2000 questions you would be examined for in if you are applying for the

Overseas registration Exam or the MFDS or the MJDF exams

1- what is the best X-rays to decide the place of uper canine?

A- Two periapicals in the pararrell technique.

2- The dose of X-ray in diagnostic dentistry measured by Grdae?

A- Wrong. It is measured by siverets or millisiverets. Grade is measured for the
theraputic dose given in oral cancer.

3- What is the salivary gland activated by chewing?

A- The parotid gland.

4- what is the salivary gland activated by thinking of food?

A- Submandibular gland.

5- Which is the salivary gland that have the maximum tendencies of

malignancies?
A- The lingual gland. Minor salivary glands.

6- Pleomorphic tumour is most affects theminor salivary glands?

A- False, it affects the parotid gland in 75% of cases.

7- The secretion of the parotid gland is mostly serous?

A- Right.

8- The sublingual gland secretion is mostly mucin?

A- True.

9- Which is the nerve that have those 5 branches: Temporal- Zygpmatic, Buccal,
Maxillary, Cervical?
A- The facial nerve.

10- What is the time for the lower permanent canine to erupt?
A- 9-11 years.
11- You have a skull model for a child with the teeth (temporary and
permanent teeth appear in the photo. You have to decide the age of the child
(by looking at the teeth, see if the first permanent molars in place ( aver 6
years), the canines upper and lower permanent canines, more than half of the
tooth root had performed in some teeth and ready to appera in the mouth
( second permanent molars appera at 12 years). This kind of questions can
differ from exam to another and you should know the time eruption for teeth.
12- You want to extract the first lower permanent molar, what nerves you
should anaesthetise?
A- Inferior Dental + Lingual + Buccal.
13- You want to make root canal treatment in the first lower permanent
molar, what nerves you need to anaesthetise?
A- Inferior Dental.

14- The mitral valve is located between the right atrium and ventrical?
A- Wrong, the left atrium and ventricle.
15- The tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle?
A- Right.
16- The macrocytic anaemia can be caused by iron deficiency?
A-Wrong, it is microcytic anaemia.
17- The macrocytic anaemia can be seen in folate deficinecy?
A- Right.
18- The macrocytic anaemia can be caused by B12 deficiency?
A- Right.
19- Pernicious anaemia should be treated by folate?
A- wrong, Folate will deteriorate the neural conditions which is already caused
by B12 deficiency.
20- Tuberculosis is only seen in deprived countries?
A- wrong, its tendencies is getting higher in wealthy countries.
21- A 9 years old child attend the dental clinic for a tooth filling, he is co-
operative and had treatment before. What is the best sedation technique to
deal with him?
A- No need for sedation, use the Tell, Show, Do technique.
22- A 45 years old man, drugs addicted which caused blockage in his viens,
and had severe cold, do you give IV sedation or inhalation sedation?
A- Neither of them is suitable as the blockage in viens would make IV contra-
indicated and his cold puts the inhalation sedation on hold. Try the conservative
techniques to give injection.
23- Lignocaine is the local anaesthetic of choice in prolonged procedures?
A- False, Bupevacaine has longest anaesthetic properties.
24- Used anaesthetic cartridges should be disposed in the clinical waste
yellow bags?
A- False, in the sharp bin container.
25- Used cotton pads can be safely disposed in the domestic black bags?
A- Wrong, dispose in the clinical yellow bags.
26- The maximum safe dose for lignocaine is 4.4mg/Kg?
A- Right.
27- Most allergies to local anaesthetics are caused by the rubber part in th
cartridge?
A- Wrong, it is because of preservatives in the local anaesthetic.
28- Adrenaline is added to prilocaine to prolong its duration?
A- wrong it is felypressin 0.03IU/ml.
29- Codeine and paracetamol are best alternatives to Aspirin and NSAIDs
in platelets dysfunction?
A- True.
30- Christmas disease is caused by factor XI deficiency?
A- Wrong, it is haemophilia B and caused by factor IX deficiency.
31- It is better to use local anaesthesia with adrenaline in factor VIII
deficiency to control bleeding?
A- Wrong, ID block or in the floor of the mouth could cause blood to track down
causing air way obstruction.
32- how to deal with factor VIII deficiencies?
A- Replacement factors should be given, then regional anaethesia or IV
midazolam (sedation) is safe.

33- haemophilia B is the most common bleeding tendencies?

A- wrong, Haemophilia A is the most common with prevelence about 5 per
100 000.
34- Haemophilia A is 10 times more common than Haemophilia B?
A- True.
35- The other name fo haemophilia A is Christmas disease?
A- Wrong it is the other name for Haemophilia B.
36- In Haemophilia A the bleeding time and the prothrobin time PT
increase?
A- Wrong, both stay normal but the the APTT Activated Partial Thromboplastin
Time prolonged.
37- Addison’s disaes is caused by hyperadrenocorticism?
A- Wrong it is Hpoadrenocorticisim.
38- A 25 healthy man attend the clinic with swelling and pain in the parotid
areas (bilateral) what is the bossiple diagnosis?
A- Mumps.
39- A diabitic man 50 years old attended the clinic, during the treatment he
fainted out, how much insulin you should give him?
A- Insulin should not be used, if he was in a hupoglacymic state, injecting insulin
can cause a brain damage and death. Give Clucose.
40- A patient felt severe chest pain during the treatment what are the
possible cause?
A- Angina, Myocardial infarction.
41- If the reason was angina, you must lay the patient flat to allow more
blood to the brain and heart.
A- Wrong, laying the patient flat will increase breathlessness. Keep in the setting
position.
42- In severe angina pain it is best controled by morphin?
A- wrong, give glyceryl trinitrate 0.5 mg sublingually.
43- The patient swallowed a foreign body into his airways during the
treatment, you must stop immediately and use the X ray machine to spot the
object in the lungs?
A- Wrong, try to get the object out by Heimlich manoeuvre to clear airway, give
Oxygen.
44- After recovery of the previous patient refer to plain radiographs.?
A- Right. And a chest surgeon can apply Bronchoscopy if required.
45- Who if seen taking an impression for a patient in the dental clinic would
be considered illegal?
A- Dental technician.
46- The patient dental records can be accessed by an insurance company
without the need to consent?
A- wrong. The court should issue an order to access such confidential records in
special circumstances.
47- It is Ok for the denntist to show the police dental records of a suspect
road traffic crime to the police?
A- True, the law says the dentist should not seize any relevant information ahich
are necessay to investigate a case.
48- The impressions take for a patient should be put straight in a sealed bag
and send to the technician?
A- Wrong they must be disinfected before sending to the technician.
49- Alginate impressions should be disinfected in a hot water soap bath?
A- Wrong this would destry them. Soak into disinfictant solution.
50- Aids is the most danderous and fastest virus to be transmitted by needle
stick.
A- Wrong, it is dangerous but Hepatitis B can be transmitted in as little as 1 in
10 000 000 parts in needle stick while Aids 1 in 1000 parts.

51- What are the best management for myocardial infarction?

A- Keep the patient at rest, give morphine 10 mg slow IV, 2 mg/min up to 15
mg. Cyclizine 50 mg, nitros oxide with at least 28% Oxygen. Aspirin 300 mg
can be given.
52- After Myocardial infarction it is safer to treat the patient under general
anaesthesia?
A- Wrong, nearly 30% of patients having a general anaesthetist withen 3 months
of the infract will have another one in the first postoperative week and at least
50% die.
53- Bulimia causes erosion on the incisal edges of the anterior teeth?
A- Wrong, on the palatal and occlusal surfaces.
54- Nutritional diets can cause erosion on the incisal edges of the anterior
teeth?
A- Right like citrus juce.
55- How many CPD hours the dentist must follow over five years? 50-100-
150-200-250?
A- 250 CPD hours/5 years.
56- How many verified CPD hours should be achieved? 50-75-100
A- 75 hours.
57- How many at least verifiable hours in Radiology? 5-10-15
A- 5 Hours.
58- 58- How many at least verifiable hours in disinfection and
decontaminatio? 5-10-15
A- 5 Hours.
59- 59-How many at least verifiable hours in Medical emergincies?
5,10,15
A- 10 Hours.
60- If the dentist did not complete his 250 hours of CPD in five years he
would be fined up to £ 500 pounds ?
A- Wrong. His register would be written off untill he complete the 250 hours
then he would apply back to registration.

61- Dental care professionals DCPs are not required to do the CPD?
A- Wrong, from 2008 they must achieve 150 hours over five years.
62- If you had a cut in your finger during the treatment, you must start the
anti viral regime immediately?
A- Wrong, scrub the wound for 10 minutes.
63- In you cannot scrub the wound soak your hand in antiseptic solution
for 30 minutes?
A- wrong, scrub the wound, and then seek professional advice for further checks,
HIB, AIDS etc….
64- Which of these carcinomas has the worst survival over 5 years?
Stomach, Lungs, Pancrias
A- Pancrias.
65- If the X- Ray machine is > 70 Kv the minimum focous to skin distance
is 15 cm?
A- wrong it is 20 cm.
66- If the X- Ray machine is < 70 Kv the minimum focous to skin distance
is 15 cm?
A- Wrong. It is 10 cm.
67- If the X- Ray machine is < 70 Kv the minimum control radius area is 1
meter?
A- True.
68- If the X- Ray machine is > 70 Kv the minimum control radius area is
1.5 meter?
A- Right.
69- for children under 5 it is recommended to use a fluoride tooth paste
1000 PPmillion?
A- Wrong it should be no more than 500 PPmillion.
70- for children over 6 till 9 years it is recommended to use a fluoride
tooth paste 1000 PPmillion?
A- Right.
71- for children over 9 years it is recommended to use a fluoride tooth
paste 2500 PPmillion?
A- Wrong. It is 1500 ppmillion.
72- Dental nurses are not required to register with the GDC?
A. Wrong.
73- Dental tecnician are required to register with the GDC?
A- Right.
74- The ammount of sugar eaten everyday is what counts in dental caries
not the times?
A- Wrong, the frequencies play much more important rule as they keep
the PH low for more period of time.
75- IgG is the factor responsible for asthmas?
A. wrong it is IgE
76- You see a patient with suspected oral cancer, the first step is to mak an
incisional biopsy and send to the laboratory to examine?
A- wrong refer urgently to the Oral and Maxillofacial surgery department.
77- An upper molar foreceps can be used for both sides?
a- wrong, there is one for each side to fit the buccal fissure
on the buccal sides of the upper permanent molar.
78- A photo of the Upper Right Permanent molar, multiple answer, you
should have good knowledge with the shapes of the foreceps.
79- A photo of roots foreceps you should distinguish.
80- A photo of a woman with full face, 5 possible medicines she is taking
A- Prednislone, one of the cortisones which can cause this fat face.
81- Metronidazole should not be given with citrus fruit?
A- wrong, do not take with alcohol.
82- Frequent caiers in childhood in the anterior teeth are called serial
caries?
A- Wrong . It is Rampant caries.
83- The best place to keep an avulsed tooth is in milk?
A- Wrong. Try to put it back in place untill you reach the dentist.
84- If no one was competent to return the tooth to the alveolar bone keep
it in a cup contains the patient’s own saliva?
A- Wrong keep it in the buccal sulcus of the patient mouth, or in milk.
85- Salty serum is good to save the vitality of an avulsed tooth?
A- Wrong milk is better.
86- The maximum time of an avulsed tooth to stay out the alveolar boe to
get best results is one hour?
A- right.
87- The masseter muscle is considered to be attached primarly to the body
of the mandible?
A- Wrong . It is the ramus.
88- Primary molars with two or more surfaces missing should only restored
with amalgam because of its characteristics.
A- Wrong, It is stanliss steel crwon.
89- For a 4 years old clever child coming to the clinic for the first time it
is good to use the tell, show, do approach.
A- Wrong with such young age using a model (his mum or a peer close to
his age) with a simple procedure is best to let him introduced to the
clinic in a friendle way.
90- Anxiolytic, such as temazepam 5 mg the night before the treatment
can reduce the risk of faint.
A- Right as anxity can induce faint.
91- If the patient had an epilepsy seizure it is good to protect his teeth with
a wooder mouth retractor?
A- Wrong do not put anything in the mouth.
92- If the patient had an epilepsy seizure it is good to switch off the clinic
lights as they induce the seizure.
A- Wrong, cover the patient’s eyes with a black band.
93- In asthmatic attack lay the patient flat and call the ampulance?
A- wrong. Do not lay the patient flat as this depress the airways.
94- In asthmatic attck give the patient salbutamol 250 milligram IV?
A- Wrong only 250 Microgram.
95- Monoamino oxidase inhibitors MAOIs should not be given with
opioids?
A- Right It can cause sever reaction, the onset can be suden and with
pethidine can be fatal.
96- MAOIs can interact with indirectly acting sympathomimetic
drugs(such as ephidren used as a nasal degongistant).
A- Right.
97- Adrenaline or noradrenaline can cause hypertensive reactions with
MAOIs?
A. Wrong.
98- A healthy patient leaves the clinic and the bleeding continues after 2
hours. Advice her to bite on a piece of coton find at home.
A- Wrong, tell her to come back to the clinic immediately clean the socket
squeeze and suture.
99- in mild Haemophilia give tranexamic acid 500mg in 5ml slow IV.
A- Right.
100- Patients with long-term corticosteroide treatment when exposed to
stress can suffer circulatry colapse as a result of adrenal hyper excertion?
A- Wrong. It is adrenal suppression.

101- Dental nurses are on higher risk of needle stick than dentists?
A- Right.
102- Only dentists and nurses re required to be immunised against HIB?
A- Wrong, immunisation applies to all staff unless they are
immunosuppressed as in taking steroids for asthma, then their clinical
contact should be restricted.
103- only staff in clinical contact are required to be trained in cross-infection
control?
A- wrong. All the staff should be trained for cross infection contral.
104- All instruments hould be immediately sterilised after the clinical
session?
A- wrong, they should be cleaned in an ultrasonic bath, rinsed under
running water and then sterilised in the autoclave.
105- Gloves should be disposed in the domestic bag?
A- wrong, they are disposed in the yellow sack, which at the end of the
day should be fastened securely and place in its disignated area. They
should not be more than three quarters full.
106- Sharp needle only be resheathed by using the device provided?
A- Right.
107- The sharp bin should not be more than three quarters full?
A- Wrong, two third full.
108- Accidents involving spilage of blood or mercury should be washed
away only?
A- Wrong, they must be reported and handled in accordance to the practice
guide lines.
109- At the end of the day all the surfaces should be cleaned and disinfected?
A- Right
110- Vaccination against HBV can give immunity against HCV?
A- Wrong, and there is no vaccine against HCV.
111- The carriage rate of HCV in the UK between blood donor is 0.07%
A- Right.

112- The national average rate for diagnosed HIV patients in the UK is
1:3000?
A- Right.
113- The north thames region has a lower HIV average than the rest of the
UK?
A- Wrong, the average is 1:800, which is 4 times higher than the rest of
the UK. 70% of HIV cases are reported from the NHS Thames region.
114- Up to haow many times greater is the risk of transmission from an
infected patient to a health worker via a needle stick injury for HBV compared
to HIV? 3 or 10 or 100
A- 100, you are 100 times more likely to transmit HBV from an infected
patient to a health worker rather than HIV. The risk to transmit hepititis
B is 7-40% compared with 0.2-0.5% for HIV.
115- In 1995 new 150 cases of AIDS were reported in the UK 54% were
due to hetero sex?
A- Right. 545 due to sex intercourse between men, 29% sex between men
and women, 12 % injecting drug misuse and 1% due to blood factor
treatment.
116- -Herpes simplex is the most common virus after cold sore and influenza?
A- right.
117- Primary herpes simplex infection normally afffect adults?
A- wrong. It affects children and appears as small vesicles in the palate,
buccal mucosa and lips.
118- Recurrent herpes simplex is caused by the reactivation of the HSV-1
in the neural ganglion?
A- Right
119- Reactivation is caused by stress, fatigue, sunlight or allergy and
appears as a cold sore with or without a prior burning sensation?
A- Right.
120- Only the primary lesions are infectious?
A- Wrong, both primary and secondary lesions are infectious.
121- Wearing gloves and face mask can protect aginst occupational
infections such as herpetic whitlow(affects the fingers) and herpetic
keratitis( affects the eyes)which are painful, inconvenient and damaging?
A- Right.
122- Tubercelosis is caused by a Mycobacterium tubercelosis?
A- Right.
123- Multi drug resistance tubercelosis (MDRTB) is becoming an increasin
problem?
A- right.
124- The first-line drugs used to treat TB are: isoniazid, Rifampin,
ethambutol, pyrazinamide.
A- Right.
125- Sexual and vertical (mother to baby) transmission of HCV is less than
HBV?
A- Right.
126- Few patients ifected with HCV will end up with chronic disease?
A- Wrong, 50-60-% of HCV initially infected patients will end up
chronically carrying the virus.
127- HCV is responsible for 80% of post blood trasfusion hepititis?
A- Right.
128- 128- 20% of the patients with HCV will develop hepatic cirrhosis, and
10% will develop hepatocellular carcinoma?
A- Right.
129- Because HCV has at least 9 major genotypes, this caused differences
in worldwide prevelance and trasmission?
A- Right.
130- HBV is responsible for 80% of post blood trasfusion hepititis?
A- Wrong it is HCV.
131- Man is the only resvoir for Mycobactrium Tuberculosis the aerobic
non-motile non-spore forming bacillus.
A- Right.
132- There are no symptoms for TB in the early stage?
A- Right, Symptoms develop in the advanced stage, fatigue, night sweats,
loss of weight and apatite.
133- In pulmonary TB those symptoms are accompanied by resparatory
symptoms such as coughing, chest pain and production of blood-stained
sputum?
A- Right.
134- TB in the early stages should be treated at hospital?
A- Right, and when the disease is under control the patient can continue
the treatment at home for 6 months to two years.
135- 50 million people worldwide are infected with the drug-resistant strain
of TB?
A- Right.
136- MDRTB can become resistant to isoniazide and Rifampin?
A- Right.
137- TB is less common and danger for health workers these days?
A- Wrong. There was 50% increse of New york health workers infected
with TB.
138- BCG vaccine and wearing a face mask are enough to control TB?
A- Wrong, they are necessary but there should be good practice ventilation
and use of rubber dam.
139- Syphilis is caused by an aerobic bacteria?
A- wrong, it is caused by Treponema palidum spirochete.
140- Syphilis is usually transmited by blood transfusion?
A- Wrong, it usually transmitted by sexual contact and kissing.
141- there are four stages for syphilis?
A- Right. They are, Primary, secondary, latent stage, final stage (tertiary).
142- Syphilis is frequently transmited by infectious objects?
A- wrong, as drying quickly kills the organisim.
143- 143- Syphilis can be transmited from the mother to the foetus?
A- right.
144- Syphilis is a significant problem in the UK?
A- wrong. It is a problem in Russia and baltic states, but because of health
measures in the Uk few cases were reported.
145- Syphilis can be dedicted in the early stage by VDL serum check?
A- wrong, a swap to the chancre in the mouth is enough to dedict it as the
early stage is highly infectious.
146- The chancres and ulcers of the primary and secondary syphilis can be
a source of infection?
A- Right.
147- a chancre appear at the site of infection 6 months after exposure?
A- Wrong. 3-6 weeks after exposure.
148- a painless snail track ulcer appera in the mouth in the secondary stage
6 weeks later?
A- Right.
149- the symptoms of the secondary and the highly infectious mouth ulcer
stage disappear after 3-12 weeks?
A- right.
150- The latenet stage can last 20-30 years with no symptoms?
A- right.
151- In the final (tertiary stage) of syphilis, gummas appear under the skin,
mucous membranes and the internl organs?
A- Right.
152- people with AIDS are likely to develop serious forms of syphilis and
relapse?
A- Right.
153- Gonorrhoea only appears in the genito-urinary track not in the mouth?
A- Wrong, its main effect in the genito-urinary track, but mouth lesions
were reported.
154- The risk of transmitting gonorrhoea in the dental clinic is high?
A- Wrong, universal precautions and wearing gloves is adequate to control
the cross infection.
155- Gonorrhoea cases are equal to AIDS cases in the UK?
A- Wrong. In 1996 12000 cases of gonorrhoea were reported comparing
with 2500 HIV cases.
156- Dental staff are at no more risk of common cold than the others?
A- wrong they are on higher risk to develop respiratory track viruses.
157- If a common cold aquired by a dentist he must stop treating patients
with chronic respiratory diseases which this virus can be dangerour to them?
A- right.
158- MRSA= Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus.
 A- Right.
159- VRE= Vancomycine-Resistant Entercoccus faecium.
a- Right.
160- Both MRSA and VRE are prominent pathogenes in dental practice?
A- Wrong. Good cross-infection control can minimise their risk. They are
more prone in Hospitals.
161- Creutzfeldt Jakob disease is transmitted by the prion protein which is
found in the brain of human and higher animals?
A- right, but cause no risk to dentists, but of risk of neurosurgeons and
post morteum examiners.
162- Reporting of injuries, disease, Danderous Occurances regulations
1985 RIDDOR:
A- Employers are required to notify the health and safety excutive of
accidents causing death or major injuries to any person or dangerour
occurance even if has been no death or injury.
163- in 1982 an effective vaccine for HBV became avilable?
A- Right.
164- The common recommendationa are not to scub instruments before
autoclaving them because of the high risk of sharp injury?
A- right.
165- 165- An elbow or sensored operated tap, fill in the sink and not running
water to reduce the risk of splash?
A- Right.
166- Mono Amino Oxidise inhibitors shouldn’t be used with opioids?
A- Right, MAOIs with opioids can cause severe reaction with sudden
onset, could be fatal.
167- General anaesthesia, particularly intravenous barbiturates have been
the main cause of fatalities in dental surgery?
A- Right.
168- patients with long-term corticosteroid treatment when exposed to
stress can suffer circulatory colapse as a result of adrenal supression?
A- Right.
169- Healthy adults can tolerate large amounts of lidocaine with adrenaline
(epinephrine) but the dose should be limited to 10 cartridges over the space
of an hour?
A- Wrong, the maximum dose is 5 cartridges.
170- Norepinephrine (noradrenaline) used 1:20000 in local anaesthesia as a
vaso-constrictor can cause death from acute hypertension and cerebral
haemorrhage?
A- Right.
171- The use of alpha-blockers (phentolamine) can combat this reaction by
Norepinephrine?
A- Right
172- Adrenaline can interact with beta-blockers (Propranolol) to raise the
bloof pressure?
A- Right.
173- Constriction of skin and visceral vessels is the alpha effect of
adrenaline, while dilation of muscles arterioles is its beta effect.
174- The tonic phase of epilipsy when the body become rigid, the clonic
phase is the wide jerking movements?
A- Right.
175- Do not give any medications in the tonic-clonic epilipetic phases, but
await recovery?
A- Right.
176- In the status epilipticus, give 10 mg IV diazepam to an adult patient,
or 5 mg IM if venous access cannot be gained?
A- Wrong, 10 mg IV of diazepam is OK, but if the venous access is hard
to gain, give 5 mg of midazolam intra-muscular as the absorption of
IM diazepam is slow and erratic.
177- In status asthmaticus, give Salbutamol by inhaler or by nebuliser?
A- Right.
178- Give Hydrocortisone sodium succinate 200mg intravenously?
A- Right.
179- No response withen 2-3 minutes give 250 microgram of Salbutamol
by slow IV injection?
A- Right.
180- If sabutamol is not avilable, give adrenaline as in anaphylaxis?
A- Right.
181- the main cause of stroke in young person is the subrachnoid
haemorrhage from a ruptured berry aneurysm on the cicle of willis?
A- right.
182- Failure of cardio pulmonary resucitation can be because the
compressions are too rapid to allow the heart to fill between them?
 A- right.
183- Extreme breathlessness can be the typical sign of left ventricular failure?
A- Right.
184- Pencillin is the most common cause of type II hyper sensitivity reaction?
A- False Type II.
185- Collapse in pencillin hyperreaction is due to the widespread
vasodilation and icreased capillary permiability causing potentially fatal
hypotension?
A- right.
186- In anaphylactic reaction, give 0.5-1ml of 1:1000 adrenaline by IM
injection, repet every 15 min if necessary untill response?
A- Right.
187- Give 10-20 mg chlorpheneramine diluted in the syringe with 10 ml of
blood by slow IV?
A- Right.
188- Give 200 g of hydrocortisone sodium succinate intravenously?
A- False, it is 200 mg not gram.
Always pay attention to units
189- Give O2 assissted ventilation?
A- True.
190- In the cardiac arrest the best plase to check the pulse is in the wrist?
a- wrong, the carotid artery, anterior to the sternomastoid
should be felt.
191- Facial flushing, parasthesia and cold extremities, loss of conciousness,
cold calmy skin, rapid weak impalpable pulse are the typical features of acute
anaphylactic?
A- Right.
192- Circulatory colapse only seen in patients on high dose of corticosteroid
treatment?
A- wrong, as little as 5 mg of prednislone a day can cause death after minor
dental extraction.
193- Hypoglassemia respond well when laying the patient flat?
A- wrong, it makes little response not as faint.
194- Parotid swelling can be seen in alcholisim?
A- Right.
195- 30 years old woman with jaws crepitus without any clinical signa or
complaint. What is the prefered method to get TMJ x ray.
 A- There is no need to x-ray as jaws clicking can be seen without any
clinical signs in many patients.
196- One consent form is enough for several gerenal anaesthesia sessions
or incisional piobsies?
A- wrong, a consent should be obtained before each procesure.
197- Fordyce spots typical sites are the labial and buccal mucosa?
A- Right.
It comes as 5 different oral and mucous conditions to spot the natural features
198- Tori in the midline of the palate or lingual mandible should always be
removed surgically?
A- Wrong. Unless they interfer with prothesis in those areas.
199- Clubbing fingers can be associated with chronic respiratory and
cardiac condition incluging infective endocarditis and sometimes remote
malignancy?
A- Right.
200- Koilonychi in nails suggest long standing anaemia?
A- True.
This question was asked as 4 options between different medical condition to point
the right answer.
201- Always take periapical films in dental pain to detect small caries?
A- Wrong, bitewings films are preferable as periapicals are poorly
localised.
202- Panoramic tomgrams cannot provide high defenition of bony lesions?
A- Right, oblique lateral and oblique occlusal are better.
203- The best way to detect parotid gland tumours is the incisional Biopsy?
A- wrong as the pleomorphic adenoma, mostly seen in the parotids, tends
to seed its cells in the incision wound.
204- In frozen sections the fresh tissues are frozen in the laboratory by a
freezer up to -10 C?
A- wrong, they are frozen by liquid nitrogen or dry ice to about -70 C.
205- In fine needle aspiration biopsy a 10 gauge needle is used?
A- wrong, 21 gauge needle.
206- FNA can be safely used with pleomorphic tumour where incisional
biopsy may spread the tumour?
A- Right.
207- In needle core biopsy a needle of 2 mm diameter is used?
A- Right.
208- Needle/core biopsy gives definitive diagnosis than in FNS?
A- Right.
209- Exfoliative cytology can be used to diagnose cancer?
A- wrong, it is usefull in detecting virally damaged cells, acantholytic cells
of pemphigus or candidal hyphae. In cancer false positive and false
negative results are frequent.
210- The usual fixative used for specimen is salty serum?
A- wrong, it is 10% formal saline (formaldehyde solution in normal saline
or a neutral ph buffer.
211- The amount of fixative used should be equal to the size of the specimen?
A- Wrong, at least 10 times the volume of the specimen as the chemical
reaction weaken the fixative.
212- Haematoxylin is a blue-black basic dye, eosin is a red acid dye?
A- Right.
213- Periodic-Acid Sciff (PAS) is the secong most frequent used stain. It
stains carbohydrates and mucinous substances?
A- Right.
214- Silver stains fungi?
A- Right.
215- Lymphomas, pemphigus, pemphigoid can be detected by using
immunostaining methods?
A- Right.
216- Immunostain methods depend on the binding between antibodies and
antigens to stain specific molecules withen the tissues.
A- Right.
217- Molecular biological tests are used to identify the bacteria and viruses?
A- Right.
218- Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) can be used in enlarged lymph nodes
in the neck, it copies repeatedly the nuclic acid untill enough is synthesised
to be seen in an elecrophoresis gel.
A- Right.
219- 219- Skeletal serum alkaline phosphate is raised in conditions with
increased bone turnover, eg. Paget’s disease and hyperparathyrodism?
A- Right.
220- Increased folate levels or B12 levels can cause recurrent apthous.
A- Wrong,, Recurrent apthous ulceration and recurrent candidosis are seen
in folate deficiency and B12 deficiency.
221- Oral viral infections can be detected by ELISA ( enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay).
A- Right.
222- Normal haemoglobin levels in males is 13-17 g/l?
A- Wrong, 13-17 g/dl.
223- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is 78-98 fl?
A- Right, mles and females.
224- Normal haemoglobin levels in females is 11.5-16 g/dl?
A- Right.
225- The medical history should be reviewed systematically. A possible
scheme is: A, B, C for Airway, Breathing, Circulation?
A- wrong, those A,B,C stands for CardioPulmonary Resuceation. For
medical history they are:
A: Anaemia
Bleeding disorders
Cardioresparatory disrorders
Drug treatmenets and allergies
Endocrine disease
Fits and faints
Gastrointestinal disorders
Hospital admission and attendence
Infection
Jaundice or liver disease
Kidney disease
Likelihood of pregnancy or pregnancy itself.

