Mock Clat

Crack CLAT ...
Gateway to Law Schools Sample Test Paper/CLAT-2010
MOCK TEST
Name: ____________________________ Time: 2 hours
Batch: ____________________________ Total Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No Duplicate Booklet will be issued.
2. Write your Name on page no.1 as well as the accompanying Printed Answer Sheet.
3. There are 5 Sections (Sections I-V) comprising of 200 Objective type questions. The
answers to these objective type questions are to be entered on the OMR Answer Sheets by fully shading
the appropriate ovals.
4. Answer all questions.
5. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING.
6. Specific instructions are given in the beginning of each Section. Read them carefully before answering.
7. For rough work there is a blank page at the end.
8. The possession of any electronic gadget in the examination hall will disqualify the candidate for
being considered for selection.
9. Adoption of any unfair means during the test will disqualify the candidate. The decision of the
Superintendent of the Centre shall be final in this regard.
Marks Statement
No. of Questions Max. Marks Marks Secured
Section – I: 40 Questions 40 Marks

English
Section – II: 50 Questions 50 Marks
G.K.
Section – III: 20 Questions 20 Marks
Maths
Section – IV: 45 Questions 45 Marks
LR
Section – V: 45 Questions 45 Marks
Legal GK
Total number of Maximum

questions : 200 marks : 200
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Crack CLAT ... Gateway to Law Schools Sample Test Paper/CLAT-2010
SECTION – I: ENGLISH
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark.
Directions. Q. 1 – 5 : In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
1. NOTORIOUS
(a) Wildness (b) Rudeness (c) Training (d) Famous
2. STATIONARY
(a) Moving (b) Revolutionary (c) Reactionary (d) Fixed
3. CONCORD
(a) Discord (b) Accord (c) Regard (d) Niggardly
4. VIRTUE
(a) Practice (b) Craftiness (c) Degradation (d) Vice
5. DISSOCIATE
(a) Desolate (b) Oscillate (c) Bifurcate (d) Associate
Directions. Q. 6 – 10 : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one
which is nearest in meaning to the BOLD word in the sentence.
6. He has propensity for getting into debt.

(a) Natural tendency (b) Aptitude (c) Characteristic (d) Quality
7. That case is not amenable to ordinary rules.

(a) Applicable (b) Contradictory (c) Interpreted (d) Dealt with
8. As they whispered, I felt awkward in their company.

(a) Happy (b) Ashamed (c) Convenient (d) Embarrassed
9. Lost in his own revery, he forgot that vicissitudes can change the course of man’s life.
(a) Difficulties (b) Change of fortune (c) Impediments (d) Good fortunes
10. He tried to cajole her, but it was in vain.

(a) Enjoin (b) Coax (c) Rejoice (d) Inspire
Directions. Q. 11 – 18 : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
The principle of a time log or audit is to divide each day for the next week or two into fifteen-minute
intervals. At the end of each hour, you record how the previous hour was spent. You can use an ordinary large desk
diary – one page to a day – for the purpose. Find a format that you are comfortable with. You may prepare a list of
prominent activities relevant to your trade or profession. For example, a teacher might include such headings as
lecture preparation, marking, teaching, games and extra-curricular activities for his class.
It take self-discipline to get started and keep going, but once you are into the saving of it for less time, is
taken up by exercise than you might imagine. It should occupy in all no more than five minutes a day. Even as you
do it you may mind that your fifteen minutes were not productive as you thought them to be. You may, for instance,
have to walk to a coffee machine and queue for your turn.
Look back at the end of each week. You may be surprised at what a comparatively small percentage of
your time is actually going on the top-priority tasks on your list. Time for planning, anticipating contingencies,
thinking about opportunities and recharging your batteries in various ways is often conspicuously missing,
squeezed out by the day-to-day overloading or slippage from other more routine activities. If so, it is a serious
matter. For a manager’s effectiveness is closely related to the use he makes of time, which he needs to control,
rather than the other way round, if he is to avoid constantly managing by crisis. In particular, achieving results
through other people makes it essential that the leader of the working group manages his own time so that he has
time to think ahead to tomorrow’s problems as well as about today’s decisions.
You may find that you had no idea how your time is really being spent. Memory isn’t to be entirely trusted
in this area because we tend to recall the productive hours of the day and to push into the background time wasted
or not used to good effect. It is not unlike the old sundial inscription which reads, “I record only the sunny hours.”
The large pieces or small scraps of time taken up by matters of relatively minor importance are conveniently
forgotten. These are the very items that a careful time audit should show up.
After keeping a log for three or four days, you may begin to notice opportunities for improvement. For
example, you may discover that you are spending much more time than you thought possible on reading
newspapers and trade journals or compiling routine reports. Could the latter be delegated? At the end two weeks,
when the data is available, try to group your time use under key headings such as committees; interviews;
discussions; education; figure work; telephone; dictation; thinking and others. After listing your findings, you can
carry a rigorous review of how you are spending your time.
11. The most appropriate heading for the passage could be

(a) the time wasters. (b) effective time management.
(c) the time log. (d) None of these
12. Effective time management means

(a) managing the time (b) allowing the time to manage you
(c) Crisis Management (d) None of these
13. As per the passage, a manager is a

(a) part of the group of people (b) person who leads the group
(c) person who leaves people to themselves (d) None of these
14. For time management one needs to focus on

(a) the activities which are critically important.
(b) the unimportant activities which take up a lot of time.
(c) auditing activities which have not been accomplished
(d) None of these.
15. As per passage, preparing time log is

(a) the last step in time management. (b) the first step in time management
(c) secondary (d) None of these
16. As per the passage, the sundial was used to

(a) measure only bright days (b) measure time only when people are working.
(c) measure time only when the sun was shining. (d) None of these.
17. For all the people, the time log will look
(a) same (b) differently (c) Cannot be said (d) None of these
18. As per passage, time log is for

(a) effective time management (b) self-discipline to get started
(c) both(a) and (b) (d) None of these.
Directions. Q. 19 – 23: Pick up the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make
the sentence meaningfully complete.
19. The doctor gave the medicine to ………………… the pain.

