808 CLATMock 4 Ques

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MOCK CLAT -IV

SECTION – I: ENGLISH
Directions (1–5): Read the following dialogues and identify the meaning of the given idiom
1. Dr. Watson: I cannot decide between Leo and Mr. Candy.

Holmes: It’s akin to choosing between Scylla and Charybdis.
A. choosing between two easy choices B. choosing between two tough choices
C. having no real choice D. having too many choices
2. Dr. Watson: Mary has accepted my proposal.

Holmes: Does she know that she is buying a pig in a poke?
A. buy a pig B. buy an animal

C. get something useless D. get something useful
3. Dr. Watson: How did the man, who was in the closed room, die? There was no way a murderer
could have entered the room that was locked from the outside!
Holmes: The murderer has covered his tracks very well. But don’t worry, Watson, I will not let
anything happen to Miss. Allenthorpe.
A. reveal his murder weapon

B. everyone can understand his modus operandi
C. discretely watch the situation
D. has concealed or destroyed evidence of the crime
4. Dr. Watson: The only person who defeated him was a lady. Her name is Irene Adler and she is a
master criminal.
Mary Watson: How did she get the better of him?
A. outsmart him B. win him over C. kill him D. sully his image
5. Dr. Watson: I always go everywhere with you, Holmes. But you never tell me what the client told
you.
Holmes: My friend, do you mean to say that I’m dumb as an oyster.
A. a very special person who is one of a kind

B. a very stupid person who thinks he knows everything
C. a very intelligent person
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A Team Satyam Offerin
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D. a person who never betrays a secret or reveals a confidence
Directions (6–10): identify the meanings of the following foreign words and phrases:
6. Apropos
A. Happy voyage B. brainy C. to the point D. high society
7. Aide memoire
A. game of mind B. notes to help memory

C. vomiting D. wickedness
8. Au revoir
A. Follower B. until we meet again

C. Adulation D. Priest
9. Bourgeoise
A. middle class B. Gourmet C. Practitioner D. Doctor
10. via media
A. middle road B. through the medium

C. labourers D. media men
Direction (11 – 15): Fill in the blanks with the correct choice
11. He saved the child ___________ it risked his life.
A. since B. though C. yet D. furthermore
12. If one wants to maintain perfect health, _______ should have a daily bath.
A. one B. you C. he D. they
13. It was a spider ________ saved Robert Bruce.
A. since B. who C. when D. that
14. He is not too tall ______ enter the doorway.
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A. as B. as to C. since D. to
15. Raising his gun and _______ aim, he shot the tiger.
A. take B. to take C. taking D. took
Directions (16–20): Arrange the given statements to form a coherent passage:
16. P. of a six–day Thyagaraja Aaradhanotsvam under the aegis of Thyagaraja Aaradhana Trust
Q. A scintillating dance ballet ‘Seetha Raghaveeyam’ in the gestural vocabulary
R. of Bharatanatyam and several other concerts marked the 24th edition
S. and Visakha Music and Dance Academy at Kalabharati Visakhapatnam.
A. RPQS B. SPQR C. PQRS D. QRPS
17. P. of the intelligence findings on Russia meddling

Q. over Iraq prior to the 2003 invasion
R. in the election by highlighting the US intelligence community’s failures
S. the Trump transition team has sought to weaken the impact
A. PQRS B. SPRQ C. PRQS D. SQPR
18. P. who pretended to be Nicholas Barclay, an American boy who had been missing for 10 years,
Q. The book is reminiscent of the 2012 documentary The Imposter
R. before being (as was thought) discovered in a foreign country and re–united with his family.
S. (so much so, that that true story is referenced in the book), about the French con–man Fredrick
Bourdain,
A. QRPS B. PRQS C. QSPR D. PQSR
19. P. In the days of Citizen Journalism when the world has shrunk to wavelengths
Q. and information–sharing through the social media has already proved its mettle in bringing about
major changes,
R. it is essential to take a critical look at the role
S. and the responsibilities of the media.
A. PQRS B. PQSR C. PRQS D. PSRQ
20. P. without having to touch the display.

Q. which allows users to scroll through recipes,
R. set timers and answer calls through hand gestures
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S. Furthermore, the new handset is equipped with a special cooking app
A. QRPS B. RPSQ C. PSQR D. SQRP
Directions (21–30): Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The fake news hit Trent, Italy, on Easter Sunday, 1475. A 2 ½yearold child named Simon no had gone
missing, and a Franciscan preacher, Bernardino da Feltre, gave a series of sermons claiming that the Jewish
community had murdered the child, drained his blood and drunk it to celebrate Passover. The rumors
spread fast. Before long da Feltre was claiming that the boy’s body had been found in the basement of a
Jewish house.
Over the past few months, “fake news” has been on the loose once again. From bogus stories about Hillary
Clinton’s imminent indictment to myths about a postal worker in Ohio destroying absentee ballots cast for
Donald Trump, colorful and damaging tales have begun to circulate rapidly and widely on Twitter and
Facebook. In some cases they have had violent results. But amid all the media handwringing about fake
news and how to deal with it, one fact seems to have gotten lost: Fake news is not a new phenomenon. It
has been around since news became a concept 500 years ago with the invention of print.
Fake news took off at the same time that news began to circulate widely, after Johannes Gutenberg
invented the printing press in 1439. “Real” news was hard to verify in that era. There were plenty of news
sources–from official publications by political and religious authorities, to eyewitness accounts from sailors
and merchants–but no concept of journalistic ethics or objectivity. Readers in search of fact had to pay
close attention. By the 17th century, historians began to play a role in verifying the news by publishing their
sources as verifiable footnotes. But as printing expanded, so flowed fake news, from spectacular stories of
sea monsters and witches to claims that sinners were responsible for natural disasters. There was a lot of it
in that era. When, in 1761, Marc Antoine Calas, the 22yearold son of a respected Protestant merchant in
Toulouse, apparently committed suicide, Catholic activists spread news stories that Calas’ father, Jean, had
killed him because he wanted to convert to Catholicism. The local judicial authorities posted signs calling
for legal witnesses to corroborate the account, successfully turning rumors into official facts, and, in turn,
official news. Even the scientific revolution and the Enlightenment could not stop the flow of fake news. For
example, in the years preceding the French Revolution, a cascade of pamphlets appeared in Paris exposing
for the first time the details of the near – bankrupt government’s spectacular budget deficit. Even our
glorified Founders were perpetrators of fake news for political means. To whip up revolutionary fervor, Ben
Franklin himself concocted propaganda stories about murderous “scalping” Indians working in league with
the British King George III. By the1800s, fake news was back again, swirling around questions of race. One
persistent “cottage industry” of fake news in antebellum America was stories of African–Americans
spontaneously turning white. In other instances, fake news reports of slave uprisings or of crimes by slaves,
led to terrible violence against African–Americans.
Sensationalism always sold well. By the early 19th century, modern newspapers came on the scene, touting
scoops and exposés, but also fake stories to increase circulation. Despite stirring sensation, fake news
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caused a backlash, and sent the public in search of more objective news. It was this flourishing market that
sparked the rise of relatively objective journalism as an industry in turn of the century America. For the first
time, American papers hired reporters to cover local beats and statehouses, building a chain of trust
between local, state and national reporters and the public. While partisan reporting and sensationalism
never went away (just check out supermarket newsstands), objective journalism did become a successful
business model –and also, until recently, the dominant one. In 1896, Adolph Ochs purchased the New York
Times, looking to produce a “facts” based newspaper that would be useful to the wealthy investor class by
providing reliable business information and general news. Ochs showed that news did not have to be
sensationalist to be profitable, though the paper was accused of being a mouthpiece for “bondholders.”
Of course, the objective journalism consensus had its hiccups. With the advent of World War II, and in light
of the Nazi and Communist propaganda machines, there was concern about the U.S. Government’s
wartime involvement in producing news propaganda.
It wasn’t until the rise of web generated news that our era’s journalistic norms were seriously challenged,
and fake news became a powerful force again. Digital news, you might say, has brought yellow journalism
back to the fore. For one, algorithms that create news feeds and compilations have no regard for accuracy
and objectivity. At the same time, the digital news trend has decimated the force–measured in both money
and manpower–of the traditional, objectively minded, independent pres. Real news is not coming back in
any tangible way on a competitive local level, or as a driver of opinion in a world where the majority of the
population does not rely on professionally reported news sources and so much news is filtered via social
media, and by governments. And as real news recedes, fake news will grow. We’ve seen the terrifying
results this has had in the past–and our biggest challenge will be to find a new way to combat the rising
tide.
21. The author is most likely to agree with:
A. News generated on the internet brought tremors to efficient reporting of news