226- Patients over 18 years are allowed to give their own consent?
A- wrong, over 16 years are allowed.
227- Under 16 years, parents should make the decision and they cannot
dispute against it?
A- wrong, if the minor was able to understnd the issues involved, they can
hold their own consent.
228- Once the consent are signed by the patients he cannot retreat his
decision?
A- Wrong, the patient can withdraw the consent any time and his wish
should be respected.
229- Pain is a defence reaction that tend to be associated with actual or
perceived injury.
A- right.
230- Anxiety is a defence reaction ranging through apprehension and
anxiety.
A- Right.
231- Patient can tell you when they feel anxious?
A- Wrong, usually you can spot it with their body language, increased
sympathytic system activity and failed appointments.
232- What is the reason to compress the cheek between finger and thumb
during local anaesthesia?
A- Activate the central neurological mechanisim.
233- For procedures including the skin you can use a quick EMLA cream
to reduce pain, it acts fast and deep?
A- Wrong, EMLA can be used for skin procedures but it should be used
at least one hour before the procedure, however it does not penetrate
deeply enough.
234- Amethocaine gel can be faster than EMLA on skin but it causes skin
irritation more likely than EMLA?
A- Right.
235- General anaesthesia can eleminate pain, anxiety, emotional responses
to surgery and muscular activities or tremors that interfer with the dentist’s
job?
A- right.
236- The general dental practitioner can apply General anaesthesia in
hospital for his patient?
A- Wrong, GDP are not permitted to administer GA. It should be
administered by a trained anaesthetist.
237- Patients classified as IV and V in the ASA are not justified to GA?
A- Right.
238- Pregnant women can be justified to GA in their second trimester?
A- Wrong, in early stages there is a risk to the fetus, on later stages there
is a risk to the mother with enlarged uterus exerting pressure on the
chest and the abdominal veins.
239- Elderly people, even if fit, may not tolerate the rigours of GA so they
are contraindicated?
A- Right.
240- obesity may be defined as body mass index exceeding 25?
A- Wrong, exceeding 30.
241- A patient with type I diabetes may be require administration of glucose
and insulin by infusion?
A- Right.
242- Temporary colds, infuenza and sore throat can be well tolerated in GA?
A- Wrong, patients with those symptoms should be deffered the procedure
until full healing.
243- Patients who will undergo GA should fast food and drink at least 6
hours before the procedure?
A- Right.
244- Concious sedation is a state of depression of the central nervous
system enabling treatment to be carried out?
A- Right.
245- Inhalation sedation can safely be used in clinics without special
adaptations?
A- Wrong, Active scavenging devices and good ventilation are necessary
in the clinic.
246- Recovery after IV sedation is faster than inhalation sedation?
A- Wrong it takes about 15 minutes to recover after inhalation sedation
comparing with an hour for IV midazolam.
247- Flumazenil is the antagonist for midazolam in case of need a quick
recovery or reverse the action?
248- A –Right.
249- Sedation can supress the gag reflex to permit dental procedures?
A- Right.
250- As sedation supress the gag relex there is no need to fast before the
procedure?
A- Wrong, a starvation period of 2 hours before the procedure is necessary
even the risk of aspiration is too small.
251- Appropriately trained dentist and dental nurse can administer sedation
without an anaesthetist?
A- Right.
252- Not as with GA, in sedation patients can go back to their rutine daily
life activities straight away after the sedation?
 A- wrong, patients should avoid demanding activity of the hands or brain
for 24 hours, and for inhalation sedation this period is shortened, but
can be lengthened in medical conditions.
253- Nitros oxide used in inhalation sedation has analgesic effect?
A- Right, and can be used in Myocardial infraction to reduce pain.
254- Bupivacaine can be used for longer procedures as it has a long acting
anaesthetic effect?
A- Right.
255- Ibuprofen is recommended as analgesic because of its anti-inflamatory
effect?
A- Right.
256- Ibuprofen is safe to use in pregnancy?
A- Wrong, avoid in pregnant women.
257- Patients with asthma, allergy to aspirin, upper gastrointestinal tract
ulceration and systemic corticosteroids should avoid Ibuprofen?
A- Right.
258- It is better to give NSAIDs early as they are better in preventing the
paing than stopping it?
A- Right.
259- Corticosteroids can reduce pain, and dexamethasone can be given for
surgical patients?
A- Right, there is no risk of using steroids in this way, although the benefit
they add to analgesics are variable.
260- Insulin dependent diabetic patients are not suitable for outpatient GA?
A- Right, because they must starve for several hours and the timing of food
and insulin are better obeserved and monitored on an inpatient basis.
261- What is the best procedure between GA or sedation for a patient with
BMI=40?
A- GA carries a risk to his life, local anaesthesia is preferable with or
without sedation, if not possible GA under inpatient .
262- The best route to administer midazolam in IV sedation is the back of
the hand?
A- Right.
263- The patient should not be laied flat when under IV sedation and a
Gauze in the back of the tongue can protect the airway?
A- Right.
264- Patients with needle phopia can be reduced their anxiety by oral or
inhalation sedation?
A- Right, and needle phopia normally scared of needle in the mouth not in
the skin.
265- Ibuprofen and paracetamol or a combination are suitable analgesics
for surgically removed third molar?
A- Right.
266- In tooth extraction a radiograph should be taken to each tooth would
be extracted?
A- wrong, X- ray should be justified in special circumstances.
267- If general anaesthesia to be used, there is no need for radiographs?
A- wrong, because it is not possible to take a radiograph in the middle of
the procedure.
268- X-ray is preferable when there is a history of difficult extractions,?
A- Right.
269- All third molars, partially erupted or impacted teeth should be
radiographed?
A- Right.
270- Left and right lower molars need two diiferent forceps to fit into their
buccal peak?
A- Wrong. This applies to the upper left and right molars, not the lower
ones where one forceps can be used.
271- When extracting the lower right quardant, place your self infront of
the patient for clear vision?
A- Wrong, you must stand behind the patient, on the right side of the head.
272- For maxillary extraction, the chair back should be kept on right angle
with the seat part?
A- Wrong, chair tipped back by 30-35 degrees.
273- For the lower left quardent, position the chair as the upper extractions?
A- Wrong, although the chair is tipped back 30-35 degree but the chair
hight in the maxillary extraction should be at the elbow, in the lower
left chair should be positioned lower.
274- Extraction for the lower right quardent, the chair is lowered and tipped
back 40-45 degree and you stnd behind the patient on the right side?
A- Right.
275- The maxillary incisors are best extracted by right and left rotaional
movements?
 A- Right.
276- Lower incisors are best extracted by steadely leaning the tooth labially
5 degrees and then tipping it lingually 5 degrees, then little more?
A- Right.
277- First upper premolar usually has one root and can be extracted by
rotaion?
A- Wrong, about half of them have two roots and the progressive
buccolingual displacement should be applied.
278- Upper second premolars are extracted in the same way as the upper
first premolars?
A- Right. Although they occasionally are two-rooted do not rotate them.
279- Fractured palatal root is more common in the upper maxillary molars?
A- Wrong. Usually the buccal roots are more accessible.
280- Maxillary molars are best extracted by buccal displacement?
A- Right, the buccal bone is thinner than the palatal one.
281- Mandibular molars are dispalced buccally with the figure of 8 motion
(round and round)?
A- Right.
282- Maxillary canine is extracted by the rotational displacement?
A- Right.
283- When caries are present, displace the tooth towards the carious cavity?
A- Right.
284- Postoperative bleeding can be seen as a trace of blood in the mouth for
several hours. If seen in a healthy fit patient, this is a sign of bleeding disorder
and should attend the hospital?
A- Wrong. If the patient had no history of bleeding, he should place a clean
piece of cotton handkerchieh or gauze over the socket and bite down
to put pressure on the wound for 10 minutes. If the bleedin cannot be
controlled by these measurements, he must contact the clinic.
285- If the tooth fractured during the extraction it is better to abandon the
extraction and leave the piece behind?
A- Wrong, as you made a judgement to extract the tooth, you must not
abandon the extraction.
286- A tooth fractured during extraction in a patient with prothetic valve, it
is better to abandon the extraction not to put the patient under extra pressure?
A- Wrong, there is a significant risk of endocarditis and the fragment
should be removed.
287- You must remove any fractured fragments if the tooth had apical
infection?
A- right.
288- If the fragment was less than one-third of the root, and was not
displaced from the socket, you can make a judgement of leaving it behind?
A- Right.
289- Abandon the removal of fractured root if there was a risk of adjacent
structures (maxillary antrum, Inferior dental nerve, adjacent tooth)?
A- Right.
290- Elevators need a fulcrum on the adjacent tooth to dislodge the
extracted tooth away from the point of application?
A- Wrong, the fulcrum point should be on bone against which it rests. If
applied to adjacent tooth it will dislodge it.
291- Only rotational movement arround the elevators’long axis should be
used?
A- Right.
292- Coupland’s and straight Warwick James elevator are suitable to elevate
a distoangular maxillary third molar downwards and backwards?
A- Right.
293- Coupland’s elevators can be used to start the maxillary extraction to
reduce applied forces?
A- Right.
294- When raising a flap, do not bisect the interdental papilla?
A- Right.
295- 294- Suspected mental foramen between the roots of mandibular
premolars with apical infection to the apical root of one of them what is the
appropriate procedure?
A- Another X-ray with different angl, vitality check of the tooth.
296- Luxators can be used to elevate the roots from the socket?
A- Wrong, they are used to incise the periodontal ligament to allow
removal of tooth with little force.
297- Usually elevators are finer than luxators?
A- Wrong. Luxators are finer and sharper than elevators.
298- Which of the following are right features in flap design?
a- Be small as possible.
b- Do not make risk on adjacent structures
c- Maintain good blood supply.
 d- The margins could lie on any surface.
A- B&C AS a and d are Wrong as the flap must provide adequate access to the
site and should lie on sound bone.
299- The flap can be raised by using a tongue retractor?
A- Wrong, The tongue retractor is used to held the flap away, while raising
it by using curved Warwick James elevator to turn out the interdental
papilla and a periosteal elevator or Howarth’s raspratory for the rest.
300- A high speed hand piece is used to remove the bone after raising the
flap?
A- Wrong. They can cause emphysema because of air pressure.
301- Use normal saline to cool the bur on a slow speed hand piece when
removing the bone?
A- Right.
302- What kind or suture material do use to close oroantral fistula?
A- Blabk silk as the suture need to remain for more than a week, and
maintain tension in the area.
303- Plain gut or rapidly resorping polygalactin suture are suitable in the
mouth?
A- right
304- Vicryl 3-0 are the best choice to use in a three envelope flap in the
mouth?
A- right.
305- Patients who are at risk of infection can be given metronidazole 500
mg four times a day for five days and ibuprofen 200 mg three times a day for
3 days?
A- Wrong, the correct regime is: Metronidazole 200 mg/ 3 times daily/ 5
days + Ibuprofen 600 mg/ 3 times daily/3 days.
306- The other name of dry socket is osteonecrosis?
A- wrong, (alveolar osteitis, alveolitis sicca dolorosa, infected socket).
Alveolar osteitis is the most common.
307- Osteomyelitis and Actinomycosis are considered as late local
complications of tooth extraction?
A- Wrong, they are late regional/distant complications.
308- Immediate/ local complications of tooth extraction are:
a- Fractured crwon, alveolus, root, tuberosity, mandible
adjacent tooth.
b- Tear of gingive, alveolar mucosa.
 c- Oroantral communication.
d- Fractured instrument.
309- right.
310- Dry socket, local infection, delayed or secondary haemorrhage are
considered as Delayed/ Local complication of tooth extraction?
A- Right.
311- Injection track haematoma is a late regional/distant complication of
tooth extraction?
A- Wrong, it is a delayed regional complication.
312- Tooth extraction complications are three types immediate, delayed and
late and could be local or regional/distant?
A- Right.
313- Define the immediate Regional complication of tooth extraction?
A- Crushed lip, ID nerve damage, lacerated tongue or palate and
swallowed or inhaled instrument or tooth.
314- What is the late local complication of tooth extraction?
A- Alveolar atrophy.
315- Myofacial pain dysfunction is a delayed regional complication.
A- Right.
316- Dry socket is common when General Anaesthesia is implicated?
A- Wrong, it is more common with local anaesthesia.
317- Multiple extraction increase the risk of dry socket?
A- Wrong, it is less frequent with multiple extractions.
318- Common analgesic are adequate to stop pain in dry socket?
A- Wrong, pain is often resistant to common analgesia.
319- Anaerobic bacteria are responsible for mouth foul/
A- right.
320- Alveolar osteitis is often seen in the upper jaw because of the exessive
blood supply?
A- False, it is more common in the lower jaw.
321- Dry socket cn be seen in 30% after lower molar extraction?
A- False, it occurs in 3% after routine extraction.
322- It is better to administer prophylactic antibiotics before extraction to
avoid the risk of Osteomyelitis?
A- False. Routine administration of antibiotics is not justified.
323- In dry socket, irrigation of the socket, debris removal then a dressing
of Zinc oxide nad eugenol is recommended?
 A- False, although the first two procedures are right, avoid zinc oxide and
eugenol cement as it adhere strongly to bone.
324- Whitehead’s varnish, ribbon gauze, Bismuth iodoform and paraffin
paste are recommended in Dry socket?
A- True.
325- Which of the following materials can be used to stop bleeding?
a- Oxidised cellulose
b- Collagen granules.
c- Gelatin foam.
d- Zinc Oxide and eugenol cement.
e- Alginate fibres.
326- a-b-c-e.
327- Check INR for the extrinsic part of the coagulation cascade, and APTT
for the intrinsic part?
A- True.
328- the maximum INR range for patient on anti-coagulation treatment is
3.5-4?
A- true.
329- In a normal adult the volume of air which enters and leaves the alveoli
per minute is 2 Litre?
A- false it is 4 L.
330- The number of alveoli in an adult in the lungs is 300 million?
A- true.
331- In heavy exercise the air flow can increase twenty folds and the blood
flow five folds.
A- true.
332- There are three vocal cords in the larynx?
A- false, they are two vocal cords.
333- Macrophages in the airways and alveoli destry inhaled particles and
bacteria?
A- Right.
334- The airfacing surfaces are lined with type II alveolar cells?
A- False. Type I
335- Type II alveolar cells interspersed between Type I and produce a
detergent-like substance?
A- Right.
336- Inspiration is activted by contraction of the diaphragm muscle, which
moves down the abdomen and enlarge the size of the thorax?
A- true.
337- Diaphragm muscle is supplied by which nerve? Accessory, Vagus or
phrenic nerve?
A- Phrenic.
338- - Lung compliance depends on their stretchability making them easier
to expand?
A- Right.
339- Airway resistance is the ammount of air moves into or out the alveoli
per minute?
A- False. Per unit time.
340- Airway resistance is equal to 500ml of air?
A- True.
341- Tidal volume is the volume of air entering the lung in a single
inspiration?
A- True.
342- The tidal volume is approximately 0.5 L, 1 L or 1.5 L?
A- 0.5 L or 500 ml.
343- The tidal volume is called the resting tidal volume in normal quite
breathing.
A- true.
344- The deepest inspiration is called inspiratory reserve volume which is
the maximum amount of air can be inhaled?
A- True.
345- The inspiratory reserve volume is 2000 ml?
A- False. 3000 ml.
346- Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the of air left in lungs after
expiration?
A- True.
347- The funcional residual capacity is 2500 ml?
A- True.
348- The expiratory reserve volume is the maximum amount of air expired
after maximum activation of expiratory muscles?
A- True.
349- The volume of air expired in th expiratory reserve volume is 2500 ml?
A- False. It is 1500 ml.
350- After expiratory reserve volume, the air left in the lungs is called
residual volume?
A- True.
351- The residual volume is equal to 1000 ml?
A- True.
352- The vital capacity is the sum of ( resting tidal volume+inspiratory
reserve volume+expiratory reserve volume)?
A- True.
353- The total ventilation per minute is termed minute ventilation?
A- True.
354- Minute ventilation= inspiratory reserve volume X respiratory rate?
A- False. Minute ventilation(Ve) = Tidal volume (Vt) X Respiratory rate
(f)
355- The dead space is the air left in the airways which does not carry gas
exchange?
A- True.
356- Te anatomic dead space is equal to 150 ml?
A- True.
357- Fresh air enter the alveoli in one inspiration is 300 ml?
A- True.
358- Fresh air is calculated as: Tidal volume (450 ml)- Anatomic dead space
(150ml)= 300 ml.
A- True.
359- The anatomic dead space is also present in the alveoli as some of them
do not carry gas exchange?
A- False, this is called alveolar dead space not anatomic dead space and it
can be seen in some alveoli.
360- Anatomic dead space + alveoli dead space = physiologic dead space?
A- true.
361- Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia is associated with hypodontia?
A- True.
362- The teeth in anhydrotic ectodermal dyplasia are conicl and peg shaped?
A- true.
363- Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia affects the deciduous teeth more
often?
A- False, more of the deciduous teeth form but few or no permanent teeth.
364- Anhydrotic ectodermal dysplasia is a sex linked recessive trait?
 A- true.
365- Supernumerary teeth are similar to the normal teeth in shape?
A- False, they are conical and malformed.
366- Supernumerary teeth are most frequently form in the incisor and molar
region?
A- true.
367- Supernumerary teeth arealways located in the midline (mesiodens)?
A- False, this is a very occasionally happening.
368- Supplemental teeth are similar to the supernumerary teeth and usually
malformed?
A- False, they resemble the normal teeth.
369- Supplemental teeth occasionally seen as an additional in the maxillary
incisor and premolar ?
A- True.
370- Which is the most seen in cledocranial dysplasia?
A- Hypodontia.
371- A case of a ten years old boy with discoloration in teeth, associated
with brittle bone. The case is dentiongenesis imperfecta?
A- False, it is Osteogenesis imperfecta.
372- Enamel pearls are occasionally found in the cervical margins and
bifurcation area?
A- true.
373- Plosives sounds like (p,b,t,d,g,k) require a complete stoppage of air.
A- Right.
374- Sounds are produced initially in the larynx?
A- true.
375- Sounds produced in the larynx are called phonation?
A- true.
376- Laryngeal sounds occurs principally in th Pharyngeal, oral and nasal
cavities?
A- True.
377- Subsequent laryngeal sounds are called affricatives?
A- false. Called articulation.
378- Affricatives involve partial stopping of air , require rapid release of air
(c,h,j)?
A- true.
379- The temporalis muscle is inervated by a branch of the facial nerved
(temporal branch)?
A- false, anterior devision of the mandibular nerve.
380- Tubercle of carabelli is found on the distopalatal cusp of the upper first
maxillary molar?
A- false, the mesiopalatal cusp.
381- Enamel spindles extends from the enamel dentinal junction to the
surface of the enamel?
A- false, the extend 25 microne frim the junction into the enamel.
382- Enamel tufts occur at 100 microne intervals?
A- True.
383- 379- Enamel tufts extend from the enamel-dentine junction into the
inner third of enamel?
A- True.
384- Enamel lamella extends the entire thickness of the enamel?
A- true.
385- Tuberculosis vaccine is a toxoid?
A- False, it is a live bacteria. BCG
386- Anaphylaxis is a type II hypersensitivity?
A- true.
387- IgM is considered as a secretory immunoglobulin?
A- false. IgA is the secretory one.
388- The bases of DNA are four: Guanin (G), Cytosin ©, Adenin (A), and
Thymine (T).
A- True.
389- G pairs with C and T with A?
A- True.
390- Virus Hepatitis B can persist for long period with large quantity turning
into chronic?
A- True.
391- Chlorhexidine mouth washes are used in 0.2% solution?
a- True.
392- Listerine and Triclosan are phenols and more effective against gram
negative bacteria?
A- True.
393- Aspirin can produce focal erosion and bleeding?
A- true.
394- Aspirin can inhibit the synthesis of prostoglandin giving it its
pharmacological properties?
A- true.
395- Ibuprofen is the most used NSAIDs?
A- true.
396- Heparin can be used in the clinic orally?
A- false, it is only given parenterally.
397- Which of these has cuboidal cells? a- The external enamel epithelium.
b- The stellate reticulum. c-The stratum intermedium. d- The internal enamel
epithelium?
A- a

398- Which of these has columnar cells? a- The external enamel epithelium.
b- The stellate reticulum. c-The stratum intermedium. d- The internal enamel
epithelium?
A- d.
399- Which of these has star shape cells? a- The external enamel epithelium.
b- The stellate reticulum. c-The stratum intermedium. d- The internal enamel
epithelium?
A- b.
400- 396- In which area the mantle dentine is found?
A- the crown of the tooth.
401- 397- When does the secondary palate appears?
A- Between the six and eight weeks of intrautrine life.
402- 398- Which nerves give the tongue the perception of taste?
A- Chorda tympani fibres from the facial nerve.
403- The anterior part of the tongue is supplied by which nerve?
A- The lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.
404- The posterior part of the tongue including the circumvallate papillae is
supplied by which nerve?
A- Glossopharyngeal nerve.
405- Glossopharyngeal nerve is a sensory nerve only?
A- False, sensation and taste.
406- The average saliva flow is 0.3 ml/minute?
A- True.
407- The daily saliva flow is 500-750 ml?
A- True.
408- Connect each of this to its job: Muscin, Lysozyme, IgA, minerals,
amylase
a- Buffers
b- anti bacterial substance
c- mucosal immune system
d- aid digestion
e- lubricate
a- Minerals
b- Lysozyme.
c- IgA
d- amylase
e- Muscin
409- Paracetamol could be hepatotoxic in anorexia nervosa?
A- true.
410- A young woman attend the clinic with illusions about aliens want to
abduct her. What is the possible diagnosis?
A- Paranoia. Sheizophrenia another possibility.
411- A child attends the clinic with desquamation of the lips, fingers, and
toes, moode changes, misery and fever. What is your possible diagnosis?
A- Kawasaki disease.
412- The risk of cardiac complication is the main risk in kawasaki disease?
A- true.
413- Atrial fibrillation is the most common dysrhythemia?
A- true.
414- Atrial fibrillation is best treated with Digoxin?
A- true.
415- What is the best Aspirin dose for a 10 years old child needs a pain
killer?
A- Aspiring in contraindicated for children under 12 years olds because
the risk of Ray’s syndrome.
416- Which Sjogren’s syndrome is associated with rehumatid arthritis the
primary or the secondary?
A- Secondary Sjogren’s syndrom.
417- How much is roughly the salivary flow in Sjogren’s syndrome? 0.3
ml/min, 0.075 ml/min, or 0.03 ml/min?
A- 0.075 ml/min (please check this answer in text books or with your
tutors as there is a debate about the salivary flow in sjogren’s syndrome.
 We founds out that it is mostly ¼ the normal salivary flow which is
0.3/ ml/min so it is 0.075 ml/min this is according to Cawson text book).
418- Hypothyrodism is accompanied with tachycardia?
A- False, bradycardia.
419- Graves’ disease is associated with secondary hyerthyrodism?
A- false. It is a primary hyperthyrodism.
420- Carpimazole is the usual antithyroid drug ?
A- true.
421- On dental X-ray, the loss of lamina dura and jaw radiolucencies are
associated with Hyperparathyrodism?
A- true.
422- Parathyroid hormaon (PTH) regulate a normal calcium level by acting
on kidneys?
A- True.
423- Diabetes is a condition associated with increased level of insulin in the
blood causing the blood sugar levels to fall?
A- False. It is insulin resistance or deficiency.
424- Insulin dependent diabetes is an autoimmune disease and can follow
attck of mumps or coxsackie disease?
A- True.
425- Sumatriptan and Ergotamine are used in Parkinson disease control?
A- False, they are used in Migraine.
426- Migrainous neuralgia affects males and the typical feature is pain at
night?
A- True.
427- Cleft lip with or without a palatal cleft is more common in males?
A- True.
428- Cleft palate alone is approximately twice as common in females?
A- true.
429- Cleft lip is seen in 1:1000 live births?
A- True.
430- The incidences of cleft palate of live births is the same as cleft lip?
A- false. It is 1:2000 live birth (less common than cleft lip).
431- The five years survival rate of T1N0M0 oral cancer is roughly 70-80%?
A- True.
432- The five years survival rate of T3N1M0 oral cancer is roughly 50%-
40% 30%- 20%
 A- 20%. Some research refer to it as 21% but 20 is the nearest answer.
433- An oral cancer in the border of the tongue about 3 cm in diameter, with
single palpable node, ipsilateral less than 3 cm, no evidence of distant
metastasis. What is the classification for it?
A- T2 N1 M0.
434- In the first year after treating an oral cancer, the patient should be
followed up in the hospital every 3 months?
A- False, he should be checked monthly.
435- In the second year the patient is seen at 2-3 monthly intervals?
A- True.
436- The periodontal ligament in deciduous teeth is thicker than that in
permanent teeth?
A- Right as the cementum and alveolar bone are thinner.
437- Which of the following has the best survival chance in a closed apex
permanent tooth: Lateral luxation, concussion, extrusive luxation , intrusive
luxation?
A- Concussion.
438- Which of the following has the worst survival chance in a closed apex
permanent tooth: Lateral luxation, replantation, extrusive
luxation ,subluxation?
A- Replantation.
439- After intrusive luxation for a closed apex upper incisor, the required
functional splint is 2-3 weeks?
A- false, 7-10 days only
440- blancing extraction is the removal of the contralateral tooth (in the
same arch)?
A- true.
441- Compensating extraction is the removal of the equivalent opposing
tooth?
442- Functional splint in root fracture is 2-3 weeks?
A- true.
443- A registered dental auxiliaries can extract a deciduous tooth?
A- False.
444- A registered dental therapist can extract a deciduous tooth?
A- true.
445- What is a class VI caries according to G.V Black classification?
A- Occlusal or incisal cusp tip wear.
446- A fracture cusp can be restored by using enamel pin to support the
filling?
A- False, dentinal pins are used as enamel is hard and ractured when
inserting pins.
447- A 50 years old woman attend the clinic, during examination she was
suffering pain in the left side of the shoulder, she yesterday arrived to the Uk
after long hall flight, what is the possible diagnosis?
A- Deep vein thromposis.
448- The median cleft lip happens when the nasal process fail to join the
maxillary process?
A- false, the nasal process fails to merge.
449- Lateral cleft lip occurs when the fusion between the maxillary and the
nasal process fails?
A- true.
450- Fusion of the palatal processes is complete by the twelfth week of
development?
A- true.
451- Acellular cementum covers the root adjacent to the dentine?
A- true.
452- Cellular cementum is found in the apical area overlying the acellular
cementum?
A- True.
453- - In 10% of cases the cementum and enamel fail to meet and the dentine
between them is kept exposed?
454- The cementum is thicker cervically than apically?
A- False. It is 10-15 microne cervically, comparing with 50-200 microne
apically.
455- The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve contains sensory and
motor fibres?
A- False, only sensory fibres.
456- The mandibular canine may be supplied dirctly from the inferior
alveolar nerve?
A- true.
457- Tetracycline absorption would be reduced if taken with milk,
substances containg calcium, magnesium. Iron or aluminium?
A- true.
458- Gentamicin can be used against gram positive and gram negative
organisims?
a- true.
459- Gentamicin is considred one of the aminoglycosides?
a- True.
460- Gentamicin is ototoxic and its unwanted effects include vestibular and
auditory dysfunction?
a- True.
461- Aminoglycoids (like gentamicin) are safe to use in myasthenis gravis?
A- False, they inhibit transmission at the neuromuscular junction.
462- - Metronidazole acts by inhibit the cell wall synthesis?
A- False. It inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis and promotes the degradation
of formed DNA.
463- - Pencillins inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis?
A- True.
464- Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria organisims?
A- true.
465- - Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist?
A- true.
466- No need for a follow up after a root canal treatment for a tooth?
A- false, follow up for 4 years is required as complete healing my require
considerable time.
467- A drain in the large abcess is required to keep the incision open?
A- true.
468- - Carcinoma in the tongue, the maximum diameter is more than 4 cm,
a single ipsilateral lymph node is involved with a diameter of 5 cm. No distant
metastasis. What is the TNM stage?
A- T3 N2 M0.
469- Abrasion is caused by tooth to tooth wear?
A- False, it is attrition.
470- Abrasion is the wear of tooth by physical means other than the tooth?
A- true.
471- Polymer material used to make an impression can react with the detist’s
gloves which prevent its setting?
A- true.
472- Which of the following drugs used in hypertension can cause fibrous
gengival hyperplasia: Cyclosporin, Phenytoin, Nefedipine?
 A- Nefidipine.
473- irrigation with chlorhexidine 0.2% after subgengivel instrumentation
can reduce the ubgengival flor?
A- false, no chemical effect is clinically evident, but can do mechanical
flushing.
474- Juvenile periodontitis can be seen in 1/1000 of adolescents?
A- true.
475- Immediate dentures are constructed before the extrction of the natural
teeth and inserted immediately after removal of those teeth?
A- true.
476- The dentist is the person legally responsible for a radiological
installation in the clinic?
A- false, the employer.
477- Lingual varicositis is called geographical tongue?
A- false, it is erythema migrans linguae.
478- Osteitis deformas is called paget’s disease?
A- true.
479- In paget’s disease, the maxilla is more affected than the mandible, the
vault of the skull is more affected than facila skeleton?
A- True.
480- Hyperparathyrodisim can cause peptic ulcer?
A- True.
481- Multiple keratocysts can be seen in Gorlin-Goltz syndrome?
A- True.
482- The norml thickness of the periodontl ligaments is 1-2 mm?
A- False. 0.1-0.2 mm
483- Reiter’s disease compromise arthritis, urethritis and conjunctivitis?
A- true.
484- Gout is caused by raised urea in blood?
A- false, uric acid.
485- Cortisol is produced by the adrenal medulla?
A-false, adrenal cortex.

486- Cortisol deficiency can develop hypoglycemia.

A- true.
487- The volume of urine is known as the obligatory water loss?
A- true.
488- T lymphocytes are derived from precursors that differentiated in the
thymus?
A- true.
489- Type I diabetis mellitus is an autoimmune disease in which the insulin-
producing cells of the pancreas are destroyed?
A- True.
490- Swallowing is initated with pressure receptors in the walls of the
pharynx which send afferent impulses to the esophagus?
A- false, the afferent impulses go to the medulla oblongata.
491- Hyerthyrodism can cause hyperresponsiveness to epinephrine which
increase the heart rate?
A- True.
492- Cholesterol is the precursor of all steroid hormons?
A- True.
493- Aldosterons is secreted from the Adrenal Cortex?
A- True.
494- Aldosterone is known as the mineralcorticoid because its effect are on
salt balance?
A- True.
495- 52% of 5 years old children had erosion on the palatal surfaces of their
primary incisors?
A- true.
496- The professional conduct committee consists of a president and 10
other members of council ( 5 elected and 2 lay members).?
A- true.
497- Removable appliances in orthodontics are preferable in arch
expansion and to produce overbite reduction?
A- true.
498- in adams clasps use 0.6 mm wire in the permanent molar region?
A- Fales, 0.7 mm wire for permanent molars, and 0.6mm for premolars
and deciduous teeth.
499- Functional appliances are more effective in the 12 years in girls and 14
years in boys?
A- True , as these are the time for growth spurts.
500- Hepatitis B is assessed by the HSsAg test?
A- True.
501- Negative HSsAg are chronic healthy carriers?
 A- true.
502- A partial denture clasp made of cast cobalt chromium can be
circumferential, gengivally or occlusally approaching?
A- True.
503- Freeway space is the difference between test free height and occlusal
free height?
A- True.
504- Localised aggressive periodontitis is a heritable trait?
A- True.
505- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans is the organism implicated in
localised aggressive periodontitis?
A- True.
506- The inner surfeace of the lips is covered with stratified squamous epithelium?
A- True.
507- The finely wrinkled form in the mucous membrane at rest allow
stretching when active?
A- True.
508- The parotid openinig is located in the second upper premolar region?
A- False, second upper molar region.
509- Fordyce’s spots are minor salivary glands?
A- False. They are sebaceous glands.
510- Fordyce’s spots are normal yellowish featrure in the oral mucosa, and
nothing to be ancious about?
A- true.
511- Fraenal attachements are tendons of muscles in the oral mucosa?
A- False, they are mucous membrane separated by a thin little fibrous tissue, they
do not contain muscles.
512- Fraenal attachements require routinely surgical removal?
A- False, only when interfer with posthetics, midline diastema or obstruct the
removal of plaque causing periodontal diseases.
513- A tongue tie is caused by a short and tight midline fraenum binding down the
tip of the tongue?
A- True.
514- The undersurface of the tongue is covered by stratified epithelium?
A- False, Squamous epithelium.
515- The terminal sulcus divides the buccal and lingual sulci of the oral mucosa?
 A- False. It is located on the dorsal surface of the tongue, dividing the anterior
two thirds from the posterior third.
516- The terminal sulcus is a U shape?
A- False, V shape.
517- Circumvallate papillae are large mushroom-shaped anterior to the terminal
sulcus?
A- True.
518- The larger cicumvallate papillae are nearer to the midline?
A- True.
519- The filiform papillae are hair-like non keratinised papillae?
A- False, they are keratinised hair-like papillae.
520- The fungiform papillae are red in colour and have taste buds?
A- True.
521- The fungiform papillae have a thinner coating than other papillae?
A- True.
522- Lingual tonsil is the total sum of lymphoid tissue in the posterior third of the
tongue?
A- True.
523- The posterior third of the tongue is covered with lingual follicles, which coat
the lymphoid tissues and surrounded by shallow furrows?
A- True.
524- The hard palate is covered by keratinised epithelium?
A- True.
525-The incisive papilla is an oval prominance located in the midline behind the
upper central incisors?
A- True.
526-The incisive papilla is a useful mark when anaesthetise the naso-palatine nerve?
A- True.

