It has been a particularly dry fall.

A small herd of Rocky Mountain range cattle of mixed

breeding have become emaciated in early winter, as the feed supply has diminished. The
owner reports that several were ataxic and all appeared lethargic. On physical exam you
also note that several appear to have aborted. You ride out into the pasture with the owner
and note the plant in the photo predominates at this time of year. You believe that the
plant shown may be incriminated in the problems. What is the plant?

Lupine
Groundsel
Locoweed [ Correct answer ]
Death camas
Larkspur [ Your answer ]
Explanation - Locoweeds are of the genera Astragalus,
Oxytropis, and Swainsona, and many species contain a chemical which inhibits alpha-
mannosidases and causes widespread neurovisceral cytoplasmic vacuolation and
emaciation, as well as abortion and nervous system abnormalities. They tend to grow in
the arid west, and are often eaten when other forage becomes scarce. Horses can also be
affected.
An owner reports that her Golden Retriever has been shaking his head for the last week
and seems uncomfortable. More recently, he seems to be disoriented and circling
although she could not tell you which direction. You look at the dog and notice the head
tilt seen in the photograph. Which of the following is the most appropriate next course of
action after you complete your general physical exam?
 Clean both ears with a commercial ear cleansing solution

A thorough rectal exam

Otoscopic examination of the right
ear
Otoscopic examination of the left ear
Cytology of debris in the ear and appropriate topical antimicrobial
therapy
Explanation - The correct answer is otoscopic examination of the left ear. This dog has clinical
signs (head shaking) associated with otitis and vestibular signs of a head tilt. Your suspicion should
be that the dog may have otitis externa due to the head shaking but possible extension into otitis
interna based on the vestibular signs. To assess the integrity of the tympanic membrane, an
otoscopic exam is an appropriate measure and the left ear is most likely affected due to the left
head tilt. Other ways to assess for otitis interna would include advanced imaging. You would not
want to clean the ears with anything other than saline or prescribe aural medications for a dog that
might have a ruptured tympanic membrane. A thorough rectal exam should be part of every
complete physical exam in an adult dog so it should have already been done; but in any case, it is
not the most appropriate next step for this case.
You diagnose generalized demodicosis in a 3 year old mixed breed dog. What should be your next
step of action?
Treat with antifungals
Warn the owners of the zoonotic potential of
Demodex
Euthanize the dog since it is unlikely to get better even with
treatment
Further diagnostics to search for an underlying systemic disease
Explanation - The correct answer is further diagnostics to search for an underlying systemic
disease. Adult dogs that develop generalized demodicosis usually have an underlying systemic
disease that compromises their immune system and predisposes them to such infections.
Euthanasia is premature here since an underlying disease has not been identified yet. Demodex is
host specific and is not considered to be zoonotic. There is no indication to treat with antifungals at
this point since a yeast infection has not been identified.
An adult cockatiel presents for shifting leg lameness and an inability to bend the toes. An aspirate
from a swollen toe shows spindle shaped crystals cytologically. What is your diagnosis?
Immune mediated polyarthritis

