SPOT TEST SERIES

for
NEET 2017

TE ST - 4 (12.02.17)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY

[ Tim e : 3.00 Hours ] Test CODE : GOAL/NEET/TEST-04(TTS)2016-2017 [ Max. Marks : 720 ]

INSTRUCTIONS
(i ) T his P aper has 180 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(i i) T he Maximum marks for each question is 4.
(iii) 1/4 mark w ill be deducted against each negative response from the total marks.
(i v) Us e of c al c ul ator, sl i de rule , gr ap h p ape r and tr i gn ome tr i c table s i s
NOT PERM ITTED.

Nam e of the Candidate : .........................................................................

Roll No. : .........................................................................

Centre Code : .........................................................................

Centre Tow n : .........................................................................

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 SPOT TEST SERIES (TEST - 4) NEET : 12.02.2017
[Time : 3.00 Hours] Full Marks : 720

01. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and (1) 1.5 × 10–4 Pa (2) 0.09 Pa
magnetic fields are 140 V/m and 0.845 A/m. The
(3) 0.045 Pa (4) 7.5 × 10–4 Pa
maximum energy flow will be :
07. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic
(1) 118.3 W/m2 (2) 59.15 W/m2 wave of intensity I (wa tt/m2) o n a re flect ing
(3) 5.92 × 108 W/m2 (4) 2.1 × 107 W/m2 surface is : [c is the velocity of light]
02. An electromagnetic wave travels along z-axis.
I 2I I
Which of the following pairs of space and time (1) Ic (2) (3) (4)
varying fields would generate such a wave ? c c 2c
(1) Ex, By (2) Ey , Bx (3) Ez, Bx (4) Ey , Bz 08. When interference of light takes place:
03. In a plane electromange tic wave, the electric (1) energy is created in the region of maximum
field oscillat es sinusoidally at a frequen cy of inten sity
2.0 × 1010 Hz and amplitude 120 V m–1, the total (2) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum
energy density of the electromagnetic field of the inten sity
wave is :
(3) conservation of energy holds good and energy
(1) 1.3 × 10–7 J/m3 (2) 3.2 × 10–8 J/m3 is redistributed
(3) 2.6 × 10–7 J/m3 (4) 6.4 × 10–8 J/m3 (4) conservation of energy does not hold good
04. If electric field in a non-magnetic medium for 09. In Y o u ng’s do u ble slit e x perimen t , t h e

 7 1 ^ a mplitu de s o f t w o so urce s a re 5a a n d a
EM w ave is give n by E  600 sin  10 t  4 y  k

  respectively. The ratio of intensities of bright
then H is : and dark fringes will be :
50  y^ 25  y ^ (1) 25 : 1 (2) 13 : 12 (3) 27 : 8 (4) 9 : 4
(1) sin 107 t   i (2) sin 107 t   i 10. In Young’s experiment value of , for which the
  4 2  4
phase difference at P is 6.28 radian, is :
75  y ^ 45  y ^
(3) sin 107 t   i (4) sin 107 t   j
2 4  4 1   
  (1) sin  
 8d  P
05. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
pla t e s w ith radiu s R = 5 cm sepa rat e d by
1   
d = 0.2 mm. The capa citor is being charged at a (2) sin   
uniform rat e by applyin g a chan ging pot ential  16d  d O
difference between the two plates. Assume that
 1  2 
the field is due to displacement current only and (3) sin  
that the rate at which the electric field between  d
t he pla te s ch an ges is 8 × 10 12 (V/m-s). Th e
displacement current in the capacitor is : 1   
D
(4) sin   D >> d
d
(1) 0.26 A (2) 0.56 A (3) 0.78 A (4) 1.1 A
11. Two slits separated by a distance of 2 mm, are
06. The incident intensity on a horizontal surface
illuminated with light of wavelength 6 × 10–7 m.
at se a leve l from su n is abo ut 18 MW/m2 .
Th e in terference fringe s a re o bse rve d on a
Assuming that 50 per cent of this intensity is
screen placed 2 m from the slits. The distance
reflected and 50 per cent is absorbed, determine
between the fourth dark fringe and the sixth
the radiation pressure on this horizontal surface.
bright fringe is equal to :
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 1.3 mm (3) 1.6 mm (4) 1.2 mm

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12. The central fringe of the interference pattern is 45° and the intensity of the field is equal to
produced by light of wavelength 4000 Å is found 0.6 gauss.
to shift to the position of sixth bright fringe after (1) 0.64 Hz (2) 0.76 Hz (3) 0.15 Hz (4) 0.33 Hz
a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is introduced.
20. Electromagnets are made of soft iron because
The thickness of the glass plate would be :
soft iron has :
(1) 4.8 m (2) 1.2 × 10–4 m
(1) high retentivity and low coercive force
–4
(3) 5.6 × 10 m (4) 1.8 m
(2) low retentivity and high coercive force
13. A screen is placed 60 cm from a single slit, which
(3) high retentivity and high coercive force
is illuminate d wit h 7000 Å light . If dista nce
be twe en the first and sixth minima in t he (4) low retentivity and low coercive force
diffraction pattern is 4 mm, what is the width of 21. Two parallel wires in free space are 20 cm apart
the slit ? and each carries a current of 20 A, in the same
direction. The force one wire exerts on the other
(1) 0.25 mm (2) 0.53 mm
per cm of length is :
(3) 0.81 mm (4) 0.12 mm
(1) 4 × 10–6 N (2) 4 × 10–2 N
14. Two polaroids are oriented with t heir planes
(3) 4 × 10–4 N (4) 2 × 10–6 N
perpendicular to incident light and transmission
axis making an angle of 45° with each other. 22. A long so len oid carryin g a cu rren t produces a
What fraction of incide nt unpolarised light is magnetic field B alo ng it s axis. If the current is
made four times and the number of turns per cm
transmitted ?
is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is :
(1) 43.8% (2) 48.3% (3) 25% (4) 12.5%
(1) 2 × 10–2 B (2) 2B (3) 200B (4) 8B
15. The wavefront is a surface in which :
23. Relation between magnetic moment and angular
(1) all points are in the same phase velocity is :
(2) there is a pair of points in opposite phase (1) M   (2) M  2
(3) there is a pair of points with phase difference (3) M   (4) none of these
(/2) 24. The maximum energy of a deuteron coming out
(4) there is no relation between the phases of a cyclo tron a ccelerat or is 40 MeV. Th e
16. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic maximum energy of protons that can be obtained
moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian from this accelerator is :
is ‘n’ times the corresponding work done to turn (1) 20 MeV (2) 40 MeV (3) 80 MeV (4) 320 MeV
it through an angle of 60°, where n is given by : 25. An electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 107 m/s
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/4 (3) 4 (4) 2 enters a region where a magnetic field exists. if
17. A steel wire of length 4l has a magnetic moment it describes a circle of radiu s 0.05 m, th e
intensity of the magnetic field must be :
M. It is bent into L shape from middle. The new
magnetic moment is : (1) 1.2 × 10–4 T (2) 6.7 × 10–5 T
M M M (3) 4.8 × 10–6 T (4) 3.4 × 10–3 T
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 M 26. A circular ring of radius R with uniform positive
2 2 2 2
18. Which of the following substances have positive charge density  per unit length is located in
pe rme a bility a nd n ega t ive ma gn et ic the y-z plane with its centre at the origin O. A
pa rticle of mass m a nd positive ch arge q is
susceptibility ?
(1) Ferromagne tic (2) Paramagne tic projected from t he point P[ 8R, 0, 0] o n t he
(3) Dia magne tic (4) None of these positive x-axis directly towards O, with initial
speed . Find the smallest (non-zero) value of the
19. A magnet makes 20 oscillations per minute at speed such that the particle does not return to P.
a place where the angle of dip is 30° and the
to ta l in te nsit y is 0.5 ga uss. Calcu la te t he q q 2q 4q
number of oscillations made per sec by the same (1) 3 0 m (3) 3 0 m (4)
(2)
6 0 m 3 0 m
magnet at another place where the angle of dip