B. In times of national crisis, the reporting should be monitored and facts should be filtered to keep
the national morale high.
C. Web news has increased the revenue from media advertising manifolds
D. Impact of digital news has been overwhelming on local media as its penetration has increased
22. The author is most likely to agree with the following characteristics of fake news:
I. Fake news is sensational and extreme
II. Fake news is published to increase circulation
III. Fake news always provokes violence
IV. Fake news encourage prejudice
A. Only I B. Only II, III and IV C. All of the above D. Only I, II and IV
23. The author is most likely to agree with
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A. Fake news constituted a substantial part of the news supply so as to surpass real news
B. Fake news encouraged violence and led to revolutions
C. Wrongly reported news generally affected the lower strata or the minority of the society.
D. False news had the potential to attract readers of all ages and classes.
24. Being born in the 16th century, in order to check the validity of a news article, a reader would
lookout for the following factors:
I. religious undertones about incarnation, sin and redemption
II. corroborative accounts by eye witnesses
III. verify the objectivity of the author
IV. articles countering the news in question elsewhere
A. only I and II B. Only I, II and III C. Only I, III and IV D. All of the above
25. What does the author mean by yellow journalism?
A. It means journalism with ethics and responsibility

B. The author means journalism that delves on creating bogus news and creating sensation
C. It stands for news that is based on probable sources but is not wholly verified
D. It is news that relies on facts
26. The author is least likely to agree with
I. Fake news is responsible for bringing myths and superstitions under the limelight
II. Fake news was deprived of any rhyme or reason
III. Fake news was a tool in the hands of politicians and industrialists to sway the mobs
IV. Fake news led to assault of the minority populations
A. Only I and II B. None of the above C. Only I and III D. Only IV
27. Do you think the author really does see a silver lining in false news culture?
A. Disagree B. Agree C. Strongly disagree D. Strongly agree
28. A reading of the passage shows that in order to increase circulation, the newspaper must appease
its readers by publishing:
A. News that provides facts to the readers but lace them with thrill so as to make reading
interesting
B. Objective stories about events that are being reported
C. Provide business news and opinions apart from general news
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D. Provide news with verifiable sources
29. The tone of the author in the passage has been:
A. Disdainful B. Discursive C. Indignant D. Patronizing
30. What is the meaning of the word ‘expose’ as used in the passage?
A. revelation B. hiding C. secreting D. dogmatic
Directions (31–35): Identify the error in the sentences given below.
31. While this task is usually interpreted as an attempt [A] to analyze the concepts of law and legal
system, [B] there is some confusion as to both the value and character of conceptual analysis in
philosophy of law. [C] No error. [D]
32. In any event, [A] conceptual analysis of law remains an important, [B] if controversial, project in
contemporary legal theory. [C] No error [D]
33. The rules governing the creation [A] of contracts and wills cannot plausibly be characterized [B] as
restrictions to freedom that are backed by the threat of a sanction. [C] No error. [D]
34. It is a necessary truth that there are moral constraints on legal validity, [A] it imply the existence of a
possible legal system [B] in which there are no moral constraints on legal validity. [C] No error. [D]
35. The source of law include both the circumstances [A] of its promulgation and relevant interpretative
materials, [B] such as court cases involving its application. [C] No error. [D]
Directions (36–40): Identify the odd one out:
36. A. fleeting B. ephemeral C. transient D. versatile
37. A. theory B. guess C. hypothesis D. fauna
38. A. hurry B. expedient C. lazy D. urgent
39. A. timid B. intrepid C. brave D. fearless
40. A. inundate B. asylum C. sanctuary D. safe house
SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
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41. Who has been appointed as new chief coach of the Indian Senior Men Hockey Team?
A. Waltherus Marijne B. Stephen Constantine

C. Johanna Maria Jacob D. Phil Baty
42. Recently to enhance trade and connectivity India and Bangladesh have decided to construct a
bridge in which state?
A. West Bengal B. Tripura C. Assam D. Mizoram
43. Who has been appointed as new interim Chairman of Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN)?
A. Manisha Singh B. Ajay Bhushan Pandey

C. Inder Jit Singh D. Hasmukh Adhia
44. Open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants in India was introduced:
A. Through Charter Act, 1833 B. Through Charter Act, 1853

C. Through Government of India Act, 1858 D. None of the above
45. Who is the newly elected chairman of Press Trust of India (PTI)?
A. Mahendra Mohan Gupta B. M.P. Veerendra Kumar

C. Viveck Goenka D. Hormusji N. Cama
46. Which city to host the 2028 Summer Olympics?
A. London B. Paris C. Tokyo D. Los Angeles
47. Who has been declared as the new President of Singapore?
A. Farid Khan Kaim Khan B. Mohamed Salleh Marican

C. Halimah Yacob D. Shirwin Eu
48. Which of the following is the most extensive seismic zone of the world?
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A. Mid Continental Belt B. Mid Atlantic Belt

C. Pacific Oceanic Belt D. None of the above
49. Which bollywood actress has become the first Indian woman ambassador for Tourism Australia?
A. Kareena Kapoor B. Deepika Padukone

C. Aishwarya Rai D. Parineeti Chopra
50. Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha is mentioned in which of the following List?
A. Second Schedule B. Third Schedule

C. Fourth Schedule D. First Schedule
51. Who has won the 2017 women’s singles US Open Tennis tournament?
A. Garbine Muguruza B. Sloane Stephens

C. Angelique Kerber D. Madison Keys
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?
A. It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation

B. It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution
chain
C. It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the
consumer
D. It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a
facilitator for its successful implementation
53. ‘National Nutrition Week’ was celebrated across the country from-
A. 31st August to 6th September B. 1st to 7th September

C. 28thAugust to 3rdSeptember D. 25th August to 1st September
54. To expand regional connectivity the first edition of 'Wings 2017 - Sab Uden, Sab Juden' was
organised in which city?
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A. Hyderabad B. Ahmadabad C. Raipur D. New Delhi
55. Recently, the panel constituted under the chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary, Bharat Petroleum
Corporation Ltd a public sector oil marketing company has been given Maharatna status. Now how
many companies have Maharatna status?
A. 7 B. 9 C. 8 D. 6
56. Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Trade organisation?
1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with
the rules of trade between nations.
2. Kazakhstan is the latest member to join WTO
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both D. None
57. Consider the following statements in the context of Directive principles of state policy.
1. Directive principle of state policy are contained in Part III of the Indian Constitution in Art. 37-51.
2. The idea of DPSP was borrowed from the constitution of Ireland.
3. Constitution of India declares that DPSPs are “fundamental in the governance of the country”
(Art. 37).
4. Both the Legislature and the Executive should apply DPSPs while making and implementing
policies in social & economic spheres.
Which of the statement given above is / are correct.
A. 1 only B. 1, 2 & 4 only C. 2, 3 & 4 only D. All of the above
58. Which one of the following is first biosphere reserve of India?
A. Nilgiri B. Sundarban C. Gulf of Mannar D. Nanda Devi
59. The headquarter of European Union is situated in
A. England B. Germany C. France D. Belgium
60. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
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A. Montreal Protocol : Ozone conservation

B. Cartagena Protocol : Control over climate change
C. Nagoya Protocol : For genetic resources
D. Kyoto Protocol : Reduction in emission of green house gases 3
61. What was the theme when 51st International Literacy Day celebrated at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi
on 8th September 2017?
A. “Literacy light up the world” B. “Literacy is backbone of country”

