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friday, september 19, 2008
2. Which Part of Series F deals with Suspension of C. of A. & its subsequent revalidation:
1. IV 2. V
3. VI 4.VII
1. 55 (2) 2 55 (3)
3. 55 (1) 4. 56 (1).
I. 51 (l) 2. 53(2)
3. 54 (2) 4. 55(2)
5. DGCA can cancel the C. of A. or suspend whenever reasonable doubt exist to:
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Will be revalidated up to the date of the previous currency of C of A had remain valid,
10. As condition for revalidation of C. of A., the Airworthiness Officer requires aircraft/aircraft component
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Unpressurised aircraft having AUW less than 5700 kgs.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the aircraft.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircraft should have:
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor will produce a copy
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated by Rule:
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are to be performed.
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
3. Evacuation of aircraft opr passengers from area impending danger. 4. All the above.
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be submit
to:
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
4. Suspension/Revalidation of C. of A.
47. Indian Registered aircraft5 before undertake any flight have to possess a current & valid
3. Maintenance and major maintenance shall carried out and certified by appropriately Licensed A.M.E
4. All of above
50. Approved Pilot means pilot to carry out transmit/layover inspection without authority of invoking MEL
1 D.G.C.A 2 RAO
4 All of above
1 day 2 1 Week
53. The scheduled airline as required to have their own maintenance facility as required by
54. The contents of routine maintenance and inspection schedule including special inspection schedule,
overhaul schedule of component and a/c operated by operator have minimum experience as scheduled
operator
1. 2year 2 3year
3. 5year 4 l0year
55. The MPD (maintenance planning document) should submit for its approval to
3 D.G.C.A 4 AMO
56. Special inspection schedules of a/c such as heavy landing ,post lightning strike post propeller strike
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
3. Both a & b
59. The maintenance work recorded and signed and dated in relevant log book with in
1. 24 Hours 2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours 4. 96 Hours
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
1. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. D.G.C.A. 4. AMO
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
3. Both a & b
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
3. Both a & b
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category with more
2. Certificate of inspection higher than transmit inspection will be by AME specially approve person
3. Transmit inspection without snag rectification will by approved basic licence holder when a/c away from
base
4. All of above
69. For aircraft operated by flying club and gliding club the FRC valid by:
1. 24Hrs. 2. 48Hrs.
70. Aircraft belonging to aerial work Category FRC issued by AME after every:
71. Aircraft from regular aerodromes shall FRC to aerial work category issue every 50
1. Validity of FRC by DGCA 2. Transmit inspection by approved basic Licence if aircraft is away from base.
73. In case of diversionary landing where AME/approved person not available. The inspection with snag
74. The certification of air born racks equipment carried out every 90 days elapsed time for
category:
75. For aircraft equipped with communication equipment only certification will carried out
after every:
77. The FRC for radio should be used with every FRC for airframe and engine:
I. Second 2. Third
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
3. Seven day relevant inspection under AME and certificate of it by QCM and passed oral cum practical by
RAO.
2. Firm’s name
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO/Sub.RAO 4. QCM.
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO 4 .QCM.
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. RAO
87. All completed maintenance schedule must be preserved for a minimum period of:
4. As Suggested by QCM.
1. QCM 2. Operator
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
1. 25 Years 2. 15 Years.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. SSIP 2. CPCP
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
years:
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer cracks.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first flight.
3. Growth of fungus
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
3. Atmosphere air
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
3. Thirty 4. fifty.
1. Twenty 2. Thirty
3. Fourty 4. Fifty
2. Flight engineer
3. QCM
1. Three 2. Six
3. Before C of A flight 4. Before first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging.
126. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person was at least 3
I. Three 2. Six
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first flight:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion should be checked by second
person
1. Growth of fougue
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
3. Atmosphere air
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
3. Rebuilding of aircraft
140. If ‘loop test’ is not carried out during test flight of a glider, then its C of A:
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
144. The C of A for glider is renewed provided is carried out during test flight:
146. New component and spare parts used on gliders should be covered by:
2. Should be pressure for two month 3. Should be pressure for one year
148. When glider meets with an accident, resulting in damage beyond economic repair,
glider logs book and procedure / work shall be pressure for a period of:
150. The weight considered for declaring the aircraft micro light:
151. The MAUW of micro light single seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330Kg. 2. 450Kg.
152. The MAUW of micro weight two seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. CA25 2. CA23
154. How many items should be fixed on identification plate of micro light aircraft:
1. 4 Items 2. 5 Items
1. 6Months 2. lYear
3. 2Years 4. NOA.
1. II 2. III
1. Schedule 2. Non-schedule
158. The aircraft, which landed with scehon of its upper fuselages:
160. For schedule / Non-scheduled No aircraft imported who complete age / design
1. 15/75% 2. 20/70%
3. 15/70% 4. 20/75%.
161. For cargo operation pressurize transport cat. Aircraft import not more than age and
1. 20 /75% 2. 30/75%
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
3. Time since.
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may approval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DAW 4. DGCA.
1. 55A 2. 133A
3. 133C 4. 72A.
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. Instructors.
174. Load / trim sheet get approved from:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare load/trim
sheet is:
179. Certificate of successful completion training in recurrent training to airline given by:
I. QCM 2. Shop
I. DAW 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. QCM
I. Instructor 2. QCM
3. Operator.
182. Load of trim sheet approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
1. RTOW 2. Payload
3. Removable Weight
I. Triplicate 2. Duplicate
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. CA 28 2. CA 25
3. CA 3O 4. CA 23.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
1. VT-SOS 2. VT-XXX
198. When a new type of aircraft is registered and entered in the register. DGCA shall advise the:
I. Owner 2. Operator
1. Lost 2. Mutilated
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
by rule:
1 31 of 1937 2. 33 of 1937
3. 36 of 1937 4. 37 A OF 1937.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
3. IAR25A 4. Noneoftheabove.
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
16. Distance of ground power units from the aircraft filling/venting points & fuelling equipment
1. 6 meters 2. 10 meters.
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are availabk
of:
19. Fuelling operation shall cease when a Turboprop Jet aircraft maneuvers, so as to bring the rear
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used in the
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq. meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of horizontal
tank is:
30. Setting time for ATF, without floating suction device is:
1. Half an hour/foot depth., 2. One hour/foot depth
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been added to the static
rating of:
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate. Should be carried out:
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of shut-off valves &
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system should be replaced
after every:
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
43. Suction stand pipe to be fitted to barrel should be such that fuel can not drain from the bottom:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
3. 4 inches. 4. None of the above.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since the filling of
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
I. Paste. 2. Paper.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples taken: 1. During
c) BothA&B
a) Vicinity of aerodrome b) With in the area of 200 Km. c) BothA&Barewrong d) Both A & B are correct
3. Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft has current and valid C of A: a) QCM b) AME
c) Owner/operator d) RAO.
a) Periodical inspections b)Replace held components. c) carry out repair / modifications d) All the above
5. Owner/operator is responsible for:
c) BothAandB
6. If the aircraft is leased by owner, than the responsibility for C of A to be current and valid is of: a) Owner
b) Operator
a) AME b) QCM
8. Airworthiness standards observed by the operator/owner will be monitored by technical officers by the
c) BothAandB
a) Date of issue b) As a) plus date of affectivity c) As b) plus total no. of pages d) None of above.
14. Subsequent pages other than first indicates: a) Date of affectivity b) Date of revision c) Date of issue d)
all the above.
15. A change effected in CAR is tempered as: a) Amendment b) Change c) Re-issue d) None of the above.
16. First page and affected pages indicates: a) Revision number b) a) plus date of revision c) b) Plus
17. Unaffected pages by revision will contain: a) Effective date b) Issue number c) Date of issue d) None of
the above.
18. A revision is indicated by: a) A sideline on left side of affected pages b) Underlining the affected part c)
19. Major changes to CAR shall be treats as: a) Change b) revision c) Amendment d) Major revision.
20. Whenever a new CAR or significant revision is proposed to be issued, the draft CAR/proposed revision
may be circulated to: a) Concerned operators b) Plus regional officer c) plus manufacturer d) None of the
above.
21. Revision notice indicates: a) Pages affected b) reason for revision c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
22. Part — III relates to: a) Objectives and targets of airworthiness directorate b) Airworthiness regulation
23. The most obvious objective of an airworthiness authority is: a) Ensuring design levels of reliability b)
Operating safety of civil registered aircraft c) Alert value of light aircraft d) Both A and B.
24. On-Condition maintenance is accomplishment of: a) Bench/institute test b) visual inspection c) Physical
25. Condition maintenance is based on theory of: a) Fit and forget it b) fit until failure c) Both A and B d)
26. The parametric report for achieving max. Measures of safety is sent to: a) RAO b) DGCA c) QCM d) All
the above.
27. The parameters are obtained as: a) Accidents per 1000 Hrs. b) IFSD per 1000 Hrs. c) IFSD per 100 Hrs.
d) Both A & B.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs. flown is:
29. No. of notifiable accidents along with no. of lirs. flown gives:
33. Parameters i.e. no. of major defects / 1000 Hrs. includes no. of Hrs. of:
a) Airframe b) Engine
34. Private operator will furnish information in parametric form to DGCA every:
35. Non-scheduled, aerial work, training aircraft operator should furnish information toDGCA every.
40. Unintentional landing affected on account of failure/malfunctioning of an aircraft component system is:
41. Maintenance process requiring assembly, inspection of aircraft/components at fixed periods is:
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
44. Technic& officers of airworthiness directorate may ask the operator to submit for
inspection the:
a) Aircraft b) Aircraft components
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
c) Revision by DOCA
d) Issue by DOCA.
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as “Birds eye view” by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification standard of civil
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct functioning of which is
essential for:
c) Result in emergency
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is called:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
64. for computing static’s for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six months.
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None of the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
d) Both B & C.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports, that are
observed during:
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is carried out to
c) Replacement of engine
85. If a system is over alert/alert notice will be issued by RMU and report will sent to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c)QCM d) None.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate: a) By 251h of every month b)
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at least the last:
a) B Part-I b) F Part-XX
c) C Part-V d) H Part-Ill
89. C Part V is applicable to:
a) Rectification of defect
c) Validation of FRC
d) Only A & C.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be impressed in terms:
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
c) Both.
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator’s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be sent to RAO
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) Total time flown b) Sr. No.
a) DGCA b) Sub-RAO
a) Reliability b) Disability
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the corrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must be sent to:
c) On condition
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
c) Hard time.
b) Log Book
c) Register
116. Restoring an aircraft part or component to its original design performance level after
a) It can sustain damage and the remaining structural can withstand reasonable load
b) It can sustain damage and the structure can bear excessive load.
c) Both A and B are correct.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) AME d) Pilot
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d) AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated form:
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the engine log book.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting features:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
c) QCM d) DGCA.
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
135. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in the engine log book by:
a) RAO b) QCM
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
c) RAO.
139. Average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in:
141. Who can carried out periodical spot checks on the records of fuel and oil uplift?
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) Technician.
a) RAO b) AME
c) Operator d) QCM
144. Who may require an operator to submit samples to bench checking and in case of engines
a) QCM b) AME
145. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameters in:
c) Either A or B d) None
146. Every engine parameters has an alert value which is fixed by:
a) Operator b) DGCA
c) Both.
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applicable in
respect of:
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
a) QCM b) Licensed AME
c) By an AME.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval from RAO needs to be
documented in:
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service life of
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c unless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the residence of the
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
1. Category A 2. Category B
I. By citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast 2/3w of the directors of
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company has given the a/c
on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state or central government
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in India
3. A copy of the import hence issued by director general foreign trade (DGFT)
4. All above
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C of R
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
4. All above
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
3. Both a & b
1. To revalidate C of A 2. To issue C of A
19. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of
ale Rule
1. 49A 2. 49B
3. 49C 4. 49
20. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor-craft is submitted in the form as per
CAR series F
21. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate of ale is to be submitted in the form as in
22. For issuance of type certificate of aircraft or its components, the DGCA should be satisfied
on the points:
3. Both I and 2
23. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA
24. Type certificate of a rotorcraft imported in India can be revalidation by the DGCA if its
25. An Aero engine manufactured outside India can he type certified by the DGCA if it conforms
to:
1. FAR33 2. FAR23
26. DGCA revalidation the type certificate in respect of engine /propeller under the purview of
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
3. After importing special condition for safe operation 4. It cannot modify it.
29. For revalidation of type certificate of aircraft imported into India which of the following
3. The basis on ETOPS certification if applicable 4. Quality control and maintenance system manual.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting and approval 4. None of the
above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
3. Equal to overhaul
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it can:
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircraft component:
3. Appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic effecting the airworthiness of the
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series ‘E’ Part-Il Annexure ‘I’---------------unmounted
I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
I. Length of fuselage
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A before they are flown is
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed 2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before buying / importing such
1. CA—23A 2. CA-25
3. CA-28 4. CA-27.
51 . Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisfy himself with the:
3. Both 1 and 2
52. For aircraft type imported into the country for the first time the documents accompanying the
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
1. One 2. Two
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is bused with
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. ExportCofA
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are in
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
I. Un-airworthy aircraft
2. Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration markiig
3. Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
1. He feels like it
63. The document, which must accompany the application for issue of C of A, is:
1. Means all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft
69. A state government aircraft certified in normal category subdivision shall be a aircraft
I. Passenger 2. Private
3. Research 4. Racing.
I. Normal 2. Aerobatics
3. Experimental 4. Special.
73. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the
requirements of:
1. FAR 15 2. FAR 26
3. FARAD(87-0l-40) 4. FAR2I.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
I. Export C of A
3. III 4. IV.
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
3. Both I and 2
4. Either I or 2.
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
I. Rule 5 2. Rule 15
87. Validity period of C of A for all aircraft of over 20 years of age is:
3. Both I and 2
90. Operation of an aircraft may apply [‘or the renewal of C of A along with necessary fees as
per:
1. RuIe5X 2. Rule6I
1. 10 2. 15
92. For the purpose of renewal of C of A the aircraft would simply be required to be inspected in
accordance with:
93. In case the C of A of the aircraft has expired, for renewal the quantum of work required has to he
decided by:
2. Can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA
98. If mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the availability
100. Before the C of A is renewed the operator/owner has to satisfy the airworthiness officer about the ------
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on board have been checked
for performance.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AME’s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category “B’ to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D’ to cover the type of engine involved
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. CA25 2. CA 28
a) A b) B c) C d) E.
a) B b) C c) D d) E.