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27. A proton moves with a speed of 5 × 104 m/s
Q Q
directly towards a free proton originally at rest. (3) (1  2 2) (4) (2 2  1)
Find the distance of closest approach for the two 4 4
protons. 33. Two identical conducting spheres, fixed in place,
(1) 4.8 × 10–12m (2) 6.2 × 10–13m attract each other with an electrostatic force of
0.108 N when separated by 50.0 cm, centre to
(3) 1.8 × 10–8 m (4) 2.2 × 10–10 m center. The spheres are then connected by a thin
28. A small ball of mass 4 × 10–3 kg having a charge conducting wire. When the wire is removed, the
of 2C is suspended by a string of length 1 m. spheres repel each other with an electrostatic
Another identical ball having the same charge force of 0.0360 N. The initial charge s on the
is kept at the point of suspension. Determine sphere were :
the minimum horizontal velocity which should (1) 6 × 10–6 C, –2 × 10–6 C
be imparted to the lower ball so that it can make
complete revolution. (g = 10 m/s2) (2) 10–6 C, –3 × 10–6 C
(1) 6.4 m/s (2) 5.2 m/s (3) 4.1 m/s (4) 8.8 m/s (3) 9 × 10–6 C, –3 × 10–6 C
29. A thin ring of radius ‘r’ and made of a conducting (4) 2 × 10–6 C, 3 × 10–6 C
material has charge +q dist ributed uniformly 34. In a region, the intensity of an electric field is
along its length. Find the increase in the tension  ^ ^ ^
of the ring if a point charge +Q is kept at the given by E  2i  3 j  k in NC–1. The electric flux
centre of ring.  ^
through a surface S  10 i m2 in the region is :
Qq Qq Qq Qq
(1) 62  r2 (2) 122  r2 (3) 42  r2 (4) 82  r2
0 0 0 0
(1) 10 Nm2 C–1(2) 5 Nm2 C–1
30. A point charge q is situated at a distance d from (3) 15 Nm2 C–1(4) 20 Nm2 C–1
one end of a thin non-conducting rod of length L 35. Electric field E at boardside on position due to
having a charge Q (uniformly distributed along electric dipole varies with distance r as :
its length) as shown in Fig. Find the magnitude
of electric force between the two. 1 1 1
(1) E  (2) E  (3) E  r (4) E 
r2 r r3
1 Qq 1 Qq
(1) 4   d(d  L) (2) 4   (d  L)2 36. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform
0 0
electric field. Which path, the lines of force follow
as shown in figure ?
1 Qq 1 Qq
(3) 4   L(d  L) (4) 8    d(d  L) (1) 1 1 1
0 0
(2) 2 2 2
31. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a (3) 3 3 3
square as shown in the figure. The direction of
(4) 4 4 4
electric field at the centre of the square is along
–3q D +4q 37. The dipole moment of a dipole in an uniform
(1) DC   
external field E is P . Then the torque  acting
(2) BC on the dipole is :
A B
(3) AB  
(1)   P  E
  
(2)   P  E


(4) AD      
+2q C +q (3)   2(P  E) (4)   (P  E)
32. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four 38. The electric flux passing through a cube of side
corn ers of a squ are an d a ch arge q is at its a, which holds a charge q at one of its corners is :
centre. If the system is in equilibrium, the value
of q is : q q q q
(1)  (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 2
Q Q 0 0 0 0
(1) (1  2 2) (2) (2  2)
8 4