C. “Change over with literacy” D. “Literacy in a digital world”
62. The first private airline which obtain license under 'UDAN' Scheme is:
A. Jet Airways B. Air Asia C. Turbo Megha Jet D. Indigo Airline
63. India in 2008 successfully put Chandrayaan-1 into its initial orbit by
A. PSLV-C12 B. PSLV-C11 C. PSLV-14 D. GSLV-D3
64. Which form of cloud is found at the highest elevation?
A. Cumulus Cloud B. Nimbus Cloud C. Cirrus Cloud D. Stratus Cloud
65. On 30th August, 2017, The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) approved the first phase of
recommendations of Which Committee for Army reforms.
A. Sachar Committee B. Bimal Jalan Committee

C. Naresh Chandra Committee D. Shekatkar Committee
66. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards in our country were instituted in the year
A. 1952 B. 1954 C. 1962 D. 1964
67. UK scientists have recently developed the world’s smallest robot capable of doing surgery. The
name of this surgical robot is-
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A. Aweism-O B. Sergius C. Versus D. Ed-209
68. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
A. Vitamin A : Xerophthalmia
B. Vitamin B1 : Beri Beri
C. Vitamin D : Osteomalacia
D. Vitamin K : Night Blindness
69. According to a report by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), which one of
the following island is world’ least people visited country in 2016?
A. Tonga B. Vanuatu C. Palau D. Tuvalu
70. On which date ‘International Women’s Day’ is celebrated?
A. March 18 B. March 8 C. March 28 D. February 18
71. Who was recently elected as Interim Prime Minister of Pakistan?
A. Shahbaz Sharif B. Shahid Khaqan Abbasi

C. Sheikh Rashid Ahmed D. Naved Qamar
72. New Chief of 'National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)' is:
A. RK Panchnanda B. Ajay Kumar

C. Sanjay Kumar D. Devendra Kumar Pathak
73. Which former RBI governor has authored the book “I Do What I Do: On Reform, Rhetoric &
Resolve'”?
A. Duvvuri Subbarao B. Rahguram Rajan

C. Manmohan Singh D. Amitav Ghosh
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74. When there are two full moons in a calendar month, which of the following is related to this
incident?
A. Super Moon B. Blue Moon C. Blood Moon D. None of the above
75. Which country will host G20 summit in year 2019?
A. Argentina B. Saudi Arabia C. Russia D. Japan
76. Light Year is the unit of ?
A. time B. distance C. light D. None of these
77. The government will organise a global food fair in November this year to provide a platform to
Indian farmers and manufacturers to showcase their products and explore partnerships with foreign
companies. Which among the following entity will be the event partner for this Food Fair?
A. Organic Farming Association of India (OFAI)

B. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
D. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
78. Where did Kuchipudi, an eminent dance form, originate?
A. Kerala B. Andhra Pradesh C. Uttar Pradesh D. Tamil Nadu
79. Who founded the Red Cross?
A. Henry Dunant B. Alexander C. James Cook D. Bismark
80. The chairman of Fundamental Rights sub-committee of the Constituent Assembly was  
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad B. Dr. BR Ambedkar

C. Pt. Jawaharhal Nehru D. JB Kripalani
81. What is the theme of International Tiger Day 2017?
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A. Fresh Ecology For Tigers' Protection B. Save Tiger, Save Animal

C. Protect Tiger D. Tiger protection and ecology
82. Under the Panchayati Raj system Gram Sabha consist of ?
A. Elected executives of a village

B. Persons who is registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village
C. Elected executives of a village and officials nominated by him /her
D. The village Surpanch and the persons nominated by him /her
83. Radio broadcasting in country completes how many years as of July 23rd 2017?
A. 75 years B. 80 years C. 90 years D. 100 years
84. Which part of the oceanic subsurface is the most extended part of oceanic region.
A. Continental Shelf B. Deep sea plain

C. Continental Slope D. Oceanic Deeps
85. ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle PSLV-C38 successfully launched the 712 kg Cartosat-2 Series
Satellite along with how many co-passenger satellites on June 23, 2017?
A. 30 B. 25 C. 31 D. 35
86. Recently which of the following countries has made announcement for setting up of the first
settlement on Mars?
A. USA B. China C. UAE D. Germany
87. Lord Buddha's image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called 'Bhumisparsha Mudra'. It
signifies:
A. Buddha's calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his
meditation. 
B. Buddha's calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
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C. The gesture of debate or discussion/argument.

D. Both A and B are correct.
88. Convex mirrors are used for which of the following work?
A. To see a larger image of teeth of patients by a dentist.

B. As the rear-view mirrors of vehicles.
C. In torches, searchlights and headlights of vehicles.
D. To focus the sunlight in solar furnaces.
89. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding Payments Banks?
A. Can accept deposit B. Can issue ATM

C. Can issue credit card D. Can’t give loan to the customers
90. Which one of the following scripts of ancient India was mostly written from right to left?
A. Nandnagari B. Brahmi  C. Kharoshti D. Sharada
SECTION – III: QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

91. After three successive equal percentage rise in the salary the sum of 100 rupees turned into 140
rupees and 49 paisa. Find the percentage rise in the salary.
A. 12% B. 22% C. 66% D. 82%
92. In a class of 100 students, 48 students secured 40 marks in English, 32 secured 60 marks and the
rest 80. Find the average in English for the whole class?
A. 20 B. 19 C. 65.66 D. 54.4
93. A and B can do a piece of work in 28 days. With the help of C, they can finish it in 21 days. How long
will C take to finish the work all alone?
A. 84 days B. 80 days C. 75 days D. 70 days
94. A certain sum of money becomes 4 times of the principal in 12 years. Find the rate percent per
annum.
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A. 20 B. 25 C. 35 D. 40
95. Find the no. of ways of arranging all the letters of the word CAPITAL, so that the vowels appear
together.
A. 480 B. 520 C. 400 D. None of these
96. A manufacturer marks his goods in advance at 80 percent more than the cost price, but he allows 15
articles to a dozen and also 10 percent discount for cash. What rate of profit on his out lay does he
obtain from a customer who pays cash?
A. 18.2% B. 25% C. 29.6% D. Cannot be determined
Find the unit digit of the expansion 25  36   6 

6251 528 54
97.
98. Cynthia can do a work in 80 days. She works at it for 10 days. Then Maggy alone finish the work in
42 days. In how many days together can complete the work?
A. 40 days B. 20 days C. 30 days D. 45 days
99. By selling 11 oranges for a dollar, a man loses 10%. How many for a dollar should he sell to gain
10%?
A. 8 oranges B. 9 oranges C. 10 oranges D. 7 oranges
100. A sum of Rs 750 was paid for a work which A can do in 32 days, B in 20 days, B and C in 12 days, D in
24 days. What is the money received by C if all of them work together?
A. Rs 160 B. Rs 240 C. 150 D. Rs 200
101. A beats B by 100 meters in a 1000m race and speed of B is 45km per hour. Find the speed of A.
A. 40 km/hr B. 50 km/hr C. 45 km/hr D. 35 km/hr
102. Anil plays a game of tossing a dice. On throwing, if the result is less than 3, he gets Rs x, otherwise,
he pays Rs 10. If the game is fair, then the value of x is:
A. 25 B. 20 C. 22 D. 18
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103. Two unknown liquids A and B are in the ratio 5 : 1 in container 1 and in container 2, they are found
in the ratio 1 : 3. In what ratio should the contents of the two containers be mixed so as to obtain a
mixture of A and B in the ratio 1 : 1?
A. 2 : 3 B. 4 : 3 C. 3 : 2 D. 3 : 4
104. In how many ways can 7 friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V be arranged such that P and Q are never
together?
105. The average speed of a train with stoppages is 75kmph and without stoppages is 90kmph. How
many minutes per hour does the train stop?
A. 18 B. 16 C. 12 D. 10
106. The average speed of a train with stoppages is 75kmph and without stoppages is 90kmph. How
many minutes per hour does the train stop?
A. 18 B. 16 C. 12 D. 10
107. When Sunil will be as old as his father is at present, Sunil will be five times as old as his son is at
present. Also, by then Sunil’s son will be six years older than the age of Sunil at present. The sum of
the ages of Sunil’s father and Sunil is 85 years at present. What is the sum of the ages of Sunil’s son
and Sunil at present?
A. 36 years B. 39 years C. 41 years D. 45 years
108. L.C.M of two prime numbers x and y (x > y) is 143. The value of 2y – x is:
A. 14 B. 9 C. 10 D. Cannot be determined
109. A squared shape park has a 5m wide road inside it walking along its sides. The total area occupied
by the road is 1260 square meter. What is the perimeter along the outer edge of the road?
A. 190 B. 220 C. 269 D. 272
110. When a steel ball falls from rest, the distance it travels from the starting point is directly
proportional to the square of fall. If a steel ball falls through 180 m in 6 seconds, what distance does
it fall in the 6thsecond?
A. 65 m B. 55 m C. 58 m D. None of these
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SECTION – IV: LEGAL REASONING

