Mcq

1) Patient is brought to the hospital after smoke inhalation. The patient has a headache,
dizziness, and is confused. What is the percentage of carboxyhemoglobin:

a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 45%

2) What is the most important determinant of subarachnoid block height?

a) Patient height
b) Level of injection
c) Barbotage
d) Baricity

3) In a patient going through alcohol withdrawal, which is the most likely electrolyte
abnormality post-operatively:

a) Hypomagnesemia
b) Hyponatremia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hyperkalemia

4) Maternal Administration of which of the following drugs is associated with a decrease

in FHR variability?

a) Atropine
b) Glycopyrolate
c) Propanalol
d) Metoprolol

5) Which of the following is associated with an increase in IOP

a) STP 5mg/kg IV
b) Administration of N2O after intravitreal sulfahexafloride
c) Hyperventilate to a pCO2 of 30
d) Neuromuscular blockade with Rocuronium

6) Given that Pressure Gauge on an E cylinder of O2 says 950 mmHg and you are
delivering a 10 L/min flow rate, how long until the cylinder is empty?

a) 24 min
b) 32 min
c) 44 min

1
 d) 60 min

7) An 80 kg patient is scheduled for surgery at 10:00 and she has fasted since midnight,
what is her fluid deficit?

a) 600 cc
b) 800 cc
c) 1200 cc
d) 1600 cc

8) What is the immediate precursor of norepinephrine?

a) Dopamine
b) Epinephrine
c) Phenylalanine
d) Tyramine

9) Which of the following medications accumulates the most in renal failure?

a) Esmolol
b) Digoxin
c) Propanalol
d) Nifedipine
e) Diltiazem

10) A 55 y/o male presents with new onset hypertension with a hypokalemic metabolic
alkalosis, and a decreased plasma renin activity, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Cushing's
b) Pheo
c) RAS simulation
d) Primary hypoaldosteronism

11) All of the following are signs and symptoms for NMS EXCEPT

a) Diaphoresis
b) Rigidity
c) Hypertension
d) Urinary retention

12) All EXCEPT ONE of the following are factors for postoperative apnea in a former
preterm infant. Indicate the exception:

a) Gestational age at delivery

b) Postconceptual age at time of surgery
c) General anesthesia

2
 d) Presence of anemia

13) All EXCEPT ONE of the following is seen in a patient with a third degree burn
covering 50% body surface area within the first one hour. Indicate the exception:

a) Hypertension
b) Hypothermia
c) Hyperkalemia from succinylcholine
d) Hyperthermia

14) The effects of positive pressure ventilation and it resulting in decreased CO include
all EXCEPT

a) RV dysfunction
b) Decreased preload
c) Decreased LV compliance
d) Increased LV afterload

15) All are true for SIADH, EXCEPT

a) Serum Na and osmolality are decreased

b) It occurs in a substantial number of patients post-op
c) Chlorpropamide is useful for treatment
d) It occurs most often between 3-10 days and lasts 10-15 days

16) The following are signs of fat embolism syndrome except:

a) Hypertension
b) Hypoxemia
c) Petechiae
d) Mental confusion

17) Regarding intercerebral aneurysms, all are true EXCEPT:

a) Common post-mortem finding

b) Usually involves anterior cerebral circulation
c) Cigarette smoking increases the risk of rupture
d) Prodromal headache occurs in a small proportion of patients prior to rupture

18) All are risk factors for ventricular dysfunction post CABG except?

a) Advanced age
b) Female gender
c) Diabetes
d) Decreased ejection fraction preoperatively

3
19) All are anatomical structures participating in ascending pathway for pain perception
except?

a) Ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus

b) Lateral cervical nucleus
c) Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
d) Dorsolateral funiculus

20) All of the following are clinical manifestations of sarcoidosis, EXCEPT ONE.
Identify the exception.

a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Hilar lymphadenopathy
c) Hypocalcemia
d) Cardiomyopathy