5. A firm approved for carrying out repair and flight testing of Avionics set is in category:
a) A b) E c) D d) C.
6. An organisation under taking calibration of instruments of master-gauges and tools as applied to the
a)A b) D c) E d) F.
a) Category E b) Category D
11. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials, goods and certifying that
13. The QCM and the deputy QCM are approved by:
15. An organization seeking approval in any of the categories A-G, should apply to:
a) RAO b) DGCA
16. An organization seeking approval in any of the activities under any category (series-E) shall apply on
prescribed form:
a) CA 182 b) CA-9
a) DGCA b) RAO
20. Quality control cum Quality Assurance manual for scheduled operator is approved by:
a) DOCA b) RAO
21. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity, whenever applicable in
a) DGCA b) RAO
23. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in:
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised:
a) Category D b) Category F
a) Consignee b) RAO
30. The fee payable by any organization for approval of renewal covered in CAR Series E Part-I are as per
aircraft rule.
a) 133 b) 133-A
c) 133-B d) 133-C.
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
1. DGCA
1. QCM 2. RAO
6. The special identification number allotted to the Petroleum Products as a one lot for testing
and sampling:
8. Aviation fuel and other petroleum products received for storage prior to loading into an
12. Records will be maintained by an organisation approved in Cat. ‘E’ for period of: 1. Minimum Two years.
2. One year
3. Manufacturers 4. AMEs.
1. DGCA 2. QCM.
3. Managing Director 4. R A 0.
15. To ensure that goods release to customers have not deteriorated, is the duty of:
16. No Aircraft goods shall be held in the bonded store for distribution unless they are received
17. In case materials are returned by costumers on account of being unairworthy, this must be
known to:
1. Q.C.M. 2. R.A.O.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
1. DGCA 2. RAO
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which------------- years in
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded by:
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute for a period of:
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit to local Airworthiness
Office:
.
1.Process organization means on organization engaged in:
2. A firm seeking approved in Category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA:
a) 12 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 3 Samples.
c) Both A and B.
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) 4 Years.
a) 3 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 12 Samples.
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category ‘D’ is signed by:
12. A certificate issued by DGCA to specif’ the design of component/ items of equipment
is called:
c) Type certificate
3. Service Maintenance & Repair Manual 4. Supply & Repair Man ual.
17. IPC means:
19. SB means:
20. Organisation outside India will be granted approval by DGCA when the organisation
complies with:
22. For ‘Workshop process and Inspection’ organization approval is given in:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
1. Cat. C 2. Cat. D
3. Cat. F 4. Cat G
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is submitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub-A W O.
3. DGCA 4. Bothl&@.
1. Operator 2. Manufacturer
4. What is the full form of AlC? 1. Aeronautical In formation Circulars. 2. Airworthiness Inspection Circular.
5. Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance organization?
6. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the DGCA that their maintenance facility is satisfactory?
1. Operator 2. Q.C.M.
3. P.l.C. 4. Manufacturer
3. C D L 4. C of R.
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
1. Q C M 2. AME
3. P I C 4. Operator
1. To R A W O 2. To QCM
1. Operator 2. QCM
3. AME 4. PIC
22. Which Rule says that every aircraft should carry on board:
1. CCL 2. ECL
3. PDR 4. QC Manual
1. CCL 2. ECL
28. What is FI ?
1. l0 parts. 2. 1 part
3. 2parts. 4. 3 parts.
1. Yes 2. No
SERIES 0
1. Proficiency check of licensed air transport service pilot shall be carried out at an
interval of not less than months and not more than months
1. 4,8 2. 3,8
3. 3,6 4. 4,6
2. During an IR check when the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to
1. l00ft 2. 200ft
3. 300ft 4. 500ft
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot’s check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let — down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
9. Aerobatic manoeuvres are not to be carried out unless the pilot wears
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
1. At 6p.m. 2. At 6p.m.
3. In the morning when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
4. In the evening when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
17. Ensuring that pilots are familiar with the laws , regulations & procedures pertinent to
the performance of their duties is the responsibility of
18. In computing oil and fuel required for aircraft operation one should consider
1. Met forecast
19. Approximate altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to 620 rnb of absolute
pressure is
20. After the end of operating life of a helicopter component the records shall be kept for a
period of days
1. 60 2. 90
21. In flight simulation of emergency for training of helicopter flight crew is prohibited
when
22. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot in command shall submit a report to
1. BCAS 2. DGCA
1. 1 2. 2. 2
25. In an emergency situation , Endangering the safety at aircraft when pilot in command
take sanction that violates laid down regulations he shall submit a report with in
hours
1. 12 2. 24
3. 48 4. 72
26. Marking at break in pilot for emergency escape shall be in colour 1. Yellow 2. Red
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
1. Owner 2. Lessee
3. All passengers who have bought the ticket have boarded the flight
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
1. 375 Kg 2. 275 Kg
35. Homs gliders shall have a power oil stall speed exceeding a
1. 25 Knots 2. 30 Knots
36. A single seater powered homs glider should weight less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
37. A powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
1. 70 Knots 2. 80 Knots
41. An operator can request for approval of 180 minutes ETOPS only if there has been
current approval for minutes ETOPS for a minimum months 1. 75,6 2. 75,12
3. 120,12 4. 120,6
42. Under ETOPS operations an immediate evaluation shall be carried out by the operator
3. 0.01/1000 4. noneoftheabove
43. Operators should develop MEL exclusively for ETOPS operation which should
generally’ be
44. For getting approval for ETOPS operator has to demonstrate to DOCA that flight can
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arising from
48. The responsibility of ensuring accuracy of the operations manual as well as that of issuing revisions and
53. ‘Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
1. Two indipendent altitute measuring systems 2. Altitude alert system 3. Altitude control system 3. All are
correct
55. In case of aircraft already in service RVSM airworthiness approval is to be granted by regularities
authority of
57. While flying under RVSM envelope pilot must inform ATC whenever there is
I. Loss of redundancy of altimetry system 2. Loss of thrust of engine 3. High turbulence 4. All are correct
I. Lattitude or Longitude
3. Either a & b
60. Application for registration of hang glider should be made to DGCA on form
1. CA—28 2. CA—30
3. CA—38 4. CA—40
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
64. Pre flight inspection and scheduled inspection up to 50 hours on powered hang glider is
carried out by
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
66. A glider log book keeps a complete record of flying modification and repair work All
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at least-
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 - 2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
3. Turbo prop & turbo jet only 4. Turbo prop, turbo jet & turbo fan
1. Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME Licence in various
1. 16. 2. 56
3. 61 4. 65
3. Six 4 Three
1.Aircraft 2. Engine
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
9. For issue of AME Licence category ‘R’ the candidate must posses RTR (Aero) Licence issued
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
1. 12,3 2. l2 6
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
14. A person having valid AME Licence covering aircraft below 5700 Kg. And desirous of having an extension
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
1. Valid for communication / navigation /radar system installed on under mentioned aircraft.
3. As in B plus DME
4. As in C plus ADF.
26. For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his Licence in category:
1. A 2. B
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME Licence provided the
candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number of installation and experience of compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
1. Rule 60 2. Rule 61
3. Ru1e49 4. Rule3O.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BAMEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. CA-23 2. CA-29
3. CA-9 4. CA-25.
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march and
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-Ill 4. Paper-IV.
36. Applicants successfully completing DGCA approved manufacturer’s training course qn
1. Paper-Il 2. Paper-IV
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. 4 2. 6
1. Part-V 2. Part-VI
3. Part-VII 4. Part-VIII
43. AME wants to renew is licence should have used the privileges of minimum months in
1. 3 2. 6
3. 9. 4. 12.
44. To work on aircraft the open rating licence holder should famerlize himself with the type of
1. 3 Months 2 2 Months
3. 1 Month 4. 6 Months
I. Instrument 2. Electrical
1. LA 2. HA
50. Person holding cat. ‘X’ Licence on particular radio equipment can carry out:
51. Candidate failing in oral cum practical test can avail subsequent chance after gaining:
1. QCM 2. Operator
I. Rule 61 2. Rule 62
55 Applicant meets with requirements to appear in exam’s and the application is duly tilled
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. RAO 4. QCM
1. Airframe 2. Engine
57. Applicants not engaged in any organization should forward their application directly to the:
I. R A O 2. Sub RAO
3. D A W 4. Both a & b
I. R A O 2. D A W
3. Operator 4. Q C M
62. Results of all oral cum test are declared by under intimation to CEO and airworthiness
directorate:
3. RAO 4. DGCA
64. Licence in category ‘A’ and C’ combined issue for helicopter with AUW:
65. helicopters with AUW above required separate endorsement in category ‘A and C’:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. RAO 2. Sub-RAO
72. AME category “A and C’ is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
1. 6 2. 7
3. 9 4. 10.
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. Part-VII 2. Part-VIII
3. Part-VI 4. Part-IX.
3. Both of them
2. Minor repair
3. Defect inspection
1. 1 year 2. 2 Year
1. 7 2. 8
3. 9 4. 6
80. Which of the following is not true for the issue of Basic Licence:
81. To change over from one stream of Basic Licence to another stream additional experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
I. LA to IS 2. PE to JE
3. RA to RN 4. ES to PE
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hitherto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
97. Total check routes for the approval of flight engineers examiners in preceding one year:
1. 10 2. 20
3. 5 4. 15.
98. Flight engineer should have minimum Hrs. of flying during 30 days for check flight
99. Minimum simulator training for Hrs. is required for flight engineer examiner:
1. 2Hrs. 2. 5Hrs.
3. 10 Hrs. 4. 2 1-Irs.
100. Approval of flight engineer /check flight engineer will he valid for:
I. 12 Months 2. 6 Months
101. Which of following are common requirements for both flight engineer examiner and check
1. Should not have less than 100 1-Irs. of flying experience during 6 months period
3. Should have been checked and found satisfactory by flight engineer examiner
102. The air transport operator is required to submit the application for renewal of check flight
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as laid down in:
3. Operations manual
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series’L’ Part-XV are complimentary to the provision of:
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
4. DGCA.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date of
submission of application:
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to undergo-:
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is renewed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
4. Both I and 2
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transport aircraft
1. 10 Hrs. 2. 81-Irs.
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, to exercise his
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair of the
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of flight inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
125. For renewal of FE Licence he should have completed not less than of flight time as a
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive proposal which includes:
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completion of:
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper —III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
3. 2 Years 4. None of the above.
130. After passing paper I , II and III GET shall be permitted to:
3. Work on aircraft
131. After the end of 3’ year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by training Schools
2. Chief Instructor
4. Operator.
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training in the
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
1. 70% 2. 80%
3. 85% 4. 75%
135. Re-examination will be held after days but with in days of completion of main course/GET:
1. 20,40 2. 25,45
3. 15,45 4. 15,50.
136. Candidates who successfully complete the approved course will have three chances of oral cum
practical within a period of:
1. 1 8 Months 2. 1 Year
138. Candidates who do not qualify any of the three oral cum practical exams may undergo
140. When the Licence is lost by the holder (other than the act of GOD) he has to furnish. Full fee
1. l0Years 2. 5 Years
3. 15 Years 4. 20 Years.
