MUJ Aptitude Book

Aptitude Handbook
INDEX
Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 1

S.No. Topic Page No.
1 Number System 3 – 25
2 Permutations and Combinations 26 - 49
3 Probability 50 – 79
4 Time, Speed and Distance 80 – 107
5 Time & Work and pipes & Cisterns 108 – 135
6 Clocks 136 – 149
7 Calendar 150 – 164
8 Syllogism 165 – 195
9 Analytical Reasoning 196 – 208
10 Logical Venn Diagram 209 – 227
11 Analogy Test 228 – 240
12 Classification 241 – 252
13 Coding – Decoding 253 – 267
Logical Alphabets, Number and Time Sequence
14 Test 268 – 290
15 Sitting Arrangement 291 – 305
16 Logical Arrangement of Words 306 – 317
17 Data Sufficiency 318 – 336
18 Arithmetical Reasoning 337 – 348
19 Puzzle Test 349 - 365

Number System
Number System

Any system of naming or representing numbers is called as a number system. In general, a number
system is a set of numbers with one or more operations. Number system includes real numbers,
complex numbers, rational numbers, irrational numbers, integers, whole numbers, etc.
Prime Numbers

Any number greater than 1, which has exactly two factors (1 and itself) is called a prime number. The
only even prime number is 2. All prime numbers greater than 3 can be expressed in the form of 6n 
1, where n is a positive integer. Examples: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17 ……….
Composite Numbers:
Any number greater than 1 which is not a prime is called a composite number. Examples: 4, 6, 8, 9,
10,
Note:
1) 1 is neither prime nor a composite number.
2) There are 25 prime integers between 1 and 100: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47,
53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, and 97.
3) The difference between two consecutive prime numbers need not be constant.
4) If p is any composite number, then (p-1)! = (p-1)(p-2)(p-3)......3.2.1 is divisible by p.
To check whether a number is prime or not:
(1)Find the square root of the given number.

(2) Ignore the decimal part of the square root, consider only the integral part.
(3) Find all the prime integers less than or equal to the integral part of the square root.
(4) Check whether the given number is divisible by any of these prime numbers.
(5) If the given number is not divisible by any of these prime numbers then it is a prime number,
otherwise it is not a prime number.
Examples: Find whether 577 is prime or not.
Solution: (i) Find the square root of the given number. 577 = 24.02
(ii) Ignore the decimal part of the square root, consider only the integral part. 577 = 24
Find all the prime integers less than or equal to the integral part of the square root.
Prime integers less than or equal to 24 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, and 23.
(iv)Check whether the given number is divisible by any of these prime numbers.
577 is not divisible by any of the above prime numbers 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, and 23.
(v) If the given number is not divisible by any of these prime numbers then it is a prime number,
otherwise it is not a prime number. So, 577 is a prime integer.
Co–prime numbers:
Two numbers are said to be co-prime or relatively prime if their HCF is 1, or if they have no common
factors other than 1.Example: 8 and 27 are co-prime, but 8 and 36 are not co-prime because both
are divisible by 4.
Note that 1 is co-prime to every integer
Solved Examples - Primes

Question 1
Find the product of distinct prime factors of 34476.
A. 1321 B. 1326 C.34476 D.2873.
Answer : B.
The method to find the prime factor is,

1. Find the lowest prime number that divides it exactly.
2. Check if the result of division is prime.
3. If not, find the next lowest.
4. Repeat the step 2.
Here, we have to find the prime factors of 34476.

Apply the above method; we get 34476 = 2 x 2 x 3 x 13 x 13 x 17.
Required product = 17 x 13 x 3 x 2 = 1326.
Question 2
If N is a prime number and 8N is less than 160 and greater than 72 then 12N-7 is
A. 197 B. 239 C. 97 D. 251
Answer : A. 197
Given that, N is a prime number we have to find 12N-7.

8N is less than 160 and greater than 72 can be expressed as 72 < 8N < 160.
The above inequality can be simplified to get the term 12-N as follows,
Dividing by 8, we get
9 < N < 20
Multiplying by 12 we get,
108 < 12N < 240.
Subtracting 7 from each term, we get

101 < 12N - 7 < 233
Therefore, 12N-7 lies between 101 and 233.

From the given options, 197 is less than 233 and greater than 101.
Hence, the answer is 197.
Question 3
What is the first prime number that enters in the series 12, 21, 30,... ?
A. 67 B. 73 C. 83 D. cannot be determined.
Answer: D. cannot be determined.

Given series is 12, 21, 30,...
Here the difference of successive terms is 9.
Therefore, the series is an A.P with a = 12 and d = 9.
The general notation of A.P series is a, a+d , a+2d,...

Here, 12, 12+9, 12+2(9), 12+3(9),...
We can rewrite the above series as,
12, 3(4+3), 3(4+2(3)), 3(4+3(3)),...
Therefore, every term of the series is a multiple of 3. i.e., composite number and none of these is a
prime number.
Note that, if a and d are not co-prime then none of the terms in the A.P series is prime and if a and d
are co-prime then there are infinite primes.
Hence, the prime number does not exist in the given series.
Divisibility
Dividing by 3
Add up the digits: if the sum is divisible by three, then the number is as well.
Examples: 111111: the digits add to 6 so the whole number is divisible by three. 87687687. The
digits add up to 57, and 5 plus seven is 12, so the original number is divisible by three.
Dividing by 4
Look at the last two digits. If the number formed by its last two digits is divisible by 4, the original
number is as well. Examples: 100 is divisible by 4. 1732782989264864826421834612 is also divisible
by four, because 12 is divisible by four.
Dividing by 5
If the last digit is a five or a zero, then the number is divisible by 5.
Dividing by 6
Check 3 and 2. If the number is divisible by both 3 and 2, it is divisible by 6 as well.
Dividing by 7
To find out if a number is divisible by seven, take the last digit, double it, and subtract it from the
rest of the number.
Example:

If you had 203, you would double the last digit to get six, and subtract that from 20 to get 14. If you
get an answer divisible by 7 (including zero), then the original number is divisible by seven. If you
don't know the new number's divisibility, you can apply the rule again.
TEST: Take the number and multiply each digit beginning on the right hand side (ones) by 1, 3, 2, 6,
4, 5. Repeat this sequence as necessary .Add the products. If the sum is divisible by 7 - so is your
number.
Example: Is 2016 divisible by 7? 6(1) +1(3) + 0(2) + 2(6) = 21 . 21 is divisible by 7 and we can now say
that 2016 is also divisible by 7.
Dividing by 8
Check the last three digits. Since 1000 is divisible by 8, if the last three digits of a number are
divisible by 8, then so is the whole number.
Example: 33333888 is divisible by 8; 33333886 isn't.
Dividing by 9
Add the digits. If that sum is divisible by nine, then the original number is as well.
Example: 12348 is divisible by 9; as the sum is 18
Dividing by 10
If the number ends in 0, it is divisible by 10.
Example: 20 , 345ABCV80
Dividing by 11
Find the sum of alternate numbers and if the difference between those two numbers is zero or
multiple of 11 then the number is divisible by 11.
Let's look at 352, which is divisible by 11; the answer is 3+2 is 5 and 5 - 5 = 0
Another way to say this is that 35 -2 is 33.
Dividing by 12
Check for divisibility by 3 and 4.
Example: 936, it is divisible by both 3 and 4 and thus by 12.
Dividing by 13

Delete the last digit from the given number. Then subtract nine times the deleted digit from the
remaining number. If what is left is divisible by 13, then so is the original number.
Example: 104
10 - 36 = -26, which is divisible by 13 so 104 is divisible by 13
Dividing by 17
The result of subtracting five times the last digit from the number with the last digit removed is
divisible by 17. Example: 187: "18" - ("7" x 5) = -17 is divisible by 17
Dividing by 19
The result of adding twice the last digit to the number with the last digit removed is divisible by 19.
Example: 437: "43" + ("7"x2) = 57 is divisible by 19.
Dividing by 23
The result of adding seven times the last digit to the number with the last digit removed is divisible
by 23.
Example: 598: "59"+("8" x 7)= 115 is divisible by 23.
TIP: If a number is divisible by two different prime numbers, then it is divisible by the products of
those two numbers. Since 36, is divisible by both 2 and 3, it is also divisible by 6.
Points to Remember:
1. If n is odd, n(n2-1) is divisible by 24 and if n is an odd prime number greater than 3, n2-1 is
divisible by 24. For example,
n = 11, n2-1 = 112 – 1 = 120 = 24*5, divisible by 24.
2. If n is odd, n2+1 is divisible by 3 and if n is even, 2n-1 is divisible by 3.
3. If n is an odd number 22n+1 is divisible by 5 and if n is an even number, 22n-1 is divisible by 5.
4. If n is odd, 52n+1 is divisible by 13 and if n is even, 52n-1 is divisible by 13.
5. If a<b, then a< a+b/2<b. this is because a+b/2 is the average of a and b.
Average of two numbers lies between the two numbers. There are infinite number of rational
numbers between any two rational numbers.
6. xn+yn is divisible by x+y where in is odd and xn+yn = (x+y)(xn-1 – xn-2y + xn-3y2+........+ yn-1).
7. xn-yn is divisible by x-y where n is even and by x-y when n is either even or odd and xn-yn = (x+y)(xn-
1
– xn-2y +xn-3y2 - ........+ yn-1. Where n is even

And xn-yn = (x-y)(xn-1 + xn-2y +........+ yn-1). When n is either odd or even.
The fifth power of any single digit number has the same right hand digit as the number itself.
x3-x is divisible by 3.
Difference between the squares of two consecutive numbers is always an odd number is equal to
the sum of those two consecutive numbers.
Finding the number of zeroes at the end of an expression:

The numbers of zeroes are formed by a combination of 2’s and 5’s in an expression.
Thus the number of pairs of 2’s and 5’s in an expression gives the number of zeroes at the end of
that expression.
Example: Find the number of zeroes in a product 25 * 33 * 52 * 72

In the above product, there are five 2’s and two 5’s.
Thus only two pairs of (2 * 5) are formed.
Thus the number of zeroes at the end of the product is 2.
n! = n * (n – 1) * (n – 2) ... 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1
This can also be written as
n! = n * (n – 1) * (n – 2) ... 5 * 2 * 2 * 3 * 2 * 1
Thus in any factorial value the number of 5’s will always be lesser than the number of 2’s and hence
the number of zeroes is the number of 5’s in that factorial value.
In general, the number of zeroes in n! is given by
where m is the maximum positive integer such that 5m  n and [x] denotes the integral
part of x.
Example: Find the number of zeroes in 139!
Number of zeroes = = 27 + 5 + 1 = 33 zeroes
Remainder & Quotient:
"The remainder is r when p is divided by k" means p=kq+r the integer q is called the quotient.
For instance, "The remainder is 1 when 7 is divided by 3" means 7=3*2+1.

Dividing both sides of p=kq+r by k gives the following alternative form pk=q+rk
Example: The remainder is 57 when a number is divided by 10,000. What is the remainder when the
same number is divided by 1,000?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 43 D. 57 E. 570
Solution:
Since the remainder is 57 when the number is divided by 10,000, the number can be
expressed as 10,000n+57, where n is an integer.
Rewriting 10,000 as 1,000*10 yields 10,000n+57=1,000(10n)+57
Now, since n is an integer, 10 n is an integer. Letting 10n=q , we get
10,000n+57=1,000*q+57
Hence, the remainder is still 57 (by the p=kq+r form) when the number is divided by 1,000. The
answer is (D)
Method II (Alternative form)

Since the remainder is 57 when the number is divided by 10,000, the number can be
expressed as 10,000n+57. Dividing this number by 1,000 yields
=10,000n/1000+57/1000=10n+57/1000
Hence, the remainder is 57 (by the alternative form pk=q+rk ), and the answer is D
Progression:
A succession of numbers formed and arranged in a definite order according to certain definite rule,
is called a progression.
1. Arithmetic Progression (A.P.): If each term of a progression differs from its preceding term
by a constant, then such a progression is called an arithmetical progression. This constant
difference is called the common difference of the A.P.
An A.P. with first term a and common difference d is given by a, a+d, a+2d, a+3d.,.....
The nth term of this A.P. is given by Tn=a(n−1)d.
The sum of n terms of this A.P. Sn=(n/2)[2a+(n−1)d]=(n/2)*(first term + last term).
Some Important Results: (i) (1+2+3+….+n)= n(n+1)/2

(ii) (12+22+32+...+n2)= n(n+1)(2n+1)/6
(iii) (13+23+33+...+n3)= {n(n+1)/2}2
2. Geometrical Progression (G.P.): A progression of numbers in which every term bears a

constant ratio with its preceding term, is called a geometrical progression. The constant ratio is
called the common ratio of the G.P.
A G.P. with first term a and common ratio r is :a,ar,ar2,…..

In this G.P.nth term, Tn=arn−1
sum of n terms, Sn=a(1−rn)/(1−r) when r<1
# The p/q form of a purely recurring number = The recurring part written once/ As many
9’s as the number of digits in the recurring part.
Example: let x = 0.5555555...

10x = 5.5555...
So, 9x = 10x – x = (5.555...) – (0.555..) = 5
x = 5/9
Example: let x = 0.143333...
100x = 14.333....
1000x = 143.3333...
900x = 1000x – 100x = (143.333...) = 129
x = 129/900
# The p/q form of any recurring number = The non-recurring and recurring part written
once)-(the non-recurring part)/ As many 9’s as the number of digits in the recurring part
followed by as many 0’s as digits in the non-recurring part.
Example: Express 0.643643643... as a fraction.
Let x = 0.643643643…
1000x = 643.643643643...
1000x – x = 643.643643.... – 0. 643.643643.....
999x = 643
x = 643/999
Example: Arrange the following rational numbers in ascending order: -7/10, -5/8, -2/3.
Solution: -7/10 = -0.7, -5/8 = -0.625, -2/3 = -0.666
Clearly, -7/10<-2/3<-5/8.
Solved Examples
Example: Find the smallest number of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 111?
Solution: Smallest number of 6 digits is 100000

On dividing 10000 by 111 we get 100 as remainder
Number to be added =111-100=11.
Hence, required number =10011.
Example: If each of the three nonzero numbers a , b and c is divisible by 3, then abc must be
divisible by which one of the following the numbers?

Solution: Since each one of the three numbers a, b, and c is divisible by 3, the numbers can be
represented as 3p,3q, and 3r, respectively, where p, q, and r are integers.
The product of the three numbers is 3p×3q×3r=27(pqr).
Since p, q, and r are integers, pqr is an integer and therefore abc is divisible by 27.
Example: The LCM of two numbers is 280 and their ratio is 7:8. The two numbers are
A. 70,80
B. 35,40
C. 42,48
D. 28,32
Solution:
Let the number be 7x and 8x
HCF = x
Hence, HCF × LCM=7x×8x
⇒ 280x=56x×x
⇒ x=5
Thus numbers are 35 and 40.
Example: If we write down all the natural numbers from 259 to 492 side by side get a very large
natural number 259260261....491492. How many 8's will be used to write this large natural number?
A. 32
B. 43
C. 52
D. 53
Solution:
From 259 to 458, there are 200 natural numbers so there will be 2×20=40 8's
From 459 to 492 we have 13 more 8's and so answer is 40+13= 53
Example: How many five digit multiples of 11 are there, if the five digits are 3,4,5,6 and 7 in the
same order?
A. 10
B. 11

C. 12
D. 13
Solution:
A number is divisible by 11, if the difference between the sum of digits at even places and odd places
is either 0 or divisible by 11.
Numbers 5,3,6,4,7 is a multiple of 11.
The number at odd places 5,6,7 can be arranged in 3! ways and 3,4 can be arranged in 2! ways.
Therefore, total number of ways of such numbers =3!×2!= 12
Example: What is the value of M and N respectively if M39048458N is divisible by 8 and 11, where M
and N are single digit integers?
A. 7, 8
B. 8, 6
C. 6, 4
D. 5, 4
Solution:
A number is divisible by 8 , if the number formed by the last three digits is divisible by 8.
i.e 58N is divisible by 8 ⇒ N=4
Again a number is divisible by 11, if the difference between the sum of digits at even places and sum
of digits at the odd places is either 0 or divisible by 11.
i.e, (M+9+4+4+8)−(3+0+8+5+N)=M−N+9=M+5
It cannot be zero hence, M+5=11 ⇒ M=6.
Example: IBM-Daksh observes that it gets a call at an interval of every 10 minutes from Seattle, at
every 12 minutes from Arizonia, at the interval of 20 minutes from New York and after every 25
minutes it gets the call from Newark. If in the early morning at 5:00 a.m. it has received the calls
simultaneously from all the four destinations, then at which time it will receive the calls at a time
from all places on the same day?
A. 10:00 am
B. 3:00 am
C. 5:00 am
D. Both A and B

Solution:
IBM – Daksh gets simultaneous calls from all the placers after an interval of time given by the LCM of
10, 12, 20 and 25 which is 300.
So, the next simultaneous calls are received after 300 minutes or after 5 hours or at 10:00a.m.
Hence A. is correct.
Example: If n is a positive integer, which one of the following numbers must have a remainder of 3
when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5, and 6?
A. 12n + 3
B. 24n + 3
C. 90n + 2
D. 120n + 3
Solution:
Let m be a number that has a remainder of 3 when divided by any of the numbers 4, 5, and 6.
Then m–3 must be exactly divisible by all three numbers.
Hence, m–3 must be a multiple of the Least Common Multiple of the numbers 4, 5, and 6.
The LCM is 3×4×5=60.
Hence, we can suppose m–3=60p, where p is a positive integer.
Replacing p with n, we get m–3=60n.
So, m=60n+3.
Choice D is in the same format 120n + 3 =60(2n)+3
Example: Find the remainder when 231 is divided by 5.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 3
D. 7
Solution:
210=1024
Unit digit of 210×210×210 is 4 [as 4×4×4 gives unit digit 4].

⇒ Unit digit of 231 is 8. Now, 8 when divided by 5, gives 3 as remainder.
Hence, 231 when divided by 5, gives 3 as remainder.
Example: The sum of three digit number is subtracted from the number. The resulting number is
always
A. divisible by 6
B. not divisible by 6
C. divisible by 9
D. not divisible by 9
Solution:
Let the three digit number be 439
Sum of digits =16
Difference =439−16=423 which is divisible by 9.
Example: If N=23×34 , M= 22×3×5, then find the number of factors of N that are common with the
factors of M.
A. 8
B. 6
C. 18
D. 20
Solution:
The factors that are common must also be the factors of HCF(N,M)
HCF(N,M) =22×3
Number of factors of 22×3=(2+1)(1+1)=6
So there are 6 factors that are common to both.
Example: What is the last digit of the number 35 ^79+ 1?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 7
D. 3

Solution:
Any power of 5 when divided by 4 gives a remainder 1.
Here the power of 3 is itself a power of 5 and will give remainder of 1 when divided by 4.
The last digit of the number will be 3.
And, hence, last digit of the given number is 3+1= 4.
Example: If x and y are any natural numbers, then which of the following is an odd number ?
A. xy+yx+(x−y)(xy+x)
B. xy(x+y)(xy+x)
C. yx(xy–y)(xy−x)
D. None of these
Solution:
x and y are natural numbers.
We know that of any natural number p.
pn+p is even
And, pn–p is even.
When we multiply an even number to any natural number the resultant number is even.
Example: A and B are playing mathematical puzzles. A asks B "which whole numbers, greater than
one, can divide all the nine three digit numbers 111,222,333,444,555,666, 777,888 and 999?" B
immediately gave the desired answer. It was
A. 3, 37 and 119
B. 3, 37 and 111
C. 9, 37 and 111
D. 3, 9 and 37
Solution:
Each of the number can be written as a multiple of 111.
The factors of 111 are 3 and 37
Thus the desired answer is 3,37 and 111

Example: Two prime numbers A,B(A<B. are called twin primes if they differ by 2 (e.g. 11,13,or
41,43....)If A and B are twin primes with B>23, then which of the following numbers would always
divide A+B?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 24
D. None of these
Solution:
Any prime number greater than 3 will be in the form of 6x+1 or 6x−1.
Thus both prime number are twins
Let first be 6x−1
and 2nd be 6x+1
Sum=12x
Thus it is always divisible by 12.
Example: The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of a two digit number is less than the
original number by 27. If the difference between the two digits of the number is 3, what is the
original number?
A. 74
B. 63
C. 85
D. Cannot be determined
Solution:
Let the number be xy.
The number =10x+y
On interchanging the digits of the number =10y+x
⇒ 10x+y−10y−x=27
⇒ x−y=3
Now, y is not equal to zero and the set of digits satisfying the condition are :
(9,6),(8,5),(7,4),(6,3),(5,2),(4,1)

⇒ We can't reach on the distinct answer.
Example: How many 3-digit numbers do not have an even digit or a zero?
A. 60
B. 80
C. 125
D. 150
Solution:
There are 5 digits that are not even or zero: 1,3,5,7 and 9.
Now, let’s count all the three-digit numbers that can be formed from these five digits.
The first digit of the number can be filled in 5 ways with any one of the mentioned digits.
Similarly, the second and third digits of the number can be filled in 5 ways.
Hence, the total number of ways of forming the three-digit number is 125 (=5×5×5).
Example: The number 3072 is divisible by both 6 and 8. Which one of the following is the first
integer larger than 3072 that is also divisible by both 6 and 8?
A. 3084
B. 3086
C. 3090
D. 3096
Solution:
Any number divisible by both 6 and 8 must be a multiple of the least common multiple of the two
numbers, which is 24.
Hence, any such number can be represented as 24 n .
If 3072 is one such number and is represented as 24n, then the next such number should be
24(n+1)=24n+24=3072+24= 3096.
Example: The LCM of two number is 4800 and their HCF is 160. If one number is 480, then the
second number is
A. 1200
B. 1500
C. 1600

D. 1800
Solution:
HCF × LCM = product of two numbers
Hence,4800×160=480×x
⇒ x= 1600
Example: The numbers 1 to 29 are written side by side as follows 1234567891011......2829. If the
number is divided by 9, then what is the remainder?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Solution:
Sum of digits from 1 to 10 = 46
sum of digits from 11 to 20 =56
sum of digits from 21 to 29 =63
sum of the digits from numbers =46+56+63=165
Sum of digits in the number 165 =12 which gives a remainder of 3 when divided by 9.
Example: When 75% of a two-digit number is added to it, the digits of the number are reversed. Find
the ratio of the unit's digit to the ten's digit in the original number.
A. 1:2
B. 1:4
C. 2:1
D. 3:2
Solution:
Suppose the number is xy
we have, 10x+y+75/100×(10x+y)=10y+x
Hence yx=21
Example: Three gold coins of weight 780gm, 840gm and 960gm are cut into small pieces, all of which
have the equal weight. Each piece must be heavy as possible. If one such piece is shared by two
persons, then how many persons are needed to give all the pieces of gold coins?
A. 86
B. 70
C. 43
D. 35
Solution:
HCF(780, 840, 960) = 60
Thus total number of pieces

⇒ 780/60+840/60+960/60=13+14+16=43
Example: Each of X alarm tolls at regular intervals. All of them tolls together twelve times a day. No
two alarm at equal intervals of time. If each alarm tolls after a whole number of minutes, what is the
maximum possible value of X?
A. 14
B. 16
C. 18
D. 20
Solution:
The alarm tolls together twelve times a day. Therefore, they toll together once every 2 hours (or 120
minutes).
Since no two alarms toll at equal intervals of time, the total number of distinct factors of 120,
including 1 and 120 itself =23×3×5
The number of factors =(3+1)×2×2=16.
The maximum value of X is 16.
Example: A person uses the base x for his number system, where x ≤ 10. A student had to add two-
digit numbers. None of the digits was 0. By oversight, he reversed the digits of both the numbers
and added them. He later found that the difference between his answer and the correct answer was
84. If this value is the maximum possible for x, then what is the value of x.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Solution:
The difference between a number pq with non-zero digits and its reverse qp in base x is |p−q|(x−1).
This is maximum when {p,q}={x−1,1}.
This difference is (x−2)(x−1).
For the sum of two numbers and the sum of their reverses.
It is 2(x−2)(x−1)
2(x−2)(x−1)=84.
⇒ x= 8.
Example: N is the smallest number that has 5 factors. How many factors does (N - 1) have??
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Solution:
A number that has 5 factors has to be of the form p4 where 'p' is a prime number.

The smallest such number is 24=16
Therefore, N−1=15.
The factors of 15 are 1,3,5,15.
So, N - 1 has 4 factors.
Example: What is the index of the highest power of 3 in the product of all the elements of the set S?
A. 35
B. 48
C. 6
D. 36
Solution:
The product of all element of S is:
{3,5,7,56,58,60
9,11,13,62,64,66
………………………
………………………
51,53,55,146,148,150}
⇒ {3,3×3,3×5,.................3×17
3×20,3×22,3×24,……………..(3×50)M}
⇒ 39×3×9×3×316×24×30×36×42×148N⇒335S
Example: Let X be a four-digit number with exactly three consecutive digits being same and is a
multiple of 9. How many such X’s are possible?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 19
D. 20
Solution:
Let the four digit number be ′aaab′ or ‘baaa’
Since, the number has to be a multiple of 9, therefore 3a+b should be either 9,18 or 27.
Case I: 3a+b=9
Possible cases are: (1116,6111,2223,3222,3330,9000)
Case II: 3a+b=18
Possible cases are: (3339,9333,4446,6444,5553,3555,6660)
Case III: 3a+b=27
Possible cases are: (6669,9666,8883,3888,7776,6777,9990)
Hence total number of cases 20.
Example: The remainder when m + n is divided by 12 is 8, and the remainder when m – n is divided
by 12 is 6. If m > n, then what is the remainder when mn divided by 6?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Solution:
Since the remainder when m+n is divided by 12 is 8, m+n=12p+8;
and since the remainder when m–n is divided by 12 is 6, m–n=12q+6.
Here, p and q are integers. Adding the two equations yields 2m=12p+12q+14.
Solving for m yields m=6p+6q+7=6(p+q+1)+1=6r+1,
where r is a positive integer equaling p+q+1.
Now, let’s subtract the equations m+n=12p+8 and m–n=12q+6.
This yields 2n=(12p+8)–(12q+6)=12(p–q)+2.
Solving for n yields n=6(p–q)+1=6t+1,
where t is an integer equaling p–q
Hence, we have mn=(6r+1)(6t+1)=36rt+6r+6t+1=6(6rt+r+t)+1 by factoring out 6
Hence, the remainder is 1
Example: How many ordered pairs of integer (x,y) are there such that their product is a positive
integer less than 100.
A. 546
B. 636
C. 1090
D. 946
Solution:
Given 0<xy<100 and x,y are integers.
x and y are either both positive or both negative.
Also given (x,y) is not equal to (y,x).
If x =1 y can take values from 1 to 99
⇒ we have 99×2=198 pairs but (1,1) is repeated
Thus can take 198−1=197 pairs.
If x=2 , y can take values from 2 to 49
[(2,1) and (1,2) are also covered in 197 pairs above].
⇒ 48×2−1=95 pairs [(2,2) is repeated]
Similarly,
If x=3 or y=3 we have 61 pairs
If x=4 ory=4 we have 41 pairs
We have total 473 pairs when x and y are positive.
We will have 473 pairs when a and b are negative.

⇒ We have a total of 946 ordered pairs.
Example: a, b, c, d, and e are five consecutive integers in increasing order of size. Which one of the
following expressions is not odd?
A. ab + c
B. ab + d
C. ac + d
D. ac + e
Solution:
Choice A: ab+c
At least one of every two consecutive positive integers a and b must be even.
Hence, the product ab is an even number.
Now, if c is odd (which happens when a is odd., ab+c must be odd.
For example, if a=3,b=4, and c=5, then ab+c must equal 12+5=17, an odd number. Reject.
Choice B: ab+d:
We know that ab being the product of two consecutive numbers must be even. Hence, if d happens
to be an odd number (it happens when b is odd., then the sum ab+d is also odd.
For example, if a=4, then b=5,c=6 and d=7, then ab+d=3⋅5+7=15+7=23, an odd number. Reject.
Choice C: ac+d
Suppose a is odd. Then c must also be odd, being a number 2 more than a .
Hence, ac is the product of two odd numbers and must therefore be odd.
Now, d is the integer following c and must be even.
Hence, ac+d=odd + even = odd.
For example, if a=3, then b=3+1=4,c=4+1=5 odd. and d=5+1=6 (even) and ac+d=3×5+6=21, an odd
number. Reject.
Choice D: ac+e
Suppose a is an odd number.
Then both c and e must also be odd.
Now, ac is product of two odd numbers and therefore must be odd.
Summing this with another odd number e yields an even number.
For example, if a=1, then c must equal 3, and e must equal 5 and ac+e must equal 1×3+5=8, an even
number.
Now, suppose a is an even number.
Then both c and e must also be even.
Hence, ac+e=
(product of two even numbers) + (an even number) =
(even number) + (even number) =an even number
For example, if a=2, then c must equal 4, and e must equal 6 and the expression ac+e equals 14, an
even number. Hence, in any case, ac + e is even. Correct.
Example: How many three digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1,2,3,4,5,6,7 and 8 without
repeating the digits and such that the tens digit is greater than the hundreds digit and less than the
units digit?
A. 48

B. 56
C. 64
D. 72
Solution:
Ten's digit = 7 ⇒ units digit =8 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1,2,3,4,5,6.
⇒ Number of ways =1×6
Ten's digit = 6 ⇒ units digit =7,8 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1,2,3,4,5.
Ten's digit = 5 ⇒ units digit =6,7,8 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1,2,3,4
Ten's digit = 4 ⇒ units digit =5,6,7,8 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1,2,3.
Ten's digit = 3 ⇒ units digit =4,5,6,78 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1,2
Ten's digit = 2 ⇒ units digit =3,4,5,6,7,8 ⇒ Hundred's digit =1
Total number of ways =6+10+12+12+10+6= 56.
Example: Find the sun of the digits of the least natural number P, such that the sum of the cubes of
the four smallest distinct divisors of P equals 2P.
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Solution:
Let the least number be P, 1 is its least divisor.
Let 2nd,3rd and 4th least divisors be x,y and z respectively.
We consider the following values of divisor a and the corresponding values of a3, from x,y and z
exactly 1 or all 3 are odd.(P is even)
a=1:a3=1
a=2:a3=8
a=3:a3=27
a=4:a3=64
a=5:a3=125
a=6:a3=216
For x, y and z=(2,3,4),2P=100(i.e.P=50). But 3 is not a divisor of 50.
Forx,y,z=(2,3,6),2P=252(i.e.P=126) and the 1,2,3,6 are four least distinct divisor of 126.
The required number is 126. The sum of digits is 9.

Permutations and Combinations

Factorial Notation
Let n be a positive integer. Then factorial n denoted by n! is defined as
n ! = n(n-1)(n-2)….3.2.1
Example: 5! = 5.4.3.2.1
= 120
Also, 0! = 1
Permutation: The different arrangements of a given number of things by taking some or, all
at a time are called permutations.
Note: Arrangement refers to permutation.
Example:
All permutations ( or arrangements) made with the letters a, b and c by taking two at a
time are ab, bc, ca, ac, cb, ba
Number of permutations: Number of all permutations of n things, taken r at a time is given

by nP = n(n-1)(n-2)….(n-r+1) =n!/(n-r)!
r
Important Facts:
 nC
0 = 1 = nCn
 nP = r! ; nPr = Arrangements of r things means first selecting r things and arranging

r
these.
 nC
n-1 + nCr = n+1Cr
 nC + nC + nC +
0 1 2 …..+ nCn = 2n
 If there are n objects of which p1 are alike of one kind, p2 are alike of another kind
and so on and pr are alike of rth kind such that (p1+p2+…pr)= n
Then, number of permutations of these n objects is:
n!/(p1!p2!...pr!)

Combination:
Each of different groups or selections which can be formed by taking some or all of a
number of objects is a combination.
Example: Suppose we want to select two out of three boys A, B and C. Then possible
selections are AB, BC and CA.
Note: AB and BA represent the same selection.
Circular Permutation: Number of circular permutation of n different things taken all at a

time = (n-1)!
In case of a necklace or garland as anticlockwise and clockwise arrangements are same. So,
total number of arrangements of n beads for forming a necklace = (n-1)!/2
# Number of permutations of n different things taken at a time when repetition is allowed

= n*n*n*….r times = nr
If any event can occur in m ways and after it happens in any one of these ways, a second
event can occur in n ways, then both the events together can occur in m*n ways.
Example 1:
How many multiples of 5 are there from 10 to 95?
Solution: As you know, multiples of 5 are integers having 0 or 5 in the digit to the extreme
right (i.e. the unit’s place).
The first digit from the right can be chosen in 2 ways.

The second digit can be any one of 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9
i.e. There are 9 choices for the second digit.
Thus, there are 2*9= 18 multiples of 5 from 10 to 95.
Example 2:
In a city, the bus route numbers consist of a natural number less than 100, followed by one
of the letters A,B,C,D,E and F. How many different bus routes are possible?
Solution:
The number can be any one of the natural numbers from 1 to 99.
There are 99 choices for the number.
The letter can be chosen in 6 ways.
Number of possible bus routes are 99*6= 594

Example 3:
There are 3 questions in a question paper. If the questions have 4,3 and 2 solutions
respectively, find the total number of solutions.
Solution:
Here question 1 has 4 solutions, question 2 has 3 solutions and question 3 has 2 solutions.
=> By the multiplication (counting) rule,

Total number of solutions=4*3*2= 24
Example 4:
Consider the word ROTOR. Whichever way you read it, from left to right or from right to
left, you get the same word. Such a word is known as palindrome. Find the maximum
possible number of 5-letter palindromes.
Solution:
The first letter from the right can be chosen in 26 ways because there are 26 alphabets.
Having chosen this, the second letter can be chosen in 26 ways.

=> The first two letters can be chosen in 26*26=676 ways
Having chosen the first two letters, the third letter can be chosen in 26 ways.
=> All the three letters can be chosen in 676*26=17576 ways.
It implies that the maximum possible number of five letter palindromes is 17576 because
the fourth letter is the same as the second letter and the fifth letter is the same as the first
letter.
Note: In Example 4 we found the maximum possible number of five letter palindromes.
There cannot be more than 17576. But this does not mean that there are 17576
palindromes. Because some of the choices like CCCCC may not be meaningful words in the
English language.
Example 5:
How many 3-digit numbers can be formed with the digits 1,4,7,8 and 9 if the digits are not
repeated?
Solution:
Three digit numbers will have units, ten’s and hundred’s place.
Out of 5 given digits any one can take the unit’s place.
This can be done in 5 ways ------- (i)

After filling the unit’s place, any of the four remaining digits can take the ten’s place.
This can be done in 4 ways ------- (ii)
After filling in ten’s place, hundred’s place can be filled from any of the three remaining
digits.
This can be done in 3 ways ------- (iii)
=> By counting principle, the number of 3 digit numbers =5*4*3= 60

Let us now state the General Counting Principle
If there are n events and if the first event can occur in m1 ways, the second event can
occur in m2 ways after the first event has occurred, the third event can occur in m3 ways
after the second event has occurred, and so on, then all the n events can occur in
m1*m2*...*mn−1*mn ways.
Example 6:
Suppose you can travel from a place A to a place B by 3 buses, from place B to place C by 4
buses, from place C to place D by 2 buses and from place D to place E by 3 buses. In how
many ways can you travel from A to E?
Solution:
The bus from A to B can be selected in 3 ways.

The bus from B to C can be selected in 4 ways.
The bus from C to D can be selected in 2 ways.
The bus from D to E can be selected in 3 ways.
So, by the General Counting Principle, one can travel from A to E in 3*4*2*3= 72 ways
Permutations
Suppose you want to arrange your books on a shelf. If you have only one book, there is only
one way of arranging it. Suppose you have two books, one of History and one of Geography.
You can arrange the Geography and History books in two ways. Geography book first and
the History book next, GH or History book first and Geography book next; HG. In other
words, there are two arrangements of the two books.
Now, suppose you want to add a Mathematics book also to the shelf. After arranging
History and Geography books in one of the two ways, say GH, you can put Mathematics
book in one of the following ways: MGH, GMH or GHM. Similarly, corresponding to HG, you
have three other ways of arranging the books. So, by the Counting Principle, you can
arrange Mathematics, Geography and History books in 3*2=6 ways.
By permutationwe mean an arrangement of objects in a particular order. In the above

example, we were discussing the number of permutations of one book or two books.

In general, if you want to find the number of permutations of n objects n≥1, how can you do
it? Let us see if we can find an answer to this.
Similar to what we saw in the case of books, there is one permutation of 1 object, 2*1
permutations of two objects and 3*2*1 permutations of 3 objects. It may be that, there are
n*(n−1)*(n−2)*...*2*1 permutations of n objects. In fact, it is so, as you will see when we
prove the following result.
Note: The total number of permutations of n objects is n(n–1)....2.1
Example
Suppose you want to arrange your English, Hindi, Mathematics, History, Geography and
Science books on a shelf. In how many ways can you do it?
Solution:
We have to arrange 6 books.

The number of permutations of n objects is n!=n.(n–1).(n–2)...2.1
Here n=6 and therefore, number of permutations is 6.5.4.3.2.1= 720
Note: The number of permutations of r objects out of n objects is

n(n–1)..(n–r+1)
The number of permutations of r objects out of n objects is usually denoted by nPr

Thus, nPr = n(n−1)(n−2)...(n−r+1)
Example
If you have 6 New Year greeting cards and you want to send them to 4 of your friends, in
how many ways can this be done?
Solution:
We have to find number of permutations of 4 objects out of 6 objects.

This number is6P4=6(6−1)(6−2)(6−3)=6*5*4*3=360
Therefore, cards can be sent in 360 ways.

So, using the factorial notation, this formula can be written as follows:
nP =n!(n−r)!
r
Permutations under Some Conditions
• Number of permutations of n different things, taken r at a time, when a particular

thing is to be always included in each arrangement is: rPr−1n−1

• Number of permutations of n different things, taken r at a time, when a particular
thing is never taken in each arrangement is: Prn−1
• Number of permutations of n different things, taken all at a time, when m specified
things always come together is: m!*(n−m+1)!
• Number of permutations of n different things, taken all at a time, when m specified
never come together is: n!–[m!*(n−m+1)!]
• The number of permutations of n dissimilar things taken r at a time when (k< r)
particular things always occur is: (n-k)c(r-k)
• The number of permutations of n dissimilar things taken r at a time when k
particular things never occur is: (n-k)c(r)
• The number of permutations of n dissimilar things taken r at a time when repetition
of things is allowed any number of times is: nr
• The number of permutations of n different things, taken not more than r at a time,
when each thing may occur any number of times is: n+n2+n3+....+nr=n(nr−1)n−1
• The number of permutations of n different things taken not more than r at a time :
Np1+np2+np3……npn
We will now see examples involving permutations with some extra conditions.
Example
Suppose 7 students are staying in a hall in a hostel and they are allotted 7 beds. Among
them, Parvin does not want a bed next to Anju because Anju snores. Then, in how many
ways can you allot the beds?
Solution:
Let the beds be numbered 1 to 7.
Case 1: Suppose Anju is allotted bed number 1.

Then, Parvin cannot be allotted bed number 2.
So Parvin can be allotted a bed in 5 ways.
After allotting a bed to Parvin, the remaining 5 students can be allotted beds in 5! ways.
So, in this case the beds can be allotted in 5*5!=600 ways.
Case 2: Anju is allotted bed number 7.

Then, Parvin cannot be allotted bed number 6
As in Case 1, the beds can be allotted in 600 ways.
Case 3: Anju is allotted one of the beds numbered 2,3,4,5 or 6

Parvin cannot be allotted the beds on the right hand side and left hand side of Anju’s be D.
For example, if Anju is allotted bed number 2, beds numbered 1 or 3 cannot be allotted to
Parvin.
Therefore, Parvin can be allotted a bed in 4 ways in all these cases.

After allotting a bed to Parvin, the other 5 can be allotted a bed in 5! ways.

Therefore, in each of these cases, the beds can be allotted 4*5!=480 ways.
=> The beds can be allotted in:
2*600+5*480=1200+2400= 3600 ways
Example
In how many ways can an animal trainer arrange 5 lions and 4 tigers in a row so that no two
lions are together?
Solution:
They have to be arranged in the following way:
| L | T | L | T | L | T | L | T | L |
The 5 lions should be arranged in the 5 places marked ‘L’.

This can be done in 5! ways.
The 4 tigers should be in the 4 places marked ‘T’.
This can be done in 4! ways.
Therefore, the lions and the tigers can be arranged in 5!*4!= 2880 ways
Example
There are 4 books on fairy tales, 5 novels and 3 plays. In how many ways can you arrange
these so that books on fairy tales are together, novels are together and plays are together
and in the order, books on fairy tales, novels and plays.
Solution:
There are 4 books on fairy tales and they have to be put together.
They can be arranged in 4! ways.
Similarly, there are 5 novels.

And there are 3 plays.

So, by the counting principle all of them together can be arranged in 4!*5!*3!= 17280 ways
Example
Suppose there are 4 books on fairy tales, 5 novels and 3 plays as in Example 5.3. They have
to be arranged so that the books on fairy tales are together, novels are together and plays
are together, but we no longer require that they should be in a specific order. In how many
ways can this be done?
Solution:

First, we consider the books on fairy tales, novels and plays as single objects.
These three objects can be arranged in 3!=6 ways.
Let us fix one of these 6 arrangements.
This may give us a specific order, say, novels -> fairy tales -> plays.
Given this order, the books on the same subject can be arranged as follows.
The 4 books on fairy tales can be arranged among themselves in 4!=24 ways.
The 5 novels can be arranged in 5!=120 ways.
The 3 plays can be arranged in 3!=6 ways.
For a given order, the books can be arranged in 24*120*6=17280 ways.

Therefore, for all the 6 possible orders the books can be arranged in 6*17280= 103680
ways.
Example
In how many ways can 4 girls and 5 boys be arranged in a row so that all the four girls are
together?
Solution:
Let 4 girls be one unit and now there are 6 units in all.
In each of these arrangements 4 girls can be arranged in 4! ways.

=> Total number of arrangements in which girls are always together
=6!*4!=720*24= 17280
Example
How many arrangements of the letters of the word ‘BENGALI’ can be made
(i) If the vowels are never together.

(ii) If the vowels are to occupy only odd places.
Solution:
There are 7 letters in the word ‘Bengali; of these 3 are vowels and 4 consonants.
(i) Considering vowels a, e, i as one letter, we can arrange 4+1 letters in 5! ways in each of
which vowels are together. These 3 vowels can be arranged among themselves in 3! ways.
=> Total number of words =5!*3!
=120*6=720
So there are total of 720 ways in which vowels are ALWAYS TOGEGHER.
Now,
Since there are no repeated letters, the total number of ways in which the letters of the

word ‘BENGALI’ cab be arranged:
=7!=5040
So,
Total no. of arrangements in which vowels are never together:
=ALL the arrangements possible – arrangements in which vowels are ALWAYS TOGETHER
=5040–720=4320
(ii) There are 4 odd places and 3 even places. 3 vowels can occupy 4 odd places in 4p4 ways
and 4 constants can be arranged in 4p4 ways.
=> Number of words =4P3*4P4= 576
Combinations
Let us consider the example of shirts and trousers as stated in the introduction. There you
have 4 sets of shirts and trousers and you want to take 2 sets with you while going on a trip.
In how many ways can you do it?
Let us denote the sets by S1,S2,S3,S4. Then you can choose two pairs in the following ways:
1. {S1,S2} 2. {S1,S3} 3. {S1,S4}

4. {S2,S3} 5. {S2,S4} 6. {S3,S4}
[Observe that {S1,S2} is the same as {S2,S1}. So, there are 6 ways of choosing the two sets
that you want to take with you. Of course, if you had 10 pairs and you wanted to take 7
pairs, it will be much more difficult to work out the number of pairs in this way.
Now as you may want to know the number of ways of wearing 2 out of 4 sets for two days,
say Monday and Tuesday, and the order of wearing is also important to you. We know that
it can be done in P44=12 ways. But note that each choice of 2 sets gives us two ways of
wearing 2 sets out of 4 sets as shown below:
1. {S1,S2} -> S1 on Monday and S2 on Tuesday or S2 on Monday and S1 on Tuesday

Thus, there are 12 ways of wearing 2 out of 4 pairs.

This argument holds good in general as we can see from the following theorem.
Note:

Let n≥1 be an integer and r≤n. Let us denote the number of ways of choosing r objects out
of n objects by Crn. Then
nC nP
r=r! r
Example
Find the number of subsets of the set {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11} having 4 elements.
Solution:
Here the order of choosing the elements doesn’t matter and this is a problem in
combinations.
We have to find the number of ways of choosing 4 elements of this set which has 11
elements.
This can be done in:

C411=11*10*9*81*2*3*4= 330 ways
Example
12 points lie on a circle. How many cyclic quadrilaterals can be drawn by using these points?
Solution:
For any set of 4 points we get a cyclic quadrilateral. Number of ways of choosing 4 points
out of 12 points is C412=495
. Therefore, we can draw 495 quadrilaterals.
Example
In a box, there are 5 black pens, 3 white pens and 4 red pens. In how many ways can 2 black
pens, 2 white pens and 2 red pens can be chosen?
Solution:
Number of ways of choosing 2 black pens from 5 black pens

5c2=5*41*2=10
Number of ways of choosing 2 white pens from 3 white pens

=3c2=3*21*2=3
Number of ways of choosing 2 red pens from 4 red pens

=4c2=4*31*2=6
=> By the Counting Principle, 2 black pens, 2 white pens, and 2 red pens can be chosen in
10*3*6= 180ways.

Example
A question paper consists of 10 questions divided into two parts A and B. Each part contains
five questions. A candidate is required to attempt six questions in all of which at least 2
should be from part A and at least 2 from part B. In how many ways can the candidate select
the questions if he can answer all questions equally well?
Solution:
The candidate has to select six questions in all of which at least two should be from Part A
and two should be from Part B. He can select questions in any of the following ways:
Part A Part B
(i) 2 4
(ii) 3 3
(iii) 4 2
If the candidate follows choice (i), the number of ways in which he can do so is:
C25*C45=10*5=50
If the candidate follows choice (ii), the number of ways in which he can do so is:
C35*C35=10*10=100
Similarly, if the candidate follows choice (iii), then the number of ways in which he can do so
is:
C45*C25=5*10=50
Therefore, the candidate can select the question in 50+100+50= 200 ways.
Example
A committee of 5 persons is to be formed from 6 men and 4 women. In how many ways can
this be done when:
(i) At least 2 women are included?

(ii) At most 2 women are included?
Solution:
(i) When at least 2 women are includeD.