527-The palatal rugae is a wrinkled disease of the palatal mucosa?

A- False, it is a normal feature appears as roughly parallel irregular folds of
mucoperiosteum.
528- The soft palate is covered by stratified squamous epithelium?
A- True.
529-The ridge of passavant is a functional thickening of the superior constrictor
muscle aids production of airtight seal?
A-True.
530- The uvula is a termination of short muscular projection which has no job?
A- False, it reulates the flow of air thorough mouth and nose.
531-The pharyngeal tonsil is a ring of lymphoid tissues?
A- True.
532-The perikymata is commonly seen in recently erupted teeth?
A- True.
533- Perikymata are vertical ridges?
A- False, they are horizontal and run parallel to the incisal edge.
534-Maxillary teeth usually erupt before mandibular teeth?
A- False, the mandibular first.
535-The main fuction of the pulp is to transmit sensory feeling from the tooth to the
nervous system?
A- False, its main function is to produce dentine. It has a sensory role.
536-Boys can show delayed eruption comparing with girls?
A-True.
537-What is the pulp dentine complex?
A-Pulp tissue, odontoblasts and dentine.
538-Dentine is not permeable?
A- False, it is permeable. The production of sclerotic dentine can limits the
diffusion.
539-Dentine tubles make up 20-30% of the total volume of human dentine?
A-True.
540-Mineral deposits in the tubles make sclerotic dentine?
A-True.
541-What are portals of exit?
A-They are apical, lateral and furcal communication between the pulp and the
periodontal ligament.
542-Accessory canals are created from a break in the sheath of Hertwig?
A-True, or the sheath grows arround excisting blood vesels.
543-How many types of nerves in the pulp?
A-Two types. A Type, C Tyae.
544-The two types A and C are myelinated?
A- False, A are myelinated, C are unmyelinated.
545-90% of the A fibres are A-delta?
A-True.
546-A fibres are located mainly in the pulp dentine junction?
A-True.
547-A fibres are with high threshold?
A-False, they are with low threshold and produce sharp rsponse.
548-C fibres which distribte through out the pulp have a high threshold?
A-True.
549-A fibres respond to injury more than C fibres?
A-false, C fibres response is more severe thn A-delta fibres.
550-In pulp necrsosis, nerve fibres lose their ability to respond completely?
A-False. C fibres may still be able to respond to stimulation.
551-Painful pulpitis is associated with A, or C fibres?
A- C fibres, and a dull, aching poorly localised pain.
552-Fill in these words in the spaces: non - keratinised – cemento-enamel junction
– the gingival groove – the mucogingival line
A-The gingival tissue runs from (the mucogengival line) which marks the
boundary with the non-keratinised buccal mucosa. The gengia in the palate is
contious with the keratinised, (non)mobile palatal mucosa. The surface of
gingiva is (Keratinised) and may exhibit an orange peel appearance.In healthy
gengiva the free gengival margins covers the (cemento-enamel junction). The
(gengival groove) distinguish the free gengival margins from the attached
gengiva.
553-The transeptal fibres in the gengiva run from the cervical cementum towards
the free gengiva?
A – False they run from the cervical cementum on the distal side of one root to
the cementum on the mesial aspect of the next tooth.
554-Circular fibres run arround the tooth holding the free gengiva tightly against it?
A- True.
555-Which of these originates from the cementum of the cervical part towards the
free gengiva: Vertical fibres, Circular fibres, gengival fibres?
A- Gengival fibres.
556-The junctuional epithelium is 15-30 cells thick?
A- True.
557-The junctuional epithelium has a higher turn over rate than the oral epithelium?
A- True, its turn over rate 4-6 days comparing with 6-12 days in th oral
epithelium.
558-The junctional epithelium has a non-keratinised cells with wide intercellular
space?
A-True.
559-The junctional epithelium is attached to enamel by a basal lamina and
intercellular hemidesmosomes?
A-True.
560-The junctional epithelium is permeable. Toxins and antigens can pass through
it?
A- True.
561-In a clinically non-inflamed gengiva, the JE is clear from white blood cells?
A-False, polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNs) move through it to the sulcus
as part of a defence mechanisim, even in healthy gengiva.
562-Interstitial fibres in the periodontal ligament holds the tooth in socket?
A-False, they support blood vesels and nerves.
563-The principal fibres in the periodontal ligament are more dense than interstitial
fibres?
A-True.
564-Principal fibres run from cementum to bone holding the tooth firmly in the
socket?
A-True.
565-The JE cells are thicker coronally than apically?
A- True.
566-Intestitial fibres are called sharpey’s fibres?
A- False, they are the principal fibres.
567-Sharpey’s fibres run in 5 directions: crestally, apically, horizontally, obliquely
and interradicularly?
A- True.
568-The lamina dura appears as a dark thin line on X- Ray?
A-False, it appears as a white line arround the teeth indicating low rate of turn
over in the bone.
569-The cementum could be cellular or acellular?
A-True.
570-The first formed cementum is the acellular one?
A-True, and the cellular forms later.
571-Cementum is a static tissue like enamel?
A- False, it responds to the functional requirements of teeth.
572-Cementum can increase in thickness by cementoblasts deposit more layers on
root surface?
A- True.
573-Alveolar bone consits of cancellous bone between two layers ( outer and inner)
of cortical plates?
A-True.
574-Volkmann’s canals pierce the lamina dura which is referred to as cribiform
plate?
A- True.
575-The apical depostion of cementum help to compensate occlusal wear during
fuctional life?
A-True.
576- Tooth movement can happen by bone resorbing on the side of movement by
ostoclasts, and bone deposition on the opposite side by osteoblasts?
A- True.
577-What score is bleeding on probing only in the basic periodontal examination?
A- 1
578-What score in the BPE if you have probing depth of 3.5-5.5 mm?
A-3.
579-What the Smith and Knight index for?
A-It scores the tooth surface loss.
580-What is score 2 in the BPE?
A- Plaque retentive factor. (calculus, overhang)
581-Score 2 in the BPE requires OHI (Oral and Hygiene Instructions) only?
A-False, removal of the retentive factor as well.
582-What score 3 in the Smith and Knight index for incisal edge fracture?
A-Enamel loss+substantial dentine loss but no pulp exposure.
583-Heat is preferable in thermal vitality test for the tooth?
A-false, cold in preferred.
584-Gingive artefacta is a type of acute traumatic gingivitis which is deliberately
caused by the patient?
A-True.
585-Lack of lip seal and mouth breathing can cause traumatic gingivitis?
A-False, palatal acute gingivitis.
586--Cinnamonaldehyde toothpaste can cause Acute necrotising Ulcerative
Gingivitis?
A- false, Allergic gingivitis, because of Hypersensitivity reaction.
587-Interdental ulcers, yellowish pseudomembrane, pain, easily bleed gingive and
halitosis are feature to Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis?
A-True.
588-Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis usually affects the elderly people?
A-False, usually age group is 18-30 years old.
589-Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis (ANUG) can affect immunodeficient
group?
A-true, like HIV patients.
590-Bacillus fusiformis and Borrelia Vincentii are the most common organisms in
Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis?
A-True.
591-Herpes simplex virus type I usually occurs in childhood?
A-True.
592-Adolescents and adults are mainly affected by type II of Herpes Simplex Virus?
A-True.
593-Chronic desquamative gingivitis can be associated with skin lichen planus?
A-true.
594-Juvenile periodontitis is the commonist type of periodontitis?
A-False, Adult periodontitis.
595-Prepubertal periodontitis is often caue rapid destruction of the alveolar bone
and sometimes gingival recession?
A-True.
596-The most incidences of Prepubertal periodontitis occurs during the eruption of
permanent teeth?
A-True.
597-Which of these diseases are associated with prepubertal periodontitis:
Insulin-dependent diabetes- Chediak-Higashi syndrome-Leukaemias- all of the
previous
A- All of the previous.
598-The periodontal lesion in Juvenile periodontitis is located arround the first
premolars?
A- false, First molars and incisors.
599-Poor oral hygiene is the main cause of juvenile periodontitis?
A-False, it could be seen in patients with excellent oral hygiene.
600-Juvenile periodontitis is an autosomal recessive genetic trait?
A-True.
601-Streptococcus aureas is the main organisim in Juvenile periodontitis?
A-False. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans and Capnocytophaga.
602-Lidocaine gel, benzondynamic hydrochloride 0.15 % solution are good to
control pain and symptoms of Acute necrotising gingivitis?
 A-true.
603-Benzondynamic hydrochloride 0.15 % solution can be safetly used in a ten
years old child?
A-False, not suitable for under 12 years old.
604-Metronidazol 200 mg/three times a day is the preferable drug in ANUG?
A-True.
605-It is indicated to carry out blood and serum folate, B12 and iron binding
capacity tests in prepubertal periodontitis?
A-True.
606-For refractory periodontitis the recommended drug is Pencillin 500 mg/ four
time a day for a week?
A-False. Tetracycline 250mg/four times a day for 3 weeks.
607-Refractory periodontitis can be treated with metronidazole, amoxcycilline or
both?
A-True. Metronidazole 200mg/four times a day for 2 weeks, Amoxycilline 250
mg/four times a day for 2 weeks.
608-The filliform paplillae are more numerous than the fungi form papillae?
A-True.
609-The fungi form papillae are more red in colour and contain taste buds?
A-True.
610-The anatomical corw protrudes beyond the gingival margins into the patient’s
mouth?
A-False. This is the clinical crown, while the anatomical one ends at the cervical
line.
611-A tubercle is an external formation of enamel and dentine on the crow?
A-True.
612-The tubercle of Zuckerkandl is located lingually on the upper first molar?
A-False, it is located buccally on deciduous first molars.
613-The tubercle of Carabelli is located lingually on the upper first molar?
A-True.
614-Mamelons are seen on the incisal edges of newly erupted anterior teeth and
wear away withen two years of eruption?
A-True.
615-A facet is a small, smooth, flat surface on the occlusal aspect of the crown
indicating an abnormal pattern of wear on the enamel ?
A-True.
616Perikymata are commonly seen as horizontal ridges running parallel to the
incisal edge in recently erupted teeth. They quite often affect the whole labial
surface of the crown?
A-True.
617-Put the right order for primary teeth appearance in the mouth: First molars,
central incisors, canines, second molars, lateral incisors
A-1- Central incisors, 2- Lateral incisors, 3- First molars, 4- Canines,5- Second
molars.

618-in 1660, Robert Hooke using a crude compound microscope was the fisrt
person to see cells?
A-True.
619-Antonio Van Leeuwenhok, after Robert Hooke of several years, used a single
lens microscope to see a micro-organism?
A-True.
620-Louis Pasteur discovered Pencillin?
A-False. It was Alexander Fleming in 1928.
621-Loius pasteur is considered the father of microbiology?
A-True. He discovered the theory of spontaneous generation.
622-Robert Koch discribed the Gram theory of diseases?
A-True.
623-Elie Metchnikoff described phagocytosis?
A-True.
624-Joseph Lister described the concept of humoral immunity?
A-Fasle. He was the first to use antiseptic in surgery.
625-Paul Ehrlich described the concept of humoral immunity?
A-True.
626-Prokaryotic cells are small and have no internal membrane to bound structures?
A-True.
627-Prokaryotic cells are > 5 microne?
A-False,they are < 5 micorne.
628-Eukaryotic cells are > 5 microne?
A-True.
629-Eukaryotics are complex and have Endoplasmic, reticulum and Golgi apparatus?
A-True.
630-Prokaryotics are simple and have circular double-stranded chromosome, with
no nuclear membrane?
 A-True.
631-The main group of micro-organisms are bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and algae?
A-True. Protozoa are animal bacterial and aglae are plants bacteria.

632-Halophilic bacteria are important in high salts invironment in nature and in

food soilage of salted food?
A-true.
633-Fungi are considered prokaryotes?
A-False. They are Eukaryotes.
634-Christian Gram ( a Danish microbilogist) in 1880s introduced the division of
Gram positive and Gram nefative bactria by means of Gram stain?
A-True.
635-Gram + bacteria have a relatively a thick amorphous wall, which retains the
fixed violet dye within the cell?
A-True.
636-Gram – bacteria have two membrane, the inner (cytoplasmic membrane) and
outer membrane?
A-True.
637-Gram – bacteria stain during process by capturing the stain between the
membranes?
A-False. The stain is wahed out the Gram – as the process disrupts the
membranous envelope.
638-Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria?
A-True.
639-Streptococci are clusters of cocci?
A-False, they are chains of cocci.
640-Staphylococci are clusters of cocci?
A-True.
641-Mycobactrium cannot be considered as Gram + or Gram-, and they stain with
Ziehl-Neelsen stain?
A-True. They have a waxy envelope containing complex glycolipids, which
renders them impervious to the Gram stain.
642-The cytoplasmic membrane in the bacteria is highly permeable membrane?
A-False. It is a semi-permeable membrane and osmosis takes place across it.
643-The osmotic pressure inside the bacterial cell is higher than the outside?
A-True. And the membrane withhold the extreme osmotic pressure.
 644-Many Gram positive bacteria have proteins prependicular to the outer
surface of the wall?
A-true. They are involved in adhesion.
645-Gram + bacteria cell membrane have two major polymer: peptidoglycan and
teichoic acid?
A-True.
646-The gram – bacteria have a cell envelope (layers) rather than membrane?
A-true.
647-Gram – bacteria have phspholipids in its envelope?
A-True.
648-Gram – bacteria have proteins in the inner layer?
A-False. In the outer layer, and some of the Outer Membrane Proteins (OMPs)
form trasmembrane diffusin channels and are termed porins.
649-Peptidoglycan is the major structural molecule in the bacterial cell envelope?
A-True.
650-Gram negative bacteria have more peptidoglycan in their walls than gram
positive bacteria?
A-False.
651-Chlamydia ssp has no peptidoglycan in their walls?
A-True. They have protein cross linked bridges giving them more strength.
652-Lipopolysaccharides LPS are found in the outer membrane of gram negative
bacteria?
A-True. It is essential structure in Gram – bacteria.
653-LPS in Gram – bacteria is positively charged?
A-False. Negatively charged.
654-Gram – and Gram + bacteria have a capsule?
A-True. It is a gel like layer outside the envelope.
655-The capsule is firmly attached to the envelope?
A-False. It forms a slime which is released to the surrounding areas.
656-The capsule is polysaccharides in nature?
A-True.
657-The capsule in Bacillus spp is poly-amino acids.
A-True.

658-The capsule in bacillus anthracis (which causes anthrax) is a poly (D-

Glutamic acid).
 A-True. And it is negatively charged.
659-The capsule is invesible and can be seen by using indian ink?
A-True.
660-Bacteria capsule have no functions, not as the bacteria walls?
A-False, it involve in adhesion to surfaces (plaque), and protection from immune
system.
661-Bacteria surface may have flagellae and fimbriae?
A-True, flagellae are for motility, and fimbriae are for adhesion.
662-The main part of the flagellum is peptide?
A-False. It is protein subunit (flagellin) arranged arround a central core making
the filament.
663-The monotchous, Lophotrichous and peritrichous are for a single or bundle or
full surface filaments respectivelly?
A-True.
664-Fimbriae are appendages which are found in Gram – Bacteria not Gram +?
A-True. Gram + may have fine fibrillae of protein of their surfaces.
665-The appendages which connect mating cells are called pilus?
A-True.
666-Spore-forming bacteria is highly resistant to chemical and heat sterlisation?
A-True.
667-Mycobacterium leprae causes leprosy.
A-True.
668-Syphilis streptococci causes syphilis?
A-False. It is Treponema pallidium.
669-Sporulation is found in aerobic Bacillus spp and anaerobic clostridium spp?
A-True.
670-Bacteria can produce energy by phosphorylation of adenosin diphosphate?
A-True. Adenosin-p-p+energy+p= Adenosine-p-p-p
671-Aerobic bacteria can produce energy by fermentation?
A-False. Anaerobic bacteria. If the final product was fatty acids, this makes a
foul smell characteristic to anaerobic bactera.
672-Bacteria growth is a binary fission?
A-True. Once they reach a certain length, they undergo cell division to produce
two daughter cells.
673-The loss of the anterior teeth can cause a sunken appearanceof the cheeks?
A-False, the loss of the poterior teeth cause this.
674-Partial denture can cause mechanical damage to teeth by torquing forces and ill
fitting clasps or denture base?
A-True.
675-To increase fitting of partial denture, extend them beyond funcionally justified
areas?
A-False, this will affect their fitting.
676-At least a 3 mm should be left between the denture and the gingiva whenever
possible?
A-True.
677-The load is the weight or forces to be acted upon in partial dentures?
A-True.
678-The effort is the weight or forces required to cause the action?
A-True.
679-The fulcrum is the pivot about which these forces act?
A-True.
680-The effort X the distance from furculum= the load X distance from the furculum.
A-True.
681-When the effort is greater than load in partial dentures it becomes a
disadvantage?
A-True.
682-It is disadvantageous when the load is further away from furculum, as the effort
needed to stabilise the denture would be increased?
A-True. The furculum is better when closer to the load.
683-The clasps play the effort job while the load is caused by biting forces?
A-True.
684-Class I Kennedy classification of partial denture design is a Unilateral free-end?
A-False. It is a Bilateral free-end.
685-Class II Kennedy classification of partial denture design is a Unilateral free-
end?
A-True.
686-Class III Kennedy classification of partial denture design is a Unilateral
bounded?
A-true.
689-Class IV Kennedy classification of partial denture design is an Anterior
( crossing the midline)?
A-True.
690-A bounded sadle is the area where the tooth or teeth missing but there is
abutment tooth at each end?
A-True.
691-Partial dentures can be classified according to the support available?
A-True.
692-Class I when the denture is supported by tissues?
A-False. When supported by teeth.
693-Class II when the denture is supported by tissues?
A-True.
694-Class III when the denture is supported by teeth and tissues?
A-True.
695-third molars are frequently ignored in design discussion?
A-True. Unless they have a direct use.
696-If there is more than one edentulous saddle present in the arch the most posterior
saddle present defines the basic classification of the arch?
A-true.

697-Class IV kennedy cannot have any modifications?

A-True, if another saddle is present it would be the posterior one and this change
the classification into I or II or III.
698-Cast surveying is drawing a survey line in the widest part in the horizontal plane,
the area below it is called the undercut area?
A-True.
699-The tissue support base must be brought above the survey line for retention?
A-False, this will cause a lateral force at teeth during downwards movements,
which will casuse base fracture.
700-The tissue supported base should be made as wide as the minium distance
between tetth only?
A-True, as a denture base made to a width between the gingival margins (necks
of teeth) would notgo into place (under cut area).
701-The undercut areas are between the survey line and the gingival margins(necks
of teeth).
A-True.
701-The final third part of the clasp in the flexible and the retntive part?
A-True.
703-The final third part of the clasp have to cross the survey line to be retentive?
A-True.
704-Undercuts are always in the vertical plane?
A-False, they are in the horizontal plane too.
705-Cobalt chromium alloy is more flexible than stainless steel wrought wire?
A-False. They only can employee a horizontal depth of 0.25 mm comparing with
0.75 mm for stainless steel.
706-Gold alloy clasps can employee a horizontal depth of 0.5 mm?
A-true.
707-The thicker part of the clasp gives bracing action against lateral thrusts?
A-true.
708-The cast should be surveyed horizontally first?
A-True, to find out the undercuts which can be used to resist movements in the
path of displacement.
709-Tilting the cast and survey it again is essential to find the path of insertion and
removal?
A-True.
710-The tip of the clasp should be placed in a compined area between the horizontal
survey and the titled survey lines?
A-True, to resist movement in both the paths of displacement and
insertion/removal.
711-The tip of the clasp arm should be placed close to the horizontal line of survey
as much as possible?
A-False, the deeper it is in relation to the horizontal line the more resistant it
would be to diplacemet during function, although there is a risk of distortion to
the clasp arm in vertical functions.
712-A double surveying is not always necessary and sometimes it is bad?
A-true, as it creates a problem for retention by producing a zone of displacement.
713-Undercuts areas in the path of insertion/removal are the same for displacement
of the denture?
A-False, the may be or may not the same.
714-The path of insertion is helpful aesthetic and retentive purposes?
A-True.
715-Undercuts can be in the soft tissues?
A-true, and should be removed if large.

716-Undecuts in tissues can be solved by slipping the denture in an angle?

A-true.
717-A healthy tooth can withstand its own occlusal loading plus that of one and a
half similar tooth?
A-true.
718-A small rea of the soft tissues should be used if to provide support to the denture?
A-False, cover the greatest possible area.
719-Occlusal rests in denture are made of acrelic?
A-False, they are usually made of metal.
720-The occlusal rest must be less than 0.5 mm thick, not to interfer with the
occlusion?
A-true.
721-The occlusal rests should be designed to transfer occlusal and torque forces?
A-False. Only occlusal forces applied down the long axis of the tooth, with no
torque.

722-A feather edge is used in the gingival preparation for a composite veneer?
A-True.
723-When doing ceramic veneers, the incisal edge is better to be prepared
too?
A-False. When possible avoid covering the incisal edge since this probably
produces a stronger restoration.
724-Ceramic veneers require less enamel to be removed from the crown
than full ceramic crowns?
A-True.
725-Pin-retained amalgam restorations or gold inlays are good alternatives
to crowns in largely destroyed teeth, or cusps?
A-True.
726-Highly restored teeth are always justified for crowns?
A-False. You cannot predict which teeth may crack and you can use other
alternative cost-effective measures.
727-MOD amalgam restorations can be replaced by the layer restorations
( glass inomer to replace dentine and the cusps are covered with acid
etching composite)?
A-True.

728-The safest months of pregnancy to establish a dental surgery is the last

three months ( 7-8-9)?
 A-False. The second trimester is the safest.
729-Halothane is contraindicated for GA in cases of jaundice or liver
disorders?
A-True. It can cause halothane hepatitis.
730-A medical history can be taken once and kept in the patient’s records?
A-False. It should be updated before every general anaesthesia and sedation as
20% of patients develop a medical condition (mostly cardiovascular) every five
years.
731-MCV is the mean corpuscular volume, increases in macrocytosis,
hypothyroidism, alcoholism, and liver diseases?
A-True, it decreases in iron deficiency and thalassaemia (microcytosis).
732-Mean cell haemoglobin concentration level is 32-36 g/dl?
A-True. It increases in pernicious anaemia and decreases in iron deficiency.
733-Eosinophils levels increase in immune defects?
A-False, this decreases the levels but allergic disease, skin diseases and
lymphoma increases the levels.
734-Prostatic malignancies and renal diseases increase the acid phosphate normal
levels (0-13IU/L) in blood?
A-True.
735-Which is the preferred antifungal treatment via gastrointestinal tract,:
A-Fluconazole. miconazole, nystatin or Amphotericin
A-Fluconazole. But miconazole, nystatin and Amphotericin are topical use only.
736-For patients with learning disabilities, two professionals must sign the consent
form for the best interest of the patient?
A-True.
737-Bisulphite is used as a preservative for vasoconstrictors?
A-True.
738-Lignocaine is an amid local anaesthesia which is used plain or by using
adrenaline as a vasoconstrictor?
A-True. 2% plain or 2% +1/80000 adrenaline.
739-When GA is contraindicated for pulmonary obstructions, the alternative is
sedation?
A-False. Sedation is also contraindicated in pulmonary diseases.
740-In sedation, the practitioner should be trained to do so with another person
present with the minimum requirements to assist in emergencies?
A-True.
741-A fit healthy patient had a tooth extraction. After 2 hours he had a persist
bleeding in the socket what do you do:
A-Attend the emergency clinic. 2- Come back to you. 3- Bite on a clean
cotton wool for 15-30 minutes. 4- Do nothing
A- 3, apply pressure via a cotton wool or a clean handkerchief at the socket
would stop the bleeding which happened because the clot was disturbed in the socket.
742-A-80% of lignocaine binds in plasma to Alpha-1-Acid Glycoprotein?
A-True.

743-Leukoedema is a translucent whitening of the oral mucosa, fades on stretching?