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39. The adjoining figure shows a spherical Gaussian Q2 Q2 Q2 Q2
su rfa ce a n d a ch a rge dist ribu t ion . Wh e n (1) 2  A2 (2) 2 2 A2 (3) 2 2 A (4) 2  A
0 0 0 0
calculating the flux of e lectric field th rough the 46. The equilibrium co nstant values, under the
Gaussian surface, the electric field will be due to: same conditions of temperature and pressure,
(1) +q3 alone +q3 for t he e qu ilibria A2  3B 2  2AB3 a n d
+q 1
(2) +q1 and +q3 1 3
AB3  A2  B2 are respectively, x mol–2 L2
(3) +q1, +q3 and –q2 2 2
(4) +q1 and –q2 –q2 and y mole L–1. The correct realtion between x
and y is
40. Three parallel plate air capacitors are connected
(1) x = 2y (2) y = 2x
A
in parallel. Each capacitor has plate area and (3) x = y1/2 (4) y = x –1/2
3
the separation between the plates is d, 2d and 47. T he Kp valu e for the re a ctio n
3d re spe ctively. The eq uivale nt capacity of H2g   I2g   2HIg  at 460ºC is 49. If the initial
combination is ( 0 = absolute permittivity of free partia l pre ssu re of H 2 an d I 2 is 0.5 a tm,
space) respectively, what will be the partial pressure of
7 0 A 110 A 13 0 A 5 0 A HI at equilibrium?
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) 0.389 (2) 0.111 (3) 0.788 (4) 0.222
18d 18d 18d 18d
41. Two metal plate form a parallel plate capacitor. 48. In which one of the following the increase of
The distance between the plates is d. A metal pressure favours the backward reaction?
sheet of thickness d/2 and of the same area is (1) Formation equilibrium of ammonia from N2(g)
introduced between the plates. What is the ratio and H2(g)
of the capacitances in the two cases ? (2) Decomposition equilibrium of HI to H2(g) and
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 5 : 1 I2(g)
42. A dielectric constant K is introduced such that (3) Synthesis of SO 3(g) by contact process
ha lf of a rea o f a capa cit or of capa city C is (4) Production of ‘syngas’ by coal gasification
occupied by it. The new capacity is : 49. The solubility of Sr(OH)2 at 298 K is 0.1581 M.
(1) 2C(1 + K) (2) C(1 + 2K) What will be the concentration of (H3O +) in the
solution?
C
(3) (1  K) (4) C(2 + K) (1) 0.1581 × 10–14 M (2) 0.3162 × 10–14 M
2
43. Three point charges 3 nC, 6 nC and 9 nC are placed (3) 3.163 × 10–14M (4) 2.163 × 10–14 M
at the corners of an equilateraltriangle of side 0.1 50. Out of the following statements with respect to
m. The potential energy of the system is : the postulates of Werner’s theory.
(1) 8.91 × 10–6 J (2) 9.91 × 10–4 J (a) th e ce ntral meta l at om of coo rdina tion
compounds shows two types of valences.
(3) 9.91 × 10–7 J (4) 4.53 × 10–5 J
(b) th e primary va le nce s are no rmally n on
44. In figure, a particle having mass m = 5 g and ion isa ble a n d a re sa t isfie d by n eu t ra l
charge q = 2 × 10–9 C starts from rest at point a molecules or negative ions.
and moves in a straight line to point b. What is (c) the secondary valences are ionisable and are
its speed v at point b ? satisfied by negative ions only
–9 –9
3 × 10 C a b –3 × 10 C (d) the ions/groups bound by the secon dary
1 cm 1 cm 1 cm linkages to the metal ha ve characteristic
(1) 2.88 cm/s (2) 6.76 cm/s spa tial a rra ngemen t s co rrespon ding t o
(3) 4.65 cm/s (4) 7.53 cm/s different coordination number
The incorrect statements are
45. In a parallel-plate capacitor with plate area A
and charge Q, the force on one plate because of (1) (a) and (b) (2) (c) and (d)
the charge on the other is equal to : (3) (b) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)

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51. As per IUPAC norms, the name of the complex 56. The acidic strengt h of t he give n compo unds
[Co(en)2(ONO)Cl] Cl is follows the order
(1) Chloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) nitro-O- O
cobalt (III) chloride
I. CH3  CH  CH  C  OH
(2) Chlorobis (ethylenedi amine)nitro-O -cobalt
(III)chlor ide
O
(3) Chloridodi(ethylenediamine) nitrocobalt(III)
chloride II. CH3  O  CH  CH  C  OH
(4) Chl oroet hylen ediamineni tro-O -cobalt (III)
chloride O
52. Select the correct statement. III. CH3  CH2  C  OH
(1) Geometr ical isomer may di ffer in di pole
(1) II > III > I (2) III > II > I
moment and visible/ UV spectra.
(3) II > I > III (4) I > II > III
(2) Complexes of the type [Ma3b3] can also have
facial (fac) and meridional (mer) isomer. 57. A rra nge t h e follow in g compou n ds in th e
increasing order of their acidic strength :
(3) No opt ical iso mer exists for t he complex
trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]+ (i) m-Nitrophenol (ii) m-Cresol
(4) All of these (iii) Phenol (iv)m-Chlorophenol
53. Arrange t he given compounds in decreasing (1) (ii) < (iv) < (iii) < (i) (2) (ii) < (iii) < (i) < (iv)
order of boiling points. (3) (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv) (4) (ii) < (iii) < (iv) < (i)
CH3 58. In which of the following reactions no change in
valency occurs?
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br CH3 – C – Br
(1) SO2  2H2S  3S  2H2 O
I CH3
(2) 2Na  O2  Na 2O2
II
(3) Cl2  2NaOH  NaClO  NaCl  H2 O
CH3 – CH2 – CH – Br (4) AgNO3  KCl  AgCl  KNO3
CH3 59. KMn O 4 is a strong o xidising a gen t in acid
III medium. To provide acid medium, H2SO 4 is used
(1) I > III > II (2) II > I > III instead of HCl. This is because :
(3) I > II > III (4) III > I > II (1) H2SO 4 is a stronger acid than HCl

54. Wh ich o ne of the fo llowing organo ha logen (2) HCl is oxidised by KMnO 4 to Cl2
compo un ds w h e n h e at e d w it h a lco h o lic (3) H2SO 4 is a dibasic acid
pot a ssiu m h ydro x ide doe s no t un de rgo (4) rate is faster in the presence of H2SO 4
dehydrohalogenation reaction?
60. Oxidation number of P in PO 34  , of S in SO 24  and
(1) Secondary butyl chloride
(2) Isopropyl chloride that of Cr in Cr2 O72 are respectively
(3) Neopentyl chloride (1) + 3, +6 and +6 (2) +5, +6 and + 6
(4) Isobutyl chloride (3) +3, +6 and +5 (4) +5, +3 and +6
55. The h ydro lysis o f opt ica lly a ctive 61. The Ksp of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10–3 1, 10–44
2-bromobutane with aqueous NaOH results in and 10–54 respectively. The solubility of these
the formation of sulphides are in the order :
(1) (–)-butan-2-ol (2) (  )-butan-2-ol (1) Ag2S > CuS > HgS (2) Ag2S > HgS > CuS
(3) (+)-butan-2-ol (4) (  )-butan-1-ol (3) HgS > Ag2S > CuS (4) CuS > Ag2S > Hgs