142. The period of validity and FE Licence shall commence from the:
1. Degree in Engineering
2. PG degree in Engineering
3. PG degree
CAR Series X
1. Rule 49 2. Rule 56
147. During empty weighing of aircraft, the following items are permissible:
148. As per CAR Series X part II, there is no need to weigh an aircraft on routine basis, when
weight is:
149. Aircraft with AUW more than 2000 Kg. Are to be reweighed:
153. ‘[he load sheets of a scheduled operator, from the date of issue, shall be preserved for a period of at
least:
154. The CG’ position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at least:
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
161. An aircraft with passenger’s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
166. 1’he drugs containers in the physician ‘s kit are intended to be administered by:
167. To ensure that the first—aid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. 6 2. 12
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
1. Duplicate 2. Quadruplicate
176. Request for grant of concession relating to use of materials/parts in, or effecting minor
modification or carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary parts will be disposed of by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM
177. Request for grant of concessions relating to aircraft primary structure will be referred to:
3. DGCA
178. The approved formats for concession are kept for the period:
1. 5 Years 2. 3 Months
179. Permission for marginal duration from approved specification of not affecting the safety of
aircraft is:
1. Permit 2. Concession
165. First —aid kit contain shall be replenished and ratified by:
1. A private medical practitioner
180. Approval firms, whose scope of approval specifically includes delegation may use substitute material
parts in aircraft systems other than relating to primary structures, under the authority
of:
I. RAO 2. QCM
182. Log books shall be kept and maintained is respect of all aircraft registered in India in
accordance with:
1. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be preserved for at least to period of:
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a period of:
191. DGCA Mandatory modification statue of the aircraft engine and its components shall be
reflected in:
3. Bothland2
4. Either I and 2.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is of’:
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry should he made in:
195. Contents for FEB (flight report book) or technical log is approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
196. The change of format of FRB for non scheduled operators requires approval of the:
2. QCM
3. DGCA
197. The second copy of each filled page of JLB shall be retained on:
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
3. Grant of concessions
206, For issue of taxi permit AME should hold a valid Licence in:
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
3. Representative DGCA
3. Lighting
1. 2 Years 2. 1 Year
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
3. Both I and 2.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the relevant
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
1. Series X’ Part-V 2. Series ‘X Part VII
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
I. RAO 2. DGCA
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the relevant
I. DGCA 2. RAO
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
1. Series “F” Part VIII, 2. Series F Part VII,
14. Every Aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus under:
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
28. The Flight Tests for any newly installed Radio equipment shall be carried out to assess its range and
performance at various:
29. The Antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper installation to ensure minimum:
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in accordance
with:
33. Every aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus, as per Aircraft Rule:
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II”
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
57. Mode “A”/”C” transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSO—c74C, 2. TSO—C75C, 3. TSO—C112, 4. TSO—C76C.
1. TSO —C74C, 2. TSO —Cl 12, 3. TSO —Cl 19, 4. TSO — Clii.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 53 A, 4. 52 A.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
equipment.
68. The Mandatory Modifications/Inspections issued by airworthiness authority are to be complied with
within:
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of AD’s, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
73. Owners/Operators are required to submit to the Regional Airworthiness Office a list of SB’s
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
76. CAR Series ‘T’ Part I, deals with flight testing of:
79. Flight Test of an aircraft without any passenger on board is carried out for the purpose of
assessing:
Testing subsequent to engine change has been carried out) after change of:
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
85. Adverse comments by Flight Crew on the performance of an aircraft during Test Flight
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb performance by
more than:
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Issue of AME Licences, fts classification and experience requirements are rel3tes with CAR Section -2:
1. Series-L, Part IV, 2. Series —L, Part —1, 3. Series— L, Part III.
2. The minimum qualifications & experience requirements for issue of AME licence in various Categories is as
5. Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied Categories of the same stream,
9. Licence with the scope limited to minor maintenance, minor repairs, minor Modification, snag rectification
11. As per CAR Series-L-Part-I, the questions in the written examinations will consist:
I. Multiple choice only, 2. Objective & Subjective, 3. Essay type only, 4. None of the above.
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the duplicate may be
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of type Certificate;
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substantiate the design
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is to ensure of the
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the date of:
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the validity as specified ir
3. Bothl&2.
26. For issue of AME licence in Cat. ‘R’ the candidate must possess:
1. Red, 2. Yellow, 3. Shall be outline in white to contrast with background 4. All the above.
33. Pressure Altitude Reporting transponder fitted in all Aeroplane in accordance with CAR Sec.2,
35. As per VFR visual reference to land marks should be at least every:
37. The detailed guidelines for preparation of Operational Manual are available in:
should be between: -
40. Flight Testing of Aircraft for which a Certificate of Airworthiness has previously been issued, reflected in:
1. CAR Series T, Part —I, 2. CAR Series T, Part —II, 4. Both 1 & 2 are correct.,
C of A renewal:
1. C of A aircraft 2. C of R of aircraft
42. If you want the airworthiness of officer to visit-your organization during the higher
43. If the airworthiness officer complete his final inspection after the expiry of C of k
3. Expiry date
4. All above.
45. In case the C of A is suspended due to major accident and again C of A is renewed
1. Previous currency of C of A
4. Both land2.
47. To ensure that correct aeronautic of engineering practices are used during assembling
2. It —requires weighing
49. Director general may refuse to issue the C of A/C of R re-build aircraft if:
4. All above.
2. Before validation of C of A
4. All above.
54. In wooden aircraft, the inspection of glue line is often facilitated with:
applicable to:
4, Helicopters only.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
3. Cleans rooms
3. 1 year 4. 5 year
3. 5 year 4. 2 year
8. What is the maximum overhaul period for thermometers, pressure and vacuum gauges
I. To be decided by manufacturer
4. 1000 Hrs
3. In JLB 4. In FRC
12. After how much time an instrument installed on A/C which has not been
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 18 months 4. 24 months
13. Every A/C shall be fitted & equipped with instruments including radio
apparatus as per
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
engaged in
1. Remuneration 2. Hire
19. All instruments dial shall have operating range marked as specified by
1. DGCA 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. Both a & c
4. Both a& b
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
equipment are
2. Seat belt for each seat plus a) 3. Physician 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
26. ELT should be operated at a frequency of
1. 1030MHz 2. 1090MHz
3. 121.5MHz 4. 121.5KHz
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air — cooled engines with BHP
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
33. All aircraft issued with C of A after year 2000 shall have during night
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
4. All above
37. Rule 57 requires that 1. Every a/c shall be fitted & equipped with instrument
2. Issue of C of C
3. Botha&b
4. None of the above
3. Both a & b
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
3. Both a & b
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to be certified by
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
48. Contamination can be caused during 1. Dry cleaning process 3. Wet cleaning process
1. 99.95°/b 2. 99 %
3. 95% 4. 75 %
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the factors influencing the
always be
I. Equal 2. More
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of rule
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
62. Series I part V deals with 1. Scheduled airlines 2. Non scheduled
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a &b
72. The aeroplane of maximum certified take off mass over 5700 Kg required to
equipped is
1. FDR 2. CVR
77. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
79. All helicopter of maximum take of mass over 3180 Kg equipped with
81. The FDR installed on a/c shall have a serial number authenticated by
1. AME 2. RAO
82. The A/C rule that requires that every a/c shall be fitted and equipped with
1. Rule 50 2. Rule 58
83. The part of CAR that lays down the requirements for fitment of CVR on a/c
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Series! part IX 2. Series I part V
1. Recording the aural environment on the flight dech during flight time
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over for which C of A
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
87. No person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is
1. 15000 Kg 2. 3000 Kg
88. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is fitted with
an approved CVR
1. 3000 Kg 2. 5700 Kg
89. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over upto and including or
which the individual C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main rotor speed on
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
operation
I , 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with capable of retaining
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
1. Accident 2. Incedent
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR shall
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped with and may
4. Both b & c
1. 1975 2. 1976
3. 1977 4. 1978
1. Category I or R 2. Category I or C
3. Category A or B 4. Category R or C
121. Flight crew action w.r.t warning provided by GPWS equipment is given in
1. Aeroplane flight manual 2. Crew operation manual 3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
125. ACAS—1
2. FAATSOC-119
3. Specification applicable to DGCA
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
1. Cat.R 2. Cat.V
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the ACAS unserviceable for
more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
SERIES-O
by operator engaged in
a.m.e
2. Which Part of Series F deals with Suspension of C. of A. & its subsequent revalidation:
1. IV 2. V
3. VI 4.VII
1. 55 (2) 2 55 (3)
3. 55 (1) 4. 56 (1).
I. 51 (l) 2. 53(2)
3. 54 (2) 4. 55(2)
5. DGCA can cancel the C. of A. or suspend whenever reasonable doubt exist to:
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Will be revalidated up to the date of the previous currency of C of A had remain valid,
10. As condition for revalidation of C. of A., the Airworthiness Officer requires aircraft/aircraft component
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Unpressurised aircraft having AUW less than 5700 kgs.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircraft should have:
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor will produce a copy
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated by Rule:
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are to be performed.
2. When aircraft have to flown for experimental/Test Flight.
34. Special permits are not required in case of Test Flight for Renewal of C. of A. & if C. of A. is expired, AME
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
3. Evacuation of aircraft opr passengers from area impending danger. 4. All the above.
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be submit
to:
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
40. As for as possible the initial; climb should not be over:
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
4. Suspension/Revalidation of C. of A.
47. Indian Registered aircraft5 before undertake any flight have to possess a current & valid
Certificate of Airworthiness in the light of:
48. D.G.C.A in respect of any ale, a/c component item of equipment specify standards
3. Maintenance and major maintenance shall carried out and certified by appropriately Licensed A.M.E
4. All of above
50. Approved Pilot means pilot to carry out transmit/layover inspection without authority of invoking MEL
1 D.G.C.A 2 RAO
4 All of above
1 day 2 1 Week
53. The scheduled airline as required to have their own maintenance facility as required by
overhaul schedule of component and a/c operated by operator have minimum experience as scheduled
operator
1. 2year 2 3year
3. 5year 4 l0year
55. The MPD (maintenance planning document) should submit for its approval to
3 D.G.C.A 4 AMO
56. Special inspection schedules of a/c such as heavy landing ,post lightning strike post propeller strike
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
3. Both a & b
59. The maintenance work recorded and signed and dated in relevant log book with in
1. 24 Hours 2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours 4. 96 Hours
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
3. D.G.C.A. 4. AMO
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
3. Both a & b
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
3. Both a & b
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category with more
than 19 seats or payload capacity more than 2 tons
2. Certificate of inspection higher than transmit inspection will be by AME specially approve person
3. Transmit inspection without snag rectification will by approved basic licence holder when a/c away from
base
4. All of above
69. For aircraft operated by flying club and gliding club the FRC valid by:
1. 24Hrs. 2. 48Hrs.
70. Aircraft belonging to aerial work Category FRC issued by AME after every:
71. Aircraft from regular aerodromes shall FRC to aerial work category issue every 50
1. Validity of FRC by DGCA 2. Transmit inspection by approved basic Licence if aircraft is away from base.
73. In case of diversionary landing where AME/approved person not available. The inspection with snag
category:
75. For aircraft equipped with communication equipment only certification will carried out
after every:
77. The FRC for radio should be used with every FRC for airframe and engine:
I. Second 2. Third
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
3. Seven day relevant inspection under AME and certificate of it by QCM and passed oral cum practical by
RAO.
2. Firm’s name
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO/Sub.RAO 4. QCM.
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO 4 .QCM.
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. RAO
87. All completed maintenance schedule must be preserved for a minimum period of:
1. QCM 2. Operator
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
1. 25 Years 2. 15 Years.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. SSIP 2. CPCP
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
103. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
years:
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer cracks.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
3. Growth of fungus
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
3. Atmosphere air
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
3. Thirty 4. fifty.
1. Twenty 2. Thirty
3. Fourty 4. Fifty
3. QCM
123. RAO can authorized a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person has at least three
1. Three 2. Six
3. Before C of A flight 4. Before first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging.
126. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person was at least 3
I. Three 2. Six
2. Flight engineer
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first flight:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion should be checked by second
person
1. Growth of fougue
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
3. Atmosphere air
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
3. Rebuilding of aircraft
140. If ‘loop test’ is not carried out during test flight of a glider, then its C of A:
1. Will not be renewal 2. Will not be renewed in any case
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
144. The C of A for glider is renewed provided is carried out during test flight:
146. New component and spare parts used on gliders should be covered by:
2. Should be pressure for two month 3. Should be pressure for one year
glider logs book and procedure / work shall be pressure for a period of:
150. The weight considered for declaring the aircraft micro light:
151. The MAUW of micro light single seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330Kg. 2. 450Kg.
152. The MAUW of micro weight two seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. CA25 2. CA23
154. How many items should be fixed on identification plate of micro light aircraft:
1. 4 Items 2. 5 Items
1. 6Months 2. lYear
3. 2Years 4. NOA.
1. Schedule 2. Non-schedule
158. The aircraft, which landed with scehon of its upper fuselages:
160. For schedule / Non-scheduled No aircraft imported who complete age / design
1. 15/75% 2. 20/70%
3. 15/70% 4. 20/75%.
161. For cargo operation pressurize transport cat. Aircraft import not more than age and
1. 20 /75% 2. 30/75%
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
3. Time since.
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may approval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DAW 4. DGCA.
1. 55A 2. 133A
3. 133C 4. 72A.