A-True.
744-Leukoedema is a characteristic of systemic disease?
A-False, it is a normal anatomical structure specially in black race.
745-Fordyce spots, cream coloured occasionally prominent and very numerous?
A-True.
746-Koilonychia (nails abnormalities) suggest a long standing anaemia?
A-True.
747-Clubbing fingers are not a crucial sign, this is just a sign of cold fingers?
A-False. It might be associated with chronic respiratory or cardiac disease
(including infective carditis), and sometimes remote malignancy.
748-Papilloma-lefever syndrome (includes juvenile periodontitis) might be
associated with Palmer-planter keratosis?
A-True.
749-Hypoplastic nails are of no oral significance?
A-False. This might be associated with inherited epithelial disorders, including
ectodermal dysplasia and dyskeratosis congenital.
750-What is Raynaud’s phenomenon?
A-It is thin, skinny and white skin of fingers (periodic ischemia resulting from
exposure to cold).
751-Raynaud’s syndrome can be seen in some autoimmune diseases such as
Sjogren’s syndrome and systemic sclerosis?
A-True.
752-What is the preferable way to examine plyomorphic adenoma? 1- Incisional
piobsy, 2- FNA 3- Examine after excision
A-3, although 2 can be used as well, but because these parotid glands tumours tend
to seed if incisioned, examine after excisional removal with surrounding tissues.
753-Exfoliative cytology is another reliable technique to examine malignant
tumours?
A-False. It only examines the surface layer and provides no information of
deeper surfaces. (frequent false positive or false negative results).
754-What indications for the use of exfoliative cytology?
A-Virally damaged cells, acantholytic cells of pemphigus or candidal hyphe.
755- Needle/core biopsy uses the same needle technique in Fine Needle Aspiration
(FNA)?
A-False, the needle used here is 2mm diameter to remove a core of tissues, while in
FNA the needle used is small 21 gauge.
756-The diagnosis in needle/ core biopsy is more definitive than FNA?
A-True, as the sample is larger, preserving the sample architecture.
757-FNA does not seed tumours while this is possible with needle/core biopsy?
A-True.
758-Liquid nitrogen is used in frozen section?
A-True, it gives -70 C temperature.
759-GA or local anaesthesia are required for exfoliative cytology?
A-False. GA or LA are not required.
760-The fixative solution for specimen is normal saline 10%?#
A-False. Formal saline 10% ( formaldehyde solution in normal saline or a neutral
ph buffer).
761-The fixation solution volume should be the size of the specimen?
A-False, specimens should be put in 10 times their volume of fixation solution
as the fixation is weekend with the process.
762-Haematoxylin is a blue-black basic dye, eosin is a red acid dye?
A-True.
763-Silver staining is useful to identify carbohydrates?
A-False. It is used to identify fungi.
764-Periodic acid-Shciff (PAS) stain is used to stain carbohydrates and mucinous
substances pink?
A-True.
765-Some malignant neoplasm have a genetic abnormalities?
A-True. Mostly chromosomal translocation which can be detected by
cytogenetics.
766-In pemphigoid, fluorescence reveal IgG antibodies bound along the basement
of the membrane?
A-True.
767-Recurrent candidosis and recurrent apthus stomatitis can be associated with
folate deficiency?
A-True.
768-A rising titre of specific antibody indicates active infection by the virus?
A-True.
769-What is the method of choice to detect sarcoidosis?
A-Serum angiotensin converting enzyme.
770-Only skeletal serum alkaline phosphate can be used to detect paget’s disease
and hyperparathyroidism?
A-False. You can use serum calcium phosphate and parathormone levels as the
serum alkaline phosphate.
771-What is ELISA?
A-Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay.
772-Haemoglobin level in males is 13-17 g/L?
A-False. It is 13-17 g/dL.
773-Haemoglobin level in females is 11.5-16 g/dL?
A-True.
774-Haematocrit levels is 34-47 1/1 ales and females?
A-False. In males it is 40-5- 1/1, and in females it is 34-47 1/1
775-Anhirotic ectodermal dysplasia is featured by hypodontia which mainly affects
deciduous teeth?
A-False. Permanent teeth are mainly affected. Deciduous teeth are mostly there.
776-Anhirotic ectodermal dysplasia is a hereditary disease?
A-True. It is usually sex linked recessive trait.
777-Hypodontia, anhydrosis(inability to sweat) hypotrichosis (scanty few hair) are
the main features of Anhirotic ectodermal dysplasia?
A-True. And the present teeth are conical in shape ( dracola-like appearance).
778-Down’ syndrome is associated by hyperdotia?
A-False. Hypodontia specially third molars.
779-Hyperdontia is associated by cledocranial dysplasia?
A-True. Many are developed but fail to erupt.
780-In cretinisim and rickets there is a delay in teeth eruption?
A-True.
781-Hereditary gingival fibromatosis can delay eruption of teeth?
A-True.
782-Turner teeth (permanent teeth) is a damage caused by infection of the
predecessor?
 A-True.
783-Amelogenesis imperfecta is an autosomal, recessive X linked trait?
A-True.
784-Amelogenesis imperfecta is caused by mutation in AMEL X gene which
encodes for ameloblastin?
A-True.
785-The chromosome 4q21 maps enamelin, and is defective in amelogenesis
imperfecta?
A-True.
786-Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta has a normal matrix and the enamel is
chalky in appearance?
A-False. The matrix is defective, the enamel is randomly pitted, very thin,
grooved, but hard and translucent.
787-Hypomaturation amelogenesis imperfecta, the enamel is opaque, white to
brownish-yellow, but the enamel is normal?
A-True.
788-Hypocalcified amelogenesis imperfecta, the enamel matrix is normal and
normal thickness, but weak and opaque chalky enamel?
A-True.
789-Hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta is X-linked, and females are more
affected?
A-False. In females the enamel is ridged, but in males it is completely fails to
form.
790-Dentinogensis imperfecta is a defect in type 1 collagen?
A-True. It is caused by defect in genes COL1A1, COL 1A2 which prevent
polymerisation into type 1 collagen.
791-Types III and IV of osteogenesis imperfecta are associated in 80% with
dentinogenesis imperfecta?
A-True.
792-The dentine is normal but the weakly attached to the enamel?
A-False. In dentiongenesis imperfecta, the dentine has high water content and
week. The enamel in weekly attached to dentine so it is chipped off quickly, the
dentine worn down to the gingiva.
793-Regional odontoplasia (ghost teeth) affects mainly mandibular teeth?
A-False. It affects the maxillary teeth more.
794-Only primary dentition is affected?
A-False, either or both dentitions are affected. Mostly two quadrants.
795-Normally affected teeth fail to erupt but with those who erupt the enamel is
normal and the dentine is defected?
A-False. The enamel is this, irregular and lacks the prismatic structure; dentine
is disorganised, irregular and contains interglobular dentine mixed with
amorphous tissues.
796-Gardner’s syndrome is associated with multiple pulp stones?
A-False, this is in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome ( floppy joints).
797-Gardner’s syndrome is associated with multiple colonic polyps which have a
100% frequency of malignant formation?
A-True. And familial adenomatous polyposis is caused by the same gene
mutation ( APC tumour suppressor gene) which causes gardener’s syndrome.
798-Orally, impacted teeth, supernumerary, missing teeth or abnormal root
formation are seen in gardener’s syndrome?
A-True.
799-Pitted, uneven enamel is seen in Epidermolyis bullosa?
A-True. And amelodentinal junction is smooth.
800-Normal eruption consequence is seen in Epidermolyis bullosa?
A-False. The eruption is delayed, or failed.
801-Syphilis is caused by Treponema palladium?
A-True. It causes infection in the dental follicle.
802-Moon’s molars, Hutchinsons incisors, anterior open bite are defects caused by
congenital syphilis?
A-True.
803-The injection of cocaine to block the ID nerve was first reported in 1884@
A-True.
804-The X-Ray was discovered by Rontgen in 1895?
A-True.
805-Lignocaine was the first synthetic local anaesthetic?
A-False. It was procaine in around 1904.
806-Extensive dentine formation in patients receiving corticosteroids can cause
narrowing of pulp chambers and root canals?
A-True.
807-Prophylaxic antibiotics should be routinely given to patients with risk of
infective endocarditis receiving endodontic treatment?
A-False they are recommended in acute periapical infection or supporting
marginal periodontitis.
808-No need for prophylaxis antibiotic cover for patients with prothetic hip joints?
 A-True.
809-The INR required for patients under warfarin cover is 3.5-4.5 while in normal
patients is 2.5?
A-True.
810-In patients who were under steroids treatment, there is no need for extra
measurements when applying endodontics?
A-False. Steroids given in doses of 7.5 mg a day for a month, or high doses like
40 mg a day for a week, need to be covered by steroids prior to treatment. They
may suffer adreno-cortical suppression.
811-What are the regimes required to cover patients who had steroids treatments?
A-Two regimes;
First: double the daily dose one day prior and one day post the treatment day.
Second: 100 mg hydrocortisone orally 1 hour before the treatment.
812-Inhaled steroids can cause no problems for such patients?
A-False, fluticasone can cause adrenal suppression.
813-Pethidine tablets can be used for severe in endodontic treatment?
A-True, and the required dose is 25mg 2-4 tablets every 4 hours.
814-Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be used in sever pain too?
A-False, only in mild to moderate pain.
815-Dihydrocodiene tablets, 30 mg every 4-6 hours can be used in moderate to sever
pain?
A-True.
816-Augmentine is a compined Amoxucellin 250mg and clavulanic acid 125mg?
A-True.
817-Patients with high risk of endocarditis, are better covered with 3 g Amoxycillin
orally, 1 hour before the treatment, or clindamycin 600 mg orally?
A-True.
818-Clindamycine regime must be repeated in one week?
A-False. This dose should not be repeated in intervals of less than two weeks.
819-Amoxycilline regime can be safely repeated in one month?
A-True, it can be used twice withen one month but should not be repeated in 3-
4 months.
820-The maximum safe dose of paracetamol is 4 g a day?
A-True, above this there is a risk of fatal lever damage.

821-Bitewings radiographs are used to detect occlusal caries?

 A-False. They are more effective in approximal surfaces. Although they can
detect occlusal caries if they are large and extend into the middle third of the
dentine.
822-When approaching a non vital tooth it is better to test vitality for the approximal
teeth?
A-True. Even if there is a sinus connected to that tooth.
823-Zinc oxide and eugenol pastes are used in temporary restorations with no load
on the occlusal surfaces?
A-True.
824- Zinc oxide and eugenol pastes are bactericidal?
A-True.
825-Self-setting zinc oxide cements can be used for permanent restoration?
A-False, they are not hard enough.
826-To restore a broken down tooth to apply a rubber dam use polycarboxylate
cement?
A-True, it is hard, durable and adhesive to enamel and dentine.
827-Glass ionomer cement is hard durable, adhesive to enamel and dentine, and
because of good appearance it is useful in anterior teeth?
A-True.
828-Caries dyes stain denatured collagen and matrix of dentine, they stain
uninfected dentine?
A-True.
829-A 44 years old man from the African origin attends the clinic complaining from
a unilocular expansion in the right mandible. Radiographic photos revealed a
multilocular radiolucencies in the area. Teeth were vital and no signs of resorption.
Choose which is the best diagnosis: A- Keratocyst, B- Amelobastoma, C- A giant
cell lesion, D- Radicular cyst, E- Odontogeniv tumour
A-Ameloblastome.
830-Ameloblastomas in the histological examination appear as islands of epithelium
separated by pink collagenous bands.
A-True, and each island have a prominent outer layer of basal cells, a paler
staining zone withen that, and sometimes a pink keratenised zone of cells
centrally.
831-The basal cells layer in Amelobastom have a reversed polarity?
A-True, the nucli are located on the other side of the basal membrane.
832-Amelobastomas will need an aspiration biopsy to confirm the diagnosis?
 A-False, this might be helpful in Keratocysts when aspiration can confirm the
presence of Keratin. Amelobastomas need a full incisional biopsy.
833-A radicular cyst is unilocular and associated with vital teeth?
A-False. It is unilocular associated with non-vital teeth.
834-Amelobastomas are common in the black race and the middle age groups?
A-True.
835-A giant cell lesion can cause expansile in jaws, appear multilocualr in X-ray,
but with no roots resorption?
A-True.
836-A radicular cyst appears as unilocular, associated with vital teeth?
A-False. It is unilocular associated with NON-Vital Teeth.
837-A keratocyst can appear as multilocualr as Ameloblastomas, but it causes a
brod-based enlargement rather than localised expansion as in Ameloblastoma?
A-True.
838-Keratocysts can rarely cause resorption or displacement in adjacent teeth?
A-True.
839-Aneurysemal bone cyst can cause bone expansion, roots resorption but with no
teeth displacements?
A-True.
840-Anaphylactic shock because of pencillin is a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
A-False. It is type I.
841-The urticarial rash is the Latin word nettle rash, it compromise a superficial
oedema that may form a separate flat raised-like patches?
A-True.
842-An anaphylactic shock can be triggered by allergen in a sensitised person?
A-True.
843-The allergen binds to IgA ?
A-False. It binds to IgE who already bound to mast cells.
844-Type I anaphylactic shocks have immediate onset, and when delayed this means
it is not Type I?
A-False, although the reaction can happen in seconds but sometimes it may be
delayed up to 30-45 minutes depending on the route of drug administration.
845-In anaphylactic shock the patient may suffer hupovolaemia?
A-True, allegen binding to IgE induces degranulation and the release of large
amounts of inflammatory mediators, particularly histamine, which causes the
vasodilation, increased capillary permeability and bronchospasm.
846-The first treatment is giving Hydrocortisone 100-200 mg Intravenously or
Intramuscularly?
A-False. Although this should be given but it is not the immediate choice.
847-The first treatment choice is to put the patient in a good breathing position, give
oxygen 5 litre/minute, give adrenaline intramuscularly 1/1000 , 500 Microgram.
A-True.
848-What is the recommended dose of adrenaline for children?
A-250 microgram of Adrenalin for ages 6-12 years, and 120 microgram for ages
6 months -6 years.
849-The Epipen(Anapen) is better to be used as it can inject an adult dose of 300
microgram or a children dose of 150 microgram, saving you the time to calculate
the dose when using adrenalin from vials?
A-True.
850-The Mini-I-Jet can be used for adults and children doses?
A-False, it gives a full adult dose only.
851-Adrenalin can be injected subcutaneously as it is faster?
A-False. This route is slower than the Intramuscularly injection.
852-The chlorphenamine (chlorpheneramine) is administered intravenously 10 mg
to counteract the effects of histamine?
A-True.
853-The hydrocortisone 100-200 mg is given intravenously or intramuscularly?
A-True. It can take up to 6 hours to work, but it will prevent the late relapse as
mast cells can release other potent inflammatory mediators and some have long
half-lives, while the half-live of adrenalin is short.
854-Adrenaline dose can be repeated as many times as necessary, but rarely will
need more than two doses as the chlorphenamine comes to act?
A-True.
855-As the patient may suffer hypotension and hypovolaemia, give 1 litre of normal
saline infused over 5 minutes with contious monitoring of the vital signs?
A-True.
856-A gingival recession may indicate the need to reduce frequency, duration and
force during teeth brushing?
A-True. One time a day of tooth brushing is enough to maintain a gingival health,
while teeth need more frequent brushing after each food consuming.
857-Immediate bleeding on probing can be seen in even healthy and hygienic
patients?
A-False, this is a sign of gingival inflammation and poor oral hygiene.
 Healthy gingival must not bleed in probing.
858-A traumatic overbite can cause exacerbate gingival recession?
A-True.
859-The attached functional gingiva extends from the gingival margins to the
cement-enamel junction?
A-False. You must subtract that depth from the width of the keratinised gingiva
which gives the depth of the functional attached gingiva.
860-Gingival recession has more effect when the buccal soft tissues and bones are
thin on some teeth?
A-True. It is more obvious on prominent teeth in the arch than those slightly
instanding teeth.
861-A mucogingival surgery free flap to apply it into the gingival margins is
indicated to reduce the recession?
A-False. A free flap should not be located on the roots as they cannot provide
nutrients to it. It will need a connective tissue bed.
862-Teeth dilacerations, supernumerary teeth, or pathological lesions can prevent
the eruption of permanent successors?
A-True.
863-A false xerostomia describes the reduction in salivary flow?
A-False. This is true xerostomia.
864-Mucosal diseases can lead to true xerostomia?
A-False. It leads to false xerostomia.
865-Irradiation, sjogren’s syndrome and dehydration can cause true xerostomia?
A-True.
866-Males are commonly affected by sjogren’s syndrome?
A-False. It predominantly affects females in the middle age.
867-Sjogren’s syndrome is the commonest single medical disorder to cause
xerostomia?
A-True.
868-Drugs are the commonest cause of xerostomia?
A-True.
869-Dehydration in athletes can cause true xerostomia?
A-False. Elderly people are mostly affected because of the low water intake
specially when institutionalized.
870-Mouth breathing can cause false xerostomia, specially when accompanied with
mucosal disorders such as candidosis or lichen planus?
A-True.
871-Primary sjogren’s syndrome affects the salivary and lacrimal glands, and is
accompanied with a connective tissue disorder such as rehumatid arthritis?
A-False. Rehumatid arthritis is seen in secondary sjogren’s syndrome. Primary
sjogren’s syndrome does not cause rehumatis arthritis, but we can see signs of
autoimmune disease such as Raynaud’s phenomenon .
872-Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder?
A-True.
873-The mouth is usually less dry in secondary sjogren’ syndrome.
A-True.
874-Dry eyes and mouth are the significant symptoms in primary sjogren’s
syndrome?
A-True.
875-Usually, salivary glands become enlarged in secondary sjogren’s syndrome?
A-False. This is a feature of primary sjogren’s syndrome. Salivary glands rarely
enlarge in secondary sjogren’s syndrome.
876-The daily saliva secretion is 500 ml, which is equal to 2 ml/10 minutes, or 0.2
ml/minute?
A-True.
877-In true xerostomia the salivary flow drops to 0.1ml/minute?
A-True.
878-A schimmer test is established to measure the salivary flow?
A-False. Schimmer test is for measuring lacrimal secretion, but because it is
irritant to the cornea it is no longer ecommende.
879-Autoantibodies ssA and ssB are helpful in the diagnosis of connective tissue
disease in secondary sjogren’s syndrome?
A-True.
880-In the sialogram, the gland appears as scattered round medium spots, no major
or minor ducts are visible. This is a typical feature to sjogren syndrome?
A-True.
881-A complete loss of the acinar cells (acinar atrophy), surrounded by normal acini
is seen in the high power histology test?
A-True.
882-In sjogren’s syndrome advice the patient to use overdose of sweets and citrus
fruit to stimulate the production of saliva?
A-False, this can encourage caries.
883-Carpoxymethyl-cellulose and similar starch based liquids are saliva substitutes?
A-True.
884-Pilocarpine can be considered in severe cases of sjogre’s syndrome?
A-True.
885-Lymphoma may develop in 10% of cases in patients with primary sjogren’s
syndrome?
A-True.
886-The lymphoma is usually a T-cell Lymphoma?
A-False. It is B-cell lymphoma (MALT type) of a low grade growth pattern.
887-Trismus is used to describe limited mouth opening caused by a spasm of the
muscles of mastication?
A-True.
888-Osteoarthritis and septic arthritis are intra-articular causes of trismus?
A-True.
889-Arthromyalagia is the term for myofacial pain dysfunction syndrome?
A-True.
890-The pain in myofacial pain dysfunction is always severe in the morning and
mild in the evening?
A-False, there are two faces of pain, one starts mild in the morning and builds up
through out the day and be worst in the evening, the other is worst in the morning.
891-The cause is considered as tight bands withen the muscles?
A-True.
892-Internal derangement in the tmj is usually anterior displacement of the articular
disc?
A-True.
893-Osteoarthrosis appears as fibrillation of the articualr cartilage and loss of
proteoglycan?
A-True. Fibrillation in cracking and fraying of the cartilage.
894-Click on opening the mouth is caused by the condyle rapidly repositioned
posteriorly displacing the disc anteriorly?
A-False. This can cause the click on closing the mouth, but clicks on opening the
mouth is caused by the posterior disc ligaments are stretched and the disc is
anteriorly displaced.
895-After several years of reciprocal clicking, the mouth can become closed lock as
the disc can be displaced anteriorly and stop the condyle which is stock behind it?
A-True.
896-In the open lock, the condyle is displaced in the back position?
A-False, it is displaced in the front position.
897-In the intra-articular causes the forward translation of the condyle is normally
the first movement to be lost?
A-true.
898-In the extra-articular causes, the protrusive and lateral excursions movements
are restricted?
A-False. They are permitted.

899-Forward translation of the condyle occurs in the upper joint space?

A-True.
900-Arthography is the radiography of the joint with a contrast medium injected in
the joint?
A-True.
901-The lower joint space is easier for injecting a medium?
A-False. It is harder.
902-Injecting saline, Hartmann’s solution (lysis and lavage) or menisectomy are
possible procedures?
A-True.
903-People with hypermobile joints are on higher risk of joint derangement?
A-True.
904-A pregnancy epulis is a variant of pyogenic granuloma arising during
pregnancy?
A-True.
905-Fibrous epulis is a nodule of granulation tissues?
A-False, it is firm fibrous hyperplastic tissues.
906-Pyogenic granuloma is a localised granulation tissues or very vascular fibrous
tissues?
A-True.
907-Peripheral giant cell granulomas are common in adults?
A-False, they are more common in children.
908-Peripheral giant cell granulomas are histologically distinguishable from
pyogenic granuloma with its osteoclasts (multinucleated) lying in a very cellular
vascular stroma?
A-True.
909-What is the other name of sinus papilla?
A-Parulis.
910-Papillomas are lesions of proliferating epithelium?
A-True.
911-Papillomas usually bleed easily from their cauliflower surface?
A-False. Although they have a cauliflower surface.
912-The biopsy specimen is preserved is a 10% formol saline?
A-True.
913-Mineralising epulis is referred to as peripheral ossifying fibroma?
A-True.
914-What is you choice for the treatment of cracked tooth?
1-No treatment, 2- Removal of the cracked portion followed by restoration,
3- Full or partial coverage gold indirect restoration, 4- Adhesive
restoration?
A-3. Gold is less brittle than ceramic and allow some deformation.
915-Pain on biting suggests a cracked tooth?
A-True.
916-Adhesive restorations are preferable as they cement the cracks together?
A-False, they follow some shrinkage which during polymerization which causes
stress on the crack.
917-Insufficient acrylic packed into the flask will cause contraction porosity through
out the denture.
A-True.
918-Gaseous porosity are localised in the thin parts of the dentures?
A-False. They are localised in the thick parts due to vaporisation during
processing.
919-Incorrect polymer monomer ratio in the acrylic dough causes granular porosity
in the thin section of the denture?
A-True.
920-Methylmethacrelate boils at 100.3 C and pressure?
A-True.
921-Gypsum bonded investments can be used to cast a cobalt-chromium partial
dentures?
A-False. The gypsum will break under lower temperature and CaSo4 reacts with
the SiO2 releasing SO3 gas. Use phosphate-bonded investments only, and
gypsum with gold-based alloy.
922-Fins in the denture: 1- Too much alloy, 2- Less alloy, 3- Wrong investment, 4-
Too much wax?
A-3, Use the right investment and do not overheat.
923-Faint is a vasovagal attack usually associated with anxiety?
A-True.
924-The central pulse (carotid-femoral) is absent in cardiac arrest?
A-True.
925-An advanced life support requires the administration of drugs, Ecg and
defibrillation?
A-True.
926-Younger children respond well to nonverbal communication like smiling and
touching?
A-True.
927-A difficult 4 years old child could be managed in a better way if separated from
the parents as he tends to hide and seek help from them making the treatment very
difficult?
A-False, separating the child would remove his lines of defence and security.
Parents are better to stay in the treatment room and even in the first visit the child
can be treated in the mother’s lap.
928-Engaging the child in a through play , using familiar toys and puppets will
develop a rapport with the child?
A-True.
929-The collapse of the marginal ridge in a primary molar indicates a compromised
or involved pulp?
A-True.
930-Praising a poor behaviour will improve the child’s behaviour?
A-False, this would give the impression that bad behaviour is accepted. A soft
reward (a word), or hard reward (balloon, sticker) will encourage the child in the
next visit.
931-Modelling is good in shaping young children behaviour?
A-False. The use of a sibling or video to demonstrate good behaviour can
sometimes be helpful, but it is limited use in young children.
932-The best technique to be used is the Tell-Show-do technique?
A-True. It is effective in many children and widely taught.
933-Female dentists are preferable to deal with children?
A-False, there is no evidence that they are better than males and no need to refer
the child to a female dentist.
934-What is the other name of dry socket?
A-Alveolar osteitis.
935-Male patients are more at rsik of alveolar osteitis?
A-False, female patients are more at risk specially if on contraceptive
medications.
936-Young adult to middle-aged patients are more at risk of dry socket?
A-True.
937-Why radiotherapy, cemento-osseous dysplasia and paget’s disease can cause
dry socket after extraction?
A-They cause sclerosis reducing blood supply to clot formation.
938-Irrigation to the socket with saline or 0.12% chlorhexidine and packing the
socket with resorbable material?
A-True.
939-Prescribe antibiotics for dry socket?
A-False. They are ineffective. Only use NSAIDs analgesics. It may take 10 days
for the healing and tissue formation in the socket.
940-Delayed healing for weeks indicates: 1- Sequestration 2- local bone sclerosis,
3- immunosuppresion, 4- All the previous.
A- 4
941-Avulsion can cause internal resorption to the tooth?
A-False. External resorption as it causes damage to the cementum . External
resorption is known to follow damage to the cementum layer or loss of vitality
of cementum.
942-Pulp inflammation and increased pulpal exposure can cause internal resorption?
A-True. Internal resorption follows the loss of pre-dentine layer separating pulp
from dentine.
943-External resorption can follow orthodontic treatments?
A-True.
944-Internal resorption is active in non vital teeth?
A-False. It is active only in vital or partially vital eeth.
945-External resorption may develop in vital and non vital teeth?
A-True.
946-When the rsorped tooth tissue is replaced by bone, this will cause Ankylosis?
A-True.
947-Resorption will not compromise tooth vitality until the pulp communicates with
the mouth?
A-True.
948-High pitched metallic percussive sound is a sign of Ankylosis?
A-True, and as Ankylosis usually follow external resorption so this is a sign of
external resorption.
949-10% of upper maxillary molar extractions will cause oroantral fistula?
 A-False. 10% may create oroantral communication but only 0.5% will persist to
become a fistula.
950-The buccal advancement flap can be used to close the fistula with a 90%
success?
A-True.
951-A Caldwell-luc operation is another way to close the fistula?
A-False. It is used to remove a root or a fragment from inside the antrum.
952-The palatal flap is the largly used method of choice to close OAF?
A-False, it is the second largely used after the buccal advancement flap.
953-The buccal fat pad transfer requires GA and causes sulcus loss?
A-True. Although it can restore large defect, but it needs to be dissected from
under the buccal flap on a pedicle to secure in the socket.
954-The flap is secure and sutured with vicryl 3/0 , or non-resorbablr sutures for 10-
14 days?
A-True.
955-You must excise the fistula, true or false?
A-True or the remnants epithelium will proliferate to reform the tract.
956-The most common cause of oral ulceration is recurrent apthous stomatitis
(RAS)?
A-True.
957-RSA almost excusively affect keratinised mucosa?
A-False, recurrent apthous stomatitis (RAS) affects Non-keratinised mucosa.
958-RSA never occur on the dorsal tongue or palate?
A-True.
959-RAS herpetiform are 0.2- 3 mm in diameter?
A-True.
960-3-4 cm in diameter ulcers can be seen in the major type of RAS?
A-True.
961-Minor RAS can be up to 100 at a time?
A-False. This is in the herpetiform RAS. Minor RAS are single or 4-5 at a time.
962-Erythema multiform can heal in 10-21 days, Minor RAS can heal in 10 days
and Major RAS can take weeks or months?
A-True.
963-A family history is found in erythema multiform?
A-False. It is present in RAS.
964-Erythema multiform affects predominantly the vermilion border of lip?
A-True.
965-Stress can trigger Erythema multiform?
A-False. It can trigger RAS, but Erythema multiform is triggered by drugs or
viral infections.
966-What investigations should be carried out in patients with RAS to check of
underlying conditions?
A-Iron deficiency (Anaemia), Vitamin deficiency specially B12 and folate,
Gastrointestinal disease, Bechets disease.
967-Steroid mouth wash, steroid pellet (orabase), corllan (hydrocortisone) can be
used to treat RAS?
A-True.
968-Developmental branchial cysts usually appear late in life?
A-False, they appear usually in childhood, can be asymptomatic for many years
but later they can be present with infection.
969-Toxoplasmosis and cat scratch disease usually affect young adults?
A-True, and usually cause enlargement in several nodes.
970-HIV and sarcoidosis can cause generalised lymphodeopathy?
A-True.
971-Sarcoidosis is most common between 20-40 years age group?
A-True.
972-Carotid body tumours (paraganglioma) can cause a unilateral or bilateral
swelling at the carotid bifurcation?
A-True.
973-Children are the most affected group by carotid body tumours?
A-False, it affect the 30-60 years old group.
974-Keratinised cells in squamous cell carcinoma appears orange keratin, dark blue
nuclei and , while cytoplasm of non –keratinised cells appear turquoise?
A-True.

975-Bone consists of two main tissues: the cells (osteocytes) and the intercellular
matrix (mainly collagen)?
A-True.
976-The inorganic crystals in the matrix are to provide the bone with its tensile
strength?
A-False. The collagen fibres give the bone its tensile strength while the
hydroxyapatite crystals ( inorganic matrix) give its compressive strength.
977-Bone deposition is carried out by osteoblasts, while its resorption is carried out
by its giant multinucleated osteoclasts?
 A-True.
978-The bone surface is covered by the endosteum?
A-False. It is covered by the Periosteum while the Endosteum is lining the
internal surfaces.
979-Bony spicules are found in short bones, irregular bone and the ends of long
bones?
A-True. They are arranged along the lines of the principal tensile and
compressive stresses.
980-Red marrow is mainly seen in adults life?
A-False. Red marrow is seen in the prenatal life and responsible about blood
formation. In adulthood it is only seen in the skull, sternum, vertebrae, shoulder
gridle, hips and proximal ends of some long bones.
981-In adulthood most of marrows is converted into fatty tissue (yellow marrow)?
A-True.
982-Compact bone is remodelled from woven bone, it is hard, strong and form the
outer layer of all bones(cortex)?
A-True.
983-Cancellous bone (spongy) consist of a network of spicules and trabeculae?
A-True.
984-All the empryonic origion of bones is a cartilage replacing bones?
A-False. There are two origions, 1- Cartilage-replacing bone is formed by
osteoblasts in the remains, 2- Membrane or dermal bone which is formed by
osteoblasts in fibrous connective tissue without preceding cartilage.
985-The bones of the skull and most facial skeleton are dermal bones derived from
exoskeleton?
A-True.
986-The clavicle and some skull base bones are mixed origin bone from
endoskeleton and exoskeleton?
A-True.
987-The diaphysis are the specialised ends of the long bones?
A-False. The ends are the epiphyses, which join the diaphysis (the central part of
long bones) by a junctional region called the metaphysic.
988-The interior of epiphyses are occupied by cancellous bone?
A-True.
989-Ossification in the epiphyses leaves an articular cartilage on the surface and the
epiphysial cartilage between the epiphyses and diaphysis?
 A-True. And the epiphysial cartilage provides the area of elongation in long
bones.
990-Short bones are cuboidal with six surfaces, four are articular?
A-True. The other two are for ligaments and blood vessels entry.
991-Short bones develop in cartilage?
A-True.
992-The diploe is a layer inside long bones?
A-False. It is found in flat bones between the two compact bones. It is cancellous
bone containg red marrow.
993-The Diploe is not seen at birth?
A-True. At birth flat bones have only single layer. The diploe forms later.
994-Pneumatic bones are found in air sinuses after the mucous membrane
evagination and lining those cavities?
A-True.
995-The knee cap is a flat bone?
A-False. It is a Sesamoid bone, forms in certain tendons where they rub on a
bony surface. The surface is covered with articular cartilage.
996-Greenstick fracture is seen in old bones?
A-False. It is seen in younger bones as they are pliable.
997-The broken bone reunite by large callus of connective tissue and woven bone?
A-True.
998-The cartilage cells are called chondorcytes?
A-True.
999-Hyaline cartilage is found in areas subject to great stress?
A-False. It is then replaced by the fibrocartilage.
1000-The socket joints between teeth and alveolar bone are called: Gomphoses?
A-True.

Please note that the questions are guranteed but the answers were made by
several consultants, so we adviced to check with your own sources.

1001- What is the use of stops in the special tray?