21) The secretion of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT ONE, is increased during
stress. Identify the exception

a) Insulin
b) Glucagon
c) ADH
d) Epinephrine

22) All EXCEPT one of the following drugs are appropriate in the management of a
hemodynamically stable patient with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and
impaired left ventricular function according to ACLS guidelines. Indicate the
EXCEPTION:

a) Diltiazem
b) Metoprolol
c) Digoxin
d) Amiodarone

23) All EXCEPT one of the following are true about Nd-YAG laser. Indicate the
EXCEPTION:

a) Can ignite laser resistant tubes

b) Transmit close to infrared
c) Only penetrates superficially in tissue
d) Reflects from fiberoptics

24) All are true in transfusion reaction, EXCEPT

a) Hyperthermia

4
 b) Rigidity
c) Bleeding
d) Hypotension

25) The risk of HIV transmission after a needlestick injury from a patient with HIV
include all of the following except:

a) Gender
b) Hollow needle
c) Deep injury
d) Advanced HIV

26) In a patient with severe traumatic brain injury with normal head CT, all are
indications for intracranial pressure monitoring except?

a) Age over 40
b) Systolic blood pressure lower than 90
c) Hemoglobin lower than 80
d) Motor posturing

27) All of the following statements regarding acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
are true EXCEPT ONE. Identify the exception.

a) Blood gas analysis in early ARDS may show initial respiratory alkalosis.
b) The radiographic images of the lungs in ARDS can be used as an accurate
prognostic indicator.
c) CT scan in ARDS often shows patchy areas of disease, rather than uniform
spread of disease throughout the lung.
d) Prognosis is affected by the ability of the patient’s lungs to perform gas
exchange at the onset of ARDS.
th
Miller 7 mentions low P/F as risk factor for mortality even though barash says not
28) A pregnant woman at term is given 4 mg/kg of thiopentone for induction of general
anesthesia. Blood levels of thiopentone in the fetus remain low after this maternal
bolus, for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT ONE. Identify the exception.

a) Metabolism of thiopentone by the fetal liver.

b) Dilution of thiopentone in the fetal blood volume.
c) Placental metabolism of thiopentone.
d) Inconsistencies in intervillous exchange surfaces at the placenta.

29) All explain the decrease in cardiac output with PEEP except:

a) Right ventricular dysfunction

b) Decrease right ventricular preload
c) Increase left ventricular afterload
d) Decrease left ventricular distensibility

5
30) Concerning SIADH which is false:

a) Decrease plasma Na and osmolarity

b) Often in the post-operative period
c) 3-15 days after a close head injury and last 15-20 days
d) TX= Chlorpropamide

31) All are true about anticholinesterase drugs, EXCEPT?

a) Neostigmine bind reversibly and covalently

b) Edrophonium binds electrostatically
c) Edrophonium has a faster onset than Neostigmine
d) Edrophonium is better than Neostigmine to reverse a deep block

32) All EXCEPT ONE of the following statements is associated with transient radicular
injury in ambulatory surgery. Indicate the exception:

a) Lidocaine 2%
b) Obesity
c) Spinal needle
d) Lithotomy

33) All are complications associated with meperidine EXCEPT ONE:

a) Increased biliary tract pressure

b) Diminished myocardial contractility
c) Tachycardia
d) Increased peripheral resistance

34) All are possible causes of pulmonary oedema following obstructive tonsillectomy
EXCEPT ONE:

a) Impaired lymphatic drainage

b) Increased hydrostatic pressure
c) Lost of grunting effect
d) Acute right ventricular failure

35) Concerning the bleeding trauma patient. All are true EXCEPT:

a) All intravenous fluids should be heated to 37°C.

b) Tachycardia indicates a greater volume loss than hypotension.
c) Blood losses should be replaced with two to three times their volume of
crystalloids.
d) Most patients arrive at the hospital hypothermic.

