BIOLOGY I

REVISION
 MCQs
• Some regions of the plasma membrane, called lipid
rafts, have a higher concentration of cholesterol
molecules. As a result, these lipid rafts
A) are more fluid than the surrounding membrane.
B) are more rigid than the surrounding membrane.
C) are able to flip from inside to outside.
D) detach from the plasma membrane and clog arteries.
E) have higher rates of lateral diffusion of lipids and
proteins into and out of the lipid rafts.
Answer: B
• Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic model of the membrane
proposed that
A) membranes are a phospholipid bilayer.
B) membranes are a phospholipid bilayer between two layers
of hydrophilic proteins.
C) membranes are a single layer of phospholipids and
proteins.
D) membranes consist of protein molecules embedded in a
fluid bilayer of phospholipids.
E) membranes consist of a mosaic of polysaccharides and
proteins.
Answer: D
• Which of the following types of molecules are the
major structural components of the cell
membrane?
A) phospholipids and cellulose
B) nucleic acids and proteins
C) phospholipids and proteins
D) proteins and cellulose
E) glycoproteins and cholesterol
Answer: C
• In order for a protein to be an integral membrane
protein it would have to be
A) hydrophilic.
B) hydrophobic.
C) amphipathic, with at least one hydrophobic
region.
D) completely covered with phospholipids.
E) exposed on only one surface of the membrane.
Answer: C
• Which of the following is true of integral
membrane proteins?
A) They lack tertiary structure.
B) They are loosely bound to the surface of the
bilayer.
C) They are usually transmembrane proteins.
D) They are not mobile within the bilayer.
E) They serve only a structural role in membranes.
Answer: C
• The primary function of polysaccharides
(oligosaccharides ) attached to the glycoproteins and
glycolipids of animal cell membranes is
A) to facilitate diffusion of molecules down their
concentration gradients.
B) to actively transport molecules against their
concentration gradients.
C) to maintain the integrity of a fluid mosaic membrane.
D) to maintain membrane fluidity at low temperatures.
E) to mediate cell-to-cell recognition.
Answer: E
• Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several
hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a 0.15 M
salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can
deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are
A) hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
B) hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
C) hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
D) hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt
solution.
E) isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
Answer: C
• Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal
tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells?
A) The animal cell is in a hypotonic solution, and the plant cell is in an
isotonic solution.
B) The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a
hypertonic solution.
C) The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in an
isotonic solution.
D) The animal cell is in an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a
hypotonic solution.
E) The animal cell is in a hypertonic solution, and the plant cell is in a
hypotonic solution.
Answer: D
• The phosphate transport system in bacteria imports
phosphate into the cell even when the concentration of
phosphate outside the cell is much lower than the
cytoplasmic phosphate concentration. Phosphate import
depends on a pH gradient across the membrane–more
acidic outside the cell than inside the cell. Phosphate
transport is an example of
A) passive diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) osmosis.
E) cotransport.
Answer: E
• An organism with a cell wall would most likely
be unable to take in materials through
A) diffusion.
B) osmosis.
C) active transport.
D) phagocytosis.
E) facilitated diffusion.
Answer: D
• Based on the figure above, which of these experimental
treatments would increase the rate
of sucrose transport into the cell?
A) decreasing extracellular sucrose
concentration
B) decreasing extracellular pH
C) decreasing Cytoplasmic pH
D) adding an inhibitor that blocks the regeneration of ATP
E) adding a substance that makes the membrane more
permeable to hydrogen ions
Answer: B
• Which of the following is (are) true for anabolic pathways?
A) They do not depend on enzymes.
B) They are usually highly spontaneous chemical reactions.
C) They consume energy to build up polymers from
monomers.
D) They release energy as they degrade polymers to
monomers.
E) They consume energy to decrease the entropy of the
organism and its environment.
Answer: C
• Which of the following is a statement of the first
law of thermodynamics?
A) Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
B) The entropy of the universe is decreasing.
C) The entropy of the universe is constant.
D) Kinetic energy is stored energy that results from
the specific arrangement of matter.
E) Energy cannot be transferred or transformed.
Answer: A
• The mathematical expression for the change in
free energy of a system is ΔG =ΔH - TΔS. Which of
the following is (are) correct?
A) ΔS is the change in enthalpy, a measure of
randomness.
B) ΔH is the change in entropy, the energy available
to do work.
C) ΔG is the change in free energy.
D) T is the temperature in degrees Celsius.
Answer: C
• Which of the following best describes
enthalpy (H)?
A) the total kinetic energy of a system
B) the heat content of a chemical system
C) the system's entropy
D) the cell's energy equilibrium
E) the condition of a cell that is not able to react
Answer: B
• Why is ATP an important molecule in metabolism?
A) Its hydrolysis provides an input of free energy for exergonic
reactions.
B) It provides energy coupling between exergonic and
endergonic reactions.
C) Its terminal phosphate group contains a strong covalent
bond that, when hydrolyzed, releases free energy.
D) Its terminal phosphate bond has higher energy than the
other two.
E) It is one of the four building blocks for DNA synthesis.
Answer: B
• When chemical, transport, or mechanical work is done
by an organism, what happens to the heat generated?
A) It is used to power yet more cellular work.
B) It is used to store energy as more ATP.
C) It is used to generate ADP from nucleotide precursors.
D) It is lost to the environment.
E) It is transported to specific organs such as the brain.
Answer: D
• Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-
catalyzed reactions?
A) The reaction is faster than the same reaction in the
absence of the enzyme.
B) The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the
reaction that occurs in the absence of the enzyme.
C) The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical
equilibrium.
D) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions require energy to activate the