A- Allow a uniform thickness of about 2-3 mm of the impression material.
1002- Wax is used to correct the under extension of the special tray in the pear-
shaped pads?
A- False, use the tracing compound for this correction.
1003- Alginate is the best impression material for master impression edentulous
ridge?
A- False, unless there is undercut area so it can be used.
1004- Zinc-oxide eugenol paste is used in spaced trays to get an impression?
A- False, closed fitting trays are used.
1005- Zinc-oxide eugenol paste has the advantage of getting good impression for
the resorbed lower ridge?
A- True, without trapping the mucosa.
10036- Highly salivating patients are best getting the lower impression by
impression plaster?
A- False, it mixes with saliva causing a friable surface.
1007- Impression plaster is stable in dimenssion and rigid, but small undercuts are
not contra-indication of using it?
A- True.
1008- Alginate impression is very stable and should be left washed and disinfected
and left to dry out before moulding the cast?
A- False, it should be kept in a damb cloth as its dimensssions change rapidlly with
heat. It should be casted ASAP.
1009- Elastomers impressions are preferable for dry mouth patients as they do not
adhere to the dry mucosa?
A- True, while zinc-oxide euogenol adhere to the dry mucosa.
1010- The Mucodisplacive impression ensure better denture stability than the
Mucostatic impression?
A- False, it gets the impression while the tissues are under load pressure (similar to
the occlusal load) making the physical retention of the denture less when the teeth
are apart.
1011- The Mucodisplacive impression ensure better under load tissue impression
than the Mucostatic impression?
A- True. As the mucostatic impression is a resting one.
1012- What is the rest shape impression for edentulous patient is called?
A- Mucostatic impression.
1013- What is the cause of finger rests on the acrylic special tray?
A- It allows to distribute the pressure while taking the impression for more
functional impression (mimmiking the functional load on tissues).
1014- Special trays are best made of heat-curing acrylic resin?
A- false, Cold-curing acrylic or light-cured.
1015- Which of these are best used with closed fitting trays:
A- Alginate
B- Light bodies elastomers
C- Zinc oxide and eugenol
D- Impression compound
A- B and C
1016- Which of these are reversible impression materials:
A- Alginate
B- Impression compound
C- Zinc-Oxide eugenol
D- Elastomers
A- B. It is thermoplastic which is softened by heating. Can be reused if
unsatisfactory.
1017- The percentage of Adults who suffer from all teeth loss in England hd
increased dramatically in the last 30 years because of new diets habits?
A- false, It is reduced from 37% in 1968 to 12% in 1998. And expected to drop into
one figure in 2018.
1018- increasing age is always a disadvantage in making full dentures?
A- False. Increasing age may aide in the adaptation to new full dentures which will
increase success rate.
1019- Mental factors are important in adapting the new denture in the mouth?
A- true, Previous denture failure will build up a mental barrier towards new dentures.
Good and cheerful comments from a third party will add to the acceptance of the
new prothesis, while bad comments will make the petient reject even dood designed
dentures.
1020- In complete dentures it is always preferable to leave natural teeth opposing
the dnture to improve occlusal avtivities?
A- False, this will destroy the denture-bearing bone in the opposing area and affect
the stability plus it may cause a flabby ridge specially in the lower dentures.
1021- early extraction of teeth helps in patient’s adaptation to full denture although
it may causes early problems in in oral activity?
A- True.
1022- The term overdenture is used to describe complete dentures opposing natural
teeth?
A- false, it describes complete dentures over some natural teeth which were reduced
in highet or just roots kept to maintain the alveolar ridge.
1023- Identify four advantages of overdentures:
A- 1, Maintain the alveolar ridge bone and reduces bone absorption.
2, Better appreciation of food and precise mandibular activity because of the
mechanoreceptors in the periodontal ligaments of the left teeth.
3, More denture retention. The roots might be as abutments for stud attachments
or earth magnets.
4, Psychological benefits, as the patient feels more mentally relaxed for keeping
natural teeth in the mouth.,
1024- Best teeth for being used as overdentures are: Upper lateral incisors and lower
central incisors as these areas are less stable in complete dentures?
A- false, the size od the periodontal ligaments in these teeth is small, best teeth are
upper central incisors and canines, or for the mandible first premolars.
1025- the term immediate denture is used to describe dentures which are prepared
indavance in the Lab to be entered into the mouth in the day of natural teeth
extraction?
A- true.
1026- Point Four advantages of immediate dentures to the patient?
A- 1, Manitain appearance and facial contour 2, Minimise speech and mastication
disturbances, 3, Help in patient adaptation to the final complete denture 4, Maintain
physical and mental well-being of the patient.
1027- All immediate dentures have benefits to the patient only while it is just time
consuming for the dentist?
A- false, they have advantages for the dentist as well.
1028- point out 4 davantages of immediate dentures to the dentist?
A- 1, Transfer of the jaws relationship 2, Achieving a good apperance as they can
be used to determine the final denture, if the patient likes the immediate one so the
final one would be simillar while changes might be necessary when the patient is
dissatisfied.
3, Reduction in ridge resorption 4, Haemostosis
1029- *5 Years old patient, low motivation with parkinson disease, attends the clinic
for th removal of all his remaining teeth and designing a denture. Is immediate
dentures are disignated in this situation?
A- No, They need increase maintenance, and contraindicated in low motivated
patients.
1030- The loss of a comprehensive trial stage and short service life are
disadvantages of immediate dentures?
A- True.
1031- What is meant by alveolotomy in comlete dentures?
A- Elimination of the moderate labial alveolar undercut so that a flanged denture cn
be used without that flange distorting the upper lip unduly.
1032- As immediate dentures help in Haemostasis it is recommended in patients
with post-extraction haemorrhage?
A- False, As surgery and suturing is required to minimise the socket haemorrhage,
the immediate denture should be placed on later stage.
1033- Immediate dentures are contraindicated in patients with rehumatic fever
withcardiac damage, or with heart valve or hip prothese?
A- True, because of the risk from bacteraemia.
1034- Immediate dentures are indicated in patients with neglicted mouth to protect
the socket from food debris?
A- false, it requires high maintainance and it is contraindicated when oral hygiene
is low.
1035- What is the difference between adhesion and cohesion forces?
A- Adhesion is the attraction between dissimilar molecules like saliva and acrylic
resin, or saliva and mucosa.
Cohesion is the force between like molecules (saliva molecules0 maintainig the
integrity in saliva.
1036- What is the point of the groove made in cast in the post-dam area?
A- Creating a border retention and seal in the post-dam area as the posterior border
of the denture become embedded into the palatal mucosa.
1037- Border seal, area of impression surfaces and accuracy influence the ammount
of physical retention?
A- true.
1038- Where is the neutral zone is located?
A- Area between the tongue and cheeks and lips where the muscular displacing
force on the denture are minimal (Zone of minimal conflict).
1039- Support in dentures is produced by underlying tissues (impression surfaces).?
A- True. Resorption in alveolar ridges and flobby ridges will affect the support.
1040- The normal rest position is about 2-4mm between teeth, what forces may
affect this rest position?
A- Passive forces: Muscles attached to the mandible, 2- Gravity 3, Reduced intra-
oral air pressure, 4- Elastic properties of capsule and ligaments.
Active forces: 1- Mass of the mandible 2- Changes in position of the mandible 3-
Pain, drugs and emotional stress.
1041- The intercuspal position is the best position used to register jaws relationship
in the vertical and horizontal plane?
A- false, best to use the retruded mandible position in the horizontal plane when
designing complete dentures.
1042- Impression disinfectant is the responsibility of the lab?
A- false, the dentist responsibility.
1043- How do you optain a functional impression?
A- Placing an impression material that exhibits a plastic flow in the old denture
which is worn over a period of several hours.
1044- What is a wash impression technique?
A- Using the old denture as a special impression tray to avoid the priliminary
impression.A ridged border trimming material can be used to adjust the borders of
the old denture.
1045- Alginate with low viscosity are best used for the wash impression technique?
A- False, Zinc oxide and euogenol or low vscosity silicone impression material.

1046- It is satisfactory sometimes to copy the impression surface of the old denture?
A- True, as the patient adapted to the old one (muscles and tissues) by pouring the
dental stone directly into the old denture.
1047- Alma gauge is used to determine the incisal relationship in the vertical and
horizontal planes ?
A- true.
1048- Denture stomatitis are commonly cosed by bacterial in the mouth?
A- False, Candida albicans are most responsible.
1049- Which of these are recommended to be used as disinfectant for dentures at
home?
1- Chlorhexidine gluconate , 2- Alkaline hypochloride
A- Both.(1,2)
1050- Hypochlorite is used in the recommended concentrations:
1- Overnight immersion 0.08%, 2-0.16% for 20 minutes or 3- 2% for 5 minutes?
A- True.
1051- Chlorhexidine gluconate is used for overnight immersion as 1%?
A False, 0.1%
1052- What is a hyperplastic denture stomatitis?
A- Palatal inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
1053- The previous condition is consided as premalignancy?
A- False, No malignant transformation was recorded nor cytological signs of
dysplasia.
1054- Stainless steel plate is recommended in patients with papillary hyperplasia?
A- true, it gives softer surface over the nodules.
1055- Denture induced hyperplasia are mostly seen at the borders of dentures?
A- True it appears as a flange of fibrous tissues, mostly cause by over-extension of
the denture flangs.
1056- The zygomatic process of the maxilla is mostly causing a problem in the
molar region?
A- True, by sandwitching the soft tissues between it and the borders of the denture.
1057- An alginate impression is best removed by a sharp jerk after breaking the
border seal?
A- True, slow removal cauese ditortion of the alginate.
1058- The impression compound is a thermoplastic impression material?
A- true.
1059- What is the meaning of Mucostatic impression?
A- Impression the tissue in the resting shape.
1060- A mucodisplacive impression is an impression under pressure?
A- True,
1061- Impression compounds are thermoplastic material?
A- True.
1062- What do you recommend for a patient with dry mouth as an impression
material?
A- Low viscocity silicone (less adherence to dry tissues rather than zinc oxide and
euogenol paste).
1063- Impression plasters have high flexibility?
A- Fale, they are ridged when setted.
1064- Willis gauge and the two dots techniques are methods to measure the vertical
dimension?
A- True.
1065- Shellac base is better used with narrow ridges?
A –False, when the lower ridge is narrow in cross section, they are liable to fracture
easily.
1066- Shellac base however allow easy modification on the chairside?
A- True, like base extension, this is harder with heat curing acrylic resin.
1067- What to use to adjust the occlusal planes?
A- A fox’s occlusal plane indicator.
1068- The wax rim is made parallel to the interpupillary line in the occlusal plane
and parallel to the ala-tragal line (tragus of ear and ala of the nose) in the sagital
plane?
A- True.
1069- The labial surface of the wax rim is best placed about 1 cm infront of the
incisive papilla, creatin a nasolabial angle between 102-116 degres?
A- True. Although a nasolabial angle of 90 degrees can be accepted in some cases.
1070- Aesthetically, the lower wax rim should protude about 3 mm over the lower
lip?
A- False, this is for the upper wax rim, so 2-3 mm of the upper incisors appear below
the upper lip, while it is better to cove all the lower incisors.
1071- The width of the upper central incisors is made to equal the interpupillary
distance ?
A- False, the philtrum of the upper lip.
1072- Porcelin teeth are not recommende when the denture-bearing tissues are less
able to tolerate higher forces?
A- True, Acrylic teeth is recommended.
1073- What is the meaning of balanced articulation?
A- It is a dynamic situation when there is bilateral simultaneous contacts between
opposing teeth in central and eccentric positions as the mandible moves into and
away from the intercuspal position.
1074- Balanced occlusion is a dynamic situation?
A- False, it is a static situation and applies when upper and lower dentures meet in
any position. Teeth on bothe sides should be in contact.

1075- The condylar path is the forward and downwards movement of the condyla
from glenoid fossa to the articular eminence.
A- True.
1076- The condylar angle is between th condylar path and the occlusal plane?
A- False, the condylar path and the frankfort plane.
1077- The condylar axis is a line between the mandibular condyles allowing a hinge
movement?
A- True.
1078- A simple hinge articulator is sufficient to record the codylar path?
A- false, a semi-adjustable articulator is neede.
1079- A facebow is used to record the dentures relationships from the mouth into
the articulator?
A- True.
1080- In semi-adjustable articulators, the condylar track is adjusted in one horizontal
plane?
A- False, two plaes, A horizontal plane (condylar angle) and a sagittal plane
(Bennett angle).
1081- What is the accepted value for Bennett angle?
A- 15degres.
1082- What is the first sign of over-extensive flanges of the denture?
A- The denture is displaced immediately after being seated in the mouth.
1083- What are the main laboratory causes which result in an occlusal error?
A- Insufficient pressure when closing the flask, wrong powderlwater ratio, porosity
of the mix and inadequate thickness of plaster.
1084- Name two immersion cleaners which do not cause metal corrosion in dentures?
A- Alkaline peroxide cleaner and sulphamic acid.
1085- When relining a denture, a special custome tray should be used?
A- False, the impression is taken by the old denture by uing a low viscosity Zinc-
oxide euogenol or silicone elastomers.
1086- Relining is the same as rebasing?
A- False, the same steps are needed but in relining a new acrlyic resin is added to
the base of the denture while in rebasing all the denture base should be replaced.
Although it is now used the term relining to describe the clinical and laboratory
procedures.
1087- What is a soft-term lining mterial?
A- One stage, chairside lasts for one year. Using a mixture of Polyethylmethacrilate
powder and Aromic ester+ethyl alcohol as a liquid.
1088- Name three material are used for the long-term soft lining?
A- Cold curing silicone rubber material
Heat-curing silicone rubber material
Acrylic resin material.

1089- Which is better, - Cold curing silicone rubber material or Heat-curing silicone
rubber material?
A- The heat curing has low water absorption, better stability, improved accuracy
and rupture properties and adhesion to the denture surface are better than the cold
curing.
1090- Elasticity of silicone makes it better than acrylic in shock absorption?
A- True.
1091- Flabby ridges are seen mainly in posterior mandible?
A- False, anterior maxilla.
1092- Flabby ridge impression is best taken by a special tray with alginate?
A- False, a two stage impression is recommended with a closed fitting special tray
open from the front, The back area is taken by low viscosity material like Zinc oxide
euogenol, and plaster for the front flabby area.
1093- What is the best polymirisation temperature for cure-heated acrylic?
A- 100 degrees centigrade.
1094- What do you use for a 65 years old fit patient attends the clinic for a complete
denture, but he suffers from retching reflex?
1- Use a quick setting impression material
2- Distract the patient.
3- Concious sedation
4- GA
5- Appoint another appointment
A- 3 Concious sedation is helpful to control retching .
1095- Burning mouth syndrom BMS affects 5-7% of adult population with mean
age of 60 years?
A- True.
1096- What blood tests will you commence for a patient with BMS?
A- Folic acid, Iron deficiency and B complex low levels specially B1 and B6.
1097- What systemic diseases might be responsible for BMS?
A- Diabetis Mellitus, parkinson’s and any cause of Xerostomia.
1098- If the acylic palatal plate was thich, which letter are mostly affected?
A- The S and Sh pronounciation. As there is too much space left between the tongue
and the denture.
1099- Nickel-coated impression trays should not be disinfected
with………….while aluminium trays should not be disinfected with sodium
hypochloride.
1100- It is the dentist responsibility to disinfect the impression before sending to the
laboratory?
A- true.
1101- Silicon impression are disinfected with glutaraldehyde?
A- True, 10 miuntes.
1102- Alginate disinfection is by gluteraldehyde for 10 miuntes?
A- True.
1103- Hypochloride can be used to disinfect polyether and alginate impressions?
A- True.
1104-Chlorhexidine can be used effectively to disinfect against HIV?
A- False. Never affect HIV or HIB
1105- The dental practice board consists of 9 persons?
A- True.
1106- The local Dental committee is……….
A- Elected memebers in the area.
1107- Any member of staff in the dental clinic is responsible for irradiation
equipment safety?
A- false, the employer should nominate a trained member for this mission, but other
staff members should be aware of the irradiation risks and the controled area.
1108- Dental nurses are not required to be registered in the GDC?
A- false, new law in 2008 making it mandatory for dental nurses to get a GDC
registration.
1109- Dental technicions are now required to get a GDC registration?
A- True.
1110- In no circumstances the dentist can pass information about his patients to the
police?
A- False, although in many cases a court order is required, but some times it is the
community interest should be put in consideration to take a quick action by the
dentist to pass such information to the police, self judgement is higly important.
1111- Vital teeth may not respond to vitality test immediately after the injury?
A- True.
1112- A dark dscoloration immediately after the injury ……………
A- Indicates haemmorhage withen the pulp space.
1113- A dark discoloration after injury must be treated endodontically?
A- False, there is potential for repair.
1114- Damage to the supporting tissues after injuries can be checked clinically
by………………
A- Mobility and percussion test.
1115- Intra-alveolar tooth fracture is less common in primary teeth than in
permanent teeth?
A- True.
1116- Occlusal film are suffecient to detect injuries in primary teeth?
A- True,
1117- Any broken fragments in primary teeth should be removed surgically to
preven the successor from being impacted?
A- False, they resob naturally, surgical removal will damage th successor.
1118- Luxation increases the chances of pulp damage?
A- True.
1119- Avulsed primary tooth is best reimplanted.?
A- False. Damage the successor.
1120- Intruded teeth may erupt spontaneosly?
A- true, over several months even.
1121- The paralling technique is the best to observe root fracture?
A- False, occlusal is better.
1122- Oblique root fracture has better prognosis than transverse root fracture?
A- True, as the latter has more displacement risk.
1123- Splinting teeth must be as rigid as possible to avoid movement and inhance
healing?
A- False, physical movement is necessar to prevent ankylosis.
1124- In subluxation pulp surviaval is .in primary teeth and ……..in permanent teeth?
A- 90%, 75%.
1125- Pulp surviala in lateral luxation is about 70% in immature teeth?
A- True.
1126- Mature teeth have great chance to revascularised after lateral luxation?
A- False.pulp healing is unlikely.
1127- What color is tooth in mature lateral luxation, and what is the reason?
A- The coronal part become yellowish due to pulp obliteration.
1128- Cold milk is the best to reserve an avulsed tooth?
A- True.
1129- The maximum of 10 hours in avulsed tooth should be allowed before
reimplantation?
A- False, after 1 hour there is less chance to survive.
1130- …………. Days is the recommended time for avulsed teeth splinting?
A- 7-10 days.
1131- ………..is the root canal filling material of choice in avulsed teeth root canal
treatment?
A- Calcium hydroxide.
1132- Mineral trioxide aggregate MTA is used as apical barrier in root canal
treatment for immature teeth?
A- True.
1133- Hydrogen peroxide increases the chance of cervical resorption when
bleaching the tooth?
A- True.
1134- the pulp develop from the ………while periodontal ligament and cementum
develop from………?
A- Dental papilla, dental follicle.
1135- The survival rate in tooth amputation is ….?
A- 68% over 10 years.
1136- In acute periradicualr abscess, the tooth should be opened for minimum of 48
hours to llow drinage?
A- False, not more 24 hours .
1137- Leaving the tooth open for several days or weeks to allow drinage may cause
tooth caries or a flare-up because of food packing?
A- True.
1138- LA is less effective during tooth inflammation?
A- true
1139- Which of this is true:
LA becaome less effective in tooth inflammation due to
A- Hyperexcitability of C fibres. B- Increased vascularity,C- Increase sensory nerve
transmission, D- Spread of inflammatory mediators through the myeline shaeath E-
Inflammation lowers the PH making th LA less effective.
A- All of the above.
1140- What method of LA is more effective during preiradicular abscess?
A- Intra-pulpal and intraosseous.
1141- How do you distinguish between intracanal irritation dentine and primary
dentine?
A- the first one is darker specially on illumination.
1142- What Xylol (methylchloroform) and Chloroform are used in root canal
treatment?
A- Soften the gutta-percha to faciliate removal.

1143- A 35 years old lady attended the clinic with clicking in the TMJ, mouth
opening arround 45mm but there is no pain, her main complaint was th noices
(creptus) what is the condition?
* Disc displacement without reduction * Disc displacement with reduction *
Degenerative joint disese * Systemic arthopathies
A- Disc displacement with reduction
1144- Surgery is the best choice to correct this condition?
A- False, patient needs reassurance, there is no pain and mouth opening is norma.
Surgery is unjustified.
1145- Closed lock is a condition discribes disc displacement without reduction?
A- True.
1146- Disc displacement without reduction, the disc cannot moves back as in the
displacement with reduction case?
A- True.
1147- - Disc displacement without reduction is associated with normal mouth
opening with little pain?
A- False, mouth opening is limited to 20 -30mm and might be painful.
1148- Disc displacement with reduction maintain normal mouth opening, not pinfull
and the main complaint is usually creptus?
A- True.
1149- What is the maximum time to use a silicone splint in myofacial pain
dysfunction?
A- 6 Weeks. Wore 24 hours a day.
1150- The disc displacement is the main cause of myofacial pain dysfunction?
A- False, it is a muscle-associated pain. It can be fibromylagia affecting distant
muscles in the neck or the scalp. One muscle might be affected.
1151- Amytriptyline, Dothiepin, fluroxetine and paroxetine are used to control
myofacial pain dysfunction?
A- True, they are antidepressant drugs.
1152- A protruding appliance for the mandible is benefitial in improving the disc
displacement without reduction?
A- True, needs to be worn 24 hours for 2 months.
1153- Radiological signs of erosion, osteophytes and traction spurs are seen in
degenerative joint disease?
A- True.
1154- Describe a course of treatment for a 45 years old woman with degenerative
joint disease?
A- NSAIDs with occlusal adjustment, if no response irrigation and injection into the
joint with steroids, or more invasive surgery in further stage.
1155- Which of these can cause TMJ arthopathies:
1- Rehumatid arthritis 2- gout 3- psoriatic arthritis 4- lupus erythematosus 5-
reactive arthritis
A- All of them
1156- Atypical facial pain need excessive painkiller to be treated?
A- False, it is not responsive to normal pain killer and in many cases it can be
dillusional by the patient.
1157- Sharp, severe, electrical and needle like quality pain which is triggered by
touch on the skin over the TMJ is likely to be atypical facial pain?
A- False, Trigeminal neuralgia, pain comes as short bursts.
1158- Anti convulsants, phenytoin, carbamazepine and sodium valporate are usefel
to treat Trigeminal neuralgia?
A- True.
1159- Migrane and myofacial pain should be distinguish from each other?
A- True, myofacial pain affects mainly the temporalis and occiptofrontalis, while
migrane is mainly a headache.
1160- A patient attends the clinic with pain over the temporalis area, the superfacial
temporal artery was enlarged and complaints of visiual disturbances, what is the
likely condition?
A- Giant-cell arteritis, it may cause blindness if not treated as the retinal arteries
may occlude.
1161- What is the likely treatment for the previous condition?
A- Referral to specialist and steroids.
1162- What is meant by referred pain?
A- Like angina, can cause pain in the left mandible.
1163- Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation TENS is used to treat atypical
facial pain?
A- True.
1164- Aqueous hydrocortisone is used in joint irrigation to reduce degenerative and
inflammatory disease?
A- True, it is short acting steroids, best not to be repeated as it can cause significant
bone resorption.
1165- Botulinium toxin was used successfully in the lateral ptyrgoid to reduce
dislocation of the TMJ?
A- True, no long-term study is available yet.
1166- What is a midazolam antagonist should be rutinely available during IV
sedation?
A- Flumazenil.
1167- A patient with BMI =35, what its suitability for GA?
A- BMI 35 is obsity, GA is not contraindicated but this is a Class 3 ASA
classification, and must reduce weight to reduce complications..
1168- Which of theses are resorbable haemostatic agents and can be left in situ:
Oxidised cellulose, collagen granules, fibrin foam, alginate fibres, surgicell
A- All of the above.
1169- In dry socket, a dressing of Zinc Oxide and eugenol is best used to relief
symptoms?
A- False, it adhere strongly to the bone and hard to remove. However an eugenol
containing soft fibrous paste can be tucked to to cover the bone
1170- What dressings will you use for a 30 years old man attended the clinic with a
dry socket?
A- Whithead varnish on ribbon gauze, Bismuth Iodoform and parffin paste. They
are non resorbable and should be removed if not shed spontaneously.
1171- INR determines the extrensic part of the coagulation cscade while APTT
(Activated partial thromboplastin time) for the intrinsic part?
A- True,
1172- If bleeding preceeds after 3 days of extraction, what checks should be done?
A- INR, APTT and platelets count.
1173- INR of 2.4 should be maintaind for both normal patients and patients under
warfarin therapy?
A- False, INR should be 2.4 for normal patients and whom which warfarin treatment
can be stoped at least 2 days before the surgery, while INR of 3.5-4 should be
maintained for those with prosthetic heart valve in hospital only.
1174- The hight of the chair is where the patient’s head near to the dentist’s elbow
height and the patient’s back is tilted 30 degrees, what is the dentist’s is more likely
to extrac?
A- Maxillary teeth.
1175- What is the best position to extract mandibular teeth?
A- The chair is tilted back >30-<45 degrees the patient’s head is at lower position
than with the maxillary (elbow height).
1176- In third mandibular molar impaction, bone is best removed with high speed
rotary burs to reduce the time neede?
A- False, this will result in surgical emphysema, low speed burs, with saline
irrigation to reduce heat are best used.
1177- Bone is best removed lingually to avoid bone deformation?
A- false, this will increase the risk of ligual nerve damage, best removed buccally,
distally and mesially (caution should be taken not to damade adjacent tooth).
1178- Lingual nerve dysaesthesia can be seen in 10% ?
A- True, it is only temporary.
1179- - Lingual nerve dysaesthesia is caused because lingual never cut?
A- False, this will cause permanent anaesthesia, while dysaesthesia is caused by
blunt trauma to the nerve.
1180- 8 mg of dexamethasone at the time of operation can reduce facial swelling
after impacted teeth removal?
A- True, but not all surgeons rutinely use them.

1181- Fungiform papillae loss is the only clinical sign for lingual nerve damage?
A- True. They return to normal after nerve regeneration.
1182- The paired nasal bones are the most commomn fractured bones in the face?
A- True.
1183- The mandible is the second common fractured bone in the face after the nasal
bones?
A- True.
1184- The coronoid process is the most common fractured site in the mandible?
A- False, the angle of the mandible.
1185- The angle of the mandible is the most common site for mandibular fractures
in adults?
A- True.
1186- The condyle is the most common site for mandibular fracture in children?
A- True.

1186A gutta percha point is not used in detecting the sinus as it is radiolucense?
A- False. It is radio opaque and can be used to detect the tooth casuing the sinus.
1187- Galss inomer cement is preferable as a temporary restoration in anterior
teeth?
A- True.
1188- Dentigerous cysts are usually unilocular radiolucency lesions?
A- True.
1189 - Dentigerous cysts are usually located at the angle of the mandible?
A- True.
 1190- Dentigerous cysts are mistaken with amelobalstoma as they locate in the
angle of the mandible?
A- False, ameloblastomas are multilocular radiolucent lesions.
1191- Radicular cysts are unilocular radiolucencies?
A- True.
1192- Odontogenic keratocysts usually cause jaws expansion?
A- False, they do not normally cause expansion.
1193- Radicular cysts are associated with non-vital teeth?
A- True.
1194- Ameloblastomas are malignant lesions of the jaws?
A- False, They are benign but invasive.
1195- Amelobastomas appera histologically as islands od cells with prominent outer
layer of basal cells?
A- True.
1196- Anaphylaxis may cause hypotension but but hypovolaemia?
A- False. It causes hypovolaemia due to fluids movements out of the circulation
into the tissues.
1197- Anaphylaxis is an acute type I hypersensitivity reaction?
A- True, it is triggered by an allergen.
1198- The allergen binds to Ig A?
A- False, it binds to IgE which is already bound on masts cells.
1199- This binding releases large ammounts of inflammatory mediators particularly
Histamine?
A- True.
1200- Type I haypersensetivity always have immediate onset withen seconds?
A- False. The onset may delayed for 45 minutes for the allergan (eg. Oral
pencillin) to be absorbed and pass from circulation to tissues.
1201- Topical application of some allergans can cause immediate reaction?
A- True.

Those questions come as Multiple choice questions with several options to

choose from, as the options vary sometimes and to avoid repeating the same
question again, we only put the right answer. But in the exam you will find the
right answer with other wrong answers, so please be aware of clinical cases.

1202-A patient called you 2 hours after having his first mandibular molar extraction,
he complained from persistent bleeding what do you advice him:
 A- Go to the hospital
B- Come back to the clinic
C- Bite on a clean piece of cotton to stop the bleeding.
Answer: C as little blood can make a fuss a mess in the area, biting on th cotton
just stop the bleeding.
1203-Post extraction excessive bleeding (more than 500ml loss of blood) can be
treated by suturing the extraction site in the clinic?
A- False, Transexamic acid (500mg in 5 ml) intravenous infusion, is required.
1204-Hyperventilation syndrome affects males predominantly?
A- True.
1205-Breathing in a paper bag can overcome hyperventilation by controlling The
Alkalosis.
1206-Asthmatic attack can be diagnosed by expiratory wheezing and shallow
breathing.
1207-Which of the following is not a correct management in asthmatic attack:
a- intramuscular adrenaline 1/1000
b- Lay the patient flat.
c- 200 mg Hydrocortisone sodium succinate .
d- Salbutamol nebulizer.
A- b
1208-Interaction between pethidine and monoamino oxidase inhibitors causes
Hypertension.
1209-Interaction between intravenous barbiturates and antihypertensive drug cause
hypotension.
1210-Sedation and diazepam can control psychiatric patient who suffer withdrawl
drug syndrome?
A- False, diazepam can worsen the situation and sedation could be fatal.
1211-Which is used in the management of hypoglycaemic attack: a- Glycogen b-
Glucagon, c- Glucose
A- b and c, glucago 1 mg intramuscularly and 20 ml of 20-50% sterile glucose
intravenously.
1212-The main cause of fainting is a vasovagal attack.
1213- Nitros oxide and oxygen (50/50) and glycerol trinitrate 0.5mg sublingually
are used in Chest pain (angina).
1214-A later feature of cardiac arrest is pupils’ dilation and loss of their light
reaction. An immediate pallor and respiratory arrest happen suddenly.
1215-Assess the pulse in the cardiac arrest in the wrist?
 A- False, in the neck palpate the carotid artery anterior to the sternomastoid.
1216-In cardiac arrest which of these are likely to be used:
a- 0.01 mg/kg adrenaline intravenous.
b- Hydrocortisone succinate 200mg.
c- 100 ml of 8.4% Sodium bicarbonate of 10ml/minute.
d- Sabutamol
A- a and c.
1217-Adrenalines, Chlorpheniramine, hydrocortisone sodium succinate, are used in
the management of anaphylactic shock?
A- True. 0.5ml of 1/1000 adrenaline intramuscularly, 10-20 mg
chlorpheneramine intravenously, and 200 mg of hydrocortisone sodium
succinate intravenously.
1218-In grand mal attack, lay the patient flat?
A- False, recovery position.
1219-In grand mal attack give the patient 10-20 mg diazepam intravenously?
A- True. Repeat every 5 minutes.
1220-A patient with spina bifidia attends the clinic, what allergy you should be
suspect?
A- Latex allergy. It is seen in 60% of spina bifidia patients.
1221-What type of allergy is the latex allergy?
A- Type IV, with symptoms may take 24-48 hours to develop after exposure.
1222-The vermilion border of the mouth is the main area for contact dermatitis.
1223- Nicle in partial dentures can cause a rash (but not oral reaction).d-
1224-Amoxicillin and ampicillin are best avoided in which of these: a- Alcholisim,
b- Asthma C- Gout, d- Addison disease.
A- C
1225-Clindamycine is best avoided in diarrhoea, renal diseases and liver diseases?
A- True.
1226-Tetracycline is best avoided in children under 7 and in myasthenia gravis.
1227-Ampicillin and amoxycillin are contraindicated in infectious mononucleosis.
1228-Metronidazole is contraindicated in pregnancy and alcoholism.
1229- What is the fruit to be avoided with cyclosporin and terfenadine?
A- Grapefruit, it causes toxicity.
1230-Oral penicillin is the main cause of anaphylactic shock?
A- False. Parenteral penicillin not the oral is the main cause.
1231- Necrosis is the loss of blodd supply (coagulative), or because of toxins causes
celluar swelling, protein denaturation and organellar breakdown?
A- True.
1232- Hypoxia or ischemia is an important cause of cell injury ?
A- False. Hypoxia can cause celluar death because of oxygen deficiency, where
ischemia is the loss of blood supply because of arterial flow or venous drainage.
1233- Anaemia, ischemia, or poisoning CO in blood can cuses hypoxia and cell
death?
A- True.
1234- Certain bacteria can elaborate phospholipases that degrade cell membrane
phospholipids?
A- True. Leading to cell death.
1235- Toxins can inactivate cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria resulting in
depletion of ATP?
A- True.
1236- All striated skeletal muscles can tolerate complete ischemia for 2-3 hours?
A- False. Cardiac muscles will suffer death after 20-30 miuntes.
1237- Reduced Oxygen will lead to reduced ATP, reduced sodium pump in cells,
and increased osmotic pressure and swelling of cells?
A- True.
1238- Dmage the lysosomal membrane leads to its enzyme escapes to the cytoplasm
reduced PH +degredation of cytoplasmic and nuclear components?
A- True. This can be irreversible damage and cell death.
1239- Unfortunatelly, cell death cannot be detected by blood tests?
A- False. After cell death, proteins escape to the peripheral circulation and can be
detected in blood, which refer to cell death.
1240- Creatine kinase enzyme and troponin protein are specific incicators for lever
damage?
A- False. Troponin is a contraction protein for cardiac muscles (heart damage).
1241- Enzyme alkaline phosphate can be measured to detect lever damage?
A- True. It is located specially in bile duct.