6
36) Physiologic changes of pregnancy include all EXCEPT:

a) Increase in tidal volume

b) Decrease in minimal alveolar concentration
c) Decrease in fibrinogen
d) Increase in cardiac output

37) The differential diagnosis of seizures in a women in active labour include all
EXCEPT:

a) Abruptio placentae
b) Cerebrovascular accident
c) Eclampsia
d) Amniotic fluid embolism

38) With respect to Complex Regional Pain Syndrome involving the lower limb, all are
beneficial treatments EXCEPT

a) Epidural steroids
b) Oral prazosin
c) Lumbar plexus block
d) Physiotherapy

39) When comparing low molecular weight heparin to regular unfractionated heparin,
LMWH has all the following characteristics EXCEPT

a) Longer half life

b) Decreased incidence of autoimmune thrombocytopenia
c) Little value in checking PTT level
d) Less interaction with anti-platelet agents

40) Propofol’s main hemodynamic effect in a healthy person?

a) Decreased HR
b) Decreased SVR
c) Increased cardiac output
d) ?

41) A primigravida in 2nd trimester complains of SOBOE and has a midsystolic murmur at
the sternal border with a fixed widely split S2 heart sound and a parasternal heave.
Her CXR shows fullness of the pulmonary arteries and vascular redistribution. The
most likely cause is:

a) ASD
b) IHSS
c) MVP

7
 d) Pulmonic Stenosis

42) Which drug should you avoid in a patient with porphyria?

a) Atropine
b) Lidocaine
c) STP
d) Isoflurane

43) Patient with an unstable C6 injury without symptoms is at greatest risk for further
injury when:

a) During intubation
b) During positioning
c) During surgical manipulation
d) Upon emergence

44) When a drug is given by constant rate IV infusion, the time to reach 90% of steady-
state plasma concentration is dependent mainly on:

a) Plasma concentration
b) Protein binding
c) Rate of elimination
d) Volume of distribution – Barash pg 267 interpretation

45) A 12-year-old male with bladder extrophy is having a repeat repair. 30 minutes after
the start of the anesthetic he develops increased peak inspired airway pressures, has
hypotension and tachycardia. The first management priority is:

a) Salbutamol
b) Methylprednisolone
c) Insert a chest tube
d) Epinephrine

46) When is lung compliance (elastic recoil of lung tissue) in health the greatest?

a) 2 year
b) 8 years
c) 18 years
d) 60 years

47) From age 40yrs to 80yrs, MAC decreases by:

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%

8
 d) 40%

48) Which would increase the alveolar-arterial gradient for CO2

a) Endobronchial intubation
b) Cardiovascular collapse with continued mechanical ventilation
c) Alveolar hypoventilation
d) Malignant hyperthermia

49) Which drug would decrease the seizure duration in ECT?

a) Etomidate
b) Ketamine
c) Remifentanil
d) Esmolol

50) You correctly place a left DLT for left upper lobectomy. Midway through the case
(with the patient in right lateral decubitus & on one lung ventilation) the airway
pressure rises and the tidal volumes decrease to 100mL. How do you proceed?

a) Suction the non-dependant lung

b) Pull back the DLT
c) Deflate the bronchial cuff
d) Apply CPAP to non-dependent lung

51) Which would be seen with a potassium <2.5mEq/L

a) Shortened QT
b) Increased sensitivity to depolarizing muscle relaxants – NDMR have
increased sensitivity and no mention of sux, so this is probably a distractor to
check if you know that it’s non-depolarizers and not depolarizers.
c) Decreased dose requirements for Neostigmine for reversing non-depolarizing
muscle relaxants
d) Decreased length of refractory period in Purkinje cells – hypoK decreases the
refractory period, unless it increases it! Found references for each, but this
seems better.

52) Which would cause PCWP to underestimate LVEDP?

a) Acute AI
b) Mitral stenosis
c) Atrial myxoma
d) PAC in West lung zone I

53) When is the period of greatest risk In HELLP syndrome:

9
 a) 0-4 hours postpartum
b) 4-12 hours postpartum
c) 24-48 hours postpartum
d) At delivery

54) Which of the following herbals can impair platelet function

a) St. johns
b) Kava
c) Valerian
d) Ginko Baloba

55) Following inguinal hernia a patient develops chronic ilioinguinal nerve pain. Which
of the following would be seen on physical exam?

a) Pain to light touch in the groin

b) Problems with hip flexion
c) Glossy skin changes in groin
d) Lack of sensation to lateral thigh

56) The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh originates from:

a) L2-3
b) L3-4
c) L4-5
d) L5-S1

57) Hypercapnia upon CO2 insufflation is least likely to be seen with:

a) Female gender
b) ASA 3
c) Extraperitoneal surgery
d) ?