(a) bring down (b) cut (c) relief (d) relieve
20. Only the honest person ……….. first stone.

(a) can hit the (b) can throw (c) can cast the (d) can catch the
21. The child’s earliest words deal with concrete objects. Only later is he able to grapple with ……..
(a) decisions (b) maxims (c) abstractions (d) opinions.
22. I went to may native village with the ………… of starting a school for the poor.
(a) intention (b) opinion (c) suggestion (d) presumption
23. Prospective candidates have to prove that they have sufficient money to cover their …. and tuition.
(a) lodging (b) maintenance (c) boarding (d) sustenance
Directions. Q. 24 – 31: In the given passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. There
numbers are printed below the passage and against each some words are suggested one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate words.
My mother always …..24…. irritated at father and me ……25…… spending too much time in the
bathroom ….26…… inspiration from the book, Cheaper by the Dozen, that describes a family’s team-saving
experiments, mother finally ……27…… upon a solution. Knowing that I found school trigonometry difficult, she
……28…… a chart with formulae and pasted it in the bathroom, reasoning that I could utilise the time memorizing
the formulae. Her plan worked-but with a …29….. I started …….30…… from the bathroom sooner, but curiously
my father still ……31….. his schedule and surprised us by memorizing the entire formula chart.
24. (a) go (b) was (c) would be (d) upon
25. (a) by (b) for (c) at (d) from
26. (a) Deriving (b) Securing (c) Drawing (d) Preparing
27. (a) fixed (b) hit (c) got (d) constant
28. (a) drew (b) made (c) painted (d) make
29. (a) surprise (b) twist (c) suspense (d) suspension.
30. (a) coming (b) emerging (c) appearing (d) watching
31. (a) maintained (b) held (c) clung (d) parade
Directions. 32 – 36: In the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has error. If there is no
mistake, the answer is ‘No error’.
32. All the furnitures have been / sent to the new house / located in a village / No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
33. You can get / all the informations you want / in this book. / No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
34. I have done my best / the whole thing is now / in the laps of the Gods. / No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
35. Rahul is so rich that / he is having four bungalows in Delhi / and two in Mumbai. / No error
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36. Interviews for / the post of lectures / will begin from Monday. / No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Directions. Q. 37 – 40: In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the
sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These
are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences.
37. S1: He could not rise.

S6: It was colder than usual.
P : All at once, in the distance, he heard an elephant trumpet.
Q : He tried again with all his might but to no use.
R : The next moment he was on his feet.
S : He stepped into the river.
(a) PQSR (b) PRQS (c) QPRS (d) QPSR
38. S1: Anything you do that gives you some from of regular exercise will benefit your heart.
S6: But do not push too hard; tune into the warning signals from your body.
P : In fact, never choose an activity just because it is good for you.
Q: By all means work up a good sweat, and even a thirst perhaps.
R: If you can combine this with enjoyment, then so much the better.
S : You will soon get bored of it.
(a) PRSQ (b) PSRQ (c) QRPS (d) RPSQ
39. S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager of a shop.
S6: Never before had Lincoln has so much time for reading as he had then.
P : Then a chance customer would come.
Q: Young Lincoln’s way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone else’s.
R : Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his needs.
S : He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.
(a) QPSR (b) QSPR (c) SQRP (d) SRQP
40. S1: The domestic cat is a contradiction in itself.

S6: Hence it has won such a reputation for obedience and loyalty.
P : But the adult pet dog also sees its human family as the dominant members of the pack.
Q: Nursed in kittenhood it develops extraordinary intimacy with mankind.
R : The dog, like the pet cat, sees its owners as pseudo-parents.
S : At the same time, however, the cat continues to retain its independence.
(a) QSPR (b) QSRP (c) SQPR (d) SQRP
SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
41. Global warming is expected to result in
(a) increase in level of sea. (b) change in crop pattern.
(c) change in coast line (d) All of the above.
42. Which from the following in not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up?
(a) Savings increases (b) Lending decreases
(c) Cost of production increases (d) Return on capital increases.
43. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of

(a) brain (b) liver (c) kidney (d) spleen
44. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is
(a) 82 (b) 92 (c) 72 (d) 98
45. Aspirin is common name of

(a) salicylic acid (b) salicylate (c) methyl salicylic (d) acetyl salicylic acid.
46. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities?
(a) Mumbai (b) New Delhi (c) Bhopal (d) Kolkata.
47. When was our National Anthem first sung and where?
(a) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad (b) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(c) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta (d) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta.
48. Brain drain.

(a) is a disease
(b) refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions.
(c) is fruitless expenditure on scientific and industrial research.
(d) refers to emigration of skilled persons.
49. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag?
(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 18 (d) 14
50. The book It was Five Past Midnight is on

(a) Bhuj Earthquake (b) Orissa Floods (c) Andhra Cyclone (d) Bhopal Gas Tragedy.
51. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located?
(a) Alaknanda (b) Mandakini (c) Dhauli Ganga (d) Bhagirathi.
52. CTBT stands for

(a) Continued Test Ban Treaty (b) Continued Test Based Treatments.
(c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (d) Commercial Test Based Tariff.
53. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by

(a) Edward Stone (b) Le Corbusier (c) Edwin Lutyens. (d) Tarun Dutt.
54. Who wrote Akbarnnama?