Principle: Where, before or on the hearing of a suit or an appeal in which the decree is not subject
to appeal, or where, in the execution of any such decree, any question of law or usage having the
force of law arises, on which the Court trying the suit or appeal, or executing the decree, entertains
reasonable doubt, the Court may, either of its own motion or on the application of any of the
parties, draw up a statement of the facts of the case and the point on which doubt is entertained,
and refer such statement with its own opinion on the point for the decision of the High Court.
Facts: The district civil court was hearing a case involving a dispute between a residents’ colony and the
local municipal corporation, when the interpretation of some by–laws came under dispute with
counsels of both parties alleging a different interpretation. The district civil court reasons that it
agrees with the interpretation advanced by the residents’ colony.
111. Is the above in violation of the Rule given?
A. Yes, since the High Court was not consulted.
B. No
C. It depends on how many provisions of the law were in dispute.
D. It cannot be determined
112. Assume that when the by–laws are being questioned, the district civil court apprises the High Court
of the matter and sends the question of interpretation to the High Court for its decision. This is in:
A. Accordance with the Rule.
B. Violation of the Rule since the parties did not apply for such opinion to be sought from the High
Court.
C. Violation of the Rule since no substantial law is under dispute, it is a local law.
D. None of the above
There are many forms of harm of which the law takes no account (damnum sine injuria):
A. Loss inflicted on individual traders by bona fide (free and fair) competition in trade;
B. Where the damage is done by a man acting under necessity to prevent a greater evil;
C. Where the harm is too trivial, too indefinite or too difficult of proof.
113. Deepika runs a grocery shop in a posh neighbourhood. She is the sole breadwinner of the family.
Soon, a multinational chain opens its grocery store across the street from Deepika’s shop. The
customers to Deepika’s shop start dwindling. Worried that she might lose her means of livelihood,
Deepika starts spreading rumours about the chain and says that the store has unethical business
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practices. She claims that they have threatened to kill her if she does not close shop. Customers
start avoiding that new store from then on. Is this a case of damnum sine injuria?
A. Yes, under Rule A. B. Yes, under Rule B.
C. Yes, under Rule C. D. No
114. Vivan goes to purchase a new perfume. While in the store, he notices that a shop assistant is about
to spray a perfume on his wrist. Vivan hastily draws his hand back, shouts, “How dare you! At least
ask,” and he hit the shop assistant’s head against the wall. The assistant starts bleeding from the
temple. Is this a case of damnum sine injuria?
A. Yes, under Rule B. B. Yes, under Rule C.
C. No D. It cannot be determined
115. Hestor is a sous–chef in a reputed restaurant. His signature dish is a fish filet with couscous and
people come from far and wide to taste it. One day, a food critic, Timothy hears of the dish and
orders it, specifically saying, “Please don’t add any pepper to my fish. I am allergic to it.” Hestor
prepares the dish and adds pepper to the couscous. When Timothy eats the dish, his tongue swells
up. Choose the correct statement:
A. This is a case of damnum sine injuria since Timothy had asked for pepper not to be added to the
fish, not the couscous.
B. This is a case of damnum sine injuria under Rule C.
C. Both (a) and (b)
Principle: Whoever, being a public servant, and being, as such public servant, charged with the preparation
or translation of any document or electronic record, frames, prepares or translates that document or
electronic record in a manner which he knows or believes to be incorrect, intending thereby to cause or
knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause injury to any person, shall be punished with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
Facts: Vardhan is newly appointed to the Public Relations department in the State Legal Services Authority
(SLSA). He gets a document in Bhojpuri and is asked to translate it to Hindi and English and circulate
it on the website, since it is a news item about the SLSA’s good work. Vardhaan is well–versed in
Hindi but not so adept at English. He deems that translating from Bhojpuri to English will be even
more difficult. However, he thinks that if he can manage on his own, he will gain brownie points
from his superiors. He works on both translations and gets them proof–read by a friend who knows
Bhojpuri, Hindi and English. He then publishes them on the website.
116. Is the Rule applicable in this case?
A. Yes
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B. No
C. It depends on how long the original document was
117. Vardhaan is then asked to analyze a set of confidential account sheets and upload the analysis to
the SLSA’s server only. Vardhaan has never used the system before, but as usual, he wants to
manage the work on his own and he knows that these documents are sensitive in nature and he
cannot ask his friend for help. He uploads the analysis alongwith the sheets on the server himself.
However, he is appalled to see that the analysis and sheets are accidentally uploaded with public
viewing enabled. Is the Rule applicable in this case?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on how many sheets are open to the public
A. No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of the law in force at the time of
the commission of the act charged as an offence, nor be subjected to a penalty greater than that
which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of the commission of the offence.
B. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
C. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Facts: Rishi was born on August 7, 1978. In 2001, he was charged with harassing his wife, Neeta, mentally
and physically from 2000–2001. The court examined the matter and after due trial, convicted him
for causing grievous hurt and several other provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
118. Is this trial valid?
A. Yes
B. No, since the law dates back several years, even before Rishi was born
C. No
119. During Rishi’s trial, he was asked to narrate how he got married to Neeta and what happened
thereafter. Is this is consonance with Rule C?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on whether Neeta was present when Rishi was asked for his statement or not
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120. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act comes into force in October, 2006. Sensing
that the Act is more apt to the troubles she endured when she was married to Rishi, Neetu wants to
file a case against him for the torture he inflicted on her. Advise her.
A. Neeta can go ahead with suing Rishi under the new Act.
B. Neeta cannot go ahead with suing Rishi under the new Act.
C. Neeta can only sue Rishi under the new Act if he has been released from prison.
A. Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or
business of any kind, is to that extent void.
B. One who sells the goodwill of a business may agree with the buyer to refrain from carrying on a
similar business, within specified local limits, so long as the buyer, or any person deriving title to the
goodwill from him, carries on a like business therein, provided that such limits appear to the Court
reasonable, regard being had to the nature of the business.
Facts: Jinny was an employee in a pharmaceutical company. Soon, she discovered that her husband,
Gared, was suffering from a life–threatening disease and would need millions to get proper medical
treatment. Jinny decided to start selling some medical formulations with addictive properties to rich
youngsters to make quick money. Her company found out and terminated her employment.
Another pharma company decides to hire Jinny on account of her expertise but in the agreement
with Jinny, this company stipulates that Jinny shall not be allowed to sell any of the company
formulations personally without due permission.
121. Jinny needs the job but she also needs the extra money for her husband’s treatment. She thinks
that this clause in the agreement violates Rule A. Is she correct?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the exact cost of Gared’s treatment
122. Much too confused, Jinny decides to ditch the new offer and instead start her own business, selling
medicines and putting her pharmacy degree to good use. The company whose offer she rejects does
not take too well to this, and immediately tells her, “Miss, you are not allowed to open a pharmacy
within 3 km. of our pharmacy. It is unlawful.” Jinny is devastated. Advise her.
A. The company is making a baseless claim.
B. The company’s claim is valid under Rule A.
C. The company’s claim is valid under Rule B.
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123. Jinny buys a shop to sell medicines from. The seller of the shop, Mithu, tells her, “Jinny, I must tell
you that I cannot operate a medical shop here. I had sold the goodwill of my pharma company to
M/s. Gel–o–sil and they have forbidden me to operate a medical shop in this locality for the next 5
years.” Choose the correct statement:
A. Jinny cannot operate the medical shop there.
B. Jinny is free to operate the medical shop there.
C. Jinny can operate a medical shop there but only after taking consent from M/s. Gel–o–sil.
All minorities, whether based on religion or language, will have the right to establish and administer
educational institutions of their choice.
A. The State, in granting aid to educational institutions, will not discriminate against any educational
institution on the ground that it is under the management of a minority, whether based on religion
or language.
Facts: Dahiya belongs to a community in the hilly regions of India, where they speak Hindi and a native
language. Dahiya takes up the cause of keeping their native language alive and establishes an
institution where only people belonging to that community can study. It is the only institution in the
country that imparts instruction in that language.
124. Is this institution in accordance with Rule A?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on how many people speak that language
125. Dahiya approaches the government for help in running the institution, since the government was
running a scheme to preserve languages and cultures of minorities. The government refuses to
grant aid to Dahiya. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Dahiya can claim remedy as the government’s action violates Rule A.
B. Dahiya can claim remedy as the government’s action violates Rule B.
C. Dahiya can claim remedy under (a) or (b)
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A. Theft is robbery if, in order to commit the theft, or in committing the theft, or in carrying away or
attempting to carry away property obtained by the theft, the offender, for that end, voluntarily
causes or attempts to cause to any person death or hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant
death or of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint.
B. Extortion is robbery if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion, is in the presence of
the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting that person in fear of instant death, of
instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to that person, or to some other person, and, by so
putting in fear, induces the person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted.
C. When five or more persons conjointly commit or attempt to commit a robbery, or where the whole
number of persons conjointly committing or attempting to commit a robbery, and persons present
and aiding such commission or attempt, amount to five or more, every person so committing,
attempting or aiding, is said to commit “dacoity”.
Facts: Dharmesh is a street vendor who sells Chinese food for a living. While his stall has been popular for
a long time, lately, he is having trouble sustaining a steady flow of customers for they are queuing
up to a new vendor, Raggy who sells Chinese food and Pav Bhaji right next to Dharmesh’s stall.
Dharmesh tries to warn Raggy to set up shop elsewhere but Raggy refuses to budge. Dharmesh
approaches Raggy after closing shop late at night one day and puts a dagger to his stomach. He
hands him papers and asks him to sign them. He tells Raggy that the papers say that Raggy is
willingly parting with his stall and selling it to Dharmesh for Rs.5,000. Scared for his life, Raggy signs
the papers immediately.
126. The above is a case of:
A. Theft B. Robbery C. Extortion D. Dacoity
127. Soon, the wheels of justice turn and Dharmesh suffers loss one day– when he has set up his stall, he
notices a group of goons leaving with the cash box while he is busy preparing food for the day. Just
as he is about to scream for help, one of the goons places a dagger to his throat and warns him to
back off. This is a case of:
A. Theft B. Robbery
C. Dacoity D. It cannot be determined
128. Dharmesh reports the matter to the police. Upon interrogation, it is found that the group of goons
was led by Raggy. He was with his friends Chiku, Miku and Loki. Raggy had asked his friend, Melu, at
a nearby stall to distract Dharmesh so they could steal the cash box. This is now a case of:
A. Theft
B. Robbery
C. Dacoity
D. Dacoity only in case of Raggy, because he led the group; Robbery for the rest.
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When an offence is committed by means of several acts, whoever intentionally co–operates in the
commission of that offence by doing any of those acts, either singly or jointly with any other person,
commits that offence.
Facts: Tahira tells her driver, Uzma to manually lock the back door of the car when she leaves for lunch.
Uzma’s sister, Ruzi comes and tells Uzma that if they run away with the car and sell it, they would
make a fortune, given that it was a high–end luxury car. Uzma explains that if she runs away at that
moment, Tahira will get suspicious. Instead, she leaves the back door unlocked and goes for lunch,
asking Ruzi to steal the car. Ruzi follows the plan and steals the car.
129. Who is guilty of stealing the car?
A. Uzma
B. Ruzi
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above; Tahira should have been more careful about her car
130. Assume that after Tahira told Uzma to lock the back door of the car, Uzma forgot and went for lunch
after pressing the lock button on the car keys. A man, Itu, passing by, happened to try the door of
the car seeing that it was standing deserted. However, when the door opened, he found a box
inside and opened it out of curiosity. He found a diamond ring inside and stole it. Who is guilty of
stealing the ring here?
A. Itu
B. Uzma
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above; Tahira should have been more careful about her belongings
A. With respect to offences related to elections, whoever—