58) All potentiate neuromuscular blockade EXCEPT?

a) Quinidine
b) Neomycin
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Local anesthetics

59) What is the GCS of a patient who opens their eyes to pain, answers questions with
mild confused speech and obeys commands?

a) 10
b) 11

10
 c) 12
d) 13

60) Regarding a patient with Alzheimer’s dementia, all of the following are true,
EXCEPT

a) Avoid centrally acting anticholinesterases – want to avoid anticholinergics

b) Midazolam is useful to optimize patient cooperation
c) Desflurane will allow for rapid return to baseline level of cognitive function
d) Can use Glycopyrolate for reversal

61) All are true regarding use of the LMA for supraglottic surgery, EXCEPT

a) Decreased blood and debris in the airway

b) No possibility of cranial nerve injury
c) Less likelihood of bronchospasm on emergence
d) Less sore throat

62) Which of the following is the reason nasal tracheal intubation is more difficult than
oral in neonates:

a) Large occiput
b) Broad epiglottis
c) Cephalad larynx
d) Anterior angulation of vocal cords

63) In chronic renal failure which of the following drugs would have the greatest increase
in their half-life?

a) Verapamil
b) Digoxin
c) Esmolol
d) Hydralazine

64) Which is LEAST likely to occur with shoulder arthroscopy in the beach chair position

a) Venous air embolism

b) Airway compression
c) Pneumothorax
d) Brachial plexus injury

65) Risk of TNS is associated with all of the following EXCEPT

a) Needle type
b) Obesity
c) Ambulatory surgery

11
 d) Lidocaine 2%

66) What is the most effective way of raising the temperature in a patient with severe
hypothermia

a) Warm airway gases

b) Dry convection forced air warmer
c) Warm IV fluid
d) Continuous arterio-venous hemofilteration – ROC (rest of Canada, actually
just a couple of Majids buddies at other schools. If it says arterio-venous
countercurrent heat exchanger, I’ll probably take it

67) What nerve will you block with a needle placed between the palmaris longus and the
flexor carpi radialis tendons?

a) Radial
b) Musculocutaneous
c) Ulnar
d) Median

68) Use of ddAVP is indicated in all of the following, EXCEPT

a) Following CABG surgery

b) Von Willebrand’s disease
c) DI
d) Uremia induced platelet dysfunction

69) Which of the following metabolites have antinociceptive properties?

a) Morphine-6-glucuronide
b) Morphine-3-glucuronide
c) Normorphine
d) Normeperidine

70) Which of the following predict risk of postoperative ventilation in a patient with
Myasthenia Gravis coming for trans-sternal thymoma resection

a) Number of years since diagnosis

b) steroid dose
c) Total Lung Capacity
d) Size of thymoma

71) While inserting a large bore intravenous cannula in the antecubital fossa, the patient
complains of pain and tingling in the lateral aspect of the forearm. What is
responsible for this?

12
 a) Contact with the median nerve
b) Contact with the radial nerve
c) Contact with the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
d) Contact with the anterior interosseus nerve of the forearm

72) Which of the following will cause a metabolic acidosis with a wide anion gap?

a) Renal tubular acidosis

b) Addison’s disease
c) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
d) Salicylate toxicity

73) In the comatose patient, attenuation of the cardiovascular effects from tricyclic
antidepressant overdose is best achieved by which one of the following?

a) Forced diuresis
b) Hemodialysis
c) Physostigmine
d) Alkinalization of the blood

74) What is true regarding bolus dose propofol in terms of pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics?

a) Termination of effect is by hepatic enzymes

b) Elimination half life is several hours
c) Small volume of distribution in vessel rich group
d) Elimination follows zero order kinetics

75) All of the following hormones regulate serum potassium EXCEPT

a) Epinephrine
b) Insulin
c) Aldosterone
d) Serotonin

76) Transcutaneous drug patches work by?

a) Diffusion through skin

b) Places subcutaneous depot which then gets absorbed
c) Iontophoresis increases the ionized portion of lipid soluble drug which
enhances absorption
d) Lipid solubility decreases absorption

