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PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN

SIJIL TINGGI PERSEKOLAHAN MALAYSIA

NEGERI PAHANG DARUL MAKMUR

BIOLOGY

PAPER 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

ONE HOUR AND FORTY FIVE MINUTES

_______________________________________________________________
Instruction to candidates

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

There are fifty questions in this paper. For each question four suggested answers are given.
Choose one correct answer and indicate it on the multiple-choice answer sheet provided.
Read the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet carefully.

Answer all questions. Marks will be not deducted for wrong answers.

CONFIDENTIAL *
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1. Which of the following properties of water are important for the survival of
organisms?
I Universal solvent
II High specific heat capacity
III Low viscosity
IV High surface tension
A I and II
B I, II and III
C I, II and IV
D I, II, III and IV

2. Which of the following combinations are true about fibrous protein?

Molecular structure Solubility in water Buffer effect Examples
A Primary Yes Yes Antibody
B Tertiary No Yes Amylase
C Secondary No No Collagen
D Quaternary No No Cytochrome oxidase

3. Which cell component is not found in all prokaryotic cells?

A cell surface membrane
B endoplasmic reticulum
C cell wall
D ribosome

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4. The diagram below shows an organelle

Choose the functions of the organelle from the list below.

I Stores and modifies substances that are produced for secretion.

II Synthesises polypeptide chains.
III Transports lipids and detoxifies various toxins.
IV Stores glucose.
A I only
B IV only
C II and III
D III and IV

5. The table below shows different organelles and their function.Which of the following is
correct?
Organelles Function
I Mitochondrion (a) Carries out autophagy and autolysis
II Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (b) Synthesises lipid
III Lysosome (c) Produces energy through aerobic respiration
IV Golgi apparatus (d) Synthesises and transports protein
V Rough endoplasmic reticulum (e) Stores and modifies protein

I II III IV V
A (e) (a) (b) (d) (c)
B (b) (c) (d) (a) (e)
C (d) (b) (e) (c) (a)
D (c) (b) (a) (e) (d)

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6. Cyanide is a poison that binds to copper ions of cytochrome oxidase. Which of the
following is true about the inhibitor?
A It only binds to the enzyme’s active site.
B Its action depends on the relative substrate concentration
C It binds loosely and temporarily to the enzyme
D It alters the configuration of the enzyme

7. Which of the following conditions cannot cause enzymes to become inactive?

I Addition of protease
II Incubation at 100°C
III Termination of the catalysed reaction
IV Depletion of the substrate
V Presence of an inhibitor
A I and II
B I and III
C III and IV
D III, IV and V

8. In the leaf of the Crassulacean plant, carbon dioxide is fixed at night to form a certain
substance. The substance is stored in the cell vacuoles until daytime because it
A easily dissolves and diffuses out of the cell
B affects the pH of the cytoplasm
C needs to be activated by enzymes in the cell vacuoles
D is active osmotically and must be isolated

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 9. Three plants with similar leaf surface area are shown in the figure below.

water

10. Which of the following processes will not occur if the supply of carbon dioxide to a
green leaf cell is cut off in the presence of light?
I Starch is produced
II ATP is formed
III NADPH is used
IV glyceraldehyde -3- phosphate is produced
V Oxygen is given out
A I, III and IV
B I, III and V
C II, IV and V
D III, IV and V

11. How many molecules of ATP are produced in the aerobic respiration of glucose if
a respiratory poison like cyanide is added?
A 8 ATP
B 2 ATP
C 30 ATP
D 32 ATP

12. Which of the following steps uses energy in the form of ATP in man?
Glycogen

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 Hexose sugar
I
Triose sugar
III II IVV
Lactic acid Pyruvic acid Acetyl coenzyme A Krebs cycle
V
Alcohol

A I only
B II only
C II, III and IV
D III, IV and V

13. The table below shows different organisms and their mode of nutrition.Which of the following
combinations is correct?
Organism Nutrition
I Mucor (a) Saprophytism
II Plasmodium (b) Parasitism
III Chlorella (c) Holozoic
IV Paramecium (d) Holophytic

I II III IV
A (d) (b) (a) (c)
B (b) (c) (d) (a)
C (c) (d) (b) (a)
D (a) (b) (d) (c)

14. Bohr effect refers to

A the effect of high urea concentration in the blood
B the affinity of haemoglobin for carbon dioxide
C the influence of carbon dioxide concentration on the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin
D the increase in the rate of dissociation of carbon dioxide caused by Fe2+ ions

15. The following graph shows the dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

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 % saturation of Hb with
O2

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Decrease in the blood pH shifts the graph to the right indicating haemoglobin's
affinity towards oxygen has reduced.
B Increase in the blood pH shifts the graph to the right indicating haemoglobin's affinity
towards oxygen has increased.
C Increase in the release of oxygen from haemoglobin shifts the graph to the left.
D Decrease in the blood pH shifts the graph to the left indicating the affinity of
haemoglobin towards oxygen has increased.