a. gives a gratification to any person with the object of inducing him or any other person to exercise
any electoral right or of rewarding any person for having exercised any such right; or
b. accepts either for himself or for any other person any gratification as a reward for exercising any
such right or for inducing or attempting to induce any other person to exercise any such right;
commits the offence of bribery.
B. The exception to the above provision is that a declaration of public policy or a promise of public
action shall not be an offence under the aforementioned provision.
C. A person who offers, or agrees to give, or offers or attempts to procure, a gratification shall be
deemed to give a gratification.
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D. A person who obtains or agrees to accept or attempts to obtain a gratification shall be deemed to
accept a gratification, and a person who accepts a gratification as a motive for doing what he does
not intend to do, or as a reward for doing what he has not done, shall be deemed to have accepted
the gratification as a reward.
Facts: Carl is standing for the Assembly elections. He is an independent candidate. He decides to raise
issues of minority welfare to apprise people of his thinking and approach towards governance. In his
speech, he promises that if he gets elected, he will endeavor to get all dilapidated religious
institutions renovated and give a chance to people of all religions, including minorities, to speak in
his weekly radio address on a rotational basis to make everyone’s voice heard.
131. Has Carl committed the offence of bribery?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on how many votes vested in the minorities
132. Carl wins the elections. After the results are announced, he is distributing sweets to his supporters,
when people from opposite parties start accusing him of bribing them with sweets and the like. Are
their allegations valid under the Rules given?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the margin of victory for Carl
133. Carl’s main opponent, Webber, is going around, saying he will give a gold watch to people who have
voted for him. Most people do not disclose their voting preferences, but one man, Ghighu, steps
forward, saying, “I voted for you, sir,” and gets a gold watch. The truth is that Ghighu had voted for
Carl. Who has committed bribery here?
A. Webber B. Ghighu
C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of the above
Ever person competent to contract and entitled to transferable property, or authorized to dispose of
transferable property not his own, is competent to transfer such property either wholly or in part, and
either absolutely or conditionally, in the circumstances, to the extent and in the manner, allowed and
prescribed by any law for the time being in force.
Facts: Charles runs a barber shop in the village. He has to run to town on some urgent business and leaves
the shop in the care of his son–in–law, Harry. When Charles returns after a couple of days, he finds
that Harry has sold the shop to Billu. Charles is aghast. Harry comforts him saying, “Oh come on!
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That shop would have been mine soon anyway. I married your daughter sir. We earned good money
off it. Now you can retire in peace.”
134. Has Charles been righted under the Rule?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on how much money was earned off the sale
135. Having no place to run the shop anymore, Charles decides to make some money by putting up his
orchard 30 miles away for rent for 6 months a year, and sell the produce later. He signs a contract to
that effect with a farmer, Neal. After 6 months, when Charles goes to collect the produce and take
possession of the orchard from Neal, he meets Harry, who says that Neal sold the orchard to him
and he had no right over it anymore. Would your answer to the above question be different in this
case?
A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on how much money was earned off the sale
136. Principle: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing any bodily injury as is
likely to cause death is liable to be sentenced to imprisonment for a term of fifteen years.
Facts: A fight broke out in course of a volleyball match and during this fight, Ram and Lakhan
repeatedly punch Katya in his stomach. At one point of time they all were good friends. The fight led
to an internal injury and in spite of best efforts of the doctors, Katya could not be saved. The
doctors opined that the internal injuries suffered by Katya were of a nature as likely to cause death.
Decide the liability of Ram and Lakhan.
A. They are not liable for causing death since they did not intend to kill Katya.
B. They are liable for causing death since they intended to cause the injuries suffered by Katya.
C. They are liable for causing death since facts clearly indicate that they took advantage of weaker
situation of Katya.
D. They are not liable for causing death since they could not have foreseen he gravity of the
situation.
137. Principle: A minor is not competent to enter into a contract and the law will assume that the
contract never happened and everything is returned to as it was.
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Facts: A minor fraudulently misrepresenting her age, enters into a contract with another for the
purchase of a piano. After the piano has been delivered she refused to pay price for the same
contending the non existence of a legally binding contract.
A. The contract is valid and binding against the minor as the minor has misrepresented her age
knowingly.
B. The contract is voidable at the option of the other party and thus the minor is liable to pay if the
other party wants to carry out the obligation.
C. The contract is void ab intio and the court can direct the minor to restore the piano to the other
party.
D. The contract is valid and the guardian of the minor will be liable to pay for the piano.
138. Principle: Theft occurs when a person dishonestly takes any movable property out of the possession
of any person without that person’s consent.
Facts: Keshav finds Manu’s cattle roaming the streets and takes them home to prevent them from
being run over by vehicles. Manu does not find his cattle and makes a complaint to the police
reporting them to be missing.
A. Keshav is guilty of theft as he did not inform Manu as the whereabouts of his cattle.
B. Keshav is not guilty of theft since the cattle were not in Manu’s possession
C. Keshav is not guilty of theft since cattle are not property.
D. Keshav is not guilty of theft as there was no dishonest intention on his part.
139. Principle: Offer lapses by cross offers.
Facts: ‘A’, by letter, offers to sell his house to ‘B’ for Rs. 2,00,000. Without knowing ‘A’s offer, ‘B’, by
a letter, offers to buy the same house from ‘A’ for Rs.2,00,000. Here
A. No binding contract comes into existence as ‘B’s letter is merely a cross offer
B. No binding contract comes into existence as consideration in this contract is insufficient
C. Binding contract comes into existence as ‘B’s letter is equivalent to acceptance of ‘A’s offer
D. The Indian Contract Act is silent on such issues
140. Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out the possession of any
person without that person’s consent, moves that property in, is said to commit theft. Whoever
commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine or
with both.
Facts: Raju sees a cell phone belonging to Ram lying on the table in Ram’s house. Raju hides the
cellphone in Ram’s house in such a place where Ram could not find it ever, due to the fear of
immediate search and detection. Raju did this with the intention of taking away the cell phone from
the hidden place when Ram forgets about and then sell it away. Is Raju guilty of theft?
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A. Yes
B. No, because he merely played a prank with the friend
C. Yes, because Raju did not inform Ram about the place where he had hidden the cell phone
D. Yes, because Raju intended to take the movable property from Ram’s possession and with this
intention he moved the property.
141. Principle 1: A person defames another if he states anything, which exposes the other to hatred or
ridicule or results in, him being shunned by others, or injured him in his trade, business or
profession.
Principle 2: To commit defamation, there must be communication of defamatory statement to a
third party.
Facts: A, a patient of B a doctor, is dissatisfied with B’s treatment. He discontinues the treatment
and after sometime leaves the city. Later on his illness was automatically cured. A was upset
because B had made him spend a lot of money on his illness. A writes a letter accusing B of
cheating. He alleges that B magnified the effects of his illness, deliberately treated him in a manner
so that it persisted and also caused deterioration of his health. B shows this letter to his lawyer. In
consultation with his lawyer B files a suit for damages against A for defamation.
A. A has defamed B and is liable to pay compensation.
B. A has defamed B when the letter was read by the lawyer and therefore the compensation has to
paid.
C. A has not defamed B.
D. A has defamed B by writing such a letter to him.
142. Principle: Indian Contract Act says that if there is a breach of contract then there must not be an
unjust enrichment on the cost the aggrieved party.
Facts: Roma entered into a contract with the municipal corporation to build a road but due to rise in
prices of the raw material she was not able to build the road on the specified date. Now, for the
breach of contract Municipal Corporation demanded 18% interest on the advance given to him
while entering into the contract. Decide
A. This is justified of the terms and conditions of the contract say so.
B. This is justified as there was a subsequent breach and 18% interest does not amount to unjust
enrichment.
C. This is not justified as charging this much interest will lead to unjust enrichment of Municipal
Corporation.
D. Both a & b.
143. Principle: For defamation, there must be publication of defamatory material. Such publication
constitutes the tort of defamation.
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Facts: Rita wrote defamatory statements for Sunita on a post card and post to Sunita. Sunita on
reading it sued Rita for defamation. Decide
A. There is no defamation as it is not published.
B. There is no defamation as it is read only by Sunita.
C. There is defamation.
D. Both a & b.
144. Principle: If a person brings or keeps certain extremely dangerous things which amounts to non
natural use of land as that thing escapes causing a lot of harm then the person will be held liable for
strict liability.
Facts: Kunal built a huge reservoir over his land for the use of his community. In his neighborhood
there was a coal pit. But that reservoir broke up one day and the water entered into the coal pit.
Kunal was sued
A. Kunal can’t be sued as water was not for his personal use but for the community at large.
B. Kunal can’t be sued as there was a sensitive nature of work carried out by the plaintiff.
C. Kunal can be sued as he is strictly liable for his act.
D. Kunal can be sued as he should have taken extra precautions
145. Principle: It is a Directive Principle of State Policy that the state shall foster respect for
International law and treaty obligations. When there is confusion between Indian law and an
International law, interpretation must be done with respect the International Obligation.
Explanation: An International treaty has to be incorporated into the Indian Legislations by the
Parliament of India to legally enforce them.
Facts: India singed an International treaty named X which casts a duty upon the signatory State to
not displace a population from a region/village if the total population exceeds 5,000. However the
same has yet not been incorporated into the domestic laws. A state Legislature enacted the
legislation to establish a new factory in a village which needed the entire population of 5,500 of the
village to be displaced and relocated. Has the state violated any laws?
A. Yes, as there was an International obligation as Indi has signed the treaty and DPSP requires India
to respect them.
B. Yes, as only Parliament of India can make laws in contradiction with International treaties.
C. No, as the International treaty X has yet not been incorporated in the Indian laws and hence is
unenforceable.
D. No, as International obligations do not stand in the ways of making policy decisions.
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146. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities?
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Certiorari
d. Quo Warranto
147. State which of the following statements is incorrect:

A writ can be issued against :
a. the High Court.
b. Government of India and State Governments.
c. Any authority under the power and control of the Government of India.
d. Parliament or a State Legislature.
148. The Directive Principles are:-

a. justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights.
b. justiciable though not the same way as the fundamental rights.
c. decorative portions of the Indian Constitution.
d. not justiciable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country
149. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister in the Council of Minister should not
exceed:-
a. 20% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
b. 15% of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
c. 20% of the total number of members of Rajya Sabha.
d. 15% of the total number of members of both the Houses.
150. Vast powers and functions vested in the Indian President make him:
a. Almost a dictator
b. A benevolent ruler
c. Real head of the Government
d. A nominal Constitution Head
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151. Only that person can be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court who is a citizen of India and:
a. judge of the High Court for at least five years.
b. advocate of the Supreme Court for at least 10 years' standing.
c. judge of the High Court for at least ten years.
d. advocate of the High Court for at least fifteen years.
152. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government:-

a. Cannot legislate.
b. Can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List.
c. Can legislate on the subject in the State List.
d. Is suspended.
153. 'What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly'. This statement epitomises the doctrine of:-
a. Pith and substance.
b. Implied powers.
c. Ancillary powers
d. Colourable legislation
154. Residuary powers are vested in:

a. executive
b. judiciary
c. parliament
d. state legislatures
155. Who said that the Supreme Court in India has the highest powers which no other court in the world
possess?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jawahar Lal Nehru
c. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
d. Alladi Krishna Swamy Iyyer
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156. The Constitution of India is:-

a. Highly federal
b. Neither federal nor unitary
c. Highly unitary
d. Partly federal and partly unitary
157. Who amongst the following is not a 'public officer' within the meaning of Section 2 (17) of CPC.
a. a Judge
b. a person in service under the pay of Government
c. sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat
d. all of the above
158. Give response to the statement Equality before law under Article 14 of the Constitution is with reference
to :
a. laws enacted by legislature
b. orders passed by the executive
c. notifications issued by the Government only
d. laws enacted by legislature, executive order etc.
159. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as