enzyme.
E) Enzyme-catalyzed reactions release more free energy than
noncatalyzed reactions.
Answer: A
• When you have a severe fever, what grave
consequence may occur if the fever is not controlled?
A) destruction of your enzymes' primary structure
B) removal of amine groups from your proteins
C) change in the tertiary structure of your enzymes
D) removal of the amino acids in active sites of your
enzymes
E) binding of your enzymes to inappropriate substrates
Answer: C
• Allosteric enzyme regulation is usually
associated with
A) lack of cooperativity.
B) feedback inhibition.
C) activating activity.
D) an enzyme with more than one subunit.
E) the need for cofactors.
Answer: D
• Which of the following is an example of cooperativity?
A) the binding of an end product of a metabolic pathway to
the first enzyme that acts in the pathway
B) one enzyme in a metabolic pathway passing its product to
act as a substrate for the next enzyme in the pathway
C) a molecule binding at one unit of a tetramer, allowing faster
binding at each of the other three
D) the effect of increasing temperature on the rate of an
enzymatic reaction
E) binding of an ATP molecule along with one of the substrate
molecules in an active site
Answer: C
• Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes
this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as
________ is to ________.
A) exergonic; spontaneous
B) exergonic; endergonic
C) free energy; entropy
D) work; energy
E) entropy; enthalpy
Answer: B
• When a neuron responds to a particular
neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels,
the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of
the signal pathway?
A) receptor
B) relay molecule
C) transducer
D) signal molecule
E) endocrine molecule
Answer: D
• Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that
recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to
A) the active site of an allosteric enzyme that binds to a
specific substrate.
B) tRNA specifying which amino acids are in a polypeptide.
C) a metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle.
D) an enzyme having an optimum pH and temperature for
activity.
E) an antibody in the immune system.
Answer: A
• Testosterone functions inside a cell by
A) acting as a signal receptor that activates tyrosine kinases.
B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and
activates specific genes.
C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel
proteins.
D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl
cyclase.
E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases
spermatogenesis.
Answer: B
• Which of the following is the best explanation for
the inability of a specific animal cell to reduce the
Ca2+ concentration in its cytosol compared with
the extracellular fluid?
A) blockage of the synaptic signal
B) loss of transcription factors
C) insufficient ATP levels in the cytoplasm
D) low oxygen concentration around the cell
E) low levels of protein kinase in the cell
Answer: C
• Which of the following describes the events of apoptosis?
A) The cell dies, it is lysed, its organelles are phagocytized, and
its contents are recycled.
B) Its DNA and organelles become fragmented, it dies, and it is
phagocytized.
C) The cell dies and the presence of its fragmented contents
stimulates nearby cells to divide.
D) Its DNA and organelles are fragmented, the cell shrinks and
forms blebs, and the cell self-digests.
E) Its nucleus and organelles are lysed, then the cell enlarges
and bursts.
Answer: D
• Protein phosphorylation is commonly involved
with all of the following except
A) regulation of transcription by extracellular
signaling molecules.
B) enzyme activation.
C) activation of G protein-coupled receptors.
D) activation of receptor tyrosine kinases.
E) activation of protein kinase molecules.
Answer: C
• If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many
centromeres are there?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
E) 80
Answer: A
• Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were
taken on a large number of cells from a growing
fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6
picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle
did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?
A) G0
B) G1
C) S
D) G2
E) M
Answer: D
• A group of cells is assayed for DNA content
immediately following mitosis and is found to have an
average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many
picograms would be found at the end of S and the end
of G2?
A) 8; 8
The middle of
B) 8; 16 the S phase?
C) 16; 8
D) 16; 16
E) 12; 16
Answer: D
• At which phase are centrioles beginning to
move apart in animal cells?
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) prometaphase
D) metaphase
E) prophase
Answer: E
• If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to
colchicine, a drug that interferes with the
formation of the spindle apparatus, at which
stage will mitosis be arrested?
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) telophase
D) metaphase
E) interphase
Answer: D
• For anaphase to begin, which of the following must
occur?
A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores.
B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids to each
other.
C) Cohesin must be cleaved enzymatically.
D) Kinetochores must attach to the metaphase plate.
E) Spindle microtubules must begin to depolymerize.
Answer: C
• Using which of the following techniques would
enable your lab group to distinguish between a
cell in G2 and a cell from the same organism in
G1?
A) fluorescence microscopy
B) electron microscopy
C) spectrophotometry
D) radioactive-labeled nucleotides
E) labeled kinetochore proteins
Answer: D
• Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase
(Cdk)?
A) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin.
B) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle.
C) Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other
proteins.
D) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin
and it is present throughout the cell cycle.
E) Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle and is an enzyme
that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
Answer: E
• Besides the ability of some cancer cells to
overproliferate, what else could logically result in
a tumor?
A) metastasis
B) changes in the order of cell cycle stages
C) lack of appropriate cell death
D) inability to form spindles
E) inability of chromosomes to meet at the
metaphase plate
Answer: C
• Why do neurons and some other specialized cells
divide infrequently?
A) They no longer have active nuclei.
B) They no longer carry receptors for signal
molecules.
C) They have been shunted into G0.
D) They can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin.
E) They show a drop in MPF concentration.
Answer: C
 Time in
Minutes