1242- Increased cystolic calcium can lead to cellular death?

A- True. It is an indication of membrane degradation, celluar swelling. It is a
potential mediator of the morphologic alterations in cell death.
1243- Free radicals can promote cell death?
A- True, such as H, OH, ionising radiation and ultraviolet light.
1244- Free radicals effects on cells is only by affecting the deoxyribonucleic acid
DNA?
A- False. Although they affect the DNA but it is not the only damage they cause.
They can lipid peroxidation the membrane and cross-linking of proteins (enhansed
degradation and loss of enzymic activity).
1245- Free radicals reaction with DNA can produce a single stand breaks?
A- True, Causing cellular death or malignant changes.
1246- Cellular swelling the first mainfestation of cells injury?
A- True.
1247- Necrosis can cause enzyme digestion of the cell and denaturation of protein?
A- True.
1248- Myocardial necrosis is considered as a caseous necrosis?
A- False. It is Coagulative necrosis.
1249- Caseous necrosis is destinctive to foci of tuberculous infections (cheesy
necrotic area).?
A- True.
1250- Fat necrosis can be seen in pancreatic injury?
A- True. After pancreatic enzymes escape from acinar cells and ducts.
1251- Liquefactive necrosis can be triggered by bacterial or fungal infections?
A- True. Gangreous necrosis can be considered as a liquefactive necrosis.
1252- Inflammation is a reaction by tissues to Apoptosis?
A- False. No inflammatory reaction happens.
1253- In Apoptosis, Karyorrhexis occur?
A- True.
1254- Apoptosis can be gene activated, physiologic or pathologic?
A- True.
1255- Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a good example of defective Microtubules
polymerisation (in cells)?

A- True. This can delay or decrease fusion of Lysosomes and phagosomes in

Leukocytes, and impair destruction of phagocytosed bacteria.
1256- Cellular Lysosomes are 6-8 nanometer?
A- False. They are 0.2-0.8 micrometer. Microtubules are 6-8 nanometer.
1257- Cellular Lysosomes are responsible to breakdown phgocytosed materials?
A- True. In two ways: Heterophagy or Autophagy
1258- The removal of necrotic cells by macrophages is a heterophagy phase?
A- True.
1259- Autophagy is more responsible to remove damaged organelles or atrophic
cells?
A- True.
1260- Megamitochonria are seen in Alcoholic liver disease and nutritional
defieceincies?
A- True.
1261- Drug abuse is the main cause of fatty liver in industrialised nations?
A- False. Alcohol abuse.
1262- In Xanthomas, macrophages accumulate intracellular cholestrol?
A- True. And appear as cluster masses.
1263- The dental nurse is not required to be registered with the GDC?
A- False. Since the 1st of August 2009, dental nurses are required to register with
the GDC.
1264- Dental nurses are not required to complete CPD (continuous professional
development) hours after registration?
A- False. They are required to complete 150 hours of CPD over five years.
1265- The verified hours are 50 hours out of the 150 hours?
A- True.

1266- Necrosis is the loss of blodd supply (coagulative), or because of toxins causes
celluar swelling, protein denaturation and organellar breakdown?
A- True.
1267- Hypoxia or ischemia is an important cause of cell injury ?
A- False. Hypoxia can cause celluar death because of oxygen deficiency, where
ischemia is the loss of blood supply because of arterial flow or venous drainage.
1268- Anaemia, ischemia, or poisoning CO in blood can cuses hypoxia and cell
death?
A- True.
1269- Certain bacteria can elaborate phospholipases that degrade cell membrane
phospholipids?
A- True. Leading to cell death.
1270- Toxins can inactivate cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria resulting in
depletion of ATP?
A- True.
1271- All striated skeletal muscles can tolerate complete ischemia for 2-3 hours?
A- False. Cardiac muscles will suffer death after 20-30 miuntes.
1272- Reduced Oxygen will lead to reduced ATP, reduced sodium pump in cells,
and increased osmotic pressure and swelling of cells?
A- True.
1273- Dmage the lysosomal membrane leads to its enzyme escapes to the cytoplasm
reduced PH +degredation of cytoplasmic and nuclear components?
A- True. This can be irreversible damage and cell death.
1274- Unfortunatelly, cell death cannot be detected by blood tests?
A- False. After cell death, proteins escape to the peripheral circulation and can be
detected in blood, which refer to cell death.
1275- Creatine kinase enzyme and troponin protein are specific incicators for lever
damage?
A- False. Troponin is a contraction protein for cardiac muscles (heart damage).
1276- Enzyme alkaline phosphate can be measured to detect lever damage?
A- True. It is located specially in bile duct.

1277- Increased cystolic calcium can lead to cellular death?

A- True. It is an indication of membrane degradation, celluar swelling. It is a
potential mediator of the morphologic alterations in cell death.
1278- Free radicals can promote cell death?
A- True, such as H, OH, ionising radiation and ultraviolet light.
1279- Free radicals effects on cells is only by affecting the deoxyribonucleic acid
DNA?
A- False. Although they affect the DNA but it is not the only damage they cause.
They can lipid peroxidation the membrane and cross-linking of proteins (enhansed
degradation and loss of enzymic activity).
1280- Free radicals reaction with DNA can produce a single stand breaks?
A- True, Causing cellular death or malignant changes.
1281- Cellular swelling the first mainfestation of cells injury?
A- True.
1282- Necrosis can cause enzyme digestion of the cell and denaturation of protein?
A- True.
1283- Myocardial necrosis is considered as a caseous necrosis?
A- False. It is Coagulative necrosis.
1284- Caseous necrosis is destinctive to foci of tuberculous infections (cheesy
necrotic area).?
A- True.
1285- Fat necrosis can be seen in pancreatic injury?
A- True. After pancreatic enzymes escape from acinar cells and ducts.
1286- Liquefactive necrosis can be triggered by bacterial or fungal infections?
A- True. Gangreous necrosis can be considered as a liquefactive necrosis.
1287- Inflammation is a reaction by tissues to Apoptosis?
A- False. No inflammatory reaction happens.
23- In Apoptosis, Karyorrhexis occur?
A- True.
1288- Apoptosis can be gene activated, physiologic or pathologic?
A- True.
1289- Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a good example of defective Microtubules
polymerisation (in cells)?

A- True. This can delay or decrease fusion of Lysosomes and phagosomes in

Leukocytes, and impair destruction of phagocytosed bacteria.
1290- Cellular Lysosomes are 6-8 nanometer?
A- False. They are 0.2-0.8 micrometer. Microtubules are 6-8 nanometer.
1291- Cellular Lysosomes are responsible to breakdown phgocytosed materials?
A- True. In two ways: Heterophagy or Autophagy
1292- The removal of necrotic cells by macrophages is a heterophagy phase?
A- True.
1293- Autophagy is more responsible to remove damaged organelles or atrophic
cells?
A- True.
1294- Megamitochonria are seen in Alcoholic liver disease and nutritional
defieceincies?
A- True.
1295- Drug abuse is the main cause of fatty liver in industrialised nations?
A- False. Alcohol abuse.
1296- In Xanthomas, macrophages accumulate intracellular cholestrol?
A- True. And appear as cluster masses.
1297- Lip incompetence is frequently seen in children?
A- True, it affects 505 of 11 years old children in the UK and USA.
1298- The free gingiva is stippled?
A- False, not stippled.
1299- The mucosa of the mouth is wrinkled or stretched by the effect of the
buccinator muscle?
A- True, it is slightly adherent to this muscle.
1300- Oral mucosa is a keratinised tissue?
A- False. Unkeratinised.
1301- The parotid papilla can be located next to the second upper premolar?
A- False, the maxillary second mollar, and it covers the parotid gland opening.
1302- The ptergomandibular raphe is a land mark for inferior alveolar and lingual
nerves anaesthesia?
A- True. Detect the groove between the ramus and the pterigomandibular raphe.
1303- Taste buds in the mouth can only be detected in the tongue?
A- False, they are in the hard palate as well.
1304- The hard palate is covered by keratinised mucosa?
A- True.
1305- The incisive paipilla covers the incisive foramen, from which the anterior
maxillary nerve emerge?
A- False, the nasopalatine emerges.
1306- The palatine rugae are a forensic landmark?
A- True, they are distinctive for each individual.
1307- The palatine tonsil becomes more distinctive with age?
A- False, they atrophy in adulthood.
1308- The palatine tonsils are collection of sebaceous materials?
A- False, lymphoid materials.
1309- The fovea palatini are located in the soft palate behind the vibrating line?
A- False, their loction on the hard palate infront of the vibrating line,
1310- Fovea palatini are orifices for posterior palatini nerves?
A- False, orifices for minor mucous glands.
1311- Ankyloglossa is a term used to discribe the overdeveloped lingual frenum.
1312- The sulcus terminalis is located in : A- The palate, B- The tongue, 3- The
vestibular groove.?
A- B. It divides the tongue into anterior palatal part (2/3) and posterior pharyngeal
part (1/3).
1313- Foramen caecum is the primordial site tof the development of the thyroid
gland?
A- True.
1314- The lingual follicles are composed of sebaceous tissues?
A- False, lymphatic tissue.
1315- The lingual follicle are located in the sulcus terminalis?
A- false, in the pharygeal part of the tongue. Circumvallet papillae are located in the
sulcus terminalis.
1316- The filliform papillae contains the tase buds?
A- False, the fungi forma papillae.
1317- The fungi form papillae are non-keratinised, while the filiform papillae are
keratinised?
A- True.
1318- The foliate papillae are located in the border of the tongue, while the
fungiform papillae are located mostly on the tip of the tongue?
A- True.
1319- The infraorbital foramen is the exit for the infraorbital nerve only?
A- False, the infraorbital artery ( branch of the maxillary artery) exit from it.,
1320- The ostium is the antrum opening to the middle meatus?
A- True.
1025- The maxillary first mollar roots are the closest to the antrum floor?
A- False, it is the maxillary second mollar roots especially the palatal one.
1321- The digastric muscle attched anteriorly to the digastric fossa in the inferior
midline mandible?
A- True.
1322- The geniohyoid muscle attches the superior tubecles and the genioglossus
muscle the inferior tubercles of the genial tubercles (spines)?
A- True.
1323- The internal oblique ridge is an attachement for the mylohyoid muscle?
A- True. And the mylohyoid muscle forms the floor of the mouth.
1324- The deciduous teeth are whiter than permanent ones because the enamel is
thicker?
A- False, it is thinner but more obaque which gives the whiter appearance.
1325- The maxillary first deciduous incisor shows no mammelons as with the
permanent successor?
A- True.
1326- How to distinguish between the right and left maxillary first premolar?
A- The mesial ridge of the buccal cusp is longer than the distal ridge, and the tip of
the palatal cusp is more mesially located comparing to the tip of the buccal cusp.
1327- How to distingusih between a mandibular first (central) deciduous incisor and
a mandibular second (lateral) deciduous incisor?
A- The diston incisal angle in the lateral is more obtuse and rounded than the central
one.
1328- The maxillary second premolar is larger mesiodistally than the maxillary first
premolar?
A- Fale, it is smaller mesiodistally.
1329- The mandibular second premolar has a smaller crown than the maxillary first
premolar?
A- False, it is larger.
1330- The mandibular first premolar is the smallest premolar?
A- True.
1331- After the alveolar nerve block, all these tissues will be anesthetised apart from:
1- Buccal mandibular gengiva, 2- Skin of the lower lip, 3- Skin of the chin, 4- Labial
mandibular gingiva, 5- Mucosa of the lower lip
A- 1 As the buccal mandibular gingiva is anesthetised by the long buccal nerve.
1332- Ludwig’s angina is a massive infection of the: 1- Cavenous sinus, 2- Orbit 3-
Canine space 4- Masticator space 5- Submandibular, sublingual and submental
space.
A- 5
1333- The infraorbital injection will anaesthetise all of the following:1- Skin of the
mucosa of the upper lid 2- Skin of the overlying zygomatic bones 3- anterior
maxillary teeth, 4- The first and second maxillary premolars, 5- conjunctiva of the
skin of the lower lid, 6- Skin of the lateral aspects of the external nose.
A- 2 is false as it is supplied with the zygomaticofacial nerve, a branch of the
maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve.
1334- Infection of a partially erupted third molar is LEAST likely to spread to: 1-
Parapharyngeal space, 2- parotid space, 3- Submandibular space, 4- Sublingual
space, 5- Masticator space.
A- 2.
1335- The mandibular first premolar is the smallest premolar?
A- True.
1336- Identify the right mandibular second premolar from the left one?
A- The ligual cusp is subdevided into mesiolingual (wider and higher) from the
distolingual cusp.
1337- Thebuccal cusp of the mandibular second premolar is longer and less rounded
than the buccal cusp of the first mandibular premolar?
A- False, it is shorter and less rounded.
1338- The oblique ridge in the upper first molar extends from the mesiopalatal cusp
to the distobuccal cusp?
A- True.
1339- The tubrecle of carabelli is a cusplet usually seen on the mesiobuccal cusp?
A- False, on the mesiopalatal cusp in 60 % of upper first molars.
1340- The smallest cusp in the upper fisrt molar is the distobuccal cusp?
A- True.
1341- The palatal root is the largest of the first upper molar?
A- True.
1342- The tubercle of carabelli is located on the mesiopalatal cusp of the second
upper molar?
A- False, it is usually not found in this molar.
1048- In the mandibulr first permanent molar, the buccal cusps are smaller and less
pointed that the ligual cusps?
A- True.
1343- What is the Dryopithecus pattern in the mandibular first permanent molar?
A- It is a primitive pattern where the mesiobuccal and the distobuccal cusps join at
the floor of the central fossa.
1344- What is the difference between the Y5 pattern and the Dryopithecus pattern?
A- It is the same as the five cusps resemble Y shape.
1345- Locate the left and right mandibular first permanent molars?
A- The mesiobuccal and mesiolingual cusps are larger that the distobuccal and
distolingual cuspa.
1346- The cusplet of carabelli is not found in deciduous upper molars?
A- False, it is well developed on the mesiopalatal cusp of the maxillary second
deciduous molar.
1347- Locate the right and left mandibular first deciduous molars?
A- The The buccal side has two cusps where the mesiobuccal is larger than the
distobuccal cusp, the molar tubercle in the mesial corner of the buccal surface.
1348- The mandibualr second deciduous molar is recognised by a cingulum on the
distobuccal corner?
A- False, the cingulum is located on the mesiobuccal corner of the crown.
1349- What is a paramolar cusp?
A- The cusplet of carabelli appear on the buccal surface of the maxillary first molar
(accessory cusp).
1350- Crabelli cusplet are more common in Negros?
A- False, less common.
1351- All mandibular first central permanent incisors have one root canal?
A- False, in 30% there are two root canals although most share one foramen.
1352- Mandibualr lateral permanent incisors have two root canals in 43% of cases?
A- True, and most have separate foramina.
1353- The mandibualr permanent canines have one root canal in 100% of caese?
A- False, in 6% they have two roots and two foramina.
1354- The maxillary first premolar usually have one root?
A- False, in 85% they have two roots, in 10% one root and in 5% three canals.
1355- the maxillary second premolar usually have on rrot?
A- True, in 75% one root with one canal.
1356- The mandibular first premolar have a single root in 50% and two root in 50%
of cases?
A- False, a single root in 75% with a single canal.
1357- One single root canal is seen in 85%of the madibular second premolars?
A- true.
1358- The maxillar first permanent molar has three roots,and three root canals in
40% of cases?
A- True.
1359- In 60% of cases the maxillar first permanent molar has four root canals, where
the four one is in the distobuccal root?
A- False, although in 60% there is a fourth root canal but it is usually in the
mesiobuccal rrot.
1360- A fourth mesiobuccal root is seen in only 40% of the maxillary second
permanent molars?
A- True.
1361- In the mandibular first permanent molar there are two root canals in the mesial
root and one in the distal root?
A- True.
1362- The distal root of the mandibular first permanent molar have two root canals
in 30% of cases?
A- True.
1363- The distal root of the mandibular second permanent molar has two root canals
in only 8% ?
A- True.
1364- In sufficient backwards growth of the ramus of the mandible will lead to class
II skeletal pattern?
A- True.
1365- A backwards tilt of the middle cranial fossa will cause a class I skeletal pattern?
A- False, class II as with the lack of backwards growth of the mandibular ramus.
1366- Exccessive backwards growth of the mandibular ramus will cause a class III
skeletal pattern?
A- True.
1367- Excess maxillary vertical growth comparing with the vertical growth of the
ramus will cause class II pattern?
A- True.
1368- Locate the lip function where the upper incisors are proclined and the lower
incisors are retroclined?
A- Lips function behind the upper incisors and infront of the lower ones.
1369- Vertical drifting in the mandibular premolars, canines and incisors will cause
an anterior open bite?
A- True, to accommodate a backward mandibular rotation.
1370- Myofacial appliances are mostly used to correct class II malocclusion?
A- True.
1371- Teeth germs develop from dental lamina?
A- True.
1372- The dental lamina is epithelial cells derived from epithelial band?
A- True.

1373- Dentine formation always preceed enamel formation?

A- True, although dentine formation by odontoblasts is induced by the internal
enamel epithelium.
1374- The odontoblasts are differentiated from columnar cells of the dental papilla?
A- True.
1375- The root sheath of Hertwig induces the odontoblasts formation from the
dental papilla and the production of dentine to form the roots of teeth?
A- True.
1376- The formation of teeth roots finishes by the coplete eruption of the crown?
A- False, it takes 3-5 years after the eruption of the cron to complete roots formation.
1377- The pulp extrusion and blood pressure plays the most important part of teeth
eruption?
A- False, as rootless teeth found to erupt.
1378- The dental follicle has the major part in teeth eruption?
A- True.
1379- Spaces between primary incisor teeth are considered as malocclusion?
A- False, they should be spaced, if not this is a sign of crowding in permanent
occlusion.
1380- Where are anthropoid spaces located?
A- Between the upper lateral incisors and canine, and between the lower canine and
the first molar in primary dentition.
1381- The maxillary lateral deciduous incisors usually appera at the age of 7 months?
A- False, 11 months.
1382- The maxillay permanent canine usually appear at the age of 11 years?
A- True.
1383- Upper and lower first premolars and lower canines appear nealy in the same
period of time?
A- True at the age of 10 years.
1384- The upper and lower second primary molars appera last in the primary
dentition at the age of 18 months?
A- False, they appear last bu at the age of 27-29 months.
1385- What permanent teeth should erupt at the age of 7 years?
A- The upper central incisors and the lower lateral incisors.
1386- Lee-way space is the difference between the primary canines and molars (-)
the mesiodistal width of the permanent canines and premolars?
A- True.
1387- Leeway space is 2.5 mm in the mandible and 1.5 mm in the maxilla?
A- True.
The growth of brain and cranium is complete by the age of 15 years in girls and later
in boys?
A- False. It is almost complete by 5 years.
1388- The fcial growth is almost complete at 15.5 years in girls and slightly later in
boys?
A- True.
1389- Eruption consequence is more important than the time of eruption?
A- True.
1390- Gates-Gliden burs are made of Nicle-Chrom and used to enlarge the coronal
root canal or removal of gutta-percha points?
A- False, they are made of stanless-steel, but they are used to those purposes.
1391- What is the series of size increase for hand files and instruments?
A- 0.02 mm for sizes 06-10, 0.05 for sizes 10-60 and 0.1 mm for sizes 60-130.
1392- What is the series 29 files?
A- There is a constant 29% increase in the tip diameter between successive sizes, it
has more instruments than the ISO range.
1393- Cavi-endo is used to scal or for endosonic?
A- True, it generates ultrasonic by magnetostriction with a continous flow of sodium
hypochlorite to the file.
1394- In rotary files the rake angle should be slightly positive while the helical flute
angle along the length of the file should be increased to assisst the debris removal?
A- True.
1395- Rotary endodontic handpiece are best perform at sppeds 2000 rpm?
A- False, the low speed is between 150-350 rpm.
1396- Rotary files are frequently breaks because of flexure failure?
A- False, torsional failure due to curved root canals.

1397- Bone consists of two main tissues: the cells (osteocytes) and the intercellular
matrix (mainly collagen)?
A- True.
1398- The inorganic crystals in the matrix are to provide the bone with its tensile
strength?
A- False. The collagen fibres give the bone its tensile strength while the
hydroxyapatite crystals ( inorganic matrix) give its compressive strength.
1399- Bone deposition is carried out by osteoblasts, while its resorption is carried
out by its giant multinucleated osteoclasts?
A- True.
1400- The bone surface is covered by the endosteum?
A- False. It is covered by the Periosteum while the Endosteum is lining the internal
surfaces.
1401- Bony spicules are found in short bones, irregular bone and the ends of long
bones?
A- True. They are arranged along the lines of the principal tensile and compressive
stresses.
1402- Red marrow is mainly seen in adults life?
A- False. Red marrow is seen in the prenatal life and responsible about blood
formation. In adulthood it is only seen in the skull, sternum, vertebrae, shoulder
gridle, hips and proximal ends of some long bones.
1403- In adulthood most of marrows is converted into fatty tissue (yellow marrow)?
A- True.
1404- Compact bone is remodelled from woven bone, it is hard, strong and form the
outer layer of all bones(cortex)?
A- True.
1405- Cancellous bone (spongy) consist of a network of spicules and trabeculae?
A- True.
1406- All the empryonic origion of bones is a cartilage replacing bones?
A- False. There are two origions, 1- Cartilage-replacing bone is formed by
osteoblasts in the remains, 2- Membrane or dermal bone which is formed by
osteoblasts in fibrous connective tissue without preceding cartilage.
1407- The bones of the skull and most facial skeleton are dermal bones derived from
exoskeleton?
A- True.
1408- The clavicle and some skull base bones are mixed origin bone from
endoskeleton and exoskeleton?
A- True.
1409- The diaphysis are the specialised ends of the long bones?
A- False. The ends are the epiphyses, which join the diaphysis (the central part of
long bones) by a junctional region called the metaphysic.
1410- The interior of epiphyses are occupied by cancellous bone?
A- True.
1411- Ossification in the epiphyses leaves an articular cartilage on the surface and
the epiphysial cartilage between the epiphyses and diaphysis?
A- True. And the epiphysial cartilage provides the area of elongation in long bones.
1412- Short bones are cuboidal with six surfaces, four are articular?
A- True. The other two are for ligaments and blood vessels entry.
1413- Short bones develop in cartilage?
A- True.
1414- The diploe is a layer inside long bones?
A- False. It is found in flat bones between the two compact bones. It is cancellous
bone containg red marrow.
1415- The Diploe is not seen at birth?
A- True. At birth flat bones have only single layer. The diploe forms later.
1416- Pneumatic bones are found in air sinuses after the mucous membrane
evagination and lining those cavities?
A- True.
1417- The knee cap is a flat bone?
A- False. It is a Sesamoid bone, forms in certain tendons where they rub on a bony
surface. The surface is covered with articular cartilage.
1418- Greenstick fracture is seen in old bones?
A- False. It is seen in younger bones as they are pliable.
1419- The broken bone reunite by large callus of connective tissue and woven bone?
A- True.
1420- The cartilage cells are called chondorcytes?
A- True.
1421- Hyaline cartilage is found in areas subject to great stress?
A- False. It is then replaced by the fibrocartilage.
1422- The socket joints between teeth and alveolar bone are called: Gomphoses?
A- True.
1423- Sutures are found in the dermal bones in the cranial vault and face, once
growth is ceased, sutures start to fuse?
A- True.
1424- Synchodroses are joints of Hayline cartilage between bones in the base of
skull?
A- True.
1425- Synchondoses are never fuse?
A- False. They fuse after growth is ceased.
1426- Symphyses are highly mobile joints?
A- False. They are slightly mobile found between left and right pubic bones and
intervertebral discs.
1427- Symphyses joints are supported by copious ligaments?
A- True.
1428- Syndesmoses joints are slightly mobile between bony surfaces?
A- True.
1429- Synovial joints are highly mobile joints?
A- True.
1430- Bursa is a part of the Synovial joint?
A- False, but it is adjacent to it making antifriction device.
1431- The walls of Bursa are formed from Synovial membrane?
A- True.
1432- The shoulder joint has a labrum?
A- True. It is a ring of fibrous cartilage.
1433- A meniscus is an incomplete disc or crescent of cartilage?
A- True. It is found in the knee to increase the area of articulating surfaces.
1434- A joint can be held in the close-packed position for long (as in knee) without
effort?
A- True. It is the end of a habitual movement.
1435- The loose-packed position require stress and tiring for muscles?
A- True.
1436- Ligaments are band or cords of fibrous tissues?
A- True.
1437- Intrinsic and extrinsic ligaments are capsulated?
A- False. Extrinsic ligaments are completely isolated from the capsule.
1438- What is Syringomyellia?
A- It is a nervous system disease causing the sensation of pain is lost in joints when
overextended resulting in severe damage.
1439- In osteoarthritis, articular cartilage is destroyed and movements at joints
become restricted and painful.
A- True.
1440- Hilton’s law, when the nerve to a muscle gives a sensory branch to joint which
the muscle moves and another one to the skin over the joint?
A- True.
1441- The tendons of muscles are highly vascularised?
A- False. They are poorly vascularised which makes them appear white.
1442- Tendons are made up of collage fibres which resist stretch but are flexible?
A- True.
1443- Power muscles are large and require small motor unit?
A- False. Motor unit is the number of muscle fibre innervated by a single nerve fibre.
It is large in large muscles and small in precision muscles.
1444- 60% of the fibres in a nerve supplying muscle is motor the remaining 40%
are sensory?
A- True.
1445- The motor fibres are usually small and unmyelinated?
A- False. They have large diameter and heavily myelinated axons of the alpha motor
neurons.
1446- Cells bodies of those axons are located in the grey horn of the spinal cord?
A- True.
1447- The intrafusal muscle fibres are innervated by myelinated axons of the gamma
motor neurons?
A- True. And the bodies are located in the grey horn as well.
1448- Muscles tendons heal quickly because of their flexibility?
A- False. Their poor blood supply will delay the healing.
1449- The dorsal root of the grey matter is the afferent (sensory) one, the ventral
root of the grey matter is the efferent (motor) one?
A- True.
1450- The synovium is the synovial membrane?
A- False, it is the lubricating synovial fluid.
1451- What is Hilton’s law?
A- The nerves that supply a muscle which moves a synovial joint also sends sensory
nerve endings to supply the joint.
1452- There are two types of nerve endings in the joint, preprioceptive endings, and
pain receptors?
A- True.
1453- Pain receptors are Ruffini corpuscles?
A- False. Ruffini corpuscles are preprioceptive endings to convey a sense of position
and degree of movement in the joint.
1454- A shoulder joint is a multiaxial joint?
A- True, it allows free movements in three planes.
1455- Biaxial joints are condyloid joints, allow movements in two planes ( eg.
Metacarpopharyngeal).
1456- A hinge (Ginglymus) joint allows one plane movement (elbow)?
A- True.
1457- A plane joint is encircled with a fibrous ring or cuff?
A- False. This is the pivot joint (head of radius).
1458- Skeletal muscles are striated or stripped muscles?
A- True.
1459- A fasciculus (perimysium) surrounds a bundle of muscle fibrous?
A- True.
1460- Epimysium surrounds the muscle cell?
A- False, it surrounds the full muscle. The endomysium surrounds the muscle cell.
1461- Apponeurosis is a flattened broad tendon?
A- True.
1462- The type of contraction in skeletal muscles is isotonic only?
A- False, they have two types of contraction, isometric and isotonic.
1463- The isotonic produce movements while the isometric produce tension with no
movement?
A- True.
1464- The muscles groups are divided into, prime movers, antagonists, synergists
and fixators?
A- True.
1465- 3/5th of nerve supply to the muscle is motor and 2/5th is sensory?
A-True.
1466- Acytelcholin released by nerve endings play a rule in the contraction of
skeletal muscle?
A- True, the efferent nerve supply to skeletal muscles is cholinergic.
1467- All smooth muscles are involuntary?
A- False, in the urinary bladder they are under voluntary control.
1468- B lymphocytes cells mature in the bone marrow and carried by blood
circulation to the lymph nodes?
A- True.
1469- T lymphocytes cells mature in the thymus gland?
A- True.
1470- Tonsils are clusters of lymphatic tissues?
A- True, like the lingual, palatine and pharyngeal ones.
1471- Lymphatic tissues are only found in the glands or the tonsils?
A- False. They can be found in the spleen, the thymus gland and the jejunum in the
guts (peyer’s patches).
1472- Neurotransmitors can be inhibitory or excitatory?
A- True, the inhibitory stop the impulse at the postsynaptic site, while the excitatory
initiate the impulse at the postsynaptic site.
1473- Neuroglia are nonreactive nerve cells to maintain homestosis, isulation of
nerve processes and nutrition for nurons?
A- True.
1474- There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves?
A- True.
1475- A sudden rapid destruction of many teeth is known as ………..
A- Rampant caries.
1476- Antidepressents, tranquilizers, antihypertensive and diuretics can affect
dental caries progression?
A- True, they can cause Xerostomia, which reduces buffering capacity of saliva.
1477- In early caries lesion (white spot) deminiralisation occurs at the surface of the
lesion?
A- False, the surface is intact, deminiralisation is subsurface.
1478- Root caries are mostly common among youth?
A- False, among elders.
1479- What is meant with arrested lesions?
A- Tooth caries had stoped due to floridated dentifrice. The soft surface is chipped
away leaving a shiny surface.
1480- Caries arround old fillings is called………….
A- Recurrent caries.
1481- The part of the carious lesion which remain after cavity preparation is
called ………….
A- Residual caries.
1482- The normal stimulated saliva secretion in adults should reach 1-2ml/minute.
A- True.
1483- The average saliva secretion per day is 600ml, equal to 0.4ml/miunte?
A- True, but the rate can increase with stimulation/per minute.
1484- In severe xerostomia, saliva secretion drops to 1ml/miunte?
A- false to 0.1-0.7/ minute in stimulation condition (not the normal flow).
1485- Teeth erosion only affects palatal surfaces of teeth?
A- false, the molars teeth will have their cups cupped out in an unexplaines reason.
1486- Enamel hardness is reduced in hypoplastic enamel?
A- False, reduced matrix with thin,pitted enamel but normal hardness.
1487- In hypomineralisation, the enamel thickness stay normal?
A- True.
1488- Tetracycline staining only affects the permanent dentition?
A- False, it can pass the placenta affecting the deciduous dentition.
1489- Shortened roots, bulbous crowns and pulpal oblitration are characteristics
of………
A- Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
1490- Third molars , second premolars and lateral upper incisors are mostly affected
by Hypodontia or Hyperdontia?
A- Hypodontia.
1491- Rehumatic fever can cause cardiac effects?
A- True, heart murmurs.