3. Instructors.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare load/trim
sheet is:
179. Certificate of successful completion training in recurrent training to airline given by:
I. QCM 2. Shop
I. DAW 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. QCM
3. Operator.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
1. RTOW 2. Payload
3. Removable Weight
I. Triplicate 2. Duplicate
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. CA 28 2. CA 25
3. CA 3O 4. CA 23.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
1. VT-SOS 2. VT-XXX
1. Hindi 2. English
198. When a new type of aircraft is registered and entered in the register. DGCA shall advise the:
I. Owner 2. Operator
1. Lost 2. Mutilated
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
by rule:
1 31 of 1937 2. 33 of 1937
3. 36 of 1937 4. 37 A OF 1937.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
1. Both the sides of tail surfaces
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
3. IAR25A 4. Noneoftheabove.
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
I. Density 2. Volume
16. Distance of ground power units from the aircraft filling/venting points & fuelling equipment
1. 6 meters 2. 10 meters.
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are availabk
of:
19. Fuelling operation shall cease when a Turboprop Jet aircraft maneuvers, so as to bring the rear
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used in the
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq. meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of horizontal
tank is:
30. Setting time for ATF, without floating suction device is:
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been added to the static
37. Delivery of AVGAS from the vehicles to aircraft should be made through a Micro filter with a normal
rating of:
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate. Should be carried out:
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of shut-off valves &
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system should be replaced
after every:
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since the filling of
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
I. Paste. 2. Paper.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples taken: 1. During
c) BothA&B
a) Vicinity of aerodrome b) With in the area of 200 Km. c) BothA&Barewrong d) Both A & B are correct
3. Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft has current and valid C of A: a) QCM b) AME
c) Owner/operator d) RAO.
a) Periodical inspections b)Replace held components. c) carry out repair / modifications d) All the above
c) BothAandB
6. If the aircraft is leased by owner, than the responsibility for C of A to be current and valid is of: a) Owner
b) Operator
a) AME b) QCM
8. Airworthiness standards observed by the operator/owner will be monitored by technical officers by the
c) BothAandB
a) Date of issue b) As a) plus date of affectivity c) As b) plus total no. of pages d) None of above.
14. Subsequent pages other than first indicates: a) Date of affectivity b) Date of revision c) Date of issue d)
15. A change effected in CAR is tempered as: a) Amendment b) Change c) Re-issue d) None of the above.
16. First page and affected pages indicates: a) Revision number b) a) plus date of revision c) b) Plus
17. Unaffected pages by revision will contain: a) Effective date b) Issue number c) Date of issue d) None of
the above.
18. A revision is indicated by: a) A sideline on left side of affected pages b) Underlining the affected part c)
19. Major changes to CAR shall be treats as: a) Change b) revision c) Amendment d) Major revision.
20. Whenever a new CAR or significant revision is proposed to be issued, the draft CAR/proposed revision
may be circulated to: a) Concerned operators b) Plus regional officer c) plus manufacturer d) None of the
above.
21. Revision notice indicates: a) Pages affected b) reason for revision c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
22. Part — III relates to: a) Objectives and targets of airworthiness directorate b) Airworthiness regulation
23. The most obvious objective of an airworthiness authority is: a) Ensuring design levels of reliability b)
Operating safety of civil registered aircraft c) Alert value of light aircraft d) Both A and B.
24. On-Condition maintenance is accomplishment of: a) Bench/institute test b) visual inspection c) Physical
25. Condition maintenance is based on theory of: a) Fit and forget it b) fit until failure c) Both A and B d)
26. The parametric report for achieving max. Measures of safety is sent to: a) RAO b) DGCA c) QCM d) All
the above.
27. The parameters are obtained as: a) Accidents per 1000 Hrs. b) IFSD per 1000 Hrs. c) IFSD per 100 Hrs.
d) Both A & B.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs. flown is:
30. Total number of engine hours flown is given by product of no. of airframe hours
33. Parameters i.e. no. of major defects / 1000 Hrs. includes no. of Hrs. of:
a) Airframe b) Engine
34. Private operator will furnish information in parametric form to DGCA every:
35. Non-scheduled, aerial work, training aircraft operator should furnish information toDGCA every.
40. Unintentional landing affected on account of failure/malfunctioning of an aircraft component system is:
41. Maintenance process requiring assembly, inspection of aircraft/components at fixed periods is:
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
inspection the:
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
c) Revision by DOCA
d) Issue by DOCA.
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as “Birds eye view” by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification standard of civil
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct functioning of which is
essential for:
c) Result in emergency
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
64. for computing static’s for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
take into account:
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause service
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six months.
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None of the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
d) Both B & C.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports, that are
observed during:
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is carried out to
ascertain increase of drag from the parameter:
c) Replacement of engine
85. If a system is over alert/alert notice will be issued by RMU and report will sent to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c)QCM d) None.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate: a) By 251h of every month b)
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at least the last:
a) B Part-I b) F Part-XX
c) C Part-V d) H Part-Ill
a) Rectification of defect
c) Validation of FRC
d) Only A & C.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be impressed in terms:
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
95. CAR series D Part —I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by:
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
c) Both.
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator’s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be sent to RAO
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) DGCA b) Sub-RAO
a) Reliability b) Disability
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the corrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must be sent to:
c) On condition
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
c) Hard time.
b) Log Book
c) Register
116. Restoring an aircraft part or component to its original design performance level after
a) It can sustain damage and the remaining structural can withstand reasonable load
b) It can sustain damage and the structure can bear excessive load.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) AME d) Pilot
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d) AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated form:
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the engine log book.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting features:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
c) QCM d) DGCA.
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
c) 5 Years d) All of the above.
a) RAO b) Organization
135. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in the engine log book by:
a) RAO b) QCM
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
c) RAO.
139. Average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in:
141. Who can carried out periodical spot checks on the records of fuel and oil uplift?
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) Technician.
142. Who can change from one maintenance process to another?
a) RAO b) AME
c) Operator d) QCM
144. Who may require an operator to submit samples to bench checking and in case of engines
a) QCM b) AME
145. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameters in:
c) Either A or B d) None
146. Every engine parameters has an alert value which is fixed by:
a) Operator b) DGCA
c) Both.
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applicable in
respect of:
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
c) By an AME.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval from RAO needs to be
documented in:
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service life of
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
Series F
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c unless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the residence of the
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
1. Category A 2. Category B
I. By citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast 2/3w of the directors of
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company has given the a/c
on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state or central government
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in India
3. A copy of the import hence issued by director general foreign trade (DGFT)
4. All above
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C of R
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
4. All above
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
3. Both a & b
1. To revalidate C of A 2. To issue C of A
19. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of
ale Rule
1. 49A 2. 49B
3. 49C 4. 49
20. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor-craft is submitted in the form as per
CAR series F
21. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate of ale is to be submitted in the form as in
22. For issuance of type certificate of aircraft or its components, the DGCA should be satisfied
on the points:
3. Both I and 2
23. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA
24. Type certificate of a rotorcraft imported in India can be revalidation by the DGCA if its
25. An Aero engine manufactured outside India can he type certified by the DGCA if it conforms
to:
1. FAR33 2. FAR23
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
3. After importing special condition for safe operation 4. It cannot modify it.
29. For revalidation of type certificate of aircraft imported into India which of the following
3. The basis on ETOPS certification if applicable 4. Quality control and maintenance system manual.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
1. Manufacture’s test flight schedule
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting and approval 4. None of the
above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
3. Equal to overhaul
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it can:
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircraft component:
3. Appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic effecting the airworthiness of the
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series ‘E’ Part-Il Annexure ‘I’---------------unmounted
I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
dimension to the DGCA.
I. Length of fuselage
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A before they are flown is
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed 2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before buying / importing such
aircraft so that acceptance standards are conveyed to him.
1. CA—23A 2. CA-25
3. CA-28 4. CA-27.
51 . Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisfy himself with the:
3. Both 1 and 2
52. For aircraft type imported into the country for the first time the documents accompanying the
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
1. One 2. Two
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is bused with
up to date amendments will he:
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. ExportCofA
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are in
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
I. Un-airworthy aircraft
2. Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration markiig
3. Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
1. He feels like it
63. The document, which must accompany the application for issue of C of A, is:
1. Means all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft
69. A state government aircraft certified in normal category subdivision shall be a aircraft
I. Passenger 2. Private
3. Research 4. Racing.
I. Normal 2. Aerobatics
3. Experimental 4. Special.
73. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the
requirements of:
1. FAR 15 2. FAR 26
3. FARAD(87-0l-40) 4. FAR2I.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
75. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should he accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
3. III 4. IV.
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
1. Export C of A
3. Both I and 2
4. Either I or 2.
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
I. Rule 5 2. Rule 15
87. Validity period of C of A for all aircraft of over 20 years of age is:
1. 3% 2. 10%
3. Both I and 2
90. Operation of an aircraft may apply [‘or the renewal of C of A along with necessary fees as
per:
1. RuIe5X 2. Rule6I
1. 10 2. 15
92. For the purpose of renewal of C of A the aircraft would simply be required to be inspected in
accordance with:
93. In case the C of A of the aircraft has expired, for renewal the quantum of work required has to he
decided by:
1. C of A, C of R 2. W/T Licence
2. Can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA
98. If mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the availability
100. Before the C of A is renewed the operator/owner has to satisfy the airworthiness officer about the ------
101. At the time of C of A renewal, the operator must submit to airworthiness office:
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on board have been checked
for performance.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AME’s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category “B’ to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D’ to cover the type of engine involved
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. The date of inspection 2. The expiry of last C of A
1. CA25 2. CA 28
a) A b) B c) C d) E.
a) B b) C c) D d) E.
5. A firm approved for carrying out repair and flight testing of Avionics set is in category:
a) A b) E c) D d) C.
6. An organisation under taking calibration of instruments of master-gauges and tools as applied to the
a)A b) D c) E d) F.
a) Category E b) Category D
11. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials, goods and certifying that
13. The QCM and the deputy QCM are approved by:
15. An organization seeking approval in any of the categories A-G, should apply to:
a) RAO b) DGCA
prescribed form:
a) CA 182 b) CA-9
a) DGCA b) RAO
20. Quality control cum Quality Assurance manual for scheduled operator is approved by:
a) DOCA b) RAO
21. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity, whenever applicable in
a) DGCA b) RAO
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised:
a) Category D b) Category F
a) Consignee b) RAO
30. The fee payable by any organization for approval of renewal covered in CAR Series E Part-I are as per
aircraft rule.
a) 133 b) 133-A
c) 133-B d) 133-C.
31. Type certificate means a certificate issued:
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
1. DGCA
1. QCM 2. RAO
6. The special identification number allotted to the Petroleum Products as a one lot for testing
and sampling:
8. Aviation fuel and other petroleum products received for storage prior to loading into an
12. Records will be maintained by an organisation approved in Cat. ‘E’ for period of: 1. Minimum Two years.
2. One year
3. Six months 4. For indefinite period.
3. Manufacturers 4. AMEs.
1. DGCA 2. QCM.
3. Managing Director 4. R A 0.
15. To ensure that goods release to customers have not deteriorated, is the duty of:
16. No Aircraft goods shall be held in the bonded store for distribution unless they are received
17. In case materials are returned by costumers on account of being unairworthy, this must be
known to:
1. Q.C.M. 2. R.A.O.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
1. DGCA 2. RAO
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which------------- years in
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded by:
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute for a period of:
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit to local Airworthiness
Office:
2. A firm seeking approved in Category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA:
a) 12 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 3 Samples.
c) Both A and B.
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) 4 Years.
a) 3 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 12 Samples.
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category ‘D’ is signed by:
12. A certificate issued by DGCA to specif’ the design of component/ items of equipment
is called:
c) Type certificate
3. Service Maintenance & Repair Manual 4. Supply & Repair Man ual.
19. SB means:
20. Organisation outside India will be granted approval by DGCA when the organisation
complies with:
22. For ‘Workshop process and Inspection’ organization approval is given in:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
1. Cat. C 2. Cat. D
3. Cat. F 4. Cat G
24. CAR Series Cat ‘0’ relates with:
25. Organisation located outside India applies for approval of organisation on form:
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is submitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. 5 years 2. Three years
1. R A W O. 2. Sub-A W O.
3. DGCA 4. Bothl&@.
1. Operator 2. Manufacturer
4. What is the full form of AlC? 1. Aeronautical In formation Circulars. 2. Airworthiness Inspection Circular.
5. Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance organization?
6. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the DGCA that their maintenance facility is satisfactory?
1. Operator 2. Q.C.M.
3. P.l.C. 4. Manufacturer
3. C D L 4. C of R.
8. On what document should an operator base his maintenance programme:
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
17. What is DDG?
1. Q C M 2. AME
3. P I C 4. Operator
1. To R A W O 2. To QCM
1. Operator 2. QCM
3. AME 4. PIC
22. Which Rule says that every aircraft should carry on board:
1. CCL 2. ECL
3. PDR 4. QC Manual
1. CCL 2. ECL
28. What is FI ?
1. l0 parts. 2. 1 part
3. 2parts. 4. 3 parts.