• Of the following, the best conclusion concerning the difference between the S
phases for beta and gamma is that
A) gamma contains more DNA than beta.
B) beta and gamma contain the same amount of DNA.
C) beta cells reproduce asexually.
D) gamma contains 48 times more DNA and RNA than beta.
E) beta is a plant cell and gamma is an animal cell.
Answer: A
• The best conclusion concerning delta is that the cells
A) contain no DNA.
B) contain no RNA.
C) contain only one chromosome that is very short.
D) are actually in the G0 phase.
E) divide in the G1 phase.
Answer: D
• In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs
without cytokinesis. This will result in
A) cells with more than one nucleus.
B) cells that are unusually small.
C) cells lacking nuclei.
D) destruction of chromosomes.
E) cell cycles lacking an S phase.
Answer: A
• Which of the following does not occur during
mitosis?
A) condensation of the chromosomes
B) replication of the DNA
C) separation of sister chromatids
D) spindle formation
E) separation of the spindle poles
Answer: B
 For the following questions, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II
• Tetrads of chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle; alignment determines
independent assortment.
A) I
B) II
C) IV
D) VI
E) VIII
Answer: B
• Synaptonemal complexes form or are still present.
A) I only
B) I and IV only
C) I and VIII only
D) II and VI only
E) I, II, III, and IV only
Answer: A
• Centromeres of sister chromatids disjoin and chromatids separate.
A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V
E) VII
Answer: E
• Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of
A) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous
chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.
B) the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.
C) the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two
daughter cells during anaphase II.
D) the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y
chromosomes.
E) the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous
chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I, the
random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm, the random
distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells
during anaphase II, and the relatively small degree of homology
shared by the X and Y chromosomes.
Answer: A
 Gene S controls the sharpness of spines in a type of cactus.
Cactuses with the dominant allele, S, have sharp spines, whereas
homozygous recessive ss cactuses have dull spines. At the same
time, a second gene, N, determines whether or not cactuses have
spines. Homozygous recessive nn cactuses have no spines at all.