The committee may consist of
3 women, 2 men: It can be done in 4c3*6c2 ways

Or, 4 women, 1 man: It can be done in 4c4*6c1 ways
or, 2 women, 3 men: It can be done in 4c2*6c3 ways
=> Total number of ways of forming the committee:

=4c3*6c2+4C4*6C1+4C2*6C3= 186 ways

(ii) When at most 2 women are included
The committee may consist of
2 women, 3 men: It can be done in 4C2*6C3 ways

Or, 1 women, 4 men: It can be done in 4C1*6C4 ways
Or, % men: It can be done in 6C5 ways
=> Total number of ways of forming the committee:

=4C2*6C3+4C1*6C4+6C5= 186 ways
Example
The Indian Cricket team consists of 16 players. It includes 2 wicket keepers and 5 bowlers. In
how many ways can a cricket eleven be selected if we have to select 1 wicket keeper and at
least 4 bowlers?
Solution:
We are to choose 11 players including 1 wicket keeper and 4 bowlers

or, 1 wicket keeper and 5 bowlers.
Number of ways of selecting 1 wicket keeper, 4 bowlers and 6 other players

=C12*C45*C69=840
Number of ways of selecting 1 wicket keeper, 5 bowlers and 5 other players

=C12*C55*C59=252
=> Total number of ways of selecting the team:

=840+252= 1092
Problems Involving Both Permutations and Combinations
So far, we have studied problems that involve either permutation alone or combination
alone. In this section, we will consider some examples that need both of these concepts.
Example
There are 5 novels and 4 biographies. In how many ways can 4 novels and 2 biographies can
be arranged on a shelf?
Solution:
4 novels can be selected out of 5 in 5C4 ways.

2 biographies can be selected out of4 in 4C2 ways.

Number of ways of arranging novels and biographies:
=5C4*4C2=30
After selecting any 6 books (4 novels and 2 biographies) in one of the 30 ways, they can be
arranged on the shelf in 6!=720 ways.
By the Counting Principle, the total number of arrangements =30*720= 21600
Example
From 5 consonants and 4 vowels, how many words can be formed using 3 consonants and 2
vowels?
Solution:
From 5 consonants, 3 consonants can be selected in C35 ways.

From 4 vowels, 2 vowels can be selected in C24 ways.
Now with every selection, number of ways of arranging 5 letters is P55
Total number of words =C35*C24*P55= 7200
Problem Solving Strategy

In permutation and combination problems, it is very important to recognize the type of
problem. Many students mistakenly approach a combination problem as a permutation, and
vice versa. The steps below will help you determine the problem type.
Solving a permutation or combination problem involves two steps:
1. Recognizing the problem type: permutation vs. combination.

2. Using formulas or models to count the possibilities.
We have three questions to ask ourselves in order to identify the problem type:
1. Is it a permutation or combination?
Check any two typical arrangements with the same combination. If the two arrangements
are counted only once, it is a combination problem. Otherwise, it is a permutation.
For example, if you are asked for a lock code, then 321 and 123 could be two possibilities,
and the two numbers are formed from the same combination (Same number of 1’s, 2’s, and
3’s). So, lock codes must be permutations.
For another example, suppose you have 5 balls numbering 1 through 5. If you are asked to
select 3 out of the 5 balls and you are only interested in the numbers on the balls, not the
order in which they are taken, then you have a combination problem.
Problems that by definition connote ordering (though not directly stateD. are permutations.

For example, 3 digits form a 3-digit number. Here, the 3-digit number connotes ordering.
For another example, if you are to answer 3 questions, you probably would not be asked to
answer a particular question more than once. So, you would not allow repetition in the
calculations. Though not often needed, such logical assumptions are allowed and
sometimes expected.
If the problem itself defines slots for the arrangements, it is a permutation problem. Words
like arrange" define slots for the arrangements.
Generally, "arrangements" refer to permutations, and "selections" refer to combinations.

These words often flag the problem type.
Other words indicating permutations are "alteration," "shift," "transformation," and

"transmutation," all of which connote ordering.
For example:
In how many ways can the letters of the word XYZ be transformed to form new words?
In how many ways can the letters of the word XYZ be altered to form new words?
Some words indicating combinations are "aggregation," "alliance," "association,"

"coalition," "composition," "confederation," "gang," "league," and "union," (all of which
have nothing to do with arrangements but instead connote selections.)
For example:
In how many ways can a coalition of 2 countries be formed from 4 countries?

(Here, a coalition is the same whether you say country A and B are a coalition or country B
and country A are a coalition.)
2. Are repetitions allowed?
Check whether, based on the problem description, the results of a

permutation/combination can have repetitions.
For example:
If you are to list countries in a coalition, you can hardly list a country twice.
(Here, repetition automatically is not allowed unless specified otherwise.)
If you have 3 doors to a room, you could use the same door for both entering and exiting.
(Here, repetition is automatically allowed.)
3. Are there any indistinguishable objects in the base set?
Check the base set: the objects from which a permutation or a combination is drawn. If any
indistinguishable objects (repetitions at base set level) are available, collect them. This is
easy since it only requires finding identical objects in a base set, which is usually given.

For example, if the original question is to find the words formed from the word
GARGUNTUNG, then, in this step, you collect the information: G exists thrice; U exists twice,
and so on.
Once the problem type is recognized, use the corresponding formula or model to solve it.
9. Let’s Sum Up
Fundamental principle of counting states:
• If there are n events and if the first event can occur in m1 ways, the second event
can occur in m2 ways after the first event has occurred, the third event can occur in
m3 ways after the second event has occurred and so on, then all the n events can
occur in:
m1*m2*m3*...*mn−1*mn ways.
• The number of permutations of n objects taken all at a time is n!

n
• Pr=n!/(n−r)!
n
• Pn=n!
• The number of ways of selecting r objects out of n objects =
n
Cr=n!/r!(n−r)!
n
• Cr+nCr-1=n+1Cr

Practice Exercise - 1
1. Find the value of 60P3

A. 205320 B. 20532 C. 25320 D. 20520
2. Find the value of 100C98

A. 4950 B. 4570 C. 4900 D. 4500
3.Determine if the situation represents a permutation or a combination:

A. In how many ways can five books be arranged on a book-shelf in the library?
A. Permutation B. Combination C. Both D. None of these
B. In how many ways can three student-council members be elected from five candidates?
C. Seven students line up to sharpen their pencils.
D. A DJ will play three CD choices from the 5 requests.
4. Twelve people need to be photographed, but there are only five chairs. (The rest of the
people will be standing behind and their order does not matter.) How many ways can you
sit the twelve people on the five chairs?
A. 9540 B. 95060 C. 95040 D. 96040
5. Mario, Sandy, Fred, and Shanna are running for the offices of president, secretary and
treasurer. In how many ways can these offices be filled?
A. 40 B. 60 C. 24 D. None of these
6.Charles has four coins in his pocket and pulls out three at one time. How many different
amounts can he get?
7. In how many ways can the letter of word 'LEADER' be arranged

8. How many arrangements can be made out of the letters of the word 'MATHEMATICS' be
arranged so that the vowels always come together.
A. 2 B.36000 C. 10260 D. 120960
9. How many 3 digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3,5,6,7 and 9 which are
divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?
10. In how many ways can 21 books on English and 19 books on Hindi be placed in a row on
a self so that two books on Hindi may not be together?
A.3410 B.1360 C. 2160 D. 1540
11. Out of 7 constants and 4 vowels how many words of 3 consonants and 2 vowels can be
formed?
A. 25200 B. 25600 C. 14600 D. 23600
12. Consider the word ROTOR. Whichever way you read it, from left to right or from right to
left, you get the same worD. Such a word is known as palindrome. Find the maximum
possible number of 5-letter palindromes
A. 17576 B. 456976 C. 23456 D. 45678
13. If you have 6 New Year greeting cards and you want to send them to 4 of your friends, in
how many ways can this be done?
14. In how many ways can an animal trainer arrange 5 lions and 4 tigers in a row so that no
two lions are together?
A. 2880 B. 2980 C. 1990 D. 1880
15. In how many ways can a cricket eleven be chosen out of a batch of 15 players .
A. 15P11 B.15C11 C. 15C10 D. 15P10
16. When 10 people shake hands with one another, in how many ways is it possible?
A. 10C2 B.10*9 C. 10C1 D.cannot be determined
17. How many different committees of 3 could be formed from 8 people? If Jane is one of

the 8 people, how many different committees could be formed with Jane as committee
member?
A. 8C3, 7C2 B. 8C2, 7C3 C. Cannot be determined D. None of these
19. A question paper consists of 10 questions divided into two parts A and B. Each part
contains five questions. A candidate is required to attempt six questions in all of which at
least 2 should be from part A and at least 2 from part B. In how many ways can the
candidate select the questions if he can answer all questions equally well?
A. 120 B. 200 C. 140 D. 160
20. There are 8 true - false questions in an examination. How many responses are possible?
Answer Key:
1.A 2.A 3A. A 3B. B 3C.A 3D. B 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.D
9.C 10.D 11.A 12.A 13.B 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.A 18.B 19.B
20.A

1. How many ways can 4 prizes be given away to 3 boys, if each boy is eligible for all the
prizes?
2. The letter of the word LABOUR are permuted in all possible ways and the words thus
formed are arranged as in a dictionary. What is the rank of the word LABOUR?
A.275 B.251 C.240 D.242
3. If 5×nP3=4×n+1P3 find n?
A.10 B.12 C.11 D.14
4. How many words can be formed by re-arranging the letters of the word ASCENT such that
A and T occupy the first and last position respectively?
A.5! B.4! C.6!-2! D.6!/2!
5. In how many ways can six different rings be worn on four fingers of one hand?
A.10 B.12 C.15 D.16
6. There are 12 yes or no questions. How many ways can these be answered?
A.4096 B.2048 C.1024 D.144
7. In how many ways a President, VP and Waterboy can be selected from a group of 10
people.
A.10C3 B.10P3 C.240 D.360
8. In an examination paper, there are two groups each containing 4 questions. A candidate
is required to attempt 5 questions but not more than 3 questions from any group. In how
many ways can 5 questions be selected?
A.24 B.48 C.96 D.64
9. There are 7 non-collinear points. How many triangles can be drawn by joining these
points? A.35 B.10 C.8 D.7
10. After every get-together every person present shakes the hand of every other person. If
there were 105 handshakes in all, how many persons were present in the party?
A.14 B.13 C.15 D.16

11. There are five women and six men in a group. From this group a committee of 4 is to be
chosen. How many different ways can a committee be formed that contain three women
and one man?
A.55 B.60 C.25 D.192
12. A teacher of 6 students takes 2 of his students at a time to a zoo as often as he can,
without taking the same pair of children together more than once. How many times does
the teacher go to the zoo? A.10 B.12 C.15 D.20
13. In how many ways can 15 people be seated around two round tables with seating
capacities of 7 and 8 people?
a )15!/8! B.7!*8! C. 15C8* 6!*7! D.15C8*8! E. 2* 15c7*6!*7!
14. How many 5-digit positive integers exist the sum of whose digits are odd?
A.36000 B.38000 C.450000 D.90000
15. How many ways can 10 letters be posted in 5 post boxes, if each of the post boxes can
take more than 10 letters?
A.510 B.105 C.10P5 D.10C5

A. PRINCIPLES OF COUNTING
1. How many2-digit distinct nos. can be formed from digits 1,2,3,4,5,6?
2. How many3-digit odd nos. can be formed from digits : 0,1…….. 9.
3. How many 3digit palindrome numbers exist?(Palindrome is a number that remains

the same when its digits are reverse D.E.g. 16461, 292, 1331etC.)
4. How many 3digit nos. each less than 600 can be formed from digits
:1,2,3,4,5and9withoutrepetitionofthedigits.
5. How many nos. between 4000 and 9000 can be formed using the digits:3,4,7and9.
6. How many nos. are there between 100 and1000 in which all digits are distinct.
7. In how many ways can ten Yes/No type questions be answered?.
8. How many nos. are there between 100 and 1000 such that atleast one of their digit is
7.
9. How many 4 digit odd numbers can be formed using digits 0,1,2,3,4,5
10. A customer forgets a 4 digit code of an ATM in a bank.However,he remembers that

this code consists of 3,5,6 and 9 all. Find the largest possible number of trials
necessary to obtain the correct code.
11. Bhoopendra has 4 letter and 4 envelopes with addresses mentioned. Each letter has
a specific correct envelope. How many ways is to keep the letter s inenvelopes such
that exactly one letter reaches its correct address.
B. COMBINATIONS
12. Out of 5 boys and 2 girls a committee of 3 is to beformed. In how many ways can it
done if atleast one girls is to be included.
13. In how many ways can a team of 11 players be formed from 6 bowlers 4 wicket
keepers and 8 bats man to give majority of batsman,if at least 4ballers are to
included and there is one wicketkeeper.
14. From 4 officers and 8 jawans, in how many ways can a team of 6 can be formed(A.to

include exactly one officer?
15. A candidate has to answer 6 question out often questions divided into two groups
each containing five Example:He is not permitted to answer more than 4 questions
from any group.In how many ways can he make the choices?
16. If there are 12 old friends in a party and each of them shakes hands with each
other,how many handshakes will happen in the party among friends?
17. Anil has 5 friends :3 Girls and 2boys, Anil’s wife has also 5 friends 3 boys and 2 girls.
In how many ways can they invite 2 boys and 2 girl such that 2 of them are Anil’s
friend and two are of his wife’s.
18. Out of five couple (HusbandandWife), In how many ways can the selection of three
persons be done such that no couple is selected.
19. In a chess tournament each contestant plays exactly once against each other.If a
total 45 games were played,then what was the number of participants?
20. There are 6 pairs of gloves available in different sizes.In how many ways can you
choose one for lefthand and one for righthand such that they are not of the same
pair?
21. How many diagonals without repetition can be drawning the octagon. ?
22. From 6 males and 4 females a committee of five is to be formed. In how many ways
can this be done , if the committee is to include at least one lady.
C. MIXED QUESTIONS
23. How many diff.words can be formed from the word EXTRA if (A.vowels are
together(B.vowels are not together?
24. In how many ways can the7-letters A to G be arranged so that‘B’and‘C’are always

together.
25. How many eight distinct letter words can be formed from the letters of the word
COURTESY being with‘C’and ends with‘Y’.
26. How many 8 digit telephone,with digits0…..9(n=10) can be formed if each starts
with 35 and no digit appears more than once.

27. In how many ways 6 players be arranged in a row such that two of them
Bhoopendra is always ahead of Sunil?
28. In how many ways can the letters of the word MACHINE be rearranged so that
vowels may occupy only odd numbered positions?
29. In how many ways 4 books A to D be arranged one above other in vertical order
such that the books A and B are never in continuous positions.
30. In how many ways 5 boys and 4 girls can be placed around a Round Table such that
two girls must not be close to each other.

Probability

Probability: The element of uncertainty of outcomes of any event has given rise to the
concept of probability.
Probability is defined as the chance of happening or not happening of an event.
Example:
In a toss of a single coin the chance of appearing a head.
The chances of drawing a black ball from a bag containing two black and two red balls
Experiment - An operation which results in some well-defined outcomes is called an

experiment.
Random Experiment - An experiment whose outcome cannot be predicted with certainty is

called a random experiment.
Example:
A. Tossing of a fair coin
B. Throwing of an unbiased die
C. Drawing of a card from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards
Sample Space -The set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment is called the sample
space for that experiment. It is usually denoted by S.
Example:
When a die is thrown, any one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 can come up.
Therefore, sample space:
S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Sample Point or Event Point - Each element of the sample spaces is called a sample point or
an event point.
Example:
When a die is thrown, the sample space is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} where 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 are
the sample points.
Discrete Sample Space - A sample space S is called a discrete sample if S is a finite set.
Complement of an event
Since the number of cases in which the event A will not happen is n - m, therefore if A
denotes not happening of A, then the probability P (A. of not happening of A is given by
P (A’) = (n-m)/n= 1- m/n
= 1 – P (A)

Or P(A) + P (A’)= 1
Complementary events are a sub-Type of exhaustive events, which have nothing in

common between them and there is no other event possible. For example, in a coin toss
getting a head or getting a tail are complementary events. For example, in a class 'being a
boy' or 'being a girl' are complementary events. For example, in case of shooting a target,
hitting or missing are complementary events.
For Complementary Events: P(A) + P(A’) = 1 & P(A ∩ A’) = 0
All Complementary Events are Exhaustive & Mutually Exclusive events
Exhaustive events are those which will cover all the possible outcomes. For example, in the
throw of a dice – getting a ‘1’, getting a prime and getting a composite are exhaustive
events because if you consider all of them together – they cover all the possible outcomes
{1; Primes – 2,3,5; Composites – 4,6}
ForExhaustive Events: P(A) + P(B) +P(C).… = 1
Mutually Exclusive events are those which will have nothing in common between them. For
example, in a race A winning the race and B winning the race are mutually exclusive events.
It is possible that someone other than A or B might win the race but it is not possible that
both of them will the race.
For Mutually Exclusive Events: P(A ∩ B) = 0
Rules
Addition Rule:
P (A U B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
Multiplication Rule:
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) P(B/A) = P(B) P(A/B)
For Independent EventsP(A/B) = P(A) and P(B/A) = P(B)
P(A ∩ B) = P(A).P(B)
The questions of the Type when the same person tries to do something multiple times are
pretty common in tests. A good example would be when you are trying to bomb a bridge in
how many attempts the probability of the bridge getting blown would go above 80%. Or if
you are an archer trying to hit a target, what is the probability that you will hit the target 4
times out of 7. These Type of questions are primarily based on complementary events, so if
the probability of one event is ‘p’; then the probability of the other event will be ‘1 – p’

If the probability of an event occurring is p, then the probability of that event occurring ‘r’
times in ‘n’ trials is = nCr x pr x (1-p)n-r
In cricket and more so in football, you might have seen the betting odds displayed on the
top right / left of the sports page. Those odds are just a way of representing the probability
of a particular team winning or losing. If the odds in favor of India in an India vs. Australia
match are 4:5; then the probability of India winning the match is not 4/5 but 4/9. Odds do
not represent favorable and total outcomes but they give a ratio of the favorable and
unfavorable outcomes.
Odds in favor = Number of favorable outcomes / Number of unfavorable outcomes
Odds against = Number of unfavorable outcomes / Number of favorable outcomes
Example:
0
A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards, What is the probability that it is
A. A card of Red Suit?
Solution:
There are 26 cards of Red Suit
B. An honor card of Black suit?
Solution:
Here are 16 honor cards out of which 8 are of Black suit and 8 are of Red Suit. So n(E) = 8 ,
n(S)=52
C. A card is drawn and its number is multiple of 2
Solution:
E = 4 (2)'s + 4 (4)'s + 4 (6)'s + 4 (8)'s + 4 (10)'s
So, n(E) = 20, n (S) = 52

D. A king or a queen?
Solution: There are 4 kings and 4 Queens in 52 cards
E. A king of black suit ?
Solution:
There are 2 kings in black suit ( King of Spade and King of Club )
Example:
A bag contains 4 red, 3 yellow and 5 green balls. 3 balls are drawn randomly. What is the
probability that balls drawn contain
A. Balls of different colors?
Solution:
Total numbers of balls = 12
B. Exactly two Red Balls?
Solution:

Here only three balls are to be drawn out of which condition is of Exactly two Red balls,
C. No Red balls?
Solution:
Now three balls can be selected from 3 Y + 5 G balls
Example:
A bag contains 4 Red balls and 5 Green balls. Two balls are drawn at random. Find the
probability that they are of the same colour?
Solution:
Let S be the sample space and E be the event, so
n(E) = ( Number of ways of drawing 2 balls of Red ) OR ( Number of ways of drawing 2 balls
of Green )
Example:
A three-digit number is formed with the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 at random. What is probability

that number formed is
A. Divisible by 2
Solution :

From the given digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 numbers formed is:
For divisibility with 2, even number or 0 should appear at unit place, here 2, 4 are even
numbers and can occupy unit place in 2 ! ways, Rest 2 place can be filled in :
Example:
Not divisible by 2?
Solution:
P (Not divisible by 2 ) = 1 - P (Divisible by 2 )
Example:
Divisible by 5?
Solution:
A number ends with 5, 0 then the number will be divisible by 5

Here only 5 is present, end place will be fixed by 5 so,
Example:
The letters of the word CASTIGATION is arranged in different ways randomly. What is the
chance that vowels occupy the even places ?
Solution:

Vowels are A I A I O,
C A S T I G A T I O N
(O)(E)(O)(E)(O)(E)(O)(E)(O)(E)(O)
So there are 5 even places in which five vowels can be arranged and in rest of 6 places 6
constants can be arranged as follows :
Addition Rule :
(1) If A and B are any two events then the probability of the occurrence of either A or B is
given by :
(2) If A and B are two mutually exclusive events then the probability of occurrence of either
A or B is given by:
(3) If A, B and C are any three events then the probability of occurrence of either A or B or C
is given by:
(4) If A1, A2, A3 ..........An are n mutually exclusive and exhaustive events then the
probability of occurrence of at least one of them is given by :
Multiplication Rule:
If A and B are two independent events then the probability of occurrence of A and B is given
by :

Conditional Probability:
Conditional probability of occurrence of an event A given that the event B has already
occurred is denoted by P (A / B ). Here A and B are dependent events.
If A and B are dependent events, then the probability of occurrence of A and B is given by :
Now we can write as : probability of occurrence of an event A given that the event B has
already occurred
Probability of occurrence of an event B given that the event A has already occurred :
Example:
A number is selected at random from the numbers 1 to 30. What is the probability that it is
divisible by either 3 or 7 ?
Solution:
Let A be event of selecting a number divisible by 3. B be the event of selecting a number

divisible by 7.
A = { 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30 }, so n(A.=10

B = { 7, 14, 21, 28 }, n(B.= 4
Since A and B are not mutually exclusive So :

Therefore the probability that a number is divisible by 3 or 7 is 13 / 30
Example:
In the above problem what is the probability that the number selected is divisible by 5 or 13
?
Solution:
Let A be event of selecting a number divisible by 5. B be the event of selecting a number

divisible by 13
A = { 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30 } , n (A. = 6
B = { 13, 26 }, n (B. = 2
So, probability that a number is divisible by 5 or 13 is 4 / 15
Example:
The odds favoring the event of a person hitting a target are 3 to 5. The odds against the
event of another person hitting the target are 3 to 2. If each of them fire once at the target,
find the probability that both of them hit the target.
Solution:
Let A be the event of first person hitting the target,
Let B be the event of Second person hitting a target.

Since both events are independent and both will hit the target so,
Example:
In the above example find the probability that at least one of them hit the target.
Solution:
For At least one of them hit the target.
Example:
The probabilities that drivers A, B and C will drive home safely after consuming liquor are 2 /
5 , 3 / 7 and 3 / 4, respectively. What is the probability that they will drive home safely after
consuming liquor?
Solution:
Let A be the event of driver A drive safely after consuming liquor.
Let B be the event of driver B drive safely after consuming liquor.
Let C be the event of driver C drive safely after consuming liquor.
The events A, B and C are independent. Therefore,
Therefore, The probability that all the drivers will drive home safely after consuming liquor
is 9 / 10
Example:

The probabilities that A and B will tell the truth are 2 / 3 and 4 / 5 respectively . What is the
probability that they agree with each other ?
Solution:
Let A be the event of A will tell truth. B be the event of B tell truth
When both agree then they say true or they say false together, that is
Also these events will be mutually exclusive :
Example:
In the above problem find out the probability that both contradict each other ?
Solution:
They will contradict if A tells truth and B tells lies or B tells truth and A tells lies, So
Since these events are mutually exclusively
Example:
For the FIFA world cup, Paul the octopus has been predicting the winner of each match with
amazing success. It is rumored that in a match between 2 teams A and B, Paul picks A with
the same probability as A's chances of winning. Let's assume such rumors to be true and
that in a match between Ghana and Bolivia, Ghana the stronger team has a probability of

2/3 of winning the game. What is the probability that Paul will correctly pick the winner of
the Ghana-Bolivia game?
A. 1/9 B. 4/9 C. 5/9 D. 2/3
Solution:
Paul picks A with the same probability as A’schances of winning

So probability of picking a winner = prob picking of ghana * ghana winning + prob picking of
bolivia * bollivia winning
= 2/3 * 2/3 + 1/3 * 1/3
= 5/9
Example: After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the
letters randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that
exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
A.1/12 B. 0 C. 12/212 D. 11/12
Solution: Consider you have two envelopes and two covers. If one of them is placed wrong
then it is certain that the other envelope is also placed in the wrong envelope. When the
number of envelopes are odd. Then this situation may be possible. If they are even then
such a situation is impossible. At least two letters must be placed wrong.
Example:
There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls.
You are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at
random and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is
maximize D. This maximum probability is
A.1/2 B.14/19 C. 37/38 D. 3/4
Solution: B
The probability for selecting red box is 1/2 but randomly if we select green box, the
probability will be 0.
So, total probability for this case is 0.5.
Now consider the other case, 9 red balls are transferred to green ball box. now total balls in
that box will be 19.

Total probability = probability to select 1st box + probability to select 2nd box
= (1/2)*(1C1/1C1)+(1/2)*(9C1/19C1)
= (1/2)*(1+9/19)
= (1/2)*(28/19)
= 14/19
Example:
A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at
it and it
hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer to
the center of the circle than the periphery?
A. 0.75 B. 1 C. 0.5 D. 0.25
Total area of board = Pi*1^2= Pi

preferred are =Pi (1/2)^2= Pi/4
so prob = (pi/4)/pi =1/4= 0.25
Example:
A and B play a game of dice between them. The dice consist of colors on their faces (instead
of numbers). When the dice are thrown, A wins if both show the same color; otherwise B
wins. One die has 4 red face and 2 blue faces. How many red and blue faces should the
other die have if the both players have the same chances of winning?
A. 3 red and 3 blue faces B. 2 red and remaining blue

C. 6 red and 0 blue D. 4 red and remaining blue
Solution:
According to the question,
For both of them to have an equal chance of winning,
The probability that a single color pops up on the two dice should be half
So, Probability (dice 1 is red AND dice 2 is reD. + Probability (dice 1 is blue AND dice 2 is
blue) = 1/2

Let the other dice have x red faces
So, it will have 6-x blue faces
So,
(4/6)*(x/6) + (2/6)*(6-x)/6 = 1/2
So, x = 3
Hence, option 1
Example:
A drawer holds 4 red hats and 4 blue hats. What is the probability of getting three red hats
or exactly three blue hats when taking out 4 hats randomly out of the drawer and
immediately returning every hat to the drawer before taking out the next?
A.1/2 B. 1/8 C. ¼ D. 3/8
Solution: A
Example:
A toy train can make 10 sounds sound changes after every 4 minute now train is defective
and can make only 2 sounds find probability that same sound is repeated 4 times
Consecutively (1 OUT OF__)?
A. 16 B. 8 C. 12 D. 4
Solution:
2 sounds hence p=1/2

consecutive 3 times = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)
= 1/8 (1 out of 8)
Example:
There are 54 men in a room doing handshakes, what will be minimum required handshakes for
minimum 1 hand shake?
A. 2862 B. 1431 C. 1430 D. 53
Solution:
For minimum handshakes lets assume all of the men did only one hand shake.
If we divide the given 54 men in 27 groups, each having 2 men. If each member of a group
shakes hand with only other member of his group then handshakes will be minimum.
In this case there will be one handshakes in each group.
Hence, minimum number of handshakes will be 27.
Example:

After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters
randomly into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1
letter is inserted in an improper envelope?
A. 1/12 B. 11/12 C. 12/212 D. none of these
Solution:
If exactly one letter is placed i the wrong envelope, the original letter for the envelope must
also be misplaced. Hence, the event cannot occur. So, probability is zero.
Example:
A circular dartboard of radius 1 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart at it
and it hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is closer
to the center of the circle than the periphery?
A. 0.75 B. 1 C. 0.5 D. 0.25
Solution:
Total area of board = Pi*1^2= Pi
Preferred are =Pi (1/2)^2= Pi/4
So probability = (pi/4)/pi =1/4= 0.25
Example:
There is a toy train that can make 10 musical sounds. It makes 2 musical sounds after being
defective. What is the probability that same musical sound would be produced 5 times
consecutively? (1 of ____)?
A. 8 B.16 C.32 D.10
Solution:
1 of 32
The same musical sound can happen in 1/2 probability .
So, 5 times it can happen with probability = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/32
Example:
After the typist writes 12 letters and addresses 12 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly
into the envelopes. What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is inserted in an improper
envelope?
A. 1/12 B. 0 C. 12/212 D. 11/12
Solution:

Consider you have two envelopes and two covers. If one of them is placed wrong then it is
certain that the other envelope is also placed in the wrong envelope. When the number of
envelopes are odd. Then this situation may be possible. If they are even then such a
situation is impossible. At least two letters must be placed wrong.
Hence, option b
Example:
There are two boxes, one containing 10 red balls and the other containing 10 green balls. You are
allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random and a
ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximizeD. This
maximum probability is
A. 1/2 B. 14/19 C. 37/38 D. 3/4
Solution:
Take one red ball in the first bag.
Put the remaining 9 red balls with 10 green balls in other bag
probability of red ball inn Ist bag=1/2
probability of red in other bag=(1/2)*(9/19)
The required probability= p(A)+p(B)
=1/2+9/38
=28/38
=14/19
Example:
A and B play a game of dice between them. The dice consist of colors on their faces (instead of
numbers). When the dice are thrown, A wins if both show the same color; otherwise B wins. One
die has 4 red face and 2 blue faces. How many red and blue faces should the other die have if the
both players have the same chances of winning?
A. 3 red and 3 blue faces B. 2 red and remaining blue
C. 6 red and 0 blue D. 4 red and remaining blue
Solution:
According to the question,
For both of them to have an equal chance of winning,
The probability that a single color pops up on the two dice should be half
So, Probability (dice 1 is red and dice 2 is reD. + Probability (dice 1 is blue AND dice 2 is
blue) = 1/2
Let the other dice have x red faces
So, it will have 6-x blue faces

So,
(4/6)*(x/6) + (2/6)*(6-x)/6 = 1/2
So, x = 3
Hence, option 1
Example:
There are two boxes, one containing 32 red balls and the other containing 31 green balls. You
are allowed to move the balls between the boxes so that when you choose a box at random
and a ball at random from the chosen box, the probability of getting a red ball is maximize D.
This maximum probability is
A .25 B .51 C .75 D .50
Solution: C
Move 31 balls from red ball box to other box having 31 green balls.
Now one box has one red ball
and other box is having 31 red balls and 31 green balls.
Then probability of getting red ball = 1/2 (1+31/62) = 1/2 *3/2 =3/4=0.75
Example:
Mr. Bean visited a magic shop and bought some magical marbles of different colours along
with other magical items. While returning home whenever he saw a coloured light, he took
out marbles of similar colours and counted them. So he counted the pink coloured marbles
and found that he has bought 25 of them. Then he counted 18 green marbles and then 46
yellow marbles. He later counted 30 purple coloured marbles with him. But when he reached
a crossing, he looked at a red light and started counting red marbles and found that he had
bought 45 Red marbles . As soon as he finished counting, it started raining heavily and by the
time he reached home he was drencheD. After reaching home he found that the red, green
and yellow marbles had magically changed colours and became white, while other marbles
were unchangeD. It will take 1 day to regain its colours, but he needs to give atleast one pair
of marbles to his wife now. So how many white marbles must he choose and give to his wife
so as to ensure that there is atleast one pair of red, yellow and green marbles?
A. 54 B. 95 C. 93 D. 64
Solution: C
Red=45,

Yellow=46,
Green=19
Atleast possibility (highest most+Second highest+2)=46+45+2=93
Example: 19 people (a1, a2, ….., a19) are invited to a party. The host and the hostess shake
hands with each invitee and also with each other. The invitees shake hands in a circular
fashion, i.e. the pairs (a1, a2), (a2, a3), ……..,(a18, a19), (a19, a1) shake hands. So, in all there
are 58 handshakes. Let S be a set of people such that every pair in S shake hands. The size of
S is at most
A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 0
Solution: B
Since the 19 invitees are shaking hands in circular fashion the total number of handshakes
b/w them is 19..then the host and hostess shake hands with each other (1 handshake)
finally host and hostess both shakes hand with each invitee individually i.e.19+19
hence total no of handshakes are 19+1+19+19=58
all the above given conditions are satisfied
the set S ={(guests),(host),(hostess)}
OR
A set have 3 people, in circular 58 hand shake means 24 people, set have 3 people means
possible is 4!=24. So answer is 3
Example:
Subha Patel is an olfactory scientist working for International Flavors and Fragrances. She
specializes in finding new scents recorded and reconstituted from nature thanks to Living
Flower Technology. She has extracted fragrance ingredients from different flowering plants
into bottles labeled floral, sweet, honey, minty and cedar. She has learned that a formula for
a perfume is acceptable if and only if it does not violate any of the rules listed: If the perfume
contains floral, it must also contain honey and there must be twice as much honey as floral.
If the perfume contains sweet, it must also contain minty, and the amount of minty must
equal the amount of sweet, honey cannot be used in combination with minty. minty cannot
be used in combination with cedar. If the perfume contains cedar, the amount of cedar must
be greater than the total amount of the other essence or essences useD. Which of the
following could be added to an unacceptable perfume consisting of twoparts honey and one
part cedar to make it acceptable?

A. One part sweet B. One part floral C. Two parts honey D. Two parts cedar
Solution: D
2 parts of cedar
reason: one part of floral can’t be used because it has to be of double quantity as that of
honey
two parts of honey cannot be used as it will increase the qty of honey than cedar
and lastly one part of sweet cannot be used because sweet must be used in combination
with minty which in turn is incompatible with cedar.
Example:
A circular dashboard of radius 2.0 foot is at a distance of 20 feet from you. You throw a dart
at it and it hits the dartboard at some point Q in the circle. What is the probability that Q is
closer to the center of the circle than the periphery?
A .25 B .75 C. 1.00 D. 50
Solution: A
.25 because the area of the circle with half radius 'r/2' is 1/4th of the area of circle with
radius r
OR
Since according to requirement we have to locate Q closer to center in comparison to the

circumference, for doing this we shall make a circle in that board whose radius will be half
of the radius of dart boar D. Now we will compare the area of inner circle to the total area
area of whole circle = pi*(2 foot)^2 = 4pi (this is according to formula area = pi*(radius)^2
similarly area of inner circle = pi*(1foot)^2 = pi
so ratio of areas of these two circles will be the probability and that is 1/4
Example:
After the typist writes 40 letters and addresses 40 envelopes, she inserts the letters randomly
into the envelopes (1 letter per envelope). What is the probability that exactly 1 letter is
inserted in an improper envelope'?
A. 1/40 B. 1/40! C. 1- 1/40 D. 0
Solution: D

The answer will be zero. As if 1 letter is inserted in an improper envelope, there must be one
another letter which is inserted in an improper envelope. Thus probability that exactly 1 letter
is inserted in an improper envelope is zero
OR
According to question only one letter is in an improper envelope, it is impossible, because if

39 letters are in correct envelope then last letter will be obviously in right envelope. So
answer is "0"
Example:
9 people meet and shake hands. The maximum number of handshalces possible ifthere is to
be no 'cycle’ of handshakes is (A cycle of handshakes is a sequence of people al, a2, ..., ak, k>2
such that the pairs {a1,a2}, {a2,a3}, ..., {a(k—1), ak}, {ak,a1} shake hands).
A. 6 B. 5 C. 8 D. 9
Solution: C
The question is not written in proper manner but we can work in 3 methods
1) If these are random handshakes, then total methods = 9*8/2*1 = 36
2) If these are cyclic handshakes, then total methods = 9
3) If these persons are not cyclic but they are arranged in a straight bench, then number of
methods = 8
Example:
48 people {a1, a2, …… a48) meet and shake hands in a circular fashion. In other words, there
are totally 48 handshakes involving the pairs, {a1, a2}, {a2, a3},………..{a47, a48}, {a48, a1}.
Then the size of the smallest set of people such that the rest have shaken hands with at
least one person in the set is
A. 16 B. 24 C. 17 d. 15
Solution: A
Taking Middle one from each group of 3 persons placed together.

like a2,a5,a8,........a47
Example:

Alok is attending a workshop 'How to do more with less and today's theme is Working with
fewer digits. The speakers discuss how a lot of miraculous mathematics can be achieved if
mankind (as well as womankind. had only worked with fewer digits. The problem posed at
the end of the workshop is 'How many 5 digit numbers can be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3,
4, 5 (but with repetition) that are divisible by 4?' Can you help Alok find the answer?
A. 625 B. 250 C. 781 D. 782
Solution:A
For a number to be divisible by 4,we must check that the last two digits should be divisible
by 4.the combinations of digits formed by 1,2,3,4,5 which are divisible by 4 are
(1,2),(2,4),(3,2)(4,4),(5,2)
So it means out these 5 pairs we must select a 1 pair for the number to be divisible by 4...
So its probability is 5C1=5
now we have selected last two digits.
Now our task is to select the first 3 digits in a number. They can be any digits ie(1,2,3,4,5)..
because repetition is allowed
number of possibilities for 1st place =5
number of possibilities for 2nd place =5
number of possibilities for 3rd place =5
so total possibilities at 1st,2nd,3rd place =5^3
Total probability is=5^3+5C1=5^4
Hence our answer is 5^4=625

1. What is the probability that a number selected from numbers 1,2,3,… 30 is prime
number, when each of the number is likely to happen?
A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/5 D. 1/3
2. Two brothers A and B appear for an exam .The probability for the selection of A is 1/7 and
that of B is 2/9.Find the probability that both of them are selected.
A. 1/63 B. 2/63 C. 31/63 D. 4/63
3. A bag contains 21 toys numbered from 1 to 20. A toy is drawn and another toy is drawn
without replacement. Find the probability that both toys will show even numbers.
A. 19/42 B. 4/42 C. 9/42 D.6/42
4. A 5-digit number is formed by using the digits 1,2,3,4 and 5 without repetition. What is
the probability that the number is divisible by 4?
A. 1/5 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 1/3
5. An urn contains 6 red, 5 blue and 2 green is marbles. If two marbles are picked at random,
then what is the probability that both are red?
A. 15/26 B. 5/26 C. 2/13 D. 3/13
6. A bag contains 12 white and 18 green balls. Two balls are drawn in succession without
replacement. What is the probability that the first is white and second is green?
A. 33/145 B. 36/143 C. 36/145 D. 33/146
7. A speaks truth in 75% of the cases and B in 80% of the cases. In what percent of the cases
are they likely to contradict each other in narrating the same event?
A. 25% B. 40% C. 35% D. 55%
8. A number x is chosen at random from the numbers -3,-2,-1, 0,1,2,3. What is the
probability that |x| <2?
A. 3/7 B. 6/7 C. 3/8 D. 6/8

9. A bag contains 5 red and 3 green balls. Another bag contains 4 red and 6 green balls. If
one ball is drawn from each bag. Find the probability that one ball is red and one is green.
A. 3/10 B. 9/10 C. 6/10 D. 7/10
10. A special lottery is held to select a student who will live in the only deluxe room in a
hostel. There are 100 III-yr, 150 II-yr and 200 III yr students who applied. Each III yr student’s
name is placed three times in the lottery, each II yr student’s name 2 times and each I yr
student’s name 1 time. What is the probability that a III yr student’s name gets selected?
A. 3/7 B. 6/7 C. 3/8 D. 6/8
11. The probability of the success of three students X,Y and Z in an examination are 1/5, ¼
and 1/3 respectively. Find the probability of the success of at least two.
A. 1/6 B. 1/4 C.1/8 D.1/3
12. Find the probability that in random arrangement of letters of the word “UNIVERSITY”
two I’s always come together.
A.1/2 B.1/4 C.1/5 D.1/3
13. In a race where 12 cars are running .The chances that car X will win is 1/6 , Y will win is
1/10 and Z will win is 1/8. Assuming that a dead heat is impossible. Find the chances that
one of them will win. 47/120
A.1/5 B.1/4 C. 47/120 D.48/120
14. Harshad and Amit throw with two dice. If Harshad throws 10, what is Amit’s chance of
throwing a higher number?
A.3/11 B.1/12 C.2/11 D.1/4
15. A box contains 20 electric bulbs, out of which 4 are defective. Two bulbs are chosen at
random from the box. What is the probability that at least one of them 1. is defective?
A.6/19 B.5/19 C.4/19 D.7/19

Answers:
1.D 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.C
11.A 12.C 13.C 14.B 15.D

Practice Exercise – 2
1. A 6x6 grid is cut from an 8x8 chessboard. In how many ways can we put two identical
coins, one on the black square and one on a white square on the grid, such that they are not
placed in the same row or in the same column?
A. 216 B. 324 C. 144 D. 108
2. How many four letter distinct initials can be formed using the alphabets of English
language such that the last of the four words is always a consonant?
A. 263 * 21 B. 26 * 25 * 24 * 21 C. 25 * 24 * 23 * 21 D. None of these
3. In how many ways can 15 people be seated around two round tables with seating
capacities of 7 and 8 people?
A.15!/8! B. 7!*8! C. 15C8*6!*7! D. 2*15C7*6!*7!
E. 15C8* 8!
4. In how many ways can the letters of the word EDUCATION be rearranged so that the
relative position of the vowels and consonants remain the same as in the word EDUCATION?
A.9!/4 B. 9!/(4!*5!) C. 4!*5! D. None of these
5. A team of 8 students goes on an excursion, in two cars, of which one can seat 5 and the
other only 4. In how many ways can they travel?
A.9 B. 26 C. 126 D. 392
6. How many alphabets need to be there in a language if one were to make 1 million distinct
3 digit initials using the alphabets of the language?
A.100 B. 50 C. 26 D. 1000
7. How many arrangements of four 0's (zeroes), two 1's and two 2's are there in which the
first 1 occur before the first 2?
A.420 B. 360 C. 320 D. 210
8. How many 5-digit positive integers exist the sum of whose digits are odd?
A.36000 B. 38000 C. 45000 D. 90000
9. In how many ways can seven friends be seated in a row having 35 seats, such that no two
friends occupy adjacent seats?
A.29P7 B. 29C7 C. 28P7 D. 29C7
10. How many ways can 10 letters be posted in 5 post boxes, if each of the post boxes can
take more than 10 letters?

A.510 B. 105 C. 10P5 D. 10C5
11. From a total of six men and four ladies a committee of three is to be formed. If Mrs. X is
not willing to join the committee in which Mr. Y is a member, whereas Mr.Y is willing to join
the committee only if Mrs Z is included, how many such committee are possible?
A.138 B. 128 C. 112 D. 91
12. A local delivery company has three packages to deliver to three different homes. if the
packages are delivered at random to the three houses, how many ways are there for at least
one house to get the wrong package?
A.3 B. 5 C. 3! D. 5!
13. How many natural numbers less than a lakh can be formed with the digits 0,6 and 9?
A.242 B. 243 C. 728 D. 729
14. There are 20 couples in a party. Every person greets every person except his or her
spouse. People of the same sex shake hands and those of opposite sex greet each other
with a namaskar (It means bringing one's own palms together and raising them to the chest
level). What is the total number of handshakes and namaskar's in the party?
A.760 B. 1140 C. 780 D. 720
15. In how many ways can a leap year have 53 Sundays?

