NEET Physics

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
EE
CHLAA
Time : 3 hrs. Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
For
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-EE) CHLAA
1. At what temperature will the rms speed of 3. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for between the freezing point and boiling point of
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere? water, is
(Given : (1) 26.8%
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg (2) 6.25%
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1) (3) 20%
(1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 12.5%
(3) 8.360 × 104 K (4) 1.254 × 104 K Answer ( 1 )
 T 
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
 T1 
S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
T2 : Sink temperature
Say at temperature T it attains Vescape
T1 : Source temperature
3kB T
So,  11200 m/s  T 
mO2 %   1  2   100
 T1 
On solving,
 273 
4
  1   100
T = 8.360 × 10 K  373 
2. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

 100 
with its temperature (T), as shown in the    100  26.8%
 373 
graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a 4. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
change from state A to state B, is pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ
pipe is
(1) 13.2 cm
(2) 12.5 cm
(3) 8 cm
2 1 (4) 16 cm
(1) (2)
5 3
Answer ( 1 )
2 2 S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
(3) (4)
3 7
3v

Answer ( 1 ) 4l
S o l . Given process is isobaric For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency
dQ  n Cp dT v

2l 
5  Given,
dQ  n  R  dT
2  3v v

4l 2l 
dW  P dV = n RdT
4l 2l
 l  
dW nRdT 2 32 3
Required ratio   
dQ 5  5 2  20
n  R  dT   13.33 cm
2  3
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5. A metallic rod of mass per unit length So, resistance of galvanometer

0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth IS 51 5000
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° RG   3
  250 
VS 20  10 20
with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
8. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
slide down by flowing a current through it
between the poles of an electromagnet. When
when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
the current in the electromagnet is switched
acting on it in the vertical direction. The
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out
current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the
is
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The
(1) 7.14 A (2) 14.76 A work required to do this comes from
(3) 5.98 A (4) 11.32 A (1) The current source
Answer ( 4 ) (2) The lattice structure of the material of the
S o l . For equilibrium, rod
°
B 30 (3) The magnetic field
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co (4) The induced electric field due to the
mg llB
I tan30 ° changing magnetic field
lB 30 30° llB
n Answer ( 1 )
si
0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30° S o l . Energy of current source will be converted
0.25  3 into potential energy of the rod.
6. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a 9. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
resistor 50  are connected in series across voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power values of IB, IC and  are given by
loss in the circuit is
20 V
(1) 0.79 W (2) 2.74 W
(3) 0.43 W (4) 1.13 W RC 4 k
Answer ( 1 ) C
RB
V 
2 Vi
S o l . Pav   RMS  R 500 k B
 Z  E
2
 1 
Z  R2   L   56 
 C 
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
2
  (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
 
 2 56 
 
(3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
7. Current sensitivity of a moving coil (4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage Answer ( 4 )
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the S o l . VBE = 0
galvanometer is VCE = 0
(1) 40  (2) 250  Vb = 0
(3) 25  (4) 500  20 V
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Current sensitivity IC RC = 4 k
NBA RB
IS 
C Vi Vb
Ib 500 k
Voltage sensitivity
NBA
VS 
CRG
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(20  0) 12. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

IC  plane surface of a material of refractive index
4  103
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
Vi = VBE + IBRB perpendicular to each other. Which of the
Vi = 0 + IBRB following options is correct for this situation?
20 = IB × 500 × 103 (1) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector parallel to the plane of
20
IB   40 A incidence
500  103
IC 25  103  1
   125 (2) i  sin1  
Ib 40  106 
10. In the combination of the following gates the (3) Reflected light is polarised with its
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A electric vector perpendicular to the plane
and B as of incidence
A  1
(4) i  tan1  
B 
Y
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised
(1) A  B with electric field vector perpendicular to the
plane of incidence.
(2) A  B  A  B
(3) A  B  A  B
(4) A  B i
Answer ( 3 )
A
Sol. A AB 
B
B Y
A Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle)
AB 13. In Young's double slit experiment the
B separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
Y  (A  B  A  B) wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and
distance D between the screen and slits is
11. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
due to heating the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe
(1) Affects only reverse resistance angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the
(2) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction separation between the slits needs to be
changed to
(3) Affects only forward resistance
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 2.1 mm
(4) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction (3) 1.9 mm (4) 1.7 mm
Answer ( 4 ) Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs

will increase, so overall resistance of diode S o l . Angular width 
will change. d
Due to which forward biasing and reversed 

biasing both are changed. 0.20  …(i)
2 mm
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 E0
0.21  …(ii)
d V0
F
0.20 d
Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
Acceleration of electron
eE0
a
 d = 1.9 mm m
14. An astronomical refracting telescope will Velocity after time ‘t’
have large angular magnification and high  eE0 
angular resolution, when it has an objective V   V0  t
 m 
lens of
h h
(1) Small focal length and large diameter So,   
mV  eE 
m  V0  0 t
(2) Large focal length and large diameter  m 
(3) Large focal length and small diameter h 0
  …(ii)
(4) Small focal length and small diameter  eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t 1  t
Answer ( 2 )  mV0   mV0 
Divide (ii) by (i),
f
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification = 0 0
fE 
 eE0 
1  t
So, focal length of objective lens should be  mV 0 
large.
16. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10
D minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
Angular resolution = should be large. nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
1.22
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
So, objective should have large focal length (1) 20 (2) 30
(f0) and large diameter D.
(3) 10 (4) 15
15. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
Answer ( 1 )

V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
 n
N  1
E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its 
N0  2 
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-
t
Broglie wavelength at time t is
150  1  t 1/2

0 600  2 
(1)
 eE0  t
1 t 2
 mV0   1  1  t 1/2
2  2
(2) 0t    
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10
 eE0 
(3)  0  1  t = 20 minute
 mV0 
17. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
(4) 0
of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
Answer ( 1 ) atom, is
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : –1
h (3) 1 : –1 (4) 1 : –2
0  ...(i)
mV0
Answer ( 3 )
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S o l . KE = –(total energy) 1 1 1
–  –
So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1 15 v1 40
18. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is 1 1 1

  
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal v1 –15 40
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
v1 = –24 cm
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
maximum velocity of electrons emitted from mirror.
the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
Now,
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 4 : 1
u2 = –20
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
1 1 1
Answer ( 1 )  
f v2 u2
1
S o l . E  W0  mv2 1 1 1
2  –
–15 v2 20
1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
2 1 1 1
 –
1 v2 20 15
h 0  mv12 …(i)
2 v2 = –60 cm
1
h(50 )  h0  mv22 So, image shifts away from mirror by
2 = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
1
4h0  mv22 …(ii) 20. The refractive index of the material of a
2
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
Divide (i) by (ii),
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
1 v12 prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver

4 v22 coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
v1 1
 retrace its path (after reflection from the
v2 2 silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
19. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm the prism is
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. (1) 60° (2) 30°
If the object is displaced through a distance
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the (3) 45° (4) Zero
displacement of the image will be Answer ( 3 )
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror normally incident on silvered face.
(3) 36 cm away from the mirror
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror 30°
Answer ( 3 ) 60°
M
Sol. i 30°
f = 15 cm
O 40 cm
 2
Applying Snell's law at M,
1 1 1 sin i 2
  
f v1 u sin30 1
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1
 sin i  2 
2 I I
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45° (1) (2)
2
O O
21. An em wave is propagating in a medium with n n

a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
oscillating electric field of this em wave is I I
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
magnetic field of the em wave will be along (3) (4)
(1) –z direction O O
n n
(2) –y direction
Answer ( 1 )
(3) +z direction
n 
(4) –x direction Sol. I  
nr r
Answer ( 3 ) So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
    I
Sol. E  B  V

ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)

So, B  Bkˆ O
n
Direction of propagation is along +z direction. 24. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each,
22. The magnetic potential energy stored in a are connected in series to a battery of emf
'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of connected in parallel to the same battery.
inductance Then the current drawn from battery becomes
10 I. The value of 'n' is
(1) 0.138 H (2) 1.389 H (1) 10 (2) 20
(3) 138.88 H (4) 13.89 H (3) 11 (4) 9
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 4 )
E
S o l . Energy stored in inductor Sol. I  ...(i)
nR  R
1 2 E
U Ll 10 I  ...(ii)
2 R
R
1 n
25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2 Dividing (ii) by (i),
2
(n  1)R
25  2  106  10–3 10 
L 1 
3600  n  1 R
 
500 After solving the equation, n = 10

36 25. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
= 13.89 H marked with rings of different colours for its
identification. The colour code sequence will
23. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of be
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r'
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
each) which are connected in series. The
terminals of the battery are short-circuited (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
and the current I is measured. Which of the (3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
graphs shows the correct relationship (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
between I and n? Answer ( 3 )
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S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% 1 eE 2

Sol. h  t
 Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver 2 m
26. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 2hm
 t
a glass tube. The length of the air column in eE
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive  t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm proton.
of column length. If the frequency of the ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in smaller time.
air at 27ºC is 29. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
(1) 330 m/s (2) 350 m/s sufficiently high building and is moving freely
(3) 339 m/s (4) 300 m/s to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator.
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
Answer ( 3 )
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1] position. The time period of oscillation is
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2 (1) 2 s (2) 2 s
= 339.2 ms–1 (3)  s (4) 1 s
= 339 m/s Answer ( 3 )
27. The electrostatic force between the metal S o l . |a| = 2y
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
C having a charge Q and area A, is  20 = 2(5)
(1) Independent of the distance between the   = 2 rad/s
plates 2 2
T  s
(2) Proportional to the square root of the  2
distance between the plates 30. The power radiated by a black body is P and
(3) Linearly proportional to the distance it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
between the plates If the temperature of the black body is now
(4) Inversely proportional to the distance changed so that it radiates maximum energy
between the plates 3
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it
Answer ( 1 ) 4
becomes nP. The value of n is
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Q2 3 256
Fplate  (1) (2)
2A0 4 81
F is Independent of the distance between 4 81

plates. (3) (4)
3 256
28. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
Answer ( 2 )
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
directed electric field E. The direction of S o l . We know,
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
max T  constant (Wien's law)
magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
fall from rest in it through the same vertical So, max1 T1  max2 T2
distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is 3 0
 0 T  T
(1) Smaller 4
(2) 10 times greater 4
 T  T
(3) 5 times greater 3
4 4
(4) Equal P2  T   4 256
So,     
Answer ( 1 ) P1  T  3 81
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31. Two wires are made of the same material and 33. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
have the same volume. The first wire has normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
cross-sectional area A and the second wire 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of 100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
the first wire is increased by l on applying a 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
force F, how much force is needed to stretch sample, is
the socond wire by the same amount?
(1) 104.3 J
(1) 9 F
(2) 42.2 J
(2) 4 F
(3) 208.7 J
(3) 6 F
(4) 84.5 J
(4) F
S o l . Wire 1 : S o l . Q = U + W
F  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)

A, 3l
 U = 208.7 J
Wire 2 :
34. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
F
3A, l (2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
For wire 1,
(1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ
 F 
l    3l …(i)
 AY 
(2) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ
For wire 2,
(3) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
F l
Y
3A l (4) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
 F 
 l   l …(ii)
 3AY  Answer ( 4 )
From equation (i) & (ii), Sol. Y
 F   F 
l    3l   l
 AY   3AY  F
 F  9F A r  r0
P
32. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
r0
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced r
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
heat when the sphere attains its terminal X
O
velocity, is proportional to

(1) r3 (2) r5   (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
(3) r2 (4) r4 r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
Answer ( 2 )
2
 0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
î ˆj kˆ
VT  r 2
  0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
 Power  r 5 4 5 6
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NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-EE) CHLAA NEET
35. A student measured the diameter of a small N sin  = ma ...(i)

steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
N cos  = mg ...(ii)
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with
a
25 divisions above the reference level. If tan  
g
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is a = g tan 
(1) 0.521 cm
37. A toy car with charge q moves on a
(2) 0.053 cm frictionless horizontal plane surface under
the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
(3) 0.525 cm
Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
(4) 0.529 cm from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
that instant the direction of the field is
Answer ( 4 )
reversed. The car continues to move for two
S o l . Diameter of the ball more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
= MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
= 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004) respectively
= 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004 (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
= 0.529 cm (2) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
36. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown
in the figure. The wedge is given an (4) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The
relation between a and  for the block to Answer ( 3 )
remain stationary on the wedge is a –a
Sol. t = 0 t=1 t=2
A A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
m
C –a
t=3
–1
a v = –6 ms

C B 60
Acceleration a   6 ms2
1
g
(1) a  (2) a = g cos 
cosec  For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
g 1
(3) a  (4) a = g tan  S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
sin  2
Answer ( 4 ) For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
Sol. N cos 1
S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
N
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,

ma N sin 1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
(pseudo)  2
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
mg a
 3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
In non-inertial frame, 3
www.vedantu.com 10
Total distance travelled = 9 m Sol.