a. repudiation
b. rescission
c. alteration
d. none of the above
160. The right to equality means that no person is above law. To this rule, certain exceptions are recognized.
State which of the following come under the exception:
a. President of India
b. Ambassador of USA.
c. Judges of the High Courts.
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d. All the above
SECTION – V: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (161–164): The questions have a set of sequentially ordered statements. Each statement can
be classified as one of the following:
F– Facts, which deal with the pieces of information that one has heard, seen or read, and which are
open to discovery or verification
I– Inferences, which are conclusions drawn about the unknown, on the basis of the known.
J– Judgements, which are opinions that imply approval or disapproval of persons, objects, situations
and occurrences in the past, the present or the future.
Examine each statement A–D and then mark the option (a–d) with the correct match of Fact(F),
I(Inference), and J(Judgment)
161. A. For many, turbulence is one of the greatest contributors to the fear of flying.
B. During testing, wings of a plane are subjected to several times the normal pressure and while the
wings bend, they don’t break, which will give reassurance to those afraid of flying.
C. Modern day aircrafts are not only much safer than their predecessors, but also the most
aesthetically appealing ever.
D. Big planes are now designed with two rather than four engines in order to achieve better fuel
efficiency.
A. FIJI B. JJJF C. JIFF D. IIFJ
162. A. The Role Playing Game (RPG) genre has been around a long time, which is why it is refreshing to
see a truly free–to–play title that offers a complete RPG experience.
B. Some people find on–line games very involving and exhilerating while others find them contrived
and prefer real games.
C. Given bad weather outdoors and lack of places to play, online or virtual games provide an
alternative means of leisure.
D. Team games such as football, cricket or basketball are better suited for developing team spirit.
A. FFJJ B. IFIJ C. IFJJ D. FIIJ
163. A. An “enjoyment misfit” occurs when an individual is competent at his job and proud of doing it
but does not like it.
B. The most frequent cause of “enjoyment misfit” is probably intrinsic dislike of various work
characteristics, but other causes are common as well.
C. If employees accept jobs in which they do not feel pride, they will not feel at peace with
themselves.
D. “Enjoyment misfit” should be avoided at any cost.
A. JJIF B. JIIF C. FJIJ D. FIJF
164. A. Now and then, she recalled certain delicate observations she had made during her own
explorations before the mirror.
CP/18/C4
B. The music was loud and cacophonous but the boys and girls present there danced with total
abandon.
C. I had earplugs on to protect myself from the noise.
D. So far, Beyonce’s Formation Explicit is the best music video.
A. FJFJ B. FIFI C. IJIJ D. IFFI
Directions (165–169): In the question, a statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II.
Determine if the arguments are strong or weak with reference to the statement and mark your answer
as:
(A) If only Argument I is strong.

(B) If only Argument II is strong.
(C) If neither Argument I or II is strong.
(D) If both Arguments I and II are strong.
165. Statement: Should all the states of the country enforce prohibition of sale and consumption of
liquor?
Arguments: I. Yes. Majority of low income people get addicted to liquor and spend large amount
of money on liquor leaving very little to spend on the family.
II. No. Sale of liquor gets the states good revenue.
166. Statement: Should we stop celebration with firecrackers on Diwali?

Arguments: I. No, it is a tradition to celebrate Diwali with firecrackers.
II. Yes, this will fulfill the demands of some Non Governmental Organisations (NGO’s).
167. Statement: Should Press be given complete freedom in reporting news?

Arguments: I. Yes, the public is educated and aware enough to judge if a newspaper or news
channel is competent enough to report news without any bias.
II. No, the government should exercise some control over the Press.
168. Statement: Should government provide potable drinking water on tap?

Arguments: I. No, our pipeline infrastructure is in a bad shape and will contaminate the water.
II. Yes, all developed countries provide potable drinking water to their citizens.
169. Argument: The government should stop patronizing private telecom companies and promote state
owned BSNL.
Arguments: I. Yes, through BSNL the government can offer secure, reliable and economical
telecom services to the people.
II. No, A healthy competition promotes development in services and better customer
care.
Directions (170–174): Solve the following deductions and answer accordingly.
CP/18/C4
170. All flowers are sweet.

Some essence are flowers.
No lemon is flower.
Conclusions: (I) Some sweet are essence
(II) Every essence is lemon
(III) All flowers are essence
(IV) No lemon is sweet
A. II And III follow B. IV follows C. I and II follows D. Only I follow
171. No Train is a plane.

Some trains are boats.
No boat is a trawler.
Conclusions: (I) No trawler which is a train is a plane
(II) All trawlers are trains.
(III) Trains which are boats are trawlers.
(IV) Some trawlers may be plane.
A. II and III follow B. I, II and IV follow C. None follow D. I and II Follow
172. All IITians are Intelligent.

Some intelligent are smart.
All intelligent are failure.
Conclusions: (I) All IITians are failures.
(II) Some smart are IITians.
(III) Some failures are smart people.
(IV) Some smart are failures.
A. Either III or IV B. only IV C. II and IV follow D. I III and IV
173. No vegetable is unhealthy.

No unhealthy is digestible.
Conclusions: (I) Some vegetable is digestible
(II) All vegetables are digestible
(III) No Vegetable is digestible
(IV) All digestible are vegetable
A. I and II B. II and IV follow C. Only II follow D. None follow
174. Some apples are sweet.

All sweet are sour.
CP/18/C4
Conclusions: (I) Some sour are apples.

(II) No apple is sour
(III) All sour which is not sweet is apple
(IV) Some apples are not sour
A. Only IV follow B. Both III and IV follow C. Only I follow D. Both I and IV follow
Directions (175–180): Read the passage given in each question and then answer the question that
follows.
175. The Shah Raza starrer film ‘Emir’ will be a hit on the box office. This was concluded after several film
goers were interviewed after they watched the film Emir on the first day of its release and allof
them highly praised Shah Raza’s performance in the movie.
Which of the following, if true, will most weaken the argument above:
A. The film Emir’s music has received praise by music critics.

B. The shows on the first day of a movie’s release is mostly watched by the star’s fans.
C. Out of the 25 movies in which Shah Raza has acted, 10 have been hits.
D. Movies which do well in the first week of their release go on to be a hit.
176. The air quality in our cities has been deteriorating rapidly in the recent past and a few cities had to
shut down schools and offices because of bad air quality. In order to solve the problem of air and
noise pollution and to reduce our dependence of imported petroleum, people in large cities should
stop using their cars to go to work and instead use public transport options.
Which of the following is an assumption made in the argument above:
A. The present public transport system will be able to accommodate all those who wish to use it.
B. It is cheaper to use public transport system than using cars.
C. The public transport means are safer compared to cars.
D. The commuting time may increase if one uses public transport.
177. The government is allocating funds to train people in skills such as plumbing, carpentry, masonry
etc. as a means to make people more employable and to enhance labour productivity in the
country.
Which of the following, if true, will hinder achievement of the government’s objectives:
A. Plumbing, carpentry etc. are low paying occupations.

B. Most unemployed people wish to take up white collar jobs such as computer operation,
accounting etc.
C. The training programmes will be offered free to the trainees.
D. The courses are both full time and part time offering trainees to either take a short full time
course or attend a part time course that runs for a longer duration.
CP/18/C4
178. It is frequently pointed out that because of discrimination against women, they are unable to get
positions of power and authority in the organisations they work. However, many global companies
are headed by women proving that there is no such discrimination against women.
Which of the following is ignored by the argument above:
A. Women make up almost 50% of the human population.