A.365C7 B. 7 C. 4 D. 2
16. Six boxes are numbered 1,2,34,5 and 6. Each box must contain either a white ball or a
black ball. At least one box must contain a black ball and boxes containing black balls must
be consecutively numbered. find the total number of ways of placing the balls.
A.15 B. 20 C. 21 D. 36
17. In how many ways can 6 green toys and 6 red toys be arranged, such that 2 particular
red toys are never together whereas 2 particular green toys are always together?
A.11!*2! B. 9!*90 C. 4*10! D. 18*10!
18. The number of ways which a mixed double tennis game can be arranged amongst 9
married couples if no husband and wife play in the same is:
A.1514 B. 1512 C. 3024 D. 3028
19. If the letters of the word SACHIN are arranged in all possible ways and these words are
written out as in dictionary, then the word ‘SACHIN’ appears at serial number:
A.601 B. 600 C. 603 D. 602

20. In a cricket match if a batsman score 0,1,2,34,or 6 runs of a ball, then find the number or
different sequences in which he can score exactly 30 runs of an over. Assume that an over
consists of only 6 balls and there were no extra and no run outs.
A.86 B. 71 C. 56 D. 65
21. How many numbers are there between 100 and 1000 such that at least one of their
digits is 6?
A.200 B. 225 C. 252 D. 120
22. How many positive integers 'n' can be form using the digits 3,4,4,5,6,6,7, if we want 'n'
to exceed 60,00,000?
A.320 B. 360 C. 540 D. 720
23. A bag contains 3 white balls and 2 black balls. Another bag contains 2 white and 4 black
balls. A bag and a ball are picked random. The probability that the ball will be white is:
A.7/11 B. 7/30 C. 5/11 D. 7/15
24. I forgot the last digit of a 7-digit telephone number. If 1 randomly dial the final 3 digits
after correctly dialling the first four, then what is the chance of dialling the correct number?
A. 1/1001 B. 1/1000 C. 1/999 D. 1/990
25. One hundred identical coins each with probability 'p' showing up heads and tosseD.
If 0<p<1 and the probability of heads showing on 50 coins is equal to that of heads on 51
coins, then the value of p is:
A. ½ B. 49/101 C. 50/101 D. 51/101
26. What is the probability that a two digit number selected at random will be a multiple of
'3' and not a multiple of '5'?
A. 2/15 B. 4/15 C. 1/15 D. 4/90
27. In his wardrobe, Dexter has three trousers. One of them is black the second is blue, and
the third brown. In his wardrobe, he also has four shirts. One of them is black and the other
3 are white. He opens his wardrobe in the dark and picks out one shirt and one trouser pair
without examining the colour. What is the likelihood that neither the shirt nor the trouser is
black?
A. 1/12 B. 1/6 C. ¼ D. ½
28. An experiment succeeds twice as often as it fails. What is the probability that in the next
5 trials there will be four successes?
A.0 B. (2/3)4 C. 5*(2/3)4*(1/3) D. *(2/3)4*(1/3)

29. Dinesh speaks truth in 3/4 cases and Abhishek lies in 1/5 cases. What is the percentage
of cases in which both Dinesh and Abhishek contradict each other in stating a fact?
A.60% B. 35% C. 20% D. 15%
30. A set of cards bearing the number 200-299 is used in a game. If card is drawn at random,
what is the probability that it is divisible by:
A. 0.66 B. 0.33 C. 0.44 D. 0.55
31. The probability that a arrow fired from a point will hit the target is 1/4. Three such
arrows are fired simultaneously towards the target from that very point. What is the
probability that the target will be hit?
A. 19/64 B. 23/64 C. 23/67 D. 37/64
32. A and B play a game where each is asked to select a number from 1 to 5. If the two
numbers match, both of them win a prize. The probability that they will not win a prize in a
single trial is:
A. 1/25 B. 24/25 C. 2/25 D. 23/25
33. A 5-digit number is formed by the digits 1,2,3,4, and 5 without repetition. What is the
probability that the number formed is a multiple of 4?
A. ½ B. 1/3 C. ¼ D. 1/5
34. There are three events A, B and C, one of which must and only can happen. If the odds
are 8:3 against A, 5:2 against B, the odds against C must be:
A. 13:7 B. 3:2 C. 43:34 D. 43:77
35. Four boys and three girls stand in queue for an interview. The probability that they stand
in alternate positions is:
A. 1/35 B. 1/34 C. 1/17 D. 1/68
36. A number is selected at random from first thirty natural numbers. What is the chance
that it is a multiple of either 3 or 13?
A. 17/30 B. 2/5 C. 11/30 D. 4/15
37. In a game there are 70 people in which 40 are boys and 30 are girls, out of which 10
people are selected at random. One from the total group, thus selected is selected as a
leader at random. What is the probability that the person, chosen as the leader is a boy?
A. 4/7 B. 4/9 C. 5/7 D. 2/7
38. An eight-digit telephone number consists of exactly two zeroes. One of the digits is
repeated thrice. Remaining three digits are all distinct. If the first three digits (from left to

right) are 987, then find the probability of having only one 9, one 8 and one 7 in the
telephone number.
A. 1/18 B. 1/20 C. 1/10 D. 5/47
39. Two urns contain 5 white and 7 black balls and 3 white and 9 black balls respectively.
One ball is transferred to the second urn and then one ball is drawn from the second urn.
Find the probability that the first ball transferred is black, given that the ball drawn is black?
A.13/23 B. 11/23 C. 14/23 D. 7/23
40. A bag contains 10 balls numbered from 0 to 9. the balls are such that the person picking
a ball out of the bag is equally likely to pick anyone of them. A person picked a ball and
replaced it in the bag after noting its number. He repeated this process 2 more times. What
is the probability that the ball picked first is numbered higher than the ball picked second
and the ball picked second is numbered higher than the ball picked third?
A. 72/100 B. 3/25 C. 4/5 D. 1/6

Time, Speed and Distance

Important Formulas:
1. Speed = Distance/Time, Time = Distance/ Speed
2. x km/hr = x* 5/18 m/sec
3. x m/sec = x*18/5km/h
4. If the ratios of the speeds of A and B is a:b then ratio of their time taken for covering
same distance is 1/a: 1/b or b:a
5. If the speed of A is x km/h and then y km/h for the same distance, then its average speed
for the whole journey would be 2xy/(x+y) km/h
6. In travelling equal distance with speeds x and y, the average speed is expressed
as 2xy/(x+y)
7. The relative speed of a moving body with speed x km/h in relation to the other body
moving with speed y km/h :
A. in same direction is difference of their speeds i.e. (x-y) km/h.
B. in opposite direction is the sum of their speeds i.e. x+y) km/h
8. Boats and Streams: if the speed of the boat in still water is x km/h and the speed of the
stream is y km/h, then
Downstream speed =( x+y) km/h
Upstream speed =( x-y) km/h
9. using 8, it can be shown that if the downstream speed is u km/h and upstream speed is v
km/h then,
Speed of boat in still water =( u+v)/2
Speed of stream =( u-v)/2
10. Circular Motion: The relative motion of two bodies moving around a circular in the same
direction is given by (x-y) km/h. Where x and y are the speed of two bodies in km/h.
And, when two bodies are moving around a circle in the opposite direction, the relative
speed of the two bodies is given by (x+y) km/h.
11. FIRST MEETING OF THREE BODIES ON CIRCULAR PATH: In case when three or more
bodies start moving simultaneously from the same point on the circumference of the circle,

in the same direction around the circle , they will first meet after a time given by LCM of the
times that the fastest runner takes in totally overlapping each of the slower runners.
FIRST MEETING AT THE STARTING POINT: In case when three or more bodies start moving
simultaneously from the same point on the circumference of the circle, in the same
direction around the circle , they will meet again at the starting point after a time calculated
by taking LCM of the times that each of the bodies takes to complete on full round.
12. Key notes to solve problems on Trains
The time taken by a train in passing a signal post or a telegraph pole or a man standing near
a railway line = Length of the train)/ speed of the train
The time taken by a train passing a railway bridge or a platform or a tunnel or a train at rest
= (x+y)/Speed
where, x = length of the train, y = length of the bridge or platform or standing train or
tunnel
Time taken by faster train to pass the slower train in the same direction= (x+y)/(u-v);
where, x = length of the first train ; y = length of the second train ; u = speed of the first
train ; v = speed of the second train and u > v
Time taken by the trains in passing each other while moving in opposite direction =
(x+y)/u+v)
Time taken by the train to cross a man = x/(u-v)
where, both are moving in the same direction and x= length of the train; u= speed of the
train and v= speed of the man.
Time taken by the train to across a man running in the opposite direction= x/ (u+v)
If two trains start at the same time from two points A and B towards each other and after
crossing, they take a and b hours in reaching B and A respectively. Then,
A's speed: B's speed= b: a
A train starts from a place at u km/h and another fast train starts from the same place after
t hours at v km/h in the same direction. Find at what distance from the starting place both
the trains will meet and also find the time of their meeting.
Distance= uvt/(v-u) km
Time=ut/(v-u) hours

The distance between two places A and B is x km. A train starts from A to B at u km/h. One
another train after t hours starts from B to A at v km/h. At what distance from A will both
the train meet and also find the time of their meeting
Time = (x-ut)/ u+v) + t hours
Distance from A = (ux-ut)/u+v))+t km
Two trains starts simultaneously from the stations A and B towards each other a
t the rates of u and v km/h respectively. When they meet it is found that the second train
had traveled x km more than the first. Then the distance between the two stations
i.e., between A and B. is (xu+v)/ (v-u) km

Practice Exercise 1 - Solved
1. A boy runs 200 meters in 24 seconds. What is his speed ?
A. 20 km/hr B. 24 km/hr C. 28.5 km/hr D. 30 km/hr
2. If the speed of a man is 45 km per hour, then what is the distance traveled by him in 30
seconds?
A. 275m B.360m C.375 m D. 420 m
3. An escalator moves towards the top level at the rate of 11 ft. sec and its length is 140
feet. If a person walks on the moving escalator at the rate of 3 feet per second towards the
top level, how much time does he take to cover the entire length.
A. 14 sec B. 10 sec C. 12 sec D.8 sec
4. Two trains, 250 meters and 150 meters long respectively, are running on parallel lines. If
they are running in the same directions, the faster train crosses the slower train in 40
seconds. If they are moving in the opposite direction they pass each other in eight seconds.
What is the speed of the slower train?
A. 108kmph B. 82kmph C.92 kmph D. 72 kmph
5. Two persons, Ram & Lakshman , who are at a distance of 100 km from each other, move
towards each other from two places P and Q at speeds of 20 kmph and 25 kmph
respectively. Lakshman reaches P,returns immediately and meets Ram at R, who started on
the return journey to P immediately after reaching Q. What is the distance between Q and
R?
A. 33 1/3 km B. 25 km C.30km D.27 1/3km
6. With out any halt a train travels a certain distance with an average speed of 75 km ph ,
and with halts it covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 kmph. When it is
traveling with halts, how many minutes/per hour does the train halt on an average?
A. 48 min. B. 12min. C. 15min. D. 18min.
7. A lady starts from P towards Q and realizes that at a point R, if he walks 50 km further he
will be at a point S, which is as far away from R as it is from Q. What is the distance
between P and Q if the distance between P and R is half the distance from R to Q? Assume
that P, Q, R and S are all on the same straight line.
A. 150 km B.200 km C.250 km D.125 km
8. In a 1000 m race Usha beats Shiny by 50 m. In the same race, by what time margin Shiny
beat Mercy who runs at 4 m/s ?
A. 100 sec. B. 50 sec C. 25 sec D. Data not sufficient
9. A and B participate in a 5000 m bicycle race which is being run on a circular track of 500
m. If the speed of A and B are 20 m/s and 10 m/s respectively, what is the distance covered
by A when he passes B for the seventh time ?
A. 2500 B. 2800 C. 4000 m D. Situation is not possible

10. Two buses A and B leave the same bus depot, A towards the North and B towards the
East. The bus A travels at a speed of 5 km/hr more than that of the bus B. If after four hours
the distance between the two buses is 100 km, find the speed
of the bus A.
A. 60 kmph B. 40 kmph C. 20 kmph D. 15 kmph
11. A person traveled from his house to office at 30 kmph; then he was late to his office by 5
minutes. If he increases his speed by 10 kmph he would be early by 15 minutes to his office.
What should be his speed so that he reaches his office on time?
A. 36 kmph B. 32 kmph C. 34 kmph D.35 kmph
12. A train 575 m long crosses a tunnel of length 325 in 90 sec. What is the speed of the
train in kmph.
A. 28 B.32 C.36 D.24
13. A train which has 390 m long, is running 45 kmph. In what time will it cross a person
moving at 9 kmph in same direction?
A. 26 sec B. 39 sec C.36 sec D.29 sec.
14.Two persons start running simultaneously around a circular track of length 400 m from
the same point at speeds of 15 kmph and 25 kmph. When will they meet for the first time
anywhere on the track if they are moving in the opposite direction?
A.144 B.36 C. 124 D.32
15. Two persons C & D started traveling from A and B which are 300 km apart, towards B
and
A respectively at 1.00 p.m. C travels at a constant speed of 30 kmph whereas D doubles his
speed every hour. If D reaches A in 4 5/8 hours, at what time did C and D meet each
other?
A. 4:30 p.m. B. 4:40 p.m. C. 5:00 p.m. D. 5:10 p.m.
16. Two trains T1 and T2 start simultaneously from two stations X and Y respectively
towards each other. If they are 70 km apart both 3 and 6 hours after start, then find the
distance between the two stations.
A. 210 km B.240 km C.220km D.180km
17. Ajith and Rana walk around a circular course 115 km in circumference, starting together
from the same point. If they walk at speed of 4 and 5 kmph respectively, in the same
direction, when will they meet?
A. after 20 hours B. after 115 hours C. after 115 minutes D. after 20 minutes
18. There are 4 people who have to cross a stretch of 300 km. They normally run at a speed
of 10 kmph. One of them has a bike that travels at 50 kmph. The bike first takes one person
alone and crosses the stretch while the other two keep running. Then he comes back
without wasting time and picks up another person from the way, drives him across the
stretch, and does the same for the last person. How long does this whole process take?

A.24 hrs B.16 hrs C. 56/3 hrs D. 58/3 hrs
19. Ragav took a bus from home to market, that travels at 40 kmph. While walking back at 4
kmph, halfway through, he suddenly realized he was getting late and he cycled back the
remaining distance in 30 kmph. Find the average speeD.
A. 6.5 kmph B.12.0 kmph C.28.5 kmph D. none of these
20. Two trains of equal length 120 metres move in the same direction. The faster train
completely overtakes the slower one in 15 seconds. If the slower train were to move at half
its speed, the overtaking would take in 10 seconds. At what speeds are the 2 trains moving
faster and slower respectively (in m/s)
A. 24, 22 B. 32, 16 C.30, 18 D. 28, 14

Answers & Explanations
1. Expl : 200/24 * 18/5 = 30 km/hr
2. Expl :The distance traveled in 30 sec = 45*5/18 *30 =375m
3. Time taken to cover the entire length = tot.dist/resultant speed = 140/ 11+3) = 10sec
4. Expl : Let the speed of faster train be f and slower train be y.

Time taken to cross each other traveling in the same direction = 250 +150/ x - y = 40.........1)
Time taken to cross each other traveling in the opposite direction = 250+150 /x+y) = 8
.......2)
From 1) and 2) f= 30 m/s and s = 20 m/s
Speed of slower train = 20 * 18/5 = 72 kmph
5. Expl : Ram takes 100/20 = 5 hours to cover the distance from P to Q. By that time
Lakshman covers 5 *25 = 125 km
Lakshman covers 25 km more than the distance PQ . Now the distance between them = 75
km
Time taken by them to meet = Distance/ Relative speed = 7
5/20+25) = 75/45 = 5/3 hrs.
Distance between Q and R is nothing but the distance covered by Ram in 5/3 hours = 20
*5/3 =
100/3 km or 33 1/3 km
6. Expl : With halt in 1 hour the train travels 60km

Without halt for traveling same distance it take 60/75 =
4/5 = 48 minutes
:. 12 minutes is the halting time per hour
8. Expl: Speed of Shiny = 50/ 10 = 5m/s

Time taken by shiny to complete the race is B = 1000/5 = 200 seC.
Time taken by Baley to complete the race is D = 1000/4 = 250 seC.
Hence, D
-
B = 50 sec
9.Track length = 500 m

Speed of A and B are 20m/s and 10 m/s respectively
Time taken by them to meet = length/ relative speed = 500/20
-
10) 50 sec.
11. Expl : Let the distance between house and office be x km

(x/30 – x/40) = 20/40;
x/120 = 1/3
x = 40 km

Travlling at 40 kmph, he reaches office in 1 hour i.e. 15 minutes early
So required speed = 40/ 5/4 = 40 * 4/5 = 160/5 = 32 kmph
12. Total distance traveled = Length of train + Length of tunnel = 575 + 325 = 900
Time taken to cross the tunnel = 90 seC.
Speed in kmph = distance/time
*18/5 = 900/90 * 18/5 = 180/5 = 36 kmph
13. Time taken to cross a moving person = length of train/ relative speed
Time taken = 390/45 - 9) 5/18) = 390/ 36*5/18) = 390/10 = 39 sec
14. Time taken to meet the first time = length of track/relative speed
= 400/ 15 +25) 5/18)
= 400/40 *18/5) = 36 sec.
15. Let speed of D in first hour = x

D’s speed = x+ 2x+ 4x+ 8x+ 16x*5/8) = 25x
Given 25x=300 :. X = 12
At the end of four hours C traveled 120 30 *4) kmph and D traveled 12 + 24+ 48 +96 =
180kmph
:. They meet each other after 4 hours ie at 5: p.m.
16. In first 3 hours T1 travels R km and T2 travels S km.

After 6 hours they traveled R+S+70+ 700
2(R+S ) = R+S +140
R+S = 140
Hence distance between XY is R+S+ 70 = 140 +70 =210
17. Expl : Rana is the faster person. He gains 1 km in 1 hour. So Rana will gain one complete
round over Ajith in 115 hours. i.e. they will meet after 115 hours.
19. Let the distance be 2xone way

Time taken by bus = 2x/40, by walking =x/4,
by cycling = x/30 hours
:. Average speed = Total Distance/Total time
= 4x/4 *60
x/20 + x/4 + x/30
3+15+2
= 12.0
20. The total distance covered for over taking = length of the two trains = 120 +120 = 240
Speed of faster train be x m/s and slower train be y m/s

Solved Examples
Example:
Hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of its distance and that
too leisurely. A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The
tortoise goes in one direction and the. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has
covered only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as to
tie the race?
A. 37.80 B. 8 C. 40 D. 5
Solution:
After tortoise covers 1/5th distance hare starts the race

When hare covers 1/8th of distance tortoise meets hare
So distance covered by tortoise = 1-1/5 + (1/8)
= 27/40
Time taken by both is same
time = dist/speed
So (dist/ speed) of tortoise = (dist / speed) of hare
let speed of tortoise be t and of hare be h
27/40t = 1/8h
h = (40/(8*27) )* t = 5/27 * t
Now for the next part hare has to cover 7/8 th distance when tortoise covers 1/8 th distance
so we get
1/8t = 7/8h
h = 7t
so the factor by which h's speed increases = 7t/ (5/27 * t)
which we get as 37.8
Example:
Find average speed if a man travels at speed of 24kmph up and 36kmph down at an altitude
of 200m.
Solution:
x= 24km/hr
Y= 36km/hr
By using the formula of average speed, we can calculate

Average speed = (2*x*y)/ (x+y)
=(2*24*36)/(24+36)
=1728/60 = 28.8km/hr
Example:
Ferrari is leading car manufacturer.*Ferrari S.p.A.* is an Italian sports car. It has enjoyed
great success. If Mohan's Ferrari is 3 times faster than his old Mercedes wich gave him
35kmph if Mohan travelled 490 km in his ferrari the how much timehours) he took?
Solution:
Speed of Mercedes = 35km/hr.
Speed of Ferrari = 3 * 35 = 105 km/hr
Speed = distance travelled / time taken
By using the above formula, we can easily calculate the time taken taken by Mohan to cover
the distance.
Time taken = distance travelled / speed
= 490/ 105
=4.67 hrs approx.
Example:
Horse started to chase dog as it relieved stable two hours ago. And horse started to ran with
average speed 22km/hour, horse crossed 10 mts road and two small pounds with depth 3m,
and it crossed two small streets with 200 mts length. After travelling 6 hrs, 2 hours after
sunset it got dog. Compute the speed of dog?
Solution:
Speed of horse= 22km/hr
Time covered by horse = 6hr
We know that speed = distance travelled/time taken
By using this formula, we can calculate the distance covered by the horse.
Distance covered = 22*6 = 132km.
As we know that the same distance is covered by the dog in 8 hours.

Speed of dog = Distance travelled/ time taken
= 132/8
=16.5 km/hr
Example:
A man on a motorcycle rides 110 miles in 330 minutes. What is his average speed in miles per
hour?
A. 11.1 B. 15 C. 20 D. 22
Solution:
Distance= 110
Time= 330MIN=5.5Hr
Average Speed = Distance/Time=110/5.5=20
Example:
The centre of a storm shifts 22.5 miles in 1 hour. At the same rate what time will it take to
move 60 miles?
A. 2 2/3 Hrs B. 2 1/3 Hrs C. 2 1/2 Hrs D. 2 3/4 Hrs
Solution:
Speed= 22.5/1 =22.5 miles per hr

Distance= 60 miles
Time= 60 miles/ 22.5 miles per hr= 2 3/3 hrs
Example:
Ferrari S.P.A is an Italian sports car manufacturer based in Maranello, Italy. Founded by Enzo
Ferrari in 1928 as Scuderia Ferrari, the company sponsored drivers and manufactured race cars
before moving into production of street-legal vehicles in 1947 as Ferrari S.P.A. Throughout its
history, the company has been noted for its continued participation in racing, especially in
Formula One where it has employed great success .Rohit once bought a Ferrari. It could go 4
times as fast as Mohan's old Mercedes. If the speed of Mohan's Mercedes is 35 km/hr and the
distance traveled by the Ferrari is 490 km, find the total time taken for Rohit to drive that
distance.
A. 20.72 B. 3.5 C. 238.25 D. 6.18
Solution:
Speed of Ferrari = 4 * speed of Mercedes

Speed of Ferrari = 4 * 35 = 140 km/hr
distance traveled by the Ferrari is 490 km
time=distance/speed)

=490/140
=3.5 hr
Example:
A person was fined for exceeding the speed limit by 10 mph. Another person was also fined for
exceeding the same speed limit by twice the same. If the second person was travelling at a
speed of 35 mph. find the speed limit.
A. 5 miles/hr B. 10 miles/hr C. 15 miles/hr D. 20 miles/hr
Solution:
let the speed limit be x.

speed by first rider S1 and 2nd rider be S2.
S1=x+10;
S2 =x+2*10 ; and given S2=35.
solving we get x=15mph
Example:
A person who decided to go weekend trip should not exceed 8 hours driving in a day. Average
speed of forward journey is 40 mph. Due to traffic on Sundays; the return journey average
speed is 30 mph. how far he can select a picnic spot.
A. 80 miles B. 100 miles C. 120 miles D. 140 miles
Solution:
Let t1= time for forward journey.

t2 =time 4 return journey.
t=t1 + t2 =8hrs;
x= destination;
t1 + t2 = x / 40 + x / 30
= 8; x 7/120 )
= 8; x= 8*120/ 7
= 137 miles
Example:
A hare and a tortoise have a race along a circle of 100 yards diameter. The tortoise goes in
one direction and the hare in the other. The hare starts after the tortoise has covered 1/5 of
its distance and that too leisurely. The hare and tortoise meet when the hare has covered
only 1/8 of the distance. By what factor should the hare increase its speed so as the win the
race? for this values are changed)
A. 8 B. 5 C. 37 D. 80
Solution:

After tortoise covers 1/5th distance hare starts the race
When hare covers 1/8th of distance tortoise meets hare
So distance covered by tortoise = 1-1/5 + 1/8
= 27/40
Time taken by both is same
time = dist/speed
So (dist/ speed) of tortoise = (dist / speed) of hare
let speed of tortoise be t and of hare be h
27/40t = 1/8h
h = (40/8*27) * t = 5/27 * t
Now for the next part hare has to cover 7/8 th distance when tortoise covers 1/8 th distance
so we get
1/8t = 7/8h
h = 7t
so the factor by which his speed increases = (7t/ 5/27 * t)
Example:
Find average speed if a man travels at speed of 24kmph up and 36kmph down at an altitude of
200m.
A. 30 B. 32 C. 28 D. 28.8
Solution:
Average speed =2xy/(x+y)

=24*36/(24+36)
=28.8
Example:
There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the rate of one
liter every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160... In tank B. At the end of first hour, B
has 10 liters’, second hour it has 20, and so on). If tank B is 1/32 filled after 21 hours, what is the
total duration required to fill it completely?
A. 26 hrs B. 25 hrs C. 5 hrs D. 27 hrs
Solution:
Rate of A = 2times of B
till now 23 hrs have been completed and tank B is 1/8 filled.
Hence in next one hr 2 times of it would get filled...i.e. (1/8)*2=1/4
after another one hr=(1/4)*2=1/2

another one hr=(1/2)*2=1 fully filled
it required extra 3 hrs.
hence ans is 23+3=26 hrs.
Example:
A man jogs at 6 mph over a certain journey and walks over the same route at 4 mph. What is his
average speed for the journey?
A. 4 mph B. 5 mph C. 2.4 mph D. 4.8 mph
Solution:
Average speed =2xy/(x+y)
=4*6/(4+6)
=4.8
Example:
A police car starts chasing a fugitive in a BMW 3 hours after the BMW escapes from the scene
of crime at 10 AM. The BMW drives for 10 Km through the crowded roads of Shanghai and
then drives into a highway, where the traffic allows vehicles to move twice as fast. After a
while, the police car finally catches up with the BMW after a chase that lasted 4 hours. By this
time the moon was up in the sky for 4 hours. If the average speed of the police car is 83 kmph,
then the average speed of the BMW is …………….. kmph.
A. 35.57 B. 47.43 C. 48.43 D. 11.86
Solution: B
Distance covered by police is 4*83=332km.

The Fugitive covered the same distance in 4+3=7 hours.
so, the average speed of BMW is 332/7=47.43kmpph.
Example:
Recent reports have suggested that sportsmen with decreased metabolic rates perform
better in certain sports. After reading one such report, Jordan, a sportsperson from Arlington
decides to undergo a rigorous physical training program for 3 months, where he performs
Yoga for 3 hours, walks for 2 hours and swims for 1 hour each day. He says: I began my training
on a Wednesday in a prime number month of 2008. I lost 1% of my original weight within the

first 30 days. In the next two months combined, I lost 1 Kg. If he walks at 6 mph over a certain
journey and walks back over the same route at 8 mph at an altitude of 200 meters, what is
his average speed for the journey?
A. 48.00 B. 6.86 C. 3.43 D. 7.00
Solution: B
Average speed = 2*a*b/a+B.
Average speed = 2*8*6/14)
Average speed = 6.86mph

Type1- Average Speed
1. A person crosses a 600 m long street in 5 mints. What is his speed in km/h:
A.3.6 B. 7.2 C. 8.4 D. 10
2. If a man runs at 3m/s, how many kilometres does he run in 1 h 40 min?
A. 18 km B. 12 km C. 20 km D. 22 km
3. A man on tour travels first 160km at 64 km/h and the next 160 km at 80 km/h. The
average speed for the first 320 km of the tour is:
A.35.55 km/h B. 36 km/h C. 71.11 km/h D. 71km/h
4. What is the average speed if a person travels at the speed of 20km/h and 30 km/h for the
equal interval of time?
A. 20 km/h B. 25 km/h C. 22 km/h D. 26 km/h
5. What is the average speed if a person travels at the speed of 20km/h and 30 km/h for the
unequal interval of time?
A. 20 km/h B. 25 km/h C 24 km/h D. 18 km/h
6. A person walks at 4 km/h for 6 h and 6 km/h for 8 h. What is the average speed of the
man for the entire journey?
A. 7 1/5 km/h BB. 3 2/5 km/h C. 5 3/5 km/h D. 5 1/7 km/h
Type 2
7. A car covers 4 successive 3 km stretches at speed of 10 kmph, 20 kmph, 30 kmph and 60

kmph respectively. Its average speed is:
A. 30 kmph B. 15 kmph C. 20 kmph D. 25 kmph
8. Walking at ¾ of its usual speed, a man is late by 2 ½ hr the usual time is:
A. 7.5 B. 6.5 C. 7 D. 5.5
9. A train covers a distance in 50 mints, if it runs at a speed of 48 kmph on an average. The

speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40 mints is:
A. 70 kmph B. 60 kmph C. 55kmph D. 65 kmph

10. Excluding stoppages the speed of the bus is 54kmph. Including stopages it is 45kmph.
For how many mints does the bus stop per hour:
A. 25 B. 15 C. 20 D. 10
11. A man covers a distance on scooter, had he moved 3 kmph faster he would have taken
40 mints less. If he had moved 20 kmph slower he would have taken 40 mints more. The
distance is:
A. 40 km B. 30 km C. 25 km D. 45 km
12. If a flight of 600 km an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed
for the trip was reduced by 200 kmph and the time of flight increased by 30 mints. The
duration of the flight is:
A. 1 hr B. 2 hr C. 3 hr D. 4 hr
Type 3- Relative Speed
13. Two boys starting from the same place walk at the rate of 5 kmph and 5.5 kmph resp.
What time will they take to be 8.5 km apart, if they walk in the same direction:
A. 17 hr B. 15 hr C. 17.5 hr D. 16.5 hr
14. A thief steals a car at 2.30 pm and drives it at 60 kmph. The theft is discovered at 3 pm
and the owner sets off in another car at 75 kmph, when will he overtake the thief:
A. 4 pm B. 5 pm C. 4.30 pm D. 5.15 pm
15. In covering distance the speed of A and B are in the ratio of 3:4. A takes 30 mints more
than B to reach the destination. The time taken by A to reach the destination is:
A. 2 hr B. 2 hr 35 mints C. 2 hr 45 mints D. 2 hr 05 mints
16. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7:8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4
hrs, then the speed of the first train is:
A. 75 kmph B. 70 kmph C. 87.5 kmph D. 84 kmph
17. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes 2 hrs more than Smeer. If Abhay doubles
his speed, then he would take 1 hr less than Sameer. Then the speed of Abhay is:
A. 5 kmph B. 6.25 kmph C. 6 kmph D. 7.5 kmph

18. It takes 8 hrs for 600 km journey, if 120 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes
20 mints more, if 200km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the
train to that of the car is:
A. 2:3 B. 3:2 C. 3:4 D. 4:3
Type 4- Boats and Stream
19. A man can row 15km/h in still water. If it takes him twice as long as to row up as to row
down the river. Find the rate of stream.
20. A man can row 6 km/h in still water and the river is running at 4 km/h. If a man takes
3/2 h to row to a palce and back, how far is the place?
A. 2 km B. 3.7 km C. 2.5 km D. 3 km
21. A motorboat whose speed in still water is 10km/h went 91 km downstream and then
returned to its starting point. Calculate the speed of the river flow if the round trip tooka
total of 20 h.
22. A motorist covers a distance of 39 km in 45 min by moving at a speed of x km/h for the
first 15 min, then moving at double the speed for the next 20 min and then again moving at
his original speed for the rest of the journey. Then, x is equal to
A. 31.2 B. 36 C. 40 D. 52
Type 5- Circular Motion
23. Sumit and Rajan run on a circular track of circumference 600m witha speed of 5 km/h
and 2 km/h. They start from the same place at the same time and in the same direction.
When will they be together again for the first time?
A. 700 s B. 750 s C. 720 s D. 500 s
DIRECTIONQ24-25) Three friends Mukul, Dinesh and Rohan run along a circular park with a
speed of 8 km/h, 5 km/h and 3 km/h respectively. The circumference of the park is 500 m.
24. when will they all be together again for the first time?
A. 25 min B. 30 min C. 40 min D. 20 min
25. when will they all be together again for the first time at the starting point?

Answers:
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D
11. A 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. C
21. A 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. C

Practice Exercise 3 - Unsolved
Q-Direction1-2) A and B go by Bus from X to Z which is on the way to Y. C goes from Y to Z
by Auto. A and B's Bus goes at 75km/hr and C's auto moves at 15km/hr. All the three start at
6:00am. After travelling some distance, B sees another friend D going by Cycle at 25km/hr
to Z. B and A go ahead, meet C and pick him up. They return immediately to Z at the same
time. The distance between X and Y is 600km and XZ is 400km.
1.What is the total distance travelled by A?
A. 480 km B.450km C.550km D.600km
2.What is the time for the entire journey?
A.10hr B.6hr C.8hr D.9hr
3. A ship develops a leak 12 km from the shore. Despite the leak, the ship is able to move
towards the shore at a speed of 8 km/hr. However, the ship can stay afloat only for 20
minutes. If a rescue vessel were to leave from the shore towards the ship and it takes 4
minutes to evacuate the crew and passengers of the ship, what should be the minimum
speed of the rescue vessel in order to be able to successfully rescue the people aboard the
ship?
A. 53km/hr B.37km/hr C.28km/hr D.44km/hr
4. Rajesh walks to and fro to a shopping mall. He spends 30 minutes shopping. If he

walks at speed of 10 km an hour, he returns to home at 19.00 hours. If he walks at 15
km an hour, he returns to home at 18.30 hours. How fast must he walk in order to
return at 18.15 hours?
A.17km/hr B.18km/hr C.19km/hr D.20km/hr
5. P beats Q by 5 seconds in a race of 1000m and Q beats R by 5 metres in a race of

100m. By how many seconds does P beats R in a race of 1000 m?
A.5secs B.7secs C.10 sec D. Cannot be determined
6.Two guns were firedfrom the same place at an interval of 12 min, but a person in the train
approaching the place hears the second shot 10 min after the first. The speed of the train , if
speed of sound is 330m/s is
A.65m/s B.65km/hr C.56m/s D.56km/hr E.none of these
7.Assume that the distance that a car runs on 1L petrol is inversely proportional to the
square of the speed at which it is driven. It gives a run of 25km/L at a speed of 36km/hr. At
what speed should it be driven to get a run of 36km/L?
A.36km/hr B.30km/hr C.42km/hr D.35km/hr E.none of these

8.A boat covers 40km upstream and 90 km downstream in 5 hr.It can also cover 60km
upstream and 60 km downstream in 5 r. The speed of the water current is ?
A.4km/hr B.5km/hr C.20km/hr D.25km/hr E.6km/hr
9.On a circular track of length more than 200m, Shivku runs twice as fast as Pawan.In a
running race, if Shivku gives a lead of 100 m to Pawan, when will they meet for the first
time? When will they meet for the first time if the length of the track is only 150 m?
A.150m,90m B.250m,75m C.200m,50m D.200m,90m E.none of these
10.In a running race, Pallavi gives a head start of 350 m to RichA. If the ratio of speeds of
Pallavi and Richa is 20:13, how far must the winning point be so that Pallavi and Richa finish
the race at the same time?
A.1km B.2km C.3km D.2.5km E.none of these
11. Sujit and Shivku start travelling in the same direction at 8km/hr and 13km/hr
respectively. After 4 hr, Sujit doubled his speed and Shivku reduced his speed by 1km/hr and
reached the destination together. How long did the entire journey last?
A.9hr B.10hr C.11hr D.8hr E.none of these
12. Golu and Mayank start running simultaneously.Golu runs from point A to point B and
Mayank runs from point B to point A. Golu speed is 6/5 of Mayank speed. After crossing
Mayank, if Golu takes 5/2 hr to reach B, how much time does Mayank take to reach A after
crossing Golu?
A.3hr6min B.3hr16min C.3hr 26 min D.3hr 36 min E.3 hr32min
13. What is the minimum number of rounds that A take in order to meet B at the starting
point? The speed of A and B are 4m/s and 12m/s respectively?
A.1 B.12 C.3 D.4 E.2
14. Arun, Barun and Kiranmala start from the same place and travel in the same direction at
speeds of 30, 40 and 60 km per hour respectively. Barun starts two hours after Arun. If
Barun and Kiranmala overtake Arun at the same instant, how many hours after Arun did
Kiranmala start?
A.3 B.3.5 C.4 D.4.5
15. After travelling 30 min, a train met with an accident and was stopped there for 45 min.
Due to the accident, its speed reduced to 2/3 of its former speed and the train reached its
destination 1 hr 30 min late. Had the accident occurred 60km after the point it occurred
earlier, the train would have reached 30 min earlier. The length of the journey is
A.90km B.120km C.150km D.180km E.130km

Practice Exercise 4 - Unsolved
1. A and B walk from P to Q, a distance of 21 Kms at 3 and 4 Km/hr. B reaches Q and

immediately returns and meets A at R. Find PR.
A. 3 kms B. 18 kms C. 15 kms D. 16 kms
2. If a student walks from his house to school at 5km/hr., he is late by 30 minutes. However, if
he walks at 6km/hr, he is late by 5 minutes only. The distance of his school
from his house is :
A. 2.5 km B. 3.6 km C. 5.5 km D. 12.5 km
3. A train approaches a tunnel AB. Inside the tunnel is a cat located at a point that is 3/8 of
the distance AB measured from the entrance A. when the train whistles the cat runs. If the
cat moves to the entrance of the tunnel, A, the train catches the cat exactly at the entrance.
If the cat moves to the exit, B, the train catches the cat at exactly the exit. What is the ratio
of the speed of the train to the speed of the cat?
A. 8:1 B. 4:1 C. 5:3 D. 8:3
4. Navjivan Express from Ahmedabad to Chennai leaves Ahmedabad at 6:30 A.m. and travels
at 50 kmph towars Baroda situated 100 km away. At 7:00 A.m. Howrah-Ahmedabad Express
leaves Baorda towards Ahmedabad and travels at 40 kmph. At 7:30 A.m, Mr Shah, the
traffic controller at Baroda realizes that both the trains are running on the same track. How
much time does he have to avert a head-on collision between the two trains
A. 20 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 45 minutes D. None of these
5.A thief steals a car at 1.30 p.m. and drives it at 45km/hr. The theft is discovered at 2 p.m. and
the owner sets off in another car at 50 km/hr. He will overtake the thief at :
A. 3:30 P.M. B. 4 P.M. C. 4 : 30 P.M. D. 6 P.M.
6. A train starts traveling from A At 7 AM and reaches B at 12 noon. Another man start
traveling from B at 9 AM and reaches A at 4 PM. AT what time do the two trains cross each
other.
A. 10:45 am B. 11 am C. 9:45 am D.10:30 am
7. A carriage driving in a fog passed a man who was walking at the rate of 3 km/hr in the
same direction. He could see the carriage for 4 minutes and it as visible to him upto a
distance of 100m. What is the speed of the carriage.
A. 4.5 km/hr B. 6 km/hr C. 10 km/hr D. 12 km/hr
8. Two guns were fired from the same place at an interval of 12 minutes but a person in a
train approaching the place hears the second shot 10 minutes after the first shot. Find the
speed of the train if the speed of the sound is 330 m/s.
A. 66 m/sec B. 165 m/sec C. 60 m/sec D. None of these
9. A car covers four successive 3 km stretches at 10 km/ hr, 20 km/hr, 30 km/hr and 60 km/hr

respectively. Its average speed over this distance is :
A. 10 km/hr B. 20 km/hr C. 25 km/hr D. 30 km/hr
10.A man completes 30 km of a journey at 6km/hr. and the remaining 40 km of the journey in
5 hours. His average speed for the whole journey is :
4
B. 7km / hr
A. 6 km / hr
11
1
D. 8km / hr
C. 7 km / hr
2
11. A man covers half of his journey at 6km/hr and the remaining half at 3km/hr.His average
speed is :
A. 3 km /hr B. 4 km/hr C. 4.5 km/hr D. 9km/hr
12.A train speeds past a pole in 15 s and crosses past a platform of 100m long in 30s. Find
the length of the
train.
A. 75m B. 130m C. 100m D. 200 m
13.The speed of a train 150m long is 50 kmph. How much time will it take to pass a platform
600 m long?
A. 50 sec. B. 54 sec. C. 60 sec. D. 64 sec.
14.How much time will a train 171 m long take to cross a bridge 229 m long, if it is running at a
speed of 45 kmph
?
A. 40 sec. B. 35 sec. C. 32 sec. D. 30 sec.
15. A train travelling with constant speed crosses a 96 m long platform in 12 seconds and
another 141 m long platform in 15 seconds.The length of the train and its
speed are :
A. 64m, 44 km/hr. B. 64m, 54 km/hr.
C. 84 m, 54km/hr. D. 84 m, 60 km/hr.
16. Two trains 105 m and 90 m long run at the speeds of 45 kmph and 72 kmph respectively in
opposite directions on parallel tracks. The time which they take
to cross each other,
is :
D. 8
A. 5 sec B. 6 seC. C. 7 sec seC.
17. The speed of a boat in still water is 15km/hr. It can go 30 km upstream and return
downstream to the original point in 4 hrs 30 min. The speed of the stream is :
A. 5km/hr. B. 8km/hr. C. 10km/hr. D. 15 km/hr.

18.A man can row at 5 km/hr in still water. If the river is running at 1km/hr., it takes him 75
minutes to row to a place and back. How far is the place ?
A. 2.5 km B. 3 km C. 4 km D. 5 km

Advanced
1. 2 trains starting at the same time from 2 stations 200km apart and going in opposite
direction cross each other at a distance of 110km from one of the stations. What is the
ratio of their speeds?
A.11:9 B.9:11 C.2:3 D. None of these
2. A train covers a distance in 50 min, if it runs at a speed of 48kmph on an average. The

speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to 40min will be in
kmphr
A. 45 B.60 C.75 D. None of these
3. Sachin can cover a distance in 1hr 24min by covering 2/3 of the distance at 4 kmph
and the rest at 5kmph.the total distance is
A.5km B.6km C.7km D.8km
4. A passenger train takes two hours less for a journey of 300km if its speed is increased
by 5km/hr from its normal speed. The normal speed in kmph is
A.35 B.50 C.25 D.30
5. A good train and a passenger train are running on parallel tracks in the same
direction. The driver of the goods train observes that the passenger train coming from
behind overtakes and crosses his train completely in 60 sec. Whereas a passenger on
the passenger train marks that he crosses the goods train in 40 sec. If the speeds of the
trains be in the ratio 1:2. Find the ratio of their lengths
A.2:1 B.3:1 C.1:3 D.3:1
6. The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 m in circumference. Suresh and his wife
start from the same point and walk in opposite direction at 4.5 km/hr and 3.75 km/hr
respectively. They will meet for the first time in mins:
A.5.5 B.6 C.4.9 D.5.28
7. A train starts from Delhi at 6:00 am and reaches Ambala cantt. at 10am. The other
train starts from Ambala Cantt. at 8am and reached Delhi at 11:30 am, If the distance
between Delhi and Ambala Cantt is 200 km, then at what time did the two trains meet
each other?
A.8:46am B.8:40am C.8:56am D.8:50am
8. A car can cover 350km in 4 hrs.If the speed is decreased by 12.5 kmph, how much
time does the car take to cover a distance of 450km?

A.7hrs B.6hrs C.5hrs D.8hrs
9. A person leaves his house and travelling at 4kmph reaches his office 10 minutes late.
Had he travelled at 7 kmph he would have been 20 minutes early. Find the distance
from his house to the office in km.
A.14/3 B.13/3 C.11/3 D.10/3
10. A car covers a certain distance going at a speed of 60kmph and returns to the
starting point at a speed of 40kmph. Find the average speed of the whole journey in
kmhr
A.46 B.47 C.48 D. None of these
11. The circumference of the front wheel of a cart is 40 ft long and that of the back
wheel is 48 ft long. What is the distance travelled by the cart, when the front wheel has
done five more revolutions than the rear wheel?
A.950ft B.1250ft C.1350ft D.1200ft
12. A thief steals a car and drives it at 15 km/hr. The theft has been discovered after one
hour and the owner of the car sets off in another car at 25 km/hr. When will the owner
overtake the thief from the starting point?
A. 1hr B.1.5hr C.2hr D.2.5hr
13. A boatman rows to a place 45 km distant and back in 20 hour. He finds that he can
row 12 km with the stream in the same time as 4km against the stream. Find the speed
of the stream in kmph.
A.2 B.2.5 C.3 D.4
14. A hare, pursued by a grey-hound is 20 of her own leaps ahead of him. While the hare
takes 4 leaps, the grey-hound takes 3 leaps. 3 leaps of grey-hound is equal to 2 leaps of
hare. In how many leaps will the grey-hound overtake the hare?
A.90 B.180 C.270 D.360
15. Without stoppages the average speed of a train is 75 kmphr and with stoppages its
average speed is 60 kmphr. How many minutes does the train stopped in an hr?
A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 18
16. Two trains are travelling in the same direction at 50kmph and 30kmph respectively.
The faster train crosses a man in slower train in 18 secs. Find the length of the faster
train.
A.0.1km B.1km C.1.5km D.1.4
17. Two trains pass each other on parallel lines. Each train is 100 m long. When they are
going in the same direction, the faster one takes 60 secs to pass the other completely. If

they are going in the opp directions they pass each other completely in 10 seconds. Find
the speed of the slower train in kmphr
A.30 B.42 C.48 D.60
18. Two swimmers started simultaneously from the beach, one to the south and the
other to the east. Two hrs later, the distance between them turned out to be
100kms.Find the speed of the faster swimmer, knowing that the speed of one of them
was 75% of the speed of the other
A.40 B.30 C.29 D.60
19. Two trains start from the same point simultaneously and in the same direction. The
fast train travels at 40kmphr and the speed of the second train is 25% more than the
speed of the first train. 30 mins later, a third train starts from the same point and in the
same direction. It overtakes the second train 90 mins later than it overtakes the first
train. What is the speed of the third train?
A.20kmph B.40kmph C.60kmph D.80kmph
20. When an object is dropped, the number of feet N that it falls is given by the formula
N= gt2/2 where t is the time in seconds from the time it was dropped and g is 32.2. If it
takes 5 seconds for the object to reach the ground, how many feet does it fall during the
last 2 seconds?
A.64.4 B.96.6 C.161.6 D.257.6
21. P and Q walk from A to B, a distance of 27 km at 5 km/hr and 7 km/hr respectively. Q

reaches B and immediately turns back meeting P at T. What is the distance from A to T?
A.25km B.22.5km C.23.5km D.20.8km

Time & Work and Pipes & Cisterns

Terminologies and Formulas
If A can do a piece of work in n days, then A's 1 day work= 1/n
If A's 1 day's work= 1/n, then A can finish the work in n days.
Example: If A can do a piece of work in 4 days, then A's 1 day's work = 1/4. If A's 1 day's
work = 1/5, then A can finish the work in 5 days
If A is thrice as good workman as B, then: Ratio of work done by A and B = 3:1. Ratio of
time taken by A and B to finish a work = 1:3
Definition of Variation: The change in two different variables follow some definite rule.
It said that the two variables vary directly or inversely. Its notation is X/Y = k, where k is
called constant. This variation is called direct variation. XY = k. This variation is called
inverse variation.
Some Pairs of Variables:
• Number of workers and their wages. If the number of workers increases, their
total wages increase. If the number of days reduced, there will be less work. If the
number of days is increased, there will be more work. Therefore, here we have direct
proportion or direct variation.
• Number workers and days required to do a certain work is an example of inverse

variation. If more men are employed, they will require fewer days and if there are less
number of workers, more days are required.
• There is an inverse proportion between the daily hours of a work and the days
required. If the number of hours is increased, less number of days are required and if
the number of hours is reduced, more days are required.
Important Tips:
• More Men - Less Days and Conversely More Day - Less Men.
• More Men - More Work and Conversely More Work - More Men.
• More Days - More Work and Conversely More Work - More Days.
Number of days required to complete the given work = Total work/One day's work.
Since the total work is assumed to be one(unit), the number of days required to
complete the given work would be the reciprocal of one day's work. Sometimes, the

problems on time and work can be solved using the proportional rule
((man*days*hours)/work) in another situation.
If men are fixed, work is proportional to time. If work is fixed, then time is inversely
proportional to men therefore,
(M1*T1/W1) = (M2*T2/W2)

Solved Examples
Example:
Here 10 programmers, type 10 lines within 10 minutes then 60lines can type within 60
minutes. How many programmers are needed?
A. 16 B. 6 C. 10 D. 60
Solution:
10 programmers type 10 lines in 10 minutes.
This means each programmer types 1 line per 10 minutes.
60 lines in 60 minutes require 1 line per minute, which is 10 times the rate at which 1
programmer types.
So you still need 10 programmers
Example:
A work is done by two people in 24 min. one of them can do this work alone in 40 min.
how much time required to do the same work for the second person.
A. 54 mins B. 60 mins C. 64 mins D. 16 mins
Solution:
Let second person take x minutes for the same work.
so work done by him in 1 minute = 1/x
first person take 40 minutes for the same work.
so work done by him in 1 minute = 1/40
work done by both of them in 1 minute = 1/x + 1/40
work done by both of them in 1 minute = 1/24
1/x + 1/40 = 1/24
1/x = 1/24 – 1/40 ----------- LCM 120
1/x = 2/120 = 1/60

second person can do work in 60 days
Example
With 4/5 full tank vehicle travels 12 miles, with 1/3 full tank how much distance it
travels
A. 4 miles B. 5 miles C. 5.5 miles D. 6 miles
Solution:
4/5 of a tank is the same as 12/15 of a tank and 1/3 of a tank is the same as 5/15 of a
tank.
if 12/15 of a tank travels 12 miles, then 5/15 of a tank travels 5 miles
Example:
There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. While water fills at the
rate of 1 liter every hour in A, it gets filled up like, 10, 20, 40, 80, 160 in tank B. (At the
end of first hour, B has 10 liters, second hour it has 20 liters and so on). If tank B is 1/4
filled of the 10 hours, what is total duration of hours required to fill it completely?
A. 12 B. 25 C. 05 D. 27
Solution:
Here the tank B is considered.. Its capacity is doubling after each

hour(10,20,40,80,160,....).If it gets filled 1/32 after 21 hrs, then it will be
1/16 after 22 hrs and
1/8 after 23 hrs
1/4 after 24 hrs
1/2 after 25 hrs
and 1 after 26 hrs..
hence the total duration is 26 hrs
Example:
Here 10 programmers, type 10 lines within 10 minutes then 60lines can type within 60
minutes. How many programmers are needed?