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62. Slaked lime, Ca(OH)2 is use d ext ensively in
1
sewage treatment. Wh at is the maximum pH times, then the equilibrium concentration of
that can be established in Ca(OH)2 (aq.) ? 4
Fe 3+ will increase by
Ca OH 2 s  Ca(a2q )  2OH–a q  ,KSP  5.5  10–6 (1) 16 times (2) 4 times
(1) 1.66 (2) 12.3471 (3) 7.0 (4) 14.0 (3) 8 times (4) 64 times
63. When HCl gas is pased through a saturated 68. Wh ich of t he follo win g processe s in vo lves
solu t io n of commo n sa lt , pu re Na Cl is sme ltin g?
precipitated because : Heat
(1) ZnCO3  ZnO  CO2
(1) The impurities dissolve in HCl
Hea t
(2) HCl is highly soluble in H2O (2) Fe2 O3  CO  2FeO  CO2
(3) The product of [Na+] and [Cl–] exceeds the Hea t
FeO  CO  Fe  CO2
solubility product of NaCl
Hea t
(4) The solubility product of NaCl is lowered by (3) Al2 O3 .2H2 O  Al2 O3  2H2 O
the chloride ion from aqueous HCl Heat
(4) 2PbS  3O2  2PbO  2SO2
64. For the reversible system : X  g  

 Yg   Z g 
69. The furnace lining is steel manufacture consists
a quantity of X was heated at constant pressure of :
P at a cert ain temperature. The equilibrium (i) CaO, (ii) SiO 2,
partial pressure of X was found to be P/7. What
is the value of Kp at given temperature ? (iii) MgO, (iv) CaCO 3
(1) 6P/7 (2) 9P/7 (3) 36P/7 (4) 6P (1) (ii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iii)
65. 1.1 mole of A are mixed with 2.2 mole of B and (3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
the mixture is then kept in one litre flask till 70. Geometry, hybridization and magnetic moment

the equilibrium is attained, A  2B  2C  D . 2 2 3
of the ions Ni  CN 4  ,  MnBr4  and  CoF6 
At the equilibrium, 0.2 mole of C are formed.
respectively are:
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is :
(1) tetrahedral, square planar, octahedral, sp3,
(1) 0.001 (2) 0.002 (3) 0.003 (4) 0.004
dsp2, sp3 d2 ; 5.9, 0, 4.9
66. T he bro wn ga s prepare d by t he action o f
(2) tetrahedral, square planar octahedral dsp2 ,
con cen t ra t ed nit ric a cid on co ppe r is a n
sp3 , sp3d2 ; 0, 5.9, 4.9
equilibrium mixture of dinitrogen tetraoxide and
nitrogen dixoide : (3) square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral : dsp2,
sp3, sp3d2 : 0, 5.9, 4.9

End otherm ic
N2 O 4 g   
 2NO 2 g (4) square planar, tetrahedral, octahedral : sp3,
Which one of the following changes would result dsp2, sp3d2 : 5.9, 0, 4.9
in a darkening of the colour? 71. Co 3+ forms four complexes with four different
3 3
(1) Increase in pressure liga n ds w h ich a re Co  NH3 6  , CoCl6  ,
3 3
(2) Increases in temperature Co  H2 O6  an d Co  CN  6  . T he o rder of
(3) Addition of a catalyst
CFSE  0  in these complexes is in the order :
(4) Re mo va l o f din it ro gen t et ra ox ide by
liquefaction (1) [CoCl6] 3– = [Co(H2O)6] 3+ = [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ = [Co(CN)6] 3–
67. In the reaction, (2) [CoCl6] 3– < [Co(H2O)6] 3+ < [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ < [Co(CN)6] 3–
Fe OH 3  s  Fe3   aq   3OH  aq  , if t h e (3) [CoCl6] 3– > [Co(H2O)6] 3+ > [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ > [Co(CN)6] 3–
co nce nt rat ion o f O H– ion s is decre ase d by (4) [CoCl6] 3– < [Co(H2O)6] 3+ = [Co(NH3) 6] 3+ < [Co(CN)6] 3–

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72. Predict t h e o rde r of 0 fo r t h e fo llo win g Br NH2
compounds : H3 C CH3 CH3
H3 C
3  NaNH2
(i) Cr  H2 O 6  (ii) Cr  CN 2 H2O 4  (3) liq.NH3
– 3
(iii) Cr  CN 4  H2 O2  (iv) Cr  CN 6 
CH3 CH3
(1) 0  i   0  ii   0  iii  0  iv 
(2) 0  i  0  ii    0  iii   0  iv  Cl NH2
(3) 0  ii  0  iii    0  i  0  iv  (4) CH3O
CH2 CH3 CH3 O CH2 CH3
NaNH2
(4) 0  ii   0  iii   0  iv   0  i  liq.NH3

73. CH2 – CHCH3 + PCl5 (A), 76. Which one/ones of the following reactions will
yield 2-propanol?
O 
(i) CH3 CH  CH2  H2 O 
H

CH3CH2CHO  PCl5   B , (A) and (B) are : i  CH 3 MgI
(ii) CH3 CHO 
 ii  H 2O

(1) gem-dih alides
i  C2 H5 M gI
(2) (A) gem-dihalide, (B) Vic-dihalide (iii) HCHO ii  H 2 O

(3) Vic-dih alides Neutral KMnO4
(iv) CH3CH  CH2  
(4) (A) Vic-dihalide, (B) gem-dihalide Choose the right answer :
74. Bromination of PhCOMe in acetic acid medium (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
produces mainly : (3) (iii) and (i) (4) (ii) and (iv)

