of A = (129/265) × 8480 = Rs. 4128.
78. (b) Let, distance between point A and point B = ‘x’ km
So, speed of Arun = (x/3.5) km/h
So, [{(120 × 3.5)/x} + {((x – 120) × 14)/3x}] – 3.5 = 40/60
[(420/x) + {(14x – 1680)/3x}] – 3.5 = 2/3
[(1260 + 14x – 1680)] – 10.5x = 6x/3
3.5x – 420 = 6x/3 → 4.5x/3 = 420 → x = 280
Required time taken = 280/70 = 4 hours.
79. (d) Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’, and the marked price of the article = Rs. ‘y'
So, 88% of x = 70.4% of y → y = 5x/4
Also, 87% of y = 0.88x + 332 → 4.35x = 3.52x + 1328
0.83x = 1328 → x = 1600
Therefore, cost price of article = Rs. 1600.
80. (b) Let the age of Neha and Payal be ‘6x’ years and ‘11x’ years, respectively.
So, age of Rani = (6/5) × 11x = (66x/5) years
According to question, 66x/5 – 6x = 36 → 66x – 30x = 180 → 36x = 180 → x = 5
Age of Payal = 11x = 55 years.
81-85:
Village Total population Male population Male population Male population

not eligible for eligible for voting
voting
A 4800 0.64 × 4800 = 3072 1226 3072 – 1226 = 1846
B 5400 0.60 × 5400 = 3240 1840 3240 – 1840 = 1400
C 4200 0.62 × 4200 = 2604 1040 2604 – 1040 = 1564
D 3600 0.58 × 3600 = 2088 968 2088 – 968 = 1120
E 2500 0.52 × 2500 = 1300 400 1300 – 400 = 900
Total 20500 12304 5474 6830
81. (d) Required percentage = (1846/4800) × 100 = 38.46%.
82. (b) Required ratio = 1400: 900 = 14: 9.
83. (b) Required average = (3072 + 3240 + 2604)/3 = 2972.
84. (a) Number of female population in village D = 3600 – 2088 = 1512
So, required eligible female voters from village D = 50% of 1512 = 756.
85. (e) Required difference = 1564 – 1120 = 444.
86-90:
Let the number of veg pizzas and non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet A be 4x and 5x respectively.
Number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet B = 5x
Number of veg-pizzas sold in a week by outlet B = (5x + 50)
Number of veg-pizzas sold in a week by outlet C = 2 × 4x = 8x
Number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet C = (8x + 60)
So, 5x + 5x + 8x + 60 = 200 × 3 →18x = 540 → x = 30
Outlet Number of veg-pizzas Number of non-veg Total number of pizzas

sold pizzas sold sold
A 4x = 120 5x = 150 270
B 5x + 50 = 200 5x = 150 350
C 8x = 240 8x + 60 = 300 540
Total 560 600 1160
86. (d) Total number of pizzas sold in a week by outlet A = 270.
87. (b) Required percentage = (300/600) × 100 = 50%.
88. (b) So, required total number of pizzas = 560.
89. (e) Required difference = 540 – 350 = 190.
90. (b) Total number of pizzas sold in a week by outlet D = 480
Number of veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet D = 1.25 × 240 = 300
Number of non-veg pizzas sold in a week by outlet D = 480 – 300 = 180.
91. (a) The series follows the pattern:
47 + 7 × 1 = 54, 54 + 7 × 2 = 68, 68 + 7 × 3 = 89, 89 + 7 × 4 = 117, 117 + 7 × 5 = 152
92. (c) The series follows the pattern:
108 + 32 = 117, 117 + 52 = 142, 142 + 7 2 = 191, 191 + 92 = 272, 272 + 112 = 393
93. (b) The series follows the pattern:
17 + 4 = 21, 21 + 5 = 26, 26 + 6 = 32, 32 + 7 = 39, 39 + 8 = 47
94. (d) The numbers at the odd places follow the series: 12 × 2 = 24, 24 × 2 = 48, 48 × 2 = 96
The numbers at the even places follow the series: 15 × 3 = 45, 45 × 3 = 135, 135 × 3 = 405
95. (e) The series follows the pattern:
78 + 20 = 79, 79 + 21 = 81, 81 + 22 = 85, 85 + 23 = 93, 93 + 24 = 109
96. (b)? = 24.78% of 479.21 + 872.33 – (783.87 ÷ 7.97)
? ~ 25% of 480 + 872 – (784 ÷ 8)
? ~ 120 + 872 – 98
? ~ 894
97. (c) ? = 17.91% of {36.2 × (144.01 + 5.95)} + 17.71
? ~ 18% of {36 × (144 + 6)} + 18
? ~ 18% of (36 × 150) + 18
? ~ 18% of 5400 + 18
? ~ 972 + 18
? ~ 990
98. (a) ? = (33.912.01 + 11.982.02) ÷ (15.982.003 + 2560.249)
? ~ (342 + 122) ÷ (162 + 2560.25)
? ~ (1156 + 144) ÷ (256 + 2561/4)
? ~ 1300 ÷ (256 + 4)
? ~ 1300 ÷ 260
?~5
99. (a) The number of ways of choosing ‘x’ toffees or ‘x + 2’ toffees from the bag is same.
Since nCr = nCn-r
So, total number of toffees in the bag = (x + x + 2) = (2x + 2)
According to the question, 2x+2C