A. 16 B. 6 C. 10 D. 60
Solution:
10 programmers type 10 lines in 10 minutes.
This means each programmer types 1 line per 10 minutes.
60 lines in 60 minutes requires 1 line per minute, which is 10 times the rate at which 1
programmer types.
So you still need 10 programmers
Example:
Two pipes A and B fill at A certain rate B is filled at 10, 20, 40, 80. If 1/4 of B if filled in 21
hours what time it will take to get completely filled
A. 22 B. 23 C. 24 D. 25
Solution:
1/16 in 17 hrs
so 1/8 in 18 hrs
1/4 in 19 hrs
1/2 in 20 hrs
and complete tank in 21 hrs
(because every hr quantity becomes double)
Example:
The IT giant Tirnop has recently crossed a head count of 150000 and earnings of S7
billion. As one of the forerunners in the technology front, Tirnop continues to lead the
way in products and services in India. At Tirnop: all programmers are equal in every
respect. They receive identical salaries ans also write code at the some rate. Suppose 20
such programmers take 20 minutes to write 20 lines of code in total. How long will it
take 5 programmers to write 5 lines of code in total?
A. 25 B. 20 C. 100 D. 5

Solution: B
Using the equation, (men*time)/work
20*20/20 = 5*x/5,
X = 20
Example:
The chairman of Tata Motors, Ratan Tata, had 300 engineers work for 5 years designing
the world's lowest-cost car, convinced that cost-conscious Indian drivers could live
without air-conditioning and cup holders. However, after the booking started they
found that only 23 percent of initial 253850 orders for the car - the Nano - were for the
no frills $2600 model. How much time (in days) would it have taken if there were 500
employees working for double the time?
A. 547.50 B. 3041.67 C. 1095.00 D. 450.00
Solution: A
300 engineers work for 5 years designing the world's lowest price car.
No of days required if there were 500 employees working for double the time =
365*(300*5*x)/(500*2x)= 547.5 days
Example:
Earl can stuff advertising circulars into envelops at the rate of 36 envelopes per minute
and Ellen requires a minute and a half to stuff the same number of envelopes. Working
together, how long will it take Earl and Ellen to stuff 360 envelopes?
A. 6 minutes B. 5 minutes C. 7 minutes D. 3 minutes
Solution: B
Earl can do in 1 min= 39
Ellen can do in 1 min= 39*2/3=26
Therefore, in 1 min both will stuff 39+26 =65 envelopes
Therefore, to stuff 325 they will take =325/65= 5 min
Example:

There are two water tanks A and B, A is much smaller than B. 'While water fills at the
rate of one litre every hour in A, it gets filled up like 10, 20, 40, 80, 160 .. in tank B. At
the end of first hour, B has 10 litres, second hour it has 20, and so on). If tank B is 1/16
filled after 11 hours, what is the total duration required to fill it completely'?
A. 4 hours B. 15 hours C. 14 hours D. 16 hours
Solution: B
Then, tank B is 1/16 filled after 11 hours
tank B is 1/8 filled after 12 hours
tank B is fully filled after 15 hours

Practice Exercise 1 – Solved
1) If 34 men completed 2/5th of a work in 8 days working 9 hours a day. How many
more man should be engaged to finish the rest of the work in 6 days working 9 hours a
day?
Solution: From the above formula i.e (m1*t1/w1) = (m2*t2/w2) so, (34*8*9/(2/5)) =
(x*6*9/(3/5))
so x = 136 men number of men to be added to finish the work = 136-34 = 102 men
2) If 5 women or 8 girls can do a work in 84 days. In how many days can 10 women and
5 girls can do the same work?
Solution: Given that 5 women is equal to 8 girls to complete a work so, 10 women = 16
girls.
Therefore 10women +5girls = 16girls+5girls = 21 girls. 8 girls can do a work in 84 days
then 21 girls ————— ?
Answer = (8*84/21) = 32 days. Therefore 10 women and 5 girls can a work in 32 days
3) Worker A takes 8 hours to do a job. Worker B takes 10hours to do the same job. How
long it take both A & B, working together but independently, to do the same job?
Solution: A's one hour work = 1/8. B's one hour work = 1/10
(A+B)'s one hour work = 1/8+1/10 = 9/40 Both A & B can finish the work in 40/9 days
4) A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in half the time taken by A.
Then, working together, what part of the same work they can finish in a day?
Solution: Given that B alone can complete the same work in days = half the time taken
by A = 9days
A's one day work = 1/18 B's one day work = 1/9
(A+B)'s one day work = 1/18+1/9 = 1/6
5) A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 18

days.In how many days will A alone finish the work.
Solution: if A takes x days to do a work then

B takes 2x days to do the same work
= > 1/x+1/2x = 1/18
= > 3/2x = 1/18
= > x = 27 days.
Hence, A alone can finish the work in 27 days.
6) A can do a certain work in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days
does B alone take to do the same job?
Solution: Ratio of time taken by A & B = 160:100 = 8:5
Suppose B alone takes x days to do the job.
Then, 8:5::12:x
= > 8x = 5*12
= > x = 15/2 days.
7) A can do a piece of work n 7 days of 9 hours each and B alone can do it in 6 days of 7
hours each. How long will they take to do it working together 8 2/5 hours a day?
Solution: A can complete the work in (7*9) = 63 days B can complete the work in (6*7) =
42 days
= > A's one hour's work = 1/63 and B's one hour work = 1/42
(A+B)'s one hour work = 1/63+1/42 = 5/126 Therefore, Both can finish the work in 126/5
hours.
Number of days of 8 2/5 hours each = (126*5/(5*42)) = 3 days
8) A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time to finish a piece of work.
Working together they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in ?
Solution: Suppose A,B and C take x,x/2 and x/3 hours respectively finish the work then
1/x+2/x+3/x = 1/2
= > 6/x = 1/2
= >x = 12

So, B takes 6 hours to finish the work.
9) X can do ¼ of a work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of
work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?
Solution: Whole work will be done by X in 10*4 = 40 days.
Whole work will be done by Y in (40*100/40) = 100 days.
Whole work will be done by Z in (13*3) = 39 days
Therefore, Z will complete the work first.

1) A and B undertake to do a piece of work for Rs 600. A alone can do it in 6 days while B
alone can do it in 8 days. With the help of C, they can finish it in 3 days, Find the share of
each?
Solution: C's one day's work = (1/3)-(1/6+1/8) = 1/24
Therefore, A:B:C = Ratio of their one day's work = 1/6:1/8:1/24 = 4:3:1
A's share = Rs (600*4/8) = 300
B's share = Rs (600*3/8) = 225
C's share = Rs[600-(300+225)] = Rs 75
2) A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days & then B alone finishes
the remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will A and B, working together, finish
the work?
Solution: Work done by A in 10 days = 10/80 = 1/8
Remaining work = (1-(1/8)) = 7/8
Now, work will be done by B in 42 days
Whole work will be done by B in (42*8/7) = 48 days Therefore, A's one day's work = 1/80
B's one day's work = 1/48
(A+B)'s one day's work = 1/80+1/48 = 8/240 = 1/30 Hence, both will finish the work in 30
days.
3) P,Q and R are three typists who working simultaneously can type 216 pages in 4
hours In one hour, R can type as many pages more than Q as Q can type more than P.
During a period of five hours, R can type as many pages as P can during seven hours.
How many pages does each of them type per hour?
Solution: Let the number of pages typed in one hour by P, Q and R be x,y and z
respectively. Then x+y+z = 216/4 = 54 ————— 1
z-y = y-x = > 2y = x+z ———–— 2
5z = 7x = > x = 5x/7 ————— 3

Solving 1, 2 and 3 we get x = 15,y = 18, and z = 21
4) Ronald and Elan are working on an assignment. Ronald takes 6 hours to type 32 pages
on a computer, while Elan takes 5 hours to type 40 pages. How much time will they
take, working together on two different computers to type an assignment of 110 pages?
Solution: Number of pages typed by Ronald in one hour = 32/6 = 16/3
Number of pages typed by Elan in one hour = 40/5 = 8
Number of pages typed by both in one hour = ((16/3)+8) = 40/3
Time taken by both to type 110 pages = 110*3/40 = 8 hours.
5) Two workers A and B are engaged to do a work. A working alone takes 8 hours more
to complete the job than if both working together. If B worked alone, he would need 4
1/2 hours more to compete the job than they both working together. What time would
they take to do the work together.
Solution: (1/(x+8))+(1/(x+(9/2))) = 1/x
= >(1/(x+8))+(2/(2x+9)) = 1/x
= > x(4x+25) = (x+8)(2x+9)
= > 2×2 = 72
= > x2 = 36
= >x=6
Therefore, A and B together can do the work in 6 days.
6) A and B can do a work inv12 days, B and C in 15 days, C and A in 20 days. If A,vB and C
work together, they will complete the work in how many days?
Solution: (A+B)'s one day's work = 1/12; (B+C)'s one day's work = 1/15; (A+C)'s one day's
work = 1/20;
Adding we get 2(A+B+C)'s one day's work = 1/12+1/15+1/20 = 12/60 = 1/5 (A+B+C)'s
one day work = 1/10
So, A, B and C together can complete the work in 10 days.

7) A and B can do a work in 8 days, B and C can do the same wor in 12 days. A,B and C
together can finish it in 6 days. A and C together will do it in how many days?
Solution: (A+B+C)'s one day's work = 1/6; (A+B)'s one day's work = 1/8;
(B+C)'s one day's work = 1/12;
(A+C)'s one day's work = 2(A+B+C)'s one day's work-((A+B)'s one day work+(B+C)'s one
day work)
= (2/6)-(1/8+1/12)
= (1/3)- (5/24)
= 3/24
= 1/8
So, A and C together will do the work in 8 days.
8) A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and
B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in how
many days?
Solution: (A+B)'s one day's work = 1/10; C's one day's work = 1/50
(A+B+C)'s one day's work = (1/10+1/50) = 6/50 = 3/25 Also, A's one day's work = (B+C)'s
one day's work From i and ii ,we get :2*(A's one day's work) = 3/25
= > A's one day's work = 3/50 B's one day's work = (1/10-3/50)
= 2/50
= 1/25
B alone could complete the work in 25 days.
9) A is thrice as good a workman as B and therefore is able to finish a job in 60 days less
than B. Working together, they can do it in:
Solution: Ratio of times taken by A and B = 1:3. If difference of time is 2 days , B takes 3
days
If difference of time is 60 days, B takes (3*60/2) = 90 days So, A takes 30 days to do the
work = 1/90

A's one day's work = 1/30; B's one day's work = 1/90;
(A+B)'s one day's work = 1/30+1/90 = 4/90 = 2/45 Therefore, A & B together can do the
work in 45/2days Top
10) A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then B alone
finishes the remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will A & B, working together,
finish the work?
Solution: Work Done by A n 10 days = 10/80 = 1/8 Remaining work = 1-1/8 = 7/8
Now 7/8 work is done by B in 42 days
Whole work will be done by B in 42*8/7 = 48 days = > A's one day's work = 1/80 and
B's one day's work = 1/48
(A+B)'s one day's work = 1/80+1/48 = 8/240 = 1/30 Hence both will finish the work in 30
days.
11) 45 men can complete a work in 16 days. Six days after they started working, so more
men joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the remaining work?
Solution: M1*D1/W1 = M2*D2/W2
= >45*6/(6/16) = 75*x/(1-(6/16))
= > x = 6 days
12) A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half the work done by A & B together. If C alone
does the work n 40 days, then A,B and C together can do the work in:
Solution: A's one day's work : B's one day’s work = 150:100 = 3:2
Let A's & B's one day's work be 3x and 2x days respectively.
Then C's one day's work = 5x/2
= > 5x/2 = 1/40
= > x = ((1/40)*(2/5)) = 1/100 A's one day's work = 3/100 B's one day's work = 1/50
C's one day's work = 1/40
So, A, B and C can do the work in 13 1/3 days.

13) A can finish a work in 18 days and B can do the same work in 15 days. B worked for
10 days and left the job. In how many days A alone can finish the remaining work?
Solution: B's 10 day's work = 10/15 = 2/3
Remaining work = (1-(2/3)) = 1/3
Now, 1/18 work is done by A in 1 day.
Therefore 1/3 work is done by A in 18*(1/3) = 6 days.
14) A can finish a work in 24 days, B n 9 days and C in 12 days. B & C start the work but
are forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work done by A in:
Solution: (B+C)'s one day's work = 1/9+1/12 = 7/36
Work done by B & C in 3 days = 3*7/36 = 7/12
Remaining work = 1-(7/12) = 5/12
Now, 1/24 work is done by A in 1 day.
So, 5/12 work is done by A in 24*5/12 = 10 days
15) X and Y can do a piece of work n 20 days and 12 days respectively. X started the
work alone and then after 4 days Y joined him till the completion of work. How long did
the work last?
Solution: work done by X in 4 days = 4/20 = 1/5 Remaining work = 1-1/5 = 4/5
(X+Y)'s one day's work = 1/20+1/12 = 8/60 = 2/15 Now, 2/15 work is done by X and Y in
one day.
So, 4/5 work will be done by X and Y in 15/2*4/5 = 6 days Hence Total time taken =
(6+4) days = 10 days
16) A does 4/5 of work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the
remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
Solution: Whole work is done by A in 20*5/4 = 25 days Now, (1-(4/5)) i.e 1/5 work is
done by A & B in days. Whole work will be done by A & B in 3*5 = 15 days
= >B's one day's work = 1/15-1/25 = 4/150 = 2/75 So, B alone would do the work in 75/2
= 37 ½ days.

17) A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days respectively. They began to
do the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining
work n 23 days. The number of days after which A left the work was
Solution: (A+B)'s one day's work = 1/45+1/40 = 17/360 Work done by B in 23 days =
23/40
Remaining work = 1-(23/40) = 17/40
Now, 17/360 work was done by (A+B) in 1 day.
17/40 work was done by (A+B) in (1*(360/17)*(17/40)) = 9 days So, A left after 9 days.
18) A can do a piece of work in 10 days, B in 15 days. They work for 5 days. The rest of
work finished by C in 2 days. If they get Rs 1500 for the whole work, the daily wages of B
and C are:
Solution: Part of work done by A = 5/10 = 1/2
Part of work done by B = 1/3
Part of work done by C = (1-(1/2+1/3)) = 1/6
A's share: B's share: C's share = 1/2:1/3:1/6 = 3:2:1
A's share = (3/6)*1500 = 750
B's share = (2/6)*1500 = 500
C's share = (1/6)*1500 = 250
A's daily wages = 750/5 = 150/-
B's daily wages = 500/5 = 100/-
C's daily wages = 250/2 = 125/-
Daily wages of B & C = 100+125 = 225/-
19) A alone can complete a work in 16 days and B alone can complete the same in 12
days. Starting with A, they work on alternate days. The total work will be completed in
how many days?
(a) 12 days (b) 13 days (c) 13 5/7 days (d)13 ¾ days

Solution: (A+B)'s 2 days work = 1/16 + 1/12 = 7/48 work done in 6 pairs of days = (7/48)
* 6 = 7/8 remaining work = 1- 7/8 = 1/8
work done by A on 13th day = 1/16 remaining work = 1/8 – 1/16 = 1/16 on 14th day, it is
B's turn 1/12 work is done by B in 1 day. 1/16 work is done by B in ¾ day. Total time
taken = 13 ¾ days.
So, Answer is: D
20) A,B and C can do a piece of work in 20,30 and 60 days respectively. In how many
days can A do the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
Solution: A's two day's work = 2/20 = 1/10
(A+B+C)'s one day's work = 1/20+1/30+1/60 = 6/60 = 1/10 Work done in 3 days =
(1/10+1/10) = 1/5
Now, 1/5 work is done in 3 days
Therefore, Whole work will be done in (3*5) = 15 days.
21) Seven men can complete a work in 12 days. They started the work and after 5 days,
two men left. In how many days will the work be completed by the remaining men?
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C ) 7 (D) 8 (E) none
Solution: 7*12 men complete the work in 1 day.
Therefore, 1 man's 1 day's work = 1/84 7 men's 5 days work = 5/12
= >remaining work = 1-5/12 = 7/12 5 men's 1 day's work = 5/84 5/84 work is don by
them in 1 day
7/12 work is done by them in ((84/5) * (7/12)) = 49/5 days = 9 4/5 days. Ans: E
22) 12 men complete a work in 9 days. After they have worked for 6 days, 6 more men
joined them. How many days will they take to complete the remaining work?
(a) 2 days (b) 3 days (c) 4 days (d) 5days
Solution: 1 man's 1 day work = 1/108 12 men's 6 days work = 6/9 = 2/3 remaining work
= 1 – 2/3 = 1/3
18 men's 1 days work = 18/108 = 1/6

1/6 work is done by them in 1 day
Therefore, 1/3 work is done by them in 6/3 = 2 days.
Ans : A
23) A man, a woman and a boy can complete a job in 3,4 and 12 days respectively. How
many boys must assist 1 man and 1 woman to complete the job in ¼ of a day?
(a). 1 (b). 4 (c). 19 (d). 41
Solution: (1 man + 1 woman)'s 1 days work = 1/3+1/4 = 7/12
Work done by 1 man and 1 women n 1/4 day = ((7/12)*(1/4)) = 7/48
Remaining work = 1- 7/48 = 41/48
Work done by 1 boy in ¼ day = ((1/12)*(1/4)) = 1/48
Therefore, Number of boys required = ((41/48)*48) = 41 days
So, Answer: D
24) 12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the
same work in 4 days. 6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days, all of
them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete the
remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days.
(A) 15 (B) 18 (C) 22 (D) data inadequate
Solution: one man's one day's work = 1/48 one woman's one day's work = 1/60
6 men's 2 day's work = ((6/48)*2) = ¼ Remaining work = 3/4
Now, 1/60 work s done in 1 day by 1 woman.
So, ¾ work will be done in 3 days by (60*(3/4)*(1/3)) = 15 woman. So, Answer: A
25) Twelve children take sixteen days to complete a work which can be completed by 8
adults in 12 days. Sixteen adults left and four children joined them. How many days will
they take to complete the remaining work?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Solution: one child's one day work = 1/192; one adult's one day's work = 1/96;

work done in 3 days = ((1/96)*16*3) = 1/2 Remaining work = 1 – ½ = 1/2
(6 adults+ 4 children)'s 1 day's work = 6/96+4/192 = 1/12
1/12 work is done by them in 1 day.
½ work is done by them 12*(1/2) = 6 days So, Answer = C
26) Sixteen men can complete a work in twelve days. Twenty four children can complete
the same work in 18 days. 12 men and 8 children started working and after eight days
three more children joined them. How many days will they now take to complete the
remaining work?
(A) 2 days (B) 4 days ( C) 6 days (D) 8 days
Solution: one man's one day's work = 1/192 one child's one day's work = 1/432
Work done in 8 days = 8*(12/192+ 8/432) = 8*(1/16+1/54) = 35/54 Remaining work = 1 -

35/54 =19/54
(12 men+11 children)'s 1 day's work = 12/192 + 11/432 = 19/216 Now, 19/216 work is
done by them in 1 day.
Therefore, 19/54 work will be done by them in ((216/19)*(19/54)) = 4 days
So, Answer: B
27) Twenty-four men can complete a work in 16 days. Thirty- two women can complete
the same work in twenty-four days. Sixteen men and sixteen women started working
and worked for 12 days. How many more men are to be added to complete the
remaining work in 2 days?
(A) 16 men (B) 24 men ( C) 36 men (D) 48 men
Solution: one man's one day's work = 1/384 one woman's one day's work = 1/768
Work done in 12 days = 12*(16/384 + 16/768) = 12*(3/48) = 3/4 Remaining work = 1 – ¾

= 1/4
(16 men+16 women)'s two day's work = 12*(16/384+16/768) = 2/16 = 1/8 Remaining
work = 1/4-1/8 = 1/8
1/384 work is done n 1 day by 1 man.
Therefore, 1/8 work will be done in 2 days in 384*(1/8)*(1/2) = 24men

28) 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days, while 3 men and 7 women can
complete it in 10 days. In how many days will 10 women complete it?
(A) 35 days (B) 40 days ( C) 45 days (D) 50 days
Solution: Let 1 man's 1 day's work = x days and 1 woman's 1 day's work = y
Then, 4x+6y = 1/8 and 3x+7y = 1/10.
Solving these two equations, we get: x = 11/400 and y = 1/400 Therefore, 1 woman's 1
day's work = 1/400
= > 10 women will complete the work in 40 days. Answer: B
29) One man, 3 women and 4 boys can do a piece of work in 96 hours, 2 men and 8 boys
can do it in 80 hours, 2 men & 3 women can do it in 120 hours. 5 Men & 12 boys can do
it in how many hours?
(A) 39 1/11 hrs (B) 42 7/11 hrs ( C) 43 7/11 days (D) 44hrs
Solution: Let 1 man's 1 hour's work = x 1 woman's 1 hour's work = y
1 boy's 1 hour's work = z Then, x+3y+4z = 1/96 ———– (1)
2x+8z = 1/80 ———- (2)
Adding (2) & (3) and subtracting (1) 3x+4z = 1/96 ———(4)
From (2) and (4), we get x = 1/480 Substituting, we get: y = 1/720 and z = 1/960
(5 men+ 12 boy)'s 1 hour's work = 5/480+12/960 = 1/96 + 1/80 = 11/480 Therefore, 5

men and 12 boys can do the work in 480/11 or 43 7/11hours. So, Answer: C

Practice Exercise 3 (with Answer Key)
Time and Work
1. A alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and B alone in 8 days. A and B undertook to
do it for Rs. 3200. With the help of C, they completed the work in 3 days. How much is
to be paid to C?
A. Rs.375 B.Rs. 400 C. Rs.600 D.Rs. 800
2.A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and
C together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone take to do it?
A.8 hours B.10 hours C.12 hours D.24 hours
3. A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and
B together could do it in 10 days and C alone in 50 days, then B alone could do it in:
A. 15 days B. 20 days C. 25 days D. 30 days
4.A does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the
remaining work in 3 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
A. 23 days B. 37 days C. 37.5 days D. 40 days
5. A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same
number of books in 10 hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the
machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining
two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will the work (to print one
lakh books) be finished ?
A. 11:30 AM B.12 Noon C.12.30 PM D.1:00 PM
6. A is 30% more efficient than B. How much time will they, working together, take to
complete a job which A alone could have done in 23 days?
A. 11 days B.13 days C.20 3/17 days D. None of

these.
7. A, B and C can complete a piece of work in 24, 6 and 12 days respectively. Working
together, they will complete the same work in:
A.1/24 day B.7/24 day C.3 3/7 days D.4 day

8. A takes twice as much time as B or thrice as much time as C to finish a piece of work.
Working together, they can finish the work in 2 days. B can do the work alone in:
A. 4 days B. 6 days C. 8 days D. 12

days
9. A and B can complete a work in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They started doing
the work together but after 2 days B had to leave and A alone completed the remaining
work. The whole work was completed in:
A.8 days B.10 days C.12 days D. 15 days
10.A and B can do a piece of work in 30 days, while B and C can do the same work in 24
days and C and A in 20 days. They all work together for 10 days when B and C leave.
How many days more will A take to finish the work?
A. 18 days B.24 days C.30 days D. 36 days
11. Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same
work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?
A. 3:4 B. 4:3 C. 5:3 D.

Data Inadequate
12.A can finish a work in 24 days, B in 9 days and C in 12 days. B and C start the work but
are forced to leave after 3 days. The remaining work was done by A in:
A. 5 days B. 6 days C. 10 days D. 10

½ days
13. X can do a piece of work in 40 days. He works at it for 8 days and then Y finished it in
16 days. How long will they together take to complete the work?
A. 13 1/3 days B. 15 days C. 20 days D. 26

days
14. A and B can do a job together in 7 days. A is 1 times as efficient as B. The same job
can be done by A alone in :
A. 9 1/3 days B. 11 days C. 12 ¼ days D. 16 1/3 days
15. A and B together can do a piece of work in 30 days. A having worked for 16 days, B
finishes the remaining work alone in 44 days. In how many days shall B finish the whole
work alone?

A. 30 days B. 40 days C. 60 days D. 70 days
Pipe and Cisterns
16. Three pipes A, B and C can fill a tank from empty to full in 30 minutes, 20 minutes,
and 10 minutes respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A,
B and C discharge chemical solutions P,Q and R respectively. What is the proportion of
the solution R in the liquid in the tank after 3 minutes?
A. 5/11 B.6/11 C.7/11 D. 8/11
17. Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 5 and 6 hours respectively. Pipe C can empty it in 12
hours. If all the three pipes are opened together, then the tank will be filled in:
A.113/7 hours B.28/11 hours C. 3 9/17 hours D. 4 ½ hours
18. A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2 hours to fill
the tank. The leak can drain all the water of the tank in:
A. 4 1/3 hours B. 7 hours C. 8 hours D. 14 hours
19. Two pipes A and B can fill a cistern in 37 minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both
pipes are opened. The cistern will be filled in just half an hour, if the B is turned off after:
A. 5 min. B. 9 min. C. 10 min D. 15
min.
20. A tank is filled by three pipes with uniform flow. The first two pipes operating
simultaneously fill the tank in the same time during which the tank is filled by the third
pipe alone. The second pipe fills the tank 5 hours faster than the first pipe and 4 hours
slower than the third pipe. The time required by the first pipe is:
A. 6 hours B. 10 hours C. 15 hours D. 30

hours
21. Two pipes can fill a tank in 20 and 24 minutes respectively and a waste pipe can
empty 3 gallons per minute. All the three pipes working together can fill the tank in 15
minutes. The capacity of the tank is:
A. 60 gallons B. 100 gallons C. 120 gallons D. 180 gallons
22. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B
and B is twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone take to fill the tank?

A. 20 hours B. 25 hours C. 35 hours D.Can not be
determined
23. A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 min respectively. If both the pipes are used
together. how long will it take to fill the tanks?
24. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the
pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes, pipe A is turned off. What is the total
time required to fill the tank?
A. 10 min 20 sec B. 11 min. 45 sec C. 12 min 30 sec D. 14 min 40 sec
25. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together the two pipes
can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
26. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is
used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A. 15 min B. 20 min C. 27.5 min D. 30

min
27. A tap can fill a tank in 6 hours. After half the tank is filled, three more similar taps
are opened. What is the total time taken to fill the tank completely?
A. 3 hrs 15 min B. 3 hrs 45 ,min C. 4 hrs D. 4 hrs 15 min
28. Three taps A, B and C can fill a tank in 12, 15 and 20 hours respectively. If A is open
all the time and B and C are open for one hour each alternately, the tank will be full in:
A. 6 hrs B. 6 2/3 hrs C. 7 hrs D. 7 ½ hrs
1.B 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.A
11.B 12.C 13.A 14.B 15.C 16. B 17.. C 18. B 19. D 20. B
21.C 22.C 23.A 24.D 25.C 26.D 27.B 28.C

Practice Exercise 4 (with Answer Key)
1. A and B together can do a piece of work in 12 days, which B and C together can do in
16 days.After A has been working at it for 5 days and B for 7 days, C finishes it in 13
days.In how many days C alone will do the work?
A.16 B.24 C.36 D.48
2. A and B can do a piece of work in 45 days and 40 days repectively.They began to do

the work together but A leaves after some days and then B completed the remaining
work in 23 days.The number of days after which A left the work was?
A.6 B.8 C.9 D.12
3.A, B and C can complete a work separately in 24 , 36 and 48 days respectively.They

started together but C left after 4 days of start and A left 3 days before the completion
of the work.In how many days will the work completed?
A.15 B.22 C.25 D.35
4.A and B together can complete a work in 12 days.A alone can complete it in 20days.If
B does the work only for half a day daily, then in how many days A and B together will
complete the work?
A.10 B.11 C.15 D.20
5.A alone can complete a work in 16 days and B alone in 12 days. Starting with A , they
work on alternate days. The total work will be completed in ?
A.12 B.13 C.13(5/7) D.13(3/4)
6.A and B can separately do a piece of work in 20 and 15 days respectively. They worked
together for 6 days, after which B was replaced by C.If the work was finished in next 4
days, then the number of days in which C alone could do the work will be?
A.30 B.35 C.40 D.60
7.Twenty women can do a work in 16 days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in
15 days.What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?
A.3:4 B.4:3 C.5:3 D.data inadequate

8.Three men, four women and six children can complete a work in 7 days.A woman does
double the work a man does and a child does half the work a man does.How many
woman alone can complete this work in 7 days?
A.7 B.8 C.12 D.cannot be determined
9.A man, a woman and a boy can complete a job in 3,4 and 12 days respectively.How
many boys must assist 1 man and 1 woman to complete the job in ¼ of a day?
A.1 B.4 C.19 D.41
10.12 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days, while 15 women can complete the
same work in 4 days.6 men start working on the job and after working for 2 days , all of
them stopped working. How many women should be put on the job to complete the
remaining work, if it is to be completed in 3 days ?
A.15 B.18 C.22 D.data inadequate
11.Two taps A and B can fill a tank in 5 hours and 20 hours respectively.If both the taps
are open then due to a leakage, it took 30 minutes more to fill the tank.If the tank is full,
how long will it take for the leakage alone to empty the tank ?
A.5hrs B.9hrs C.18hrs D.36hrs
12.12 buckets of water fill a tank when the capacity of each tank is 13.5 ltrs.How many
buckets will be needed to fill the same tank, if the capacity of each bucket is 9ltrs ?
A.8 B.15 C.16 D.18
13.Bucket P has thrice the capacity as bucket Q.It takes 60 turns for bucket P to fill the
empty drum.How many turns it will take for both the buckets P and Q, having each turn
together to fill the empty drum ?
A.30 B.40 C.45 D.90
14. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is
used for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
A.15min B.20min C.27.5min D.30min
15. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 4 hours respectively. If they are
opened on alternate hours and if pipe A is opened first, in how many hours, the tank
shall be full?

A.4 B.9/2 C.5 D.11/2
16.A booster pump can be used for filling as well as for emptying the tank. The capacity
of the tank is 2400 cubic m.The emptying capacity of the tank is 10 cubic m per minute
higher than its filling capacity and the pump needs 8 minutes lesser to empty the tank
than it needs to fill it.What is the filling capacity of the pump ?
A.50m^3/min B.60m^3/minC.72m^3/minD.none of these
17.A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 8 hrs. An inlet pipe fills
water at the rate of 6 ltrs a minute.When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and due to
the leak, the tank is empty in 12 hrs.How many litres does the cistern hold ?
A.7580 B.7960 C.8290 D.8640
18.Three pipes A , B and C can fill a tank in 6 hrs. After working at it together for 2 hrs, C
is closed and A and B can fill the remaining part in 7 hrs. The number of hours taken by C
alone to fill the tank is ?
A.10 B.12 C.14 D.16
19 .The radius of cylindrical cistern is 10m and its height is 15m.Initially the cistern is
empty.We start filling the cistern with water through a pipe whose diameter is
50cm.Water is coming out of the pipe with a velocity of 5m/s. How many min will it take
in filling the cistern with water?
A.20 B.70 C.60 D.80
20.A team of workers was employed by a contractor who undertook to finish 360 pieces
of an article in a certain number of days. Making four more pieces per day than was
planned, they could complete the job a day ahead of schedule. How many days did they
take to complete the job ?
A.10days B.8days C.9days D.12days
1.B 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.A
11.D 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.C 16.A 17.D 18.C 19.D 20.A

Clocks

Important Formula and Equations
Minute Spaces: The face or dial of watch is a circle whose circumference is divided into
60 equal parts, called minute spaces.
Hour Hand and Minute Hand: A clock has two hands; the smaller one is called the hour
hand or short hand while the larger one is called minute hand or long hand.
In 60 minutes, the minute hand gains 55 minutes on the hour on the hour hand.
The hands are in the same straight line when they are coincident or opposite to each
other.
When the two hands are at right angles, they are 15 minute spaces apart.
When the hands are in opposite directions, they are 30 minute spaces apart.
Angle traced by hour hand in 12 hrs = 360°
Angle traced by minute hand in 60 min. = 360°
The hands of the clock are perpendicular in 15 minute spaces apart
The dial of the clock is circular in shape and was divided into 60 equal minute spaces
60 minute spaces traces an angle of 360°. Therefore, 1 minute space traverses an angle
of 60°
In 1 hour, minute hand traverses 60 minute space or 360°, hour hand traverses 5 minute
space or 30°
The hands of the clock are in straight line when they coincide or opposite to each other.
The hands of the clock are perpendicular to each other for 22 times in 12 hours and for
44 times in a day.
The hands of the clock are opposite to each other for 11 times in 12 hours and 22 times
in a day.
If a watch or a clock indicates 8.15, when the correct time is 8, it is said to be 15 minutes
too fast.
On the other hand, if it indicates 7.45, when the correct time is 8, it is said to be 15
minutes too slow.

The hands of the clock coincides with each other for 11 times in 12 hours and 22 times
per day
The hands of the clock are 44 times in a straight line per day
Hence x minute space to be gained by minute hand over hour hand can be calculated as
x.(60/55) or x.(12/11)
Example:
At what time between 2'O clock and 3'O clock the hands of the clock are opposite to
each other.
A. 34( 6/11 ) past 2'Oclock B. 43( 7/11 ) past 2'Oclock
C. 56( 8/11 ) past 2'Oclock D. 64(9/11past 2'Oclock
Solution:
At 2'O clock the minute hand will be at 12
• The minutes hand to coincide with the hour hand it should trace at first 10
minute spaces and then the hands of the clocks to be opposite to each other
minute hand should trace 30 minute spaces i.e. totally it should gain 10+30=40
minute spaces to be opposite to that of hour hand
We know that,
Minute hand gains 55 minute spaces over hour hand in 1 hour
Therefore, Minute hand gain 40 minute spaces over hour hand in 40 × (60/55) =
43(7/11) Hence the hand of the clock will minutes be opposite to each at 43( 7/11 ) past
2'O clock Therefore, Correct option is B
When clock is too fast, too slow
If a clock or watch indicates 6 hr 10 min when the correct time is 6, it is said that the
clock is 10 min too fast
If it indicates 6. 40 when the correct time is 7, it is said to be 20 min too slow.
Example:

My watch, which gains uniformly, is 2 min slow at noon on Sunday, and is 4 min 48
seconds fast at 2 p.m on the following Sunday when was it correct ?
Solution:
From Sunday noon to the following Sunday at 2 p.m there are 7 days 2 hours or 170
hours. The watch gains (2+4) 4/5 min in 170 hrs.
Therefore, the watch gains 2 min in 2 *170 hrs i.e., 50 hours 6 4/5
Consequently in every 4th year there are 366 days.
Now 50 hours = 2 days 2 hrs
Therefore, 2 days 2 hours from Sunday noon = 2 p.m on Tuesday.
Example:
What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when the time shown by the clock
is 6.30 p.m.?
A. 0 B. 50 C. 30 D. 150
Solution: D
q= 11/2 m – 30h
= 11/2 *30 - 30 *6
= 165-180 = 150
Example:
At what time between 3 and 4 o’clock will the minute hand and the hour hand are on
the same straight line but facing opposite directions.
A. 3:49 B. 3:15 C. 3:39 1/11 D. 3:49 1/11
Solution: D
On straight line means 180 degree angle. 180 = 11/2m- 30h
180 = 11/2 m –30*3
180 = 11/2m-90
(180+90)2 = 11m .

m = 540/11 = 49 1/11
Example:
By how many degrees does the minute hand move in the same time, in which the hour
hand move by 28°?
A.168 B. 336 C. 196 D. 376
Solution: B
28*2 *6 = 3360
Example:
At what time, between 3 o’clock and 4 o’clock, both the hour hand and minute hand
coincide each other?
A. 3:30 B. 3:16 4/11 C. 3:1611/4 D. 3:16 7/11
Solution: B
Coincide means 0° angle. 0 = 11/2m –30*3
11m = 90*2 = 180
m= 180/11 = 16 4/11 so time = 3: 16 4/11
Example:
How many degrees will the minute hand move, in the same time in which the second
hand moves 480°?
A. 60 B. 90 C. 40 D. 80
Solution: D
Minute hand covers 480/60= 80

1. A watch which gains uniformly, is 2 min slow at noon on Monday, and in 4 min, 48 s
fast at 2pm on the following Monday. What time it was correct:
A. 2 pm on Tuesday B. 2pm on Wednesday C. 3pm on Thursday D. 1pm

on Friday
Answer: b
2. Find at what time between 8 and 9 0’clock will the hands of a clock be in the same
straight line but not together?
A. 10 10/11 past 8 B. 50 10/11 past 8 C. 10 12/11min past 8 D. 10min past

8
Answer: a
3. A clock is set right at 8am. The clock gains 10min in 24 h. What will be the right time
when the clock indicates 1 pm on the following day?
a. 11.40 pm b. 12.48 pm c. 12 pm d. 10 pm
Answer: b
4. At what time between 4 and 5 o’clock will the hands of a clock be at right angle?
a. 30 min past 4 b. 16 ¾ min past 4 c. 38 2/11 min past 4 d.

33min past 4
Answer: c
5. How many times do the hands of a clock point towards each other in a day?
a. 24 b. 20 c. 12 d. 22
Answer: d
6. A clock gaining 2 min every hour was synchronized at midnight with a clock losing 1
min every hour. How many minutes the clock (losing time) will be behind at eleven in
the following morning?
a. 23 b. 27 c. 22 d. None of these
Answer: d

7. How many degrees will the minute hand move, in the same time in which the second
hand moves 480°?
A. 60 B. 90 C. 40 D. 80
Answer: d
Explanation: Minute hand covers 480/60= 80
8. Dinesh started answering a test at a time between 3 pm and 4 pm. He noted the
position of the hands of his watch. He ended the test at a time between 4 pm and 5 pm.
The positions of the hands were interchanged. For how many hours did the test last?
A. 13/14 B. 12/13 C. 9/10 D. 10/11 E. 11/12
Explanation: Let initial angular difference between two hands be x degrees.
Now, at the end of test, hour hand will move x degrees.
And minute hand will move (360-x) degrees. Both will do this journey in same time.
We know that minute hand is 12 times faster than hour hand.
So, 12*x = (360-x)
So, x=360/13
So, hour hand travels 360/13 degrees.
We know, in 1hour hour hand travels 30 degrees.
So, to travel 360/13, it will take 12/13 hours.
9. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon
of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o'clock, the true time is:
A. 59 7/12 min. past 3 B. 4 p.m. C. 58 7/11 min. past 3
D. 2 ¾ min. past 4
Answer: Option B
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. = 9 hrs 15 min. = 37/4 hrs.
3 min. 5 sec. of this clock = 3 min. of the correct clock.
37/720 hrs of this clock = 1/20 hrs of the correct clock.

37/4 hrs of this clock = 1/20 x 720/37 x 37/4 hrs of the correct clock = 9 hrs of the
correct clock.
The correct time is 9 hrs after 7 a.m. i.e., 4 p.m.
10. How much does a watch lose per day, if its hands coincide every 64 minutes?
A. 32 8/11 min. B. 36 5/11 min. C. 90 min. D. 96 min.
Answer: Option A
55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.
60 min. spaces are covered in 60/55 x 60 min. = 65 5/11 min.
Loss in 64 min. = 65 5/11 - 64 = 16/11 min.
Loss in 24 hrs = (16/11 x 1/64 x 24 x 60) min. = 32 8/11 min.
11. If there is a planet Oz in which there is 36 hrs in a day & 90 minutes in an hr and 60
seconds in 1 minute it is having same pattern as our watch. Then what will be angle
between hour hand and minute hand at 9:40?
a) 29 b) 12 c) 67 d) 98
Solution:
36 hours a day means the clock will be of 18 hours.
18 hours covers 360 deg
Thus, 1 hour covers 20 deg
9 hours covers 9*20=180 deg
now,1 hour in 90 min
thus, in 90min the hour hand goes 20deg
so, for 1min hr hand goes 2/9deg
for 40 min hour hand goes (2/9)*40deg=80/9deg=9deg(approx)
thus hour hand covers total of 180+9=189deg

now min hand covers=40*4=160deg
(because, 90min=360deg
1min=4deg)
so angle between hour hand & min hand is 189-160=29deg
ans:29
12. In planet OZ planet there are 8 days, Sunday to Saturday and 8th day is Oz day.
There is 36 hours in a day. What is angle between 12.40?
(a) 80 (b) 81 (c) 87 (d)89
Solution: Total angle made by hr hand=240+(4/9)*20 =nearly 240+9=249
and total angle made by min hand= 40*(360/90)=160
hence ans=249-160=89
13. A clock loses 1% time during the first week and then gains 2% time during the next
one week. If the clock was set right at 12 noon on a Sunday, what will be the time that
the clock will show exactly 14 days from the time it was set right?
A. 1: 36: 48 B. 1: 40: 48 C. 1: 41: 24 D. 10: 19: 12
Correct choice (2). Correct Answer - 1: 40: 48
The clock loses 1% time during the first week.
In a day there are 24 hours and in a week there are 7 days. Therefore, there are 7 * 24 =
168 hours in a week.
If the clock loses 1% time during the first week, then it will show a time which is 1% of
168 hours less than 12 Noon at the end of the first week = 1.68 hours less.
Subsequently, the clock gains 2% during the next week. The second week has 168 hours
and the clock gains 2% time = 2% of 168 hours = 3.36 hours more than the actual time.
As it lost 1.68 hours during the first week and then gained 3.36 hours during the next
week, the net result will be a -1.68 + 3.36 = 1.68 hour net gain in time.
So the clock will show a time which is 1.68 hours more than 12 Noon two weeks from
the time it was set right.

1.68 hours = 1 hour and 40.8 minutes = 1 hour + 40 minutes + 48 seconds.
i.e. 1 : 40 : 48 P.M.

1. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock com when the time shown by the
clock is 5.30 p.m.?
Solution:
q= 11/2 m – 30h
= 11/2 *30 - 30 *5
= 165-150 = 150
2. By how many degrees does the minute hand move in the same time, in which the
hour hand move by 18 degree ?
A.168 degree B. 216 degree C. 196 degree D. 276 degree
Explanation: 18*2 *6 = 216 degree
3. A watch, which loses time uniformly, was observed to be 5 minutes fast at 8.00 p.m.
on Thursday. It was noticed to be 7 minutes slow at 8.00 a.m. on the subsequent
Monday. When did the watch show the correct time ?
A. 7 a.m. Saturday B. 7 a.m. on Friday C. 10a.m. on Sunday D. 11 a.m. on Friday
= The number of hours from 8:00 p.m. on Thursday to 8:00 a.m. on Monday = 84 hours.
In 84 hours, the clock gained 12 minutes.
4. In the time in which the second hand covers 3960 degrees, how many degrees does
the hour hand move?
A. 11 B. 5.5 C. 3/4 D. 55
= 3960/(360*2) = 5.50 .com
5. By how many degrees does the hour hand lag behind the minute hand in a span of
42 minutes, if initially they are at the same position?
A. 2330 B. 211 degree C. 231 degree D.

None of these
=42*6-(42/2) = 252 -21 = 231 degree

6. What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of the clock at 4
hours and 30 min?
A. 15ᵒ B. 30ᵒ C. 45ᵒ D. 60ᵒ
Option c
7. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock at 2 hours and 35 min?
A. 122½ᵒ B. 142½ᵒ C. 132½ᵒ D. 116½ᵒ
Option c
8. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 20 minutes past 7?
A. 80ᵒ B.90ᵒ C.100ᵒ D.120ᵒ
Option c
9. At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined at 4 hours 20 min ?
A.5ᵒ B.10ᵒ C.20ᵒ D.25ᵒ
Option b
10. The time is 4:30, if the minute hand points towards the south, the hour hand will
point towards?
A. South-East B. East C. West D. North-West
Option a
11. What time does the clock show when the hour hand is between 3 and 4 and the
angle between the two hands is 50ᵒ?
A.93/11 min past 3 B.280/11 min past 3 C.270/11 min past 3
D. Both a and b
Option b
12. A watch which gains uniformly was observed to be 4 min slow at 6 am on Monday.
On subsequent Thursday at 7 pm, it was noticed that the watch was 6 min fast. When
did the watch show the correct time?

A.5 pm Tuesday B.4 pm Tuesday C.6 pm Tuesday D.3 pm
Tuesday
Option b
13. A clock is set to show the correct time at 8 am. The clock gains 10 min in a day. What
will be the approx time when the watch indicates 4 pm the next day?
A.3 hours 36 min B.3 hours 47 min C.3 hours 50 min D. 3 hours 54
min
Option b
14. How many degrees does an hour hand moves in 10 min?
A.10 B.20 C.15 D.5
Option d
15. How many degrees does the minute hand move in the same time in which the
second hand moves 300ᵒ?
A.6ᵒ B.5ᵒ C.4ᵒ D.10ᵒ
Option b
16. If the time in a clock is 7 hours 15 min then what time does it show in the mirror?
A.4 hours 50 min B.4 hours 40 min C.4 hours 35 min D.4 hours 45 min
Option d
17. There are two clocks on a wall both set to show the correct time at 8 am. One clock
loses two minutes in an hour while the other gains one min in an hour. By how many
minutes does the two clocks differ at 12 noon on the same day.
A.6 min B.9 min C.12 min D.15 min
Option c
18. The time observed by a boy on a mirror is 4 hours 20 min. What is the actual time
shown on the clock?
A.7 hours 15 min B.7 hours 50 min C.7 hours 40 min D.7 hours 35 min
Option c

19. A clock is set to show the correct time at 10 am. The clock uniformly loses 12 min in
a day. What will be the actual time when the clock shows 5 pm on the next day?
A.4:25pm B.4:45pm C.5:15pm D.4:50pm
Option c

Calendar

Odd Days: We are supposed to find the day of the week on a given date. For this, we
use the concept of 'odd days'. In a given period, the number of days more than the
complete weeks are called odd days.
Leap Year:
1. Every year divisible by 4 is a leap year, if it is not a century.

2. Every 4th century is a leap year and no other century is a leap year.
Ordinary Year: The year which is not a leap year is called an ordinary years. An ordinary
year has 365 days.
Counting of Odd Days: 1 ordinary year = 365 days = (52 weeks + 1 day). 1 ordinary year
has 1 odd day.
1 leap year = 366 days = (52 weeks + 2 days)
1 leap year has 2 odd days.
100 years = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years
= (76 x 1 + 24 x 2) odd days = 124 odd days.
= (17 weeks + days) = 5 odd days.
Number of odd days in 100 years = 5
Number of odd days in 200 years = (5 x 2) = 3 odd days.
Number of odd days in 300 years = (5 x 3) = 1 odd day.
Number of odd days in 400 years = (5 x 4 + 1) = 0 odd day.
Similarly, each one of 800 years, 1200 years, 1600 years, 2000 years etc. has 0 odd days.
Day of the Week Related to Odd Days (Assuming that 1AD January 1st is a Sunday):
No.
of 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
days:
Day: Sun. Mon. Tues. Wed. Thurs. Fri. Sat.

Earth Concept:
The time in which the earth travels round the sun is a solar year and is equal to 365 days
5 hrs. 48 minutes and 47 1/2 seconds
Year is 365.2422 days approximately.
The common year consists of 365 days.
The difference between a common year and a solar year is therefore 0.2422 of a day
and we consider it by adding a whole day to every fourth year.
If therefore, we add a whole day to every 4th year, too much by 0.0312 of a day. To take
account of this, we omit the extra day three times every 400 years,
The years which have the extra day are called leap years. The day is inserted at the end
of February, The difference between 4 common years and 4 solar years is 0.969 of a day.
The Gregorian mode of reckoning is called the New Style, the former, the Old Style.
The thing is to ensure that each season may fall at the same time of the year in all years.
In course of time, without these corrections, we should have winter in July and summer
in January also.
With the very small variation, the present divisions of the year are those given in B.C 46
by Julius Caesar. The omission of the extra day three times in 400 years is called the
Gregorian correction. This correction was adopted at once in 1582 in Roman Catholic
Countries but not in England until, 1752.
The New Style has not yet been adopted in Russia, so that they are now 13 days behind
us as an Example What we call Oct. 26th they call 13th Oct . They have Christmas day on
7th of January and we have on 25th December every year.
In an ordinary year there are 365 days i.e., 52 weeks + 1 day
Therefore an ordinary year contains 1 odd day.
A leap year contains 2 odd days.
100 year = 76 ordinary years + 24 leap years.
= 76 odd days + 48 odd days
= 124 odd days = 17 weeks + 5 days (in the consideration of weeks)

Therefore, 100 years contain 5 odd days.
200 years contains 3 odd days
300 years contain 1 odd days
Since there are 5 odd days in 100 years, there will be 20 days in 400 years. But every 4th
century is a leap year.
Therefore, 400 years contain 21 days. Here 400 years contain no odd days.
As First January 1 AD was Monday. We must count days from Sunday
i.e. Sunday for 0 odd days , Monday for 1 odd day , Tuesday for 2 odd days and so on.
Last day of a century cannot be either Tuesday. Thursday or Saturday.
The first day of a century must either be Monday. Tuesday, Thursday or Saturday.