9
Average speed   3 ms 1 h
3 B
38. A moving block having mass m, collides with
vL
another stationary block having mass 4m. The A
lighter block comes to rest after collision. As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is energy will remain constant
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution
(e) will be T.M.EI =T.M.EF
1
(1) 0.5 0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
(2) 0.8
vL2
(3) 0.25 h
2g
(4) 0.4
For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . According to law of conservation of linear 5gR 5 5
h  R D
momentum, 2g 2 4
mv  4m  0  4mv  0 40. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin

circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
v
v  have the same mass M and radius R. They all
4 spin with the same angular speed  about
v their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
Relative velocity of separation 4 work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
e 
Relative velocity of approach v satisfy the relation
1 (1) WC > WB > WA

e  0.25
4 (2) WB > WA > WC
39. A body initially at rest and sliding along a (3) WA > WB > WC
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of (4) WA > WC > WB
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest
h
W = KE
B
1 2
W  I
A 2
3 W  I for same 
(1) D
2
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
7 5 2
(2) D
5
2 1
(3) D = : :1
5 2
5
(4) D = 4 : 5 : 10
4
Answer ( 4 )  WC > WB > WA
www.vedantu.com 11
41. Which one of the following statements is S o l . ex = 0

incorrect?
dL
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding So, 0
dt
friction.
i.e. L = constant
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative
So angular momentum remains constant.
motion.
44. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
(3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
and the universal gravitational constant were
proportional to normal reaction.
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has following is not correct?
dimensions of length.
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
Answer ( 4 )
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no Earth would decrease
dimension.
(3) Walking on the ground would become
f = sN more difficult
f (4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
 s 
N Answer ( 4 )
42. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
motion a body possesses translational kinetic ten times, then G = 10 G
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is i.e. (4) is wrong option.
(1) 7 : 10 (2) 10 : 7 45. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
(3) 5 : 7 (4) 2 : 5
and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
Answer ( 3 ) the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
1 at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
S o l . Kt  mv 2 figure. Then
2
2 B
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2  
2 2 2 25  r 
A C
S
7
 mv2
10
(1) KA < KB < KC
Kt 5 (2) KB < KA < KC
So, 
Kt  Kr 7
(3) KA > KB > KC
43. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its (4) KB > KA > KC
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
Answer ( 3 )
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities Sol. B
VC
would remain constant for the sphere? perihelion
A C
(1) Angular velocity S
aphelion
(2) Rotational kinetic energy VA
(3) Moment of inertia Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(4) Angular momentum So, VA > VB > VC
Answer ( 4 ) So, KA > KB > KC
www.vedantu.com 12
46. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 48. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
3.59, which one of the following gases is most (Ksp) will be
easily liquefied?
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1)
(1) NH3
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
(2) O2
(2) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2
(3) H2
(3) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
(4) CO2
(4) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
Answer ( 1 )
Answer ( 1 )
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies
intermolecular forces of attraction. 2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be 233
the liquefaction of gas. = 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
47. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of Ba2  (aq)  SO 24(aq)
BaSO 4 (s)
different concentrations : s s
M M Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2

a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10 = (1.04 × 10–5)2
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10 49. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend?
M M (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 alone
M M (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on

d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH the ion
10 10
(3) Size of the ion alone
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
(1) b (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(2) d Answer ( 2 )
(3) a Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

an electrolyte depends on the charge
(4) c
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
Answer ( 4 )
particles as well as on its size.
1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15 • Coagulating power of an electrolyte
5
depends on the magnitude of charge
1 present on effective ion of electrolyte.
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
5 50. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
• Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10 following metals can be used to reduce
alumina?
• Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
(1) Fe
10 1
= 
100 10 (2) Mg
 1 (3) Zn
pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10  (4) Cu
www.vedantu.com 13
Answer ( 2 ) 54. Which of the following statements is not true

for halogens?
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the (1) All form monobasic oxyacids
correct option. (2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
51. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 states
elements is (3) All are oxidizing agents
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In enthalpy
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl Answer ( 2 )
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
Answer ( 4 ) Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in
Sol. HOF.
55. Which one of the following elements is unable
Elements B Ga Al In Tl to form MF63– ion?
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
(1) Ga
52. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (2) B
(1) One (3) Al
(2) Four (4) In
(3) Two Answer ( 2 )
(4) Three S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
Answer ( 3 ) shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
BF63(–).
 
 
 
F Hence, the correct option is (2).

  56. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
 
F Cl which of the following statements is

 
incorrect?
 
 
F (1) They contain covalent bonds between

 
various linear polymer chains.
The number of lone pair of electrons on
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
central Cl is 2.
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
53. The correct order of N-compounds in its
monomers.
decreasing order of oxidation states is
(4) They contain strong covalent bonds in
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
their polymer chains.
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 Answer ( 4 )
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers
and contain strong covalent bonds between
Answer ( 1 ) various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite,
5 2 0 –3
melamine etc. Option (4) is not related to
S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl cross-linking.
3 4
So option (4) should be the correct option.
Hence, the correct option is (1).
www.vedantu.com 14
57. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
also gives m-nitroaniline because D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always
Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
goes to only m-position.
and 1  6 -linkages.
(2) In absence of substituents nitro group So option (1) should be the correct option.
always goes to m-position.
60. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
amino group is meta directive. gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is
at STP will be
present as anilinium ion.
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.8
Answer ( 4 )
(3) 3.0 (4) 4.4
NH2 NH3 Answer ( 2 )
H S o l . HCOOH Conc.H2 SO4

  CO(g)  H2 O(l)
Sol. 1
 1  mol
2.3 g or  mol 
Anilinium ion  20  20
Conc.H2SO4
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
1 1
mol mol
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is COOH 20 20
also formed in significant yield.  1 

4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
58. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature? Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
(1) MgO (2) BaO absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
(3) BeO (4) CaO So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
is
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO 2
 28  2.8 g
 20
Basic character increases. So, the correct option is (2)
So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact, 61. In the reaction
BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
oxides are basic. OH O–Na+
59. The difference between amylose and CHO

amylopectin is + CHCl3 + NaOH
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and

1 6 -linkage The electrophile involved is
(2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage (1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

(3) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
-linkage (2) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2  

 
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and 
galactose (3) Formyl cation CHO
Answer ( 1 ) (4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
www.vedantu.com 15
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on

oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
the following reaction
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O
– .–.
CCl3  H2 O
CHCl3  OH
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
OH O
.–. Acetophenone
CCl3 
 : CCl2  Cl – (A)
Electrophile
I2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
62. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points Iodoform
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their 64. Which of the following molecules represents
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from
(1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding left to right atoms?
(2) More extensive association of carboxylic (1) HC  C – C  CH
acid via van der Waals force of attraction (2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(3) Formation of carboxylate ion (3) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding sp2 sp2 sp sp