Me O 77. An organic compo und (A) re acts with methyl

Me O
C magnesium iodide to form an addition product
C which on hydrolysis forms the compoun d(B).
Br Compound (B) gives blue colour salt in Victor
(1) (2) Meyer’s test. The compounds (A) and (B) are
respectively :
(1) acetaldehyde, tertiary butyl alcohol
Br
(2) acetaldehyde, ethyl alcohol
O CH2Br O CBr3 (3) acetaldehyde, isopropyl alcohol
C C (4) acetone, isopropyl alcohol
+

(3) (4) Ph2 – C – CH2 H 'X'

78.
OH OH
The product ‘X’ will be :
75. Which of the following reactions is feasible?
H D
Cl NH 2
NaNH2
+ (1) Ph2 – C – C – H (2) Ph2 – C – C – H
(1) l iq.NH3
NH2 O O
(3) Ph – C – CH – Ph (4) Ph – C – CH – Ph
Br NH2
H3 C CH3 H3 C CH3 O H O D
NaNH2
(2)
liq.NH3
H3 C CH3 H3 C CH3

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79. The strength of acidity is in the order : O
OH OH OH OH
NO2 (1) (Y)= (2) (Y)=

OH OH
CH3 NO2 NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) II > I > III > IV (2) III > IV > I > II (3) (Y)= (4) (Y)=
(3) I > IV > III > II (4) IV > III > I > II
80. Identify the product ‘X’ in the following reaction: 83. In the reaction

O O (i) Na OH/Br2
(i) HCN/H
+ H3C C T
H3C – C – C2H5 (ii) Hydroly sis 'X' (Optically active) NH 2 (ii) O
C
Cl
OH OH
the structure of the product T is :
(1) H3C  C  C 2 H5 (2) H3C  C  C 2 H5
O
(1) H3C C O
COOH CN O C
OH OH
(3) H3C  C  CN (4) H3C  C  C 2 H5

CH3 (2) NH
C CH3
O
O
O O
CH3 (3) H3C C
81. , The above ketone will not be
NH C

formed by :
(1) t re a t me n t of ace t ylch lo ride w it h
dibenzylcadmium (4) H3C NH
C
(2) reaction of benzene and acetyl chloride in
presence of AlCl3 O
84. Wh ich is t he corre ct o rder o f acidit y from
(3) rea ct io n of a ce t o nit rile w it h ph en yl
weakest to strongest acid for these compounds?
magnesiu m bromide in eth er followed by
hydro lysis O OH OH CH2OH
(4) addition of water to phenyl acetylene in the
presence of the HgSO 4 and dil. H2SO 4
CF 3CH2OH
O I
II III IV
82. NaBH4
alcohol (Y) (1) IV < I < III < II (2) III < IV < I < II
(3) I < IV < III < II (4) II < III < I < IV
(Y) is respectively :

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85. Identify the product (Y) in the following reaction: The pair of bactericidal antibiotics is
O (1) (i – iii) (2) (i – iv) (3) (ii – iv) (4) (iii – v)
90. Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a popular:
H
NaBH4 H2SO4 (1) non-ionic detergent (2) anionic detergent
OH (X) (Y)
(3) cationic detergent (4) sweetener
OH 91. Photosynthesis is important due to :
(1) (2) (a) It is the primary source of all food on earth
OH O
(b) It is a physicochemical process
(c) They use light energy to drive the syntehsis
(3) (4) of organic compounds
O OH (d) It is responsible for the release of oxygen into
86. Which one of the following is an example of Hell- the atmosphere.
Volhard zelinsky reaction? (1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (3) a & d (4) a, b, c & d
i  B2 H6 92. When H2S is the hydrogen donor for purple and
(1) R  COOH 
ii  H 3 O
R  CH2 OH
green sulphur bacteria in the following reaction,
i  Br2 /Re d P then the oxidation product is :
(2) R2 CHCOOH  
 ii  H2 O
 R 2 C  COOH
Light
2H2 A  CO2  2A  CH2 O  H2 O
Br
(1) Oxygen
O (2) Sulphur
COOH C (3) Sulphate
NH3
 O (4) Su lphu r or su lpha te dependin g on t he
(3) organism
COOH C
93. T he membran e syst em in ch lo ro pla st is
O responsible for :
PC l5
(4) R – COOH  RCOCl (a) Trapping the light energy
87. Which one of the following statements about (b) The synthesis of ATP
amino acids is not true?
(c) Enzymatic reactions incorporate CO 2 into the
(1) They are constituents of all proteins plant
(2) They are all high melting solids (d) The synthesis of NADPH
(3) Most naturally occurring amino acids have (1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d
D-Configuration
(4) They are characterized by isoelectric point
88. RNA a nd DNA a re chiral mole cu le s, th eir
chirality is due to :
(1) chiral phosphate ester units 94.
(2) D-sugar component
(3) L-sugar component
(4) chiral bases What is showing in the above diagram.
89. Consider the following antibiotics (1) The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll a
(i) Erythromycin (ii) Ofloxacin (2) Action spectrum of photosynthesis
(iii) Chloramphenicol (iv)Pen icillin (3) The absorption spectrum of chlorophyll b
(v) Tetracycline (4) The absorption spectrum of carotenoids.