Solved Examples
Example:
How many times does the 29th day of the month occur in 400 consecutive years?
A. 97 times B. 4400 times C. 4497 times D. None
Sol: In 400 consecutive years there are 97 leap years Hence in 400 consecutive years,
February has the 29th day 97 times, and the remaining 11 months have the 29th day
400 x 11 or 4400 times.
Therefore, 29th day of the month occurs (4400 + 97) orcom4497 times
Example:
Given that on 10th November 1981 is Tuesday, what was the day on 10th November
1581
A. Monday B. Thursday C. Sunday D. Tuesday
Sol: After every 400 years, the same day comes.
Thus if 10th November 1981 was Tuesday, before 400 years i.e on 10th November 1581,
it has to be Tuesday.
Example:
How many years have 29 days in February from 2001 to 2100.
A.26 B. 25 C. 23 D. 24
Solution: D
7. 2012, January 1st is Sunday, then which day is the Indian Independence day of the
same year.
A. Saturday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Friday
Ans: Option b
Explanation: 30+ 29+ 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31+15 = 227/7 = reminder = 3
So Independence day is Wednesday
8. Which year has the same calendar as 1700 ?

A. 1705 B. 1706 C. 1707 D. 1708
Ans: Option b
Explanation:
Year : 1700 1701 1702 1703 1704 1705
Odd days : 1 1 1 1 2 1
9. If Arun’s birthday is on May 25 which is Monday and his sister’s birthday is on July 13.
Which day of the week is his sister’s birthday?
A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Thursday D. Friday
Ans: option a
Days from May 25th to July 13 = 6 + 30 +13 = 49
No of odd days : 49/7 = 0
Explanation: Reference day : May 25th Monday
10. March 1st is Wednesday. Which month of the same year starts with the same day?
A. October B. November C. December D. None of these
Ans: Option b
Explanation:
Month: Mar April May June July Aug Sept Oct
Odd days: 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 3
Total 21 odd days. 21/7 = 0. So November has start with the same day

1. Today is Wednesday. What will be the day after 94 days?
A. Saturday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Sunday
2. The year next to 1990 will have the same calendar as that of the year 1990
A. 1995 B. 1997 C. 1996 D. 1992
3. The last day of a century cannot be
A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Tuesday D. Friday
4. Which of the following is not a leap year?
A. 700 B. 800 C. 1200 D.

2000 5. How
many times does the 29th day of the month occur in 400 consecutive years
A. 97 times B. 4400 times C. 4497 times D. None of these
6. Given that on 10th November 1981 is Tuesday, what was the day on 10th November
1581
A. Monday B. Thursday C. Sunday D. Tuesday
7. If the first day of a year (other than leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day
of that year?
A. Saturday B. Friday C. Tuesday D. Monday
8. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the fourth Tuesday of December 91?
A. 20.12.91 B. 22.12.91 C. 24.12.91 D. 25.12.91
9. If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays. How many working days will be
there in a month of 30 days beginning on a Saturday?
A. 24 B. 23 C. 18 D. 21
10. What day of week was it on 5th November 1989. If it was Monday on 4th April,
1988 ?
A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Saturday D. Sunday

11.The second day of a month is Friday, What will be the last day of the next month
which has 31 days?
A. Friday B. Saturday C. Wednesday D. Data inadequate
12. How many of the following statements have to be true?
1. No year can have 5 Sundays in the month of May and 5 Thursdays in the month of
June
2. If Feb 14th of a certain year is a Friday, May 14th of the same year cannot be a
Thursday
3. If a year has 53 Sundays, it can have 5 Mondays in the month of May
A.0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
13, Today is 1st April. The day of the week is Wednesday. This is a leap year. The day of
the week on this day after 3 years will be:
A.Saturday B. Friday C. Sunday D. Tuesday

Solution:
1. Today is Wednesday. What will be the day after 94 days?
a. Saturday b. Tuesday c. Wednesday d. Sunday
Answer: a
2. The year next to 1990 will have the same calendar as that of the year 1990
a. 1995 b. 1997 c. 1996 d. 1992
Answer: c
3. The last day of a century cannot be
A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Tuesday D. Friday
Answer: C
4. Which of the following is not a leap year?
A. 700 B. 800 C. 1200 D. 2000
Answer: A
5. How many times does the 29th days of the month occur in 400 consecutive years
A. 97 times B. 4400 times C. 4497 times D. none
Sol: In 400 consecutive years there are 97 leap years. Hence in 400 consecutive years,
February has the 29th day 97 times, and the remaining 11 months have the 29th day
400 x 11 or 4400 times.
Therefore, 29th day of the month occurs (4400 + 97) or 4497 times
6. Given that on 10th November 1981 is Tuesday, what was the day on 10th November
1581
1) Monday 2) Thursday 3) Sunday 4) Tuesday
Sol: After every 400 years, the same day comes.
Thus if 10th November1981 was Tuesday, before 400 years i.e on 10th November 1581,
it has to be Tuesday.

7. If the first day of a year (other than leap year) was Friday, then which was the last day
of that year?
A. Saturday B. Friday C. Tuesday D. Monday
Option B
Given that first day of a normal year was Friday
Odd days of the mentioned year = 1 (Since it is an ordinary year)
Hence First day of the next year = (Friday + 1 Odd day) = Saturday
Last day of the mentioned year = Friday
8. 1.12.91 is the first Sunday. Which is the fourth Tuesday of December 91?
A. 20.12.91 B. 22.12.91 C. 24.12.91 D. 25.12.91
Explanation : Given that 1.12.91 is the first Sunday
Hence we can assume that 3.12.91 is the first Tuesday
If we add 7 days to 3.12.91, we will get second Tuesday
If we add 14 days to 3.12.91, we will get third Tuesday
If we add 21 days to 3.12.91, we will get fourth Tuesday
=> fourth Tuesday = (3.12.91 + 21 days) = 24.12.91
9. If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays. How many working days will be
there in a month of 30 days beginning on a Saturday?
A. 24 B. 23 C. 18 D. 21
Answer : Option B
Mentioned month has begins on a Saturday and has 30 days
Sundays = 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th
=> Total Sundays = 5
Second Saturdays = 8th and 22nd
Total Second Saturdays = 2

Total Holidays = Total Sundays + Total Second Saturdays = 5 + 2 = 7
Total days in the month = 30
Total working days = 30 - 7 = 23
10. What day of week was it on 5th November,1989 if it was Monday on 4th April, 1988
?
A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Saturday D. Sunday
Answer: Sunday
11. The second day of a month is Friday, What will be the last day of the next month
which has 31 days?
A. Friday B. Saturday C. Wednesday D. Data inadequate
Answer: D
12. How many of the following statements have to be true?
No year can have 5 Sundays in the month of May and 5 Thursdays in the month of June
If Feb 14th of a certain year is a Friday, May 14th of the same year cannot be a Thursday
If a year has 53 Sundays, it can have 5 Mondays in the month of May
A.0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Answer: Choice (B)
I. No year can have 5 Sundays in the month of May and 5 Thursdays in the month of
June
A year has 5 Sundays in the month of May => it can have 5 each of Sundays, Mondays
and Tuesdays, or 5 each of Saturdays, Sundays and Mondays, or 5 each of Fridays,
Saturdays and Sundays. Or, the last day of the Month can be Sunday, Monday or
Tuesday.
Or, the 1st of June could be Monday, Tuesday or Wednesday. If the first of June were a
Wednesday, June would have 5 Wednesdays and 5 Thursdays. So, statement I need not
be true.

II. If Feb 14th of a certain year is a Friday, May 14th of the same year cannot be a
Thursday
From Feb 14 to Mar 14, there are 28 or 29 days, 0 or 1 odd day
Mar 14 to Apr 14, there are 31 days, or 3 odd datys
Apr 14 to May 14 there are 30 days or 2 odd days
So, Feb 14 to May 14, there are either 5 or 6 odd days
So, if Feb 14 is Friday, May 14 can be either Thursday or Wednesday. So, statement 2
need not be true.
III. If a year has 53 Sundays, it can have 5 Mondays in the month of May
Year has 53 Sundays => It is either a non-leap year that starts on Sunday, or leap year
that starts on Sunday or Saturday.
Non-leap year starting on Sunday: Jan 1st = Sunday, jan 29th = Sunday. Feb 5th is
Sunday. Mar 5th is Sunday, Mar 26 is Sunday. Apr 2nd is Sunday. Apr 30th is Sunday,
May 1st is Monday. May will have 5 Mondays.
So, statement C can be true.
Only one of the three statements needs to be true. Answer Choice (B)
13. Today is 1st April. The day of the week is Wednesday. This is a leap year. The day of
the week on this day after 3 years will be:
A. Saturday B. Friday C. Sunday D. Tuesday
Answer: Saturday
Explanation: This being a leap year, none of the next 3 years is a leap year.
So,the day of the week will be 3 days beyond Wednesday.
The day after 3 years will be Saturday.

1. If 22nd April, 1982 was a Thursday, then what day of the weak was 3rd
November, 1982?
A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
Option b
2. If 30th June, 1989 was a Friday, then what day of the weak was 17th September,
1993?
A. Monday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
Option c
3. If 26th February, 2014 is on Wednesday, then what day of the weak is on 14th
July, 2017?
A. Friday B. Saturday C. Wednesday D. Sunday
Option a
4. If 10th April, 1963 was a Wednesday, then what day of the weak is on 23rd
august,1959?
A. Sunday B. Monday C. Friday D. Tuesday
Option a
5. If 4th August, 1996 was a Sunday, then what day of the weak was 12th April,
1992?
A. Friday B. Saturday C. Monday D. Sunday
Option d
6. If 1st January, 2012 is on Sunday, then what day of the weak is 1st January,
2016?
A. Friday B. Sunday C. Wednesday D. Saturday
Option a
7. If 31st January, 1995 was a Tuesday, then what day of the weak was 30th July,
1933?

A. Monday B. Sunday C. Friday D. Wednesday
Option c
8. If 20th January, 2000 was a Thursday, then what day of the weak was 26th
February, 1997?
A. Tuesday B. Sunday C. Wednesday D. Sunday
Option c
9. On which dates of March, 2008 will a Sunday, come?
A. 2,9,16,23,30 B. 1,8,15,22,29 C. 7,14,21,28 D. 3,10,17,24,31
Option a
10. If today is Sunday, then what day of the weak will be the 436th day of the weak?
A. Saturday B. Friday C. Tuesday D. Wednesday
Option a
11. If today is Wednesday, what day will it be, 1 year and 10 days from today?
A. Sunday B. Friday C. Monday D. Cannot be

determined
Option d
12. If the first day of the year 2005 is a Saturday, then what day of the weak will be
1st January, 2009?
A. Thursday B. Friday C. Sunday D. Monday
Option a
13. What day of the weak will 1st January, 2018 be, given that 1st January, 2012 is a
Saturday?
A. Monday B. Saturday C. Sunday D. Friday
Option c
14. Which year will have the same calendar as that of 2002?
A. 2008 B. 2011 C. 2009 D. 2013

Option d
15. Which year will have the same calendar as that of 2008?
A. 2014 B. 2024 C. 2032 D. 2036
Option d
16. How many odd days are there in 382 days?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Option d
17. The first day of a century year can be a
A. Tuesday B. Sunday C. Thursday D. Saturday
Option d
18. What day of the weak was 18th July, 1978?
A. Sunday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Friday
Option c
19. What day of the weak would be 26th march, 2023?
A. Sunday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Friday
Option a
20. Which will be the next leap year after 2096?
A. 2100 B. 2102 C. 2104 D. 2108
Option c

Syllogism

Syllogism
The word "syllogism" is given by Greeks which means 'inference' or 'deduction'. It was
introduced by Aristotle.
Example:
Directions : In the following questions, two statements are given followed by two
conclusions. You have to study the two statements and then decide which of the
conclusions follow from the statements.
Mark the right answer from (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)
Statements : All plants are trees.
No trees are green.
Conclusions : I. Some plants are green.
No plants are green.
1) Only I follows
2) Only II follows
3) Both I and II follow
4) Either I or II follows
5) Neither I nor II follows
This is a typical question of syllogism.
Here the choice (2) is true. Later on we can discuss the method to reach at the answer
choice. Now let us see some definitions related to syllogism.
PROPOSITION
A proposition is a sentence that makes a statement and gives a relation between two or
more terms.
In logic, any statement is termed a proposition.
Example: i) All windows are rods
ii) No cloth is a bay
iii) Some students are members
iv) Some green are not white
The parts of proposition are given below.
ii) Predicate : Predicate is the part of the proposition denoting that which is affirmed
or denied about the subject.
Example : In the proposition All novels are songs, something is being said about novels.
So novels is the subject. Songs is the predicate here because it affirmed about the subject.

CLASSIFICATION OF PROPOSITIONS
i) Universal positive proposition: A proposition of the form All S are P is called a
universal positive proposition. A universal positive proposition is denoted by A.
eg : All girls are disciplined. All bulbs are lions.
i) Universal negative proposition :A proposition of the form No S is P is called a
universal negative proposition. It is usually denoted by E.
eg : No professors is lazy. No boxes are baskets.
ii) Particular positive Proposition : A proposition of the form Some S are P is called a
particular positive proposition. It is usually denoted by I.
eg : Some boys are smarts.
Some boys are cats.
iv) Particular negative proposition :
A proposition of the form Some S are not P is called particular negative proposition.
It is denoted by the letter O.
eg : Some flowers are not grapes.
Some fans are not black.
In syllogism, there are two types of inferences.
1) Mediate inference :
Here conclusion is drawn from two propositions. For example, if you are given All
cats are dogs and all dogs are animals, then a conclusion of the form all cats are animals
could be drawn from it.

2) Immediate inference :
Here conclusion is drawn from only one given proposition. For example if a given
statement is All gates are blue, then based on this a conclusion could be drawn that Some
blue are gates. This is a case of immediate inference.
Two important cases of immediate inference is given below.
a) Implications :
If a given proposition is A - type, then it also implies that the I - type conclusion must
be true. Let us verify it by considering the proposition, All elephants are big. This
statement naturally implies that the conclusion Some elephants are big must be true.
Similarly we can prove that an E - type proposition also implies an O - type conclusion.
b) Conversion
Two steps are to be followed in conversion. The first step is to change the subject
as the predicate and the predicate as the subject. The second step is to change the type
of the given proposition to the pattern given in the following table.
Type of the Type of the
given proposition
Proposition after conversion
A I
E E
I I
O Cannot be converted
Let us consider the statement Some posters are good looking. This can be converted
by using the above table as Some good looking are posters. In the same way, No books
are pencils can be converted as No pencils are books.
HIDDEN PROPOSITION
You may find it difficult to categorise some propositions of the form Rahim is
brilliant, Every man talks English, Not a single student passed the exam, No student except
Prem was present, etc. We shall know, how to find the hidden propositions in such
sentences.
A - type hidden propositions :

• All positive propositions beginning with 'each', 'every' and 'any'.
• A positive sentence with a particular person as its subject.
• A positive sentence with a very definite exception.
eg : Each of them plays football. He should be awarded.
All members except Kavitha have a share of profit.
E - type hidden proposition

• All negative sentences beginning with 'no one', 'none' and 'not a single'
• A sentence with a particular person as its subject but a negative sense.
• A negative sentence with a very definite exception.
• An interrogative sentence which is used to make an assertion.
eg : None can escape from death. Swathi is not an IAS officer.
No student except Salim has attend the party.
Is there any person who can cheat himself?
I - type hidden propositions :
• Positive propositions beginning with words such as 'most', 'a few', 'mostly',
'generally', 'almost', `frequently', and negative propositions beginning with words
such as 'few', 'seldom', `hardly', 'scarcely', 'rarely' and 'little'.
• A positive sentence with an exception which is not definite.
eg : Very few writers research before they write.
Seldom are people not jealous.
All students except five have failed.
O - type hidden propositions :
• All negative propositions beginning with words such as 'all', 'every', 'any' and 'each'.
1 Negative propositions with words as 'most' , 'a few', 'mostly', 'generally', 'almost',
and `frequently'.
2 Positive words beginning with 'few', 'seldom', 'hardly', ‘scarcely', 'rarely' and little.
3 A negative sentence with an exception which is not definite.
e.g. : All men are not honest
Most of the books have not been read. Girls are usually not brave.
Rarely is a rich man worried.
No students except a few are absent.
EXCLUSIVE PROPOSITIONS
A statement beginning with 'only', 'alone', 'none but' or 'none else but' is called exclusive
proposition. Such propositions can be reduced to A or E or I type.
Only brave men are pilots.
This sentence means that "No coward man is a pilot" and "All pilots are brave men".
SOLUTION OF SYLLOGISM BY ANALYTICAL METHOD

There are two steps to be followed for solving syllogism by analytical method.
A problem of syllogism consists of two propositions which have one common term. This
common term will be the predicate of the first proposition and the subject of the second.
If this condition is not satisfied in the given propositions, they should be aligned

accordingly.
eg : Statement : All birds are trees. Some trees are cows.
Here the common term is 'trees'. Also it satisfies the above said condition. Hence
the statements are properly aligned.
Let us consider another example.
eg : Statement : All pencils are bottles
All bricks are pencils.
Here the common term is 'pencil'. But it does not satisfy the given condition. So we
have to align this pair. This can be aligned easily by changing the order of the statements.
The aligned pair will be
All bricks are pencils.
All pencils are bottles.
eg : Statements : No watch is hat

All pins are hats.
In this pair, the common term is 'hat' and it is the predicate of both the sentences. So we
have to align the sentences by converting any of the sentences and changing the order if
needed.
After alignment, the above example will become
All pins are hats
No hat is watch.
While aligning a given pair of statements, the priority should be given while
converting, to I - type statements to E-type statements and then to A - type statement, in
that order. That is, the rule of IEA should be followed.
After aligning the given pair of statements, the conclusion can be easily drawn by
using the following table.
Statement – I Statement - II Conclusion
A + A = A
A + E = E
E + A = O*
E + I = O*
I + A = I
I + E = O
No definite conclusion can be drawn for other combinations like A+I, O+A etc, which
are not mentioned in the above table.
For the above given combinations which are aligned properly, the conclusion is a
proposition whose subject is the subject of the first statement and whose predicate is the
predicate of the second statements. The common terms disappears.
In the above table, O* implies that the conclusion is of type - O, whose subject is
the predicate of the second statement and the predicate of the conclusion is the subject

of the first statement.
Solved Examples
1. Statements :All bags are toys.
All toys are keys.
The sentences are already aligned. From the above given Table, A+A=A. Hence the
conclusion is of type - A whose subject is the subject of the first proposition and the
predicate is the predicate of the second proposition. So the conclusion is All bags are
keys.
2. Statements : All teachers are readers.
All teachers are writers.
This pair is not properly aligned because the subject of both the sentences is 'teachers'.
Since both the sentences are of type - A, we may convert any of them. So the aligned pair
is
Some readers are teachers. All teachers are writers.
Here the conclusion will be of type - I because I+A=I.
The conclusion is Some readers are writers.
3. Statements : Some chocolates are toffees. All chocolates are pastries.
The subject of both the sentences is the same. By the rule of IEA, we convert the I -
type statement.
So the aligned pair is,
Some toffees are chocolates. All chocolates are pastries
I+A=I. So the conclusion is Some toffees are pastries.
4. Statements :All lights are balls
No bats are lights
By changing the order of the statements itself we can align the sentences. The
aligned pair is
No bats are lights. All lights are balls.
E+A=O*. So the conclusion is, Some balls are not bats.
5. Statements :Some caps are red.
No clip is red.
Here the common term is 'red' which is the predicate of both the sentences. By the
rule of IEA, we convert the I - type statement. After conversion, the given pair becomes,
Some red are caps. No clip is red.

Now by changing the order of the statements, we can align the sentences. So the
aligned pair is,
No clip is red. Some red are caps.
The conclusion is of type O* since E+I=O*. Hence the conclusion is
Some caps are not clips.
6. Statements : Some powders are not soaps.
All soaps are detergents.
The given pair is properly aligned. But no definite conclusion can be drawn from
this type because it is a O+A - type combination.
IMMEDIATE INFERENCE
Now let us consider an example which has two statements as well as two
conclusions.
eg. Statements: All novels are stories.
All stories are songs.
Conclusion : (i) All novels are songs.
(ii) Some songs are novels.
First of all let us consider only the statements . The sentences are already aligned.
Since A+A = A, the conclusion will be All novels are songs If we convert this conclusion,
we get
Some songs are novels.Hence both the conclutions given in the question are true.
eg: Statements :Some roses are leaves. Some leaves are throns.
Conclusions : (i) Some roses are thorns.
(II) Some leaves are roses.
We know that for a combination of I+I - type no conclusion could be drawn. But if
we convert the first statement, we get Some leaves are roses. Which is conclusion (ii) Also
on converting the second statement, we get some thorns are leaves. This proposition is
not given in the conclusion part. So in this example, conclusion (ii) alone is true.
So while solving the problems on syllogism, we should also take the immediate
inferences of the given statements as well as the immediate inference of the conclusion
drawn from the table.

Complementary Pairs
Consider the followings

Conclusions :i) Some buses are trucks.
ii) Some buses are not trucks.
We know that either some buses will be trucks or some buses will not be trucks. Hence
either (i) or (ii) is true. Such pair of statements are called complementary pairs. So in a
complementary pair, at least one of the two statements is always true. We can call a pair
as a complementary pair if
i) The subject and predicate of both the sentences are the same.
ii) They are an I + O - type pair or an A + O type pair or an I + E - type pair.
Some complementary pairs are given
below.
i) All birds are swans . Some birds are not swans.
ii) Some tables are watches. Some tables are not watches.
iii) Some girls are cute. No girls are cute.
Note :The steps to be followed to do a syllogism problem by analytical method are
mentioned below.
i) Align the sentences properly
ii) Draw conclusion using the table
iii) Check for immediate inferences.
iv) Check for complementary pair if steps ii and iii fail.

SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. Statement : No rooms are stones
Some houses are rooms.
Conclusions : i) Some houses are stones ii) Some houses are not stones.
We can easily align the statements by changing the order of the sentences. The aligned
pair is :
Some houses are rooms. No rooms are stones.
I + E = O. So the conclusion is Some houses are not stones, Hence we obtain a definite
conclusion that conclusion (ii) is correct. Hence step IV becomes unnecessary.
2. Statements :Some cows are horses
All cows are tigers.
Conclusions : i) Some tigers are horses.
ii) Some tigers are cows. To align the sentences, it is sufficient to
convert the first statement. So the aligned pair is
Some horses are cows.
All cows are tigers.
I + A = I. Hence the conclusion will be
Some horses are tigers. If we convert this conclusion, we get Some tigers are horses which
is conclusion (i). Also if we convert the second statement, conclusion (ii) is obtained.
Hence both the conclusions given above should be taken as true. There is no need
to check for complementary pair because definite conclusion has already been obtained.
3. Statements :Some poets are teachers.
Some teachers are saints
Conclusions : i) Some poets are saints.
ii) Some poets are not saints.
This pair is already aligned. But there is no definite conclusion for I + I type
combinations. Also none of the given conclusions is the immediate inference of any of the
statements. So let us check for the complementary pair. The conclusions given are in the
form of 'some' and 'some not'. Hence either conclusion (i) or (ii) follows.
THREE - STATEMENT SYLLOGISM

This type of syllogism problems consist of 3 statements which are followed by 4 or more

conclusions.
A typical three - statement syllogism problem is given below.
Directions : Below are given three statements followed by several conclusions based on
them. Examine the conclusions and decide whether
they logically follow from the given statements. You have to take the given statements as
true even if they appear to be at variance with commonly known facts.
Statements : A) All bags are hats.
B) Some pins are bags.
C) No hats are needles.
Conclusions : I) Some pins are hats.
II) No needles are bags.
III) Some pins are needles.
IV) Some pins are not needles.
(a) Only I and II follow
(b) Only I and IV follow
(c) I, II and IV follow
(d) Either III or IV, and I follow
(e) Either III or IV and I and II follow.
Before solving this example, let us see the steps in solving a three-statement
syllogism problems.
Step I
i) Consider a given conclusion.
ii) Note the subject and predicate of this given conclusion.
iii) Now find which of the two given statements has this subject and predicate.
iv) a) If there is a common term between the two statements chosen in the previous part,
then consider only these two statements.
b) If there is no common term between the two statements chosen in the previous
part, then we should consider all the three statements.
Step II
i) If two statements are relevant for a given conclusion, align them.
ii) If three statements are relevant, write them as a chain. That is, align them in such
a way that the predicate of the first sentence and subject of the second are the
same, and the predicate of the second sentence and the subject of the third
sentence are the same.
iii) Now arrive at the conclusion using the table.

iv) Now compare the given conclusion with the conclusion drawn using the tables. If
they match, the given conclusion is true. If they do not match, it is false.
Step III
i) If a given statement has already been marked as a valid conclusion after step II, then
leave it. Otherwise check if it is an immediate inference of any of the three given
statements of the conclusion derived.
ii) Search for complementary pair :
a) Check if any two given conclusions have the same subject and the same predicate.
b) If (a) is satisfied, then check whether any of them has been marked as a valid
conclusion after step II or as an immediate inference.
c) If none of them has been marked as a valid conclusion, then they will form a
complementary pair if they are an A - O or I - O or I - E pair.
d) If they do make a complementary pair, then mark the choice "either of the two
follows".
If a conclusion is marked as a valid conclusion after step II, then it is not necessary
to perform step III (i). Again if a given conclusion has already been accepted in step III (i),
then it is not necessary to perform step III (ii).
The learner should understand these steps clearly. Now follow the solution to the
example which is already given. Here we have to check the validity of each and every
conclusions one by one.
Conclusion I : Here the subject is pin and the predicate is hat. So let us consider (A) and
(B) as our relevant statements because they have a common term 'bags'.
The second step is to align the sentences. The aligned pair is,
Some pins are bags.
All bags are hats.
I + A = I. So we arrive at the conclusion, 'Some pins are hats'. So conclusion I is valid.
Conclusion II : Here the subject is 'needles' and the predicate is 'bags'. Statement C
contains the subject 'Needles'. But 'bags' appears in both A and B. We should select A
because there is a common term between A and C. This is an aligned pair and so we arrive
at the conclusion
No bags are needles which implies No needles are bags. Hence conclusion II is valid.
Conclusion III : Here the subject is 'pins' and the 'predicate' is needles. These words
appear in statements (B) and (C) respectively which have no term in common. So all the
three statements should be taken as relevant. Now align the statements as Step II (ii) So
we get,
Some pins are bags All bags are hats. No hats are needles.
I + A + E = (I + A) + E= I + E = O.
So the conclusion is 'Some pins are not needles', which is conclusion IV. So

conclusion IV is valid.
Since conclusion III is not valid in step II, let us perform step III (i). The conclusion,
Some pins are not needles is not an immediate inference of any of the three given
statements. So the next step is to check the existence of a complementary pair in the
given conclusions.
We see that conclusion III and conclusion IV form a complementary pair of I - O type.
So the choice "either III or IV follows" could be selected. But we find that conclusion IV is
valid from the previous step. So conclusion III is not valid. Hence for this given example,
the third choice which is 'I, II and IV follow' is true.
PRACTICE TEST
Directions (Qs. 1 - 25) : Each of the following questions contains two statements followed

by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true,
even if they seen to be at variance at the commonly known facts. You have to decide which
of thegiven conclusions definitely follows from the given statements.Give answer ((a) if
only I follows ; ((b) if only conclusion II follows ; ((c) if either I or II follows; ((d) if neither I
nor II follows and ((e) if both I and II follow.
1. Statement : Some tables are glasses.
All trees are tables. Conclusions: I.Some trees are glasses
II. Some glasses are trees.
2. Statement : No man is a lion.
Somu is a man. Conclusions: I. Somu is not a lion.
II. All men are not Somu.
3. Statement : All boys are mothers.
All mothers are fathers. Conclusions : I. All mothers are boys.
II. All boys are fathers.
4. Statement : All pots are cups.
All cups are bowls. Conclusions: I. All pots are bowls.
II. All cups are pots.
5. Statement : All students are girls.
No girl is dull Conclusions : I. There are no boys in the
class
II. No student is dull.
6. Statement : Some cats are kittens.
All goats are kittens. Conclusions: I. Some cats are goats.
II. Some goats are cats.
7. Statement : All names are houses.
No houses are foxes. Conclusions : I. All names are foxes.
II. No houses are names.
8. Statement : All pens are dogs.
Some pens are lights. Conclusions: I. Some dogs are lights.
II. Some lights are not dogs
9. Statement : Some birds are clouds.
Horse is a bird. Conclusions : I. Some clouds are birds.
II. Horse is not a cloud.
10. Statement : All tables are ants.
Some ants are chairs. Conclusions: I. All ants are tables.
II. Some chairs are not ants.
11. Statement : All elephants are birds.
Some birds are cows.

Conclusions: I. Some cows are birds.
II.Some elephants are cows. 12. Statement : All papers are
pencils.
All pencils are erasers. Conclusions: I.Some erases are papers.
II. Some pencils are not papers.
13. Statement : Some trees are horses. Some ships are trees.
Conclusions: I.Some horses are ships. II.Some trees are neither ships nor
horses.
14. Statement : All glasses are mirrors. Some mirrors are red.
Conclusions: I. All mirrors are glasses.
II. Some glasses are red.
15. Statement : Some dogs are horses.
No horse is black. Conclusions: I. Some dogs are black.
II.Some horses are dogs. 16. Statement : All roads are poles.
No poles are houses. Conclusions: I. Some roads are houses.
II.Some houses are poles. 17. Statement : Many actors are
singers.
All singers are dancers. Conclusions: I. Some actors are
dancers.
II. No singer is an actor.
18. Statement : Only cats are animals.
No historian is an animal. Conclusions: I. Some cats are not
historians.
II. Some historians are not cats.
19. Statement : Some desks are caps. No cap is red.
Conclusions: I. Some caps are desks.
II. No desk is red.
20. Statement : Some pots are belts.
No belt is white. Conclusions: I. Some pots are white.
II. Some pots are not white.
21. Statement : Some girls are flowers.
Some flowers are books. Conclusions: I. Some girls are books.
II. No books are girls.
22. Statement : Some files are ants.
All insects are ants. Conclusions: I. All files are ants.
II. Some ants are insects.
23. Statement : All players are tall. Pranesh is tall.
Conclusions: I. Pranesh is a player.
II. Pranesh is not a player.
24. Statement : Some hens are cows.
All cows are horses. Conclusions : I. Some horses are hens.
II. Some hens are horses.
25. Statement : All business men are hard
Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential

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working.
No hard working men are superstitious.
Conclusions: I. No business men are superstitious.
II. All superstitious are not businessmen.
Directions (Qs. 26 - 40) : In each question below, there are two or three statements
followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
given statements.
26. Statements: Some boys are girls.
All girls are students.
Conclusions:
I. Some boys are students. II. Some students are boys. III. Some
students are girls. IV. All students are girls.
(a) I, II and III follow
(b) II, III and IV follow
(c) I, III and IV follow
(d) I, II and IV follow
(e)All follow
27. Statements: All books are watches.
Some watches are clips.
Conclusions:
I. Some watches are books. II. No watches are books.
III. Some books are clips. IV. No books are clips.
(a) I,and III follow
(b) Only I follow
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Either III or IV and I follow
(e)Either I or II and III follow.
28. Statements: Some chairs are tables.
Some tables are desks.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are desks.
II. No chairs are desks.
III. Only desks are chairs.
IV. Only chairs are desks.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows.
(d) Either III or IV follows
(e) Either I or II and either III or IV follow.
29. Statements: Some reds are blues.
No greens are blues.

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Conclusions :
I. Some reds are not greens.
II. All reds are greens.
III. Some greens are not reds.
IV. All greens are reds.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(d) Either III or IV and I follow
(e) I and II follow.
30. Statements :No systems are decks.
All decks are books.
Conclusions:
I. Some systems are books.
II. Some systems are not books.
III. Some books are systems.
IV. Some books are not systems.
(a) Only II follows
(b) Only IV follows
(c) I and IV follow.
(d) II and either III or IV follow
(e) Either I or II and IV follow.
31. Statements :All birds are animals.
Many birds are stones.
Conclusions :
I. Some birds are animals. II. Some animals are stones. III. All
animals are stones.
IV. Some animals are not stones.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either III or IV follows.
(d) I and II follow
(e) I and II and either III or IV follow
32. Statements :
Some teachers are students. Some students are boys.
Conclusions:
I. All boys are students.
II. All boys are teachers.
III. Some teachers are boys.
IV. No teachers are boys.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II and II follow
(c) Either I or III follows
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(d) Either I or IV follows
(e) Either III or IV follows
33. Statements: Some girls are teens.
No teens are snakes.
Conclusions :
I. Some teens are girls.
II. Some snakes are no girls. III. Some girls are not snakes. IV. All
snakes are girls.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Either II or III follows
(c) Only I and III follow
(d) Only I and II follow
34. Statements :No blankets are pillows.
Some beds are blankets.
Conclusions :
I. Some blankets are not pillows. II. Some pillows are not beds.
III. Some beds are not pillows. IV. All beds are pillows.
(a) Either III or IV follows
(b) Either I or II follows
(c) I and III follow
(d) Either II or III follows
(e) None of the above
35. Statements: All classes are glasses.
All brasses are glasses.
Conclusions :
I. Some classes are brasses. II. Some brasses are glasses. III. Some
brasses are classes. IV. Some classes are glasses.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) I and II follow
(d) II and IV follow
(e) All follow
36. Statements: All cars are buses.
Some buses are cycles.
Conclusions:
I. All cycles are buses. II. All cycles are car.
III. Some cars are cycles.
IV. No cars are cycles.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II and III follow
(c) Either II or III follows
(d) Either I or IV follows
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37. Statements: Some singers are rockers.
All rockers are westerners.
Conclusions:
I. Some rockers are singers.
II. Some westerners are rockers. III. Some singers are westerners.
IV. Some singers are not westerners.
(b) I, II and IV follow
(c) II, III and IV follow
(d) I, III and IV follow
(e) All follow
38. Statements: All pigs are elephants.
No pigs are bakers.
Conclusions :
I. Some bakers are not pigs. II. Some pigs are not bakers.
III. Some elephant are not bakers. IV. Some bakers are not elephants
(b) I, II and IV follow
(c) I, III and IV follow
(d) II, III and IV follow
(e) All follow
39. Statements : All green are blue.
All blue are white.
Conclusions :
I. Some blue are green.
II. Some white are green.
III. Some green are not white.
IV. All white are blue.
(d) Only I and IV follow
(e) All follow
40. Statements: Some soaps are clean.
All clean are wet.
Conclusions :
I. Some clean are soaps.
II. No clean are soaps.
III. Some wet are soaps.
IV. All wet are soaps.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Either I or II follows
(c) Either III or IV follows

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(d) Only I and III follow
(e)None of the above
Directions (Qs. 41 - 60) : Below are given three statements A, B,and C followed by
four conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they
appear to be at variance with commonly known facts, and then decide which of
the conclusions logically follow (s) from the given statements. For each question,
mark out an appropriate answer choice that you think is correct.
41. Statements:
A. All thieves are men.
B. All men are graduates.
C. No graduates are employed.
Conclusions :
I. Some graduates are thieves.
II. No employed are thieves.
III. Some men are thieves. IV. Some employed are men.
(b) II, III and IV follow
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only II and II follow
(e) Only II and IV follow.
42. Statements:
A. Some books are pens
B. All tables are chairs.
C. No pens are tables.
Conclusions:
I. Some books are not tables.
II. Some pens are not chairs.
III. Some books are not chairs. IV. Some chairs are not pens
(a) I, and IV follow
(b) II, and IV follow
(c) I and III follow
(d) II and III follow
(e) III, and IV follow.
43. Statements :
A. All satellites are planets.
B. No stars are planets.
C. Some cosmos are satellites.
Conclusions:
I. Some cosmos are stars.
II. Some cosmos are planets.
III. Some stars are not cosmos. IV. Some cosmos are not stars
(a) Only II and III follow
(b) Only II and IV follow
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(c) Either I or IV follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) Either I or IV and III follow
44. Statements:
A. All books are notes.
B. Some notes are pencils.
C. No pencils are papers.
Conclusions:
I. Some notes are books.
II. Some pencils are books.
III. Some books are papers. IV. No books are papers.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only I and either III or IV follows
(c) Either III or IV follows
(e) None of these.
45. Statements :
A. Some cups are utensils.
B. No utensils are buckets.
C. All buckets are plates.
Conclusions:
I. Some cups are buckets.
II. Some utensils are plates.
III. No utensils are plates. IV. Some cups are plates
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Either II or III follows
(d) Either III or IV follows
(e) None of these
46. Statements :
A. Some keys are locks.
B. All locks are doors.
C. Some doors are windows.
Conclusions:
I. Some locks are windows.
II. Some windows are keys.
III. Some windows are doors.
IV. No locks windows.
(a) Either I or IV follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III and IV follow
(d) None follows

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(e) None of these.
47. Statements:
A. All pins are staplers.
B. Some staplers are sharpeners.
C. Some sharpeners are stands.
Conclusions:
I. Some staplers are stands.
II. Some sharpeners are pins.
III. Some pins are stands.
IV. Some stands are sharpeners.
(b) Only II and IV follow
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) None of these
48. Statements:
A. Some oranges are apples.
B. All apples are guavas.
C. No guavas are bananas.
Conclusions:
I. Some guavas are oranges.
II. No apples are bananas.
III. Some oranges are bananas. IV. Some apples are bananas.
(b) Only I and either II or IV follow
(c) Only I, II and IV follow
(d) Only III and either II or IV follow.
(e) None of these
49. Statements:
A. Some streets are roads.
B. Some roads are lanes.
C. Some lanes are highways.
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are not streets.
II. No highways are streets.
III. Some streets are not roads. IV. Some lanes are not roads.
(a) Only III follows
(b) Only III and IV follows
(c) Either I or III follows
(d) Both I and III follow
(e) None of these
50. Statements :
A. Some pencils are pens.
B. All pens are erasers.

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C. All staplers are erasers.
Conclusions:
I. Some pens are not pencils. II All erasers are pencils.
III. Some staplers are pens. IV. Some staplers are pencils.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only IV follows
(e) None follows
51. Statements:
A. Some tables are chairs. B. No cupboards are tables.
C. Some chairs are cupboards.
Conclusions :
I. Some chairs are not tables.
II. All chairs are either tables or cupboards.
III. Some chairs are both tables and cup boards
IV. All chairs are tables.
(a) Only either I or IV follows.
(b) Only either II or III follows.
(c) Only IV follows.
(d) Either II or III and I follow
(e) None of these.
52. Statements :
A. All birds are animals.
B. Some animals are humans.
C. All humans are mammals.
Conclusions :
I. Some humans are not birds.
II. Some birds are humans.
III. Some animals are not mammals. IV. All animals are mammals.
(a) Only I and II follow.
(b) Either III or IV follows
(d) Either I or II and either III or IV follow
(e) None of these.
53. Statements :
A. Some leaves are fruits.
B. All branches are fruits .
C. Some roots are branches.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are fruits.

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II. Some branches are leaves.
III. No leaves are branches.
IV. Some leaves are roots.
(a) Either II or III and I follow.
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only either II or III follows
(e) None of these.
54. Statements :
A. Some keys are locks.
B. Some locks are stickers.
C. All stickers are pens.
Conclusions:
I Some pens are locks.
II Some stickers are keys.
III. No stickers are keys. IV. Some locks are keys.
(a) I, IV and either II or III follow
(b) Only I and IV follow.
(c) Only II and III follow.
(e) None of these.
55. Statements :
A. All books are papers.
B. Some papers are journals.
C. Some journals are calendars.
Conclusions:
I. Some journals are books.
II. Some calendars are papers.
III. Some books are journals. IV. Some books are calendars.
(a) Only II and IV follow
(d) Only III and IV follow
(e) None follows.
56. Statements :
A. Some answers are questions.
B. Some questions are writers.
C. All writers are poets.
Conclusions:
I Some writers are answers.
II. Some poets are questions.
III. All questions are poets. IV. Some poets are answers.
(b) Only I, II and IV follow

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(c) Only II follows
(d) Only II and IV follow
(e) Only III follows.
57. Statements :
A All bottles are boxes.
B. All boxes are bags.
C. Some bags are trays.
Conclusions:
I Some bottles are trays.
II Some trays are boxes.
III. All bottles are bags.
IV. Some trays are bags.
(a) Only I, III and IV follow.
(b) Only II and III follow.
(c) Only I, II and III follow.
(d) Only III and IV follow.
(e) All follow.
58. Statements :
A. Some envelops are gums. B. All gums are seals.
C. Some seals are adhesives.
Conclusion :
I Some envelops are seals. II. Some gums are adhesives. III. Some adhesives
are seals. IV. Some adhersives are gums.
(b) Only I and III follow
(c) Only II and IV follow
(d) Only III and IV follow
(e) Only I and IV follow.
59. Statements :
A. All flowers are garlands. B. All garlands are fruits. C. All fruits are
trees.
Conclusions :
I. All trees are flowers.
II. Not all trees are flowers.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I nor II follows
(d) Neither I or II follows.
(e) Both I and II follow.
60. Statements :
A. All chairs are apples.

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B. Some apples are tables.
C. All tables are cupboards.
Conclusions :
I. Some cupboards are chairs. II. Some tables are not chairs.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows.
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Both I and II follows.

Page 191
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1 . (d) 2 . (a) 3 . (b) 4 . (a) 5 . (e) 6 . (d) 7 . (d) 8.(a)
9 . (a) 10 . (d) 11 . (a) 12 . (a) 13. d) 14 . (d) 15 . (b) 16.(d)
17 . (a) 18 . (a) 19 . (a) 20 . (b) 21.(c) 22 . (b) 23 . (c) 24 . (e)
25 . (e) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. d) 30. (e) 31. (e) 32 . (e)
33 . (c) 34 . (c) 35 . (d) 36 . (e) 37.(a) 38 . (a) 39 . (a) 40 . (d)
41 . (a) 42 . (a) 43 . (b) 44 . (b) 45.(c) 46 . (e) 47 . (d) 48 . (a)
49 . (e) 50 . (e) 51 . (a) 52 . (d) 53. (a) 54 . (a) 55 . (e) 56 . (c)
57 . (d) 58 . (b) 59 . (b) 60 . (d)
1. d. The aligned pair is

All trees are tables
Some tables are glasses.
This is a `A + I - type pair which has no
Solution
2. a. Align this pair as Somu is a man and Noman is a lion. A + E = E.
So the conclusion is Somu is not a lion : I follows
3. b. A + A = A. The conclusion is All boys are fathers . II follows
5. e. A + E = E. The conclusion is No student is dull. II follows. Since All students' are girls,
which means No boys are students.' Hence I also follows.
6. d. Align this pair as All goats are kittens and Some kittens are goats.
A + I pair has no definite conclusion.
7. d. A + E = E, the conclusion here is No names

are foxes. But this conclusion is not given.
8. a. The aligned pair is Some lights are pens
and All pens are dogs. So the conclusion
is Some lights are dogs which implies Some dogs are lights.
9. a. The aligned pair is Horse is a bird and
Some birds are clouds. There is no definite conclusion for A + I - type pair. But conversion
of statement I implies conclusion I.
10. d. A + I - type has no definite conclusion.
11. a. A + I - type has no definite conclusion. But immediate inference of Some birds are cows
implies Some cows are birds. Hence I follows.
12. a. The conclusion is All papers are erasers. Conclusion I follows from the immediate inference
of this conclusion.
15. b. I + E = O. So the conclusion is Some dogs are not black. But conclusion II follows as it is the
conversion of the first statement.
16. d. A + E = E. So the conclusion is No roads are houses.
17. a. I + A = I. So the conclusion is "Some actors are dancers".

18. a. The first statement can be converted to
All animals are cats. Now align the pair by changing the order as
No historian is an animal.
All animals are cats.
E + A = O*. So the conclusion is
Some cats are not historians.
19. a. I + E = O. So the conclusion is Some desks are not red. This is not given. But conclusion I is
obvious from statement I.
20.b. I + E = O. The conclusion is
Some pots are not white
21. c. I + I pair has no definite conclusion. But the choice make a complementary pair when we
consider I and the immediate inference of II. Spot either I or II follows.
22. b. The aligned pair is
All insects are ants. Some ants are files.
A + I - type pair has no definite solution. But conclusion II follows directly from statement
II.
23. c. Aligned pair is Pranesh is tall.
Some tall are players.
A+ I - type pair has no definite conclusion. But Pranesh should either be a player or a non -
player. Hence either of the two conclusions follows.
24. e. I + A = I. So the conclusion is
Some hens are horses. Again on conversion, this gives Some horses are hens.
25. e. A +E = E. The conclusion is No businessmen are superstitious. Also on conversion, this
implies No superstitious are businessmen. This implies All superstitious are not businessmen
also must be true.
26. a. I + A = I. The conclusion is Some boys are students which is I. This can be converted to Some
students are boys, which is II. Some students are girls follows from All girls are students.
27. d. A+ I pair has no definite conclusion. But conclusion I follows directly from All books are
watches. III and IV are a complementary pair.
28. c. I + I pair has no conclusion. But conclusion I and II form a complementary pair. Hence either
I or II follows.
No greens are blues. Some blues are reds.
E + I = O. So the conclusion is Some reds are not greens. Hence I follows. Also
III and IV make a complementary pair.
30. e. E + A = O*. Hence the conclusion is
Some books are not systems. Again, I and II are a complementary pair.
31. e. Many birds are stones implies Some birds are stones. The aligned pair is
Some stones are birds. All birds are animals.
I + A = I. Hence the conclusion is Some stones are animals. On conversion conclusion II is

obtained. I is obviously from statement I. Also III and IV make a complementary pair.
32. e. I + I - type pair has no conclusion. But III and IV are complementary pair.
33. c. I + E = O. Hence Some girls are not snakes follows. Also I is obvious from the first statement.
34. c. I + E = O. So the conclusion is Some beds are not pillows. Hence III follows. Also I is obvious
from the first statement.
All classes are glasses. Some glasses are brasses.
A + I - type pair has no solution. But II is obvious from All brasses are glasses and IV is
obvious from All classes are glasses.
38. a. The aligned pair is No backers are pigs. All pigs are elephants.
E + A = O*. Hence the conclusion is
Some elephants are not bakers. Thus III follows. No pigs are bakers implies that No bakers
are pigs. I is obvious from this sentence. II follows directly from No pigs are bakers. Hence
I, II and III follow.
41. a. Conclusion drawn from statements A and B is All thieves are graduates. Conclusion I is
obvious from this sentence. III is obvious from statement A. Also A + A + E = A + E = E.
Conclusion drawn from all the three is
No thieves are employed. II is obvious from this sentence.
42. a. I follows from statements A and C. IV follows from statements C and B. No other
conclusion is possible
43. b. Statements C + A gives Some cosmos are planets. So II is valid. By aligning II and B or by
aligning all the three statements, we get IV.
44. b. Conversion of A gives Some notes are books. Therefore I follows. For II A and B are the
relevant statements. But A + I - type pair has no conclusion. So II is not valid. For III all the
statements are relevant. No definite conclusion can be obtained from this combination.
But conclusions III and IV form a complementary pair.Hence either conclusion III or
conclusion IV follows.
45. c. For I, A and B are relevant. But the conclusion obtained here is Some cups are not buckets.
So I is not valid. II and III form a complementary pair. For IV, all the statements are relevant.
But no conclusion is obtained for this combination.
46. e. For I, B and C are relevant. But here no conclusion is obtained. Similarly IV is not valid. But
I and IV form a complementary pair. So either I or IV follows. For II all the three statements
are relevant. But no conclusion follows from them. III is obvious from C. Hence conclusions
III and either I or IV follow.
47. d. For I, B and C are relevant. But no conclusion follows from them. For II all the three
statements are relevant. But no conclusion follows from them. III also not valid IV is obvious
from C.
48. a. A + B gives Some oranges are guavas. I is obvious from this statement. B + C gives No apples
are bananas. So II is valid. For III all the three statements are relevant. But the conclusion
arrived here is Some oranges are not bananas. So III is invalid. IV is also invalid, since II is
valid.
49. e. No conclusion is derived from the given statements because I + I type pair has no solution.