(a) Akbar (b) Birbal (c) Abul Fazal (d) Bhagavan Das.
55. Fog is an example of

(a) gas dispersed in gas (b) liquid dispersed in gas
(c) solid dispersed in gas (d) solid dispersed in liquid.
56. Which one of the following represents the lines joining the places of equal rainfall?
(a) Isohypses (b) Isohalines (c) Isobars (d) Isohyets.
57. Equator represents

(a) line joining North and South poles.
(b) imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(c) a belt (ring) around the planet Saturn.
(d) axis of rotation of Earth.
58. India recently signed Mutual Legal Assistance Agreement with-

(a) China (b) South Africa (c) Hong Kong (d) Afghanistan
59. How many countries, so far, have signed the Civil Nuclear Pact with India?
(a) Six (b) Seven (c) Five (d) Four
60. The Union Cabinet has recently approved amendment to-

(a) Prevention of Corruption Act 1947
(b) Delhi Police Establishment Act 1946
(c) Transplantation of Human Organs Act 1994
(d) None of the above.
61. The National Mission for Female Literacy launched on September 8, 2009 by the Government of India
aims at making 70 million people – 60 million of them women-functionally literate by the year-
(a) 2015 (b) 2012 (c) 2014 (d) 2010
62. In 2011, the G-20 summit will be held in-

(a) Germany (b) France (c) Italy (d) U.S.A.
63. Bundestag is-

(a) Italy’s Parliament (b) Germany’s Parliament
(c) France’s Parliament (d) None of the above
64. Which of the following state Legislative Assemblies presently has no opposition member?
(a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (c) Sikkim (d) Tripura.
65. Irina Bokova is the new chief/ head of-

(a) IAEA (b) UNESCO (c) INTERPOL (d) None of the above
66. The first US Special Representative to Muslim Communities recently appointed by Obama administration
is-
(a) Irina Bokova (b) Farah Pandith
(c) Ali Abdussalam Treki (d) None of the above
67. Yugratna Srivastava – a 13 year old girl from Lunknow-recently addressed UN meet on-
(a) Chimate Change (b) Terror (c) Human Rights (d) Poverty
68. Under 55th National Film Award 2007, the Best Feature Film Award has been bagged by-
(a) Taare Zameen Par (b) Gandhi My Father (c) Kanchivaram (d) Chak De India
69. The present day calendar is based in-
(a) Julian Calendar (b) Gregorian Calendar
(c) Jewish Calendar (d) Muhammadan Calendar
70. The 1st Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State was-

(a) Vijay Lakshmi Pandi (b) Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Nandini Satipathi (d) Sarojini Naidu.
71. In Indian currency, the One Rupee Note is issued under the signature of-
(a) Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(b) President of India
(c) Finance Secretary, Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(d) Finance Minister, Govt. of India.
72. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year-
(a) 2012 (b) 2015 (c) 2018 (d) 2020
73. The smallest bone of our body is found in our-

(a) Ear (b) Nose (c) Eye (d) Toe
74. India is not a member of-

(a) Commonwealth of Nations (b) SAARC
(c) NAM Organisation (d) Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation Organization
75. ELISA Test is carried out for detection of-

(a) Aids (b) Typhoid (c) Cancer (d) Pregnancy
76. Which of the following institutions is the apex body responsible for overall development, policy, planning
and financial support for agriculture rural development?
(a) National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development
(b) National Agriculture Cooperative Marketing Federation of India
(c) Indian Farmers’ Fertilisers Cooperative Organisation
(d) Reserve Bank of India
(e) Regional Rural Bank.
77. The term ‘Paper Gold’ refers to

(a) paper currency (b) gold of highest purity. (c) Special Drawing Rights.
(d) oil bonds. (e) yellow shining paper.
78. Who among the following is responsible for the execution of the export and import policies of the
Government of India?
(a) Chairman, State Trading Corporation (b) Director-General of Trade and Commerce
(c) Chief Controller of Imports and Exports (d) Finance Commission (e) Ministry of Commerce.
79. Which of the following is/are the functions of the Securities and Exchange Board of India?
I. To register and regulate collective Investment plans of mutual funds.
II. To regulate the business of stock exchanges and other securities market.
III. To safeguard the interests of investors.
IV. To regulate capital market with suitable measures.
(a) I and III only (b) II and IV only (c) I, II and III only (d) II, III and IV only (e) All I, II, III and IV
80. Which of the following is a function of the National Development Council?

(a) To review the working of the National Plan from time to time.
(b) To fix the targets of growth for various economy sectors.
(c) To prepare a general framework of the Five Year Plan.
(d) To see to the implementation of the plan
(e) None of these.
81. Poverty is estimated by the Planning Commission on the basis of the large sample surveys on household
consumer expenditure.
This survey is conducted by the
(a) National Statistical Organisation.
(b) National Sample Survey Organisation
(c) National Commission on enterprises in the Unorganised Sector.
(d) Centre for Monitoring Indian Economy.
(e) National Family Health Survey.
82. Which of the following is the main source of revenue for State governments in the Indian Union?
(a) Income tax and excise duty (b) Land revenue and sales tax
(c) Motor vehicle tax (d) Building tax (e) Profession tax.
83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Books) (Authors)
I. The Song of India (A) Jhumpa Lahiri
II. Nineteen Eighty Four (B) Harold Laski
III. The Namesake (C) Sarojini Naidu
IV. The Problems of Sovereignty (D) George Orwell
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A (b) I-D, II-C, III-, IV-A (c) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
(d) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B (e) I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D
84. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is given to the States for

(a) improving the Centre-State relationship
(b) reducing regional imbalances.
(c) various development schemes and rehabilitation purposes.
(d) welfare of SCs and STs.
(e) improving the development of backward areas.
85. The fundamental aim of Sarvodaya is

(a) to reform the dacoits (b) to help the Harijans.
(c) the upliftment of the poor (d) the elevation of all the sections of the society.
(e) to show mercy towards all.
86. Which of the following is the maximum revenue source of village panchayats?
(a) Government grants (b) Sales tax (c) Voluntary help by village cooperatives
(d) Local taxes on lands, fairs and festivals (e) Profit from village panchayat initiatives.
87. Which of the following event is not correctly matched?