2 = 15 → {(2x + 2) (2x + 1)}/2 = 15
(x + 1) (2x + 1) = 15 → 2x2 + x + 2x + 1 =15
2x2 + 3x – 14 =0 → 2x2 + 7x – 4x – 14 = 0
x(2x + 7) – 2(2x + 7) = 0
(x – 2)(2x + 7) = 0 → x = 2, -3.5
So, the value of ‘x’ is 2
100. (b) Let the total work be LCM of (20 and 24) = 120 units
Number of units of work done by A in one day = 120/20 = 6 units
Number of units of work done by B in one day = 120/24 = 5 units
According to question,
(6 + 5) × x + 13 × 5 = 120
11x = 120 – 65 →11x = 55 → x = 5
So, the value of ‘x’ is 5 days
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PM Bazooka August 2018

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Bazooka - August, 2018 Monthly Bulletin for Banking Exams

Note to the reader:

100 Important Current Affairs for July

Awards and Ranks

Cabinet Ministers and their Constituencies

S. No Name of minister Name of ministry Constituency

Ministry of Atomic Energy

All important Policy Issues, all other

2. Arun Jaitley Minister without Portfolio Gujarat (Rajya Sabha)

Ministry of Water Resources, River

Minister of Electronics and Information

Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

15. Chaudhary Birender Ministry of Steel Haryana (Rajya Sabha)

Ministry of Panchayati Raj

Ministry of Finance (Additional Charge)

Ministry of Corporate Affairs (Additional

Ministry of Earth Science

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate

RBI’s 3rd Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement, 2018-19- A Review

How this Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted?

What actually MPC does in its each meeting?

What does RBI’s 3rd Bi-monthly Monetary Policy Statement say?

Important Days (June and July)

World Ranger Day July 31

Why this bill was required?

What actually is the bill?

So, who is a fugitive Economic Offender?

What are some additional features of this bill?

What impact this bill may have?

Banking Awareness Quiz

Q. 4 Who is the current Finance Secretary of India?

A. Facebook B. Microsoft C. Alibaba D. Apple E. CISCO

Q. 6 Where is the headquarters of New Development Bank (NDB)?

A. Telangana B. Chhattisgarh C. Odisha D. Jharkhand E. Andhra Pradesh

A. 15,000 B. 22,000 C. 27,000 D. 18,000 E. 56,000

A. 57th B. 73rd C. 35th D. 65th E. 41st

E. European Bank for Reconstruction and Development

A. Capital B. Cash C. Cost D. Currency E. Cheque

A. Yahoo B. Twitter C. Facebook D. IBM E. Microsoft

A. YM Deosthalee B. Ishwar Sharma C. Ashok Lavasa D. Injeti Srinivas E. Ajay Uppal

A. 5.6% B. 8.6% C. 7.6% D. 7.3% E. 7.1%

Q. 22 Where is the headquarters of Dena Bank?

A. New Delhi B. Kolkata C. Surat D. Mumbai E. Mangalore

A. Bond B. Bill C. Borrowed D. Blockchain E. Balance

Q. 24 Which of the following statements is correct about Payment Banks in India?

B. Airtel Payments Bank was the first Payments Bank of India.

E. A, B and C are correct

A. 7.3% B. 7.5% C. 7.2% D. 7.6% E. 7.0%

A. 2004 B. 1991 C. 1975 D. 1998 E. 1950

IBPS PO Prelims Mock Test

Sr. No. Section No. of Questions Duration

All the best!

English Language (30 Questions: 20 Minutes)

(a) I have been involved in

(a) We let people graze there cattle

(a) A focus on building an

(a) The conflict is bound to escalate

(a) The perception is that the

(a) The generation of fake news are

Question 12: A. The official result is yet to be announced.

(a) accepting, extremely

(a) strange, prevented

(a) oppose, gamed

(a) succeeded, suitably