No conclusion can be arrived as the immediate inference of the statements.
There is no complementary pair also. So none follows.
50. e. No conclusion is derived form the given statements because (I + A) + I = I + I. This pair has
no solution. Also no conclusion can be arrived as the immediate inference of the given
statements and there is no complementary pair. So none follows.
51. a. I and IV form a complementary pair.
52. d. I and II form a complementary pair and III and IV form another complementary pair.
53. a. C + B gives I. Also II and III form a complementary pair.
54. a. B + C gives, Some locks are pens.
I is the conversion of this conclusion. Also II and III form a complementary pair.
56. c. B + C gives, Some questions are poets. II is obvious from this.
59. b. The conclusion drawn from these three statements is All flowers are trees. So I is invalid. II
can be re-written as, Some trees are flowers. This is obvious from the derived conclusion.

Analytical Reasoning
Analytical Reasoning: This chapter consists of group of questions based on a complicated set of
conditions. In this section, a passage full of information is given which creates a puzzle in your
mind. You are required to keep in mind these conditions, understand their relationship with
one another, analyze the given information in a suitable form and answer the questions asked.

Q-Directions to solve 1-5 : Read the following information carefully and then answer the
questions given below it:
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family

(ii) There are two married couples among them
(iii) C is the mother of A and F
(iv) E is the father of D
(v) A is the grandson of B
(vi) The total number of female members in the family is three
Solution: On the basis of the information given for the questions, we get the family tree as
under:
Relationship Male Female

Grand Parents E B
Parents D C
Children A F
Practice Exercise - Solved
1. How is F related to A?
A. Brother B. Daughter C. Mother D. None of these

ANSWER: Option D F is the sister of A.
2. How is B related to F?
A. Sister B. Grandmother C. Wife D. Data inadequate
ANSWER: Option B B is the grandmother of F.
3.Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?

A. E-F B. B-D C. E-B D. A-F
ANSWER : Option C E -B is one of the married couples.
4. Who is the wife of E?
A.B B.C C.F D. Data inadequate
ANSWER : Option A B is the wife of E.
5. Which of the following is a group of female members?
A. BDE B. AFB C. DCF D.BCF
ANSWER : Option D The group of persons BCF, is a female group.
Q-Directions to solve 6-10 : Read the following information carefully and then answer the
Six members of a family A, B, C, D, E and F are Psychologist, Manager, Advocate, Jeweller,

Doctor and Engineer but not in the same order.
(i) Doctor is the grandfather of F and he is a psychologist
(ii) Manager D is married to A
(iii) C, who is a Jeweller, is married to Advocate
(iv) B is the mother of F and E
(v) There are two married couples in the family
Solution: According to the information given, there are two married couples in the family. One
of the two pairs is D (Manager) – A (Doctor) and another would be C (Jeweller) – B (Advocate).

E and F would be either of the brother or sister but their sex is unknown. And finally we have
the three generations’ relationship as under.
Grandparents 1st generation A (Doctor) D (Manager)

Parents 2nd generation C (Jeweller) B (Advocate)
Children 3rd generation F (Psychologist) E (Engineer)
6. What is the profession of A?
A. Manager B. Engineer C. Advocate D. None of these
ANSWER : Option D A is a Doctor by profession.
7. What is the profession of E?
A. Manager B. Psychologist C. Engineer D. Doctor
ANSWER : Option C E is an Engineer by profession
8. How is A related to E?
A. Father B. Grandmother C. Wife D. Grandfather
ANSWER : Option D
A is a the grandfather of E
9. How many male members are there in the family?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D. Cannot be determined
ANSWER : Option D
Since sex of F and E cannot be determined, male members in the family cannot be determined.
10. Who are the two couples in the family?

A.AD and CB B.AB and CD C.AE and DE D.AC and BD
ANSWER : Option A
Two couples in the family are AD and CB.
Q-Directions to solve 11-14: Read the following information carefully and then answer the
In a family of six, there are three men L, M and N and three women R, S and T. The six persons
are Architect, Lawyer, CA, Professor, Doctor and Engineer by profession but not in the same
order.
(i) There are two married couples and two unmarried persons
(ii) N is not R’s husband
(iii) The Doctor is married to a Lawyer. R’s grandfather is a Professor
(iv) M is neither L’s son, nor he is an Architect or a Professor
(v) The Lawyer is T’s daughter-in-law.
(vi) N is T’s son and the Engineer’s father
(vii) L is married to the CA
Solution: Professor is the grandfather of R therefore, R will be in third generation and

professor will be in the first generation. Now it is given that Doctor is married to lawyer and
lawyer is T’s daughter-in-law. From here it is clear that one of the married couples is Doctor-
Lawyer and is in the second generation. T is the wife of the professor in the first generation.
From the information (ii) and (Vii), we conclude that married couples are L – T and N – R and
the final family tree is as follows:
Grandparents 1st generation L (Professor) T (C.A.)

Parents 2nd generation N (Doctor) S (Lawyer)
Children 3rd generation R (Architect) M (Engineer)
11. Who is an Architect?
A.R B.M C.N D.L

ANSWER : Option A
R is the Architect.
12.Which among the following is the correct pair of married couples?

A.LS and NT B.LR and NM C.LT and NS D.SM and NR
ANSWER : Option C
Married couples are LT and NS.
13. How T is related to M?
A. Mother B. Grandmother C. Wife D. Daughter
ANSWER : Option B
T is the grandmother of M.
14. Who among the following are two unmarried persons?

A.L,S B.L,M C.L,T D.R,M
ANSWER : Option D
R and M are unmarried persons.
(i) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are residing in the same apartment

(ii) Out of six persons, three are Judges, one Painter and one Dramatist
In the group, there are two married couples. No male member in the group is a Painter
(iii)
or a Dramatist
(iv) U is in his old age and he lives with his married son R
Among the three Judges, husband of S, with whom his old aged father lives, earns
(v)
more than T, who in turn gets more pay than Q

(vi) The wife of one of the Judges is a Dramatist
(vii) The Painter earns less than her husband, who in turn earns the least among the Judges.
(viii) The Dramatist earns least in the group
Ranking Married Pairs

R – Judge R – S (Dramatist)
T – Judge
Q – Judge Q – P (Painter)
P – Painter
S – Dramatist
U-Judge
15. Who among the following gets the highest salary?
A.P B.Q C.R D.S
ANSWER : Option C
R gets the highest salary.

16. Which of the following is one of the married couple?
A.PT B.QS C.RS D.PR
ANSWER : Option C
RS is one of the married pairs.

17. Which of the following is a pair of female members in the group?
A.PQ B.QR C.RS D.PS
ANSWER : Option D
P S is the pair of females.

18. Who is the Dramatist in the group?
A.P B.R C.S D.None of these

ANSWER : Option C
S is the Dramatist in the group

19. Who is the husband of Dramatist?
A.U B.Q C.T D.R
ANSWER : Option D
R is the husband of S (Dramatist).
20.Who is unmarried Judge in the group?
A.Q B.T C.R D.None of these

ANSWER : Option C T is the unmarried Judge.
Practice Exercise-1
(i) There is a family of six members A, B, C, D, E and F

There are two married couples in the family and the family members represent three
(ii)
generations.
Each member has a distinct choice of a colour amongst Green, Yellow, Black, Red, White
(iii)
and Pink.
(iv) No lady member likes either Green or White
(v) C, who likes Black colour, is the daughter-in-law of E
(vi) B is the brother of F and son of D and like Pink
(vii) A is the grandmother of F and F does not like Red
(viii) The husband has a choice for green colour, his wife likes Yellow.
1. Which of the following is the colour preference of A?

A. Red B. Yellow C. Either Yellow or Red D. Cannot be determined
2.Which of the following is the colour combination of one of the couples?

A. Yellow –Red B. Green-Black C. Red-Yellow D. Yellow-Green
3.Which of the following is one of the married couples?

A.CD B.DA C.AC D. None of these
4.Which of the following is true about F?

A. Brother of B B. Sister of B C. Either sister or brother of B D. Daughter of C
Practice Exercise-2

(i) There is a family of six persons representing three generations
(ii) There are two married couples and both the wives are housewives
(iii) Pratap, the Lawyer, is father of Prashant and has one grandchild
(iv) Pooja, the Doctor, is the sister of the Teacher
(v) Madhu’s daughter-in-law Sumati is married to a Teacher
(vi) Bindu, grand-daughter of one of the housewives is studying in 9th standard.Doctor.
1.What is the profession of Prashant?

A. Student B. Teacher C. Lawyer D. None of these
2.Who among the following is one of the married couples?
A.Pratap-Bindu B. Madhu-Pratap C. Prashant-Bindu D. Cannot be determined
3.How many male members are there in the family?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D. Cannot be determined
4.Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The Doctor is the sister-in-law of the house wife

B. Pratap has two grand children
C. Sumati has one son and one daughter
D. Prashant has two children
5.Who are the children of Madhu?
A. Pooja and Prashant B. Sumati and Pooja
C. Prashant and Sumati D.Cannot be determined
(i) A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family

(ii) There are two married couples among them
(iii) C is the mother of A and F
(iv) E is the father of D
(v) A is the grandson of B
(vi) The total number of female members in the family is three
6. How is F related to A?
A.Brother B.Daughter C.son D.None of these
7. How is B related to F?
A.sister B.grandmother C.wife D.data inadequate

8. Which of the following pairs is one of the married couples?
A.E-F B.B-D C.E-B D.A-F
9. Who is the wife of E?
A.B B.C C.F D.Data inadequate

10. Which of the following is a group of female members?
A.BDE B.AFB C.DCF D.BCF
Q-Directions to solve 11-15: Read the following information carefully and then answer
the questions given below it:
A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a club. Each of them plays a different game of

(i)
Carrom, Chess, Cards, Table Tennis, Badminton and Volleyball
(ii) D plays Chess and is married to B
(iii) One out of two couples in the group plays Cards and Table-Tennis
(iv) No lady plays either Badminton or Volleyball or Chess
(v) C plays Volleyball and F plays Badminton
(vi) A is the brother of F
11. How is F related to E?

A.Brother B.Uncle C.Father D.Brother-in-
law
12. Who plays Table-Tennis?

A.C B.D C.A D.None of these
13. How many male members are there in the group?

14. Which of the following pairs is a couple?
A.AE B.BE C.BF D.DE
15. Which game does B play?
A.Table-Tennis B.Chess C.Carrom D.data inadequate
In a family of six person, there are people from three generations. Each person has
(i) separate profession and also they like different colours. There are two couples in the
family.
(ii) Mohan is a CA and his wife is neither a Doctor nor likes Green colour
(iii) Engineer likes Red colour and his wife is a Teacher
(iv) Mohini is mother-in-law of Savita and she likes the Orange colour
(v) Deepak is grandfather of Titu, and Titu, who is a principal, like the Black colour
Neeru is the granddaughter of Mohini and she likes blue colour. Nerru’s mother likes
(vi)
the White colour
16. Who is an Engineer?
A.Mohini B.Savita C.Neeru D.Deepak

17. How many ladies are there in the family?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.None of these
18. Which of the following is the correct pair of two couples?

A. Deepak-Mohini and Mohan-Neeru B. Mohan-Savita and Titu-Neeru C.
Mohini-Deepak and Mohan-Savita D.None of these
19. Which colour is liked by CA?

A.Green B.White C.Either Green or White D.Cannot be determined
20. What is the profession of Savita?

A.Doctor B.Teacher C.Engineer D.cannot be determined
Answer Key:
1.B 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.D 7.B 8.C 9.A 10.D
11.D 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.D 18.C 19.D 20.D

Logical Venn Diagram
The main aim of this section is to test your ability about the relation between some items of a
group by diagrams. In these questions some figures of circles and some words are given. You
have to choose a figure which represents the given words.
Example 1:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Paper, Stationery and Ink ?

A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option A
Paper and Ink are different from one another but both these belong to stationery.
Example 2:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teacher, Men and Women
?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option D
Men and Women are different from each other but some men may be teachers and some
women may be teachers.
Example 3:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Oil, Wick and Lamp ?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option D

Oil and Wick are different from each other but they both are used in lamp.
Example 4:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Football, Player and Field ?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option C
Football, Players and Field all are different.
Example 5:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Sweets, Rasagulla and
Apple ?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option A
Rasagulla is one of the sweets while apple is different from these.
Example 6:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Mammal, Cow and Bat ?
A. B.

C. D.
Answer: Option B
Cow and Bat are different from each other but both are mammal.
Example 7:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between dogs, pet animals and
animals ?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option C
Some dogs are pet animals but dogs and pet both are animals.
Example 8:
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Sailor, Ship and Ocean ?
A. B.
C. D.
Answer: Option B
As ship is in the ocean in the same way sailor is in the ship.
Example 9:

In the following diagram the boys who are athletic and are disciplined are indicated by which
number?
A. 1 B. 2
C. 10 D. 6
Answer: Option B The required number is 2.
Example 10:
In an organization of pollution control board, engineers are represented by a circle, legal

experts by a square and environmentalist by a triangle. Who is most represented in the board
as shown in the following figure ?
A. Environmentalists
B. Legal Experts
C. Engineers with legal background
D. Environmentalists with Engineering background
Answer: Option D Environmentalists with Engineering background is most represented in the

board.
Example 11:

In the following figure triangle represents 'girls', square players and circle-coach. Which part of
the diagram represents the girls who are player but not coach?
A. P B. Q
C. R D. S
Answer: Option B Q part of the figure represents those girls who are players but not coach.
Example 12:
The diagram given below represents those students who play Cricket, Football and Kabaddi.
Study the diagram and identify the students who play all the three games.
A. P+Q+R B. V+T
C. S+T+V D. S
Answer: Option D S indicates those students who play all three games.
Example 13:
In the figure given below, square represents doctors, triangle represents ladies and circle
represents surgeon. By which letter the ladies who doctor and surgeon both are represented ?

A. U B. T
C. S D. P
Answer: Option B T indicates those ladies which are both doctor and surgeon
Example 14:
Study the diagram and identify the people who can speak only one language.
A. L+M+O B. K+J+I
C. K D. I
Answer: Option B
The regions represented by the letters K, J and I denote such people who can speak only one
language.
Example 15:
In the given figure if Triangle represents healthy people, Square represents old persons and
Circle represents men then What is the number of those men who are healthy but not old ?
A. 3 B. 4

C. 6 D. 2
Answer: Option D 2 is the number of those men who are healthy but not old.
Q- Directions to Solve 16-20
In the following figure small square represents the persons who know English, triangle to those
who know Marathi, big square to those who know Telugu and circle to those who know Hindi.
In the different regions of the figures from 1 to 12 are given.
Example 16:
How many persons can speak English and Hindi both the languages only ?
A. 5 B. 8
C. 7 D. 18
Answer: Option A Number of persons who can speak English and Hindi both only is 5.
Example 17:
How many persons can speak Marathi and Telugu both ?
A. 10 B. 11
C. 13 D. None of these
Answer: Option C 6 + 7 = 13.
Example 18:

How many persons can speak only English ?
A. 9 B. 12
C. 7 D. 19
Answer: Option B Number of persons were can speak English is 12.
Example 19:
How many persons can speak English, Hindi and Telugu ?
A. 8 B. 2
C. 7 D. None of these
Answer: Option B Number of persons who can speak English, Hindi and Telugu is 2.
Example 20:
How many persons can speak all the languages ?
A. 1 B. 8
C. 2 D. None
Answer: Option D There is no such person who can speak all the languages.

1.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Teacher, Parents and
Guardians ?
A. B.
C. D.
2.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Gold, Metal and Zinc ?
A. B.
C. D.
3.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Professors, Doctors and
Men ?
A. B.
C. D.
4.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Ass, Pet and Horse ?
A. B.
C. D.
5.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Page, Chapter and Book
?

A. B.
C. D.
6.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Parents, Mother and
Father ?
A. B.
C. D.
7.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Men, Rodents and Living
beings ?
A. B.
C. D.
8.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Elephants, Wolves and
Animals ?
A. B.
C. D.
Q-Directions to solve 9-13: Study the diagram given below and answer each of the following
questions.

9.How many persons who take tea and wine but not coffee ?
A. 20 B. 17
C. 25 D. 15
10.How many persons are there who take both tea and coffee but not wine ?
A. 22 B. 17
C. 7 D. 20
11.How many persons take wine ?
A. 100 B. 82
C. 92 D. 122
12.How many persons are there who takes only coffee ?

A. 90 B. 45
C. 25 D. 20
13.How many persons takes all the three ?
A. 20 B. 17
C. 25 D. 15
Q-Directions to solve 14-18: Study the diagram given below and answer each of the following
questions.

14.How many doctors are neither artists nor players ?
A. 17 B. 5
C. 10 D. 30
15.How many doctors are both players and artists ?
A. 22 B. 8
C. 3 D. 30
16.How many artists are players ?
A. 5 B. 8
C. 25 D. 16
17.How many players are neither artists nor doctors ?

A. 25 B. 17
C. 5 D. 10
18.How many artists are neither players nor doctors ?
A. 10 B. 17
C. 30 D. 15
Q-Directions to solve 19-20: I In the following diagram rectangle represents men, Triangle
represents educated, Circle represents urban and square represents government employees.
19.Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban ?
A. 9 B. 5
C. 4 D. 11
20.Which one of the following represents a woman who is urban as well as government
employee ?

A. 7 B. 13
C. 10 D. 6
Answer Key:
1.B 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.C
11.D 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.C 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.C

Practice Exercise -2
1.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Adult, Singer and
Children ?
A. B.
C. D.
2.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Engineers, Patients and
Doctors ?
A. B.
C. D.
3.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Walrus, Aquatic and
Manatees ?
A. B.
C. D.

4.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Lupins, Lentils and
Legumes ?
A. B.
C. D.
5.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Sea, Arctic and Atlantic ?
A. B.
C. D.
6.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Rabi-Crop, Paddy and
Wheat ?
A. B.
C. D.
7.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Tall man, Black haired
people and Indians ?
A. B.
C. D.
8.Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Class, Blackboard and
School ?

A. B.
C. D.
Q- Directions to Solve 9-13: Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.
9.If hospital management requires only married trained nurses for operation theater, which
part of diagram should be chosen by him ?
A. 7 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6
10.By which number, married but untrained nurses in the hospital are represented?
A. 4 B. 6
C. 7 D. 5
11.By which numbers trained nurses are represented ?
A. 3, 6 B. 7, 5
C. 5, 6 D. 1, 5
12.What is represented by the number 7 ?
A. Married nurses in the hospital
B. Trained nurses
C. Unmarried trained nurses
D. Married trained nurses
13.By which number, the trained unmarried nurses in the hospital are represented ?

A. 6 B. 5
C. 7 D. 4
14.How many educated people are employed ?

A. 9 B. 18
C. 20 D. 15
15.How many backward people are educated ?
A. 9 B. 28
C. 14 D. 6
16.How many backward uneducated people are employed ?
A. 14 B. 5
C. 7 D. 11
17.How many backward people are not educated ?
A. 3 B. 14
C. 22 D. 25
18.By which letter, the married teachers who live in joint family are represented ?

A. R B. Q
C. S D. P
19.By which letter, the married people who live in joint family but not are school teachers are
represented ?
A. R B. U
C. S D. P
20.By which letter, the people who live in joint family but are neither married nor teachers are
represented ?
A. T B. R
C. Q D. S
Answer key
1.C 2.C 3.D 4.D 5.A 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.C
11.C 12.A 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.A

Analogy Test

Analogy means similarity. In this type of questions, two objects related in some way are given and third
object is also given with four or five alternatives. You have to find out which one of the alternatives
bears the same relation with the third objects as first and second objects are related.
Example 1:
Curd : Milk :: Shoe : ?
(A) Leather (B) Cloth
(C) Jute (D) Silver
Answer: Option A
As curd is made from milk similarly shoe is made from leather.
Example 2:
ABC : ZYX :: CBA : ?
(A) XYZ (B) BCA
(C) YZX (D) ZXY
Answer: Option A
CBA is the reverse of ABC similarly XYZ is the reverse of ZYX.
Example 3:
4 : 18 :: 6 : ?
(A) 32 (B) 38
(C) 11 (D) 37
Answer: Option B
As, (4)2 + 2 =18

Similarly, (6)2 + 2 = 38.
Example 4:
Ornithologist : Bird :: Archealogist : ?
A) Islands B) Mediators
C) Archealogy D) Aquatic
Answer: Option C
As Ornithologist is a specialist of Birds similarly Archealogist is a specialist of Archealogy.
Example 5:
REASON : SFBTPO :: THINK : ?
A)SGHMJ B)UIJOL
C)UHNKI D)UJKPM
Answer: Option B
Example 6:
QIOK : MMKO :: YAWC : ?

A)UESG B)USGA
C)VUES D)SUEG
Answer: Option A
Example 7:
14 : 9 :: 26 : ?
A)12 B)13
C)31 D)15
Answer: Option D
14 = (2 x 9 - 4)
26 = (2 x 15 - 4)
? = 15
Example 8:
123 : 132 :: 235 : ?
A)232 B)352
C) 253 D)252
Answer: Option C

As, 123 → 132
As, 235 → 253
Example 9:
Glove : Hand ::
A)Neck:Collar B)Tie:Shirt
C)Socks:Feet D)Coat:Pocket
Answer: Option C
As Glove is worn in Hands similarly

Socks are worn on feet.
Example 10:
Arc : Circle ::
A)Number : Count
B)Fraction:Percentage
C)Pie:slice
D)Segment : Line
Answer: Option D
As Arc is a part of Circle similarly

segment is a part of line.
Example 11:
Apple, Grape, Orange
A. Vegetable B. Fruits

C. Stems D. Oats
Answer: Option B
Apple, Grape and Orange all these are fruits.
Example 12:
Pathology, Cardiology, Radiology, Ophthalmology
A. Biology B. Hematology
C. Zoology D. Geology
Answer: Option B
As all terms given in the question are medical terms and Hematology is also medical term.
Example 13:
Basic, Pascal, Fortran
A. Cobol B. Bhopal
C. Calculator D. Cyclotron
Answer: Option A
These are all the languages of computer.
Example 14:
Wrestling, Karate, Boxing
A. Pole-vault B. Swimming
C. Judo D. Polo

Answer: Option C
These are all defensive games.
Example 15:
Arid, Parched, Droughty
A. Draft B. Earth
C. Dry D. Cow
Answer: Option C
The synonym of arid, parched and droughty is dry.
Example 16:
Indolence' is related to 'Work' in the same way as 'Taciturn' is related to:
A. Cheat B. Act
C. Speak D. Observe
Answer: Option C
As 'Indolence' and 'Work' are opposite to each other in the same way 'Taciturn' and 'speak' are opposite
to each other.
Example 17:
'Jade' is related to 'Green' in the same way as 'Garnet' is related to:
A. Red B. Blue
C. Orange D. Yellow

Answer: Option A
'Jade' is a 'green' precious stone in the same way 'Garnet' is a 'red' precious stone.
Example 18:
'Forest' is related to 'Viviparium' in the same way as 'sea' is related to:
A. Port site B. Water
C. Fishery D. Aquarium
Answer: Option D
As 'Forest' and 'Viviparium' have the same meaning in the same 'Sea' and 'Aquarium' have the same
meaning.
Example 19:
'Metal' is related to 'Conduction' in the same way as 'Plastic' is related to:
A. Ground oil chemistry B. Industry
C. Inflammability D. Insulation
Answer: Option C
As 'Conduction' is the property found in 'Metal' in the same way 'Inflammability' is the property found in
'Plastic'.
Example 20:
'Rabbit' is related to 'Burrow' in the same way as 'Lunatic' is related to:
A. Prison B. Cell
C. Barrack D. Asylum

Answer: Option D
As the dwelling place of 'Rabbit' is 'Burrow' in the same way the dwelling place of 'Lunatic' is 'Asylum'.
Example 21:
Sea' is related to 'Ship' in the same way as 'Road' is related to:
A. Traffic B. Travellers
C. Journey D. Bus
Answer: Option D
As the means of transport in 'Sea' is 'Ship', similarly the means of transport on 'Road' is 'Bus'.
Example 22:
'Kathak' is related to 'U.P' in the same way as 'Odyssey' is related to:
A. Assam B. Kerala
C. Orissa D. Gujarat
Answer: Option C
As 'Kathak' is common in 'U.P' in the same way 'Odyssey' is common in 'orissa'.

1. Poles : Magnet :: ? : Battery

A.energy B.power C.terminals D.cells
2. Peace : Chaos :: Creation : ?

A.manufacture B.destruction C.build D.construction
3. Architect : Building :: Sculptor : ?

A. museum B.statue C.chisel D.stone
4. Oceans : Deserts : : Waves : ?

A.dust B.sand dunes C.ripples D.sea
5. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ?

A.string B.heap C.collection D.bundle
6. Horse : Mare ::
A.fox :vixen B.duck :geese C.dog :puppy D.donkey :pony
7. Cricket : Pitch ::
A.ship : dock B.boat : harbour C. boxing : ring D.wrestling : track
8. Cube is related to Square in the same way as Square is related to

A.plane B.triangle C.line D.point
9. Bank is related to Money in the same way as Transport is related to

A.traffic B.goods C.speed D.road
10. Fan is related to Wings in the same way as Wheel is related to

A.round B.air C.spokes D.cars
11. fox : cunning :: rabbit : ?

A.courageous B.dangerous C.timid D.ferocious

12. flexible : rigid :: confidence : ?
A.diffidence B.indifference C.cowardice D.scare
13. necklace : adornment :: ?
A.metal : decoration B.bronze : medal C.scarf : dress D.window : house
14. Drummer is related to Orchestra in the same way as Minister is related to

A.voter B.constituency C.department D.cabinet
15. Appreciation is related to Reward in the same way as Disgrace is related to

A.crime B.guilt C.allegation D.punishment
16. Firm is related to Flabby in the same way as Piquant is related to

A.bland B.salty C.pleasant D.small
17. Radical is related to Moderate in the same way as Revolution is related to

A.change B.chaos C.peace D.reformation
18. Pituitary : Brain : : Thymus : ?

A.larynx B.spinal cord C.throat D.chest
19. Blunt : Sharp : : Sow : ?

A.water B.crow C.farm D.reap
20. Amnesia : Memory : : Paralysis : ?

A.movement B.limbs C.handicapped D.legs
Answer Key:
1.C 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.B 10.C 11.A
12.A 13.A 14.D 15.D 16.A 17.C 18.D 19.D 20.A

1. 25 : 37 :: 49 : ?
A.41 B.65 C.56 D.60
2. K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

A.10/18 B.11/19 C.10/8 D.9/10
3. 68 : 130 :: ? : 350
A.220 B.224 C.222 D.226
4. 61 : 121 :: ? : 337
A.211 B.222 C.220 D.240
5.27 : 125 :: 64 : ?
A.162 B.216 C.517 D.273
6. BEGK : ADFJ :: PSVY : ?

A.ROUX B.ORUX C.LQUT D.LOQT
7. AZBY : CXDW :: EVFU : ?

A.GTHS B.GHTS C.GSTH D.TGSH
8. ACEG : IKMO :: QSUW : ?

A.YZCE B.YACD C.YACE D.YBCE
9. BCFG : HILM :: NORQ : ?

A.TXWU B.TXUW C.TUXW D.TVWX
10. ZRYQ : KCJB :: PWOV : ?

A.GBHA B.ISJT C.ELDK D.EOFP
Q-Directions for 11-15: In each of the questions below , choose the group of words that shows the same
relationship as given in every question.

11. Mouth : Teeth : Chew
A.eyes : lashes : see B.head : brain : think C.skin : sweat : touch D.feet : dance : toe
12. Mountain : Height : Climber

A.river : length : water B.land : farmer : crop C.college : building : student D.sea : depth : diver
13.Talk : Whisper : shout

A. Boredom : Tiredness : rest B.Touch : hold : embrace C.see : look : watch D.create : form : make
14.Play : win : lose

A.accident : death : survive B.examination : success : determination C.read : book : magazine
D.music : dance : art
15.Complexion : white : black

A.alert : intelligent : babies B.health : disease : hospital C.train : bus : journey D.officer : honest :
corrupt
Q-Directions for 16-20 : In the following questions , choose the option which shows common feature in
the relationship given in each question?
16.Slap : hit :kick

A.each has one vowel only B.they are the ways of striking a person C.they are exercises D.the
terms used in wrestling
17.Opium : Resin : Rubber

A.they are sticky B.they are used in narcotic drugs C.they are imported D.they are obtained from
fluids of trees and plants
18.Blunder : Bungle : Jumble

A.they are mistakes that cannot be remedied B.the terms are used for unskillful handling C.the
terms are connected with fury D.they mean sudden arrival
19.Fraction : decimal : ratio

A.they are part of a number B.the terms are connected with equations C.the terms are
connected with mathematics D.they show relationship between numbers
20.Konark : Madurai : Khajuraho

A.they are famous for their temples B.they were totally destroyed by invaders C.they have some
of the very famous forts D.they were capitals of hindu kings in ancient times

Answer Key
1.B 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.C 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.B 19.C 20.A
Classification

Classification is a process of grouping various objects on the basis of their common properties.
Classification therefore helps to make a homogeneous group from a large heterogeneous group.
Example 1:
Choose the word which is different from the rest.
A. Chicken B. Snake
C. Swan D. Crocodile
E. Frog
Answer: Option A
All except Chicken can live in water.
Example 2:
A. Kiwi B. Eagle
C. Emu D. Ostrich
Answer: Option B
All except Eagle are flightless birds.
Example 3:

A. Rigveda B. Yajurveda
C. Atharvaveda D. Ayurveda
E. Samveda
Answer: Option D
All except Ayurveda are names of holy scriptures, the four Vedas. Ayurveda is a branch of medicine.
Example 4:
A. Cot B. Sheet
C. Quilt D. Pillow
E. Blanket
Answer: Option A
All except Cot are parts of bed-spread.
Example 5:
A. Assassinate B. Kill
C. Kidnap D. Stab
E. Murder
Answer: Option C

All except Kidnap are actions of killing.
Example 6:
Choose the odd one out.
A. HSRI B. MVUN
C. OLKP D. PJQX
E. WDCX
Answer : Option D
In all other groups, first and fourth letters are consecutive, while second and third letters are in reverse
alphabetical order.
Example 7:
A. YDWB B. TKRI
C. QNOM D. HLFJ
E. WFUD
Answer: Option C
In all other groups, first and second letters-are moved two steps backward to obtain third and fourth
letters respectively.
Example 8:
A. BdEg B. KmNp

C. PrSu D. TwXz
Answer: Option D
In all other groups, the second, third and fourth letters are respectively two, one and two steps ahead of
the first, second and third letters respectively.
Example 9:
A. OUSF B. PIGS
C. TEPJ D. XLPA
Answer: Option A
This is the only group containing two vowels.
Example 10:
A. ABDG B. IJLO
C. MNPS D. RSUY
E. PQSV
Answer: Option D
In all other groups, the first, second and third letters are respectively moved one, two and three steps
forward to give the second, third and fourth letters respectively.
Example 11:
Choose the pair in which the words are differently related from the rest.
A. Shirt : Dress

B. Boy : Girl
C. Mango: Fruit
D. Table: Furniture
Answer: Option B
In all other pairs, second denotes the class to which the first belongs.
Example 12:
A. Scalpel : Surgeon
B. Chisel : Soldier
C. Awl : Cobbler
D. Knife : Chef
Answer: Option B
In all other pairs, first is a tool used by the second.
Example 13:
A. Pelican : Reptile
B. Gnu : Antelope
C. Elk : Deer
D. Shark : Fish
Answer: Option A

In all other pairs, first is a type of the second.
Example 14:
A. Malaria : Protozoa
B. Yeast: Fungi
C. Typhoid : Bacteria
D. Polio : Virus
Answer: Option B
In all other pairs, first is the disease caused by the second.
Example 15:
A. Twigs : Nest
B. Wood : Furniture
C. Pitcher : Pottery
D. Gold : Ornaments
Answer: Option C
In all other pairs, first is the material used to make the second.
Example 16:
Choose the pair which does not belong to the group.
A.3:8 B.6:35 C.7:50 D.1:0 E.9:80
Answer : Option C
In other numbers second number is one less than the square of first number
Example 17:
A.1:2 B.3:28 C.4:65 D.2:7 E.5:126

Answer : Option D
Second number is one more than the cube of the first number
Example 18:
A.22:42 B.4:6 C.11:20 D.5:14 E.9:16
Answer : Option D
First number is one more than the half of the second number
Example 19:
A.21:24 B.28:32 C.14:16 D.70:80 E.54:62
Answer : Option E
The ratio among the numbers is 7:8
Example 20:
A.6:23 B.3:11 C.1:3 D.8:31 E.5:18
Answer : Option E
Second number is one less than the four times the first number

Q- Choose the word which is different from the rest.

1. A.gangtok B.singhbhum C.hyderabad D.chennai E.bhubaneshwar
2.A.turtle B.lamb C.colt D.bitch E.farrow
3.A.raid B.attack C.assault D.defence E.ambush
4. A.feeling B.joy C.anxiety D.anger E.sorrow
5.A.nanak B.christ C.buddha D.gandhi E.mahavira
6. A.teach B.instruct C.educate D.explain
7. A.veena B.sitar C.drum D.guitar
8. A.gallon B.ton C.quintal D.kilogram
9. A.copper B.silver C.gold D.platinum
10. A.sandstone B.basalt C.granite D.pumice
11.A. Profit : Loss B.Wise : Foolish C.Virtue : Vice D.Seduce : Attract
12. A.Death : Disease B.Milk : Butter C.Grape : Wine D.Water : Oxygen
13.A. Metal : Ore B.Ghee : Milk C.Gasoline : Petroleum D.Soil : Earth
14. A.Pyroheliometer : Radiation B.Calorimeter : Heat C.Planimeter : Area D.Barometer :

Humidity
15. A.Taiwan : Taipei B.China : Mongolia C.Iran : Teheran D.Japan : Tokyo

16. A.OTP B.ABA C.SZX D.UVB E.YQR
17. A.FAA B.OFF C.ATT D.IFF E.EPP

18. A.DW B.HS C.MN D.GT E.KO
19.A.BYX B.LPO C.EVU D.FUT E.IRQ
20.A.AOT B.CPA C.REB D.TIW E.QUD
Answer Key
1.B 2.D 3.D 4.A 5.D 6.B 7.C 8.A 9.A 10.A
11.D 12.A 13.D 14.D 15.B 16.B 17.A 18.E 19.B 20.B

Q-Choose the odd one out.

1. A. ABBC B.PQQR C.HIIJ D.WYYZ E.KLLM
2.A. BCYZ B.EFVW C.HIUV D.JKQR E.ABZA
3. A. CegI B.FhjL C.PrtV D.KnpR E.UwyA
4.A. AGZX B.BDYW C.EGVT D.GITR E.CEUS
5. A.AEFJ B.EHIL C.KOPT D.UYZD
6. A.Sahara : Africa B.Thar : India C.Kalahari : America D.Gobi : Mongolia
7. A.Mulder : Proteins B.Curie : Radium C.Bacquerel : Radioactivity D.Einstein : Television
8. A.Venus : Shukra B.Uranus : Indra C.Mars : Mangal D.Saturn : Budha
9. A. Army : General B.Team : Captain C.Crache : Infant D.Meeting : Chairman
10. A.Broad : Wide B.Light : Heavy C.Tiny : Small D.Big : Large
11. A.Debit B.Deposit C.Deduction D.withdrawl
12. A.Ball B.Specter C.Globe D.Sphere
13. A.Echo B.Resonance C.Tone D.ear
14. A.Island B.Coast C.Peninsula D.Oasis
15. A.Epicentre B.Seismology C.Crater D.Richter Scale
16. A.6: 26 B.11 : 46 C.9 :40 D.16 : 66 E.12 : 50
17.A. 9 : 80 B. 1 : 0 C.6 : 35 D.12 : 143 E.10: 91
18. A. 1:4 B.10:24 C.8:18 D.22:46 E.50:102
19. A. 5:9 B. 7: 11 C. 13: 17 D.29:31 E.17:19
20. A. 147 : 741 B.253 : 352 C.518 : 816 D.303: 303 E.419 : 914
21. A.4 B.8 C.16 D.9 E.25
22. A.125 B.216 C.27 D.121 E.1

23.A.426 B.369 C.279 D.159 E.819
24.26 B.124 C.728 D.64 E.215
25. A. 385 B.572 C.671 D.264 E.427
Answer key
1.D 2.C 3.D 4.E 5.B 6.C 7.D 8.D 9.C 10.B
11.B 12.B 13.D 14.D 15.C 16.C 17.E 18.B 19.A 20.C
21.B 22.D 23.D 24.D 25.E

Coding -Decoding

Coding is a method of transmitting a message from one place to the other place. Decoding is the
ability to decipher a certain code.
In these types of questions , certain code values are assigned to a word or a group of words and
you have to find out the original words.
1. FORWARD ORDER OF LETTERS
A B C D E F G H I J K L M
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
2. REVERSE ORDER OF LETTERS
26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14
13 12 11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1

Solved Examples
Example 1:
In a certain code language "TEARS" is written as "UGDVX", then "SMILE" would be written as:
A.TOLPJ B.TOLNG C.TOJPJ D.TOKNH
Answer: Option A
Movement of letters is +1, +2, +3, +4, +5
Therefore, SMILE TOLPJ
Example 2:
In a certain code language STUDENT is written as TUTDNES. How will SOURCES be written in that code
language?
A.SOURCES B.SUORECS C.SRUOCES D.SOURSEC
Answer: Option B
There are 7 letters in the word
The middle letter has been left intact
The first and the last letters of the word have interchanged their position. Similarly, the second and the
third letters and the fifth and sixth letters have interchanged their position.
Example 3:
According to a military code, SYSTEM is SYSMET and NEARER is AENRER. What is the code for FRACTION
?
A.CARFTINO B.CARFTION C.ARFCNOIT D.CARFNOIT
Answer: Option D
The first half and the second half of the word are separately reversed to obtain the code.
Example 4:
If in a code language, COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGIN is written as LZQFHM, how will

MOULDING be written in that code ?
A.CHMFINTK B.LNKTCHMF C.LNTKCHMF D.NITKHCMF
Answer: Option C
Each letter in the word is moved one step backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code
Example 5:
If FRIEND is coded as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written in that code ?
A.EDRIRL B.DCQHQK C.ESJFME D.DEQJQM
Answer: Option A
The first, second, third, fourth, fifth and sixth letters of the word are respectively moved two, three,
four, five, six and seven steps forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
Example 6:
If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the
code for SEARCH ?
A.246173 B.214673 C.214763 D.216473
Answer: Option B
The alphabets are coded as shown :
R-6 , O-8 , S-2 , E- 1
C-7 , H-3 , A-4 , I-5, R-6
P-9 , R-6 , E-1 , A-4 , C-7 , H-3
So, in SEARCH,
S is coded as 2,
E as 1,
A as 4,
R as 6,
C as 7,
H as 3.
Thus, the code for SEARCH is 214673

Example 7:
If Z = 52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to
A.39 B.41 C.44 D.46
Answer: Option D
In the given code, A = 2, B = 4, C = 6,.... , Z = 52.
So, ACT = 2 + 6 + 40 = 48 and
BAT = 4 + 2 + 40 = 46
Example8:
If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181, how can COBRA be written?
A.302181 B.3152181 C.31822151 D.1182153
Answer: Option B
Take A=1, B=2, C=3, ..., Z=26.
ZEBRA --> Z/E/B/R/A --> 26/5/2/18/1 --> 2652181.
COBRA --> C/O/B/R/A --> 3/15/2/18/1 --> 3152181.
Example 9:
If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language?
A.25430 B.29530 C.25413 D.24153
Answer : Option D.
The letters are coded accordingly P as 2, E as 4, A as 1, R as 5 and L as 3. So PEARL is coded as 24153.
Example 10:
If wall is called window, window is called door, door is called floor, floor is callled roof and roof is callled
ventilator, what will a person stand on ?
A.window B.wall C.floor D.roof
Answer: Option D
A person will stand on the 'floor' and 'floor' is called 'roof'.
So, a person will stand on the 'roof'.
Example 11:
If green means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means orange and orange means green,

what is the colour of clean sky ?
A.blue B.green C.yellow D.orange
Answer: Option D
The colour of clean sky is 'blue' and as given, 'blue' means 'orange'.
so, the colour of clear sky is 'Orange'.
Example 12:
If train is called bus, bus is called tractor, tractor is called car, car is called scooter, scooter is called
bicycle, bicycle is called moped, which is used to plough a field ?
A.train B.bus C.tractor D.car
Answer: Option D
A 'tractor' is used to plough a field. But a 'tractor' is called 'car'.
So, a 'car' will be used to plough the field.
Example 13:
If air is called green , green is called blue, blue is called sky, sky is called yellow, yellow is called water
and water is called pink, then what is the color of clear sky ?
A.blue B.sky C.yellow D.water
Answer: Option B
The colour of clear sky is 'blue' and as given, 'blue' is called 'sky'.
So, the colour of clear sky is 'sky'.
Example 14:
If clock is called television, television is called radio, radio is called oven, oven is called grinder and
grinder is called iron, in what will a lady bake ?
A.radio B.oven C.grinder D.iron
Answer : Option C
The lady will bake with the help of oven and oven is coded as grinder.
So, the answer will be grinder.
Example 15:
If rat is called dog, dog is called mongoose, mangoose is called lion, lion is called snake and snake is

called elephant, which is reared as pet ?
A.rat B.dog C.mongoose D.lion
Answer : Option C
The dog is reared as pet animal and dog is coded as mongoose.
So, the answer is mongoose.
Example 16:
If in a certain code language, 'oka peru' means 'fine cloth' ; 'meta lisa' means 'clear water' and 'dona lisa
peru' means 'fine clear weather' , which word in that language means 'weather' ?
A.peru B.oka C.meta D.dona
Answer: Option D
In the first and third statements, the common code word is 'peru' and the common word is 'fine'.
So, 'peru' means 'fine'. In the second and third statement , the common word is ‘lisa ‘ and the common
word is ‘clear’ . So, ‘lisa ‘ means ‘ clear’. So the code for the word ‘weather’ is ‘dona’.
Example 17:
In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit na som’ means ‘bring me water’
(B) ‘na jo tod’ means ‘water is life’
(C) ‘tub od pit’ means 'give me toy’
(D) ‘jo lin kot’ means ‘life and death’
Which of the following represents 'is' in that language ?
A.jo B.na C.tod D.lin
Answer: Option C
In statements A and B, the common code word is 'na' and the common word is 'water'.
So, 'na' means 'water'. In statements B and D, the common code word is 'jo' and the common word is
'life'. So, 'jo' means 'life'. Thus, in statements B, 'tod' represents 'is'.
Example 18:
In a certain code language,
(A) ‘pit dar na’ means ‘you are good’

(B) ‘dar tok pa’ means ‘good and bad’
(C) ‘tim na tok’ means 'they are bad’
In that language, which word stands for 'they' ?
A.na B.tok C.tim D.pit
Answer: Option C
In the first and third statements, the common word is 'na' and the common word is 'are'.
So, 'na' means 'are'. In the second and third statements, the common code word is 'tok' and the
common word is 'bad'. So, 'tok' means 'bad'. Thus, in the third statements, 'tim' stands for 'they'.
Example 19:
In a certain code language, 'dom put ta' means 'bring hot food';
'put tir sop' means 'food is good' and
'tak da sop' means 'good bright boy'.
Which of the following does mean 'hot' in that language ?
A.dom B.pul C.ta D.cannot be determined
Answer: Option D
We can find the code for 'food' form the first and second statements.
Now, to find the code for 'hot',
we need to the code for 'bring' which cannot be determined from the given information.
Example 20:
In a certain code, '247' means 'spread red carpet' ; '256' means 'dust one carpet' and '236' means 'one
red carpet'. Which digit in that code means 'dust' ?
A.2 B.3 C.5 D.6
Answer: Option C
In the first and second statements, the common code digit is '2' and the common word is 'carpet'.
So, '2' means 'carpet'. In the second and third statements, the common code digit is '6' and the common
word is 'one'. So, '6' means 'one'. Therefore, in the second statement, '5' means 'dust'.

