Você está na página 1de 14

https://ciscoexam.

online/CCENT/100-105/544
https://quizlet.com/150594174/ccent-version-3-practice-exam-flash-cards
https://quizlet.com/180828620/icnd1-100-105-flash-cards/

Which of the following VTP modes allow VLANs to be configured on a switch?

1- Client-Server
2- Client
3- Server
4- Transparent

THE CORRECT ANSWER IS:


1- Client-Server
4- Transparent
SW1(config)#vlan 1005
VTP VLAN configuration not allowed when device is in CLIENT mode.
SW1(config)#

===================================================================================
======================================
IP Routing Technologies

VTP mode are:


SW1(config)#vtp mode ?
client Set the device to client mode.
server Set the device to server mode.
transparent Set the device to transparent mode.

The output of the show frame-relay pvc command shows "PVC STATUS = INACTIVE".
What does this mean?
A. The PVC is configured correctly and is operating normally, but no data
packets have been detected for more than five minutes.
B. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is no longer
actively seeking the address of the remote router.
C. The PVC is configured correctly, is operating normally, and is waiting for
interesting traffic to trigger a call to the remote router.
D. The PVC is configured correctly on the local switch, but there is a problem
on the remote end of the PVC.
E. The PVC is not configured on the local switch.

Ans D
There are 4 statuses of PVC:
ACTIVE: the PVC is operational and can transmit data .
INACTIVE: the connection from the local router to the switch is working, but the
connection to the remote router is not available.
DELETED: the PVC is not present and no LMI information is being received from the
Frame Relay switch.
STATIC: the Local Management Interface (LMI) mechanism on the interface is
disabled.

Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?


A. 1500
B. 9216
C. 1600
D. 1518
Ans D
Baby giant or baby jumbo frames are Ethernet frames that are only slightly larger
than allowed by the IEEE Ethernet standards. It's up to 1600 bytes.

Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918

Ans D

Which of the following are true regarding the configuration of RouterA?


A. at least 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. only telnet protocol connections to RouterA are supported
C. remote connections to RouterA using telnet will succeed
D. console line connections will never time out due to inactivity
E. since DHCP is not used on Fa0/1 there is no need to use the NAT protocol

Ans C
A is correct as we can telnet from line 0 to line 4 (line vty o 4).
We can use both telnet and SSH to connect to this router (transport input telnet
ssh) -> B is not correct.
C is correct as we can telnet to it.
D is not correct because by default, the timeout is set to 10 minutes on both the
console and the vty ports.
E is not correct as NAT can be used even DHCP is not used.

A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. Which
protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to
be placed into frames directed toward the sever?
A. ARP
B. RARP
C. DNS
D. DHCP
E. HTTP

Ans A

When a router makes a routing decision for a packet that is received from one
network and destined to another, which portion of the packet does it replace?
A. Layer 2 frame header and trailer
B. Layer 3 IP address
C. Layer 5 session
D. Layer 4 protocol

Ans A
What does a router do with a packet received from one network and destined for
another network? The router performs the following three major steps:
Step 1. De-encapsulates the Layer 3 packet by removing the Layer 2 frame header and
trailer.
Step 2. Examines the destination IP address of the IP packet to find the best path
in the routing table.
Step 3. If the router finds a path to the destination, it encapsulates the Layer 3
packet into a new Layer 2 frame and forwards the frame out the exit interface.
Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
A. ICANN
B. APNIC
C. RIR
D. ISPs

Correct Answer: D

Which command is simplest to configure routing between the regional office network
10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network?
A. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1
B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2
C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1
D. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2

Ans A
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/542

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?


A. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

Ans A, C

On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?


A. a router
B. a Layer 2 switch
C. switch
D. a hub
E. a Layer 3 switch

Ans D

Which statement about native VLAN traffic is true?


A. Cisco Discovery Protocol traffic travels on the native VLAN by default.
B. Traffic on the native VLAN is tagged with 1 by default.
C. Control plane traffic is blocked on the native VLAN.
D. The native VLAN is typically disabled for security reasons.
Ans A

Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?


A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets

Ans B
https://vceguide.com/which-value-is-indicated-by-the-next-hop-in-a-routing-table-2/
By default, how many MAC addresses are permitted to be learned on a switch port
with port-security enabled?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

Ans C

Route Source Default Distance Values


Connected interface 0
Static route 1
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route 5
External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) 20
Internal EIGRP 90
IGRP 100
OSPF 110
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) 115
Routing Information Protocol (RIP) 120
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) 140
On Demand Routing (ODR) 160
External EIGRP 170
Internal BGP 200
does not install the route in the routing table 255

Which IPv4 addresses are public?


A. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
B. 10.0.0.0 - 10.0.255.255
C. 172.16.0.0 - 172.32.255.255
D. 127.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255
E. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
F. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
G. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.128.255

Ans ABEFG

Q
interface FastEthernet0/21
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
end

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an


unknown packet?
A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages
B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages
C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages
D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Ans D
switch#sh port-security int fa0/21
Port Security : Enabled
Port Status : Secure-down
Violation Mode : Shutdown
Aging Time : 0 mins
Aging Type : Absolute
SecureStatic Address Aging : Disabled
Maximum MAC Addresses : 2
Total MAC Addresses : 0
Configured MAC Addresses : 0
Sticky MAC Addresses : 0
Last Source Address : 0000.0000.0000
Security Violation Count : 0

The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be
configured:
Protect -This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be
forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the
allowed MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action
is taken when traffic is dropped. Restrict--This mode permits traffic from known
MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC
addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with
this mode, a syslog message is logged, a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
trap is sent, and a violation counter is incremented when traffic is
dropped.
Shutdown - This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch
will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state
when a violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic.
The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the
errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the
switchport.
Shutdown VLAN - This mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the
error disabled state the specific violating VLAN.
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/25

Which two options are reasons for TCP starvation?


A. The use of tail drop
B. The use of WRED
C. Mixing TCP and UDP traffic in the same traffic class
D. The use of TCP congestion control

ANsB,C:
TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is
assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the
class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service-
provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most
part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows.

Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding?


A. Asymmetric routing
B. Repeated TCNs
C. The use of HSRP
D. Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E. MAC forwarding table overflow
F. The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

Ans ABE
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/27

RouterA is configured with a basic configuration. The link between the two routers
is operational and no routing protocols are configured on either router. The line
shown in the exhibit is then added to router RouterA. Should interface fa0/0 on
router RouterB shutdown, what effect will the shutdown have on router RouterA?
A. A route to 10.1.2.0/24 will remain in the RouterA routing table.
B. A packet to host 10.1.2.3 will be dropped by router RouterA.
C. Router RouterA will send an ICMP packet to attempt to verify the route.
D. Because router RouterB will send a poison reverse packet to router RouterA,
RouterA will remove the route.

Ans A
Static route is installed in the routing table only when the preferred route
disappears. Status of serial0/0 did not change when fa0/0 shutdown - so 10.1.2.0/24
is remain in the RouterA routing table
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/30

What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router?


A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with
the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using
the access-class command.

Ans DE
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is virtual.
To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the access-
class command.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a
username & password to prevent unauthorized login.

Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the
192.168.1.192/26 be forwarded to 192.168.1.1?
A. The router will forward packets from RouterC to RouterB to RouterA.
B. The router will forward packets from RouterC to RouterA to RouterB.
C. The router will forward packets (from RouterC to RouterB to RouterA) and
(from RouterC to RouterA).
D. The router will forward packets from RouterC to RouterA.

Ans C
From the RouterC routing table we known that network 192.168.1.0/30 is learned via
2 equal-cost paths (192.168.1.9 & 192.168.1.5) - traffic to this network will be
load balanced.
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/32

Question
router# show ip interface brief
Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status
Protocol
GigabitEthernet0/0 unassigned YES NVRAM up up

GigabitEthernet0/0.1 192.168.101.1 YES NVRAM up up

GigabitEthernet0/0.2 192.168.102.1 YES NVRAM up up

GigabitEthernet0/0.3 192.168.103.1 YES NVRAM up up


GigabitEthernet0/0.4 192.168.104.1 YES NVRAM up up

GigabitEthernet0/1 unassigned YES NVRAM up up

GigabitEthernet0/1.1 192.168.201.1 YES NVRAM administratively down down

What information about the interfaces on the router is true?


A. The LAN interfaces are configured on different subnets.
B. Interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 is configured as a trunk.
C. The Layer 2 protocol of interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 is NOT operational.
D. The router is a modular router with five GigabitEthernet interfaces.
E. Interface GigabitEthernet0/1 is administratively deactivated.

Ans B
Interface gi0/0 breaks into sub-interfaces, so gi0/0 in trunk mode.

Question;
router# show ip route connected
172.19.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 3 subnet
C 172.19.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1.10
C 172.19.2.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1.20
C 172.19.3.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1.30
router# show run int gi 0/1.10
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 172.19.1.254 255.255.255.0
end
router# show run int gi 0/1.20
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 172.19.2.254 255.255.255.0
end
router# show run int gi 0/1.30
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1.30
encapsulation dot1Q 30
ip address 172.19.3.254 255.255.255.0
end

Router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs.


All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational.
The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.