Visceral gout

Synovial gout

Septic polyarthritis
Explanation - The correct answer is synovial gout. This disease occurs when uric acid crystallizes in
the synovium and causes lameness. The underlying pathophysiology is not completely understood
but renal disease is found in many affected birds and treatment generally consists of a low protein
diet, allopurinol, and addressing underlying renal disease
Which is the correct number and distribution of lung lobes in the dog and cat?
6- Left cranial, left middle, left caudal, right cranial right caudal, and
accessory
5- Left cranial, left middle, left caudal, right cranial right caudal
6- Left cranial, left caudal, right cranial, right middle, right caudal, and
accessory
5- Left cranial, left caudal, right cranial, right middle and right caudal
Explanation - The correct answer is 6- Left cranial, left caudal, right cranial, right middle, right
caudal, and accessory. There are only 2 lobes on the left.
A 5 year old Rottweiler comes into your clinic after being kicked by a horse this morning. Physical
exam is unremarkable except for a skin wound along the chest. You take thoracic radiographs and
note three 1-2 cm regions of localized consolidation. What should you tell the client?
These are most likely pulmonary contusions, they constitute a medical emergency and your
dog needs surgery
These are most likely pulmonary contusions, since your dog is not showing respiratory
signs, they are not a problem
These are most likely pulmonary contusions, your dog needs to be carefully monitored for the
next day as they may worsen and lead to breathing problems
These are most likely pulmonary contusions, we should recheck X-rays in 10 days to see if
they are progressing or regressing
Explanation - The correct answer is these are most likely pulmonary contusions, your dog needs to
be carefully monitored for the next day as they may worsen and lead to breathing problems.
Pulmonary contusions can cause respiratory deterioration in the apparently stable patient for up to
24 hours after trauma. They usually then improve over the next 24-48 hours. In this case, careful
monitoring is probably indicated for 24 hours followed by recheck radiographs. These are indicated
to detect possible abscesses, early pneumonia, cysts, or other related injuries.
Which of the following reasons explains why Dalmatians are predisposed to urinary tract
obstructions?
Dalmatians have a genetic defect in the renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine, predisposing
them to a build up of cysteine and the formation of cysteine stones which can cause urinary
tract obstructions.
Dalmatians have a genetic defect in making allantoin from urates in their liver. The low
solubility of urates predisposes the dogs to forming urate stones which can cause urinary
tract obstructions.
Dalmatians have a genetic defect in the immune system of their lower urinary tract,
predisposing them to bacterial cystitis and the formation of struvite stones, which can cause
urinary tract obstructions.
Dalmatians are born with a congenital defect that predisposes them to urethral narrowing and
the formation of urethral strictures.
Explanation - The correct answer is Dalmatians have a genetic defect in making allantoin from
urates in their liver. The low solubility of urates predisposes the dogs to forming urate stones which
can cause urinary tract obstructions. Medical management involves feeding a low purine diet to
neutralize or alkalinize the urine pH and administration of allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor.
Many young (<9 months) rams in a herd develop swelling and edema around the head and neck.
You diagnose bighead (Clostridium novyi Type A). What is the treatment?
Wound debridement and penicillin

Cull or isolate affected animals

No treatment is necessary, the disease is self-limiting

Vaccinate the affected animals against Cl novyi

Explanation - The correct answer is debridement and penicillin. Culling is unnecessary as
Clostridium novyi is found in the soil and feces of healthy animals. Bighead is caused when it enters
through wounds obtained during head butting activities. The disease can be fatal if untreated. The
key to reducing the incidence of this disease is management to reduce head wounds and vaccination
with multivalent clostridial toxoids.
What is the difference between stertor and stridor?
Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction while stertor indicates lower airway
disease
Stridor is another word for wheeze while stertor is another word for crackles.
Stertor is a gurgling noise usually generated in the nasal passages while stridor is a high
pitched sound usually generated near the larynx.
Stridor is audible without a stethoscope while stertor requires a stethoscope to hear.
Explanation - The correct answer is that stertor is a gurgling noise usually generated in the nasal
passages while stridor is a high pitched sound usually generated near the larynx This is always a
source of confusion for veterinary students. Both noises are audible without the aid of a stethoscope
and indicate an extrathoracic problem.
What is the causative agent of Tyzzer's disease in hamsters and rabbits?
Clostridium chauvoei

Clostridium piliforme

Clostridium novyi

Clostridium difficile

While on a trip to the river a Labrador Retriever got into a fight with a fox. What will be your course
of action if the dog is up to date on vaccinations?
Euthanize immediately or vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 45
days
Euthanize immediately

Quarantine for 8 months and vaccinate 3 months prior to release

 Vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 45 days
Euthanize immediately or quarantine for 6 months, and vaccinate 1 month before
release
Explanation - The correct answer is vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 45 days. You can
euthanize or quarantine for 6 months and then vaccinate 1 month prior to release if the lab is not
vaccinated.
What is the most common source of Campylobacter infection in humans?
Undercooked beef

Contaminated water sources

Undercooked chicken

Undercooked pork
Explanation - The correct answer is undercooked chicken. Campylobacter spp. can be isolated in
98% of raw chicken meat so undercooked chicken has a high likelihood of infecting people who
ingest it. Raw milk is another common cause infection.
What is the cause of alpha-Mannosidosis?
Genetic