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95. Other thylakoid pigments than chlorophyll a like (3) A– ATP, B–ADP
chlorophyll b, xanthophylls and carotenoids also (4) A–NADH, B–ADP.
contribute in photosynthesis. They :
104. T h e re act ion s ca t a lyse d by pyruvic
(a) Enabl e a wi der range of wavelength of dehydrogenase require the participation of :
incoming light to be utilised
(a) CoA (b) NADH + H
(b) Protect chlorophyll a from photo-oxidation. +
(c) NAD (d) Mg2+
Which one of the following options is true :
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (3) a, b & c (4) b, c & d
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
105. How many NADH would be produced in your
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false musele tissue if only one glucose molecule is
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false o xidised co mple te ly ou t o f t h re e glu cose
(4) (b) is true but (a) is false molecule. Rest two glucose molecules partially
oxidised.
96. Which of the following statements is/ are true.
(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14
(a) Photosystem I was discovered first
106. Ho w ma ny FADH2 is/a re pro duced in th e
(b) Photosystem II was discovered first conversion of succinic acid to malic acid during
(c) Both photosystem I & II were discovered at TCA cycle , if t wo mo le cules of glucose a re
the same time utilised.
(d) Photosystem I & II were discovered in the (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Eight
sequence in which they function during the 107. When the electrons pass from one carrier to
light reaction. ano ther via complex I to IV in t he e lect ron
(1) a & d (2) b & d (3) only (b) (4) only a transport chain they are coupled to which one
97. The stroma lamellae membranes lack. for the production of ATP from ADP and inorganic
phosphate.
(a) PS I (b) PS II (c) NADP reductase
(1) Complex II (2) Complex III
(1) a & c (2) a & b (3) b & c (4) only b
(3) Complex IV (4) Complex V
98. Which one of the following statements is not
right. 108. Arrange the following in sequence and select the
right option.
(1) The NADP reductase enzyme is located on
the stroma side of the membrane (a) Proteins (b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Acetyl CoA (d) Amino acid
(2) Protons necessary for the reduction of NADP+
are come from the lumen of thylakoid (e) TCA
(3) The ATPase enzyme consists of two parts (1) a  d  b  c  e (2) a  d  c  b  e
(4) Energy is used t o pump proton s acro ss a (3) a  b  d  c  e (4) a  d  b  e  c
membrane to create a gradient. 109. W hich on e o f th e follow in g is incorrectly
99. For pho sph oryla tion to form RuBP in th e matched.
regeneration step of the calvin cycle require. (1) Gibberellins — Cause fruits like a pple to
(1) One ATP (2) Two ATP elongate
(3) Three ATP (4) Four ATP (2) Auxins — Controls xylem differentiation
100. Which one of the following respires faster. (3) Ethylene — Help o vercome the apical
dominance
(1) Roots (2) Ste ms (3) Lea ves (4) Frog
(4) Cyt okin ins — Promote nutrient mobilisation
101. W ha t is rele a se d in t he con ve rsio n o f
2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolphyruvate 110. Match the following and select the right option
during glycolysis. (a) An inhibitor of (i) Ethylene
(1) ADP (2) ATP (3) H2O (4) NADH plant metabolism
102. Th ere a re ho w many majo r w ays in w hich (b) Promotes rapid (ii) Abscisic acid
different cells handle pyruvic acid produced by petiole elongation
glycolysis. (c) Helps in the delay (iii) Cytokinins
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four of leaf senescence
Phosphoenol Pyruvic Lactic (d) Used to prepare (iv)Auxins
103. Pyravic acid .
acid acid weed free lawns
A B (1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
What are A and B in the above conversion. (2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)
(1) A–NAD+, B–NADH + H (3) (a-ii); (b-iv); (c-i); (d-iii)
(2) A–NADH + H, B–NAD+
(4) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iii); (d-iv)

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111. Which one of the following is correctly matched. 119. Which one of the following statements is not
(1) It is called the stress — Ethylene right :
hormone (1) The afferent nerve fibres transmit impulses
(2) Inhibits seed — Abscisic acid from tissue to the CNS
germinat ion (2) Somatic neural system is included in the PNS
(3) Isolated from plants — 2, 4-D (3) The somatic neural system relays impulses
(4) Removal of shoot tips — Apical dominance from skeletal muscles to the CNS
112. Which one of the following is the derivatives of (4) Th e a uton omic n eura l syst em tran smits
carotenoids. impulses from the CNS to the involuntary
organs and smooth muscles.
(1) Abscisic acid
120. Match the following and select the right option.
(2) Gibberellic acid
(a) Lower invertebrates (i)The neural organisation
(3) Indole-3-acetic acid is very simple
(4) N6-furfurylamino purine (b) Hydra (ii) A network of neurons
113. Arrange the following in sequence and select the (c) Inse cts (iii) A more developed
right option. neural system
(a) Cell division (b) Plasmatic growth (d) Vertebrates (iv)Brain with a number
(c) Differen tiation (d) Expansion of ganglia and neural
(e) Maturation tissues.
(1) a  b  d  c  e (2) a  b  c  d  e (1) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(3) a  b  c  e  d (4) a  d  b  c  e (2) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
114. Plants follow different pathways in response to (3) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-iv)
environment or phases of life to form different (4) (a-i); (b-iv); (c-ii); (d-iii)
kinds of structures. This ability is called : 121. Neuron with one axon and one dendrite is found
(1) Differen tiation (2) Pla sticity in :
(3) Maturation (4) Heterophylly (1) Cerebral cortex
115. Heterophylly is found in the plants of : (2) Embryo of seven month
(a) Cotton (b) Coria nder (3) Retina of eye
(c) Ne em (d) Larkspur (4) Embryo of three month
(1) a, b & c (2) a, c & d (3) a, b & d (4) b, c & d 122. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse.
116. Formation of cork cambium is an example of : (a) The axonal membrane is more permeable to
(1) Redifferentiation (2) Differen tiation potassium ions
(3) Dedifferentiation (4) Secondary growth (b) Completely permeable to sodium ions
117. The cells of shoot tips. (c) The membrane is impermeable to negatively
charged proteins
(a) Are rich in protoplasm
(d) The axoplasm contains high concentration
(b) Possess large conspicuous nuclei
of K+
(c) Their cell walls are primary in nature
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c
(d) Possess abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(3) a, b, c & d (4) a, c & d
Which one of the follwoing options is true.
123. What is not included under the synapse
(1) All are true except (d) (1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(2) All are true except (c)
(2) Post-synaptic membrane
(3) All are true except (b)
(3) Synaptic cleft
(4) All are true.
(4) Synaptic vesicles
118. The process through which two or more organs
124. Which one of the following is different from the
interact and complement the functions of one
others.
another is :
(1) Pons (2) Medulla
(1) Homeostasis (2) Integration
(3) Thalamus (4) Cerebellum
(3) Intera ction (4) Coordination