16. The following statements describe the structure and function of the endodermis cell. Which of
the following statements are true about the endodermis cell?
I It has Casparian strips in its radial and horizontal walls
II It has Casparian strips in its radial and tangential walls
III It allows water to diffuse through its wall and cytoplasm
IV It aids in the production of root pressure
V It allows water to cross through the symplast pathway
A III and IV
B I, III and V
C I, IV and V
D II, IV and V

17. Which of the following sequences is correct for the flow of impulse in the heart?
I Atrioventricular node
II Purkinje tissue
III Bundle of His

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 IV Sinoatrial node
A I, IV, III and II
B III, IV, II and I
C IV, III, I and II
D IV, I, III and II

18. The following diagram shows the loop of Henle and the tubules in the kidney.
Distal
Convolute
Proximal d tubule
convoluted
tubule

Loop of
Henle

Which of the following is true about the osmotic pressure at points P, Q and R?

A R>Q=P
B R>Q>P
C P>Q=R
D P>Q>R

19. Which of the following statements is true about the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule?
A It is hypotonic because the antidiuretic hormone causes reabsorption of more water.
B It is hypotonic because the reabsorption of glucose and ions occurs in the proximal
convoluted tubule
C It is hypertonic because the reabsorption of glucose occurs in the proximal convoluted
tubule and ions in the loop of Henle.
D It is isotonic because more glucose and ions are filtered from the blood by ultrafiltration.

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20. Why is the liver considered a homeostatic organ?
I It detoxifies the blood
II It receives glucose from the small intestine and releases it into the blood at a suitable rate.
III It is also capable of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
IV It plays a role in temperature regulation

A I and II only
B II and III only
C III and IV only
D I, II, III and IV

21. Which one of the following conditions are regulated by the parasympathetic nervous system?
A Dilation of the bronchioles
B Dilation of the pupils
C Dilation of the arterioles to the intestine
D Contraction of the bladder sphincter

22. The diagram below shows the sarcomere of a striated muscle fibre. Name the protein in
the filament labelled X.

A Collagen
B Myosin
C Actin
D Fibrin

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23. Which of the following glands would cause an increase in secretion if a person does not eat
and drink for a day?
I β cells in the islets of Langerhans
II α cells in the islets of Langerhans
III Posterior lobe of pituitary gland
IV Thyroid gland
A I and II
B I and IV
C II and III
D II and IV

24. The diagram below shows five hormones V, W, X, Y and Z involved in reproduction. Which of
the following combinations is true?
Pituitary

Z V W X

Ovary Y

Uterus

LH Progesterone Oestrogen FSH Oxytocin

A X Y V W Z
B X Y W V Z
C Y Z X V W
D Z V X W Y

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25. Which of the following statements is true for T cells but not for B cells?.

A Stimulate production of antibodies by the plasma cell.

B Detect antigens with receptors on their membrane.
26. Which of the following statements are incorrect about antigens.
C Lymphocytes must pass through the thymus gland before they can function.
I They are produced in response against non-self substances.
D Respond to antigens resulting in the production of immunocyte clones.
II They are produced by lymphocytes.
III They are proteins or combination of proteins and polysaccharides.
IV They are mostly pathogens.
A I only
B I and II
C III and IV
D II, III and IV

27. The table below shows the reproductive methods of several organisms. Which of the following
is the correct combination?
Reproductive methods Animal
I Budding (a) Fasciola
II Polyembryony (b) Hydra
III Sporulation (c) Apis
IV Parthenogenesis (d) Amoeba

I II III IV
A (a) (b) (c) (d)
B (b) (a) (d) (c)

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 C (c) (d) (b) (a)
D (d) (c) (a) (b)

28. In Mucor, the special hypha that grows towards each other during conjugation is called
A sporangiophore
B progametangium
C gametangium
D zygospore
29. Where does meiosis occur in angiosperms?
A Seed
B Pollen grains
C Anther and ovule
D Cells in the stigma

31. Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of hormones produced during
parturition?

A
B
C
D

A Prostaglandin prolactin oxytocin

B Oxytocin prostaglandin prolactin
C Prolactin prostaglandin oxytocin
D Prostaglandin oxytocin prolactin

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32. The following graph shows the changes in total dry weight of the seed and the dry weight
of the endosperm during germination of a certain cereal.

What conclusions can be drawn based on the graph?

I During germination of the seed the embryo utilises food stored in the endosperm
II The water content inside the seed determines its dry weight.
III Food stored in the cotyledon is insufficient for proper germination and growth of the
seed.
IV During germination of the seed the embryo absorbs food from the environment.

A I only
B II only
C II and III
D III and IV

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33. The graph below shows the sigmoid growth curve of an organism

Identify the phase where decrease of food and increase of waste products takes place.