1492- Coronary bypass operation requires prophylactic antibiotics cover?

A- False.
1493- What is tooth 15 in the FDI system?
A- The upper right second premolar.
1494- What is tooth 16 in the Universal syatem?
A- The upper left third molar.
1495- What is toothe 85 in the FDI system?
A- The lower right second deciduous molar.
1496- What is e in the palmer system?
A- The upper left second deciduous molar.
1497- What is LL8 in the palmer system?
A- The upper left third molar.
1498- What is 75 in the FDI system?
A- The lower left second deciduous molar.
1499- ………and ………..are used for thermal vitality test of the pulp?
A- ethyl chloride and gutta percha.
1500- Why acute apical periodontitis can be localised better by the patient?
A- Because periodontal ligaments have pain and pressure nerve endings while the
pulp contains only pain endings.
1501- Lamina dura remain intact in acute apical periodontitis?
A- True, but it become thinner sometimes.
1502- Clinical symptoms are the best to diagnose chronic apical periodontitis?
A- False, in many time it is symptomless, but appera as radiolucency on radiographs.
1503- A patient is feeling pain on biting, during examination you asked him to bite
on a piece of cotton, pain was felt when releasing the pressure rather than applying
it what is your possible diagnosis?
A- Cracked cusp.
1504- A………….extraction is the extraction of the tooth on the opposing duardent
to the enforce extraction, while…………extraction is the extraction of the same
tooth of the opposite side of the same arch.
A- Compensating, Balancing
1505- What is the purpose of silane in composite fillings?
A- It is a coupling aget enhances the bonding between the filler and the resin matrix.
1506- The micro-filled composite has better………….while the larger filler
particles give better………………,the new ……………is a mixture of filler content.
A- aesthetic, strength, hybrid.
1507- The light cured composite uses a vesible blue light with wave length of …..
A- 470 nm
1508- Glass inomeres are…………while composites are……….
A- Hydrophylic, hydrophopic.
1509- Aluminium polyacrylate is stronger than aluminium silicate glass when used
in glass inomer?
A- True.
1510- Resin modified glass inomer cement RMGIC is a light cured glass inomer?
A- False, this name is inaccurate, better called RMGIC although they are light cured.
1510- Polyacid modified resin composites PAMRC is called mistakenly Compomer?
A- True.
1511- PAMRC are mainly composite?
A- True, although they have aluminum-silicate glass.
1512- What is the reason of cavity edges bevelling in composite fillings?
A- To increase the size of bonding surface which improves stability and reduces the
leackage arround the filler margins.
1513- What wall is best bevelled in class II amalgam restorations?
A- The edge between the side wall and the floor of th filling (occlusal wall) as
amalgam is shallow in this area makes it vulnrable to fracture.
1514- Calcium hydroxide is the best insulater under composite fillings?
A- false, it can colour the fillings, bes to use glass inomer.
1515- In deep cavity it is best to use calcium hydroxide near the pulp followed by
glass inomer to replace the dentine, while composite replaces the enamel?
A- True.
1516- The bulk of matrix in dentine consists of Type….Collagen?
A- type I
1517- Dentinal tubles reduce in diameter from arround 2.5 Microne at the pulp
to ……microne at the enamel-dentine junction?
A- 0.8 microne.
1518- Dentinal tubules reduced in number per mm2 from 45000 at the pulp to…….
At the enamel-dentine junction.
A- 19000
1519- Only glass inomer cement is selfadhiesive while composite, Resin-modified
glass inomer and polyacid modified composites needd adhesieve?
A- True.
1520- What is wet bonding?
A- It I used with moist surfaces by using a hydrophilic material for dentine bonding,
as excesive drying will collapse the tooth surface, HEMA Hydroxy Ethyl
MethAcrylate is a suitable dentine bonding used with solvent like water, acetone or
alcohol.
1521- Dentine bonding requires phsphoric acid etching as enamel for 15-30-
seconds?
A- false, just the smear layer is removed with polyacrylic acid.
1522- Bonding between eanamel and Glass Inomer Cement is stronger than between
the enamel prisms?
A- True.
1523- When bonded amalgam restorations are recommended?
A- With core amalgam restoring broken down crown or a reactured amalgam filling
or cusp when the rest of the restoration is sound.
1524- Which describes the action of washing after acid etching:
A- To remove the remaining phosphoric acid B- To flush the precepitates out of the
formed etch pits?
A- B
1525- Phosphoric acid 30-50% is used for resin fissure sealent while 10%
polyacrylic acid is used for glass inomer fissure sealent?
A- True.
1526- Name four indications for the use of GI fissure sealant instead of the resin
one?
A- 1- Poor orla hygiene 2- Newly erupted teeth 3- High risk caries 4- Moisture
control is difficult.
1527- What is the all etch technique?
A- Instead of making a filling of two steps (GI replacing the dentine and composite
for the enamel) all the surfaces (occlusal enamel and dentine) are etched with acid
for 15 seconds then bonding applied to all+composite and light cured. The dentine
should never be over dried.
1528- Beveling the occlusal surface of a posterior composite filling is to optimize
the adaptation of the composite to the enamel?
A- True.
1529- In class II cavity design, the unfavourable shape of the gingival floor is when
sloping outwards?
A- True.
1530- In class II cavity design, the favourable shape of the gingival floor is when
sloping inwards?
A- True.
1531- Where is the best place for retention grooves for Class II cavity?
A- Axiao- buccal and axiao-distal walls. Another groove in the enamel-dentine
junction gingivally.
1532- What is wedging and what is its benefits?
A- It is inserting a piece of wooden wedge in the interdental space, it will allow
better contour for the band, retract the gingiva which reduces blood contamination
and allow better contact point with the adjacent tooth.
1533- In deep cavity, it is better to line the cavity with calcium hydroxide before
etching when applying composite?
A- True, provide some protection for the pulp against the acid, while this is not
necessary in shallow cavity where the acid can be applied in the whole cavity before
removing and placing the dentine.
1534- In shallow cavities, amalgam can be placed straight in the cavity without
lining?
A- True, while it is better to use calcium hydroxide in deep cavity as a lining.
1535- Amlagam support pins are best placed in the enamel?
A- False, the enamel will frcture they must be placed in the bulk of the dentine.
1536- Amalgam pins have a diameter of 5-7 mm?
A- False 0.5-0.7mm.
1537- GIC used under amalgam or composite restoration is best to be radio-opaque.
1538- Root caries are best treated with GIC?
A- True, there is no huge occlusal forces on them and it bonds well with the dentine,
althought composite can be used but deep cavities must be protected with lining of
calcium hydroxide.
1539- After placing the GIC filling in place you finish it immediately and place a
light cure bonding resin on it?
A- False, finishing GIC filling can be done after 24 hours. Althought th new filling
should be covered with light cured resin immediately to prevent drying or moisture
contamination of th filling.
1540- Amalagm is no loger a choice in smooth surfaces lesions?
A- True, GIC is the best choice followed be Composite where the latter needs more
environment contral in application.
1541- Approximal caries in anterior teeth is a Class…..
A- III
1542- Pina are contraindication with GIC?
A- True as they cause increase local stress with lead to premature failure.
1543- Pins are almost used with composite to improve retention?
A- False, only indicated with elderly wher the crown is snapped off and the root
canal is seclerosed.
1544- Retentive grooves in class III cavity can be done cevicall and occlussaly in th
dentine (axio-cervical and axio-occlusal walls)?
A- True, but with the advanced etching techniques no need for these grooves unless
there is no enough enamel toi etch.
1545- When it is more likely not to use a rubber dam:
1- Class II 2- Class III 3- Class V 4- Full composite crown
A- 4 to get more visiual during application.
1546- Hydrogen peroxide is commonly used by over the counter to bleach teeth ?
A- False, it is banned from sell in the UK because of its toxicity, it is used in the
dental clinic with sodium preporate for internal teeth bleaching.
1547- Crbamide peroxide is legally sold in the UK for teeth bleaching by people?
A- True, it could be 20-35% concentration, it is still can be irretant and cause
sensitivity in teeth.
1548- Metal cast crown needs less preparation than a ceramic criwn?
A- True, it is enough of 1mm to give its strength while it needs 1.5 mm of thickness
for ceramic.
1549- It I better to bevel the ceramic restoration edges for better contour?
A- False, thin ceramic edges will fracture.
1550- Resin modified glass inomere cement and GIC are stronger than zinc
phosphate cement when used as adhesive for crowns?
A- True.
1551- What is the advantages of indirect composite restorations?
A- Less shrinkage as polymirisation happens in the die.
1552- In metal onlay you must put a lining before cementing the restoration in place?
A- False, the lining is required under metal onlays and inlays bot this should be done
before the impression is taken otherwise the restoration will net fit into place later.
1553- GIC is the best lining under metal cast inlays?
A- True, but should be smoothed properly.
1554- What are aluminium chloride cords?
A- Gingival retraction cords.
1555- Ceramic venners are luted by using th etch and light curing cement?
A- true. Lightly filled resein cement.
1556- Copper in amalgam can improve maginal adaptation and resistance to
corrosion?
A- True.
1557- Acrylic resin restorations are not more in use because of their high contraction
after polymirisation?
A- True, it is about 6% comparing with 1.5-3% in composite.
1558- Porosity in chemical composite is less than that in light cured one?
A- false, it is higher about 2-5% because of mixing.
1559- Calcium hydroxide can be safely used under composite as a lining while zinc
oxide euogenol should be avoided?
A- True, as the latter may affect the colour stability of the composite.
1560- Polymethylmethacrylate is the main component in acrylic resin powder?
A- true.
1561- The etching technique used with composite fillings is considered as type I?
 A- True, as the acid removes the core of Hydroxyapatite crystals, in Type II the
removal is for the peripheries with the core left intact.
1562- Whai si type III etching?
A- When the etched area resembles both Type I and Type II.
1563- What is the cermet?
A- it is a metal-reinforced glass inomer cements.
1564- Which of these cement got the best compressive strength:
1- Glass Inomere 2- Zinc phosphate 3- Polycarboxilate 4- Silicophosphate
A- 4 Silicophosphate 170 MPa Followed by GI 70, Zinc phosphate and poly
carboxylate had 70 MPa too.
1565- Zinc phosphate cement has a high solubility rate and erosion, it is not
recommended in situation where it might be in a contact with saliva.
A- true,
1567- GI cement is more resistant to erosion from Zinc phosphate?
A- True.
1568- Silicophosphate is used primarily as a temporary restoration?
A- True although it is stronger than zinc phosphate, but its fluoride leaching give it
antibacterial charachteristics.
1569- Copper elements are used in the past for temporary teeth restoration?
A- True, it is not hard enough but it can last untill the tooth exfoliate, it has
bactericidal effects(because of copper).
1570- From the following which is most used as leuting material?
1- Silicophosphate, 2- Copper elements 3- Zinc phosphate
A- 3 Zinc phosphate.
1571- Since 1 August 2008, Dental Care professionals DCP are recuired to do 150
of CPD over 5 years?
A- True. This is mandatory to remain on the GDC register to practice.
1572- The GDC will introduce a new revalidation scheme includes a portfolio of
evidence for practioners over the 5 years to stay on the register?
A- True, for more information refer to the GDC website, the revalidation scheme is
not in use yet.
1573- Registration in the GDC is a legal requirements for dentists only who wish to
practice dentistry in the UK?
A- False it is a legal requirements for 1-dentists and for:

s
1574- What are the types of indemnity cover which are recognised by the GDC?
A- • Dental defence organisation membership; (e.g. Dental
Protection, Dental Defence Union (DDU) and the Medical
and Dental Defence Union of Scotland (MDDUS)) – either
your own membership or cover provided by your
employer’s membership.
• Professional indemnity insurance held by you or
your employer
• NHS/Crown indemnity

1575- The indemnity cover is a requirement for general practitioners who might be
involved in claims with patients?
A- True, not required for retired practitioners.

1576- From july 2010 dentla professional who are starting a new job or start working
for the first time must register with an independent Safeguard Authority ISA?
A- True. This is called Vetting and Barring scheme.
1577- Of the 150 hours CPD required from DCPs over five years, how many should
be verified hours?
A- 50 hours.
1578- Dentists are required to do 250 hours CPD ovr 5 years, 75 hours should be
verified?
A- True,
1579- The verified hours of CPD must include:
10 hours of medical emergincies
5 hours of decontamination and disinfection
5 hours of radiography and radiation protection
A- True.
1580- What is the deadline for paying the retention fees for the GDC?
A- 31 December for dentists, and 31 july for dental care professional
1581- Dental hygienest can apply infilitrated analgesia if she or he hold a diploma
in Dental therapy in addition to the diploma in Dental hygiene awarded after 1992?
A- True.
1582- A dental hygienest can apply infilitrated analgesia if she or he had completed
a training in local analgesia and hold a certificate in local analgesia application.
A- True.
1583- The preliminary proceeding committee does not have the power to suspend
dentists?
A- False, it can suspend himm immediately if there is a member of the puplic is at
risk, pending the case to the professional conduct committee.
1584- The preliminary proceeding committee meets twice a year in March and
September?
A- True.
1585- The professional conduct committee meets twice a year in May and
November?
A- True.
1586- The professional conduct committee is a president and 10 members, 5 are
elected, 2 are lay memebers (barrister and a solicitor with no less than 10 years
experience).?
A- True, the lay members for legal advice.
1587- The health committee meets twice a year in January and july?
A- True.
1588- The professional conduct committee meets in private?
A- False, in public.
1589- The health committee meets in private?
A- True.
1590- The professional conduct committee can suspend the dentist registration for
a period not exceeding 12 months, or erase his name?
A- True.
1591- - The health committee has a chairman and five members (dentists) and two
lay mambers?
A- True.
1892- A dental hygiene can ectract temporay teeth?
A- False.
1593- - A dental hygiene can do:
*Cleaning and polishing of teeth
*Scaling teeth and removing deposits
* application of prophylactic materials on teeth
* apply infilitration anaesthesia (if trained) od do scaling under regional anaesthesia
or local anaesthesia applied by the dentist.
* place a temporary dressing to the tooth under the supervission of the dentist.
A- True for all of the above.
1594- A dental therapist ca:
*cleaning and polishing teeth;
* scaling teeth (that is to say, the removal of deposits, accretions
and stains from those parts of the surfaces of the teeth which
are exposed or which are directly beneath the free margins of
the gums, including the application of medicaments appropriate
thereto);
* the application to the teeth of such prophylactic materials as the
Council may from time to time determine;
*giving advice for the proper performance of dental work.
A- True.
1595- Dental hygienists and dental therapists are permitted to treat
patients under conscious sedation or general anaesthesia?
A- False, they are not permitted to do so.
1596 - Dental hygienists and dental therapists are permitted to take radiographs if
they are fully trained?
A- True.
1597- A third person should be present on the premises at all times when
dental hygienists and dental therapists undertake the treatment of patients?
A- True.

1598 - A third person should be present on the premises at all times when
dental hygienists and dental therapists undertaking domiciliary treatment of patients?
A- True.
1599- A dental hygienist can employ a dentist to examine patients or prescribe
treatment?
A- False.
1600- Dental hygienists should not advertise or canvass for the purpose of
obtaining patients for any dental practice, whether or not they are
employed in it?

A- True.
1601- What happens if the dentist failed to pay his annual retention fees ARF in
time?
A- the GDC will circle his name for removal to the primary care trust, health board
an protection societies. He must pay a restoration fees to restore his name on the
dentist register (restoration fees are normally more than the registration fees).
1602- Aesthetically, SNA should be more than SNB with 3 degrees?
A- True +- 2 If SNA< SNB this is a class III, and when SNA too much more than
SNB it is a class II.
1603- Retention following orthodontic treatment in adults is less than that needed
for children?
A- False, the slower rate of tissue regeneration make the need for prolonged or even
permanent retention.
1604- Overbite is adults can be treated by intrusion rather than extrusion?
A- True, as extrusion of the molars can cause a relapse after stopping the treatment.
1605- Why isolated cleft palate is more common in female rather than males?
A- Because transposition of the palatal shelves happen at a later stage in female
fetus making them more susceptible for environmental insult which affects
successful elevation.
1606- Cleft lip is more common in males?
A- True.
1607- The cleft lip is more common on the left side?
A- True.
1608- Isolated cleft is seen in 1/750 of births?
A- False. 1/2000
1609- Cleft lip is common in males while cleft palate is common in females?
A- True.
1610- Concave profile is a feature of cleft anomaly?
A- True, due to the restriction of growth.
1611- Cleft lips are treated at the age of 3 months in the UK?
A- True, also there is a wide variation of the timing for repair.
1612- In the UK the time to repair a cleft palate is at 5 years?
A- False, this is an European agenda, while in the UK it is 9-12 months old as the
child may foster some bad masticatory habits which are hard to eradicate later. But
with the delaying technique, the transverse growth of the maxilla is improved.
1613- Bone grafting in best carried out at the age of 12?
A- False, at 8-9 years old before the eruption of the canine. The palate is better
expanded before the graft by using a quadhelix device.
1614- Hemifacial microsomia is seen in 1/5000 births?
A- True.
1615- Hemifacial reconstruction is carried out by three stages:
1- Early costochondral rib graft at 5-8 years for severe cases only.
2- Distraction osteogenesis at 12-15 years after adolescence burst.
3- Late teen reconstruction for the facial contour.
1616- Hypoplastic malar, anti-mongolid slant, cleft palate, deformed ears,
hypoplastic air sinsuse and mandibular retrognathia are characteristics for which
syndrome?
A- Treacher-collins syndrome.
1617- Retrognathic mandible and cleft palate are seen in Pierre Robin syndrome?
A- True.
1618- A brain damage may occur at craniosynotosis?
A- True, as the premature fusion of cranial suture leads to increased intracranial
pressure.
1619- Genioplasty is the reconstruction of which part?
A- The chin.
1620- What is the difference between tooth resection and tooth bicuspidisation?
A- Resection for any multirooted tooth, bicuspidisation for the mandibular molars
primarily.
Resection keeps on root and removes all the other roots, Bicuspidization keeps
booth teeth and restore the crowns for both teeth with artificial crowns.
1621- Resin sealers for root canal treatment was suspended from use because they
are expensive?
A- False, because they release formaldehyde.
1622- GI cement in root canal sealing can reduce the coronal leakage?
A- True, and gutta-percha bond with it as with zinc oxide euogenol.
1623- What is the taper size of cuttaperch point?
A- 0.02 mm with new manufactured at 0.04 and 0.06 mm to prevent deep spreader
penetration through the tooth apex.
1624- Modern Gutta-percha condensers are made from Nickel-Titanium not
stainless steel?
A- True.
1625- What is the maximum safe dose for : Aspirin, Ibuprofin and paracetaml
A- Aspirin 4g/day, Ibuprofen 2.4g/day Paracetamol 4g/day.
1626- Tooth with necrotic pulps tend to respond to a lower level of electric current?
A- False, higher level.
1627- Tooth with acute inflamed pulps tend to respond to a lower level of electric
current?
A- True.
1628- ………is the material of choice for cold application to check tooth vitality?
A- Ethyl chloride making ice crystals on a cotton pledge.
1629- Excessive drying of deep cavity can damage the odontoblasts?
A- True, as it causes odontoblasts aspiration retracting their bodies towards the
dentinal tubules, but no damage to the pulp.
1630- Temporary crown can damage the tooth pulp because of their toxicity?
A- False, because of the marginal leakage and bacteria invasion to the dentinal
tubules. So, they must be cemented adequately.
1631- All dark stained dentine should be considered as carious and removed before
placing the filling?
A- False, the hardness not the colour is the indicator, dark stained but hard dentine
can be left in situe.
1632- In indirect pulp capping, what is the point of using calcium hydroxide and
then zinc oxide euogenol?
A- Calcium hydroxide is applied over the left carious dentine as it stimulates pulp
repair, while zinc oxide-euogenol will leash the euogenol killing the remaining
bacteria.
1633- The accepted concentration for NaOcl Hypochloride sodium as a root canal
irrigator varies between 0.5-5.25% ?
A- True, higher concentrations can be irritant to tissue around the tooth if pushed
through the apex.
1634- Chlorhexidine, iodine potassium iodide and electrolytically activated water
are used successfully to irrigate teeth canals?
A- True.
1635- What is EDTA?
A- Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid. It is used in 17.5% as a final rinse for the root
canal. It is used to gain access to calcified canals.
1636- Metronidazole was for use in irrigation and intracanal dressing?
A- True.
1637- What antibiotic is added to Ledermix?
A- Doxcycline a derivative of tetracycline.
1638- Chlorhexide can be used as 0.12-2% as disinfectant and irrigant?
A- Tru.
1639- What is the best concentration for chlorhexidine gel as irrigant or dressing?
A- 1-5%
1640- What is the formocresol solution?
A- 19% Formaldehyde, 35% cresol 46% water and glycerine. It is used as dressing
in pulpotomy.
1641- Iodine can be used as root canal disinfectant 5% solution?
A- False, 2% for irrigation and short term dressing.
1642- - Iodine can be used as 5% for field disinfection?
A- True.
1643- Phenols are used for root canal irrigation?
A- True.
1644- What is paramonochlorphenol?
A- PMCP is 30% phenol 60% campher and 10% ethanol.
1645- External root resorption can cause ankylosis and giving a metal sound on
percussion?
A- True.
1646- Smear layer must be removed by EDTA in infected teeth, but can be left in
non-infected teeth as it makes a plug at the apex preventing the escape of irrigant
solutions.?
A- True.
1647- Root canal filling with guttaperch (the cold technique) requires the use of a
sealer?
A- True, zinc oxide euogenol or glass inomer cement are suitable sealers.
1648- Guttapercha in the thero-heated technique does not require a sealer?
A- True, the gutta-percha is heated or (melted in electrical injectors/thermoplastic
delivery system) prior to placing in the canal so it bonds well to the walls.
1649- What is the chloropercha?
A- The use of chloroform to soften the gutta-percha before placing in the canal. The
master point is inserted and shape with the canal walls then hardens as the
chloroform evaporates. Zinc oxide and eugenol is now added to act as a sealer. Then
continue as with the cold technique.
1650- The less the bevel you make at the root apex in apicectomy, the less the depth
needed for the retro-cavity?
A- True, a 90 degree cut needs only 1mm depth cavity, while a 30 degrees needs
2.1mm and a 45 degrees needs 2.5mm.
1651- What is the super EBA?
A- It is modified zinc oxide euogenol used to seal the spex after root apicectomy.
1652- What is the IRM?
A- Reinforced zinc oxide euogenol used for retro-cavity sealing in apicectomy.
1653- GIC and Dentine bonded composite resin are not used to retrocavity filling?
A- False, they had showed good results if applied carefully. With the composite new
lamina dura and periodontium were seen, plus cementum deposits in contact with
composite but still needs more follow up studies.
1654- What is Diaket?
A- It is polyvinyl resin, there is a Diaket tricalcium phoshate paste they have great
seling ability in retrograde filling.
1655- What is MTA?
A- Mineral trioxide aggregate, in trial use for apical seal in apicectomy. It has good
potential.
1656- Polyetheline, polyglactin, polypropylin, tefoln are different knids of……….
A- Suture.
1657- How many recommende days for splinting a replantation/trasplantation tooth?
A- 5-7 days with soft acrylic splint.
1658- Spontaneous pain, swelling tenderness to biting are contraindications for
indirect pulp capping?
A- True.
1659- Electrosurgery is used in vitla primary teeth pulpotomy but excessive heat
can cause root resorption?
A- True, it is still experimental and better to mecahnically remove the coronal pulp
then treat the remaing by electrosurgery.
1660- One or two visits pulpotomy is recommended with foromaldehyde?
A- True.
1661- Glutaraldehyde 20% is used for pulpotomy?
A- False. 2%
1662- The main failure seen by using Glutaraldehyde for pulpotomy is external root
resorption?
A- False, internal resorption.
1663- Ferric sulphate is successfully used in pulpotomy?
A- True, it is used to control bleeding during surgery and for gingival retraction, and
now is on trial for pulpotomy with promising results and less time required than
formocresol.
1664- Ferric sulphate is used in pulpotomy in 15.5% concentration?
A- True.
1665- …..was more successful than calcium hydroxide in pulp capping?
A- MTA.
1666- Bone morphogenic proteins BMPs are used in pulpotomy?
A- True, they induce reparative dentine.
1667- Lentulo spiral fillers are used to file primary teeth in pulpectomy?
A- False, they are used to fill the canals with sealers.
1668- In primary teeth pulpectomy non-resorbable materials should be used to seal
the canals?
A- False, resorpable only like calcium hydroxide, zinc oxide euogenol or iodoform
paste.
1669- Root canal filler stops at 1mm of the root apex?
A- False, leave 2 mm of the apices for the prepared canals.