(a) Liberation of Goa -1961 (b) Death of Jawaharlal Nehru – 1966 (c) First General Elections – 1952
(d) Indo-China War – 1971. (e) Indo-Pak War – 1971.
88. The impact of the Green Revolution has been mainly felt in
(a) pulses. (b) cereals (c) vegetables (d) fruits (e) All of these.
89. Which of the following States tops the list of sugarcane producing States in India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Bihar (e) Uttar Pradesh.
90. Which of the following was not a leap year?

(a) 1904 (b) 1926 (c) 1932 (d) 1988 (e) 1996
SECTION – III: MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

Directions (Q. 91 – 92): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?
91. 93% of 456 =?

(a) 435.06 (b) 419.02 (c) 443.04 (d) 424.08 (e) None of these
92. 253 × 43 – 8002 = (?)2

(a) 360000 (b) 60000 (c) 3600 (d) 6000 (e) None of these
93. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 106. What is the product of B & D?
(a) 11440 (b) 11024 (c) 10608 (d) 11232 (e) None of these.
94. The difference between 63% of a number and 45% of the same number is 352. What is 78% of that
number?
95. The owner of a call phone shop charges his customer 23% more than the cost price. If a customer paid
Rs.7,011/- for a cell phone, then what was the cost price of the cell phone?
(a) Rs.5,845 (b) Rs.6,750 (c) Rs.5,900 (d) Rs.6925 (e) None of these.
96. A car covers a distance of 1450 kms. in 25 hours. What is the speed of the car?
(a) 58 kms./hr. (b) 66 kms/hr. (c) 72 kms./hr. (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these
97. The average age of a man and his son is 40 years. The ratio of their ages is 7:3 respectively. What is the
man’s age?
(a) 70 years (b) 63 years (c) 56 years (d) 49 years (e) None of these
98. A canteen requires 28 dozen bananas for a week. How many dozen bananas will it require for 47 days?
99. The total number of students in a school is 5050. If the number of girls in the school is 2450, then what is
the respective ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in the school?
(a) 49:52 (b) 51:50 (c) 50:51 (d) 52:49 (e) None of these
100. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question?
4780 ÷ 296 × (23)2 =?
(a) 9870 (b) 6760 (c) 7590 (d) 3430 (e) 8540
101. Sumit invests Rs.4,762/- which is 25% of his monthly income, in insurance policies. What is his monthly
income?
(a) Rs.28,572/- (b) Rs.23,810/- (c) Rs.19,048/- (d) Rs.14,285/- (e) None of these
102. In an examination Shalini scores a total of 436 marks out of 625. What is her approximate percentage in the
examination?
(a) 83 (b) 65 (c) 82 (d) 78 (e) 70
103. There are 2010 employees in an organization. Out of which 30% got transferred to different places. How
many such employees are there who got transferred?
104. Find the average of the following set of scores:

125, 133, 298, 345, 446, 507
(a) 312 (b) 309 (c) 315 (d) 306 (e) None of these.
105. What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square?
106. If an amount of Rs.85,602/- is distributed equally amongst 33 persons. How much amount would each
person get?
(a) Rs.2,594 (b) Rs.2,954 (c) Rs.2,549 (d) Rs.2,495 (e) None of these
107. What would be the simple interest obtained on an amount of Rs.8,930/- at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. after 5
years?
(a) Rs.5,413/- (b) Rs.2,678/- (c) Rs.3,572/- (d) Rs.4,752/- (e) None of these
1 2 3 5 11
108. If the fractions , , , and are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the
5 7 5 6 13
fourth?
11 2 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) None of these
13 7 6 5
109. Ms. Vishakha deposits an amount of Rs.35,800/- to obtain a simple interest at the rate of 15 p.c.p.a. for 4
years. What total amount will Ms. Vishakha get at the end of 4 years?
(a) Rs.45,680/- (b) Rs.39,880 (c) Rs.21,480 (d) Rs.57,280/- (e) None of these.
110. The cost of 12 Chairs and 15 Tables is Rs.58,968/-. What is the cost of 4 Chairs and 5 Tables?
(a) Rs.19,656 (b) Rs.29,484 (c) Rs.39,312 (d) Cannot be determined (e) None of these.
SECTION – IV: LOGICAL REASONING

111. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to that group?
(a) Horse (b) Dog (c) Camel (d) Cow (e) Fox
112. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in
each word?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) More than three
113. In a certain code RUST is written as QVRU. How is LINE written in that code?
(a) KJMF (b) KJLI (c) KMJF (d) KJME (e) None of these
114. If the letters in the word DOLPHIN are rearranged as they appear in English alphabetical order, which of
the following letters, will be the fifth from left?
(a) O (b) D (c) I (d) L (e) None of these
115. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the alpha order given below?
CBAACBAABCBAABCCBAAB?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
116. In a certain code ‘ke pa lo ti’ means ‘lamp is burning bright’ and ‘lo si ti ba ke’ means ‘bright light is from
lamp’. Which of the following is the code for ‘burning’ in that language?
(a) si (b) pa (c) ti (d) ke (e) None of these
117. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters
between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) More than four
118. The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the English
alphabetic series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the question
mark?
AD, FC, HK, MJ, ?
(a) NQ (b) OQ (c) OR (d) MP (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 119 – 120): A, B, C and D live on floors 3 to 6 of the same six storeyed building. A lives on
fourth floor. Only one person lives on the floor between A and B. C does not live on a floor above A’s floor.
119. Who lives on a floor immediately above B’s floor?