What is true about this configuration?


A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
router(config)# router eigrp 100
router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:


router(config)# router ospf 1
router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
router(config)# router rip
router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0

D. No further routing configuration is required.

Question
Which statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on router
R2?
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by Router R2.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on Router R2.
C. It specifies that the router ID for Router R2 should be 10.1.2.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from Router R2.
E. It indicates that Router R2 should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Ans BC
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/40
A loopback interface is always up so it provides stability for the OSPF process.
The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface. If a loopback
interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active router's physical
interfaces will be chosen.

What are drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol?


A. The sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. The requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal
functionality
C. The high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. The high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. The large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the
converged network

Ans BD
Link State routing protocols converge more quickly than distance vector routing
protocols, through the use of flooding and triggered updates. In link state
protocols, changes are flooded immediately and computed in parallel. Triggered
updates improve convergence time by requiring routers to send an update message
immediately upon learning of a route change. These updates are triggered by some
event, such as a new link becoming available or an existing link failing. The main
drawbacks to link state routing protocols are the amount of CPU overhead involved
in calculating route changes and memory resources that are required to store
neighbor tables, route tables and a complete topology database.

Question
Which are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing?
A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the
routing table by hand.
C. Route summarization is computed automatically in the Edge router.
D. Routing tables changes automatically to topology changes.
E. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic
updates.
F. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
G. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.
Ans BG
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/42

When running EIGRP, what is required for Router R1 to exchange routing updates with
Router R3?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected
C. The no auto-summary command is needed on R1 and R3
D. Router R2 needs to have three network statements
E. The "no passive-interface default" command is needed on all routers

Ans A
Routing updated always exchange between in same EIGRP autonomous system (AS).
It can be configured more than one EIGRP autonomous system on the same router.
So it's needed to make redistribution between different EIGRP ASs or configure all
routers in one AS.
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/44

IP Routing Technologies

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to maintain and
build it's topology database?
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by neighbor routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL from multi-hop designated routers

Ans AC
Link-state routing protocols generate routing updates only when a change occurs in
the network topology. When a link changes state, the device that detected the
change creates a link-state advertisement (LSA) concerning that link and sends to
all neighboring devices using a special multicast address. Each routing device
takes a copy of the LSA, updates its link-state database (LSDB), and forwards the
LSA to all neighboring devices.

===================================================================================
======================================
Troubleshooting

Hello: are used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers. They
are also used to elect the Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router
(BDR) on multiaccess networks.
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/45

What actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address
arrives at the interface fa1/0/10 ?
A. Send a SNMP trap
B. Send a message to syslog server
C. Increment the Security Violation counter
D. Forward the traffic
E. Write the MAC address to the config
F. Shutdown the port
Ans ABC
The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be
configured:
Protect - This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be
forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed
MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action is taken
when traffic is dropped.
Restrict - This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be
forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed
MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, a syslog message is logged, a
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent, and a violation counter is
incremented when traffic is dropped.
Shutdown - This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch
will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state
when a violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic.
The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the err-
disable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the switchport.
Shutdown VLAN - This mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but limits the
err-disabled state the specific violating VLAN.
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/46

Question
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/47
R1# sh ip int br
Interface IP-Address OK? Method Status Protocol
FastEthernet0/0 172.16.1.1 YES manual up up
Serial0/0 10.1.1.1 YES manual up down
Serial0/1 unassigned YES NVRAM administratively down down

Hosts with ip address 172.16.1.10 are unable to reach hosts in network


192.168.1.0/24. Based on the output from R1, what are two possible reasons for the
failure?
A. The cable that is connected to serial0/0 on R1 is broken.
B. Interface S0/0 on R2 is administratively down.
C. Interface S0/0 on R1 is configured with an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The IP address that is configured on S0/0 of R2 is not in the correct subnet.
E. Interface S0/0 on R1 is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSU.
F. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of R2 does not match the
encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 of R1.

Ans: EF

OSPF is configured using default classful addressing. With all routers and
interfaces operational, how many networks will be in the routing table of R1 that
are indicated to be learned by OSPF?
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/48

Ans 4
In routing table will be all directly connected routes, only not directly connected
are learned by OSPF.

Classful routing protocols DO NOT send the subnet mask along with their updates,
RIPv1 and IGRP
Classless routing protocols DO send the subnet mask along with their updates,
RIPv2, EIGRP, OSPF, and IS-IS.
After the network has converged, what type of messaging, if any, occurs between R3
and R4 routers?
A. No messages are exchanged
B. Hellos are sent every 10 seconds
C. The full database from each router is sent every 30 seconds
D. The routing table from each router is sent every 60 seconds

Ans
HELLO messages are used to maintain adjacent neighbors, also when the network is
converged.
On broadcast and point-to-point links, default hello packet sends every 10 seconds,
on NBMA the default is 30 seconds.