1670- Stainless-steel crowns are indicated for primary molars crown restoration
after pulpectomy?
A- True, to protect the remaining crown.
1671- In immature permanent teeth pulpectomy, root filling is established in two
stage:…….
A- 1- Filing up to 1 mm of the tooth apex and seal the canal with caclium hydroxide
and review on radiographs (refill if resorbed).
1672- After the apex barrier is established, the final root filling is done by
guttapercha as normal.
1673- The longer the ray wave is the more it can penetrates tissues?
A- false.
1674- X ray wave length is 10 Micrometer?
A- False. 10 Nano meter
1675- The electron is 1/1840 of the mass of the proton?
A- True.
1676- Electrons are negatively charged, protons are positively charged and neutrons
are nil charged?
A- True.
1677- What is scattering in X ray?
A- The photons change their direction with or without loss of energy.
1678- High range energy rays are those with short wave?
A- True.
1679- Using the 50KV X ray machine is safer than the high energy 70 KV?
A- False, the risk of radiation decrease with high power machine as they need less
exposure time.
1680- The ideal distance from focal to target is ….cm with operators > 60 KV,
and ….cm for operators <60KV?
A- 20 cmm, 10 cmm
1681- E speed film requires half the exposure time needed in D speed films?
A- True.
1682- The new F speed films are 20-25% faster than E speed films?
A- True.
1683- In manual processing the film is developed for …. Minutes in …..degress C,
then rinsed with water for …. Fixing tims is ….minutes and last wash
for …..minutes before drying.
A- 5minutes, 20 Degrees C, 10 seconds, 8-10 minutes,
1684- For panoramic radiographs the recommended height of the beam is 125-150
mm?
A- True.
1685- Dental nurses, hygienests and therapists should have adequate training in
radiology?
A-True.
1686- The bitewing radiograph film size is 31X41mm?
A- False this is for periapicals, for bitewings it is 22X35mm
1687- Occlusal radiographs are 57X76mm?
A- True.
1688- Lead aprons protect against scattered rays internally withen the body?
A- False. Just the outer beam.
1689- Protective aprons should have lead no less than 0.25mm?
A- True.
1690- Workers is dentistry are mostly considered classified workers?
A- False, those in dentistry are non-classified workers, Classified ones receive a
high dose of radiation exposure.
1691- The new annual limits for radiation dose is: 1mSv for the public, 6mSv for
non-classified workers and 20mSv for classified workers?
A- True.
1692- Personal monitoring and annual health check are compulsary for dental staff?
A- False, just for classified workers (not in dentistry).
1693- New 2001 guide lines recommend to monitor dental staff who exceed 100
intraoral or 50 panoramic radiographs weekly?
A- True.
1694- The new guidance suggest a maximum of 1 mSv for operators and 0.3mSv
for employees (not directly involved in Xray) as an annual limit?
A- True.
1695- Pregnant staff should not exceed 1mSv in the term of pregnancy?
A- True.
1696- Low risk caries patients can be monitored every 6 months by radiographs?
A- False, this is for the high risk, low risk is 1-1.5 year intervals.
1697- Moderate risk patients can be safely monitored every 12 months?
A- True.
1698- Ionization chambers are the most accurate method to measure radiation
exposure?
A- True, but the are fragile and less sensitive to low energy radiation.
1699- A film badge to monitor radiation is fitted to the operators chest?
A- False, usually on the level of reproductive organs.
1700- Panoramic radiographs are best used with patienst when under GA?
A- False, the oblique lateral is the choice as extraoral view.
1701- No need to disinfect the film before processing?
A- False, saliva should be removed with hypochlorite to prevent contamination.
1702- The barrier envelope and the packaging can be discarded as normal waste?
A- False, clinical waste.
1703- For digital receptors it must be covered with cling film?
A- True, as for the tubehead and the timer.
1704- Full mouth periapical exposure require 15 radiographs ?
A- True, 7 anterior and 8 posterior.
1705- What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
maxillary incisors?
A- 45 degrees.
1706 - What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
maxillary canines?
A- 50 Degress.
1707- What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
maxillary premolars?
A- 40 degrees.
1708 - What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
maxillary molars?
A- 30 degrees.
1709- What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
mandibular incisors?
A- - 25 degress ( minus the tubehead pointing upwards).
1710 - What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
mandibular canines?
A- -20 degrees.
1711- What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
mandibular premolars?
A- -15 degrees.
1712- What is the best angle for the headtube in bisecting technique for the
mandibular molars?
A- -5 degrees.
1713- The parallel technique is contraindicated in shallow palate?
A- True.
1714- Childre bitwing film size is 22X35 mm?
A- True.
1715- In assessing the periodontal ligament, bitewings radiographs are better over-
exposed?
A- False, should be under-exposed to avoid burn-out of the thin alveolar crestal bone.
1716- Long bitewings are avilable for adults?
A- True, 53X26mm.
1717- In the upper standard occlusal, the tubehead makes 65-70 degrees angle with
the film, aiming down through the bridge of the nose?
A- True.
1718- What is the radiographs used with occlusal films with the tubehead aiming at
65-70 degrees downwards to the film through the patient’s cheek?
A- Upper oblique occlusal.
1719- Upper oblique occlusal is used to assess the antrum floor?
A- True.
1720- Assessing the mandibular buccolingual expansion can be carried out
by…………..
A- The lower 90degrees occlussa.
1721- The lower 90degrees occlussa is used to assess approximal caries in the
mandible?
A- False. Assess the bucco-lingual position of uneruppted mandibular teeth.
1722- The lower 45 degrees anterior occlusal is used to assess cysts in the anterior
mandible?
A- True.
1723- In the lower oblique oclussal, the tubehead is pointed towards the angle of the
mandible?
A- True.
1724- Lower oblique oclussal can assess calculi in the mandibular salivary glands?
A- True.
1725- Coronoid process fracture can be assessed by a 30 degrees occiptomental
radiuograph?
A- True.
1726- Posterior anterior skull is used to assess the low condylar necks?
A- False, it is the posterior anterior jaws-mandible. PA skull assess the vault
fractures and thickness.
1727- Revers towne’s is used to assess high fractures of the condyle neck?
A- True, with the mouth open to bring the condyle out of the glenoid fossa..
1728- Rotated posterior anterior for calculi in the parotid?
A- True, the head is rotated 10 degrees with the headtube passing through the side
of the face prependicular to the film.
1729- True lateral skull can assess the downwards and backwards displacement of
the maxilla?
A- True.
1730- What is submentovertex radiographs are for?
A- Zygomatic arch fractures, sphenoidal sinuses lesions in the base of the skull.
1731- Gnathion is midway between pogonion and menton?
A- True, the most anterior and inferior bony outline of the chin.
1732- Id is the most anterior point of the alveolar crest in premaxilla?
A- False, it is the most anterior point of the alveolar crest siuated between the lower
central incisors.
1733 - Pr is the most anterior point of the alveolar crest in premaxilla?
A- True. Situated between the maxillary incisors.
1734- The panoramic film requires more exposure time for the patient than that for
a full intraoral radiographs?
A- False, the radiation dose is 1/5 of the full intraoral radiographs.
1735- Panoramic Tomography is preferable for young children as it is only one film?
A- False, it needs co-operation from the patient to stand steady, it is not
recommended for under 6 years or disabled patients.
1736- What causes film to be darker than normal?
A- Overexposure, overdevelopment (developer concentration is too high).
1737- Old films and light leak can cause foggy films?
A- True.
1738- The aluminum filter should be 1.5 for devices up to 70 KV and 2.5mm for
devices > 70 KV?
A- True.
1739- What is the function of the filter?
A- Removes soft or less penetrating beam.
1740- What is the function of the lead foil in the back of the film?
A- Absorb back scattered beam.
1741- The fixer is acidic while the developer is alkaline?
A- True.
1742- Two periapical radiographs (parallax in the horizontal plane)in the shifting
technique can decide the palatal or buccal position of maxillary canine?
A- True, if the tooth shifted in the same way as the tubehead means a palatal position,
and if shifted opposite side to the tubehead means buccal position.
1743- Ameloblastic fibroma is the most common types of ameloblastomas in
children?
A- True.
1744- The inner surfeace of the lips is covered with stratified squamous epithelium?
A- true.
1745- The finely wrinkled form in the mucous membrane at rest allow stretching
when active?
A- true.
1746- The parotid openinig is located in the second upper premolar region?
A- False, second upper molar region.
1747- Fordyce’s spots are minor salivary glands?
A- False. They are sebaceous glands.
1748- Fordyce’s spots are normal yellowish featrure in the oral mucosa, and nothing
to be ancious about?
A- true.
1749- Fraenal attachements are tendons of muscles in the oral mucosa?
A- False, they are mucous membrane separated by a thin little fibrous tissue, they
do not contain muscles.
1750- Fraenal attachements require routinely surgical removal?
A- False, only when interfer with posthetics, midline diastema or obstruct the
removal of plaque causing periodontal diseases.
1751- A tongue tie is caused by a short and tight midline fraenum binding down the
tip of the tongue?
a- true.
1752- The undersurface of the tongue is covered by stratified epithelium?
A- False, Squamous epithelium.
1753- The terminal sulcus divides the buccal and lingual sulci of the oral mucosa?
A- False. It is located on the dorsal surface of the tongue, dividing the anterior two
thirds from the posterior third.
1754- Enamel hypoplasia can be caused by typhoid in early childhood?
A- True.
1755- Erosion is teeth damage caused by acids other than bacteria?
A- True.
1756- Abrasion is caused by tooth against another tooth ?
A- False, it is mechanical wear caused by extragenous agents.
1757- Attrition is caused by tooth against another tooth ?
A- True.
1758- A feathered edge at the gingival margins is preferable with composite veneers?
A- True.
1759- Composite venners always need some enamel preparation?
A- False, they can be done without enamel preparation as a provesional appearance
before preparing the enamel for porcelin veneers if the patient was satisfied with the
result.
1760- The gingival margins in porcelain veneers are chamfered?
A- True.
1761- Precious metal alloys of platinum and gold are used with Metal-Ceramic
crowns?
A- True.
1762- Palladium and silver are the cheapest alloys to be used with Metal –Ceramic
crowns?
A- False, it is nickle and chromium.
1763- The Hi-ceram consists of metal base then layers of porcelain?
A- False, this is the metal –ceramic, while the hi-ceram consists of an extrastrong
core with further layers with conventinal feldspathic porcelain.
1764- The terminal sulcus is a U shape?
A- False, V shape.
1765- Circumvallate papillae are large mushroom-shaped anterior to the terminal
sulcus?
A- True.
1766- The larger cicumvallate papillae are nearer to the midline?
A- true.
1767- The filiform papillae are hair-like non keratinised papillae?
A- False, they are keratinised hair-like papillae.
1768- The fungiform papillae are red in colour and have taste buds?
A- True.
1769- The fungiform papillae have a thinner coating than other papillae?
A- True.
1770- Lingual tonsil is the total sum of lymphoid tissue in the posterior third of the
tongue?
A- True.
1771- The posterior third of the tongue is covered with lingual follicles, which coat
the lymphoid tissues and surrounded by shallow furrows?
A- True.
1772- The hard palate is covered by keratinised epithelium?
A- True.
1773- The incisive papilla is an oval prominance located in the midline behind the
upper central incisors?
A- True.
1774- Empress crowns are full porcelain jackets crowns?
A- True.
1775- Metal-ceramic crowns need more tissues removal from the buccal surface
than full thickness ceramic?
A- True, to accommodate the metal and ceramic.
1776 - Metal-ceramic crowns need more tissues removal from the palatal and lingual
surfaces than full thickness ceramic?
A- False, as only metal will cover parts of those surfaces.
1777- Teeth with gross erosion on palatal surfaces are not indicated for porcelain
jackets crowns (pjc)?
A- True, as there is no enough tissues to accommodate the ceramic, a metal-ceramic
crown is a good alternative.
1778- PJC are less expensive than metal-ceramic crowns?
A- True, as they consume less time, even when using the cheaper alloys. With
precious alloys, metal-ceramics are even more expensive.
1779- Acrylic jackets are more used as temporary reasons as provesional crowns?
A- True, as there is more tendencies to caries and leackage underneatj them, apart
from their discoloration.
1780- A root canal post can add strenght to the tooth and retention to the crown?
A- False, just retention, but adding strength to the tooth idea now has been
discounted.
1781- Wrought posts are stronger than cast posts?
A- True.
1782- Tapered smoothed or serrated posts are stronger than paralell-smoothed or
serrated?
A- False. They are weaker.
1783- Tapered-smoothed or serrated are the most retentive desig?
A- False, they are the least retentive.
1784- The incisive papilla is a useful mark when anaesthetise the naso-palatine
nerve?
A- True.

1785- The palatal rugae is a wrinkled disease of the palatal mucosa?

A- False, it is a normal feature appears as roughly parallel irregular folds of
mucoperiosteum.
1786- The soft palate is covered by stratified squamous epithelium?
A- True.
1787- The ridge of passavant is a functional thickening of the superior constrictor
muscle aids production of airtight seal?
A- True.
1788-The uvula is a termination of short muscular projection which has no job?
A- False, it reulates the flow of air thorough mouth and nose.
1789- The pharyngeal tonsil is a ring of lymphoid tissues?
A- True.
1790- The perikymata is commonly seen in recently erupted teeth?
A- True.
1791- Perikymata are vertical ridges?
A- False, they are horizontal and run parallel to the incisal edge.
1792- Maxillary teeth usually erupt before mandibular teeth?
A- False, the mandibular first.
1793- The main fuction of the pulp is to transmit sensory feeling from the tooth to
the nervous system?
A- False, its main function is to produce dentine. It has a sensory role.
1794- Boys can show delayed eruption comparing with girls?
A- True.
1795- Tappered threaded are recommended for single rooted teeth?
A- False, they cannot give enough retention in single rooted teeth.
1796- One-piece post crowns are indicated with lower incisors?
A- True, because of the very short clinical crowns.
1797- Paralell-threaded posts are indicated with short root canals?
A- True, when there is need for robust retention.
1798- Paralell-threaded posts are preferable because of easily and quick fitting?
A- False, their insertion should be precise and it is time consuming.
1799- Anterior partial crowns are now used when preserving the natural buccal face?
A- True.
1800- According to the ADA classification, gold id the only noble metal used in
alloys?
A- False, platinum and palladium as well.
1801- A high noble, is at least 60% noble metal, including at least 40% gold?
A- True.
1802- Noble with at leat 15 % noble metal?
A- False, 25% at least.
1803- A base metal when less than 25% noble?
A- True.
1804- In amalgam core retained by pins, it is better to use metal crowns rather than
metal-ceramic crwons?
A- True, as metal-ceramic requires more preparation which can expose the pin and
jeopardize the retention of the core.
1805- Amalgam cores can be prepared after one hour of condensing?
A- False, you should wait untill the next visit as amalgam reaches its strenght after
24 hours.
1806- What is the pulp dentine complex?
A- Pulp tissue, odontoblasts and dentine.
1807- Dentine is not permeable?
A- False, it is permeable. The production of sclerotic dentine can limits the diffusion.
1808- Dentine tubles make up 20-30% of the total volume of human dentine?
A- True.
1809- Mineral deposits in the tubles make sclerotic dentine?
A- True.
1810- What are portals of exit?
A- They are apical, lateral and furcal communication between the pulp and the
periodontal ligament.
1811- Accessory canals are created from a break in the sheath of Hertwig?
A- True, or the sheath grows arround excisting blood vesels.
1812- How many types of nerves in the pulp?
A- Two types. A Type, C Tyae.
1813- The two types A and C are myelinated?
A- False, A are myelinated, C are unmyelinated.
40- 90% of the A fibres are A-delta?
A- True.
1814- A fibres are located mainly in the pulp dentine junction?
A- True.
1815- A fibres are with high threshold?
A- False, they are with low threshold and produce sharp rsponse.
1816- C fibres which distribte through out the pulp have a high threshold?
A- True.
1817- A fibres respond to injury more than C fibres?
A- false, C fibres response is more severe thn A-delta fibres.
1818- In pulp necrsosis, nerve fibres lose their ability to respond completely?
A- False. C fibres may still be able to respond to stimulation.
1819- Painful pulpitis is associated with A, or C fibres?
A- C fibres, and a dull, aching poorly localised pain.
1820- Fill in these words in the spaces: non - keratinised – cemento-enamel
junction – the gingival groove – the mucogingival line
A- The gingival tissue runs from (the mucogengival line) which marks the boundary
with the non-keratinised buccal mucosa. The gengia in the palate is contious with
the keratinised, (non)mobile palatal mucosa. The surface of gingiva is (Keratinised)
and may exhibit an orange peel appearance.In healthy gengiva the free gengival
margins covers the (cemento-enamel junction). The (gengival groove) distinguish
the free gengival margins from the attached gengiva.
1821- The transeptal fibres in the gengiva run from the cervical cementum towards
the free gengiva?
A – False they run from the cervical cementum on the distal side of one root to the
cementum on the mesial aspect of the next tooth.
1822- Circular fibres run arround the tooth holding the free gengiva tightly against
it?
A- True.
1823- Which of these originates from the cementum of the cervical part towards the
free gengiva: Vertical fibres, Circular fibres, gengival fibres?
A- Gengival fibres.
1824- The junctuional epithelium is 15-30 cells thick?
A- True.
1825- The junctuional epithelium has a higher turn over rate than the oral epithelium?
A- True, its turn over rate 4-6 days comparing with 6-12 days in th oral epithelium.
1826- The junctional epithelium has a non-keratinised cells with wide intercellular
space?
A- True.
1827- The junctional epithelium is attached to enamel by a basal lamina and
intercellular hemidesmosomes?
A- True.
1828- The junctional epithelium is permeable. Toxins and antigens can pass through
it?
A- True.
1829- In a clinically non-inflamed gengiva, the JE is clear from white blood cells?
A- False, polymorphonuclear leucocytes (PMNs) move through it to the sulcus as
part of a defence mechanisim, even in healthy gengiva.
1830- Interstitial fibres in the periodontal ligament holds the tooth in socket?
A- False, they support blood vesels and nerves.
1831- The principal fibres in the periodontal ligament are more dense than
interstitial fibres?
A- True.
1832- Principal fibres run from cementum to bone holding the tooth firmly in the
socket?
A- True.
1833- The JE cells are thicker coronally than apically?
A- True.
1834- Intestitial fibres are called sharpey’s fibres?
A- False, they are the principal fibres.
1835- Sharpey’s fibres run in 5 directions: crestally, apically, horizontally, obliquely
and interradicularly?
A- True.
1836- The lamina dura appears as a dark thin line on X- Ray?
A- False, it appears as a white line arround the teeth indicating low rate of turn over
in the bone.
1837- The cementum could be cellular or acellular?
A- True.
1838- The first formed cementum is the acellular one?
A- True, and the cellular forms later.
1839- Cementum is a static tissue like enamel?
A- False, it responds to the functional requirements of teeth.
1840- Cementum can increase in thickness by cementoblasts deposit more layers on
root surface?
A- True.
1841- Alveolar bone consits of cancellous bone between two layers ( outer and inner)
of cortical plates?
A- True.
1842-Volkmann’s canals pierce the lamina dura which is referred to as cribiform
plate?
A- True.
1843- The apical depostion of cementum help to compensate occlusal wear during
fuctional life?
A- true.
1844- Tooth movement can happen by bone resorbing on the side of movement by
ostoclasts, and bone deposition on the opposite side by osteoblasts.
1845- What score is bleeding on probing only in the basic periodontal examination?
A- 1
1846- What score in the BPE if you have probing depth of 3.5-5.5 mm?
A- 3.
1847- What the Smith and Knight index for?
A- It scores the tooth surface loss.
1848- What is score 2 in the BPE?
A- Plaque retentive factor. (calculus, overhang)
1849- Score 2 in the BPE requires OHI (Oral and Hygiene Instructions) only?
A- False, removal of the retentive factor as well.
1850- What score 3 in the Smith and Knight index for incisal edge fracture?
A- Enamel loss+substantial dentine loss but no pulp exposure.
1851- Heat is preferable in thermal vitality test for the tooth?
A- false, cold in preferred.
1852- Gingive artefacta is a type of acute traumatic gingivitis which is deliberately
caused by the patient?
A- True.
1853- Lack of lip seal and mouth breathing can cause traumatic gingivitis?
A- False, palatal acute gingivitis.
1854- Cinnamonaldehyde toothpaste can cause Acute necrotising Ulcerative
Gingivitis?
A- false, Allergic gingivitis, because of Hypersensitivity reaction.
1855- Interdental ulcers, yellowish pseudomembrane, pain, easily bleed gingive and
halitosis are feature to Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis?
A- True.
1856- Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis usually affects the elderly people?
A- False, usually age group is 18-30 years old.
1857- Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis (ANUG) can affect immunodeficient
group?
A- true, like HIV patients.
1858- Bacillus fusiformis and Borrelia Vincentii are the most common organisms
in Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis?
A- True.
1859- Herpes simplex virus type I usually occurs in childhood?
A- True.
1860- Adolescents and adults are mainly affected by type II of Herpes Simplex
Virus?
A- True.
1861- Chronic desquamative gingivitis can be associated with skin lichen planus?
A- true.
1862- Juvenile periodontitis is the commonist type of periodontitis?
A- False, Adult periodontitis.
1863- Prepubertal periodontitis is often caue rapid destruction of the alveolar bone
and sometimes gingival recession?
A- True.
1864- The most incidences of Prepubertal periodontitis occurs during the eruption
of permanent teeth?
a- true.
1865- Which of these diseases are associated with prepubertal periodontitis:
Insulin-dependent diabetes- Chediak-Higashi syndrome-Leukaemias- all of the
previous
A-All of the previous.
1866- The periodontal lesion in Juvenile periodontitis is located arround the first
premolars?
A- false, First molars and incisors.
1867- Poor oral hygiene is the main cause of juvenile periodontitis?
A- False, it could be seen in patients with excellent oral hygiene.
1868- Juvenile periodontitis is an autosomal recessive genetic trait?
A- True.
1869- Streptococcus aureas is the main organisim in Juvenile periodontitis?
A- False. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans and Capnocytophaga.
1870- Lidocaine gel, benzondynamic hydrochloride 0.15 % solution are good to
control pain and symptoms of Acute necrotising gingivitis?
A- true.
1871- Benzondynamic hydrochloride 0.15 % solution can be safetly used in a ten
years old child?
A- False, not suitable for under 12 years old.
1872- Metronidazol 200 mg/three times a day is the preferable drug in ANUG?
A- True.
1873- It is indicated to carry out blood and serum folate, B12 and iron binding
capacity tests in prepubertal periodontitis?
A- True.
1874- For refractory periodontitis the recommended drug is Pencillin 500 mg/ four
time a day for a week?
A- False. Tetracycline 250mg/four times a day for 3 weeks.
1875- Refractory periodontitis can be treated with metronidazole, amoxcycilline or
both?
A- True. Metronidazole 200mg/four times a day for 2 weeks, Amoxycilline 250
mg/four times a day for 2 weeks.
1876- The filliform paplillae are more numerous than the fungi form papillae?
A- True.
1877- The fungi form papillae are more red in colour and contain taste buds?
A- True.
1878- The anatomical corw protrudes beyond the gingival margins into the patient’s
mouth?
A- False. This is the clinical crown, while the anatomical one ends at the cervical
line.
1879- A tubercle is an external formation of enamel and dentine on the crow?
A- True.
1880- The tubercle of Zuckerkandl is located lingually on the upper first molar?
A- False, it is located buccally on deciduous first molars.
1881- The tubercle of Carabelli is located lingually on the upper first molar?
A- True.
1882- Mamelons are seen on the incisal edges of newly erupted anterior teeth and
wear away withen two years of eruption?
A- True.
1883- A facet is a small, smooth, flat surface on the occlusal aspect of the crown
indicating an abnormal pattern of wear on the enamel ?
A- True.
1884- Perikymata are commonly seen as horizontal ridges running parallel to the
incisal edge in recently erupted teeth. They quite often affect the whole labial
surface of the crown?
A- True.
1885- Put the right order for primary teeth appearance in the mouth: First molars,
central incisors, canines, second molars, lateral incisors
A- 1- Central incisors, 2- Lateral incisors, 3- First molars, 4- Canines,5- Second
molars.

The following questions are given in the exam as an article about a subject (ie.
Cardiac system, Muscular system etc…) the answers (which are in red are
given in the beginning of the article to choose from. In the exam you will be
given 4 extra wrong answer, and sometimes with the option to repeat the same
answer more than one if it fits, you must read the instructions carefully before
you choose the answer.
The coming subjects are mostly repeated, nearly in every exam.
Here we will type straight the right answer in the space provided in red.

1886- Erythrocytes are the main blood cells,

1887- they form 45% of blood volume.
1888- the Capillaries are the only blood vessels which have no smmoth muscles.
1889- The tricuspid valve is located between the right attrium and ventricle,
1890- while the valve separates the left atrium and ventricle is called the mitral valve
which it is
1891- a bicsupid valve.
1892- The popular large heart sounds which we listen are the closing of the Aorta
and
1893-pulmonary valves
1894- The heart is attached to the thorax is called the epicardium.
1895- the papillary muscles fasten the valves in their position.
1896-The parasympathetic innervation to the heart comes via the vagus nerve.
1897- Acytelcholin is the main parasympathetic agent,
1898- and Norepinephrine is the main sympathetic agent.
1899- The atrioventricular AV node is located in the base of the
1900- right atrium. While the Sinoatrial node SA is located near the entrance of the
superior vena cave to the right atrium.
1901- the cardiac muscle cells that distribute the conduct through the ventricles are
called Purkinje fibres.
1902- The atrial natriuritic peptide is a vasodilator secreted by the atria.
1903- Endothelial cells secret two vasodilators which are Nitric oxide and
1904- prostacycline (PGI2).
1905- Plasma protein specially albumin are important to maintain osmotic pressure
from the interstitial fluids to the capillaries.
1906- 61% of the blood volume is located in veins and venules.
1907- the blood pressur is determained by arterial barareceptors located in the
junctions of the
1908- common carotid arteries.
1909- In ventilation, gases changes by Diffusion take place in
1910- Type I avleolar cells, while
1911- Type II alveolar cells secret a surfactant (detergant like agent) to reduce the
cohesive forces between water molecules.
1912- The diaphram is the main muscle in ventilation and is innervated by the
Phernic nerve.
1913- The total lungs capacity is 6000ML,
1914- and the air left in the lungs after all the expiratory reserved volume is expired
is called Residual volume,
1915- but in normal life the air left in the lungs after normal expiration is called the
Functional residual capacity which is about
1916- 2500 ML
1917- Only 500 ML of Air enter the lungs during an inspiration and called the Tidal
Volume,
1918- from which only 350 ML are exchanged as the remaining 150 ML are left in
the airways and called the anatomic dead space.
1919- The phsysiologic dead space is the anatomic dead space plus the alveolar dead
space.

False or true questions:

1920- Aspirin has only a short effect on the blood platelets and its action is reversible?
A- false, it damage the ability of aggregation in the affected platelets for their whole
life time.
1921- The inhibited factor in platelets by aspirin is called Cyclooxygenase enzyme?
A- True.
1922- Blood platelets are formed and released by Megakaryocytes.
1923- In platelet plug formation, Von welbrand factor is the needed protein to allow
platelet adhere to collagen.
1924- Erythropoietin is the hormone secreted by the liver to control erythrocytes
production?
A- false, secreted by the kidneys.
1925- The hemoglobin breaks down to hematocrit?
A- False, bilirubin.
1926- Young erythrocytes are called reticulocytes.
1927- HIV is a DNA virus which has the ability to transcribe nuclic acid?
A- false, RNA virus.
1928- HIV makes the host vulnrable to infections by damaging CD4 cells?
A- True.
1929- In Glasgow coma score, out of 15 how many marks are given to motor
response?
A- 6
1930- A patient attended the clinic with persistent fever and red skin on the neck
and forearms, what special precautions you should measure?
A- those are signs for Sweet’s Syndrome, and could be associated with malignancy
( as acute meyloid leukaemia) or infections.
1931- Vassopressin secreted by the kidney help to reduce blood pressure as it is a
potenbt vasodilator?
A- false, it is a vasoconstrictor.
1932- 1% of patients who had a surgical removal for an impacted lower third molar
may suffer from anaesthesia?
A- false, only 0.1% and it is parasthesia .
1933- 90% of the body neede iron is obtained through the diet?
A- False, it comes from the already destroyed erythrocytes (about 120 billion every
day).
1934- Acytel cholin release from nerve terminals is deminished in Myasthenia
Gravis?
A- false, Ach receptors are decreased in number but Ach release is still the same
from nerve terminals.
1935- A patient who had a radical neck dissection following the removal of a tongue
cancer will lose the facial expresions because of the facial nerve exciusion?
A- false, the accessory nerve is the nerve which is excised in radical neck disection
and the patient will be unable to raise the affected shoulder because of the
sternocleidomastoid muscle in the affected site is paralysied.
1936- The ribosomes are the protein factory in the cell?
A- True.
1937- Lysosomes break down bacteria in cells?
A- True, they are the cell stomach.
1938- Solutes move by diffusion from low concentration to high concentration?
A- False, from high to low.
1939- The bundle of His is located in the kidney?
A- false, the heart.
1940- Up to 100 beats /Minute the heart needs no exterior contro?
A- true, the SA node is a pacemaker control the heart contractions, but in exercise
and stressfull situation a sympathetic and parasympathetic help is neede.
1941- Atrial contractions are necessary to maintain the blood circulation to the
ventricles?
A- False, the blood will flow towards the ventricle even without the atrial
contractions.
1942- Mean arterial pressure is the Systemic arterial pressure minus the diastolic
arterial pressure?

A- It is the Systolic arterial pressure X 1/3( systolic arterial –diastolic arterial).

1943- Epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors in arterioles in skeletal
muscles?
A- True.
1944- Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction when binds to alpha adrenergic receptors?
A- True.
1945- Name two protein that can be detected after cardiac muscle damage?
A- Troponin, Enzyme creatin kinase CK.
1946- Neutrophils are the dominant white blood cells?
A- True. 50-70%
1947- Tissue protein is a plasma protein necessary for clotting process?
A- false, it is located ion plasma membrane of endothelial lining which is important
for clotting.
1948- Plasminiogin is the enzyme to digist fibrin in fibrionlytic?
A- false it is a proenzyme, which converted into plasmin(which digist fibrin) by
plasminogin activator.
1949- What is the roughly temperature to which Gutaperch should be heated for root
canal filling?
A- 40-45 degrees centigrade.
1950- What is class VI in black’s classification?
A- Occlusal or incisal cusp tip wear.
1951- Sodium is the major component in alginate?
A- true.
1952- Acid etching is used to retain composite in cavities?
A- false, not retention but for marginal leakage prevention.
1953- What is class 2 in Kennedy classification?
A- Unilateral free end sadle.
1954- In the mandible, right 4 is missing, left 4,5,6 are missing, what classification
is this in Kennedy?
A- Class 3 Modification 1 .
1955- If in the maxilla, left 3,4,5,6,7,8 are missing, and right 4,5,6 what
classification is this in kennedy classification?
A- Class2 modification 3.
1956- In midazolam sedation, what drug would you use to revers the person’s
sedation in urgent situation?
A- Flumazenil.
1957- The dentist alone can carry out the sedation with the help of a receptionist to
watch to oximeter monitor?
A- False, another trained nurse in sedation should be present.
1958- In orthodontics, the SNA value is 81?
A- True, + or – 3.
1959- ANB of -10 indicates mandibular retrognathisim, or maxilla prognathisim.?
A- True.
1960- If the upper central incisors are retroclined it is class II division 1?
A- False. Class II division 2.
1961- If the upper central incisors are proclined it is class II division 2?
A- False, Class II division 1.
1962- Record or treatment should be kept at least 25 years?
A- False, 2 years minimum, and for children 7 years after the age of 18 years.
1963- The mandible ossifies lateral to Meckel’s cartilage?
A- True.
1964- Which of these is the most infective: HIA HIB HIC?
A- HIC.
1965- Cystic fibrosis is mainly caused by type I alveolar cells defect?
A- False, the endothelial cells of the airways.
1966- Haemophillia A is X-linked recessive?
A- True.
1967- Lymphoma is the dominant malignancy in children ?
A- False, acute lymphocytic leukaemia.
1968- Zinc is the element added to amalgam for extra strength?
A- False. Copper.
1969- Jet lag condition can be overcome by rennin?
A- False, Melatonin.
1970- Vasopressin hormone can reduce blood pressure?
A- false. It reduces water exertion in urine causing an increase in blood pressure.
1971- What are the main medicines for tuberculosis treatment?
A- Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinoamid.
1972- What is Hypoguesia?
A- Loss of taste.
1973- Pulmonary oedema is a sign of left ventricle insufficiency?
A- True.
1974- Peripheral oedema is a sign of right ventricle failure?
A- True.
1975- In case of extraction, the suspected cyst in the bone was in fact a
Haemangioma, what is your line of action?
A- return the tooth into the socket.
1976- What is the best treatment for condylar neck fracture, ORIF or IMF?
A- IMF.
1977- What is the name of the Syndrome in which Aspirin should be avoided for
under 12 yrs?
A- Reye’s syndrome.
1978- TORCH syndrome is linked to Cytomegalovirus?
A- True.
1979- Tertiary syphilis can last for up to 3 months?
A- False. 3-10 years.
1980- Needles accidents by staff in the clinic need to be dealt with in the clinic and
cleaned with water only?
A- False, after this management, staff involved should be referred to the nearest
public health.
1981- Autoclaves need a temperature of 160 degrees?
A- False 134 degrees.
1982- Hyperkalaemia is potassium increase?
A- True.
1983- What is the main risk of hyperkalaemia?
A- Dysrhythemias and cardiac arrest.
1984- Chronic renal failure CRF in children is associated with higher caries risk?
A- False, lower caries risk and periodontal diseases.
1985- What is the main reason for new born distress respiratory syndrome?
A- Immature type II alveolar cells releasing surfactants.
1986- What is the precursor of peptides?
A- Cholesterol.
1987- A patient with tall stature, wide arm span and spider-like fingers, with visual
impairment and lax ligaments is likely to have…..?
A- Marfan’s syndrome.
1988- Maffuci syndrome usually manifested by….?
A- Haemangioma.
1989- Pierre Robin syndrome manifested with vitiligo and diabetes mellutes?
A- False, Micrognathia, cardiac defect and airways obstruction.
1990- Scurvy is vitamin…… deficiency?
A. C.
1991- This question is a visual one you will be presented with a panoramic X-Ray
and you will be asked to name anatomical features on the photo (on the computer
monitor) which are:
The hard palate.
The condyle
The mental foramen
Zygomatic bone
The hyoid bone
1992- What is phocomelia?
A- Seal limbs (defect seen in thalidomide drug use in pregnancies).
1993- Edwards syndrome is a chromosomal trisomy of ….?
A- 185.
1994- Downs syndrome (Trisomy 21), Patau’s syndrome (trisomy 13) and Edwards’
Syndrome (trisomy 18) share the presence of what complications?
A- Cardiac defect and cranial abnormalities.
1995- Haemoglobin protein can bind to 6 Oxygen molecules?
A- False. 4
1996- The elongated styloid process is called ……?
A- Eagle’s syndrome.
1997- What is the main cause of goitre?
A- Iodine deficiency.
1998- A patient suspected with crohn’s disease, a stomach biopsy can diagnose the
case?
A- False, rectal biopsy can show typical granulomas as it affects the large or small
intestine.
1999- Amoxycillin is the main antibiotic associated with pseudomembranous colitis?
A- False. Clindamycin.
2000- A patient in the hospital died few days after having a shower although his
general condition was good, what might be linked to this case?
A- Legionellosis which grow in strangled water in pipes.

GOOD LUCK