77) Alveolar anesthetic tension is increased by all EXCEPT?

a) Increased minute ventilation

13
 b) Increased cardiac output
c) Decreased arterial-venous anesthetic agent gradient
d) Decreased anesthetic agent solubility in blood

78) All are characteristics of pressure control ventilation EXCEPT?

a) Flow vs. time is a square waveform

b) Inverse ratio is possible
c) Time-cycled
d) Pressure peaks quickly and then maintained throughout inspiration

79) Dead space in a circle system consists of?

a) Both inspiratory and expiratory limbs of the circuit

b) Inspiratory limb of the circuit
c) Expiratory limb of the circuit
d) Y piece and connector

80) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to lithotripsy

a) Pregnancy
b) Pacemaker
c) Abdominal Aortic aneurysm
d) BMI > 40

81) All will decrease the amplitude of SSEPs EXCEPT:

a) Induced hypotension with nitroprusside

b) N2O + sufentanil boluses
c) Fentanyl infusion
d) Midazolam

82) All the following are methods of directly measuring cardiac output EXCEPT:

a) Fick principle
b) Dye dilution
c) Oxygen consumption – Chest 2002,122-3 pg 771 - describes oxygen
consumption or oxygen fick method, as an indirect measure of CO using
indirect calorimetry and dividing by arterio-venous oxygen content
differences. Fick method, if done traditionally, would be more direct, because
expired gases are collected, instead of calorimetry.
d) Echocardiography – when you search echo, you get most referring to 2D
Doppler attempts to measure aortic diameter and blood velocity. It requires
guesses, multiple equations, and is definitely indirect. Anything non-invasive
taking pictures and making calculations and assumptions is indirect. This
seems more indirect to me.

14
83) How many grams of dextrose are in 1L of an isotonic dextrose solution?

a) 0.5 g
b) 5g
c) 50 g
d) ?

84) Which would be a detrimental effect of therapeutic levels of magnesium in PIH

a) Increased uterine activity

b) Skeletal muscle weakness
c) Bronchospasm
d) ?

85) What reduces the incidence of intraoperative fires with CO2 lasers?

a) Using a red rubber ETT

b) Wrapping a PVC ETT with lead foil
c) Using N2O
d) Using the laser in a noncontiguous mode

86) Which laser can cause corneal burns from scattered light

a) CO2
b) Argon
c) Nd-Yag
d) ?

87) According to the ACC/AHA guidelines for risk stratification of patients for non-
cardiac surgery, which of the following is NOT a major risk factor?

a) DM
b) Severe valvular disease
c) Significant arrhythmia
d) Congestive heart failure

88) Which of the following does NOT predispose to postpartum hemorrhage?

a) Stimulated labour
b) PIH
c) Macrosomia
d) Atony

15
89) With respect to the neurologic exam following brachial plexus block, which is correct

a) Musculocutaneous nerve causes elbow flexion

b) Pronation is ulnar nerve
c) Supination is median
d) ?

90) A diabetic patient has a persistent foot drop and sensory deficit 48h following
popliteal block. Which of the following is correct?

a) Patient requires CT scan – don’t you have to, as a priority, r/o limb
threatening hematoma/compression that could be surgically reversed?
b) Patient requires surgical exploration – maybe, but CT 1st seems more
appropriate
c) Patient should be told to wait 24h and reassess – this might have been
appropriate, but the block effect has worn off, what difference in 24 more hrs?
d) Patient requires electromyography – EMG often normal for 2 weeks following
nerve injury

91) Amniotic fluid embolus presents with all of the following EXCEPT

a) Acute renal failure

b) Cardiovascular collapse
c) Pulmonary edema
d) Postpartum hemorrhage

92) Regarding pain transmission, which is TRUE?

a) A-delta fibers are responsible for slow component or burning pain

b) C fibers are responsible for fast component or localized pain
c) A-delta and C neurons contain a wide variety of neurotransmitters
d) Inflammation only occurs peripherally

93) After left upper lobectomy, on chest X-ray there is LLL collapse. Which of the
following unlikely to be the reason?