(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) A or C (e) B lives on top floor.
120. Who lives on the fifth floor?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 121-123): Study the arrangement of letters and digits given below and answer the questions
which follow:
Q23B9V5LSRFP
121. If one is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following will be the fourth to the right of the
tenth from the right?
122. If first all the digits are arranged in descending order and then the letters are arranged in alphabetic order,
the position of how many digits and alphabets will remain unchanged?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these
123. If each of the consonants in the above arrangement is replaced by the letter preceding it in the alphabetic
series, how many vowels will be obtained?
(a) Nil (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four
124. In a certain code ‘EXPERT’ is written as ‘$Z%$Q5’ and ‘PETROL’ is written as ‘%$5Q#9’. How will
‘EXPLORE’ be written in that code?
(a) $Z%9Q#$ (b) $Z%9#Q$ (c) $Z%9#$Q (d) $Z%9$#Q (e) None of these
125. Sunil walks towards the East from point A, turns right at point B and walks the same distance as he walked
towards the East. He now turns left, walks the same distance again and finally makes a left turn and stops at
point C after walking the same distance. The distance between A and C is how many times as that of A and
B?
(a) Cannot be determined (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (d) None of these.
Directions (Q. 126 – 130): To answer these questions study carefully the following arrangement of
symbols, digits and letters.
W%93G6H#7K$L2*BMJ©45E8@Z
126. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the following will be seventh to
the left of sixth form the right?
(a) H (b) J (c) M (d) $ (e) None of these
127. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a
symbol?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (e) None of these
128. ‘9W’ is to ‘GH#’ and ‘$7’ is to ‘2BM’ in the same way as ‘4J’ is to ______ in the arrangement.
(a) E@8 (b) 58® (c) B2L (d) 58Z (e) None of these
129. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a
letter?
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three (e) None of these.
130. If all the symbols are deleted from the above arrangement then which of the following will be the fourth to
the left of twelfth from the right?
(a) 9 (b) 3 (c) W (d) M (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 131 – 135): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and
Give answer a) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer b) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer c) if the data in both the Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer d) if the data in both the Statement I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer e) if the data in both the Statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
131. Is the child holding a yellow coloured flower?

I. When the thorn of the flower pricked his finger, the colour of the blood matched that of the flower.
II. The child is carrying a rose in his hand.
132. Who among M, N, P and R is facing North?

I. Only one among the four faces North.
II. M and N face West while P is facing South.
133. Is it afternoon in Delhi?

I. The weather is bright, humid and hot in Delhi.
II. Thirteen hours ago it was midnight in Delhi.
134. Who among P, Q, R, S and T, each having different height, is the tallest?
I. T is shorter only than R and S
II. Q is not as tall as P and is shorter than R and S.
135. How is D related to B?

I. D is the sister of B’s only sister’s son.
II. D is sister of Q, whose mother has only two siblings – a brother A and a sister B.
Directions (Q. 136 – 140): Study the following information and answer the questions which follow:
(i) K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting along a circular table facing the centre.
(ii) L sits between N and O.
(iii) K is third to the left of O.
(iv) Q is second to the left of M, who is to the immediate left of P.
136. Which of the following pairs has the first person sitting to the immediate left of the second person?
(a) LO (b) MK (c) QN (d) LN (e) None of these.
137. Which is the correct position of L with respect to Q?

(a) Second to the right (b) First to the left (c) First to the right
(d) Third to the right (e) None of these.
138. Which of the following has the middle person sitting between the other two?
(a) NQL (b) PMK (c) POK (d) MOP (e) None of these
139. Who sits, second to the left of L?

(a) P (b) M (c) K (d) Q (e) None of these
140. Who sits between M and Q?

(a) O (b) N (c) K (d) L (e) None of these
Directions (Q. 141 – 145): In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three
statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and—
Give answer a) if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer b) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer c) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
Give answer d) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
Give answer e) if both conclusions I and II are true.
141. Statements: All buildings are roads.

All roads are trucks.
All trucks are mountains.
Conclusion: I. Some buildings are mountains.
II. Some mountains are roads.
142. Statements: Some poles are lights.
All lights are bulbs.
Some bulbs are wires.
Conclusion: I. Some poles are bulbs.
II. Some lights are wires.
143. Statements: All erasers are pencils.

Some pencils are pens.
No pen is a paper.
Conclusion: I. Some erasers are papers.
II. No paper is an eraser.
144. Statements: Some spoons are bowls.

Some pans are both spoons and bowls.
Some forks are bowls.
Conclusion: I. Some forks are spoons.
II. Some pans are forks.
145. Statements: All boxes are tables.

All windows are tables.
All tables are fans.
Conclusion: I. All windows are fans.
II. Some tables are boxes.
Directions (Q.146 - 148): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions I
an II . An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the
statement. Give answer
a) if only assumption I is implicit.
b) if only assumption II is implicit.
c) if either I or II is implicit.
d) if neither I nor II is implicit.
e) if both I and II are implicit.
146. Statement: The DTC has the lowest fares in the country and perhaps, as a consequence, provides also the
worst city bus service anywhere.
Assumptions:
I. The fare of buses depends on the prices of diesel oil.
II. The increased fare will improve the services provided by DTC buses.
147. Statement: Infiltration of criminals into politics is a dangerous development and the voters should oppose
such candidates irrespective of their party labels.
Assumptions:
I. Criminals can fight elections.
II. Even big national parties grant tickets to criminals.
148. Statement: If a doctor’s degree is your ambition, than the choice of a good guidance institution is half the
job done.
Assumptions:
I. Without proper guidance, it is very hard to be a doctor.
II. Institute alone can’t help a student in his success.
Directions(Q. 149 – 151): Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You
have to decide which of the arguments is a Strong argument and which is a weak argument. Give
answer.
a) if only argument I is strong
b) if only argument II is strong
c) if either I or II is strong
d) if neither I nor II is strong; and
e) if both I and II are strong.
149. Statement: Should legal professionals of India have the right to go on strike?
Arguments:
I. No, India is already facing a backlog of about three crore cases countrywide due to frequent strikes
of lawyers. Another strike will only enhance the grievances of the aggrieved clients.
II. Yes, legal professionals are also a part of our society. If they feel that their dignity, independence
and integrity has been lowered, strike would be the only meaningful weapon for them
150. Statement: Should citizens of India have the right to access information from the government?
Arguments:
I. Yes, more than twenty countries have equipped their citizens with the right to access information
from their respective governments.
II. Yes, the move would provide openness in government functioning and ensure transparency and
accountability in it.
151. Statement: Should a rapist be sentenced to life imprisonment in India?