Directions for questions 1 to 5: In each of the questions , certain code values are assigned to a word
and you have to find out the code which will be used for the given word, from the given options.
1. In a certain code , PAINTER is written as NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as
A.PCYQMN B.PGYQMN C.PGYUMP D.PGYUPM
2. If NUMERICAL is written MVLFQJBBK, then how would ASTROLOGY be written in this code?
A.BRSTMNNHX B.ZTSSNMNHX C.ZTUSPMPEZ D.BRSSNKNHX
3. If MENTAL is written LNDFMOSUZBKM, then how would TEST be written in that code?
A.UVFGTIIV B.RSCDQRRS C.SUDFQRSM D.SUDFRTSU
4. If IMPORT is written USPQNJ, then how will CAPITAL be written in this code?
A.MBUJQBD B.KZSHOZB C.MUBJBDQ D.MBQJUBD
5.NUMBER is OTNAFQ , THEN STUDENT IS
A.TSVCDMU B.TUVEFOU C.RUVCFMS D.TSVCFMU
Directions for questions for 6 to 10 :In these types of questions , either numerical code values are
assigned to a word or alphabetical code values are assigned to the numbers . You have to analyse the
code as per directions.
6. If in a certain language , A is coded as 1, B is coded as 2 and so on. How will FADCCBM coded in that
code ?
A.61433213 B.13233416 C.6243313 D.51433123
7. If in a certain code BEAUTIFUL is coded as 573041208, BUTTER as 504479, how is FUTURE coded in
that code?
A.201497 B.204097 C.704092 D.204079

8 If in a certain code , 5 is coded as Z, 7 as E , 2 as S, 9 as T and 4 as W. How is 977452 coded in that
code?
A.SEEWZT B.TEEWZS C.ZEEWST D.WEEZST
9 If in a certain code, 98602 is coded as MANGO, 0139867 as GERMANY , then how is 9868013 coded as
A.MANEGER B.MENEGER C.MENAGAR D.MANAGER
10 If TOWER is coded as 81, what will be the code number for POWER?
A.75 B.55 C.18 D.77
Directions for questions for 11 to 15: In these types of questions , some particular objects are assigned
code names and then a question is asked , that is to be answered in the code language.
11. If ‘’paper’’ is called ‘’eraser’’, ‘’eraser’’ is called ‘’bag’’ , ‘’bag is called ‘’scale’’ , ‘’scale is called
‘’pencil’’ and ‘’pencil is called ‘’paper’’, what will a person write with
A.Pencil B.paper C.eraser D.bag
12. If cushion is called pillow, pillow is called mat, mat is called bedsheet and bedsheet is called cover,
which will be spread on the floor ?
A.cover B.bedsheet C.mat D.pillow
13. If ‘’pen’’ is called ‘’pencil’’, ‘’pencil’’ is called ‘’scale’’, ‘’scale’’ is called ‘’bag’’ and ‘’bag ‘’ is called
‘’books’’, which is used to carry the books
A.scale B.pen C.book D.bag
14. If ‘’air ‘’ is called ‘’water’’, ‘’water is called ‘’green’’, ‘’green’’ is called ‘’dust’’, ‘’dust ‘’ is called
‘’yellow’’, and ‘’yellow’’ is called ‘’ cloud’’, which of the following does fish live in
A.air B.water C.green D.dust
15. If ‘’rain’’ is called ‘’pink’’, ‘’pink’’ is called ‘’cloud’’, ‘’cloud’’ is called ‘’water’’, ‘’water ‘’ is called
‘’breeze’’ and ‘’breeze is called ‘’moon’’, what do you wash your hands with
A.water B.rain C.breeze D.moon
Directions for questions for 16 to 20-:In these types of questions , few complete messages are given in
the coded language and the code for a particular word or sentence is asked.

16. In a certain code language, ‘’col tip mot’’ means ‘’singing is appreciable’’ , ‘’mot baj min’’ means ‘’
dancing is good’’ and ‘’tip nop baj’’ means ‘’singing and dancing’’, which of the following means ‘’ good ‘’
in that code language?
A.mot B.min C.baj D.cannot be determined
17. In a certain code, ‘’down sky’’ is wriiten ‘’zoc pun’’ and ‘’on top sky’’ is wriiten ‘’pun ta rop’’, how will
‘’down on’’ be written in that code?
A.zoc ta B.pun rop C.rop zoc D.Cannot be determined
18. In a certain code language , ‘’dom pul ta’’ means ‘’bring hot food’’, ‘’pul tir sop’’ means ‘’food is
good’’ and ‘’tak da sop’’ means ‘’good bright boy’’. Which of the following does mean ‘’hot’’ in that
language?
A.dom B.pul C.ta D.cannot be determined
19. In a certain code language, ‘’pul tir fin’’ means ‘’good sweet fruit’’, ‘’tie dip sig’’ means ’’beautiful
red rose’’ ,’’sig lon fin’’ means ‘’rose and fruit’’.Which of the following does stand for ‘’and’’ in that
language?
A.pul B.tir C.lon D.sig
20. In a certain code language, ‘’pul ta nop ‘’ means’’ fruit is good’’, ‘’nop ko tir’’ means’’ tree is tall’’ and
‘’pul ho sop’’ means ‘’eat good food’’ Which of the following does mean ‘’fruit’’ in that language
A.pul B.ta C.nop D.Data inadequate
Directions for questions for 21 to 25: In these types of questions , few complete messages are given in
the coded language and the code for a particular word or sentence is asked.
21. In a certain code language, ‘’246’’ means’’he is cool’’ , ‘’653’’ means’’ cool and bright’’ and 849
means ‘’india is hot’’. Then code for ‘’is ‘’ would be
A.2 B.6 C.4 D.8
22. In a certain code language, 123 means ‘’hot filter coffee’’ , 356 means ‘’very hot day’’ and 589 means
‘’day and night’’. Then code for ‘’very’’ is
A.8 B.6 C.9 D.5
23. In a certain code 721 means ‘’good college life’’, 526 means ‘’ you are good’’ and 257 means ‘’ life
are good ‘’. Then code for ‘’you ‘’ is
A.6 B.5 C.7 D.cannot be determined

24. In a certain code 357 means ‘’get me toy’’, 843 means ‘’bring good toy’’ and 746 means ‘’bring me
water’’. then code for ‘’good’’ is
25. In a certain code 786 means ‘’bring me apple’’, 958 means ‘’ peel green apple’’ and 645 means
‘’bring green fruit’’ .then code for ‘’me ‘’ is
A.8 B.6 C.7 D.none of these
ANSWER KEY-
1. C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.D
6.A 7.B 8.B 9.D 10.D
11.B 12.B 13.C 14.C 15.C
16.B 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.B
21.C 22.B 23.A 24.C 25.C

Directions for 1-8: In the following questions, some capital alphabets are written in a row, below them
their coding have been given. Now in questions a particular word has been coded in a particular manner
using codes as given below the capital letters. You have to understand the pattern of coding and have to
answer the question asked subsequently.
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQR S TUVWXYZ
ua2vbw3 t4 xsy5z 6 c d 8 7 erh 9 Ipq
1.If DASH is 2 a 8 4 , then SMASH is

A.75u7t B.eya84 C.8zqe3 D.8zqe4
2.If BAFFLE is aat4cx , then DANGER is

A.vacx49 B.vacxh9 C.vacxhi D.vacxhr
3.If FASHION is z64t7uw , then POSITION is

A.z64e476c B.z64e47c6 C.c674e46z D.c674e4z6
4.If MAIDEN is u5v4zb, then DANGER is

A.vuz3b8 B.8b3zuv C.uv3z8b D.uv3zb8

5.If DEER is vw8 and TOSS is e6e , then DOTT is
A.v6r B.bce C.bcr D.vr6
6. If MAIDEN is yux2b6 , then FIBRES is

A.b428w8 B.b4288w C.b42dbe D.b42bde
7.If MAY is yzqaiq, then TIE is

A.7rtxwv B.7rtxvw C.7rtxbw D.7rtxwb
8.If LONDON is 5c62z5, then EUROPE is

A.wh7cdw B.wh7z6v C.br76cb D.wh76cb
Directions for 9-18: In column I, some words are given. In column II, their codes are given but they are
not arranged in the same order in which they are in column I. Study the letters in both columns and find
out the code to the letter given in each of the questions that follow.
Column I Column II
1. BID A.nnrw
2.BAT B.emps
3.BAD C.lwz
4.CHEAP D.aejmnq
5.HILL E.kms
6.PORK F.emrvx
7.QUOTE G.ehqr
8.ROSE H.iotx
9.VEX I.aceenoww
10.WAVE J.elu
11.NAMELY K.befms
12.FAMILIAR L.moty
13.HAZY M.elz
14.VAGUE N.dfmtu
9. B
A.l B.u C.e D.z
10. C
A.e B.z C.v D.p

11.D
A.e B.z C.u D.b
12.F
A.r B.f C.w D.c
13.G
A.a B.c C.b D.j
14.H
A.t B.r C.l D.s
15.A
A.r B.t C.s D.e
16.K
A.h B.j C.i D.k
17.M
A.b B.a C.c D.d
18.Z
A.h B.g C.f D.l
Answer Key
1.C 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.A 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A

Logical Alphabets, Number and Time Sequence Tests

In this chapter we have tried to incorporate those questions which are simple and easily comprehensible
The importance of such types of questions cannot be over-emphasized as their presence in a test of
reasoning is almost certain. Though no explanations are required as how to attempt these questions in
exams, yet we are giving below all varieties of such questions with explanatory solutions.
Example 1:
Arrange the given words in the alphabetical Order and choose the one that comes first.
A. Science B. Scrutiny C. Scripture D. Scramble E. Script
Answer: Option A
If we arrange all the five words in the order which they occupy in dictionary, we get their order of
positions as -Science, Scramble, Script, Scripture, Scrutiny . We find that the word Science comes first.
Example 2:
In the following question, arrange the given names in the order in which they would occur in a
telephone directory and choose the one which appears in the middle.
A. Subramaniam B. Subramanyam C. Subhramaniam D. Subhrmanyam E. Subramniam
Answer: Option A
positions as - Subhramaniam, Subhrmanyam, Subramaniam, Subramanyam, Subramniam .
We find that the word Subramaniam comes in the middle.

Example 3:
In the following question, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the
dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
1.Pestle 2.Pestilence 3.Pester 4.Pest 5.Pessimist
A. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 C. 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 D. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3
Answer : Option A
positions as – Pessimist, Pest, Pester, Pestilence, Pestle
Example 4:
If the words in the sentence, "She showed several sample snaps" are rearranged in the
alphabetical order, which will be the middle word ?

A. snaps B. sample C. several D. showed E. she
Answer: Option E
positions as - sample, several, she, showed, snaps. We find that the word she comes in the middle.
Example 5:
Arrange the given words in Alphabetical Order and tick the once that comes last.
Options:
A. Determination B. Destitute C. Detergent D. Definite E. Distance
Answer: Option E
positions as - Definite, Destitute, Determination, Distance. We find that the word Distance comes last.
Example 6:
Arrange the given words in Alphabetical Order and tick the once that comes at the se cond
place.
A. Fault B. Fantasy C. Finger D. Fascinate E. Fanaticism
Answer: Option B

positions as - Fanaticism, Fantasy, Fascinate, Fault, Finger. We find that the word Fantasy comes at the
second place.
Example 7:
How many letters are there in the word 'CREATIVE' which have as many letters between them
in the word as in the alphabet ?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None of these
Answer : Option C
Letters in the word Letters in the alphabet

CRE CDE
ATIVE ABCDE
TIV TUV
Example 8:
How many independent words can 'HEARTLESS' be divided into without changing the order of
the letters and using each letter only once ?

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. Can't be so divided
Answer: Option B .
The words are HE, ART and LESS.
Example 9:
Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two. Which of the
following series observes this rule ?

A. MPSVYBE B. QSVYZCF C. SVZCGJN D. ZCGKMPR
Answer: Option A
M NO P QR S TU V WX Y ZA B CD E
2 2 2 2 2 2
Example 10:
Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series are multiples of 3. Which
of the following series observes this rule ?

A. AELPZ B. GKOTZ C. LORUX D. DHLPU
Answer : Option A
A BCD E FGHIJK L MNO P QRSTUV Z

WXY
3 6 3 9
Example 11:
The following question is based on the following alphabet series.
In the English alphabet, which letter will be to the immediate left of M ?

A. N B. L C. O D. K E. None of these
Answer: Option B
Clearly, L is the letter to the immediate left of M.
Example 12:
Which letter is sixteenth to the right of the letter which is fourth to the left of I ?
A. S B. T C. U D. V E. Y
Answer: Option C
Clearly, the fourth letter to the left of I is E. The sixteenth letter to the right of E is U.
Example 13:

Which letter is seventh to the right of the eighteenth letter from the right end of the
alphabet ?
A. K B. O C. P D. R E. None of these
Answer: Option C
Counting from the right in the given alphabet series i.e. from Z, the eighteenth letter
is I.
The seventh letter to the right of I is P.
Example 14:
Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of
the given alphabet is reversed ?

A. D B. E C. F D. I E. None of these
Answer: Option B
The new alphabet series is :

M L K J I H G F E D C B A
The ninth letter from the right is R.

The ninth letter to the left of R is E.
Example 15:
If every alternate letter starting from B is deleted from the given alphabet, which of the
following will be the tenth letter from the right end ?

A. G B. D C. Q D. H E. None of these

Answer: Option A
The new alphabet series is :

A C E G I K M O Q S U W Y
The tenth letter from the right is G.
Example 16.
In the following list of letters, how many O's are followed by Q's but not preceded by D's ?
D O Q O D Q O D O DQDO Q D S D Q P
O Q D S S S D O Q O Q D O Q D D D O Q
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3
Answer: Option C
D O Q O D Q O D O DQDO Q D S D Q P O
Q D S S S D O Q O Q D O Q D D D O Q
Example 17:
In the following question, a group of letters is given wh ich are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that
combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.
C E L S M U
1 2 3 4 5 6
A. 4, 6, 3, 5, 2, 1 B. 5, 6, 4, 1, 3, 2 C. 4, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1 D. 5, 2, 3, 1, 6, 4
Answer: Option B
If we arrange all the six letters in the order to make a meaningful word , then we get the word MUSCLE
Example 18:
Which is the third number to the left of the number which is exactly in t he middle of the
following sequence of numbers
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 2 4 6 8 9 7 5 3 1 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7

Answer: Option B
There are 27 numbers in the given sequence.
So, middle number = 14th number = 9.

Clearly, the third number to the left of this 9 is 4.
Example 19:
Thirty six vehicles are parked in a parking lot in a single row. After the first car, there is one
scooter. After the second car, there are two scooters. After the third car, there are three
scooters and so on. Work out the number of scooters in the second half of the row.
A. 10 B. 12 C. 15 D. 17
Answer: Option C
Let C and S denote car and scooter respectively.

Then, the sequence of parking is
C S C S S C S S S C S S S S C S S S|S S C S S S S S S C S S S S S S S C
The above sequence has been divided into two equal halves by a line.
Clearly, numbers of scooters in second half of the row = 15.
Example 20:
In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Run, 2 stands for Stop, 3 stands for Go,
4 stands for Sit and 5 stands for Wait. If the sequence were continued, which instruction will
come next ? 4 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3 1 4 5 3 1 2 4 5 4 5 3 4 5 3
A. Wait B. Sit C. Go D. Stop E. Run
Answer: Option E
The given sequence may be analysed as under :

4 / 45 / 453 / 4531 / 45312 / 45 / 453 / 453
Following the above sequence, the next number is 1 which stands for 'Run'.

Example 21:
In a queue, Amrita is 10th from the front while Mukul is 25th from behind and Mamta is just in
the middle of the two. If there be 50 persons in the queue. What position does Mamta occupy
from the front ?
A. 20th B. 19th C. 18th D. 17th
Answer: Option C
Number of persons between Amrita and Mukul = 50 - (10 + 25) = 15. Since Mamta lies in middle of
these 15 persons, so Mamta`s position is 8th from Amrita i.e. 18th from the front.
Example 22:
In a row of girls, Shilpa is eighth from the left and Reena is seventeenth from the right. If they
interchange their positions, Shilpa becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are there
in the row ?
Answer: Option E
Since Shilpa and Reena interchange position, so Shilpa's new position is the same as
Reena's earlier position. This position is 14th from the left (Shilpa's new position) and
17th from the right (Reena's earlier position). Number of girls in the row = (13 + 1 +
16) = 30.
Example 23:
Kailash remembers that his brother Deepak`s birthday falls after 20th May but before 28th
May, while Geeta remembers that Deepak`s birthday falls before 22nd May but after 12th
May. On what date Deepak`s birthday falls ?
A. 20th May B. 21st May C. 22nd May D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
Answer: Option B
According to Kailash, Deepak`s birthday falls on onev of the day among 21st, 22nd, 23rd, 24th, 25th,
26th, and 27th May. According to Geeta, Deepak`s birthday falls on one of the days among 13th, 14th,
15th, 16th, 17th, 18th, 19th, 20th, and 21st May. The day common to both the groups is 21st May. .'.
Deepak`s birthday falls in 21st May.

Example 24:
Reaching the place of meeting on Tuesday 15 minutes before 08.30 hours, Anuj found himself
half an hour earlier than the man who was 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time of
the meeting?
A. 8.00 hrs B. 8.05 hrs C. 8.15 hrs D. 8.45 hrs
Answer: Option B
Anuj reached the place at 0815 hours. Clearly, the man who was 40 minutes late would reach the
place at 8.45 a.m. So, the scheduled time of meeting was at 08.05 hours.
Example 25:
A monkey climbs 30 feet before at the beginning of each hour and rests for a while when he
slips back 20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins
his ascent at 8.00 a.m, at what time will he first touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground ?
A. 4 p.m. B. 5 p.m. C. 6 p.m. D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Clearly, the monkey climbs 10 feet in one hour. SO, it will climb upto a height of 90 feet in 9 hours i.e.
at 5.00 p.m. It will then ascend a height of 30 feet in the next hour too . It touches the peak at 6.00
p.m.
1.In the following question, arrange the given names in the order in which they would occur in
a telephone directory and choose the one which appears in the middle.
A. Mohammad B. Mohammed C. Muhammad D. Muhammed E. Mohummad
.
2.In the following question, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the
dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
1.Page 2.Pagan 3.Palisade 4.Pageant 5.Palate
A. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 B. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5 C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3

3. If the first five words in the sentence, "Meeta's mother meets me many times" are
rearranged in the alphabetical order, which will be the middle word ?
A. Meeta B. mother C. meets D. me E. many
4. Arrange the given words in Alphabetical Order and tick the once that comes last.
A. Hamper B. Hesitate C. Hectic D. Hunter E. Hollow
5. Arrange the given words in Alphabetical Order and tick the once that comes at the second
place.
A. Niger B. Narcotic C. Ninth D. Nemises E. Never
6. Arrange the given words Alphabetical Order and choose the one that comes first.
A. Grammar B. Granary C. Gradient D. Grand E. Granule
7. How many pairs of letter are there in the word 'BUCKET' which have as many letters
between them in the word as in the alphabet ?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. More than four
8. If any two letters in the word 'PRISON' have as many letters between them in the word as
there are in the English alphabet, they form an alpha-pair. How many such alpha-pairs are
there in the word 'PRISON' ?

A. Nil B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. More than 3
9. From the word 'LAPAROSCOPY', how many independent meaningful words can be made
without changing the order of the letters and using each letter only once ?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. More than 4
10.Which letter in the word 'SELFRIGHTEOUSNESS' does not change its position when the
letters are reversed ?
A. E B. G C. H D. T
11. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is odd.
Which of the following series observes this rule ?

A. BDHLR B. FIMRX C. EIMQV D. MPRUX
12. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal
space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

A. HKNGSW B. RVZDFG C. RVZDHL D. SUXADF
13. Number of letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are consecutive
even numbers. Which of the following series observes this rule ?

A. CDFIM B. ADIPY C. GIMSZ D. DFJPX
14. Number of lettters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series increases by one.
Which of the following series observes this rule ?

A. CPTOV B. HCFKP C. HJHQV D. IKNRW
15. Number of the letters skipped in between adjacent letters of the ser ies starting from
behind are decreased by one. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
A. OIGDC B. OMJFA C. OMKIG D. ONLKJ
16. Which of the following series observes the rule, "Skip in between adjacent letters,
increasing one letter more each time to build a set of letters" ?

A. ACFJLQ B. BDGKPV C. CEHLQV D. HILPPUZ
17. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series decreases by one.
Which of the following series is observing the rule ?

A. BGKNPR B. CINRTU C. EJNQST D. LQUXAP
18. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is in the order of 1 2 , 2 2 ,
3 2 .Which of the following series observes the rule given above ?

A. CEJT B. EGLO C. EGLP D. RTWZ
19. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters decrease in order.
A. AGMRV B. HNSWA C. NSXCH D. SYDHK
20. In which of the following letter sequences, there is a letter leaving two letters of the
alphabet in order, after the letters placed at odd-numbered positions and leaving one letter of
the alphabet in order at even-numbered positions ?

A. ADFIKN B. BEGJLN C. CFHKLO D. DFIKNP
Answer key

1.E 2.C 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.E 9.B 10.D
11.A 12.C 13.B 14.D 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.A 19.D 20.A
1. The following question is based on the following alphabet series.
Which letter is exactly midway between H and S in the given alphabet ?

A. L B. M C. N D. O E. No such letter

Which alphabet comes immediately before the sixth alphabet from the left extreme of the
given alphabets ?
A. E B. F C. G D. U E. V
3. The following question is based on the The following question is based on the following
alphabet series.
Which letter is the seventh to the right of the thirteenth letter from your left ?
A. S B. T C. U D. V E. None of these
Which letter will be the sixth to the right of the eleventh letter from the right end of the
alphabet ?
A. K B. V C. J D. U E. None of these
If the above alphabet are divided in two equal halves from A to M and N to Z, which lett er in
the later half would be corresponding to the letter J ?

A. Q B. V C. X D. W E. None of these

Which letter is midway between 22nd letter from the left and 21st letter from the right ?

A. L B. M C. O D. P E. None of these
If the above alphabet is written in the reverse order, which will be the eight letter to the right
of O ?
A. F B. G C. V D. W E. None of these
If the above alphabet are written in the reverse order, which letter will be twelfth to the left of
the sixteenth letter from your left ?

A. D B. V C. W D. X E. None of these
Write the above English alphabet in reverse order. First cancel every second letter and then
select that letter which divides the remaining letters of the alphabet in two equal parts. This
letter is :
A. L B. M C. N D. P E. None of these
If the alphabet is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting with Y is
dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabet?
A. M B. N C. O D. M or O E. None of these

In the given alphabet, starting from the fifth letter from the left, if twelve letters are written in
reverse order, then which letter will be the seventh to the left of the fourteenth letter from
the right ?
A. H B. L C. M D. N E. None of these
If the first and second letters interchange their positions and similarly the third and the fourth
letters, the fifth and the sixth letters and so on, which letter will be the seventeenth from your
right ?
A. F B. H C. I D. J E. None of these
If every alternate letter starting from B of the given alphabet is written in small letters, rest all
are written in capital letters, how will the month of 'September' be written ?
A. SEpteMbeR B. SEptembER C. sePTemBeR D. SEptEMbEr E. None of these
If the alternate letters in the given alphabet starting from A are written in small and rest all in
capital letters, which of the following will represent the third month after July?
A. OCTOBER B. OCtObEr C. oCtObEr D. ocToBeR E. None of these

If every even letter beginning from B is replaced by odd number beginning with 3, which
letter/number will be the third to the right of the tenth number/letter counting from your
right ?
A. M B. S C. 11 D. 23 E. None of these
Which is the letter as far from the first letter of the alphabet given below as the letter C is
from the letter midway between K and R in 'QUICKSILVER'?

A. C B. D C. F D. J E. V
17. How many A's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by B as well
as immediately precedeed by Z ?
A M B Z A N A A B Z A B A Z B A P Z A B A Z A B
A. Nil B. One C. Two D. Three E. More than three
18. How many T's are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by P
but not imeediately followed b S ?
S T P Q T S P T R P T S R P S T Q P T R P T M P T S
A. None B. One C. Two D. Three E. None of these
19. In the following series, count each N which is immediately followed by X but X is not
immediately followed by T. How many such N's are there ?
N X N T Q M N X T M X N X C N Q M N N X Q N X T X N A M X N X M
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
20. H D Y S M W N B Q P O C R T B L Z V E G U F
Which two neighbours in the given arrangement are farthest in the alphabetical order?
A. B and Q B. D and Y C. U and F D. V and E

Which letter has the same neighbours as in the alphabetical order although they have changed
places?
A. M B. N C. O D. P
Which three letters have the same distance as they have in the alphabetical order although
they have changed places?

A. HMP B. NQZ C. QOE D. YLF
23. In the following question, a group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that
combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, form a meaningful word.
R U S G A
1 2 3 4 5
A. 1, 5, 4, 2, 3 B. 5, 3, 4, 1, 2 C. 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 D. 4, 5, 3, 2, 1
24. Which one word can be formed from the following letters ?
a a b c i l l n o o o r t
A. collapsible B. locomotive C. colourfulness D. collaboration
25. The letter of the word NUMKIPP are in disorder. If they are arranged in proper order, the
name of a vegetable is formed. What is the last letter of the .word so formed ?
A. K B. M C. N D. P E. U
26. If by arranging the letters of the word NABMODINT, the name of a game is formed,
what are the first and the last letters of the word so formed ?
A. B, T B. B, N C. N, D D. A, T E. M, T
27. If a meaningful word can be formed by rearranging the letters USCALA, the first letter of
the word so formed is the answer. If no such word can be formed, the answer is X.?
A. C B. S C. A D. L E. U

28. A meaningful word is made if we take the first, fourth, fifth, seventh, tenth, eleventh and
the twelfth letters of the word 'FELICITATIONS'. Which of the following will be the fifth letter
of that word from the right end of that word ?

A. T B. C C. N D. I E. None of these
29. If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the first, the fourth, the seventh and the
eleventh letters of the word "INTERPRETATION', which of the following will be third letter of
that word ? If more than one such word can be made, give M as the answer and if no such
word can be made, give X as the answer.

A. I B. R C. T D. X E. M
30. Choose one word which can be formed from the letters of the given word.
CONSTANTINOPLE
A. CONTINUE B. CONSCIENCE C. CONSTANCE D. CONTENT
Answer Key
1.E 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.D 6.E 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.B
11.E 12.C 13.D 14.D 15.E 16.D 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.B
21.D 22.D 23.C 24.D 25.C 26.B 27.A 28.B 29.E 30.D
1. How many 3's are there in the following sequence which are neither preceded by 6 nor
immediately followed by 9 ?
9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 1 6 3 9 6 3 9
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None of these

2. How many 3's are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 6 and immediately
followed by 9 ?
9 3 6 6 3 9 5 9 3 7 8 9 1 6 3 9 6 3 9
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. None of these
3. Count each 1 in the following sequence of numbers that is immediately followed by 2, if 2 is
not immediately followed by 3. How many such 1's are there ?
1 2 1 3 4 5 1 2 3 5 2 1 2 6 1 4 5 1 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 1 7 5 2 1 2 5
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7 E. 9
4. In the series : 7 8 9 7 6 5 3 4 2 8 9 7 2 4 5 9 2 9 7 6 4 7
Which figures have equal frequency ?

5. In the following series of numbers, find out how many times, 1, 3 and 7 have appeared
together, 7 being in the middle and 1 and 3 on either side of 7 ?
2 9 7 3 1 7 3 7 7 1 3 3 1 7 3 8 5 7 1 3 7 7 1 7 3 9 0 6
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. More than 5 E. None of these
6. In the series, 6 4 1 2 2 8 7 4 2 1 5 3 8 6 2 1 7 1 4 1 3 2 8 6
How many pairs of alternate numbers have a difference of 2 ?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
7. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately followed by an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even number ?
8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9
A. One B. Three C. Five D. Six E. None of these
8. Series : 5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6
How many even numbers are there in the sequence which are immediately preceded by an odd
number but immediately followed by an even number ?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. More than 4

9. Nitin was counting down from 32. Sumit was counting upwards the numbers starting from 1
and he was calling out only the odd numbers. What common number will they call out at the
same time if they were calling out at the same speed ?
A. 19 B. 21 C. 22 D. They will not call out the same number E. None of these
10. The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine intergers 1 to 9
but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference
between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N ?

A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
11. In a row of trees, one tree is fifth from either end of the row. How many trees are there in
the row ?
A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11
12. Raman ranks sixteenth from the top and forty ninth from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class ?
A. 64 B. 65 C. 66 D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
13. Sanjeev ranks seventh from the top and twenty eight from the bottom in a class. How many
students are there in the class ?
A. 37 B. 36 C. 35 D. 34
14. If Atul finds that he is twelfth from the right in a line of boys and fourth from the left, how
many boys should be added to the line such that there are 28 boys in the line ?
15. Manisha ranked sixteenth from the top and twenty ninth from the bottom among those
who passed an examination. Six boys did not participate in the competition and five failed in it.
How many boys were there in the class ?
A. 40 B. 44 C. 50 D. 55 E. 58
16. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is sitting fourteenth from the left and Q is seventh from
the right. If there are four boys between P and Q, how many boys are there in the row ?
17. Manoj and Sachin are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of
31 students. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class ?
A. 20th and 24th B. 24th and 20th C. 25th and 21st D. 26th and 22nd E. None of these
18. In a row of girls, Rita and Monika occupy the ninth places from the right end and tenth
place from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their places, Rita and Monika occupy

seventeenth places from the right and eighteenth place from the left, respectively. How many
girls are there in the row ?

A. 25 B. 26 C. 27 D. Data inadequate E. None of these
19. In a row of boys, Kapil is eighth from the right and Nikunj is twelfth from the left. When
Kapil and Nikunj interchange positions, Nikunj becomes twenty first from the left. Which of the
following will be Kapil's position from the right ?

A. 8th B. 17th C. 21st D. Canont be determined E. None of these
20. Three persons A, B and C are standing in queue. There are five persons between A and B
and eight persons between B and C. If there are three persons ahead of C and 21 persons
behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue ?

A. 41 B. 40 C. 28 D. 27
21. Sangeeta remembers that her father`s birthday was certainly after eighth but before
thirteenth of December. Her sister Natasha remembers that their father`s birthday was
definitely after ninth but before fourteenth of Decem ber. On which date of December was
their father`s birthday ?
A. 10th B. 11th C. 12th D. Data inadequate E. None of these
22. Standing on a platform, Amit told Sunita that Aligarh was more than ten kilometers but less
than fifteen kilometers from there. Sunita knew that it was more than twelve but less then
fourteen kilometers from there. If both of them were correct, which of t he following could be
the distance of Aligarh from the platform ?
A. 11 km B. 12 km C. 13 km D. 14 km E. 15km
23. Ashish leaves his house at 20 minutes to seven in the morning, reaches Kunal`s house in 25
minutes, they finish their breakfast in another 15 minute and leave for their office which takes
another 35 minutes, At what time do they leave Kunal`s houses to reach their office ?
A. 7.40 a.m. B. 7.20 a.m. C. 7.45 a.m. D. 8.15 a.m. E. 7.55 a.m.
24. The priest told the devotee, "The temple bell is rung at regular intervals of 45 minutes. The
last bell was rung five minutes ago. The next bell is due to be rung at 7.45 a.m." At what time
did the priest give this information to the devotee ?
A. 7.40 a.m. B. 7.05 a.m. C. 7.00 a.m. D. 6.55 a.m. E. None of these

25. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of the week day. Next day he
forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next
day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and
disposed off the matter on the same day i.e. Friday. Which day was the application received by
the inward clerk ?
A. Monday B. Tuesday C. Wednesday D. Earlier week`s Saturday E. None of these
26. There are twenty people working in an office. The first group of five works between 8.00
A.M. and 2.00 P.M. The second group of ten works between 10.00 A.M. and 4.00 P.M. And the
third group of five works between 12 noon and 6.00 P.M. There are three computers in the
office which all the employees frequently use. During which of the following hours the
computers are likely to be used most ?
A. 10.00 A.M. -- 12 noon B. 12 noon -- 2.00 P.M. C. 1.00 P.M. -- 3.00 P.M. D. 2.00 P.M. -- 4.00
P.M.
27. (I). Kamal is available at home from 12 noon to 4 p.m. on Tuesday, Thursday and Sunday.
(II). His younger brother Navin is available at home on Monday, Thursday, Friday and Sunday
between 10 a.m. to 2 p.m.
(III). The eldest brother Rajiv is available between 9 a.m. to 12 noon on Monday, Wednesday
and Thursday and 2 p.m. to 4 p.m. on Friday, Saturday and Sunday.

At a time, on which day of a week all the three brothers are available at home ?
A. None B. Sunday C. Thursday D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
28. If Thursday was the day after the day before yesterday five days ago, what is the least
number of days ago when Sunday was three days before the day after tomorrow ?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
29. If the 25th of August in a year in Thursday, the number of Mondays in that month is
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
30. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which was the last
day of that year ?

A. Monday B. Friday C. Saturday D. Sunday
Answer Key:
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.E 8.C 9.D 10.C
11.B 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.D 16.A 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.C
21.D 22.C 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.B 27.A 28.A 29.C 30.B

Sitting Arrangement
Questions of sitting arrangement are based on a set of information containing certain conditions.
Candidates are required to arrange the objects either in a row or in a circle on the basis of such

conditions. Information given in the question is presented in distorted form to create confusion and to
test candidate’s ability to analyse the information step by step in order to answer the question correctly.
Example 1:
There are five different houses, A to E, in a row. A is to the right of B and E is to the left of C
and right of A. B is to the right of D. Which of the houses is in the middle ?
A. A B. B C. D D. E
Answer: Option A
B is to the right of D. A is to the right of B. E is to the right of A and left of C.
So, the order is : D, B, A, E, C. Clearly, A is in the middle.
Example 2:
Sitting in a row in front of a camera, Mr. X on the left of the person sitting in the centre but is
on the right of Mr. Y. Mr. P is on the right of Mr. Z and Mr. R is on the right of Mr. P. Mr. R is
the second person from the person sitting in the centre. Who is the person sitting in the
centre ?
A. Mr. X B. Mr. Y C. Mr. Z D. Mr. R
Answer: Option C
Mr. X is on the right of Mr. Y and on the left of person in the centre i.e. Y, X, ---
Mr. P is on the right of Mr. Z and Mr. R is on the right of Mr. P i.e. Z, P, R.
R is second from the person sitting in the centre.
So, the order is Y, X, Z, P, R.
Clearly, Z is sitting in the centre.
Example 3:
1. There are seven books one each on Psychology, Hindi, English, Sociology, Economics,
Education and Accountancy, lying on a table one above the other.
2. Sociology is on the top of all the books.
3. Accountancy is immediately below Education which is immediately below Sociology.
4. Economics is immediately above Psychology but not in the middle.
5. Hindi is immediately below Psychology.
Economics is between which of the following books ?

A. Accountancy and Education B. Psychology and Hindi C. English and
Psychology D. Psychology and Sociology E. None of these
Answer: Option C .
Sociology is on top of all books, Education is below Sociology. Accountancy is below

Education.
Economics is above Psychology and Psychology is above Hindi.
Economics is not in the middle. So, in the middle lies the seventh book i.e. English.
Thus, the sequence from top to bottom is :
Sociology, Education, Accountancy, English, Economics, Psychology, Hindi.
Economics is between English and Psychology.
Q: Directions for questions 4-5:

1. Seven books are placed one above the other in a particualr way.
2. History book is placed exactly above Civics book.
3. Geography book is fourth from the bottom and English book is fifth from the top.
4. There are two books in between Civics and Economics books.
Example 4:
How many books are there between Civics and Science books ?
To answer this question, which other extra information is required, if any, from the following
A. There are two books between Geography and Science books. B. There are two books between
Mathematics and Geography books. C. There is one book between English and Science
books. D. The Civics book is before two books above Economics book. E. No other information is
required.
Answer: Option C .
Clearly, the sequence of the five books mentioned, from top to bottom is :
---, History, Civics, Geography, English, Economics, ----
Clearly, (c) gives us the clue that Science book is placed at the bottom.
Thus, we know that there are three books between Civics and Science.
Example 5:

Out of the following, which three books are kept above English books ?
To answer this question, which of the other informations, if any, is required ?
A. The Economics book is between English and Science books. B. There are two books between
English and History books. C. The Geography book is above English book. D. The Science book is
placed at the top. E. No other information is required.
Answer: Option E
Clearly, the sequence of the five books mentioned, from top to bottom is :
---, History, Civics, Geography, English, Economics, ----
Clearly, History, Civics and Geography are three books kept above English.
To find this, no information other than the given ones is required.
Example 6:
Five persons A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row facing you such that D is on the left of C and B
is on the right of E. A is on the right of C and B is on the left of D. If E occupies a corner
position, then who is sitting in the centre ?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
Answer: Option D
D is on the left of C i.e. C, D.

B is on the right of E i.e. B, E.
A is on the right of C i.e. A, C.
B is on the right of D i.e. D, B.
From the above statements, the correct order is : A, C, D, B, E.
Clearly, D is sitting in the centre.
Note : It is given that A, B, C, D, E are sitting facing you. So, your right and left will be
considered as left and right respectively.
Example 7:
A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the
left of A. Who is to the right of P ?
A.A B.X C.S D.Z

Answer: Option B
The seating arrangement is as follows:
Therefore, right of P is X.
Example 8:
A, B, C, D and E are sitting on a bench. A is sitting next to B, C is sitting next to D, D is not sitting with E
who is on the left end of the bench. C is on the second position from the right. A is to the right of B and
E. A and C are sitting together. In which position A is sitting ?
A.between B and D B.Between B and C C.Between E and D D.Between C and E
Answer: Option B
Therefore, A is sitting in between B and C.
Q-Directions for questions 9-12: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the
centre: 1.P is second to the right of T who is the neighbour of R and V. 2.S is not the neighbour of P.3.V is
the neighbour of U.4.Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S.
Example 9:
Which two of the following are not neighbours ?
A.RV B.UV C.RP D.QW
Answer: Option A

Example 10:
Which one is immediate right to the V ?

A.P B.U C.R D.T
Answer: Option D
T is immediate right to the V.
Example 11:
Which of the following is correct ?

A.P is to the immediate right of Q B.R is between U and V C.Q is to the immediate left of W D.U
is between W and S
Answer: Option C

Example 12:What is the position of S ?
A.between U and V B.second to the right of P
C.to the immediate right of W D.data inadequate
Answer: Option C

1.6 Boys are sitting in a circle and facing towards the centre of the circle. Rajeev is sitting to the right of
Mohan but he is not just at the left of Vijay. Suresh is between Babu and Vijay. Ajay is sitting to the left
of Vijay. Who is sitting to the left of Mohan ?
A.Babu B.Vijay C.Rajeev D.Suresh
2.In a shop, the items were arranged in a shelf consisting of six rows. Biscuits are arranged
above the tins of chocolates but below the rows of packets of chips, cakes are at the bottom
and the bottles of peppermints are below the chocolates. The topmost row had the display of
jam bottles. Where exactly are the bottles of peppermints ? Mention the place from the
top.
A. 2nd B. 3rd C. 4th D. 5th
3.Siva, Sathish, Amar and Praveen are playing cards. Amar is to the right of Sathish, who is to the right of
Siva. Who is to the right of Amar ?
A.Siva B.Praveen C.Sathish D.None of these
Q- Directions For Questions 4-6: A. There are five friends. B. They are standing in a row facing
south.C. Jayesh is to the immediate right to Alok. D. Pramod is between Bhagat and Subodh . E. Subodh
is between Jayesh and Pramod.
4. Who is at the extreme left end ?

A.Jayesh B. Subodh C. Alok D. Bhagat
5. Who is in the Middle ?

A. Bhagat B. Subodh C.Jayesh D.Pramod
6. To find the answers to the above questions, which of the given statements can be dispensed with ?
A. None B.A only C.B only D.C only
Q-Directions For questions 7-11: Seven friends Kamal, Manish, Rohit, Amit, Gaurav, Pritam and Priya are
sitting in a circle. Kamal, Manish, Rohit, AMit, Pritam and Priya are sitting at equal distances from each
other. Rohit is sitting two places right of Pritam, who is sitting one place right of Amit. Kamal forms an
angle of 90 degrees from Gaurav and an angle of 120 degrees from Manish. Manish is just opposite Priya
and is sitting on the left of Gaurav.

7. Who is the only person sitting between Rohit and Manish ?
A.Pritam B.Amit C.Gaurav D.Kamla
8. Gaurav is not sitting at equal distance from

A.Manish and Pritam B.Amit and Kamla C.Rohit and Pritam D.All of the Above
9. Gaurav is sitting .............. of Priya.

A.to the left B.two places right C.to the right D.three places left
10. The angle between Gaurav and Manish in the clockwise direction is ?
A.30 degree B.210 degree C.180 degree D.90 degree
11. Which of the following statements is not correct ?

A.Pritam is between Manish and Kamla B.Manish is two places away from Priya
C.Gaurav is sitting opposite Pritam D.All of Above
Q-Directions for questions 12-16: I. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing
east. II. C is on the immediate right of D. III. B is at an extreme end and has E as his neighbour. IV. G is
between E and F. V. D is sitting third from the south end.
12. Who is sitting to the Right of E ?
A.A B.C C.D D.G
13. Which of the following pairs of people are sitting at the extreme ends ?
A.AE B.AB C.CB D.FB
14. Name the person who should change places with C such that he gets the third place from the north
end.
A.G B.F C.D D.A
15. Immediately between which of the following pairs of people D is sitting ?
A.AC B.AF C.CF D.CE
16. Which of the conditions given above are not required to find out the place in which A is sitting ?
A.I B.II C.IV D.All required
Q-Directions For questions 17-21: 2.Eleven students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J and K are sitting in first line
facing to the teacher. D who is just to the left of F, is to the right of C at second place. A is second to the
right of E who is at one end. J is the nearest neighbour of A and B and is to the left of G at third place. H
is next to D to the right and is at the third place to the right of I.
17.Who is just in the middle ?

A.J B.B C.I D.G

18. Which of the following group is sitting to the right of G ?
A.CHDE B.CHDF C.IBJA D.ICHDF
19. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the above sitting arrangements ?
A.There are three students sitting between D and G. B.K is between A and J. C.B is sitting between J
and I. D.G and C are neighbours sitting to the immediate right of H.
20. In the above sitting arrangement, which of the following statements is superfluous ?
A.A B.B C.D D.None
21. If E and D, C and B, A and H and K and F interchange their positions, which of the following pairs of
students is sitting at the ends ?
A.D and E B.D and K C.K and F D.D and A
Q-Directions for Questions 22-26: (i). Eight persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are seated around a square
table two on each side. (ii). There are three lady members and they are not seated next to each
other.(iii). J is between L and F. (iv). G is between I and F. (v). H, a lady member, is second to the left of J.
(vi). F, a member is second is seated opposite E, a lady member. (vii). There is a lady member between F
and I.
22. Who among the following is to the immediate left of F ?

A.G B.I C.J D.H
23. What is true about J and K ?

A.J is male, K is female B.J is female, K is male C.Both are female D.Both are male
24. How many persons are seated between K and F ?

A.1 B.3 C.2 D.4
25. Who among the following are three lady members ?

A.E, H and J B.E, F and G C.E, H and G D.C, H and J
26. Who among the following is seated between E and H ?

A.K B.I C.F D.None of these

27. Four girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Shikha is to the left of Reena. Manju
is to the right of Reena. Rita is between Reena and Manju. Who would be second from the left
in the photograph?
A. Reena B. Shikha C. Manju D. Rita
28. In the Olympic Games, the flags of six nations were flown on the masts in the following
way. The flag of America was to the left of Indian tricolour and to the right of the flag of
France.The flag of Australia was on the right of the Indian flag but was to the left of the flag of
Japan,which was to the left of the flag of China. Find the two flags which are in the centre.
A. Indian and Australia B. Japan and Australia C. America and India D. America and
Australia
29. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
(1) Mr. A sits opposite Mr. C. (2) Miss B sits right to the barber. (3) The washerman is on the
left of the tailor. (4) Miss D sits opposite Mr. C. What are the trades of A and B ?
A. Tailor and Barber B. Tailor and Cook C. Barber and Cook D. Washerman and Cook
Answer Key:
1.A 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.D 9.D 10.A
11.D 12.D 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.C 18.B 19.C 20.D
21.B 22.C 23.D 24.B 25.C 26.A 27.D 28.A 29.B

1. In a March Past, seven persons are standing in a row. Q is standing left to R but right to P. O
is standing right to N and left to P. Similarly, S is standing right to R and left to T. Find out who
is standing in the middle.
A. P B. Q C. R D. O
2. Five children are sitting in a row. S is sitting next to P but not T. K is sitting next R who is
sitting on the extreme left and T is not sitting next to K. Who are sitting adjacent to S ?
A. K and P B. R and P C. Only P D. P and T E. Insufficient Information
3. Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not
adhacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then,
Anuradha is adjacent to whom out of the following ?
A. Rashi B. Sulekha C. Abha D. Monika E. Cannot be determined
4. In a pile of reading material, there are novels, story -books, dramas and comics.
Every novel has a drama next to it, every story-book has a comic next to it and there is no
story-book next to novel. If there be a novel at the top and the number of books be 40, the
order of the books in the pile is

A. nscd B. ndsc C. csdn D. dncs
5. In a pile of 10 books, there are 3 of History, 3 of Hindi, 2 of Mathematics and 2 of English.
Taking from above, there is an English books between a History and Mathematics book, a
History book between a Mathematics and an English book, a Hindi book between an English
and A Mathematics book, a Mathematics book between two Hindi books and two Hindi books
between a Mathematics and a History book. Book of which subject is at the sixth position from
the top ?
A. English B. Hindi C. Mathematics D. History
Q-Directions for questions 6-7: (A). P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a circle facing the centre. (B). R
is immediate left of T. (C). P is between S and T.
6. Who is to the immediate left of R ?

A. P B. Q C. S D. T E. Cannot be determined

7. To find the answer to the above question, which of the following statements can be
dispensed with ?
A. None B. B only C. C only D. B or C only E. None of these
8. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. A is facing D. C is
between A and B. F is between E and A. Who is to the immediate left of B ?
A. A B. C C. D D. E
Q-Directions for questions 9-10: A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing the centre. D is
between F and B. A is second to the left of D and second to the right of E.
9.Who is facing A ?
A. B B. D C. F D. Either F or B E. None of these
10. Who among the following is facing D ?
A. A B. C C. E D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
Q-Directions for questions 11-12: Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle
facing the centre. B is sitting between G and D. H is third to the left of B and second to the
right of A. C is sitting between A and G and B and E are not sitting opposite to each other.
11.Who is third to the left of D ?
A. A B. E C. F D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
12. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
A. C is third to the right of D. B. A is sitting between C and F. C. D and A are sitting opposite of
each other. D. E is sitting between F and D. E. E and C are sitting opposite of each other.
13. A group of eight members sit in a circle. D is between A and F and is opposite to G. E is to
the right of A but on the left of C, whose right hand neighbour is G. B enjoys having H to his
left and F to his right. Find the member, who is diagonally opposite to A.

A. B B. F C. G D. H
Q-Directions for questions 14-18: All the roads of a city are either perpendicular or parallel to
one another. The roads are all straight. Roads A, B, C, D and E are parallel to one another.
Roads G, H, I, J, K, L and M are parallel to one another.
(i). Road A is 1 km east of road B.
(ii). Road B is ½ km west of road C.
(iii). Road D is 1 km west of road E.
(iv). Road G is ½ km south of road H.
(v). Road I is 1 km north of road J.
(vi). Road K is ½ km north of road L.
(vii). Road K is 1 km south of road M.
14.Which is necessarily true ?
A. E and B intersect. B. D is 2 km west of B. C. D is at least 2 km west of A. D. M is 1.5 km north
of L. E. I is 1 km north of L.
15. If E is between B and C, which of the following is false ?
A. D is 2 km west of A. B. C is less than 1.5 km from D. C. Distance from E to B added to distance of
E to C is ½ km. D. E is less than 1 km from A. E. D is less than 1 km from B.
16. If road E is between B and C, then distance between A and D is :
A. ½ km B. 1 km C. 1.5 km D. 1.5 - 2 km E. 2 - 2.5 km
17. Which of the following possibilities would make two roads coincide ?
A. L is ½ km north of I. B. C is 1 km west of D. C. I si ½ km north of K. D. D is ½ km east of
A. E. E and B are ½ km apart.