1. Yes 2. No
SERIES 0
1. Proficiency check of licensed air transport service pilot shall be carried out at an
interval of not less than months and not more than months
1. 4,8 2. 3,8
3. 3,6 4. 4,6
2. During an IR check when the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to
1. l00ft 2. 200ft
3. 300ft 4. 500ft
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot’s check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let — down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
10. Instruments and equipments are fitted on aircraft to enable the flight crew to
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
1. At 6p.m. 2. At 6p.m.
3. In the morning when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
4. In the evening when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
17. Ensuring that pilots are familiar with the laws , regulations & procedures pertinent to
18. In computing oil and fuel required for aircraft operation one should consider
1. Met forecast
19. Approximate altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to 620 rnb of absolute
pressure is
20. After the end of operating life of a helicopter component the records shall be kept for a
period of days
1. 60 2. 90
21. In flight simulation of emergency for training of helicopter flight crew is prohibited
when
22. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot in command shall submit a report to
1. BCAS 2. DGCA
25. In an emergency situation , Endangering the safety at aircraft when pilot in command
take sanction that violates laid down regulations he shall submit a report with in
hours
1. 12 2. 24
3. 48 4. 72
26. Marking at break in pilot for emergency escape shall be in colour 1. Yellow 2. Red
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
1. Owner 2. Lessee
3. All passengers who have bought the ticket have boarded the flight
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
1. 375 Kg 2. 275 Kg
35. Homs gliders shall have a power oil stall speed exceeding a
1. 25 Knots 2. 30 Knots
36. A single seater powered homs glider should weight less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
37. A powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
1. 70 Knots 2. 80 Knots
41. An operator can request for approval of 180 minutes ETOPS only if there has been
current approval for minutes ETOPS for a minimum months 1. 75,6 2. 75,12
3. 120,12 4. 120,6
42. Under ETOPS operations an immediate evaluation shall be carried out by the operator
3. 0.01/1000 4. noneoftheabove
43. Operators should develop MEL exclusively for ETOPS operation which should
generally’ be
44. For getting approval for ETOPS operator has to demonstrate to DOCA that flight can
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arising from
48. The responsibility of ensuring accuracy of the operations manual as well as that of issuing revisions and
53. ‘Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
1. Two indipendent altitute measuring systems 2. Altitude alert system 3. Altitude control system 3. All are
correct
55. In case of aircraft already in service RVSM airworthiness approval is to be granted by regularities
authority of
57. While flying under RVSM envelope pilot must inform ATC whenever there is
I. Loss of redundancy of altimetry system 2. Loss of thrust of engine 3. High turbulence 4. All are correct
I. Lattitude or Longitude
3. Either a & b
60. Application for registration of hang glider should be made to DGCA on form
1. CA—28 2. CA—30
3. CA—38 4. CA—40
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
64. Pre flight inspection and scheduled inspection up to 50 hours on powered hang glider is
carried out by
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
66. A glider log book keeps a complete record of flying modification and repair work All
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at least-
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 - 2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
3. Turbo prop & turbo jet only 4. Turbo prop, turbo jet & turbo fan
78. Auxiliary power unit is a gas turbine engine that can be used for
1. Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME Licence in various
1. 16. 2. 56
3. 61 4. 65
3. Six 4 Three
6. For AME examination paper-Ill is conducted for:
1.Aircraft 2. Engine
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
9. For issue of AME Licence category ‘R’ the candidate must posses RTR (Aero) Licence issued
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
1. 2000Kg. 2. 3000Kg.
14. A person having valid AME Licence covering aircraft below 5700 Kg. And desirous of having an extension
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
Licence along with the following certificate:
21. AME Licence in the following categories will be endorsed according to the type of aircraft /
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
1. Valid for communication / navigation /radar system installed on under mentioned aircraft.
3. As in B plus DME
4. As in C plus ADF.
26. For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his Licence in category:
1. A 2. B
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME Licence provided the
candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number of installation and experience of compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
1. Rule 60 2. Rule 61
3. Ru1e49 4. Rule3O.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BAMEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. CA-23 2. CA-29
3. CA-9 4. CA-25.
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march and
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-Ill 4. Paper-IV.
1. Paper-Il 2. Paper-IV
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. 4 2. 6
1. Part-V 2. Part-VI
3. Part-VII 4. Part-VIII
43. AME wants to renew is licence should have used the privileges of minimum months in
the proceeding 24 Months:
1. 3 2. 6
3. 9. 4. 12.
44. To work on aircraft the open rating licence holder should famerlize himself with the type of
1. 3 Months 2 2 Months
3. 1 Month 4. 6 Months
I. Instrument 2. Electrical
1. LA 2. HA
50. Person holding cat. ‘X’ Licence on particular radio equipment can carry out:
52. Defense person /appearing in AME exams are exempted from multiple choice in paper:
1. QCM 2. Operator
I. Rule 61 2. Rule 62
55 Applicant meets with requirements to appear in exam’s and the application is duly tilled
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. RAO 4. QCM
1. Airframe 2. Engine
57. Applicants not engaged in any organization should forward their application directly to the:
I. R A O 2. Sub RAO
3. D A W 4. Both a & b
I. R A O 2. D A W
3. Operator 4. Q C M
59. Training system is documented in
62. Results of all oral cum test are declared by under intimation to CEO and airworthiness
directorate:
3. RAO 4. DGCA
64. Licence in category ‘A’ and C’ combined issue for helicopter with AUW:
65. helicopters with AUW above required separate endorsement in category ‘A and C’:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. RAO 2. Sub-RAO
72. AME category “A and C’ is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
1. 6 2. 7
3. 9 4. 10.
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. Part-VII 2. Part-VIII
3. Part-VI 4. Part-IX.
76. Basic Licence is a Licence issued to a person who has:
3. Both of them
2. Minor repair
3. Defect inspection
1. 1 year 2. 2 Year
1. 7 2. 8
3. 9 4. 6
80. Which of the following is not true for the issue of Basic Licence:
81. To change over from one stream of Basic Licence to another stream additional experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
I. LA to IS 2. PE to JE
3. RA to RN 4. ES to PE
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hitherto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
97. Total check routes for the approval of flight engineers examiners in preceding one year:
1. 10 2. 20
3. 5 4. 15.
98. Flight engineer should have minimum Hrs. of flying during 30 days for check flight
99. Minimum simulator training for Hrs. is required for flight engineer examiner:
1. 2Hrs. 2. 5Hrs.
3. 10 Hrs. 4. 2 1-Irs.
100. Approval of flight engineer /check flight engineer will he valid for:
I. 12 Months 2. 6 Months
101. Which of following are common requirements for both flight engineer examiner and check
1. Should not have less than 100 1-Irs. of flying experience during 6 months period
3. Should have been checked and found satisfactory by flight engineer examiner
102. The air transport operator is required to submit the application for renewal of check flight
3. Operations manual
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series’L’ Part-XV are complimentary to the provision of:
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
4. DGCA.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine the
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date of
submission of application:
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to undergo-:
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is renewed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
4. Both I and 2
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transport aircraft
1. 10 Hrs. 2. 81-Irs.
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, to exercise his
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair of the
aircraft he is applying and as minimum of flying experience under the supervision of
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of flight inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
125. For renewal of FE Licence he should have completed not less than of flight time as a
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive proposal which includes:
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completion of:
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper —III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
130. After passing paper I , II and III GET shall be permitted to:
3. Work on aircraft
131. After the end of 3’ year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by training Schools
2. Chief Instructor
4. Operator.
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training in the
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
1. 70% 2. 80%
3. 85% 4. 75%
135. Re-examination will be held after days but with in days of completion of main course/GET:
1. 20,40 2. 25,45
3. 15,45 4. 15,50.
136. Candidates who successfully complete the approved course will have three chances of oral cum
1. 1 8 Months 2. 1 Year
138. Candidates who do not qualify any of the three oral cum practical exams may undergo
140. When the Licence is lost by the holder (other than the act of GOD) he has to furnish. Full fee
1. l0Years 2. 5 Years
3. 15 Years 4. 20 Years.
142. The period of validity and FE Licence shall commence from the:
1. Date if issue 2. Date of renewal
143. At the end of GET 3 year training phase wise examination is conducted by:
1. Degree in Engineering
2. PG degree in Engineering
3. PG degree
CAR Series X
1. Rule 49 2. Rule 56
147. During empty weighing of aircraft, the following items are permissible:
148. As per CAR Series X part II, there is no need to weigh an aircraft on routine basis, when
weight is:
149. Aircraft with AUW more than 2000 Kg. Are to be reweighed:
1. Every year 2. Every two-year
153. ‘[he load sheets of a scheduled operator, from the date of issue, shall be preserved for a period of at
least:
154. The CG’ position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at least:
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
161. An aircraft with passenger’s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
166. 1’he drugs containers in the physician ‘s kit are intended to be administered by:
167. To ensure that the first—aid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. 6 2. 12
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
173. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW
1. Duplicate 2. Quadruplicate
176. Request for grant of concession relating to use of materials/parts in, or effecting minor
modification or carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary parts will be disposed of by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM
177. Request for grant of concessions relating to aircraft primary structure will be referred to:
3. DGCA
178. The approved formats for concession are kept for the period:
1. 5 Years 2. 3 Months
179. Permission for marginal duration from approved specification of not affecting the safety of
aircraft is:
1. Permit 2. Concession
165. First —aid kit contain shall be replenished and ratified by:
180. Approval firms, whose scope of approval specifically includes delegation may use substitute material
parts in aircraft systems other than relating to primary structures, under the authority
of:
I. RAO 2. QCM
182. Log books shall be kept and maintained is respect of all aircraft registered in India in
accordance with:
1. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be preserved for at least to period of:
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a period of:
191. DGCA Mandatory modification statue of the aircraft engine and its components shall be
reflected in:
3. Bothland2
4. Either I and 2.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is of’:
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry should he made in:
195. Contents for FEB (flight report book) or technical log is approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
196. The change of format of FRB for non scheduled operators requires approval of the:
2. QCM
3. DGCA
197. The second copy of each filled page of JLB shall be retained on:
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
3. Grant of concessions
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
3. Representative DGCA
3. Lighting
1. 2 Years 2. 1 Year
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
3. Both I and 2.
4. None of the above.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the relevant
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
I. RAO 2. DGCA
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the relevant
I. DGCA 2. RAO
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
14. Every Aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus under:
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
28. The Flight Tests for any newly installed Radio equipment shall be carried out to assess its range and
performance at various:
30. On completion of structural and electrical wiring of an Aircraft, the complete wiring
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in accordance
with:
33. Every aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus, as per Aircraft Rule:
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II”
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
57. Mode “A”/”C” transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSO —C74C, 2. TSO —Cl 12, 3. TSO —Cl 19, 4. TSO — Clii.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 53 A, 4. 52 A.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
equipment.
68. The Mandatory Modifications/Inspections issued by airworthiness authority are to be complied with
within:
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of AD’s, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
76. CAR Series ‘T’ Part I, deals with flight testing of:
79. Flight Test of an aircraft without any passenger on board is carried out for the purpose of
assessing:
82. On a three engine aircraft, test flight may not be carried out(Provided satisfactory Engine Ground
Testing subsequent to engine change has been carried out) after change of:
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
85. Adverse comments by Flight Crew on the performance of an aircraft during Test Flight
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb performance by
more than:
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Issue of AME Licences, fts classification and experience requirements are rel3tes with CAR Section -2:
1. Series-L, Part IV, 2. Series —L, Part —1, 3. Series— L, Part III.
2. The minimum qualifications & experience requirements for issue of AME licence in various Categories is as
5. Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied Categories of the same stream,
9. Licence with the scope limited to minor maintenance, minor repairs, minor Modification, snag rectification
11. As per CAR Series-L-Part-I, the questions in the written examinations will consist:
I. Multiple choice only, 2. Objective & Subjective, 3. Essay type only, 4. None of the above.
12. Aircraft Rules and CAR related questions appears in only:
13. The hypothecation/Mortgages name from the Certificate of Registration, owner may apply to:
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the duplicate may be
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of type Certificate;
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substantiate the design
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is to ensure of the
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the date of:
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the validity as specified ir
21. For light and heavy helicopters Paper-Ill irrespective of their AUW:
3. Bothl&2.
26. For issue of AME licence in Cat. ‘R’ the candidate must possess:
1. Red, 2. Yellow, 3. Shall be outline in white to contrast with background 4. All the above.
33. Pressure Altitude Reporting transponder fitted in all Aeroplane in accordance with CAR Sec.2,
35. As per VFR visual reference to land marks should be at least every:
37. The detailed guidelines for preparation of Operational Manual are available in:
39. The storage Temperature for Rubber parts and Aircraft component containing Rubber parts
should be between: -
40. Flight Testing of Aircraft for which a Certificate of Airworthiness has previously been issued, reflected in:
1. CAR Series T, Part —I, 2. CAR Series T, Part —II, 4. Both 1 & 2 are correct.,
C of A renewal:
1. C of A aircraft 2. C of R of aircraft
42. If you want the airworthiness of officer to visit-your organization during the higher
43. If the airworthiness officer complete his final inspection after the expiry of C of k
3. Expiry date
4. All above.
45. In case the C of A is suspended due to major accident and again C of A is renewed
1. Previous currency of C of A
4. Both land2.
47. To ensure that correct aeronautic of engineering practices are used during assembling
2. It —requires weighing
49. Director general may refuse to issue the C of A/C of R re-build aircraft if:
4. All above.
1. Rigging 2. Alternation
2. Before validation of C of A
4. All above.
54. In wooden aircraft, the inspection of glue line is often facilitated with:
applicable to:
4, Helicopters only.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
3. Cleans rooms
3. 1 year 4. 5 year
3. 5 year 4. 2 year
8. What is the maximum overhaul period for thermometers, pressure and vacuum gauges
I. To be decided by manufacturer
4. 1000 Hrs
3. In JLB 4. In FRC
12. After how much time an instrument installed on A/C which has not been
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 18 months 4. 24 months
13. Every A/C shall be fitted & equipped with instruments including radio
apparatus as per
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
engaged in
1. Remuneration 2. Hire
1. DGCA 2. Operator
4. Both a& b
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
equipment are
2. Seat belt for each seat plus a) 3. Physician 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
1. 1030MHz 2. 1090MHz
3. 121.5MHz 4. 121.5KHz
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air — cooled engines with BHP
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
4. All above
37. Rule 57 requires that 1. Every a/c shall be fitted & equipped with instrument
2. Issue of C of C
3. Botha&b
3. Both a & b
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
3. Both a & b
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to be certified by
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
3. Both a & b
48. Contamination can be caused during 1. Dry cleaning process 3. Wet cleaning process
1. 99.95°/b 2. 99 %
3. 95% 4. 75 %
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the factors influencing the
always be
I. Equal 2. More
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a &b
72. The aeroplane of maximum certified take off mass over 5700 Kg required to
equipped is
1. FDR 2. CVR
77. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
79. All helicopter of maximum take of mass over 3180 Kg equipped with
81. The FDR installed on a/c shall have a serial number authenticated by
1. AME 2. RAO
82. The A/C rule that requires that every a/c shall be fitted and equipped with
1. Rule 50 2. Rule 58
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Recording the aural environment on the flight dech during flight time
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over for which C of A
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
87. No person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is
1. 15000 Kg 2. 3000 Kg
88. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is fitted with
an approved CVR
1. 3000 Kg 2. 5700 Kg
89. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over upto and including or
which the individual C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main rotor speed on
recording channel of the CVR
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
operation
I , 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with capable of retaining
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR shall
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped with and may
4. Both b & c
1. 1975 2. 1976
3. 1977 4. 1978
112. GPWS meets the requirement of
4. Either a & c
1. Category I or R 2. Category I or C
3. Category A or B 4. Category R or C
121. Flight crew action w.r.t warning provided by GPWS equipment is given in
1. Aeroplane flight manual 2. Crew operation manual 3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
125. ACAS—1
2. FAATSOC-119
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
1. Cat.R 2. Cat.V
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the ACAS unserviceable for
more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
SERIES-O
by operator engaged in
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
1. Engineering 2. Safety
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in 1. Scheduled VFR operation 2.
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level flight with one
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument become inoperative is contained in 1. Flight manual 2. Emergency check list
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
1. l5Omiles 2. 150Km
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
equipment capable of receiving signals
1. Flight manual 2. C of R
3. C of A 4. Both a & b
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar with
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which he is required to
1. One 2. Three
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits is the
responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for each person on
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
3. 100 NM 4. None of the above
23. An independent emergency power supply system installed on a heavy aircraft should be able to
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating at least for 30
mm
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all aeroplanes
operating
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds 1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight
navigator license
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency equipment on board is
the duty of
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced due to impairment of
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on the rejected take
off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending upon the failure occurred is of
performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight profile demands a
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
a.m.e
2. Which Part of Series F deals with Suspension of C. of A. & its subsequent revalidation:
1. IV 2. V
3. VI 4.VII
1. 55 (2) 2 55 (3)
3. 55 (1) 4. 56 (1).
I. 51 (l) 2. 53(2)
3. 54 (2) 4. 55(2)
5. DGCA can cancel the C. of A. or suspend whenever reasonable doubt exist to:
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Will be revalidated up to the date of the previous currency of C of A had remain valid,
10. As condition for revalidation of C. of A., the Airworthiness Officer requires aircraft/aircraft component
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
1. DGCA 2. Approved Organisation
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Unpressurised aircraft having AUW less than 5700 kgs.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the aircraft.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor will produce a copy
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are to be performed.
34. Special permits are not required in case of Test Flight for Renewal of C. of A. & if C. of A. is expired, AME
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be submit
to:
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
4. Suspension/Revalidation of C. of A.
47. Indian Registered aircraft5 before undertake any flight have to possess a current & valid
48. D.G.C.A in respect of any ale, a/c component item of equipment specify standards
3. Maintenance and major maintenance shall carried out and certified by appropriately Licensed A.M.E
4. All of above
50. Approved Pilot means pilot to carry out transmit/layover inspection without authority of invoking MEL
1 D.G.C.A 2 RAO
4 All of above
1 day 2 1 Week
53. The scheduled airline as required to have their own maintenance facility as required by
54. The contents of routine maintenance and inspection schedule including special inspection schedule,
overhaul schedule of component and a/c operated by operator have minimum experience as scheduled
operator
1. 2year 2 3year
3. 5year 4 l0year
55. The MPD (maintenance planning document) should submit for its approval to
3 D.G.C.A 4 AMO
56. Special inspection schedules of a/c such as heavy landing ,post lightning strike post propeller strike
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
3. Both a & b
59. The maintenance work recorded and signed and dated in relevant log book with in
1. 24 Hours 2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours 4. 96 Hours
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
1. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. D.G.C.A. 4. AMO
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
3. Both a & b
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
3. Both a & b
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category with more
2. Certificate of inspection higher than transmit inspection will be by AME specially approve person
3. Transmit inspection without snag rectification will by approved basic licence holder when a/c away from
base
4. All of above
69. For aircraft operated by flying club and gliding club the FRC valid by:
1. 24Hrs. 2. 48Hrs.
70. Aircraft belonging to aerial work Category FRC issued by AME after every:
1. 5 Hrs. /5 Days 2. 10 Hrs./7 Days
71. Aircraft from regular aerodromes shall FRC to aerial work category issue every 50
1. Validity of FRC by DGCA 2. Transmit inspection by approved basic Licence if aircraft is away from base.
73. In case of diversionary landing where AME/approved person not available. The inspection with snag
74. The certification of air born racks equipment carried out every 90 days elapsed time for
category:
75. For aircraft equipped with communication equipment only certification will carried out
after every:
1. Every 30 Days 2. 100 Days
77. The FRC for radio should be used with every FRC for airframe and engine:
I. Second 2. Third
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
3. Seven day relevant inspection under AME and certificate of it by QCM and passed oral cum practical by
RAO.
2. Firm’s name
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO/Sub.RAO 4. QCM.
3. RAO 4 .QCM.
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. RAO
87. All completed maintenance schedule must be preserved for a minimum period of:
4. As Suggested by QCM.
1. QCM 2. Operator
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
1. 25 Years 2. 15 Years.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. SSIP 2. CPCP
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
103. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
years:
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer cracks.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first flight.
3. Growth of fungus
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
3. Atmosphere air
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Thirty 4. fifty.
1. Twenty 2. Thirty
3. Fourty 4. Fifty
2. Flight engineer
3. QCM
123. RAO can authorized a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person has at least three
1. Three 2. Six
3. Before C of A flight 4. Before first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging.
126. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person was at least 3
I. Three 2. Six
2. Flight engineer
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion should be checked by second
person
1. Growth of fougue
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A and
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
3. Atmosphere air
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
3. Rebuilding of aircraft
140. If ‘loop test’ is not carried out during test flight of a glider, then its C of A:
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
144. The C of A for glider is renewed provided is carried out during test flight:
146. New component and spare parts used on gliders should be covered by:
2. Should be pressure for two month 3. Should be pressure for one year
148. When glider meets with an accident, resulting in damage beyond economic repair,
glider logs book and procedure / work shall be pressure for a period of:
150. The weight considered for declaring the aircraft micro light:
151. The MAUW of micro light single seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330Kg. 2. 450Kg.
152. The MAUW of micro weight two seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. CA25 2. CA23
154. How many items should be fixed on identification plate of micro light aircraft:
1. 4 Items 2. 5 Items
1. 6Months 2. lYear
3. 2Years 4. NOA.
1. II 2. III
1. Schedule 2. Non-schedule
158. The aircraft, which landed with scehon of its upper fuselages:
160. For schedule / Non-scheduled No aircraft imported who complete age / design
1. 15/75% 2. 20/70%
3. 15/70% 4. 20/75%.
161. For cargo operation pressurize transport cat. Aircraft import not more than age and
1. 20 /75% 2. 30/75%
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
3. Time since.
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may approval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DAW 4. DGCA.
1. 55A 2. 133A
3. 133C 4. 72A.
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. Instructors.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare load/trim
sheet is:
179. Certificate of successful completion training in recurrent training to airline given by:
I. QCM 2. Shop
I. DAW 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. QCM
I. Instructor 2. QCM
3. Operator.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
1. RTOW 2. Payload
3. Removable Weight
I. Triplicate 2. Duplicate
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. CA 28 2. CA 25
3. CA 3O 4. CA 23.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
1. VT-SOS 2. VT-XXX
1. Hindi 2. English
198. When a new type of aircraft is registered and entered in the register. DGCA shall advise the:
I. Owner 2. Operator
1. Lost 2. Mutilated
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
by rule:
1 31 of 1937 2. 33 of 1937
3. 36 of 1937 4. 37 A OF 1937.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
3. IAR25A 4. Noneoftheabove.
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
I. Density 2. Volume
16. Distance of ground power units from the aircraft filling/venting points & fuelling equipment
1. 6 meters 2. 10 meters.
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are availabk
of:
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used in the
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq. meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of horizontal
tank is:
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been added to the static
37. Delivery of AVGAS from the vehicles to aircraft should be made through a Micro filter with a normal
rating of:
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate. Should be carried out:
1. Every day 2. Every week
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of shut-off valves &
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system should be replaced
after every:
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
43. Suction stand pipe to be fitted to barrel should be such that fuel can not drain from the bottom:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since the filling of
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
3. Both 1 & 2 4. The statement is incorrect.
I. Paste. 2. Paper.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples taken: 1. During
c) BothA&B
a) Vicinity of aerodrome b) With in the area of 200 Km. c) BothA&Barewrong d) Both A & B are correct
3. Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft has current and valid C of A: a) QCM b) AME
c) Owner/operator d) RAO.
a) Periodical inspections b)Replace held components. c) carry out repair / modifications d) All the above
c) BothAandB
6. If the aircraft is leased by owner, than the responsibility for C of A to be current and valid is of: a) Owner
b) Operator
a) AME b) QCM
8. Airworthiness standards observed by the operator/owner will be monitored by technical officers by the
c) BothAandB
a) Date of issue b) As a) plus date of affectivity c) As b) plus total no. of pages d) None of above.
14. Subsequent pages other than first indicates: a) Date of affectivity b) Date of revision c) Date of issue d)
15. A change effected in CAR is tempered as: a) Amendment b) Change c) Re-issue d) None of the above.
16. First page and affected pages indicates: a) Revision number b) a) plus date of revision c) b) Plus
17. Unaffected pages by revision will contain: a) Effective date b) Issue number c) Date of issue d) None of
the above.
18. A revision is indicated by: a) A sideline on left side of affected pages b) Underlining the affected part c)
19. Major changes to CAR shall be treats as: a) Change b) revision c) Amendment d) Major revision.
20. Whenever a new CAR or significant revision is proposed to be issued, the draft CAR/proposed revision
may be circulated to: a) Concerned operators b) Plus regional officer c) plus manufacturer d) None of the
above.
21. Revision notice indicates: a) Pages affected b) reason for revision c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
22. Part — III relates to: a) Objectives and targets of airworthiness directorate b) Airworthiness regulation
23. The most obvious objective of an airworthiness authority is: a) Ensuring design levels of reliability b)
Operating safety of civil registered aircraft c) Alert value of light aircraft d) Both A and B.
24. On-Condition maintenance is accomplishment of: a) Bench/institute test b) visual inspection c) Physical
25. Condition maintenance is based on theory of: a) Fit and forget it b) fit until failure c) Both A and B d)
26. The parametric report for achieving max. Measures of safety is sent to: a) RAO b) DGCA c) QCM d) All
the above.
27. The parameters are obtained as: a) Accidents per 1000 Hrs. b) IFSD per 1000 Hrs. c) IFSD per 100 Hrs.
d) Both A & B.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs. flown is:
29. No. of notifiable accidents along with no. of lirs. flown gives:
30. Total number of engine hours flown is given by product of no. of airframe hours
33. Parameters i.e. no. of major defects / 1000 Hrs. includes no. of Hrs. of:
a) Airframe b) Engine
34. Private operator will furnish information in parametric form to DGCA every:
35. Non-scheduled, aerial work, training aircraft operator should furnish information toDGCA every.
40. Unintentional landing affected on account of failure/malfunctioning of an aircraft component system is:
41. Maintenance process requiring assembly, inspection of aircraft/components at fixed periods is:
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
regional or sub regional office the:
44. Technic& officers of airworthiness directorate may ask the operator to submit for
inspection the:
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
a) Check list by DGCA
c) Revision by DOCA
d) Issue by DOCA.