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125. Which one of the following is correctly arranged 132. Which o ne o f t he following is n ot correct ly
from inside to outside. matched.
(1) Photoreceptor cells  bipolar cells  (1) glucocorticoids — Fro m th e adre na l
ganglion cells cortex
(2) Ganglion cells  bipolar cells  (2) Gonadotrophins — S timula te gon a da l
Photoreceptor cells activity
(3) Ganglion cells  phtoreceptor cells  (3) Oxytocin — Stimulates contraction
bipolar cells of skeletal muscles
(4) Photoreceptor cells  ganglion cells  (4) Vasopressin — Stimulates resorption
bipolar cells of w a te r an d
e le ct ro lyt es by th e
126. The space within cochlea dist a l t u bu le s o f
(1) Calle d scala me dia a n d is fille d wit h nephron
endolymph 133. What may cause me nstrua l cycle to be come
(2) Scala vestibuli that ends at the oval window irregular in adult woman.
(3) The scala tympani terminates at the round (1) Gonadotrophins (2) Hypothyroidism
window (3) Glucocorticoids (4) ADH
(4) Scala media filled with perilymph 134. Which one of the following statements is not true
127. What is not true regarding hormones. (1) Hyperthyroidism favourably affects the body
(1) Nutrient chemicals physiology
(2) Non-nutrient chemicals (2) PTH increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood
(3) Act as intercellular messengers (3) Thymosins promote production of antibodies
(4) Produced in trace amounts (4) Adrenal gland is composed of two types of
tissues.
128. A special kind of coordination and integration
has to be provided in the human body because 135. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) The nerve fibres do not innervate all cells of (a) PTH (i) Re abso rpt io n o f Ca 2 +
the body by renal tubules
(b) The neural system provides a point-to-point (b) T-lymphocytes (ii) Cell-mediated immunity
rapid coordination among organs (c) Aldosterone (iii) S t imu lat e s t h e RBC
(c) The cellular functions need to be centinuous production
regulated (d) Cortisol (iv) the main mineralocorticoid
in our body
(d) T h e n e ura l co o rdin a tio n is fa st bu t
short-lived. (1) (a-i); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-iii)
(1) a & d (2) a & c (3) b & d (4) b & c (2) (a-ii); (b-i); (c-iv); (d-iii)
129. What are true regarding the hypothalamus (3) (a-i); (b-iv); (c-ii); (d-iii)
(a) It is the basal part of diencephalon (4) (a-iii); (b-ii); (c-iv); (d-i)
(b) It is the basal part of forebrain 136. Arrange the following different layers of adrenal
cortex from outer side to inner side and select
(c) It regulates a wide spectrum of body functions the right option.
(d) It contains several groups of neuro-secretory (a) Zona glomerulosa
cells.
(b) Zona fasciculata
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d
(c) Zona reticularis
(3) a, b, c & d (4) a, b & c
(1) a  b  c (2) c  b  a
130. Pars intermedia secretes.
(3) c  a  b (4) a  c  b
(a) only one hormone (b) Oxytocin
137. What is continue to live through millio ns of
(c) MSH (d) Vasopressin years unless threatned natural or anthropogenic
(1) a & d (2) a & b (3) b & d (4) a & c extinction.
131. Which hormone plays a very important role in (1) Individual organisms
the regulation of a 24-hour rhythm of our body (2) Species
(1) MSH (2) Oxytocin (3) Viru ses
(3) Vasopressin (4) Melatonin (4) Lich ens

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138. What does become a vital process without which 147. Arrange the following in sequence from outside
species can not survive for long. to inside and select the right option.
(1) Immu nity (a) Tapetum (b) Endethecium
(2) Proper nutrition (c) Epidermis (d) Middle layers
(3) Reproduction (1) c  b  a  d (2) c  b  d  a
(4) Chemical and physiological interaction (3) c  d  a  b (4) a  d  b  c
139. Arrange the following in increasing order of their 148. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the
life span and select the right option. region called :
(a) Parrot (b) Crocodile (1) Micropyle (2) Chalaza
(c) Tortoise (d) Crow (3) Hilum (4) Mucellus
(1) a  c  b  d (2) d  b  a  c 149. Reading the following statements you have to
(3) d  b  c  a (4) d  a  b  c se lect t he opt ion wh ich cont ain s a ll tho se
statements that are not wrong.
140. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) The cells of nucellus have abundant reserve
(a) Sponge (i) Zoospores food materials
(b) Pe nicillium (ii) Buds
(b) An ovule generally has a single embryo sac
(c) Hydra (iii) Conidia
(c) The embryo sac formed from a megaspore
(d) Chlamydomonas (iv)Gemmules through mitotic division
(1) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-i); (d-ii) (d) O vu le s gen era lly diffe re nt iat e a sin gle
(2) (a-iv); (b-ii); (c-iii); (d-i) megaspore mother cells.
(3) (a-iv); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-i) (1) a, b, c & d (2) a, b & c
(4) (a-i); (b-iii); (c-ii); (d-iv) (3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d
141. Which one of the following is correctly matched. 150. Which one of the following is true regarding
syne rgids, ce n tra l ce ll a n d a n tipo da ls
(1) Agave — Offset
respect ively.
(2) Bryophyllum — Bulbil
(1) n, n, n (2) 2n, 2n, 2n
(3) Potato — Buds
(3) 2n, n, 2n (4) n, 2n, n
(4) Gin ger — Rhizome
151. The synergids have special cellular thickenings
142. Which one of the following is different from the at the micropylar tip
others.
(a) Called filiform apparatus
(1) Cows (2) Rats (3) Dogs (4) Apes
(b) Play an important role in guiding the pollen
143. What is common among monera, fungi,, algae, tubes into the synergids
bryophytes.
Which one of the following options is true.
(1) They all are autotrophic
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
(2) They all are heterotrophic
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false
(3) They all are gametophitic
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
(4) They all are parasitic
(4) (b) is true but (a) is false
144. What is related to Housefly as 46 is related to
Human beings. 152. W ha t is no t commo n in viola , ox a lis an d
commelina.
(1) 78 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 20
(1) Produce two types of flowers
145. What is the vital link that ensures continuity of
species between organisms of one generation (2) Type of pollination is geitonogamy
and the next. (3) Flowers are similar to flowers of other species
(1) Zygotes (2) Gametes (4) Flowers having exposed anthers and stigma
(3) Embryo (4) Progeny 153. Wh at is n ot true re garding win d pollinat ed
146. To a biologist, flowers are : flowers
(a) Morphological marvel (1) They often possess well-exposed stamens
(b) Embryological marvel (2) Having large often-feathery stigma
(c) The sites of sexual reproduction (3) Pollen grains are light and sticky
(1) a, b & c (2) a & b (3) b & c (4) only c (4) Often have a single ovule in each ovary.