Bacterial infiltration of the gyri

Fungal

Viral
Explanation - The correct answer is genetic (autosomal-recessive). The condition results due to a
defect of the enzyme alpha-mannosidase and is seen in Murray gray, Simmental, Holstein,
Galloway, and Angus cattle. The cleavage between N-acetylglucosamine and mannose will not occur
and the oligosaccharide will accumulate within the lysosomes of neurons, reticuloendothelial cells,
and macrophages. The first sign at 1 month to 15 months of age will be a mild ataxia of the pelvic
limbs after exercise. Other signs then develop, including hypermetria, aggressiveness, and intention
head tremors. Most affected individuals will end up getting diarrhea and becoming recumbent and
die within months after diagnosis.
A veterinary associate violates a non-compete clause in an employment contract when he leaves his
job and joins a practice a few blocks away. The owner of the previous practice seeks specific dollar
damages for this violation as outlined in the original contract. What is this an example of?
Restitution
Compensatory
damages
Nominal damages
Liquidated
damages
Explanation - Liquidated damages are damages for failure to perform under a contract where
these damages or dollar amount has been established in advance. In this case the owner is seeking
payment for a certain amount of money which the contract says the associate owes him for
breaching the non-compete agreement.

Restitution is a contract remedy acting as an alternative to monetary damages. This is the law of
gains based recovery. The purpose of this is to have the breaching party give up their unfair gains.

Compensatory damages are actual damages paid to compensate the claimant for loss, injury, or
harm suffered by another's breach of duty.

Nominal damages is a small sum (such as one dollar) intended as a statement that the type of
conduct the defendant engaged in should not be permitted, but the claimant did not sustain
significant loss or injury.
What is the classic distribution of aspiration pneumonia in a dog?
Cranioventral
 Craniodorsal

Caudodorsal

Caudoventral
Explanation - The correct answer is cranioventral. The distribution only holds true when the animal
aspirates while in a sternal position. Since this is usually the case, the cranioventral lung is the most
dependent area and where the material is most likely to go directly toward
Lens removal is strongly recommended for several conditions. Which of these conditions
necessitates immediate lens removal?
Anterior lens luxation

Posterior lens luxation

Progressive retinal
atrophy
Incipient cataract

Anterior uveitis
Explanation - The correct answer is anterior lens luxation. Lens removal is indicated in cases of
anterior lens luxation because they usually cause discomfort and usually cause uveitis and
glaucoma. Posterior lens luxations are usually innocuous and can be left on the floor of the vitreous
cavity. An incipient cataract should only have a minor effect on vision and does not necessitate lens
removal. Uveitis and retinal atrophy will not be improved by lens removal. Keep in mind that you
can make an argument for removal of the lens in posterior lens luxation and the cataract, however
the best answer choice is still anterior lens luxation.
Which of the following is not a predisposing factor to ulcerative dermatitis (scale rot) in lizards and
snakes?
Exposure to fecal degradation products

Skin lesions
Inadequate ultraviolet
light
Humid environment
Explanation - The correct answer is inadequate ultraviolet light. Predisposing factors to scale rot or
ulcerative dermatitis in snakes and lizards include a humid environment, fecal contaminated
bedding, dermal lesions, and poor hygiene. Clinical signs include erythema, necrosis and ulceration
of the dermis, and an exudative discharge. Secondary infections often occur with Aeromonas spp.
and Pseudomonas spp. Secondary bacterial infections can often lead to septicemia and death.
Treatment involves improving hygiene and supplying antibiotics.
Which of these inhalant anesthetics has the fastest onset of action in the dog?
Isoflurane

Desflurane

Halothane

Diethyl ether
Explanation - The correct answer is desflurane. Speed of action of inhalant anesthetics is most
directly related to blood-gas solubility. Desflurane has the lowest solubility and therefore, has the
fastest time of action. In order from fastest to slowest, the inhalants are (desflurane, NO,
sevoflurane, isoflurane, enflurane, halothane, diethyl ether, methoxyflurane).
A 6 year old domestic short hair cat has just given birth to 3 kittens. However, there are more
kittens inside and four hours have passed since the last kitten. What is the best treatment option?
Administer calcium