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as “Birds eye view” by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
a) Qualification of AME b) Qualification of mechanics
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification standard of civil
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct functioning of which is
essential for:
c) Result in emergency
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is called:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
64. for computing static’s for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause service
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six months.
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None of the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
d) Both B & C.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports, that are
observed during:
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
a) release the aircraft for flying
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is carried out to
c) Replacement of engine
85. If a system is over alert/alert notice will be issued by RMU and report will sent to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c)QCM d) None.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate: a) By 251h of every month b)
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at least the last:
a) B Part-I b) F Part-XX
c) C Part-V d) H Part-Ill
a) Rectification of defect
c) Validation of FRC
d) Only A & C.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be impressed in terms:
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
95. CAR series D Part —I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by:
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator’s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be sent to RAO
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) DGCA b) Sub-RAO
a) Reliability b) Disability
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the corrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must be sent to:
c) On condition
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
c) Hard time.
b) Log Book
c) Register
a) It can sustain damage and the remaining structural can withstand reasonable load
b) It can sustain damage and the structure can bear excessive load.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) AME d) Pilot
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d) AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated form:
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the engine log book.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting features:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
c) QCM d) DGCA.
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
a) RAO b) Organization
135. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in the engine log book by:
a) RAO b) QCM
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
c) RAO.
139. Average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in:
141. Who can carried out periodical spot checks on the records of fuel and oil uplift?
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) Technician.
a) RAO b) AME
c) Operator d) QCM
144. Who may require an operator to submit samples to bench checking and in case of engines
a) QCM b) AME
145. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameters in:
c) Either A or B d) None
146. Every engine parameters has an alert value which is fixed by:
a) Operator b) DGCA
c) Both.
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applicable in
respect of:
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
c) By an AME.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval from RAO needs to be
documented in:
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service life of
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
Series F
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c unless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the residence of the
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
1. Category A 2. Category B
I. By citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast 2/3w of the directors of
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company has given the a/c
on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state or central government
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in India
3. A copy of the import hence issued by director general foreign trade (DGFT)
4. All above
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C of R
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
4. All above
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
3. Both a & b
1. To revalidate C of A 2. To issue C of A
3. To issue type certificate for ale 4. All are correct
19. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of
ale Rule
1. 49A 2. 49B
3. 49C 4. 49
20. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor-craft is submitted in the form as per
CAR series F
21. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate of ale is to be submitted in the form as in
22. For issuance of type certificate of aircraft or its components, the DGCA should be satisfied
on the points:
3. Both I and 2
23. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA
confirms that the aircraft meets earth the requirements of:
24. Type certificate of a rotorcraft imported in India can be revalidation by the DGCA if its
25. An Aero engine manufactured outside India can he type certified by the DGCA if it conforms
to:
1. FAR33 2. FAR23
26. DGCA revalidation the type certificate in respect of engine /propeller under the purview of
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
3. After importing special condition for safe operation 4. It cannot modify it.
29. For revalidation of type certificate of aircraft imported into India which of the following
3. The basis on ETOPS certification if applicable 4. Quality control and maintenance system manual.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting and approval 4. None of the
above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
3. Equal to overhaul
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it can:
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircraft component:
3. Appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic effecting the airworthiness of the
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series ‘E’ Part-Il Annexure ‘I’---------------unmounted
I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
I. Length of fuselage
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A before they are flown is
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed 2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before buying / importing such
1. CA—23A 2. CA-25
3. CA-28 4. CA-27.
51 . Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisfy himself with the:
3. Both 1 and 2
52. For aircraft type imported into the country for the first time the documents accompanying the
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is bused with
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. ExportCofA
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are in
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
I. Un-airworthy aircraft
2. Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration markiig
3. Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
1. He feels like it
63. The document, which must accompany the application for issue of C of A, is:
1. Means all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft
69. A state government aircraft certified in normal category subdivision shall be a aircraft
I. Passenger 2. Private
3. Research 4. Racing.
I. Normal 2. Aerobatics
3. Experimental 4. Special.
72. Aircraft certified in aerobatics category may be used:
73. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the
requirements of:
1. FAR 15 2. FAR 26
3. FARAD(87-0l-40) 4. FAR2I.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
75. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should he accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
3. III 4. IV.
77. An aircraft being exported to India in flyaway condition should:
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
1. Export C of A
3. Both I and 2
4. Either I or 2.
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
I. Rule 5 2. Rule 15
87. Validity period of C of A for all aircraft of over 20 years of age is:
1. 3% 2. 10%
3. Both I and 2
90. Operation of an aircraft may apply [‘or the renewal of C of A along with necessary fees as
per:
1. RuIe5X 2. Rule6I
92. For the purpose of renewal of C of A the aircraft would simply be required to be inspected in
accordance with:
93. In case the C of A of the aircraft has expired, for renewal the quantum of work required has to he
decided by:
1. C of A, C of R 2. W/T Licence
98. If mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the availability
100. Before the C of A is renewed the operator/owner has to satisfy the airworthiness officer about the ------
101. At the time of C of A renewal, the operator must submit to airworthiness office:
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on board have been checked
for performance.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
issued by:
1. Individual AME’s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category “B’ to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D’ to cover the type of engine involved
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. CA25 2. CA 28
a) B b) C c) D d) E.
5. A firm approved for carrying out repair and flight testing of Avionics set is in category:
a) A b) E c) D d) C.
6. An organisation under taking calibration of instruments of master-gauges and tools as applied to the
a)A b) D c) E d) F.
a) Category E b) Category D
11. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials, goods and certifying that
13. The QCM and the deputy QCM are approved by:
a) RAO b) DGCA
16. An organization seeking approval in any of the activities under any category (series-E) shall apply on
prescribed form:
a) CA 182 b) CA-9
a) DGCA b) RAO
a) DOCA b) RAO
21. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity, whenever applicable in
a) DGCA b) RAO
23. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in:
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised:
a) Category D b) Category F
a) Consignee b) RAO
30. The fee payable by any organization for approval of renewal covered in CAR Series E Part-I are as per
aircraft rule.
a) 133 b) 133-A
c) 133-B d) 133-C.
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
1. DGCA
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. Approved person
6. The special identification number allotted to the Petroleum Products as a one lot for testing
and sampling:
8. Aviation fuel and other petroleum products received for storage prior to loading into an
12. Records will be maintained by an organisation approved in Cat. ‘E’ for period of: 1. Minimum Two years.
2. One year
3. Manufacturers 4. AMEs.
1. DGCA 2. QCM.
3. Managing Director 4. R A 0.
15. To ensure that goods release to customers have not deteriorated, is the duty of:
16. No Aircraft goods shall be held in the bonded store for distribution unless they are received
17. In case materials are returned by costumers on account of being unairworthy, this must be
known to:
1. Q.C.M. 2. R.A.O.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
1. DGCA 2. RAO
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which------------- years in
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded by:
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute for a period of:
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit to local Airworthiness
Office:
.
1.Process organization means on organization engaged in:
2. A firm seeking approved in Category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA:
a) 12 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 3 Samples.
c) Both A and B.
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) 4 Years.
a) 3 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 12 Samples.
7. Organization engaged in maintenance of aircraft, Aircraft component and equipment:
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category ‘D’ is signed by:
12. A certificate issued by DGCA to specif’ the design of component/ items of equipment
is called:
3. Service Maintenance & Repair Manual 4. Supply & Repair Man ual.
20. Organisation outside India will be granted approval by DGCA when the organisation
complies with:
22. For ‘Workshop process and Inspection’ organization approval is given in:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
1. Cat. C 2. Cat. D
3. Cat. F 4. Cat G
25. Organisation located outside India applies for approval of organisation on form:
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is submitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub-A W O.
3. DGCA 4. Bothl&@.
1. Operator 2. Manufacturer
4. What is the full form of AlC? 1. Aeronautical In formation Circulars. 2. Airworthiness Inspection Circular.
5. Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance organization?
6. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the DGCA that their maintenance facility is satisfactory?
1. Operator 2. Q.C.M.
3. P.l.C. 4. Manufacturer
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
1. Q C M 2. AME
3. P I C 4. Operator
1. To R A W O 2. To QCM
1. Operator 2. QCM
3. AME 4. PIC
22. Which Rule says that every aircraft should carry on board:
1. CCL 2. ECL
3. PDR 4. QC Manual
1. CCL 2. ECL
28. What is FI ?
1. l0 parts. 2. 1 part
3. 2parts. 4. 3 parts.
1. Yes 2. No
SERIES 0
1. Proficiency check of licensed air transport service pilot shall be carried out at an
interval of not less than months and not more than months
1. 4,8 2. 3,8
3. 3,6 4. 4,6
2. During an IR check when the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to
1. l00ft 2. 200ft
3. 300ft 4. 500ft
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot’s check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let — down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
9. Aerobatic manoeuvres are not to be carried out unless the pilot wears
10. Instruments and equipments are fitted on aircraft to enable the flight crew to
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
1. At 6p.m. 2. At 6p.m.
3. In the morning when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
4. In the evening when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
18. In computing oil and fuel required for aircraft operation one should consider
1. Met forecast
19. Approximate altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to 620 rnb of absolute
pressure is
20. After the end of operating life of a helicopter component the records shall be kept for a
period of days
1. 60 2. 90
21. In flight simulation of emergency for training of helicopter flight crew is prohibited
when
22. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot in command shall submit a report to
1. BCAS 2. DGCA
1. 1 2. 2. 2
25. In an emergency situation , Endangering the safety at aircraft when pilot in command
take sanction that violates laid down regulations he shall submit a report with in
hours
1. 12 2. 24
3. 48 4. 72
26. Marking at break in pilot for emergency escape shall be in colour 1. Yellow 2. Red
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
some mean of mechanical assistance if their weight is more than
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
1. Owner 2. Lessee
3. All passengers who have bought the ticket have boarded the flight
4. None of the above
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
1. 375 Kg 2. 275 Kg
35. Homs gliders shall have a power oil stall speed exceeding a
1. 25 Knots 2. 30 Knots
36. A single seater powered homs glider should weight less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
37. A powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
1. 70 Knots 2. 80 Knots
41. An operator can request for approval of 180 minutes ETOPS only if there has been
current approval for minutes ETOPS for a minimum months 1. 75,6 2. 75,12
3. 120,12 4. 120,6
42. Under ETOPS operations an immediate evaluation shall be carried out by the operator
3. 0.01/1000 4. noneoftheabove
43. Operators should develop MEL exclusively for ETOPS operation which should
generally’ be
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arising from
48. The responsibility of ensuring accuracy of the operations manual as well as that of issuing revisions and
53. ‘Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
1. Two indipendent altitute measuring systems 2. Altitude alert system 3. Altitude control system 3. All are
correct
55. In case of aircraft already in service RVSM airworthiness approval is to be granted by regularities
authority of
57. While flying under RVSM envelope pilot must inform ATC whenever there is
I. Loss of redundancy of altimetry system 2. Loss of thrust of engine 3. High turbulence 4. All are correct
I. Lattitude or Longitude
3. Either a & b
60. Application for registration of hang glider should be made to DGCA on form
1. CA—28 2. CA—30
3. CA—38 4. CA—40
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
64. Pre flight inspection and scheduled inspection up to 50 hours on powered hang glider is
carried out by
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at least-
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 - 2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
3. Turbo prop & turbo jet only 4. Turbo prop, turbo jet & turbo fan
78. Auxiliary power unit is a gas turbine engine that can be used for
1. Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME Licence in various
1. 16. 2. 56
3. 61 4. 65
3. Six 4 Three
1.Aircraft 2. Engine
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
9. For issue of AME Licence category ‘R’ the candidate must posses RTR (Aero) Licence issued
by ministry of communication at the time of appearing for:
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
1. 12,3 2. l2 6
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
1. 2000Kg. 2. 3000Kg.
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
21. AME Licence in the following categories will be endorsed according to the type of aircraft /
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
1. Valid for communication / navigation /radar system installed on under mentioned aircraft.
3. As in B plus DME
4. As in C plus ADF.
24. Airborne navigational system includes:
26. For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his Licence in category:
1. A 2. B
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME Licence provided the
candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number of installation and experience of compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
1. Rule 60 2. Rule 61
3. Ru1e49 4. Rule3O.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BAMEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. CA-23 2. CA-29
3. CA-9 4. CA-25.
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march and
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-Ill 4. Paper-IV.
36. Applicants successfully completing DGCA approved manufacturer’s training course qn
1. Paper-Il 2. Paper-IV
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. 4 2. 6
1. Part-V 2. Part-VI
3. Part-VII 4. Part-VIII
42. Avionics system includes:
43. AME wants to renew is licence should have used the privileges of minimum months in
1. 3 2. 6
3. 9. 4. 12.