S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
boiling point increases and become more Number of orbital require in hybridization
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
= Number of -bonds around each carbon
and alcohols of comparable molecular
atom.
masses.
65. Which of the following carbocations is
63. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with expected to be most stable?
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic NO2
smell. NO2
A and Y are respectively

(1) (2) H

(1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2 Y 
Y H
NO2
(2) CH – CH3 and I2 NO2
OH  H 
(3) (4) Y
(3) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
Y H
CH3 Answer ( 2 )
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases
(4) CH3 OH and I2 with increase in distance. In option (2)
positive charge present on C-atom at
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it
Answer ( 2 )
is minimum and stability is maximum.
www.vedantu.com 16
66. Which of the following is correct with respect 69. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)
(1) Tetranuclear (2) Trinuclear
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(3) Mononuclear (4) Dinuclear
(2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
Answer ( 3 )
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F present in a complex, they are classified
Answer ( 1 * ) into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing so on.
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1),
however option (3) may also be correct answer. Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
67. The type of isomerism shown by the complex Hence, option (3) should be the right
[CoCl2(en)2] is answer.
(1) Geometrical isomerism 70. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given
(2) Ionization isomerism in Column II and assign the correct code :
(3) Coordination isomerism Column I Column II
(4) Linkage isomerism
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM
Answer ( 1 )
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co
is 6 and this compound has octahedral c. Fe3+ iii. 3 BM
geometry.
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
v. 15 BM
a b c d
(1) iv v ii i
(2) iv i ii iii
• As per given option, type of isomerism is
geometrical isomerism. (3) i ii iii iv
68. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d (4) iii v i ii
transition and paramagnetism as well? Answer ( 1 )
(1) CrO42– (2) MnO4– S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
(3) Cr2O72– (4) MnO42–
Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar] Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1 Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar]
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
www.vedantu.com 17
71. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the

0.693
complex [Ni(CO)4] are Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic which is independent of initial
(2) Square planar geometry and concentration of reactant.
paramagnetic
1
(3) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic  For second order reaction, t 1/2  ,
k[A0 ]
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic which depends on initial concentration of
reactant.
Answer ( 3 )
73. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
character is
∵ CO is a strong field ligand (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
Configuration would be :
(2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
3
sp -hybridisation (3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
×× ×× ×× ×× (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
CO CO CO CO Answer ( 1 )
For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
sp 3 and thus the complex would be group metallic character of metals increases
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry. so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
CO Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
74. In which case is number of molecules of

Ni water maximum?
CO (1) 18 mL of water
OC
CO (2) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
72. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that (3) 0.18 g of water
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not (4) 10–3 mol of water
depend on reactant concentrations; the
Answer ( 1 )
rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a 18

Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
second-order reaction cannot be 18
catalyzed
= NA
(3) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a 0.00224
(2) Moles of water = = 10–4
second-order reaction does depend on 22.4
[A]0
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
(4) The rate of a first-order reaction does
0.18
depend on reactant concentrations; the (3) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
rate of a second-order reaction does not 18
depend on reactant concentrations
= 10–2 NA
Answer ( 3 ) (4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
www.vedantu.com 18
75. Consider the change in oxidation state of On solving, we get

Bromine corresponding to different emf values
X X
as shown in the diagram below :    200
2 4
– 1.82 V – 1.5 V
BrO4 BrO3 HBrO  X = 800 kJ/mole
– 77. When initial concentration of the reactant is

Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction
Then the species undergoing
disproportionation is (1) Is halved
(1) BrO3 (2) Is tripled
(2) Br2 (3) Is doubled
(3) BrO4 (4) Remains unchanged
(4) HBrO Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Half life of zero order
1 0
S o l . HBrO  o [A0 ]
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V t 1/2 
2 2K
1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
BrO3 /HBrO concentration.
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, 78. For the redox reaction
o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O
2 BrO3 /HBrO
= 1.595 – 1.5 The correct coefficients of the reactants for

= 0.095 V = + ve the balanced equation are
Hence, option (4) is correct answer.
76. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and MnO4 C2 O24 H+
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the (1) 16 5 2
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
dissociation energy of X2 will be (2) 2 16 5
(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (3) 2 5 16
(2) 800 kJ mol–1 (4) 5 16 2

(3) 100 kJ mol–1 Answer ( 3 )
(4) 400 kJ mol–1 Reduction
+7 +3 +4
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY) Oxidation
1 1 
X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g) n-factor of MnO4  5
2 2
n-factor of C2 O24  2
X
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2 
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
respectively So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5
X X  The balanced equation is

 H      X  200
2 4
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
www.vedantu.com 19
79. Which one of the following conditions will Answer ( 4 )

favour maximum formation of the product in
S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
the reaction,
1s2 2s2 2p3
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) So, valency of X will be 3.
(1) Low temperature and high pressure Valency of Mg is 2.
(2) High temperature and high pressure Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2.
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
82. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
(4) High temperature and low pressure temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
Answer ( 1 ) fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g) molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
3
direction where pressure decreases i.e. (1)
2
forward direction.
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts 3 3

(2)
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction. 4 2
So, high pressure and low temperature
favours maximum formation of product. 4 3
(3)
3 2
80. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
equation corresponds to
1
(1) Density of the gas molecules (4)
2
(2) Electric field present between the gas
Answer ( 2 )
molecules
(3) Volume of the gas molecules 4r

S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
molecules
For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
Answer ( 4 )
 ZM 
 N a3 
 2  d25C  A 
S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT   BCC
 V2  d900C  ZM 
  N a3 
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies  A  FCC
intermolecular forces of attraction. 3
2  2 2 r 3 3
 
81. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form 4  4r   4 2 
 
an ionic compound. If the ground state  3 
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, 83. Consider the following species :
the simplest formula for this compound is
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
(1) Mg2X3
Which one of these will have the highest bond
(2) Mg2X order?
(3) MgX2 (1) NO (2) CN+
(4) Mg3X2 (3) CN– (4) CN
www.vedantu.com 20
Answer ( 3 ) 85. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 , pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0 due to natural and human activity?
10  5 (1) N2O5
BO =  2.5
2 (2) N2O
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 (3) NO2
= (2py)2,(2pz)2 (4) NO
10  4 Answer ( 1 )
BO = 3
2
S o l . Fact
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
86. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
= (2py)2,(2pz)1 substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
9 4 Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
BO =  2.5 hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
2
atoms. (A) is
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
(1) CH  CH
= (2py)2
(2) CH3 – CH3
8 4
BO = 2 (3) CH2  CH2
2
Hence, option(3) should be the right answer. (4) CH4
84. Which one is a wrong statement? Answer ( 4 )
Br2/h
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of S o l . CH4 CH3Br
electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero (A) Na/dry ether
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is Wurtz reaction
1 1 1
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz CH3 — CH3
Hence the correct option is (4)

87. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
numbers while an electron in an atom is together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
designated by four quantum numbers in the order
(4) The value of m for dz2 is zero (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
Answer ( 2 ) (2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum (3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
multiplicity, the correct electronic (4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
configuration of N-atom is
Answer ( 4 )
C2H5O Na+
Na
S o l . C2H5OH
1s2 2s2 2p3 (A) (B)
PCl5
OR
C2H5Cl
(C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
1s
2
2s
2
2p
3 C2H5OC2 H5
(B) (C)
 Option (2) violates Hund's Rule.
So the correct option is (4)
www.vedantu.com 21
88. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
reactions:
(3) , ,
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C
OH
CH(CH3)2
The product 'C' is (4) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
(1) m-bromotoluene Answer ( 4 )
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene Cl
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2
(3) o-bromotoluene
Cl Cl
(4) p-bromotoluene 1, 2–H
+ + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
Answer ( 1 ) (Incipient carbocation)
Cl
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 –
AlCl3
3Cl 2 Br2
Sol.  Now,
Fe
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) CH3
Zn HCl CH – CH3
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
CH3
(P)
Br CH3
(C)
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O
So, the correct option is (1) +
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
89. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the (R) (Q)
following sequence of reactions:
90. Which of the following compounds can form a
Anhydrous zwitterion?
AlCl3
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl (1) Aniline
(i) O2 (2) Benzoic acid
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R
(3) Acetanilide
P Q R
(4) Glycine
CH2CH2CH3 CHO Answer ( 4 )
(1) , , CH3CH2 – OH  
Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO–
(Zwitterion form)
CH(CH3)2 OH pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
(2) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
H2N – CH2 – COO–
www.vedantu.com 22
91. Which of the following statements is correct? 95. Casparian strips occur in
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in (1) Epidermis
gymnosperms
(2) Cortex
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms
(3) Pericycle
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
Salvinia is homosporous (4) Endodermi
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both Answer ( 4 )
Cycas and Cedrus Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
Answer ( 1 ) and inner tangential wall.
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. • It is suberin rich.
• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary 96. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
92. Pneumatophores occur in are produced by
(1) Halophytes (1) Apical meristems
(2) Carnivorous plants (2) Phellogen
(3) Free-floating hydrophytes (3) Vascular cambium
(4) Submerged hydrophytes (4) Axillary meristems
Answer (1)
Answer ( 3 )
Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
pneumatophores. Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
 Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
having lenticels called pneumathodes to and secondary phloem towards outsides.
uptake O2.
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
93. Sweet potato is a modified produced than secondary phloem.
(1) Stem
97. Select the wrong statement :
(2) Tap root
(3) Adventitious root (1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae
(4) Rhizome
Answer ( 3 ) (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans
S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
for storage of food (3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
• Rhizomes are underground modified stem (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
• Tap root is primary root directly elongated cell in all kingdoms except Monera
from the redicle
Answer ( 2 )
94. Plants having little or no secondary growth
are S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in
(1) Grasses sarcodines (Amoeboid)
(2) Conifers 98. The experimental proof for semiconservative

(3) Deciduous angiosperms replication of DNA was first shown in a
(4) Cycads (1) Fungus (2) Plant
Answer (1) (3) Bacterium (4) Virus
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually Answer ( 3 )

do not have secondary growth. S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first
Palm like monocots have anomalous shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by
secondary growth. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
www.vedantu.com 23
99. Select the correct match S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by

pleiotropic gene.
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
pneumoniae
matched.
(2) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
102. Offsets are produced by
and F. Stahl
(1) Meiotic divisions
(3) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(2) Parthenocarpy
Martha Chase (3) Mitotic divisions
(4) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon (4) Parthenogenesis
Jacques Monod Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed by mitosis.
model of gene regulation known as operon – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
model/lac operon. cells.
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting – Parthenogenesis is the formation of
technique. embryo from ovum or egg without
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- fertilisation.
conservative DNA replication in E. coli. – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
fertilisation, (generally seedless)
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
Proved DNA as genetic material not 103. Which of the following flowers only once in its
protein life-time?
100. Select the correct statement (1) Bamboo species
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’ (2) Mango
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation (3) Jackfruit
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British (4) Papaya
scientist Answer ( 1 )
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
Answer ( 3 ) generally only once in its life-time after 50-
100 years.
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
– Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative their life-time.
mode of replication.
104. Which of the following has proved helpful in
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder preserving pollen as fossils?
and Laderberg.
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Oil content
– Spliceosome formation is part of post-
(3) Cellulosic intine (4) Sporopollenin
transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
Answer ( 4 )
101. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
matched? S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil.
(2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination.
determination Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance pollen grain known as intine made up
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage cellulose & pectin.
Answer ( 1 ) Oil content – No role is pollen preservation.
www.vedantu.com 24
105. Which of the following is commonly used as a 108. Use of bioresources by multinational
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in companies and organisations without
human lymphocytes? authorisation from the concerned country and
(1) Retrovirus its people is called
(2)  phage (1) Bio-infringement
(3) Ti plasmid (2) Biodegradation
(4) pBR 322 (3) Biopiracy

Answer ( 1 ) (4) Bioexploitation
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for Answer ( 3 )
introducing a DNA fragment in human
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
lymphocyte.
of bioresources by multinational companies
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of and other organisation without proper
patient are grown in culture outside the body, authorisation from the countries and people
a functional gene is introduced by using a concerned with compensatory payment
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte. (definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
106. The correct order of steps in Polymerase 109. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
Chain Reaction (PCR) is foreign company, though such varieties have
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing been present in India for a long time. This is
(2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing related to
(3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation (1) Co-667
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (2) Lerma Rojo
Answer ( 4 ) (3) Sharbati Sonora
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple (4) Basmati
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
Answer ( 4 )
Each cycle has three steps
S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
(I) Denaturation rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
(II) Primer annealing and trademark office that was actually been
(III) Extension of primer derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
107. In India, the organisation responsible for The diversity of rice in India is one of the
assessing the safety of introducing richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
genetically modified organisms for public use of Basmati are grown in India.
is
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) varieties and claimed as an invention or a
(2) Research Committee on Genetic novelty.
Manipulation (RCGM) Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial of wheat.
Research (CSIR)
110. Select the correct match
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(GEAC)
(2) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation (3) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal (4) G. Mendel - Transformation
Committee) which will make decisions Answer ( 1 )
regarding the validity of GM research and
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT). acid.
www.vedantu.com 25
111. Niche is 115. In stratosphere, which of the following