a) Cardiac herniation
b) Obstruction of left mainstem bronchus
c) Obstruction of chest tube
d) Disruption of left mainstem bronchus

94) Regarding noise pollution in OR. All are true EXCEPT

a) Background noise level of 75-90 dB common

b) Anaesthesiologists have on average greater hearing loss than others
c) Self-selected music does not improve performance

16
 d) Noise pollution is a health concern

95) All are possible with the use of protamine to reverse heparin EXCEPT:

a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Direct smooth muscle dilator
c) Anaphylaxis
d) Decreases platelets

96) Regarding sudden respiratory arrest with spinal anesthesia, which is the most likely
cause?

a) Phrenic nerve paralysis

b) Brainstem hypoperfusion
c) Intercostal paralysis
d) Local anesthetic toxicity

97) All are beneficial in treating post-herpetic neuralgia, EXCEPT?

a) Intrathecal Methylprednisolone
b) Opioids
c) TCA’s
d) NSAID’s

98) Following Retrobulbar block, all may indicate the onset of brainstem anesthesia
EXCEPT:

a) Increased vitreous pressure

b) Apnea
c) Shivering
d) Contralateral amaurosis fugax

99) Line isolation monitor may be triggered when:

a) If ungrounded material is used in the OR

b) If the leakage current exceeds preset value
c) If the patient becomes grounded
d) If the electrocautery unit is used without a grounding pad

100) What opioid has metabolites with CNS toxicity?

a) Morphine
b) Meperidine
c) Fentanyl
d) Sufentanil

17
101) A decrease in mixed venous oxygen tension is associated with all EXCEPT:

a) Malignant hyperthermia
b) Cyanide toxicity
c) Endobronchial intubation
d) Shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left (it really said LEFT)

102) Which nerve does NOT need to be blocked for knee arthrotomy:

a) Sciatic nerve
b) Obturator nerve
c) Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
d) Posterior tibial

103) What is not a contributing factor of negative pressure pulmonary edema?

a) Increase of the hydrostatic pressure

b) Acute right ventricular failure
c) Insufficient lymphatic drainage
d) Loss of the expiratory grunt effect

104) What is first line management if there is a bioterrorist attack using nerve gas?

a) Atropine
b) Thiocyanate
c) Neostigmine
d) Dopamine

105) Sign of addiction in colleague

a) Likes to work with residents

b) Meticulous charting
c) Refuses to relieve colleagues
d) Insists on giving narcotics in PACU personally

106) Low levels of STP in the fetus after maternal injection are due to all of the
following EXCEPT:

a) Placental metabolism
b) Fetal liver metabolism
c) Uneven villous perfusion
d) Dilution in fetal blood volume

107) All are seen with hemolytic transfusion reactions except:

a) Rigidity

18
 b) Fever
c) Hematuria
d) DIC

108) What is the first line treatment for hypotension in HOCM?

a) Phenylephrine
b) Ephedrine
c) Metoprolol
d) Epinephrine

109) All are effects of alpha-2 agonists except:

a) Sedation
b) Hypotension and bradycardia
c) Spinal analgesic properties
d) Causes opioid withdrawal

110) All can be done if there is an accidental intra-arterial injection of thiopental

EXCEPT:

a) Intra-arterial flush with normal saline

b) Brachial plexus block
c) IV heparin
d) Intra-arterial bicarbonate

111) All are contra-indications to radial arterial line EXCEPT:

a) Buerger’s disease
b) Raynaud’s disease
c) Infection at the site
d) Mediastinal mass

112) In which one of the following situations does the pulse oximeter overestimate the
SaO2 when hypoxia is present?

a) Anemia
b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Methylene blue
d) Cold extremity

113) Most common neurological sequelae with AIDS

a) Dementia
b) Meningitis
c) Autonomic neuropathy

19
 d) Peripheral neuropathy

114) In a pregnant patient, the use of intrathecal morphine is associated with all except:

a) Delayed onset (45-60 mins) – Yes usually said to be 15-60 mins, considered
delayed in comparison to LA or hydrophilic opioid
b) Side effects
c) 2nd stage of labor is not prolonged – can’t find any reference saying 2nd stage
delayed, 1st stage definitely not prolonged
d) Useful for episiotomy – too tired to consider any more