Arguments:
I. Yes, there is an enormous increase in incidence of rape and crime against women all over India and
the existing provisions for punishment are not so stringent that the cases of rapes can be reduced.
II. Yes, punishment for rape should be more than that for murder as the rape victim suffers for her
entire life.
Directions(Q. 152 – 155): In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two
conclusions and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt form the
information given in the statement. Give answer
a) if only conclusion I follows
b) if only conclusion II follows
c) if either I or II follows
d) if neither I nor II follows, and
e) if both I and II follow.
152. Statement: The pollution-related problem made the people of country X realize that while economic
growth was important, environment conservation was also necessary.
Conclusions:
I. Initially, the people of country ‘X’ concentrated only on economic growth of the country
II. Economic growth has been achieved at the cost of environmental balance.
153. Statement: Delhiites have a dream. No traffic jams, no pollution and less noisy commuting. Now, thanks
to the Delhi Metro Rail Project, this dream is close to being realized.
Conclusions:
I. At present, Delhi is suffering terribly from traffic jams, pollution and noise.
II. Delhi Metro Rail Project will be helpful in overcoming these problems.
154. Statement: Rajshree productions’ 1994 smash hit film A played to packed houses for more than six
months while the company’s equally-hyped recently-released film B suffered a steep drop after just two
weeks.
Conclusions:
I. Video-CD piracy is killing the theatrical market
II. Both film A and film B were based on similar stories.
155. Statement: In India if one can grease the palm of a policeman, one can violate any law and rule, be it on
traffic or on chasing animals for sport or profit.
Conclusions:
I. Indian police is corrupt.
II. Chasing animals for sport or profit is considered as violative of laws is India.
SECTION – V: LEGAL APTITUDE

156. Federal Constitution with strong centralizing tendency is found in the constitution of
(a) U.S.A. (b) Canada (c) Australia (d) New Zealand
157. Whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Finance Minister (c) Prime Minister (d) President
158. The Constitution of the India was adopted on

(a) Nov. 26, 1949 (b) Aug. 15, 1947 (c) Jan. 26, 1949 (d) Nov. 26, 1948
159. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly was
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabbhai Patel
160. One third members of the Rajya Sabha retire

(a) every two years (b) every three year (c) every year (d) None of the above
161. Who looks after the day-to-day administration of a union territory?

(a) The President (b) the union Home Minister (c) the Lt. Governor (d) None of the above
162. Which provision of the Indian constitution finds similarities is the US constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Rule of Law
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Rigid constitution.
163. The Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom to the people. Which Article actually gives this
right?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 14 (c) Article 9 (d) Article 372.
164. In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired?

(a) by descent (b) by naturalization (c) by registration (d) All of these.
165. A contract implied by law is known as

(a) contingent contact (b) quasi contract (c) expressed contract (d) implied contract.
166. A contract which is vitiated by undue influence is declared as which one of the following by the Indian
Contract Act?
(a) Invalid (b) Void (c) Illegal (d) Voidable
167. In Indian polity, the ultimate sovereignty rests with the
(a) President (b) People (c) Parliament (d) the Constitution.
168. ‘Satyameva Jayate’ has been taken from the

(a) Mandek Upanishad (b) Rig Veda (c) Natya Sutra (d) None of these.
169. Simple majority in voting is enough to amend provisions relating to

(a) citizenship (b) creation and abolition of a state
(c) administration of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes (d) all the above.
170. The 45th amendment of the Indian Constitution relates to the

(a) Minorities Commission (b) Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(c) Extension of reservation of seats for SC and ST (d) None of the above.
171. The head of the Council of Ministers in a state is the

(a) Governor (b) Chief Minister (c) Chief Secretary (d) None of these.
172. The Indian Constitution is regarded as

(a) federal (b) unitary (c) parliamentary (d) federal in form and unitary in spirit.
173. The judicial powers of the Governor do not include the right to
(a) be consulted by the President about the appointment of State High Court Judges
(b) grant pardon
(c) remit punishment or suspend the sentence
(d) pardon death sentence
174. The National Anthem was written by

(a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee (d) Aurobindo Ghosh
175. The President of India appoints Judges of the Supreme Court after consultation with
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) the Prime Minister
(c) Law Minister in the Union Cabinet (d) the Chief Justice of the High Courts.
176. Who among the following can create a new State in the Indian Union?
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Union Cabinet (d) any two or more States combined
177. Members of the Union Public Service Commission of India hold office
(a) for 6 years
(b) for 8 years
(c) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier
(d) 5 years or up to the age of 60 years whichever is earlier
178. The act of adopting a foreigner and making him a citizen of the country for all purposes through a legal
process is called
(a) dual citizenship (b) PIO (Persons of Indian Origin) Status
(c) naturalization (d) right of re-entry
179. Who appoints the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(a) President (b) Prime Minister
(c) Elected by Lok Sabha (d) Elected by Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
180. Who is vested with the power of superintendence, direction and control of election in India?
(a) Supreme Court (b) President of India
(c) Election Commission (d) Chief Election Commissioner
181. Match the following in Indian context

(A) Chief Election Commissioner (1) Elected by Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (2) Elected by Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of the PAC (3) Appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker
(D) Speaker (4) Appointed by the President
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
182. There was a Constitutional amendment in India arising out of the Shah Bano case – Muslim Women
(Protection of Rights) on Divorce Act, 1986
(a) True (b) False (c) Partly true (d) None of the above
183. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha in Parliament of India will vacate his office
(a) as soon as the Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) when the President asks him to vacate
(c) immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha
(d) when a vote of no confidence is passed against the ruling party
184. Right to Education in the Indian Constitution provided under the Chapter, Fundamental Rights pertains to
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 21A (c) Article 21B (d) Article 21C
185. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision for impeachment of
(a) the President (b) the Chief Justice of India (c) the Vice-President (d) the Governor
186. Who administers oath office of a Governor of an Indian State?