34. Yellow body in Drosophila is determined by a recessive sex-linked gene and its
dominant allele produces a black body. Which of the following is the correct progeny of a
cross between a black male and a yellow female?
Females Males
Black Yellow Black Yellow
A 1 1
B 1 1
C 1 1
D 1 1

35. In man, free ear lobe is dominant to attached ear lobe while curly hair is dominant to
straight hair. If a couple is heterozygous for both traits, what is the probability of having a

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 child with free ear lobes and straight hair?
A 1 / 16
B 2 / 16
C 3 / 16
D 9 / 16

36. The following table shows map distances between genes along a chromosome.
Linked genes AB AC AD BC BD CD
Map distance ( % ) 30 5 10 35 20 15

Which of the following is the correct gene sequence?

A BADC
B BDAC
C BCAD
D BACD

37. The base sequence of a gene MNOPQRS undergoes two mutations to become
MNPRS. What types of mutation have occured?
A Two inversions
B Two translocations
C Two deletions
D Two substitutions

38. A dominant allele Y for yellow coat in rat functions as a lethal gene in the homozygous
state. If 16% of 1000 foetuses are stillborn, what percentage is expected to be
heterozygous in the population?
A 4
B 16
C 24
D 48

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 39. The following diagram shows the lactose operon.

Which of the following will stop the production of enzymes?

A K
B M
C N
D X

40. Which of the following statements about the lactose operon are true?
I Lactose induces transcription by inactivating the repressor
II The repressor protein is produced by the regulator gene
III The promoter is mRNA transcribed from DNA
IV The expression of the genes depends on the inducer
A I and II
B III and IV
C I, II and III
D I, II and IV

41. Name the process of selecting a transformed bacterial clone.

A Filtering
B Screening
C Cloning
D Ligating

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42. Which of the following statements are true for cloning?
I DNA ligase is used for recombining DNA fragments
II EcoRI is used for cutting the DNA chain
III Reverse transcriptase is used for producing mRNA from cDNA
IV Ampicillin treatment is used for screening transformed bacteria
A I and II
B I, II and IV
C II, III and IV
D I, II, III and IV

43. Which of the following sequences is the correct taxonomic hierarchy for man?
A Mammalia, Animalia, Primates, Hominidae, Chordata, Homo, sapiens.
B Animalia, Primates, Mammalia, Chordata, Homo, sapiens, Hominidae
C Animalia, Chordata, Mammalia, Primates, Hominidae, Homo, sapiens
D Mammalia, Chordata, Animalia, Primates, Hominidae, Homo, sapiens

44. Which of the features below distinguishes the class Arachnida from Insecta ?
A Triploblastic coelomate
B Perivisceral cavity is haemocoel
C Open circulatory system with a dorsal heart
D It has four pairs of walking legs

45. The table below shows a list of organisms and their structural features. Which
combination is correct?
Organisms Structural features
I Euglena (a) with chloroplast
II Pheretima (b) with two pairs of antenna
III Lycosa (c) with chaetae

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 IV Penaeus (d) with four pairs of walking legs

I II III IV
A (a) (c) (d) (b)
B (b) (a) (d) (c)
C (a) (b) (c) (d)
D (d) (c) (a) (b
46. The graph below shows the distribution of seed weight.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the graph?

I It exhibits continuous variation.
II Its highest frequency has a weight of W.
III It is controlled by many genes.
IV It is controlled by a single gene.

A I only
B I and II
C III and IV
D I, II and III

47. The following statements describe Darwins’s theory of evolution.

I Struggle for existence
II Inheritance of favoured phenotypes
III Constancy of population size
IV Speciation

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 What is the correct sequence for Darwin’s theory?
A I III II IV
B III I II IV
C II I IV III
D IV I II III

48. Which of the following are correct about the term niche?
I The trophic level of an organism in its community.
II The functions of an organism in the form of energy flow and nutrient cycle.
III The method of how an organism makes use of its environment in order to live.
IV A group of plants and animals living naturally in an environment.
V An ecological unit built from the relationships among the organisms in the community and
the relationships between the organisms and the environment.
A I and II
B IV and V
C I, II and III
D III, IV and V

49. Energy reductions occur at any level of energy flow in an ecosystem because energy is
I not assimilated
II lost through decomposition
III lost during respiration
IV converted into storage substances
A II and III
B II and IV
C I, II and III
D I, III and IV

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50. A 25 cm x 25 cm quadrat was used to study the density of Imperata cylindrica in two areas X
and Y. The following data was obtain:
Quadrat 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Total number in area X 3 0 5 1 2 3 0 7 6 3
Total number in area Y 0 2 1 4 1 2 3 4 0 3

The density of Imperata cylindrica per m2 is

Area X Area Y
A 30 20
B 48 32
C 32 48
D 20 30

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