Administer oxytocin

Perform ultrasound
 Caesarean section
Explanation - The correct answer is administration of oxytocin. However, it would not be a bad
idea to give calcium and perform an ultrasound to check the viability of the fetuses. Sometimes on
boards you will see questions where all answers are right and it may be pretty subjective which one
you pick. In this case, oxytocin would be the most correct answer because if you play the odds, you
will get expulsion of the remaining fetuses. Performing radiographs would also be a good answer
option to check for malpositioning or malformations.
You have decided that you need to do an exploratory right flank surgery on a valuable
cow because she has colic and abdominal distention, and is passing scant amounts of
dark red feces. There are no obvious pings. She is dehydrated (skin turgor is abnormal
and eyes sunken) and totally anorectic. The owner reports that she was normal two days
ago when he last looked at her closely.

On exploratory surgery under local anesthesia you find a hard 6 to 8 inch long by 4 inch
diameter mass in the small intestine, as shown in the photo. It is painful to the cow when
it is touched. The bowel proximal to the mass is distended and the bowel distal is empty.
How would you treat this?

Perform a surgical bypass of the mass but do not remove it

Close the cow and give antimicrobial drugs, laxatives and IV
fluids
Euthanize the cow as this is an inoperable tumor

Surgically resect the intussusception

Manually reduce the mass and close the cow

 - Explanation - Hopefully you will be able to recognize that the "mass" visualized in this
image is an intussusception. After removal, an end to end anastomosis of the intestine is
performed, and the cow aggressively treated with antimicrobial drugs and given IV fluids
with a good content of chloride ,such as saline, since these animals are usually suffering
from hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis.
You are examining a 12 year old Quarter Horse that was recently in a barn fire (see
image). You suspect that the epidermis, dermis and adnexal (i.e. hair, sweat glands)
structures are involved. Based on the structures involved, you would classify this as what
type of burn.

1st degree burn

4th degree
burn
3rd degree burn
2nd degree
burn
Explanation - A 3rd degree burn involves the epidermis, dermis, and adnexal structures.
Alternatively, a 1st degree (superficial) burn invovles the epidermis only; a 2nd degree (partial
thickness) burn involves the epidermis and may go down to the deep dermis. 4th degree burns
involve total destruction of the skin, fat, fascia, bone and muscle. This classification scheme
would generally apply to all animals, not just horses.
Which of these are used in the major cross match for blood products to be transfused to a dog?
Donor red blood cells, donor plasma

Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma

Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma

 Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma
Explanation - The correct answer is donor red blood cells, recipient plasma. In a major
crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the recipient are going to
react to the donated red blood cells.
Calves that are fed milk replacers containing linseed oil, soybean oil, fish oil, or corn oil are
predisposed to what deficiency?
Vitamin K

Vitamin E

Calcium

Magnesium

Vitamin D
Explanation - The correct answer is vitamin E. Because these oils are high in polyunsaturated
fatty acids, it is necessary to increase the amount of vitamin E provided so that it can scavenge
all the additional free radicals that result.
What is the treatment of choice for nasal aspergillosis in dogs?
Systemic corticosteroids

Surgery and antibiotics

Systemic antifungal therapy (ie. Itraconazole)

Topical antifungal therapy (ie. Clotrimazole)

Explanation - The correct answer is topical antifungal therapy. Topical antifungal therapy is
considered more efficacious and less costly than long term systemic antifungal therapy.
Corticosteroids would be contraindicated. Surgery and antibiotics would not be successful in
controlling a fungal infection. The currently recognized treatment of choice is clotrimazole, a
synthetic imidazole that has an 80% cure rate with single administration. The main potential
complication is CNS exposure to the drug if there has been erosion of the cribriform plate.
Which of the following is not considered an environmental mastitis organism?
Klebsiella
pneumoniae
Streptococcus bovis

Prototheca

Streptococcus uberis

Streptococcus agalactiae
Explanation - The correct answer is Streptococcus agalactiae. It is involved with contagious
mastitis, and not environmental. The others are all considered to be environmental causes of
mastitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. coli, Enterobacter aerogenes, Arcanobacterium pyogenes,
and Proteus spp. are all causes of environmental mastitis.
What is the causative agent of salmon-poisoning disease?
Borrelia burgdorferi