44. To work on aircraft the open rating licence holder should famerlize himself with the type of
1. 3 Months 2 2 Months
3. 1 Month 4. 6 Months
I. Instrument 2. Electrical
1. LA 2. HA
50. Person holding cat. ‘X’ Licence on particular radio equipment can carry out:
51. Candidate failing in oral cum practical test can avail subsequent chance after gaining:
52. Defense person /appearing in AME exams are exempted from multiple choice in paper:
I. Rule 61 2. Rule 62
55 Applicant meets with requirements to appear in exam’s and the application is duly tilled
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. RAO 4. QCM
1. Airframe 2. Engine
57. Applicants not engaged in any organization should forward their application directly to the:
I. R A O 2. Sub RAO
3. D A W 4. Both a & b
I. R A O 2. D A W
3. Operator 4. Q C M
59. Training system is documented in
62. Results of all oral cum test are declared by under intimation to CEO and airworthiness
directorate:
3. RAO 4. DGCA
64. Licence in category ‘A’ and C’ combined issue for helicopter with AUW:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. RAO 2. Sub-RAO
72. AME category “A and C’ is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
1. 6 2. 7
3. 9 4. 10.
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
1. Part-VII 2. Part-VIII
3. Part-VI 4. Part-IX.
3. Both of them
2. Minor repair
3. Defect inspection
1. 1 year 2. 2 Year
1. 7 2. 8
3. 9 4. 6
80. Which of the following is not true for the issue of Basic Licence:
81. To change over from one stream of Basic Licence to another stream additional experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
I. LA to IS 2. PE to JE
3. RA to RN 4. ES to PE
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hitherto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
87. Validity of authorization is of:
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
97. Total check routes for the approval of flight engineers examiners in preceding one year:
1. 10 2. 20
3. 5 4. 15.
98. Flight engineer should have minimum Hrs. of flying during 30 days for check flight
99. Minimum simulator training for Hrs. is required for flight engineer examiner:
1. 2Hrs. 2. 5Hrs.
3. 10 Hrs. 4. 2 1-Irs.
100. Approval of flight engineer /check flight engineer will he valid for:
I. 12 Months 2. 6 Months
101. Which of following are common requirements for both flight engineer examiner and check
1. Should not have less than 100 1-Irs. of flying experience during 6 months period
3. Should have been checked and found satisfactory by flight engineer examiner
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as laid down in:
3. Operations manual
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series’L’ Part-XV are complimentary to the provision of:
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
4. DGCA.
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine the
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
1. Airline 2. Specific paper for engine or airframe
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date of
submission of application:
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to undergo-:
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is renewed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
4. Both I and 2
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transport aircraft
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, to exercise his
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair of the
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of flight inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive proposal which includes:
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completion of:
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper —III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
130. After passing paper I , II and III GET shall be permitted to:
1. Appear for paper IV
3. Work on aircraft
131. After the end of 3’ year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by training Schools
2. Chief Instructor
4. Operator.
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training in the
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
1. 70% 2. 80%
3. 85% 4. 75%
135. Re-examination will be held after days but with in days of completion of main course/GET:
1. 20,40 2. 25,45
3. 15,45 4. 15,50.
136. Candidates who successfully complete the approved course will have three chances of oral cum
1. 1 8 Months 2. 1 Year
138. Candidates who do not qualify any of the three oral cum practical exams may undergo
140. When the Licence is lost by the holder (other than the act of GOD) he has to furnish. Full fee
1. l0Years 2. 5 Years
3. 15 Years 4. 20 Years.
142. The period of validity and FE Licence shall commence from the:
143. At the end of GET 3 year training phase wise examination is conducted by:
1. Degree in Engineering
2. PG degree in Engineering
3. PG degree
1. Rule 49 2. Rule 56
147. During empty weighing of aircraft, the following items are permissible:
148. As per CAR Series X part II, there is no need to weigh an aircraft on routine basis, when
weight is:
149. Aircraft with AUW more than 2000 Kg. Are to be reweighed:
153. ‘[he load sheets of a scheduled operator, from the date of issue, shall be preserved for a period of at
least:
154. The CG’ position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
161. An aircraft with passenger’s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
166. 1’he drugs containers in the physician ‘s kit are intended to be administered by:
167. To ensure that the first—aid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
1. 6 2. 12
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
173. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW
1. Duplicate 2. Quadruplicate
176. Request for grant of concession relating to use of materials/parts in, or effecting minor
modification or carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary parts will be disposed of by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM
177. Request for grant of concessions relating to aircraft primary structure will be referred to:
178. The approved formats for concession are kept for the period:
1. 5 Years 2. 3 Months
179. Permission for marginal duration from approved specification of not affecting the safety of
aircraft is:
1. Permit 2. Concession
165. First —aid kit contain shall be replenished and ratified by:
180. Approval firms, whose scope of approval specifically includes delegation may use substitute material
parts in aircraft systems other than relating to primary structures, under the authority
of:
I. RAO 2. QCM
182. Log books shall be kept and maintained is respect of all aircraft registered in India in
accordance with:
1. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be preserved for at least to period of:
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a period of:
191. DGCA Mandatory modification statue of the aircraft engine and its components shall be
reflected in:
4. Either I and 2.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is of’:
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry should he made in:
195. Contents for FEB (flight report book) or technical log is approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
196. The change of format of FRB for non scheduled operators requires approval of the:
2. QCM
3. DGCA
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
3. Grant of concessions
206, For issue of taxi permit AME should hold a valid Licence in:
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
3. Representative DGCA
3. Lighting
1. 2 Years 2. 1 Year
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
4. None of the above.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
3. Both I and 2.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the relevant
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
I. RAO 2. DGCA
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the relevant
I. DGCA 2. RAO
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
performance at various:
29. The Antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper installation to ensure minimum:
30. On completion of structural and electrical wiring of an Aircraft, the complete wiring
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in accordance
with:
33. Every aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus, as per Aircraft Rule:
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
1. AME Category R, 2. AME Category B,
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II”
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
57. Mode “A”/”C” transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSO —C74C, 2. TSO —Cl 12, 3. TSO —Cl 19, 4. TSO — Clii.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 53 A, 4. 52 A.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
equipment.
within:
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of AD’s, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
76. CAR Series ‘T’ Part I, deals with flight testing of:
assessing:
82. On a three engine aircraft, test flight may not be carried out(Provided satisfactory Engine Ground
Testing subsequent to engine change has been carried out) after change of:
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb performance by
more than:
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Series-L, Part IV, 2. Series —L, Part —1, 3. Series— L, Part III.
2. The minimum qualifications & experience requirements for issue of AME licence in various Categories is as
5. Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied Categories of the same stream,
9. Licence with the scope limited to minor maintenance, minor repairs, minor Modification, snag rectification
11. As per CAR Series-L-Part-I, the questions in the written examinations will consist:
I. Multiple choice only, 2. Objective & Subjective, 3. Essay type only, 4. None of the above.
13. The hypothecation/Mortgages name from the Certificate of Registration, owner may apply to:
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the duplicate may be
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of type Certificate;
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substantiate the design
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is to ensure of the
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the date of:
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the validity as specified ir
3. Bothl&2.
26. For issue of AME licence in Cat. ‘R’ the candidate must possess:
1. RTR(Aero) licence Issued by Ministry of Communication,
1. Red, 2. Yellow, 3. Shall be outline in white to contrast with background 4. All the above.
35. As per VFR visual reference to land marks should be at least every:
37. The detailed guidelines for preparation of Operational Manual are available in:
39. The storage Temperature for Rubber parts and Aircraft component containing Rubber parts
should be between: -
40. Flight Testing of Aircraft for which a Certificate of Airworthiness has previously been issued, reflected in:
1. CAR Series T, Part —I, 2. CAR Series T, Part —II, 4. Both 1 & 2 are correct.,
41 Which of the following is not required to be submitted to airworthiness office during
C of A renewal:
1. C of A aircraft 2. C of R of aircraft
42. If you want the airworthiness of officer to visit-your organization during the higher
43. If the airworthiness officer complete his final inspection after the expiry of C of k
3. Expiry date
4. All above.
45. In case the C of A is suspended due to major accident and again C of A is renewed
1. Previous currency of C of A
2. For one year
4. Both land2.
47. To ensure that correct aeronautic of engineering practices are used during assembling
2. It —requires weighing
49. Director general may refuse to issue the C of A/C of R re-build aircraft if:
4. All above.
1. Rigging 2. Alternation
2. Before validation of C of A
4. All above.
54. In wooden aircraft, the inspection of glue line is often facilitated with:
applicable to:
4, Helicopters only.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
3. Cleans rooms
3. 1 year 4. 5 year
3. 5 year 4. 2 year
8. What is the maximum overhaul period for thermometers, pressure and vacuum gauges
I. To be decided by manufacturer
4. 1000 Hrs
9. Who repairs time pieces of A/C below 3000 Kgs?
3. In JLB 4. In FRC
12. After how much time an instrument installed on A/C which has not been
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 18 months 4. 24 months
13. Every A/C shall be fitted & equipped with instruments including radio
apparatus as per
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
Communication & navigation equipment, Which are to be installed on a/c
engaged in
1. Remuneration 2. Hire
19. All instruments dial shall have operating range marked as specified by
1. DGCA 2. Operator
4. Both a& b
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
equipment are
2. Seat belt for each seat plus a) 3. Physician 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
1. 1030MHz 2. 1090MHz
3. 121.5MHz 4. 121.5KHz
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air — cooled engines with BHP
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
33. All aircraft issued with C of A after year 2000 shall have during night
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
4. All above
37. Rule 57 requires that 1. Every a/c shall be fitted & equipped with instrument
2. Issue of C of C
3. Botha&b
3. Both a & b
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to be certified by
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
3. Both a & b
48. Contamination can be caused during 1. Dry cleaning process 3. Wet cleaning process
1. 99.95°/b 2. 99 %
3. 95% 4. 75 %
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the factors influencing the
always be
I. Equal 2. More
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of rule
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a &b
72. The aeroplane of maximum certified take off mass over 5700 Kg required to
equipped is
1. FDR 2. CVR
77. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
79. All helicopter of maximum take of mass over 3180 Kg equipped with
81. The FDR installed on a/c shall have a serial number authenticated by
1. AME 2. RAO
82. The A/C rule that requires that every a/c shall be fitted and equipped with
1. Rule 50 2. Rule 58
83. The part of CAR that lays down the requirements for fitment of CVR on a/c
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Recording the aural environment on the flight dech during flight time
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over for which C of A
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
3. 3000 Kg; 1.1.89 4. 5700 Kg; 1.1.87
87. No person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is
1. 15000 Kg 2. 3000 Kg
88. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is fitted with
an approved CVR
1. 3000 Kg 2. 5700 Kg
89. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over upto and including or
which the individual C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main rotor speed on
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
operation
I , 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with capable of retaining
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR shall
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped with and may
4. Both b & c
1. 1975 2. 1976
3. 1977 4. 1978
4. Either a & c
1. Category I or R 2. Category I or C
3. Category A or B 4. Category R or C
121. Flight crew action w.r.t warning provided by GPWS equipment is given in
1. Aeroplane flight manual 2. Crew operation manual 3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
125. ACAS—1
2. FAATSOC-119
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
1. Cat.R 2. Cat.V
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the ACAS unserviceable for
more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
SERIES-O
by operator engaged in
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
1. Engineering 2. Safety
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in 1. Scheduled VFR operation 2.
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level flight with one
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument become inoperative is contained in 1. Flight manual 2. Emergency check list
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
1. l5Omiles 2. 150Km
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
1. Flight manual 2. C of R
3. C of A 4. Both a & b
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar with
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which he is required to
1. One 2. Three
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits is the
responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for each person on
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating at least for 30
mm
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all aeroplanes
operating
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds 1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight
navigator license
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency equipment on board is
the duty of
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced due to impairment of
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on the rejected take
off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending upon the failure occurred is of
performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight profile demands a
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR flying)
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter to which the flight
is planned
1. Only
4. Both a & c
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR flying)
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly
mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter to which the flight
is planned
1. Only
4. Both a & c
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
1. Engineering 2. Safety
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in 1. Scheduled VFR operation 2.
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level flight with one
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued
should any instrument become inoperative is contained in 1. Flight manual 2. Emergency check list
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
1. l5Omiles 2. 150Km
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
1. Flight manual 2. C of R
3. C of A 4. Both a & b
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar with
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which he is required to
1. One 2. Three
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits is the
responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for each person on
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
23. An independent emergency power supply system installed on a heavy aircraft should be able to
illuminate the artifical horizon for a minimum period of
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating at least for 30
mm
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all aeroplanes
operating
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds 1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight
navigator license
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency equipment on board is
the duty of
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced due to impairment of
faculty as a result of sickness the pilot in command should
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on the rejected take
off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending upon the failure occurred is of
performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight profile demands a
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR flying)
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly
mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter to which the flight
is planned
1. Only
4. Both a & c