(1) all the biological factors in the organism's elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
environment ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(2) the range of temperature that the (1) Carbon (2) Fe

organism needs to live (3) Cl (4) Oxygen
(3) the physical space where an organism Answer ( 3 )
lives
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
(4) the functional role played by the organism chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
where it lives method converting into oxygen
Answer ( 4 ) Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It ozone layer depletion
refers the functional role played by the 116. What type of ecological pyramid would be
organism where it lives. obtained with the following data?
112. Which of the following is a secondary Secondary consumer : 120 g
pollutant? Primary consumer : 60 g
(1) CO (2) SO2 Primary producer : 10 g
(3) CO2 (4) O3 (1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
Answer ( 4 ) (2) Upright pyramid of numbers
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are (3) Pyramid of energy
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant.
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
CO – Quantitative pollutant
Answer ( 1 )
CO2 – Primary pollutant
Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
SO2 – Primary pollutant pyramid of biomass, usually found in
113. World Ozone Day is celebrated on aquatic ecosystem.
(1) 5th June (2) 16th September • Pyramid of energy is always upright
(3) 21st April (4) 22nd April • Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Answer (2) are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th consumer and this is less than secondary
September. consumers.
5th June - World Environment Day 117. The Golgi complex participates in
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day (1) Fatty acid breakdown
22nd April - National Earth Day (2) Respiration in bacteria
114. Natality refers to (3) Formation of secretory vesicles
(1) Death rate (4) Activation of amino acid
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat Answer ( 3 )
(3) Birth rate S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases
secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
118. Which of the following is not a product of light
Answer ( 3 ) reaction of photosynthesis?
S o l . Natality refers to birth rate. (1) ATP (2) NADPH
• Death rate – Mortality (3) NADH (4) Oxygen
• Number of individual – Immigration Answer ( 3 )
entering a habitat is S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
• Number of individual – Emigration reaction, while NADH is a product of
leaving the habital respiration process.
www.vedantu.com 26
119. Which among the following is not a 124. Stomata in grass leaf are
prokaryote?
(1) Dumb-bell shaped
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Nostoc
(2) Rectangular
(3) Mycobacterium (4) Oscillatoria
(3) Kidney shaped
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Barrel shaped
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote
(unicellular fungi) Answer ( 1 )
Mycobacterium – a bacterium S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. shaped stomata in their leaves.
120. Stomatal movement is not affected by 125. Which one of the following plants shows a
(1) Temperature (2) O2 concentration very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
(3) Light (4) CO2 concentration
cycle without the other?
Answer ( 2 )
(1) Hydrilla (2) Banana
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2
(3) Yucca (4) Viola
affect opening and closing of stomata while
they are not affected by O2 concentration. Answer ( 3 )
121. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
(1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells 126. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
(2) It takes part in spindle formation in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
(3) It is a membrane-bound structure (1) –120°C (2) –196°C
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (3) –80°C (4) –160°C
synthesis Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure in liquid nitrogen at –196°C (Cryopreservation)
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis. 127. Double fertilization is
122. The stage during which separation of the (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
paired homologous chromosomes begins is tube with two different eggs
(1) Pachytene (2) Diakinesis (2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene (3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
nuclei
Answer ( 3 )
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
Answer ( 4 )
Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
chiasmata start to shift towards end. S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
that occur in angiosperms only.
123. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl 128. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
by
(2) Carbonyl and phosphate
(1) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) Carbonyl and methyl
(2) Cycas
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
(3) Nostoc
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Chara
S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
carbohydrate. Answer ( 1 )
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde, S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
ketone or their derivatives, which means they source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups. O2.
www.vedantu.com 27
129. Which of the following elements is responsible Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
for maintaining turgor in cells? basidiospores or meiospores are
(1) Magnesium (2) Potassium produced exogenously.
(3) Sodium (4) Calcium  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
Answer ( 2 ) produces ascospores as meiospores but
S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of endogenously inside the ascus.)
cells.  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
130. What is the role of NAD + in cellular does not produce sexual spores.
respiration?
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular
(1) It functions as an enzyme. ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. endogenously.
(3) It functions as an electron carrier. 134. Which one is wrongly matched?
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for
(1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
anaerobic respiration.
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron (3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
carrier. (4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
131. In which of the following forms is iron
Answer ( 1 )
absorbed by plants?
(1) Ferric Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
where asexual spores and gametes are
(2) Free element
non-motile or non-flagellated.
(3) Ferrous
• Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
(4) Both ferric and ferrous
matched
Answer ( 1 * )
135. Match the items given in Column I with those
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
ions. (According to NCERT) in Column II and select the correct option
given below:
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++) Column I Column II
132. Winged pollen grains are present in
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a
(1) Mustard (2) Mango collection of preserved
(3) Cycas (4) Pinus plants and animals
Answer (4) b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates

S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It methodically all the
is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to species found in an area
form the wings of pollen. It is the with brief description
characteristic feature, only in Pinus. aiding identification
Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried
not winged shaped. and pressed plant
133. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores specimens mounted on
are produced exogenously in sheets are kept
(1) Neurospora d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
(2) Agaricus list of characters and
their alternates which
(3) Alternaria
are helpful in
(4) Saccharomyces identification of various
Answer ( 2 ) taxa.
www.vedantu.com 28
a b c d 138. The transparent lens in the human eye is held

in its place by
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) ligaments attached to the iris
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
Answer ( 4 ) body
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant Answer ( 1 )
specimen
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
• Key – Identification of various suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
taxa body.
• Museum – Plant and animal 139. Which of the following hormones can play a
specimen are preserved significant role in osteoporosis?
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
species (2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
136. Which of the following is an amino acid (3) Progesterone and Aldosterone
derived hormone? (4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(1) Epinephrine (2) Estradiol Answer ( 2 )
(3) Ecdysone (4) Estriol S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
Answer ( 1 ) and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino estrogen. Parathormone promotes
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
catecholamine. Excessive activity of parathormone causes
137. Which of the following structures or regions is demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
incorrectly paired with its functions? 140. Among the following sets of examples for
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration divergent evolution, select the incorrect
option :
and cardiovascular
reflexes. (1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) Hypothalamus : production of (2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah

releasing hormones (3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
and regulation of (4) Eye of octopus, bat and man
temperature, Answer ( 4 )
hunger and thirst. S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
(3) Limbic system : consists of fibre structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
tracts that vertebrates which have developed along
interconnect different directions due to adaptation to
different regions of different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
brain; controls and man are examples of analogous organs
movement. showing convergent evolution.
141. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
disease?
connecting left and
right cerebral (1) Psoriasis
hemispheres. (2) Alzheimer's disease
Answer ( 3 ) (3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Vitiligo
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
all emotions in our body but not movements. Answer ( 2 )
www.vedantu.com 29
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune 145. Conversion of milk to curd improves its

disorder in which antibodies are produced nutritional value by increasing the amount of
against the synovial membrane and cartilage. (1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin B12
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin E
characterised as autoimmune disorder. Answer ( 2 )
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk.
or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
 It has enriched presence of vitamins
autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
specially Vit-B12.
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
acetylcholine. 146. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science
142. Which of the following characteristics
for the production of antibiotics?
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
humans? (1) Commensalism (2) Parasitism
a. Dominance (3) Mutualism (4) Amensalism
b. Co-dominance Answer ( 4 )
c. Multiple allele S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –)
d. Incomplete dominance  Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which
e. Polygenic inheritance
harm other microbes (eg :
(1) b, c and e (2) b, d and e Staphylococcus)
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c and e  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
Answer ( 3 ) organism which produces it.
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive 147. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
relationship conservation’ except
 IAIB - Codominance (1) Wildlife safari parks
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic (2) Botanical gardens
forms of a gene (3) Sacred groves
(multiple allelism)
(4) Seed banks
143. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of Answer ( 3 )
lymphatic vessels? Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
(1) Elephantiasis (2) Ringworm disease  Represent pristine forest patch as
(3) Ascariasis (4) Amoebiasis protected by Tribal groups.
Answer ( 1 ) 148. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
given below :
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
Culex mosquito. Column-I Column-II
144. The similarity of bone structure in the a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
of
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
(1) Homology enrichment
(2) Convergent evolution d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(3) Analogy a b c d
(4) Adaptive radiation (1) ii i iii iv
Answer ( 1 ) (2) iii iv i ii
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs (3) i iii iv ii
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in
(4) i ii iv iii
different way as per their adaptation, hence
example of homology. Answer ( 2 )
www.vedantu.com 30
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient 152. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’

enrichment
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal preventing eggs from getting implanted.
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation (2) is an IUD.
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation (3) increases the concentration of estrogen
149. In a growing population of a country, and prevents ovulation in females.
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more (4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
than the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 1 )
(2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
individuals are equal in number. S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
pill. It contains centchroman and its
(3) reproductive individuals are less than the
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
post-reproductive individuals.
Receptor modulation.
(4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
153. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
the reproductive individuals.
from
Answer ( 1 )
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
the younger population size is larger than the (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
reproductive group, the population will be an (3) endoderm and mesoderm
increasing population.
(4) ectoderm and endoderm
150. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
the drug “Smack”? Answer ( 1 )
(1) Flowers (2) Roots S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are

amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac.
(3) Latex (4) Leaves
Answer ( 3 ) Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer
side and ectoderm on inner side.
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac
Poppy plant. membrane have mesoderm on outerside and
endoderm in inner side.
151. Hormones secreted by the placenta to
maintain pregnancy are 154. The difference between spermiogenesis and
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin spermiation is
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin while in spermiation spermatozoa are
formed.
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
Answer ( 2 ) sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic
spermatozoa are formed.
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which
stimulates the Corpus luteum during (3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
pregnancy to release estrogen and formed, while in spermiation spermatids
progesterone and also rescues corpus are formed.
luteum from regression. Human placental
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains
are released from sertoli cells into the
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by
cavity of seminiferous tubules.
increasing uterine threshold to contractile
stimuli. Answer ( 4 )
www.vedantu.com 31
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of 157. Match the items given in Column I with those
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas in Column II and select the correct option
spermiation is the release of the sperms from given below:
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
tubule. Column I Column II
155. Which of the following options correctly a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
emphysema, respectively?
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased volume
respiratory surface
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles volume
(3) Increased number of bronchioles; d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
Increased respiratory surface
a b c d
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles (1) iii ii i iv
Answer ( 1 )
(2) i iv ii iii
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and (3) iii i iv ii
bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
(4) iv iii ii i
in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased. Answer ( 3 )
156. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
Column I Column II volume is additional volume of air a person
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
and left ventricle around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
atrium and right lungs even after forceful expiration. This
ventricle averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
a b c 158. Match the items given in Column I with those

(1) iii i ii
given below :
(2) i ii iii
Column I Column II
(3) i iii ii a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
(4) ii i iii uric acid in joints
Answer ( 1 ) b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present
kidney
between right atrium and right ventricle.
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves glomeruli
are present at the openings of aortic and d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
pulmonary aorta. nephritis glucose urine
www.vedantu.com 32
a b c d Urine is carried from kidney to bladder through

(1) iii ii iv i ureter.
(2) ii iii i iv Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of

urine.
(3) i ii iii iv
160. Which of the following events does not occur
(4) iv i ii iii in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Protein folding
S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
urine. This is observed when blood glucose
(3) Protein glycosylation
level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose. (4) Phospholipid synthesis
Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals Answer ( 4 )
in the joint.
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are
phosphate produced in the pelvis of the kidney. involved in lipid synthesis.
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory 161. Which of these statements is incorrect?
condition of glomerulus characterised by
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
proteinuria and haematuria.
mitochondrial matrix
159. Match the items given in Column I with those
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is
supplied with NAD that can pick up
given below:
hydrogen atoms
Column I Column II
(3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol
(Function) (Part of Excretory
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
system)
outer mitochondrial membrane
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop
Answer ( 4 )
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner
of urine mitochondrial membrane.
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder 162. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
urine (1) Proteins and lipids
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian (2) Nucleic acids and SER
urine corpuscle (3) DNA and RNA
v. Proximal (4) Free ribosomes and RER
convoluted tubule Answer ( 4 )
a b c d S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
(1) iv v ii iii even extend into the dendrite but absent in
axon and rest of the neuron.
(2) v iv i ii
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
(3) iv i ii iii ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
(4) v iv i iii protein synthesis.
Answer ( 3 ) 163. Which of the following terms describe human
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine dentition?
particles having molecular weight less than (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle.
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
Concentration of urine refers to water
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop. Answer ( 3 )
www.vedantu.com 33
S o l . In humans, dentition is 167. Match the items given in Column I with those
 Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
given below :
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
Column I Column II
 Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
replaced by a set of permanent or adult endometrial
teeth. lining
 Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
of different types of teeth namely incisors, c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
canine, premolars and molars. a b c
164. Select the incorrect match : (1) iii ii i
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents (2) ii iii i
chromosomes (3) i iii ii
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped (4) iii i ii
chromosomes chromosomes Answer ( 2 )
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
developing, hence, called follicular phase.
(4) Polytene – Oocytes of
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
chromosomes amphibians
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
Answer ( 4 ) by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary the endometrium maintained by
glands of insects of order Diptera. progesterone.
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
165. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
overgrown endometrial lining.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as 168. All of the following are part of an operon
except
(1) Polysome
(1) an operator
(2) Plastidome
(2) an enhancer
(3) Polyhedral bodies
(3) structural genes
(4) Nucleosome (4) a promoter
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to eukaryotes.
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
ergasomes.
169. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
166. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism strand of a gene. What will be the
of evolution is corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(1) Multiple step mutations mRNA?
(2) Phenotypic variations (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(3) Saltation (2) ACCUAUGCGAU
(4) Minor mutations (3) UGGTUTCGCAT
Answer ( 3 ) (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de Answer ( 1 )

Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/ sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
saltation. ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
www.vedantu.com 34
170. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be of plasma proteins which means globulins are
inherited by involved in defence mechanisms.
(1) Only daughters Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
(2) Only grandchildren responsible for BCOP.
(3) Only sons 173. Which of the following is an occupational
(4) Both sons and daughters respiratory disorder?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Anthracis (2) Botulism

Sol. • Woman is a carrier (3) Silicosis (4) Emphysema
• Both son & daughter inherit Answer ( 3 )
X–chromosome
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica
• Although only son be the diseased dust in the workers involved grinding or stone
171. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly breaking industries.
help in erythropoiesis? Long exposure can give rise to inflammation
(1) Chief cells (2) Goblet cells leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious
lung damage.
(3) Mucous cells (4) Parietal cells
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
Answer ( 4 ) by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a
intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can damaged due to which respiratory surface is
be absorbed easily and used during decreased.
erythropoiesis. Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption by Clostridium botulinum.
of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes 174. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
pernicious anaemia. contraction because it
172. Match the items given in Column I with those (1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking
in Column II and select the correct option of active sites on actin for myosin.
given below :
(2) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
Column I Column II filament.
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance (3) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
it.
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
(4) Prevents the formation of bonds between
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
mechanism
filament.
a b c
Answer ( 1 )
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) many folds in the sarcoplasm.
(3) (i) (ii) (iii)  Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
(4) (ii) (iii) (i)
site on actin filament and displaces the
Answer ( 4 ) sub-unit of troponin.
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during  Once the active site is exposed, head of
coagulation. These strands forms a network the myosin attaches and initiate
and the meshes of which are occupied by contraction by sliding the actin over
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. myosin.
www.vedantu.com 35
175. Identify the vertebrate group of animals 178. Which one of these animals is not a
characterized by crop and gizzard in its homeotherm?
digestive system (1) Macropus
(1) Amphibia (2) Aves
(2) Camelus
(3) Reptilia (4) Osteichthyes
(3) Chelone
Answer ( 2 )
(4) Psittacula
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
Answer ( 3 )
chambers in their digestive system as crop
and Gizzard. S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
constant body temperature, irrespective of
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
surrounding temperature.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
crush food grain.
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
176. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(1) using flagella for locomotion
179. Which of the following animals does not
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey undergo metamorphosis?
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing (1) Earthworm
excess water
(2) Moth
(4) having two types of nuclei
(3) Tunicate
Answer ( 4 )
(4) Starfish
S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
Answer ( 1 )
having two types of nuclei.
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of
eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
larva into adult.
macronucleus & micronucleus.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said
177. Which of the following features is used to
to have indirect development.
identify a male cockroach from a female
cockroach? In earthworm development is direct which
means no larval stage and hence no
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
metamorphosis.
9th abdominal segment
180. Which of the following organisms are known
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
as chief producers in the oceans?
(3) Presence of caudal styles
(1) Dinoflagellates
(4) Presence of anal cerci
(2) Cyanobacteria
Answer ( 3 )
(3) Diatoms
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
styles which are absent in females. (4) Euglenoids
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal Answer ( 3 )

segment in male cockroach. S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
www.vedantu.com 36

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Time : 3 hrs. Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

2. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies

5. A metallic rod of mass per unit length So, resistance of galvanometer

(20  0) 12. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

Due to which forward biasing and reversed 

18. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is 1 1 1

Applying Snell's law at M,

S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10% 1 eE 2

F is Independent of the distance between 4 81

F  54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)

35. A student measured the diameter of a small N sin  = ma ...(i)

Total distance travelled = 9 m Sol.

mv  4m  0  4mv  0 40. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin

1 (1) WC > WB > WA

41. Which one of the following statements is S o l . ex = 0

(3) Moment of inertia Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.

(4) Angular momentum So, VA > VB > VC

Answer ( 4 ) So, KA > KB > KC

M M Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2

M M (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on

(3) a Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

Answer ( 2 ) 54. Which of the following statements is not true

(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl Answer ( 2 )

F Hence, the correct option is (2).

F Cl which of the following statements is

F (1) They contain covalent bonds between

H S o l . HCOOH Conc.H2 SO4

also formed in significant yield.  1 

59. The difference between amylose and CHO

(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and

Answer ( 1 ) (4) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Option (2) is secondary alcohol which on

S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding sp2 sp2 sp sp

A and Y are respectively

Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic

71. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the

74. In which case is number of molecules of

(2) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a 18

75. Consider the change in oxidation state of On solving, we get

– 77. When initial concentration of the reactant is

(1) BrO3 (2) Is tripled

(2) Br2 (3) Is doubled

(3) BrO4 (4) Remains unchanged

(4) HBrO Answer ( 3 )

Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Half life of zero order

= 1.595 – 1.5 The correct coefficients of the reactants for

(1) 200 kJ mol–1 (3) 2 5 16

(2) 800 kJ mol–1 (4) 5 16 2

X X  The balanced equation is

79. Which one of the following conditions will Answer ( 4 )

(1) Low temperature and high pressure Valency of Mg is 2.

On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts 3 3

(3) Volume of the gas molecules 4r

(4) Mg3X2 (3) CN– (4) CN

Answer ( 3 ) 85. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

84. Which one is a wrong statement? Answer ( 4 )

Hence the correct option is (4)

(1) m-bromotoluene Answer ( 4 )

(2) Conifers 98. The experimental proof for semiconservative

(4) Cycads (1) Fungus (2) Plant

Answer (1) (3) Bacterium (4) Virus

S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually Answer ( 3 )