Rickettsia rickettsii

Nanophyetus salmincola

Neorickettsia helminthoeca
Explanation - The correct answer is Neorickettsia helminthoeca. This is transmitted following
ingestion of raw fish, most notably salmon, which contain metacercariae of the trematode
Nanophyetus salmincola. Once the fish is ingested the flukes mature and adhere to the
intestinal epithelial cells. Rickettsiae replicate and then spread through the lymphatics and
cause an ulcerative and hemorrhagic enterocolitis.
In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show:
 Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia

Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia
Explanation - The correct answer is hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia. Patients with primary
hyperparathyroidism would have hypercalcemia and normo to hypophosphatemia due to the
law of mass action in which phosphorus decreases as calcium increases and vice versa.
The average life span of the avian red blood cell is _________?
120-150 days

90-120 days

14-28 days

28-45 days
Explanation - The correct answer is 28-45 days.
An outbreak of psoroptic mange is identified in a herd of cattle. What is the treatment of choice?
Albendazole

Levamisole

Ivermectin

Pyrethrin
Explanation - The correct answer is ivermectin. Albendazole and levamisole are used to treat
worms. Ivermectin is more effective than pyrethrin.
A 3 year old Golden Retriever presents for acute onset of a non-painful myelopathy
localized to the spinal segments from T3-L3. The dog has superficial and deep pain
perception and some motor function present in its pelvic limbs. It also has hyperreflexive
patellar and gastrocnemius reflexes. The dog is diagnosed with a fibrocartilagenous
embolism (FCE). What do you tell the owners?
The dog will probably continue to get worse and has a poor prognosis
Most dogs with FCE usually get better on their own with nursing care [ Correct answer
]
The dog should be treated with heparin to prevent further emboli
The dog should go to surgery for decompressive surgery [ Your answer
]
Explanation - The correct answer is most dogs with FCE usually get better on their own with
nursing care. FCE is caused by an embolus of disc material in the spinal vasculature. It is
unknown how the disc material gets into the vasculature. The prognosis of dogs with FCE
varies. Most dogs get better with supportive and nursing care. The loss of pain perception and
lower motor neuron signs are poor prognostic indicators.
What breed of dog is most predisposed to development of histiocytic neoplasia?
German Shepherd Dogs

Cocker Spaniels

Giant Schnauzers

Bernese Mountain Dogs

Explanation - The correct answer is Bernese Mountain Dogs. These dogs are by far, the most
overrepresented breed for developing histiocytic neoplasia.
A 6 year old female spayed cat presents for a well circumscribed, raised, yellow-pink linear lesion
on the caudal thigh. What is the most likely diagnosis?
 Eosinophilic granuloma

Bronchoalveolar carcinoma

Deep pyoderma

Mast cell tumor

Cutaneous histiocytoma
Explanation - The correct answer is eosinophilic granuloma. Eosinophilic granulomas or linear
granulomas are usually linear in shape and pink-yellow in color. Typically, they don't crust and
are not usually pruritic. They are thought to be due to hypersensitivity and allergies to fleas,
food, or inhalants. Treatment is aimed at controlling the hypersensitivity. Antibiotics and
corticosteroids are sometimes used.
A 4 month old Holstein heifer has a loud cough, tachypnea, diarrhea, and ill thrift of 8 days
duration. However there are no signs of sepsis, depression, or loss of appetite. On physical exam,
you could hear crackles and wheezes over the lung fields and a harsh bronchial tone
cranioventrally. Given this presentation what is the most likely diagnosis?
Moldy sweet potato
poisoning
Aspiration pneumonia

Enzootic pneumonia

Shipping Fever
Explanation - The correct answer is enzootic pneumonia. This disease is multifactorial but is
mainly a result of poor housing and environment (poor sanitation and ventilation). Calves with
enzootic pneumonia will have cranioventral consolidation and many times they have diarrhea as
a result of being infected with Eimeria bovis (like this one). Shipping fever (fibrinous
pleuropneumonia) will most likely present with more systemic signs, which is key in
differentiating the two diseases. Aspiration pneumonia will probably not result in diffuse lung
pathology without also causing systemic signs. Moldy sweet potato poisoning is a good
differential and will result in respiratory disease followed by death, but there was no history of
exposure here. However, these animals will typically present with more acute respiratory
distress and will probably not survive for 8 days because they usually die 2-5 days after
exposure. The principal toxin is ipomeanol which is produced by sweet potatoes infected with
Fusarium javanicum or F. solani. Ipomeanol will destroy clara cells and type I pneumocytes.
A 2 year old female DSH cat presents for weight loss, anorexia, dyspnea, and lethargy. She was
previously treated with antibiotics, but is still febrile on physical exam. You detect pleural effusion
and notice that the abdomen is distended. On CBC there is a nonregenerative anemia, neutrophilia,
and lymphopenia. On chemistry there is hyperproteinemia and a slight elevation in liver enzymes.
What is your primary differential?
Feline infectious peritonitis