(a) Chief Justice of High Court (b) President of India
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (d) Advocate General of State
187. The 42nd Amendment of Constitution of India raised the term of Lok Sabha to
(a) five years (b) seven years (c) six years (d) nine years
188. When an advance grant is made by the Parliament of India pending regular passage of the Budget, it is
called
(a) Token grant (b) Vote on account (c) Supplementary (d) Vote on credit
189. The member of Rajya Sabha in Parliament of India are

(a) elected indirectly (b) mostly nominated (c) elected directly as well as indirectly
(d) elected by the members of the legislative assemblies and legislative council of States
190. A Money Bill in India

(a) cannot be introduced in the Council of States (b) needs to be certified as such by the President
(c) can be amended by the Council of States (d) both (a) and (b)
191. PRINCIPLE: Ignorance of law is no excuse.

FACTUAL SITUATION: A fails to file his income-tax returns for five years. The Income Tax
department issues to him notice to show cause as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him for
the recovery of the income-tax due from him with penalty and interest. Advise A.
DECISION:
(a) A may request the department to waive the interest and penalty as he was not aware
(b) A must pay the tax dues as ignorance cannot be pleaded as a ground of defence
(c) A may request the Court to excuse him as his advocate had told him that he is not liable to pay taxes.
(d) None of these
192. PRINCIPLE: The obligation to maintain parents who are unable to maintain themselves which was
moral upto 1973 has now been made legal.
FACTUAL SITUATION: After her marriage Dr. Vijaya continued her medical practice but she no longer
maintained her old parents who were sick and bedridden and had no other means. They sued their daughter
for maintenance.
DECISION:
(a) They will not succeed as Dr. Vijaya is now married
(b) They will not succeed because Dr. Vijiya’s responsibility is now towards her husband and his parents
(c) They will succeed because a daughter after her marriage does not cease to be the daughter of these
(d) None of these
193. PRINCIPLE: Any person using force to obtain the consent of the other party, to a contract causes
coercion. If coercion is caused in a contract, the party against whom the coercion is committed may
terminate the contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X, on gunpoint, compels Y to sign a sale agreement of a property. X, did not
use the gun and thereby no shot was fired from gun, Y moved backward and held the sale agreement and
signs. Can Y afterwards avoid the contract?
DECISION:
(a) Yes, because he signed the sale agreement on coercion
(b) Yes, because the gun was original one
(c) No, because X has not fired
(d) No, because he signed by his own hand and X did not hold his hand
194. PRINCIPLE: Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or right
over or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment envisaged herein should be normal and
reasonable taking into account surrounding situation.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sujata and Nirmala were neighbours in a residential locality. Sujata started a
typing class in a part of her house and this typing sound disturbed Nirmala who could not put up with any
kind of continuous noise. She filed a suit against Sujata:
DECISION:
(a) Sujata is liable because she should not have started typing classes in his house
(b) Sujata is liable because as a neighbour she should have realized Nirmala’s delicate nature
(c) Sujata is not liable because typing sound did not disturb anyone else than Nirmala
(d) Sujata is not liable because typing does not interfere with another person’s use/ enjoyment of land or
right over or in connection with it
195. PRINCIPLE: An employer is responsible for any accident or loss caused to his employees, during the
course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Ravi Menon runs the ‘African Circus’. The circus has an interesting night
show. Two motor cyclists, Rohit and Mohit, rotate their motorcycles inside a big iron globe in complete
darkness. And the audience, especially the children give a big clap. One day it so happens that during one
night show an accident occurs inside the globe. Rohit an Mohit collide with each other and Rohit loses both
his legs. His parents claim compensation from Ravi Menon, the proprietor of the circus.
DICISION:
(a) Ravi is not liable to pay any compensation because he cannot be held responsible for the accident
(b) Ravi is liable to pay compensation because he is the employer and the accident occurred during the
course of employment
(c) Ravi is not liable to pay any compensation but he can pay some amount to Rohit if he has sympathy for
him
(d) None of the above
196. PRINCIPLE: If any person intentionally contaminates any source of public water in such a way that
it becomes non-consumable, he shall be punished.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Rahul owns a chemical factory in Delhi. During the process of making
chemicals the factory drains out a lot of sewage. In course of time the chemicals contained in the sewage
contaminated the source of underground water.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the following.
DECISION:
(a) Rahul has committed offence because such contamination is due to working of his employees
(b) Rahul has committed an offence because his factory is liable for contaminating the ground water, and
he owns the factory
(c) Rahul has not committed an offence
(d) None of the above
197. PRINCIPLE: It is settled principle that an occupier should not do a dangerous act without adequate
warning if he knows or suspects that a trespasser is present.
FACTUAL SITUATION: ‘A’ was cutting a large tree on his land. Some boys were fooling about nearby.
‘A’ paid no attention as the boys were clearly trespassers, when the tree fell, one of the boys was hit by a
branch and suffered injury.
DECISION:
(a) The boy was illegally present and cannot have the protection of law
(b) ‘A’ was liable as he did not give warning of the danger likely to arise by the felling of tree although he
knew that the boy was present
(c) ‘A’ is not liable as there is no duty to do good and warning a person entering illegally on the premises
(d) ‘A’ was carrying out his lawful profession on his own land and anyone came there, at his peril. Hence
‘A’ was not liable.
198. PRINCIPLE: An occupier is liable to a trespasser in respect of some willful act intended to cause
harm or done with reckless disregard.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A farm house belonging to Thotappa had its fencing electrified. The object was
to ensure that the farm was secured from any wild animals in the vicinity. There was a clear warning about
the electrified fencing. A cricket ball hit from a nearby play ground fell within the farm. Muthanna, the
coach conducting the summer camp for school going children there, attempted to jump the fence to retrieve
the ball, got injured on account of the electric shock sustained. Muthanna files a suit against Thotappa for
relief.
DECISION:
(a) Thotappa will not be liable, because Muthanna was a trespasser.
(b) Thotappa will not be liable, because he had given sufficient warning about electric fence.
(c) Thotappa will be liable, because he must have taken note of the adjacent playground.
199. PRINCIPLE: Every person has a right to complete immunity of his person from physical
interference of others, except in sofar as the contract may be necessary under the general doctrine of
privilege.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A cancer patient, undergoing treatment in a hospital, reached the terminal
stage. It was clear to everyone including the personal physician of the patient that the end was near. At that
stage, the specialist doctor, in charge of the treatment, administered a drug which was at the stage of
experimentation without the consent of the patient. The experiment had established that the drug could
control the spread of cancer cells to some extent. The patient died soon after. When the relatives of the
patient came to know about this incident, they filed a suit against the hospital and the doctor charging them
for assault and battery, i.e. unjustified physical interference.
DECISION:
(a) The doctor is liable, since he has acted without the consent of the patient.
(b) The doctor is not liable, since he was motivated by the welfare of the patient.
(c) The doctor is not liable, since it was in the general public interest that the new drugs should be
developed.
200. PRINCIPLE: A person, intentionally causing harm to others, is liable for battery. A person is said to
have intended the harm, in sofar as the brings about the harm purposefully or knowingly.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A teacher suffering from arthritis problem was moving around the class room
in the course of teaching. As she was moving backwards to reach her chair, a student saw a scorpion
moving underneath the chair and immediately rushed to attack the scorpion and in, that process, moved the
chair. Meanwhile, the teacher fell down in the process of taking her seat and broke her hips. A suit was
filed against the student for battery.
DECISION:
(a) The student is not liable, since he wanted to save the teacher and others from the scorpion.
(b) The student is liable, since he knew that the teacher would be taking her seat.
(c) The student should be held additionally liable for the lack of attention to the teaching.
Answer key
Q. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Ans. D A A D D A A D B B
Q. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
Ans. B A B B B C B C D B
Q. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Ans. C A D B B A B A B B
Q. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
Ans. A A B A B B C D B B
Q. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
Ans. D B B C D B D D B D
Q. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
Ans. D C C C B D B C A C
Q. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
Ans. B B B C B B A C B B
Q. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80.
Ans. C B A D A A C C E A
Q. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90.
Ans. B B D D C D B B E B
Q. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.
Ans. D E D B E A C E A E
Q. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
Ans. C E A B E A C B D A
Q. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
Ans. E D A E C B D C E D
Q. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
Ans. A D E B B A C E D B
Q. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
Ans. A E B E C D E B A C
Q. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
Ans. E A C D E B E E A B
Q. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160.
Ans. E E E D E A A A C A
Q. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170.
Ans. A A A D B D B A D C
Q. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180.
Ans. B D D B A B C C A C
Q. 181. 182. 183. 184. 185. 186. 187. 188. 189. 190.
Ans. D A C B D A C B A A
Q. 191. 192. 193. 194. 195. 196. 197. 198. 199. 200.
Ans. B C A D B B B B A A