B. The proportion of women at the lower managerial level in companies is much higher than that at
higher level.
C. There have been several cases by women alleging discrimination at work but none of the
allegations have been proven so far.
D. Even armed forces now recruit women in the combat units.
179. A large area of agricultural land is devoted to growing feed for livestock. If these areas were used for
growing crops for human consumption, we could greatly solve the problem of food shortage.
Which of the following is assumed in the argument above:
A. It is more profitable to grow crops for feeding livestock since meat sells at a higher price than
food crops.
B. The livestock would feed fewer people than the food crop grown on land used for growing
livestock feed.
C. The crop that is grown as feed for livestock is unfit for human consumption.
D. There are several factors such as soil kind, water availability and weather that decide the crop to
be sown in the agricultural land.
180. To keep the people in rural areas updated about the latest news and other useful information, the
government wants to promote regional language newspapers. The government wants to do this
because in large parts of the country, people are literate in their regional language but unable to
read English or Hindi. Most of these people are poor and live in remote villages where distribution
of newspapers can be done only at a high cost thus making newspapers unaffordable. The
government wants to allocate newsprint to regional newspapers at a highly subsidised price. The
subsidy would cover a part of the cost of the regional newspapers making it affordable to the
people. The regional newspaper publishers association has welcomed the government’s decision.
Which of the following is an assumption in the government’s decision?
A. The regional newspapers will claim this subsidy.

B. Regional language newspaper will be sold only in rural areas.
C. People will be literate enough to read regional language newspapers.
D. Lower prices would attract the rural people to the newspaper.
181. Find the odd one out.
CP/18/C4
A. DEF B. TUV C. GHI D. PQR
182. Find the next term : 3, 7, 17, 39, 85, ??
A. 169 B. 189 C. 179 D. 209
183. If SHIP is written as FUVC, then BOAT may written as
A. OBNG B. OANH C. OBMG D. None of these
Directions for Questions 184 to 188: These questions are based on information below.
A, B, C, D and E are five friends who have graduated from a different university – Lucknow, Hyderabad,
DAVV, Delhi and Osmania in some order. These five friends have graduated in different subjects from
among Statistics, Management, Botany, Physics and English not necessarily in same order. They teach in
one of these countries – India, Pakistan, Germany, USA and England not necessarily in same order.
The following is also known –
i. The statistics graduate teaches in USA.
ii. Some person graduated in Botany is a pass–out of Lucknow university.
iii. The person who graduated from Delhi university teaches in Germany.
iv. A teaches in Germany but did not graduate in Physics.
v. To teach in England, a person must have graduated in English. This person is neither B nor D.
vi. E graduated in Physics from Osmania university but does not teach in India.
vii. Graduation in English is not done from Hyderabad University.
viii. B teaches in India.
184. Who graduated in English?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
185. The person who teaches in U.S.A has graduated from which university?
A. Osmania B. Hyderabad C. Delhi D. None of these
186. The person who graduated from Delhi University, graduated in which subject?
A. Management B. English C. Statistics D. Botany
187. C did his graduation from which university?
A. DAVV B. Delhi C. Hyderabad D. Data insufficient
CP/18/C4
188. Which among the following is definitely true?
A. A – Osmania University – USA B. Lucknow university – Physics – India

C. E – Physics – Pakistan D. A – Delhi university – Statistics
Directions for Questions 189 to 191: These questions are based on information below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S sit in two parallel rows with four seats in each row facing each other.
A and B are not in the same row. P sits to the immediate left of C in same row and opposite to Q. R and B
have exactly two persons between them. A and P have exactly one person between them. A is facing North.
189. Which of the following is definitely true?
A. C and B sit opposite each other

B. A and B sit opposite each other
C. B doesn’t sit at the extreme end of row.
D. Q doesn’t sit at the extreme end of row.
190. Which of the following is definitely false?
A. C and B sit opposite each other

B. C and Q sit opposite each other
C. There are two persons between A and C.
D. A and D sit on the same side.
191. How many arrangements are possible?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 7 D. 5
192. The calendar of 1865 repeats in
A. 1870 B. 1871 C. 1872 D. 1873
193. A clock is continuously losing time. If it loses 10 mins in every 3 hours and it is set correct on 23rd
July 1565 at 5 pm, what time will this clock show on 29th July 1565 when the actual time is 8 pm?
A. 12:00 pm B. 4: 10 am C. 11:50 am D. 12:10 pm
194. Prashant was facing east. He walked 90 metres straight, then turned right and walked 20 metres.
The turned west and walked 30 metres finally turned right and walked 100 metres. How far is he
from the starting point?
CP/18/C4
A. 110m B. 120m C. 130m D. 100m
195. Find the next term in the sequence: A M J J A S O N D J F ?
A. A B. C C. M D. J
196. Pointing to a man in the photograph, a woman says, “His father’s only daughter is my mother”. How
is the man related to the woman?
A. Father B. Uncle C. Brother –in–law D. Grandfather
197. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C?
A. Father B. Brother C. Father –in–law D. Uncle
198. What is the maximum number of leap years in 100 consecutive years?
A. 24 B. 25 C. 97 D. 100
199. How many 3’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 5 and
immediately preceded by 9?
24315935893462935819351239
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1
200. A town consists of Truth-tellers (those people who always speak truth), Liars (those people who
always speak lie) and Alternators (who alternate between truth and lies). Bahubali is a resident of
this town. If he says “I am a lair”, then Bahubali is a
A. Truth-teller B. Liar C. Alternator D. Data–Insufficient

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CP/18/C4

MOCK CLAT -IV

1. Dr. Watson: I cannot decide between Leo and Mr. Candy.

2. Dr. Watson: Mary has accepted my proposal.

A. buy a pig B. buy an animal

A. reveal his murder weapon

A. a very special person who is one of a kind

D. a person who never betrays a secret or reveals a confidence

A. Happy voyage B. brainy C. to the point D. high society

A. game of mind B. notes to help memory

A. Follower B. until we meet again

A. middle class B. Gourmet C. Practitioner D. Doctor

10. via media

A. middle road B. through the medium

11. He saved the child ___________ it risked his life.

A. since B. though C. yet D. furthermore

A. one B. you C. he D. they

13. It was a spider ________ saved Robert Bruce.

A. since B. who C. when D. that

14. He is not too tall ______ enter the doorway.

A. take B. to take C. taking D. took

Directions (16–20): Arrange the given statements to form a coherent passage:

A. RPQS B. SPQR C. PQRS D. QRPS

17. P. of the intelligence findings on Russia meddling

A. PQRS B. SPRQ C. PRQS D. SQPR

A. QRPS B. PRQS C. QSPR D. PQSR

A. PQRS B. PQSR C. PRQS D. PSRQ

20. P. without having to touch the display.

S. Furthermore, the new handset is equipped with a special cooking app

A. QRPS B. RPSQ C. PSQR D. SQRP

21. The author is most likely to agree with:

A. News generated on the internet brought tremors to efficient reporting of news

23. The author is most likely to agree with

25. What does the author mean by yellow journalism?

A. It means journalism with ethics and responsibility

26. The author is least likely to agree with

A. Only I and II B. None of the above C. Only I and III D. Only IV

A. Disagree B. Agree C. Strongly disagree D. Strongly agree

D. Provide news with verifiable sources

29. The tone of the author in the passage has been:

A. Disdainful B. Discursive C. Indignant D. Patronizing

A. revelation B. hiding C. secreting D. dogmatic

Directions (31–35): Identify the error in the sentences given below.

Directions (36–40): Identify the odd one out:

36. A. fleeting B. ephemeral C. transient D. versatile

37. A. theory B. guess C. hypothesis D. fauna

38. A. hurry B. expedient C. lazy D. urgent

39. A. timid B. intrepid C. brave D. fearless

40. A. inundate B. asylum C. sanctuary D. safe house

SECTION – II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

A. Waltherus Marijne B. Stephen Constantine

A. West Bengal B. Tripura C. Assam D. Mizoram

A. Manisha Singh B. Ajay Bhushan Pandey

A. Through Charter Act, 1833 B. Through Charter Act, 1853

A. Mahendra Mohan Gupta B. M.P. Veerendra Kumar

46. Which city to host the 2028 Summer Olympics?

A. London B. Paris C. Tokyo D. Los Angeles

47. Who has been declared as the new President of Singapore?

A. Farid Khan Kaim Khan B. Mohamed Salleh Marican

A. Mid Continental Belt B. Mid Atlantic Belt

A. Kareena Kapoor B. Deepika Padukone

A. Second Schedule B. Third Schedule

A. Garbine Muguruza B. Sloane Stephens

76. Light Year is the unit of ?

A. Nandnagari B. Brahmi  C. Kharoshti D. Sharada