18. If K is parallel to I and K is ½ km south of J and 1 km north of G. which two roads would
be ½ km apart ?
A. I and K B. J and G C. I and G D. J and H E. K and J
.Answer Key
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.B
11.C 12.D 13.D 14.D 15.B 16.D 17.E 18.E 19. 20.

Logical Arrangement of Words

In this type of question, some words are given. You have to arrange these words in a meaningful order.
The order may be according to age, size and need etc.
Example 1:
Arrange the following words in a meaningful order.
1. Death 2. Marriage 3. Education

4. Birth 5. Funeral
A. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D.4, 3, 2, 1, 5
Answer : Option D
First of all a man is born then he takes education; after this he is married. Then after sometimes he dies.
After death the order is of Funeral. So the correct order is 4, 3, 2, 1 and 5.
Example 2:
Arrange the following words in a logical sequence.
1. Grass 2. Curd 3. Milk

4. Cow 5. Butter
A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 C.4, 1, 3, 2, 5 D.5, 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer : Option C
We know that cow eats grass and then gives milk. With the milk, curd is made and then from curd,
butter is made. Hence logical sequence is Cow, Grass, Milk, Curd, Butter.
Example 3:
Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Key 2. Door 3. Lock
4. Room 5. Switch on
A.5,1,2,4,3 B.4,2,1,5,3 C.1,3,2,4,5 D.1,2,3,5,4
Answer: Option C
The correct order is :

Key Lock Door Room Switch on
1 3 2 4 5
Example 4:
1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence

4. Letters 5. Phrase
A.4,1,5,2,3 B.4,1,3,5,2 C.4,2,5,1,3 D.4,1,5,3,2
Answer: Option D
Letters Word Phrase Sentence Paragraph

4 1 5 3 2
Example 5:
1. Police 2. Punishment 3. Crime
4. Judge 5. Judgement
A.3,1,2,4,5 B.1,2,4,3,5 C.5,4,3,2,1 D.3,1,4,5,2
Answer: Option D
Crime Police Judge Judgement Punishment
3 1 4 5 2

Example 6:
1. Family 2. Community 3. Member
4. Locality 5. Country
A.3,1,2,4,5 B.3,1,2,5,4 C.3,1,4,2,5 D.3,1,4,5,2
Answer: Option A
Member Family Community Locality Country
3 1 2 4 5
Example 7:
1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death
4. Unemployment 5. Disease
A.2,3,4,5,1 B.3,4,2,5,1 C.2,4,1,5,3 D.1,2,3,4,5
Answer: Option C
Population Unemployment Poverty Disease Death
2 4 1 5 3
Example 8:

1. Leaf 2. Fruit 3. Stem
4. Root 5. Flower
A.3,4,5,1,2 B.4,3,1,5,2 C.4,1,3,5,2 D.4,3,1,2,5
Answer: Option B
Root Stem Leaf Flower Fruit

4 3 1 5 2
Example 9:
1. Nation 2. Village 3. City
4. District 5. State
A.2,3,4,5,1 B.2,3,4,1,5 C.1,3,5,4,2 D.1,2,3,4,5
Answer: Option A
Village City District State Nation

2 3 4 5 1
Example 10:
1. Caste 2. Family 3. Newly married Couple

4. Clan 5. Species
A.2,3,1,4,5 B.3,4,5,1,2 C.3,2,1,4,5 D.4,5,3,2,1
Answer: Option C
Newly married Couple Family Caste Clan Species

3 2 1 4 5
Example 11:
1. Cut 2. Put on 3. Mark
4. Measure 5. Tailor
A.3,1,5,4,2 B.2,4,3,1,5 C.1,3,2,4,5 D.4,3,1,5,2
Answer: Option D
Measure Mark Cut Tailor Put on

4 3 1 5 2
Example 12:
1. House 2. Street 3. Room
4. Town 5. District
A.3,2,1,4,5 B.3,1,4,2,5 C.3,1,2,4,5 D.3,1,2,5,4
Answer: Option C
Room House Street Town District

3 1 2 4 5
Example 13:
1. Wall 2. Clay 3. House
4. Room 5. Bricks
A.5,2,1,4,3 B.2,5,4,1,3 C.2,5,1,4,3 D.1,2,3,4,5
Answer: Option C
Clay Bricks Wall Room House

2 5 1 4 3
Example 14:
1. Probation 2. Interview 3. Selection
4. Appointment 5. Advertisement 6. Application
A.5,6,3,2,4,1 B.5,6,4,2,3,1 C.5,6,2,3,4,1 D.6,5,4,2,3,1
Answer: Option C
Advertisement Application Interview Selection Appointment Probation

5 6 2 3 4 1
Example 15:
1. Elephant 2. Cat 3. Mosquito
4. Tiger 5. Whale

A.5,3,1,2,4 B.3,2,4,1,5 C.1,3,5,4,2 D.2,5,1,4,3
Answer: Option B
Mosquito Cat Tiger Elephant Whale

3 2 4 1 5
Example 16:
1. Yarn 2. Plant 3. Saree
4. Cotton 5. Cloth
A.2,4,5,1,3 B.2,4,3,5,1 C.2,4,1,5,3 D.2,4,5,3,1
Answer: Option C
Plant Cotton Yarn Cloth Saree

2 4 1 5 3
Example 17:
1. Infant 2. Old 3. Adult

4. Adolescent 5. Child
A.5,4,3,2,1 B.3,4,2,1,5 C.2,3,4,5,1 D.1,5,4,3,2
Answer: Option D
Infant Child Adolescent Adult Old

1 5 4 3 2

1.Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence.
1. Leaves 2. Branch 3. Flower
4. Tree 5. Fruit
A.4,3,1,2,5 B.4,2,5,1,3 C.4,3,2,1,5 D.4,2,1,3,5
1. Tree 2. Seed 3. Flowers
4. Fruit 5. Plant
A.5,2,1,3,4 B.2,5,1,4,3 C.2,5,1,3,4 D.2,5,3,1,4
1. Protect 2. Pressure 3. Relief
4. Rain 5. Flood
A.2,4,3,1,5 B.2,4,5,1,3 C.2,5,4,1,3 D.3,2,4,5,1
1. Presentation 2. Recommendation 3. Arrival
4. Discussion 5. Introduction
A.5,3,4,1,2 B.3,5,4,2,1 C.3,5,1,4,2 D.5,3,1,2,4
1. Income 2. Status 3. Education

4. Well-being 5. Job
A.3,1,5,2,4 B.1,3,2,5,4 C.1,2,5,3,4 D.3,5,1,2,4
1. Heel 2. Shoulder 3. Skull 4. Neck 5. Knee
6. Chest 7. Thigh 8. Stomach 9. Face 10. Hand
A.3,4,7,9,2,5,8,10,6,1 B.3,9,4,2,10,6,8,7,5,1 C.2,4,7,10,1,5,8,9,6,3 D.4,7,10,1,9,6,2,5,8,3
7. Arrange the words given below in a meaningful sequence
1. Rainbow 2. Rain 3. Sun
4. Happy 5. Child
A.4,2,3,5,1 B.2,3,1,5,4 C.4,5,1,2,3 D.2,1,4,5,3
1. Never 2. Sometimes 3. Generally 4. Seldom 5. Always
A.5,2,1,3,4 B.5,2,4,3,1 C.5,3,2,1,4 D.5,3,2,4,1
1. Index 2. Contents 3. Title 4. Chapters 5. Introduction
A.2,3,4,5,1 B.3,2,5,1,4 C.3,2,5,4,1 D.5,1,4,2,3
1. Table 2. Tree 3. Wood 4. Seed 5. Plant
A.1,2,3,4,5 B.1,3,2,4,5 C.4,5,2,3,1 D.4,5,3,2,1
1. Windows 2. Walls 3. Floor 4. Foundation 5. Roof 6. Room

A.4,1,5,6,2,3 B.4,2,1,5,3,6 C.4,3,5,6,2,1 D.4,5,3,2,1,6
1. Butterfly 2. Cocoon 3. Egg 4. Worm
A.1,3,4,2 B.1,4,3,2 C.2,4,1,3 D.3,4,2,1
1. Rain 2. Monsoon 3. Rescue 4. Flood 5. Shelter 6. Relief
A.1,2,3,4,5,6 B.1,2,4,5,3,6 C.2,1,4,3,5,6 D.4,1,2,3,5,6
1. Milky way 2. Sun 3. Moon 4. Earth 5. Stars
A.1,4,3,2,5 B.2,3,4,5,1 C.3,4,2,5,1 D.4,3,2,5,1
1. Foetus 2. Child 3. Baby 4. Adult 5. Youth
A.1,2,4,3,5 B.1,3,2,5,4 C.2,3,5,4,1 D.5,4,2,3,1
1. Sea 2. Rivulet 3. Ocean 4. River 5. Glacier
A.5,2,1,3,4 B.5,2,4,1,3 C.5,4,2,3,1 D.5,4,3,2,1
1. Doctor 2. Fever 3. Prescribe 4. Diagnose 5. Medicine
A.1,4,3,2,5 B.2,1,3,4,5 C.2,1,4,3,5 D.2,4,3,5,1
1. Reading 2. Composing 3. Writing 4. Printing

A.1,3,2,4 B.2,3,4,1 C.3,1,2,4 D.3,2,4,1
1. Hecto 2. Centi 3. Deca 4. Kilo 5. Deci
A.1,3,4,5,2 B.1,5,3,4,2 C.2,5,3,1,4 D.5,2,1,4,3
1. Honey 2. Flower 3. Bee 4. Wax
A.1,3,4,2 B.2,1,4,3 C.2,3,1,4 D.4,3,2,1
Answer Key
1.D 2.C 3.B 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.C
11.B 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.B 17.C 18.D 19.C 20.C

Data Sufficiency

A typical data sufficiency question contains a problem followed by statements numbered I and II(
sometimes three) containing certain data or information which may be required for solving the
given problem.
In this type of question we are required to determine whether the problem can be solved with the
help of the data provided in the first statement or the second statement. Thus this type of question
judge the candidates ability to determine the information necessary to solve a question.
Q-Directions to solve: In each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question
(D) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question and
(E) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Example 1:
Question: In which year was Rahul born?
Statements:
I. Rahul at present is 25 years younger to his mother.

II. Rahul's brother, who was born in 1964, is 35 years younger to his mother.

Answer: Option E
From both I and II, we find that Rahul is (35 - 25) = 10 years older than his brother, who was born in
1964. So, Rahul was born in 1954.
Example 2:
Question: What will be the total weight of 10 poles, each of the same weight ?
Statements:
I. One-fourth of the weight of each pole is 5 kg.

II. The total weight of three poles is 20 kilograms more than the total weight of two poles.
Answer: Option C
From I, we conclude that weight of each pole = (4x5) kg = 20 kg.
So, total weight of 10 poles = (20 x 10) kg = 200 kg.
From II, we conclude that:
Weight of each pole = (weight of 3 poles) - (weight of 2 poles) = 20 kg.
So, total weight of 10 pojes = (20 x 10) kg = 200 kg.
Example 3:
Question: How many children does M have ?
Statements:
I. H is the only daughter of X who is wife of M.

II. K and J are brothers of M.
Answer: Option D
From I, we conclude that H is the only daughter of M. But this does not indicate that M has no son.
The information given in II is immaterial.
Example 4:
Question: How much was the total sale of the company ?

Statements:
I. The company sold 8000 units of product A each costing Rs. 25.
II. This company has no other product line.
Answer: Option E
From I, total sale of product A = Rs. (8000 x 25) = Rs. 200000.
From II, we know that the company deals only in product A.
This implies that sale of product A is the total sale of the company, which is Rs. 200000.
Example 5:
Question: The last Sunday of March, 2006 fell on which date?
Statements:
I. The first Sunday of that month fell on 5th.

II. The last day of that month was Friday.
Answer: Option C
From I, we conclude that 5th, 12th, 19th and 26th of March, 2006 were Sundays.
So, the last Sunday fell on 26th.
From II, we conclude that 31st March, 2006 was Friday. Thus, 26th March, 2006 was the last Sunday
of the month.
Example 6:
Question: What is the code for 'sky' in the code language ?
Statements:
I. In the code language, 'sky is clear' is written as 'de ra fa'.

II. In the same code language, 'make it clear' is written as 'de ga jo'.
Answer: Option D

The only word common to I and II is 'clear' and as such, only the code for 'clear' can be ascertained
from the given information.
Example 7:
Question: How many children are there between P and Q in a row of children ?
Statements:
I. P is fifteenth from the left in the row.

II. Q is exactly in the middle and there are ten children towards his right.
Answer: Option E
From II, Q being in the middle, there are 10 children to his right as well as to his left. So, Q is 11th
from the left. From I, P is 15th from the left. Thus, from both I and II, we conclude that there are 3
children between P and Q.
Example 8:
Question: How is T related to K?
Statements:
I. R's sister J has married Ts brother L, who is the only son of his parents.
II. K is the only daughter of L and J.
Answer: Option E
From I, we know that L is T's brother and J's husband. Since L is the only son of his parents, T is L's
sister. From II, we know that K is L's daughter. Thus, from I and II, we conclude that T is the sister of
K's father i.e. T is K's aunt.
Example 9:
Question: How is J related to P ?
Statements:
I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.

II. P's mother is married to J's husband who has one son and two daughters.

Answer: Option B
From II, we know that P's mother is married to J's husband, which means that J is P's mother.
Example 10:
Question: How is X related to Y?
Statements:
I. Y and Z are children of D who is wife of X.

II. R's sister X is married to Ys father.
Answer: Option C
From I, we conclude that Y is the child of D who is wife of X i.e. X is Y's father.
From II, X is married to Y's father. This implies that X is Y's mother.
Q-Directions to Solve : In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements
I, II and III given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is
sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the statements
is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question.
Example1 1:
Question: What is Suman's rank from the top in a class of forty students ?
Statements:
I. Suman is 3 ranks below Deepak from the top.

II. Deepak's rank from the bottom is 23.
III. Suman is 3 ranks above Deepak from the bottom.
A.Any two of the three B.Only I and II C.Only II and III D.All I, II and III E.Only II and either I
or III
Answer: Option E
From II, we conclude that in a class of 40, Deepak ranks 23rd from the bottom i.e. 18th from the top.

From I and II, we find that Suman is 3 ranks below 18th rank from the top i.e. she ranks 21st from the
top.
From II and III, we find that Suman is 3 ranks above 23rd rank from the bottom
i.e. she ranks 20th from the bottom or 21st from the top.
Example 12:
Question: Five persons - A, B, C, D and E are sitting in a row. Who is sitting in the middle?
Statements:
I. B is between E and C.
II. B is to the right of E.
III. D is between A and E.
A.Only I and II B.Only II and III C.Only I and III D.All I, II and III E.None of these
Answer: Option D
From I, the order is : E, B, C or C, B, E.
From II, the order is : E, B.
From III, the order is : A, D, E.
Combining the above three, we get the order as : A, D, E, B, C. Clearly, E is sitting in the middle.
Example 13:
Question: How is 'DATE' written in the code language ?
Statements:
I. DEAR is written as $#@? in that code.

II. TREAT is written as %?#@% in that code.
III. TEAR is written as %#@? in that code,
A.Only I and II B.Only II and III C.All I, II and III D.Only II and either I or III E.None of these
Answer: Option D

Observing I, II and III, we find that similar letters have similar code symbols at the corresponding
places in the code. So, this is direct-coding.
Thus, to find the code for DATE, we need the code for D which can be obtained from I only (i.e. $.)
and the codes for A, T and E which can be obtained either from II or III (@, # and % respectively).
Example 14:
Question: In which year was Sanjay born?
Statements:
I. Sanjay is six years older than Gopal.

II. Gopal's brother was born in 1982.
III. Sanjay's brother is two years younger than Gopal's brother who was eight years younger than
Gopal.
A. Only I and II B. Only II and III C. Only I and III D. All I, II and III E. None of these
Answer: Option D
From II, we know that Copal's brother was born in 1982.
From III, we find that Gopal's brother was 8 years younger to him i.e. Gopal was born in 1974.
From I, we find that Sanjay is 6 years older than Gopal. Thus, Sanjay was born in 1968.
Example 15:
Question: Who among Siddhartha, Nikunj, Vipul and Mukul is the youngest?
Statements:
I. Vipul is younger than Mukul but older than Siddhartha and Nikunj.
II. Mukul is the oldest.
III. Siddhartha is older than Nikunj.
A.Only I B.Only I and II C.Only II and III D.Only I and III E.None of these
Answer: Option D
From I, we have: M > V, V > S, V > N ...(i)

From II, we have: Mukul is the oldest ...(ii)
From III, we have: S > N ...(iii)
Combining (i) and (iii), we get :M > V, V >S > N or M>V > S > N. Clearly, Nikunj is the youngest.
question
1. What is the colour of the Sky?
I. Violet is called Pink, Pink is called Red and Blue is called White.
II. Purple is called Blue, Black is called Brown , Blue is called White and White is called Green.
2. What is the code for ‘aayam’ in the code language?

I. In the language “ Que Onda Eng ” means “aayam annual techno”.
II.In the same code language “Onida Ke Che ” means “tech fest kaayam”
3. What is the relation between Jigisha and Pragnesh?
I. Pragnesh’s mother is married to Jigisha’s husband who has one son.

II. Manish is brother of Pragnesh.
4. What does ‘&’ means in a code language?
I. “ D&G” means “things are working”.

II. “DSG” means “things are vanished”.
5. How is Shailesh related to Mohan?
I. Shailesh has two son and one daughter.

II. Mohan has one brother and one sister.
6. How is Sachin related to Sana?
I. Sana and Vinny are children of Sunita who is wife of Sachin.

II. Ramesh’s Sister Sachin is married to Sana’s Father.
7. Who is Yuvraj’s partner in Tennis game involving four player Sachin, Sourav, Yuvraj and Rahul .
I. Sourav is standing right of Sachin and left of Rahul.

II. Rahul is standing opposite to Sachin.
8. How much was the total score of the Indian cricket team?
I. Team won by 3 wickets each scored 20 runs.

II. Critics said team performance was poor.
9. Which taxi did Shweta catch to go to Malad?
I. Shweta missed her Bus of 7a.m. and has to wait for another 15 minutes for next conveyance.
II. Shweta thinks to prefer taxi before 7 a.m.
10. Which Country is to the south direction of China?
I. India , Srilanka both are south-west neighbour of Tibet.

II. Tibet is to the north of the Nepal.
11. What is Brazil’s rank from the top among forty countries?

I. There are ten countries between Brazil and Canada.
II. Canada is 20th from the top.
12. What is Brazil’s rank from the top among forty countries?
I. There are ten countries between Brazil and Canada.

II. Canada is 20th from the top.
13. Among Neha, Naina, Nishtha, Jamal and Harsh, who came last in the Office?
I. Neha came after Naina but not after Harsh.

II. Jamal came after Harsh but not after Nishtha.
14. Among Ram, Shyam, Ganesh, Shankar , John and Mark, who is the tallest?
I. Ram is taller than Shankar but smaller than Ganesh.

II. Ram and Shankar are taller than Shyam, John and Mark but none of them is the tallest.
15. Who is sitting in the immediate right of Tarun among five classmates sitting around a circle facing
the centre?
I. Tarun is sitting exactly between Mane and Sameer and Santosh is sitting to the immediate right of
Mane.
II. Sameer is exactly between Mane and Santosh and Tarun is facing the Centre.
16. A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre. Who among them is
sitting to the immediate right of C?
I. B is second to the left of C and is second to the right of D.

II. B is sitting between A & E, and E is sitting to the immediate right of D.
17. What time did the bus leave today?
I. The bus normally leaves 5 min late.

II. The scheduled departure is at 10 pm.
18. Who is the father of M ?
I. A and B are brothers.
II. Ws wife is sister of M's wife.
19. In what proportion would Raj, Karan and Altaf distribute profit among them ?
I. Raj gets two-fifth of the profit.

II. Karim and Altaf have made 75% of the total investment.
20. Who is C's partner in a game of cards involving four players A. B, C and D ?
I. D is sitting opposite to A.
II. B is sitting right of A and left of D.
21. Total money with Naresh and Ajay is 28 percent of that with Usman. How much money is Ajay
having ?
I. Usman has got Rs 75000.
II. The ratio of money of Naresh to money held by Ajay is 1: 3.
22. Vipin's and Javed's salaries are in the proportion of 4 : 3 respectively. What is Vipin's salary ?
I. Javed's salary is 75% that of Vipin's salary.
II. Javed's salary is Rs 4500.
23. In a certain code l In a certain code language, '297' means 'tie clip button'. Which number means
'button' ?
I. In that language '926' means 'clip your tie'.
II. In that language '175' means 'hole and button'.
24. On which day in April is Gautam's birthday ?
I. Gautam was born exactly 28 years after his mother was born.
II. His mother will be 55 years 4 months and 5 days on August 18 this year.
25. In a code, 'lee pee tin' means 'Always keep smiling'. What is the code for ?
I. 'tin lut lee' means 'Always keep left'.
II. 'dee pee' means 'Rose smiling.
26. How many visitors saw the exhibition yesterday ?
I. Each entry pass holder can take up to three persons with him/her.
II. In all, 243 passes were sold yesterday.
27. What is Manohar's birthday ?
I. Manohar's father was born on 27th May, 1948.
II. Manohar is 25 years younger than his mother.

28. At what time did Sonali leave her home for office?
I. Sonali received a phone call at 9:15 a.m. at her home.
II. Sonali's car reached office at 10:15 a.m. 45 minutes after she left her residence.
29. How many new year's greeting cards were sold this year in your shop ?
I. Last year 2935 cards were sold.
II. The number of cards sold this year was 1.2 times that of last year.
30. In a certain language, 'pit nac mit' means 'red pant shirt'. Which word means 'pant' in that
language ?
I. 'mit tim nac sir' means 'he wore red pant'.
III. 'nee jic pit' means 'shirt is dirty'.
Answer Key
1.C 2.A 3.A 4.E 5.D 6.C 7.C 8.A 9.D 10.D
11.D 12.A 13.E 14.B 15.A 16.C 17.D 18.D 19.D 20.C
21.E 22.B 23.C 24.E 25.C 26.D 27.D 28.B 29.E 30.D

question
1. Question: How is 'No' coded in the code language ?
Statements:
I. 'Ne Pa Sic Lo' means 'But No None And' and 'Pa Lo Le Ne' means 'If None And But'.

II. 'Le Se Ne Sic' means 'If No None Will' and 'Le Pi Se Be' means 'Not None If All'.
2. Question: Who among P, Q, T, V and M is exactly in the middle when they are arranged in
ascending order of their heights ?
Statements:
I. V is taller than Q but shorter than M.

II. T is taller than Q and M but shorter than P.
3. Question: Which code word stands for 'good' in the coded sentence 'sin co bye' which means 'He
is good' ?
Statements:
I. In the same code language, 'co mot det' means 'They are good'.
II. In the same code language, 'sin mic bye' means 'He is honest'.
4.Question: What is the numerical code for 'water' in a certain code ?
Statements:
I. The code for 'give me water' is '719'.

II. The code for 'you can bring water for me' is written as '574186'.
5.Question: Gaurav ranks eighteenth from the top in a class. What is his rank from the last?
Statements:
I. There are 47 students in the class.

II. Jatin who ranks 10th in the same class, ranks 38th from the last.
6.Question: What is the rank of P from the bottom in a class of 30 students ?
Statements:
I. M is third from the top and there are five students between M and P.
II. The rank of K is fourth from the bottom and there are 17 students between K and P.
7.Question: In a row of five buildings - P, Q, R, S and T, which building is in the middle ?

Statements:
I. Buildings S and Q are at the two extreme ends of the row.

II. Building ,T is to the right of building R.
8.Question: How many speeches were delivered in the two days' programme ?
Statements:
I. 18 speakers were invited to give at least one speech (maximum of two speech), out of which
one-sixth of the speakers could not come.
II. One-third of the speakers gave two speeches each.
9.Question: Among five friends, who is the tallest ?
Statements:
I. D is taller than A and C.

II. B is shorter than E but taller than D.
10.Question: What time did the train leave today ?
Statements:
I. The train normally leaves on time.

II. The scheduled departure is at 14 : 30.
11.Question: What does '$' mean in a code language?
Statements:
I. '5$#3' means 'flowers are really good'.

II. '7#35' means 'good flowers are available'.
12.Question: How many sons does D have ?
Statements:
I. A's father has three children.

II. B is A's brother and son of D.

13.Question: How is M related to N?
Statements:
I. P, who has only two kids, M and N, is the mother-in-law of Q, who is sister-in-law of N.
II. R, the sister-in-law of M, is the daughter-in-law of S, who has only two kids, M and N.
14.Question: What is the colour of the fresh grass ?
Statements:
I. Blue is called green, red is called orange, orange is called yellow.

II. Yellow is called white, white is called black, green is called brown and brown is called purple.
15.Question: Which train did Aman catch to go to office ?
Statements:
I. Aman missed his usual train of 10.25 a.m. A train comes in every 5 minutes.
II. Aman did not catch the 10.40 a.m. train or any train after that time.
16.Question: On which day of the week did Hitesh visit the zoo ?
Statements:
I. Hitesh did not visit zoo either on Tuesday or on Thursday.

II. Hitesh visited zoo two days before his mother reached his house which was day after
Monday.
17.Question: The Chairman of a big company visits one department on Monday of every week except
for the Monday of third week of every month. When did he visa/the Purchase department ?
Statements:
I. He visited Accounts department in the second week of September after having visited
Purchase department on the earlier occasion.
II. He had visited Purchase department immediately after visiting Stores department but before
visiting Accounts department.
18.Question: What does 'nip' stand for in a code language ?

Statements:
I. In the code language, 'that is very beautiful' is written as 'se nip sre num'
II. In the same code language, 'my house is beautiful' is written as 'nip sto sre tip'.
19.Question: What is the monthly salary of Prashant ?
Statements:
I. Prashant gets 15% more than Sumit while Sumit gets 10% less than Lokesh.
II. Lokesh's monthly salary is Rs 2500.
20.Question: How many gift boxes were sold on Monday ?
Statements:
I. It was 10% more than the boxes sold on the earlier day i.e. Sunday.
II. Every third visitor to the shop purchased the box and 1500 visitors were there on Sunday
Q-Directions to Solve : In each of the following problems, there is one question and three statements
I, II and III given below the question. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements is
sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and find which of the statements
is/are sufficient to answer the given question. Choose the correct alternative in each question.
21.Question: In a certain code, 'XYZ' means 'We are friends'. Which letter stands for 'We' ?
Statements:
I. 'PYN' means 'They are classmates'.

II. 'ZMS' means 'We love them'.
III. 'PX' means 'Hello friends'.
A.only II B.Only I and III C.All I, II and III D.Either I only or II only E.None of these
22.Question: Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is the second tallest and S is immediate taller than the
shortest. Who among them is in the middle when they stand in the order of their heights ?
Statements:
I. T is not the shortest.

II. R is taller than S but shorter than Q.

III. P ranks third in height above S when all are arranged in the order of height.
A.Only I and II B.Either II only or I and III only C.Only II D.Only II and III E.None of these
23.Question: Four subjects - Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Biology - were taught in four
consecutive periods of one hour each starting from 8.00 a.m. At what time was the Chemistry period
scheduled ?
Statements:
I. Mathematics period ended at 10.00 a.m., which was preceded by Biology.

II. Physics was scheduled in the last period.
III. Mathematics period was immediately followed by Chemistry.
A.Only I B.Either I only or II only C.Only II D.Only II and III E.Only I and either II or III
24.Question: What is the total monthly salary of Vasu ?
Statements:
I. Vasu's basic salary is Rs 100 more than Rajan's salary who also serves in Vasu's company.
II. Other allowances drawn by Rajan besides his basic salary are Rs 2000 per month which is Rs
50 less than Vasu's salary.
III. Rajan's basic salary is Rs 1550 per month,
A.Only II B. Only II and III C.Only I and II D.Only I and III E.All I, II and III
25.Question: Who is the tallest among six boys P, T, N, D, Q and R ?
Statements:
I. P is taller than D and N but not-as tall as T.

II. R is taller than Q but not as tall as T.
III. Q is not taller than T and R.
A.Only I and II B.Only II and III C.Only I and III D.All I, II and III E.Only I and either II or III

Answer Key
1.A 2.E 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.C 7.D 8.E 9.E 10.D
11.E 12.D 13.A 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.D 19.E 20.E
21.E 22.B 23.E 24.E 25.A
I.
Arithmetical Reasoning

This chapter of reasoning deals with general arithmetical problems common in nature. Solutions of
these problems require common sense with slight amount of logical reasoning.
Example 1:
Ayush was born two years after his father's marriage. His mother is five years younger than his father
but 20 years older than Ayush who is 10 years old. At what age did the father get married ? A.23yrs
B.25yrs C.33yrs D.35yrs
Answer: Option A
Ayush's present age = 10 years.
His mother's present age = (10 + 20) years = 30 years.

Ayush's father's present age = (30 + 5) years = 35 years.
Ayush's father's age at the time of Ayush's birth = (35 - 10) years = 25 years.
Therefore Ayush's father's age at the time of marriage = (25 - 2) years = 23 years.
Example 2:

In three coloured boxes - Red, Green and Blue, 108 balls are placed. There are twice as many balls in
the green and red boxes combined as there are in the blue box and twice as many in the blue box as
there are in the red box. How many balls are there in the green box ?
Answer: Option D
Let R, G and B represent the number of balls in red, green and blue boxes respectively.
Then, .
R + G + B = 108 ...(i),
G + R = 2B ...(ii)
B = 2R ...(iii)
From (ii) and (iii), we have G + R = 2x 2R = 4R or G = 3R.
Putting G = 3R and B = 2R in (i), we get:
R + 3R + 2R = 108 6R = 108 R = 18.
Therefore Number of balls in green box = G = 3R = (3 x 18) = 54.
Example 3:
Ravi's brother is 3 years senior to him. His father was 28 years of age when his sister was born while
his mother was 26 years of age when he was born. If his sister was 4 years of age when his brother
was born, what were the ages of Ravi's father and mother respectively when his brother was born ?
A.32yrs , 23 yrs B.32yrs , 29 yrs C.35yrs, 29yrs D.35yrs, 33yrs
Answer: Option A
When Ravi's brother was born, let Ravi's father's age = x years and mother's age = y years.
Then, sister's age = (x - 28) years. So, x - 28 = 4 or x = 32.

Ravi's age = (y - 26) years. Age of Ravi's brother = (y - 26 + 3) years = (y - 23) years.
Now, when Ravi's brother was born, his age = 0 i.e. y - 23 = 0 or y = 23.
Example 4:
Today is Varun's birthday. One year, from today he will be twice as old as he was 12 years ago. How
old is Varun today ?

A.20yrs B.22yrs C.25yrs D.27yrs
Answer: Opion C
Let Varan's age today = x years.
Then, Varan's age after 1 year = (x + 1) years.

Therefore x + 1 = 2 (x - 12) x + 1 = 2x - 24 x = 25.
Example 5:
In a class of 60 students, the number of boys and girls participating in the annual sports is in the ratio
3 : 2 respectively. The number of girls not participating in the sports is 5 more than the number of
boys not participating in the sports. If the number of boys participating in the sports is 15, then how
many girls are there in the class?
A.20 B.25 C.30 D.Data Inadequate
Answer: Option C
Let the number of boys and girls participating in sports be 3x and 2x respectively.
Then, 3x = 15 or x = 5.
So, number of girls participating in sports = 2x = 10.
Number of students not participating in sports = 60 - (15 + 10) = 35.
Let number of boys not participating in sports be y.
Then, number of girls not participating in sports = (35 -y).
Therefore (35 - y) = y + 5 2y 30 y = 15.
So, number of girls not participating in sports = (35 - 15) = 20.
Hence, total number of girls in the class = (10 + 20) = 30.
Example 6:
A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal length into
10 pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes ?
A.32rolls B.54rolls C.108rolls D.120rolls
Answer: Option D
Number of cuts made to cut a roll into 10 pieces = 9.

Therefore Required number of rolls = (45 x 24)/9 = 120.
Example 7:
What is the product of all the numbers in the dial of a telephone?
Answer : Option D
Since one of the numbers on the dial of a telephone is zero, so the product of all the numbers on it is
0.
Example 8:
Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from
city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A ?
A.Rs 4 , Rs 23 B.Rs 13, Rs 17 C.Rs 15, Rs 14 D.Rs 17, Rs 13
Answer: Option B
Let Rs. x be the fare of city B from city A and Rs. y be the fare of city C from city A.
Then, 2x + 3y = 77 ...(i) and

3x + 2y = 73 ...(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 3 and (ii) by 2 and subtracting, we get: 5y = 85 or y = 17.
Putting y = 17 in (i), we get: x = 13.
Example 9:
A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand : She started by calling the thumb
1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed direction calling
the ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended counting on which
finger ?
A.thumb B.index finger C.middle finger D.ring finger
Answer: Option B
Clearly, while counting, the numbers associated to the thumb will be : 1, 9,17, 25,.....
i.e. numbers of the form (8n + 1).

Since 1994 = 249 x 8 + 2, so 1993 shall correspond to the thumb and 1994 to the index finger.
Example 10:
A man has Rs. 480 in the denominations of one-rupee notes, five-rupee notes and ten-rupee notes.
The number of notes of each denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?
A.45 B.60 C.75 D.90
Answer: Option D
Let number of notes of each denomination be x.
Then, x + 5x + 10x = 480 16x = 480 x = 30.
Hence, total number of notes = 3x = 90.
Example 11:
A is 3 years older to B and 3 years younger to C, while B and D are twins. How many years older is C
to D?
A.2 B.3 C.6 D.12
Answer: Option C
Since B and D are twins, so B = D.
Now, A = B + 3 and A = C - 3.
Thus, B + 3 = C - 3 D + 3 = C-3 C - D = 6.
Example 12:
The 30 members of a club decided to play a badminton singles tournament. Every time a member
loses a game he is out of the tournament. There are no ties. What is the minimum number of
matches that must be played to determine the winner ?
Answer: Option B

Clearly, every member except one (i.e. the winner) must lose one game to decide the winner. Thus,
minimum number of matches to be played = 30 - 1 = 29.
Example 13:
In a garden, there are 10 rows and 12 columns of mango trees. The distance between the two trees is
2 metres and a distance of one metre is left from all sides of the boundary of the garden. The length
of the garden is
A.20m B.22m C.24m D.26m
Answer: Option C
Each row contains 12 plants.
There are 11 gapes between the two corner trees (11 x 2) metres and 1 metre on each side is left.
Therefore Length = (22 + 2) m = 24 m.
1.An institute organised a fete and 1/5 of the girls and 1/8 of the boys participated in the same. What
fraction of the total number of students took part in the fete ?
A.2/13 B.13/40 C.data inadequate D.none of these
2.A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs. 96 on eatables. Four of
them, however, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs. 4 each
extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was A.8
B.12 C.16 D.24
3.A pineapple costs Rs. 7 each. A watermelon costs Rs. 5 each. X spends Rs. 38 on these fruits. The
number of pineapples purchased is
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.Data Inadequate
4.A woman says, "If you reverse my own age, the figures represent my husband's age. He is, of
course, senior to me and the difference between our ages is one-eleventh of their sum." The

woman's age is
A.23yrs B.34yrs C.45yrs D.none of these
5.I have a few sweets to be distributed. If I keep 2, 3 or 4 in a pack, I am left with one sweet. If I keep
5 in a pack, I am left with none. What is the minimum number of sweets I can have to pack and
distribute?
A.25 B.37 C.54 D.65
6. At the end of a business conference, ten people present shake hands with each other once. How
many handshakes will be there all together?
A.20 B.45 C.55 D.65
7. A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half the number of men. In the city Y,
10 men left the bus and five women boarded in to it. Now, number of men and women becomes
equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?
A.15 B.30 C.36 D.45
8. Ranu is 48 years old. Robin is 6 years junior to Ranu and 14 years senior to Rohit. Ranu has two
children Neethu and Vinu. Youngest sister of Rohit is Krishna and she is 15 years junior to him.
What is the age of Krishna?
A.13 B.14 C.12 D.16
9. Between two book-ends in your study are displayed your five favourite puzzle books. If you
decide to arrange the five books in every possible combination and moved just one book every
minute, how long would it take?
A.1hr B.2hr C.3hr D.4hr
10. A worker may claim Rs.15 for each km which he travels by taxi and Rs.5 for each km which he
drives his own car. If in one week he claimed Rs.500 for travelling 80 km, how many km did he travel
by taxi?
A.10 B.20 C.30 D.40

11. A shepherd had 27 sheep. All but 10 died. How many he left with?
A.10 B.15 C.17 D.27
12. A group of 1200 persons consisting of captains and soldiers is travelling in a train. For every 15
soldiers there is one captain. The number of captains in the group is?
A.70 B.75 C.80 D.85
13. Aruna cut a cake into two halves and cuts one half into smaller pieces of equal size. Each of the
small pieces is twenty grams in weight. If she has seven pieces of the cake in all with her, how heavy
was the original cake ?
A.240 gm B.220 gm C.225 gm D.250 gm
14. First bunch of bananas has (1/4) again as many bananas as a second bunch. If the second bunch
has 3 bananas less than the first bunch, then the number of bananas in the first bunch are
A.9 B.10 C.12 D.15
15. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how
many did he solve correctly?
A.12 B.16 C.24 D.18
16. The number of boys in a class is three times the number of girls. Which one of the following
numbers cannot represent the total number of children in the class?
A.48 B.44 C.42 D.40
17. A certain number of horses and an equal number of men are going somewhere. Half of the
owners are on their horses' back while the remaining ones are walking along leading their horses. If
the number of legs walking on the ground is 70, how many horses are there ?
A.8 B.10 C.12 D.14
18. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many days ?
A.4 day B.10 day C.40 day D.100 day

19. In a class, there are 18 boys who are over 160 cm tall. If these constitute three-fourths of the
boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is
the number of girls in the class ?
A.10 B.12 C.14 D.18
20. In a caravan, in addition to 50 hens, there are 45 goats and 8 camels with some keepers. If the
total number of feet be 224 more than the number of heads in the caravan, the number of keepers
is
A.5 B.8 C.10 D.15
Answer Key
1.C 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.B 10.A
11.A 12.B 13.A 14.D 15.B 16.C 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.D
1.A farmer built a fence around his square plot. He used 27 fence poles on each side of the square.
How many poles did he need altogether?
2.In a city, 40% of the adults are illiterate while 85% of the children are literate. If the ratio of the
adults to that of the children is 2 : 3, then what percent of the population is literate ?
A.20% B.25% C.50% D.75%
3.A bird shooter was asked how many birds he had in the bag. He replied that there were all
sparrows but six, all pigeons but six, and all ducks but six. How many birds he had in the bag in all?
A.9 B.18 C.27 D.36

4.What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation - two ducks in front of a
duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks ?
A.3 B.5 C.7 D.9
5.Three friends had dinner at a restaurant. When the bill was received, Amita paid 2/3 as much as
Veena paid and Veena paid 1/2 as much as Tanya paid. What faction of the bill did Veena pay ?
A.1/3 B.3/11 C.12/13 D.5/8
6.When Rahul was born, his father was 32 years older than his brother and his mother was 25 years
older than his sister. If Rahul's brother is 6 years older than him and his mother is 3 years younger
than his father, how old was Rahul's sister when he was born ?
A.7yrs B.10yrs C.14yrs D.19yrs
7.In a family, the father took 1/4 of the cake and he had 3 times as much as each of the other
members had. The total number of family members is
A.3 B.7 C.10 D.12
8.In a cricket match, five batsmen A, B, C, D and E scored an average of 36 runs. D Scored 5 more
than E; E scored 8 fewer than A; B scored as many as D and E combined; and B and C scored 107
between them. How many runs did E score ?
A.62 B.45 C.28 D.20
9.The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is
A.732 B.990 C.1098 D.1305
10.In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and each son has
twice as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there in the family ?
A.2 B.3 C.4 D.5
11.At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a
bowl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether
65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party ?

Puzzle Test

In this type of questions, a figure or a matrix is given in which some numbers are filled according to a
rule. A place is left blank. You have to find out a character (a number or a letter) from the given
possible answers which may be filled in the blank space.
Example 1:
Which one will replace the question mark ?
A.18 B.20 C.21 D.19
Answer: Option B
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10
and 1 + 3 + 5 + 8 = 17
Similarly, 1 + 4 + 6 + 9 = 20.
Example 2:
Which one will replace the question mark ?
A.80 B.114 C.108 D.114
Answer: Option C
(4 + 8) x 9 = 108
(5 + 4) x 12 = 108.

Example 3:
A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6
Example 4 :
Compare the knowledge of persons X, Y, Z, A, B and C in relation to each other : 1) X knows
more than A. 2) Y knows as much as B. 3) Z knows less than C. 4) A knows more than Y. The
best knowledgeable person amongst all is
A. X B. Y C. A D. C
Answer: Option A
Clearly, we have : A < X, Y = B, Z < C, Z< B, Y< A. Thus, the sequence becomes : X > A > Y = B > C > Z.
So, X is the best knowledgeable person.
Example 5:
Five children were administered psychological tests to know their intellectual levels. In the
report, psychologists pointed out that the child A is less intelligent than the child B. The
child C is less intelligent than the child D. The child B is less intelligent than the child C and
child A is more intelligent then the child E. Which child is the most intelligent ?
A. A B. B C. D D. E
Answer: Option C .
We have sequence : A < B, C< D, B < C and E < A. So, the sequence becomes : E < A < B < C < D.
Clearly, child D is the most intelligent.

Example 6:
Among five boys, Vineet is taller than Manick, but not as tall as Ravi. Jacob is taller than
Dilip but shorter than Manick. Who is the tallest in their group ?
A. Ravi B. Manick C. Vineet D. Cannot be determined E. None of these
Answer: Option A
In terms of height , we have : Manick < Vineet, Vineet < Ravi, Dilip < Jacob, Jacob < Manick. So, the
sequence becomes : Dillip < Jacob < Manick < Vineet < Ravi. Clearly, Ravi is the tallest.
Example 7:
Five boys participated in a competition. Rohit was ranked lower than Sanjay. Vikas was
ranked higher than Dinesh. Kamal`s rank was between Rohit and Vikas. Who was ranked
highest ?
A. Sanjay B. Vikas C. Dinesh D. Kamal E. None of These
Answer: Option A .
In terms of rank, we have : Rohit < Sanjay, Dinesh < Vikas. Since Kamal`s rank is between Rohit and
Vikas, the sequence becomes : Dinesh < Vikas < Kamal < Rohit < Sanjay. Clearly, Sanjay was ranked
highest.
Example 8:
A * B means A and B are of the same age;
A - B means B is younger than A;
A + B means A is younger than B;
Sachin * Madan - Reena means
A. Reena is the youngest. B. Reena is the oldest. C. Madan is younger than Reena. D. None
of these
Answer: Option A .
Sachin * Madan - Reena means Sachin and Madan are of the same age and Reena is younger than
Madan. This means that Reena is the youngest.
Example 9:

In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain
trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
A.U B.V C.W D.X
Answer: Option C
The letters in the first row follow the sequence +5, +7.
The letters in the second row follow the sequence +6, +8.
In the third row, the first letter G moves 7 steps forward to give the second letter N.
Clearly, the missing letter will be 9 steps ahead of N i.e. W.
Example 10:
In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given.These characters follow a certain
trend, row-wise or column wise.Find out this trend and choose the missing character accordingly.
A.K B.N C.O D.P
Answer: Option A
The letters in the second and third rows are five steps ahead of those in the first and second
respectively.
So, the missing letter will be five steps ahead of F, which is K.



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Aptitude Handbook

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 1

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 2

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 3

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 4

To check whether a number is prime or not:

(1)Find the square root of the given number.

Examples: Find whether 577 is prime or not.

Solved Examples - Primes

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 5

Find the product of distinct prime factors of 34476.

A. 1321 B. 1326 C.34476 D.2873.

The method to find the prime factor is,

Here, we have to find the prime factors of 34476.

A. 197 B. 239 C. 97 D. 251

Given that, N is a prime number we have to find 12N-7.

Subtracting 7 from each term, we get

Therefore, 12N-7 lies between 101 and 233.

Answer: D. cannot be determined.

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 6

The general notation of A.P series is a, a+d , a+2d,...

If the last digit is a five or a zero, then the number is divisible by 5.

Check 3 and 2. If the number is divisible by both 3 and 2, it is divisible by 6 as well.

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 7

Example: 33333888 is divisible by 8; 33333886 isn't.

Example: 12348 is divisible by 9; as the sum is 18

If the number ends in 0, it is divisible by 10.

Another way to say this is that 35 -2 is 33.

Check for divisibility by 3 and 4.

Example: 936, it is divisible by both 3 and 4 and thus by 12.

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 8

Example: 437: "43" + ("7"x2) = 57 is divisible by 19.

Example: 598: "59"+("8" x 7)= 115 is divisible by 23.

n = 11, n2-1 = 112 – 1 = 120 = 24*5, divisible by 24.

2. If n is odd, n2+1 is divisible by 3 and if n is even, 2n-1 is divisible by 3.

3. If n is an odd number 22n+1 is divisible by 5 and if n is an even number, 22n-1 is divisible by 5.

4. If n is odd, 52n+1 is divisible by 13 and if n is even, 52n-1 is divisible by 13.

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 9

x11-x is divisible by 11.

x13-x is divisible by 13.

Finding the number of zeroes at the end of an expression:

Example: Find the number of zeroes in a product 25 * 33 * 52 * 72

In general, the number of zeroes in n! is given by

Example: Find the number of zeroes in 139!

Number of zeroes = = 27 + 5 + 1 = 33 zeroes

Remainder & Quotient:

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 10

Method II (Alternative form)

Some Important Results: (i) (1+2+3+….+n)= n(n+1)/2

2. Geometrical Progression (G.P.): A progression of numbers in which every term bears a

A G.P. with first term a and common ratio r is :a,ar,ar2,…..

Example: let x = 0.5555555...

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 11

So, 9x = 10x – x = (5.555...) – (0.555..) = 5

Example: let x = 0.143333...

900x = 1000x – 100x = (143.333...) = 129

Example: Express 0.643643643... as a fraction.

1000x – x = 643.643643.... – 0. 643.643643.....

Solution: -7/10 = -0.7, -5/8 = -0.625, -2/3 = -0.666

Solution: Smallest number of 6 digits is 100000

Aptitude Handbook MUJ Training Departement Confidential Page 12

The product of the three numbers is 3p×3q×3r=27(pqr).

Let the number be 7x and 8x

Hence, HCF × LCM=7x×8x

=> By counting principle, the number of 3 digit numbers =543= 60