Feline leukemia virus

Feline immunodeficiency virus

Feline calicivirus
Explanation - The correct answer is FIP. This poor cat is infected with the dreaded wet form of
feline infectious peritonitis. Good job if you nailed it!

If you think about the pathogenesis of the virus then these clinical signs make lots of sense.
With FIP the classical lesion is pyogranulomatous vasculitis due to antigen-antibody complexes
depositing in the venular endothelium, which results in pleural and peritoneal effusion. The CBC
findings are common for FIP, but not too specific. In greater then 50% of cats with the wet
form of FIP there will be hyperproteinemia. In greater then 70% of cats with the dry form of FIP
there is hyperproteinemia.
Several cows on a farm have developed large very hard masses along the jaw and you have
diagnosed actinomycosis. What management change would you recommend?
Initiate insect control measures
 Euthanize all affected cows

Remove scabrous feeds

Supplement iodine in the feed

Explanation - The bacteria causing lumpy jaw (Actinomyces bovis) is a normal inhabitant of
the cow's oral cavity or rumen and causes disease when it is able to invade into damaged
mucosa, most frequently caused by scabrous or prickly feed.
Which antibiotic must you not give reptiles in the caudal half of the body?
Doxycycline

Enrofloxacin

Ampicillin

Gentamycin
Explanation - The correct answer is gentamycin. It is key to remember that reptiles have a
renal-portal system in which blood from the caudal half of the body passes through the kidneys
before returning to the heart. Therefore, administration of a potentially nephrotoxic drug, as are
all aminoglycosides, would be contraindicated in the caudal half.
A 4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal
temperature is 101.8 F. Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse?
Administer corticosteroids

Administer penicillin

Inform the state veterinarian

Culture the discharge for
bacteria
Explanation - The correct answer is to culture the discharge for bacteria. The most likely
diagnosis for this horse is equine strangles. Strangles must commonly affects younger horses
(<5 years of age), but can cause disease in any age horse. The etiologic agent of this disease is
Streptococcus equi subsp. equi. The diagnostic test of choice to confirm this is bacterial culture.
While awaiting culture results, the horse should be separated from any other horses as
strangles is highly contagious to other horses. Antibiotic therapy is controversial and thought to
lengthen the course of disease rather than shorten it when given at this stage and may possibly
interfere with the natural immunity acquired from natural infection. This is not a reportable
disease.

Which one of these is not a characteristic of old world monkeys (ie. Colobus monkey,
Proboscis Monkey, or Mandrill Monkey)?

Prehensile tail

Sex skin
Ischial callosities for sitting
Opposable thumbs
The correct answer is prehensile tail. Some may have a tail but it is never prehensile.
New world monkeys such as lemurs, squirrel monkeys also have a wide nasal
septum.
Most bladder stones in rabbits are primarily composed of _________?

Cysteine

Magnesium
 Calcium carbonate
Phosphorus
Urate
Explanation - The correct answer is calcium carbonate. Although there seem to be
multiple causes as to the formation of cystic calculi. One major component is that
rabbits will absorb calcium through their GI tract at a rate directly proportional to the
amount of calcium in their diet regardless if they need it or not. Excess calcium is
then excreted through the kidneys.
You have been called to evaluate a flock of approximately 6 week old chicks who
have been showing signs of respiratory disease. You notice that the hatchery
equipment and facilities are run down. You perform a necropsy on one of the
affected chicks and find cream-colored plaques throughout the lungs. What is your
recommendation to the owner?