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Gateway to Law Schools Sample Test Paper/CLAT-2010

Batch: ____________________________ Total Marks: 200

Section – I: 40 Questions 40 Marks

Total number of Maximum

6. He has propensity for getting into debt.

7. That case is not amenable to ordinary rules.

8. As they whispered, I felt awkward in their company.

10. He tried to cajole her, but it was in vain.

11. The most appropriate heading for the passage could be

12. Effective time management means

13. As per the passage, a manager is a

14. For time management one needs to focus on

15. As per passage, preparing time log is

16. As per the passage, the sundial was used to

18. As per passage, time log is for

19. The doctor gave the medicine to ………………… the pain.

20. Only the honest person ……….. first stone.

24. (a) go (b) was (c) would be (d) upon

25. (a) by (b) for (c) at (d) from

26. (a) Deriving (b) Securing (c) Drawing (d) Preparing

27. (a) fixed (b) hit (c) got (d) constant

28. (a) drew (b) made (c) painted (d) make

29. (a) surprise (b) twist (c) suspense (d) suspension.

30. (a) coming (b) emerging (c) appearing (d) watching

31. (a) maintained (b) held (c) clung (d) parade

37. S1: He could not rise.

40. S1: The domestic cat is a contradiction in itself.

43. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of

45. Aspirin is common name of

48. Brain drain.

50. The book It was Five Past Midnight is on

52. CTBT stands for

53. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by

54. Who wrote Akbarnnama?

55. Fog is an example of

57. Equator represents

58. India recently signed Mutual Legal Assistance Agreement with-

60. The Union Cabinet has recently approved amendment to-

62. In 2011, the G-20 summit will be held in-

63. Bundestag is-

65. Irina Bokova is the new chief/ head of-

70. The 1st Woman Chief Minister of an Indian State was-

73. The smallest bone of our body is found in our-

74. India is not a member of-

75. ELISA Test is carried out for detection of-

77. The term ‘Paper Gold’ refers to

80. Which of the following is a function of the National Development Council?

84. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is given to the States for

85. The fundamental aim of Sarvodaya is

87. Which of the following event is not correctly matched?

90. Which of the following was not a leap year?

SECTION – III: MATHEMATICAL ABILITY

91. 93% of 456 =?

92. 253 × 43 – 8002 = (?)2

104. Find the average of the following set of scores:

SECTION – IV: LOGICAL REASONING

119. Who lives on a floor immediately above B’s floor?

120. Who lives on the fifth floor?

131. Is the child holding a yellow coloured flower?

132. Who among M, N, P and R is facing North?

133. Is it afternoon in Delhi?