1) The relationship between genes S and N is an example of

A) incomplete dominance.
B) epistasis.
C) complete dominance.
D) pleiotropy.
E) codominance.
Answer: B
2) A cross between a true-breeding sharp-spined
cactus and a spineless cactus would produce
A) all sharp-spined progeny.
B) 50% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined progeny.
C) 25% sharp-spined, 50% dull-spined, 25%
spineless progeny.
D) all spineless progeny.
E) It is impossible to determine the phenotypes of
the progeny.
Answer: A
3) If doubly heterozygous SsNn cactuses were
allowed to self-pollinate, the F2 would segregate
in which of the following ratios?
A) 3 sharp-spined:1 spineless
B) 1 sharp-spined:2 dull-spined:1 spineless
C) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined:1 spineless
D) 1 sharp-spined:1 dull-spined
E) 9 sharp-spined:3 dull-spined:4 spineless
Answer: E
 Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y
and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the
feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or
Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.

1) A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following

results is not possible?
A) green offspring only
B) yellow offspring only
C) blue offspring only
D) green and yellow offspring
E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio
Answer: D
2) Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years,
they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were
white. What are the most likely genotypes for the
two blue budgies?
A) yyBB and yyBB
B) yyBB and yyBb
C) yyBb and yyBb
D) yyBB and yybb
E) yyBb and yybb
Answer: C
 T/F
• Eye color and height are traits controlled by polygenic inheritance TRUE
• Blood types are controlled by incomplete dominance FALSE
• Environmental factors can affect gene expression TRUE
• The G-protein coupled receptor can be also know as an intracellular receptor
FALSE
• The Bumps shown by the SEM on the plasma membrane are the transmembrane
proteins TRUE
• Phosphatases add phosphate groups to proteins while kinases remove the added
phosphates FALSE
• All living organisms abide by the first two laws of the thermodynamics TRUE
• Osmosis is a type of passive transport TRUE
• RTKs and ion channels act as ligands which are important in cell-cell
communication FALSE
• Endocrine signaling, is a type of long distance signaling, where hormones travel
in the blood stream to reach target cells TRUE
• Second messengers and phosphorylation cascades are crucial in many events as they amplify the
signal TRUE
• Calcium concentration in the cytoplasm is always high as it functions as a second messenger
FALSE
• Pleiotropic alleles are single alleles that can have more than one phenotypic effect TRUE
• Penetrance in genetics is the proportion of individuals carrying a particular variant of a gene that
also express an associated trait (phenotype) FALSE
• Genes to alleles are like characters to traits TRUE
• The only difference between mitosis and meiosis is the number of resulting cells FALSE
• Cooperativity is a phenomenon displayed by enzymes that have multiple binding sites where the
affinity of the binding sites for a ligand is increased upon the binding of a ligand to a binding site.
TRUE
• For an enzyme to speed up the rate of a chemical reaction, the temperature must be raised
above its optimum temperature FALSE
• An organism with 3 sets of chromosomes (3n) can be compatible with meiosis easily FALSE
• DAG is a crucial second messenger that facilitates Calcium ions release from the endoplasmic
reticulum FALSE
 Quizzes
In signal transduction
• a) An extracellular signal is converted into an intracellular signal

• b) A signal is relayed through a series of molecules in the

membrane

• c) Signal molecules are destroyed before target cells can respond to

the signal

• d) a, b, c are correct

• e) a, b are correct
Which of the following is not considered a second
messenger?
• a) cAMP

• b) GTP

• c) calcium ions

• d) diacylglycerol (DAG)

• e) inositol trisphosphate
 Transmembrane proteins
• a) Are peripheral proteins

• b) Are receptor proteins

• c) are embedded completely inside the

membrane

• d) Extend along the surface of the membrane

Which of the following best describes the immediate
effect of ligand binding to a G protein-coupled
receptor?
• a) The G protein releases a GDP and binds a GTP.

• b) The G protein dissociates from the receptor.

• c) The G protein interacts with an effector protein.

• d) The G protein becomes phosphorylated.

The Ca++ can act as a second messenger because it
is _________
• a)produced by the enzyme calcium synthase.

• b)normally at a high level in the cytoplasm.

• c) normally at a low level in the cytoplasm.

• d) stored in the cytoplasm.

GOOD LUCK