Cull affected birds

Separate affected
birds
Begin aggressive broad spectrum antibiotic therapy
Start all birds on appropriate antifungal therapy
Explanation - The correct answer is cull affected birds. The clinical signs and
necropsy findings are consistent with an Aspergillus infection (aka brooder
pneumonia, mycotic pneumonia, or pneumomycosis). The best thing to do is kill
affected birds as treatment is considered useless. Additionally, the facilities should be
thoroughly disinfected
You shine a light in a cat's right eye and see that the right eye constricts but not the
left eye. You then shine a light in the left eye and the left eye does not constrict but
the right eye constricts. Where is there a lesion in the pathway?

Efferent to left eye

Efferent to right eye

Afferent to left eye
Afferent to right eye
The correct answer is efferent to left eye because no matter which eye the light is
shined in, there is no motor (or efferent) response in the left eye.
In a horse with bilaterally prolapsed third eyelids you should rule out this infection.

Tetanus

Thelazia
Moraxella bovis
Botulism
Explanation - The correct answer is tetanus. Other clinical signs may include a
sawhorse stance, stiff gait, stiff tail, and sensitivity to auditory and tactile stimuli.
Presence of an anal reflex implies function at what spinal segments?
Spinal segments S1-S5
 Spinal segments C5-T2
Spinal segments L6-S2
Spinal segments C1-C5

Explanation - The correct answer is spinal segments S1 to S5.

You are at a dairy trying to solve a mastitis problem. You perform a physical exam
on a cow with mastitis and notice serum like secretion with clots from two of the
teats, and the affected quarters are hot and swollen. What can you tell the dairyman
with a fair degree of confidence about the type of mastitis this is likely to be?

This cow is infected with a fungus

This cow is infected with Arcanobacterium pyogenes

This cow is infected with a coliform
This cow is infected with a contagious pathogen
Explanation - The correct answer is this cow is infected with a coliform. This is a
typical secretion with coliform mastitis and you should know this.
Which of these is not a likely cause of the pneumothorax for the dog in the picture?

Ruptured bullae

Penetrating trauma
Migrating foxtail
Pulmonary hypertension
Explanation - The correct answer is pulmonary hypertension. This is never a cause
of pneumothorax and actually results in heart failure. The others are possible causes
of a pneumothorax. This dog has a chest tube and is hooked up to a continuous
suction unit.
Anal pruritus in the horse can be associated with an infestation of this parasite.

Anoplocephala

Strongylus analis
Oxyuris equi
Parascaris equorum
Habronema muscae
Explanation - The correct answer is Oxyuris equi. This is the equine pin worm which
will infest the perineal region and results in perineal irritation after egg laying. A
frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a
scotch tape preparation. Strongylus analis is meant to be a distracter and is a
fictional parasite.
You examine a 6 year old horse for head tilt to the left (left ear is lower, see image). The
owner first observed this 2 days ago and it has since worsened. On PE T=102 F, and
Pulse and Respiratory rate are normal. Other CNS signs include mild facial paralysis,
mild ataxia, and nystagmus that is not changed by head position. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

Nigropallidal encephalomalacia

Vestibular disease
Locoweed poisoniong
Leukoencephalomalacia
 Cerebellar abiotrophy
Explanation - These signs are compatible with mild infectious vestibular disease
caused by bacterial otitis media/interna. Other possible causes of vestibular disease
are gutteral pouch empyema, polyneuritis equi, viral labyrinthitis, and traumatic skull
fractures.
A 3 year old male domestic shorthair cat presents for a two day history of lethargy,
vomiting and vocalizing progressing to recumbency. On initial evaluation, heart rate
is 100 bpm, pulse quality is poor, mentation is obtunded and there is a large firm
bladder on abdominal palpation. An intravenous catheter is placed. Which of the
following is the most immediately life-saving intervention?

Placing a urinary catheter to relieve urethral obstruction

IV administration of sodium bicarbonate

IV administration of a balanced electrolyte solution
IV administration of dextrose
IV administration of regular insulin
IV administration of calcium gluconate
Explanation - Calcium gluconate will serve to immediately counter the effects of
hyperkalemia-induced bradycardia and cardiovascular collapse in this cat with a most
likely diagnosis of urethral obstruction. The other interventions will help to reduce
the level of potassium and could be a part of therapy but may not take effect rapidly
enough to address the most life threatening component of the cat's illness.