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154. What is/are right regarding self-incompatibility. 161. The law of dominance is used to explain the
(a) The device to prevent inbreeding following except.
(b) A genetic mechanism (1) The expression of only one of the parental
characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1
(c) Prevents self pollen from fertilising the ovules
(2) T h e e x pre ssio n o f bot h th e pa re nt a l
(d) Inhibit pollen tube growth in the pistil. characters in a monohybrid cross in the F2
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d
(3) The F1 resembles both parents
(3) a, b & c (4) a, b, c & d
(4) The proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2
155. Artificial hybridisation is achieved by :
162. Which one of the following is correctly matched
(a) Emascu lation between genotypes of offspring and blood types of
(b) Imbreeding depression offspring :
(c) Geitonogamy (1) IAIA — O (2) IAIB — B
(d) Bagging A
(3) I i — AB (4) IBi — B
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d (3) a & c (4) a & d 163. What is/are true regarding dominance.
156. In w hich o f th e fo llow in g grou ps o f se eds (a) It is an autonomous feature of a gene
en dospe rm is co mplete ly co nsu med by t he (b) it is an anton omous featu re of the gene
developing embryo. product that it has information for
(1) Pea, beans, maize (c) Depends on the gene product
(2) Pea, groundnut, wheat (d) Depend on the production of a particular
(3) Pea, beans, groundnut phenotype from the product.
(4) Wheat, rice, beans. (1) a & d (2) a & c (3) b & c (4) c & d
157. Rea d th e follo win g an d select th e o pt io n 164. Which one of the following is different from the
containing right statements. others :
(a) Genetics deals with the inheritance (1) Haemophilia (2) Phenylketonuria
(b) Gen e t ics de a ls w ith t he varia tio n o f (3) Turner’s syndrome (4) Colour blindness
characters from parents to offspring 165. How man y nu cleo t ide s are th e re in t h e
(c) In he rita n ce is t h e pro cess by w hich bacteriophage  174.
cha ract ers are passe d on fro m pa rent to (1) 48502 (2) 5386
progeny 6
(3) 4.6 × 10 (4) 3.3 × 109
(d) Variation is the degree by w hich pro geny
166. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus
differ from their parents.
was first identified by :
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b, c & d
(1) Friedrich Meischer(2) Erwin chargaff
(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & c
(3) Rosalind Franklin (4) Maurice Wilkins
158. What is the contrasting characters for pod colour, 167. What would be the percentage of thymine in a
selected by Mendel.
do uble stranded DNA, if th e percen tage of
(1) green/yellow (2) yellow/green guanine and cytosine is 70%
(3) violet/white (4) white/green (1) 15% (2) 10% (3) 35% (4) 30%
159. A true breeding line is one that : 168. The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around
(a) Having undergone centinuous self-pollination the positively charged histone octamer to form
(b) Shows the stable trait inheritance for several a structure called.
generations (1) Chromatin
(c) Shows the stable trait expression for several (2) Nucleosome
generations. (3) Beads-on-string structure
Which one of the following options is true. (4) NHC
(1) All are true 169. Select the right expression.
(2) All are true except (a) (1) S strain  injected into mice  Mice die
(3) All are true except (b) (2) R strain  injected into mice  Mice die
(4) Only (c) are true (3) S strain (heat killed)  Injected into mice 
160. They are slightly diffe rent forms of the same Mice die
gene, called. (4) S st ran (hea t kille d) + R strain (live) 
(1) Genotype (2) Alleles injected into mice  Mice live
(3) Factors (4) Gametes

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170. How is 2–OH group is related to RNA. 176. Comparative anatomy and morphology shows :
(a) Present at every nucleotide (a) S imila rit ies a nd diffe re n ces a mo n g
(b) Makes RNA labile organisms of today

(c) Makes RNA easily degradable (b) S imila rit ies a nd diffe re n ces a mo n g
organisms those that existed years ago.
(d) Makes RNA reactive
Which one of the following options is true.
(1) a, b & d (2) a, c & d
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
(3) a, b, c & d (4) b, c & d
(2) Both (a) and (b) are false
171. Which one of the following is not included in the
(3) (a) is true but (b) is false
process of transcription in bacteria
(4) (b) is true but (a) is false
(1) Initiation (2) Elongation
177. What is/are common in fore limbs of w hales,
(3) Termin ation (4) Denaturation
bats, cheetah and human.
172. What is not transcribed by the RNA polymerase I
(a) Similarities in the pattern of bones
(1) 28S RNA (2) 18S RNA
(b) Performing functions
(3) 5.8S RNA (4) 5 SrRNA
(c) Anatomical structure
173. What wouold be the expression of the following if (d) In having carpals and metacarpals
A (adenine) is added before AAU.
(1) a & c (2) a, c & d
GCU ALU AAU GGU
(3) a, b, c & d (4) a, b & d
(1) GCU ACU A AAU GGU
178. Bougainvillea and cucurbita represent.
(2) G CUA CUA AAU GGU
(a) Homology
(3) GCU ACU AAA UGG U
(b) Analogy
(4) GCU ACU AAA U GGU
(c) Convergent evolution
174. which is not correctly mathced.
(d) Divergent evolution
(1) Big Bang — to explain the origin of earth
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a) & (c)
(2) Panspermia — Is still a favourite idea for
(3) (a) & (d) (4) (b) & (c)
some astronomers
(3) Louis Pasteur — Life co me s o n ly fro m 179. Darwin was related to :
pre-existing life (1) Mutations
(4) Light years — S te llar dist a nce s a re (2) Natural selection
measured in. (3) Branching descent
175. The first non-cellular forms of life could have (4) Branching descent and natural selection
originated three billion years back. They would 180. In which of the following era conifers and cycads
have been : where evolved.
(a) RNA (b) Protein (c) Polysaccharides (1) Ju rassic (2) Paleozoic
(1) a & b (2) a, b & c (3) only a (4) a & c (3) Cenozoic (4) Mesozoic

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