===================================================================================
======================================
WAN Technologies

Which is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers?


A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. SLIP
D. ISL
E. dot1q
F. Frame Relay
G. ADSL
H. X.25

Ans A
Default encapsulation is HDLC which is by default enabled on all cisco router.

Which options are valid WAN connectivity methods?


A. PPP
B. WAP
C. WAN
D. L2TP
E. 802.11g
F. Frame Relay
G. HDLC

Ans AFG
The following are typical WAN protocols:
1. High-level Data Link Control (HDLC): The Cisco default encapsulation type on
point-to-point connections, dedicated links, and circuit-switches connections.
2. PPP: Provides router-to-router and host-to-network connections over synchronous
and asynchronous circuits.
3. Frame-relay: A successor to X.25. This protocol is an industry-standard,
switches data-link layer protocol that handles multiple virtual circuits
https://ciscoexam.online/CCENT/100-105/53

R1# show interface pos1/0/0


POS1/0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is Packet over Sonet
Description: ATM
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Scramble disabled
LMI enq sent 123412, LMI stat recevd 123414, LMI upd recevd 0, DTE LMI up
<--------
Broadcast queue 0/256, broadcast sent/dropped 234523/0, interface broadcasts
2345233
Last input 00:00:00, output 00:00:00, output hang never
Last clearing of "show interface" counters never
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate 23412 bits/sec, 50 packets/sec

Which WAN protocol is being used pos1/0/0 ?


A. ATM
B. HDLC
C. PPP
D. Frame Relay
Ans D
Local Management Interface (LMI) indicate that it is Frame Relay.
LMI enq sent 123412, LMI stat recevd 123414, LMI upd recevd 0

What occurs on a Frame Relay network when the CIR is exceeded?


A. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible.
B. All UDP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
C. All TCP traffic is marked discard eligible and a BECN is sent.
D. All traffic exceeding the CIR is marked discard eligible.

Ans D
Committed information rate (CIR): The minimum guaranteed data transfer rate agreed
to by the Frame Relay switch. Frames that are sent in excess of the CIR are marked
as discard eligible (DE) which means they can be dropped if the congestion occurs
within the Frame Relay network.
Note: In the Frame Relay frame format, there is a bit called Discard eligible (DE)
bit that is used to identify frames that are first to be dropped when the CIR is
exceeded.

What are characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point sub-interfaces?


A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.

Ans BC
On partially meshed Frame Relay networks, the problem of split horizon can be
overcome by using Frame Relay subinterfaces. Frame Relay provides a mechanism to
allow a physical interface to be partitioned into multiple virtual interfaces. In a
similar way, using subinterfaces allows a partially meshed network to be divided
into a number of smaller, fully meshed point-to-point networks. Generally, each
point-to-point subnetwork is assigned a unique network address. This allows packets
received on one physical interface to be sent out from the same physical interface,
albeit forwarded on VCs in different subinterfaces. There are two types of
subinterfaces supported by Cisco routers: point-to-point and multipoint
subinterfaces.

Which statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP are true?
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Ans BC
CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) is defined as a one-way
authentication method. However, you use CHAP in both directions to create a two-way
authentication. Hence, with two-way CHAP, a separate three-way handshake is
initiated by each side. In the Cisco CHAP implementation, by default, the called
party must authenticate the calling party (unless authentication is completely
turned off). Therefore, a one-way authentication initiated by the called party is
the minimum possible authentication. However, the calling party can also verify the
identity of the called party, and this results in a two-way authentication. One-way
authentication is often required when you connect to non-Cisco devices.

Question
Which command allows you to verify the encapsulation type CISCO or IETF for a Frame
Relay link?

Ans show frame-relay map

What is the purpose of Inverse ARP (Frame Relay)?


A. to map a known IP address to a MAC address
B. to map a known DLCI to a MAC address
C. to map a known MAC address to an IP address
D. to map a known DLCI to an IP address
E. to map a known IP address to a SPID
F. to map a known SPID to a MAC address

Ans D
Frame-Relay uses Inverse-Arp to map a DLCI to a unknow Layer 3 Address.

Which RFC was created to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 1918
B. RFC 4193
C. RFC 1519
D. RFC 1518

Ans A

Which statement about static routes is true?


A. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.0 by default.
B. The source interface can be configured to make routing decisions.
C. A subnet mask is entered for the next-hop address.
D. The exit interface can be specified to indicate where the packets will be
routed.

Ans D

Você também pode gostar