115) Pregnant patient in first trimester, which is true about anesthesia for nonobstetric
surgery?

a) TIVA is the method of choice

b) No IV anesthetic agents have been found to be teratogenic
c) Hyperventilation is desirable
d) Risk of miscarriage is tripled

116) What effect does Isoflurane have on spontaneous ventilation?

a) Increased respiratory rate & decreased tidal volume

b) Decreased resp rate & increased tidal volume
c) Decreased resp rate & decreased tidal volume
d) Increased resp rate & increased tidal volume

117) Which is correct regarding a p-value <0.05

a) The difference between groups is clinically significant

b) Less than 5% chance that the result is due to chance
c) Not effected by sample size
d) Also known as beta error

118) Regarding autonomic hyperreflexia

a) It is not found in hemi-cord injury

b) Begins 48h post-injury
c) Most commonly initiated by pelvic visceral afferent stimulation
d) Triggered by tracheal suctioning

119) Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with MH:

a) Calcium gluconate
b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Metoprolol
d) Verapamil

20
120) Most common cause of ER visit following ambulatory surgery

a) Nausea & vomiting

b) Urinary retention
c) Pain
d) Surgical complication

121) What is the afferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex

a) CNIII – oculomotor nerve

b) CNIV – trochlear nerve
c) CNV – trigeminal nerve
d) CNVI – abducens nerve

122) Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter

a) Glycine
b) Epinephrine
c) Glutamate
d) GABA

123) 35yo M with 3week history of progressive dyspnea, presents for appendectomy.
Preinduction ABGs: pH 7.47, pO2 55, pCO2 25, HCO3 16.3.
a) ?
b) ?
c) ?
d) ?

124) Induced and ventilated with RR10 Vt 10mL/kg, FiO2 0.4. At end of surgery, had
the following ABGs: 7.27/55/40/16.3. What best describes this patient’s acid-base
status?

a) Respiratory alkalosis from primary respiratory disease

b) Iatrogenic induced metabolic acidosis from inappropriate vent settings
c) Renal failure with bicarbonate loss
d) ?

125) In which of the following patients would an ambulatory inguinal hernia repair be
contraindicated?

a) 101 year old patient

b) Morbid obesity and asthma
c) Infant born pre-term now 60 weeks post-conceptual age
d) Patient know to be MH susceptible

21
126) By how much will FRC decrease in an ASA I patient under general anesthesia for
total knee replacement

a) 0-10%
b) 15-25%
c) 30-40%
d) 45-50%

127) Which of the following cardiac anomalies requires endocarditis prophylaxis?

a) Previous bacterial endocarditis

b) Isolated secundum atrial septal defect
c) Implanted defibrillator
d) VSD repaired greater than 6 months ago

128) After major surgery, level of which of the following hormones will decrease?

a) Cortisol
b) Insulin
c) ACTH
d) ADH

129) 18 yo Pregnant female with acute cocaine intoxication and fetal distress requires
C/S. Which of the following should be avoided:

a) Metoprolol
b) Esmolol
c) Hydralazine
d) Nitroglycerin

130) What is the best strategy for preventing postop acute renal failure

a) Maintain spontaneous ventilation

b) Lasix
c) Dopamine 2.5mg/kg
d) IV rehydration with NS

131) Which of the following is least affected by hepatic failure

a) Pancuronium
b) Rocuronium
c) Cis-atricurium
d) Mivacurium

22
132) Regarding Gabapentin

a) It raises the nociceptive threshold

b) It acts peripherally to decrease pain perception
c) It acts via binding to GABA receptors
d) It is an effective treatment for post-herpetic neuralgia

133) An MH negative mother requires an urgent C/S under GA. The father is MH
susceptible. Which is the BEST management?

a) Both succinylcholine and volatile anesthetics are safe.

b) Succinylcholine is safe, but volatiles should be avoided.
c) Volatiles are safe, but succinylcholine should be avoided.
d) Both succinylcholine and volatiles should be avoided.

134) All are hemodynamic effects of positive end-expiratory pressure except:

a) Increased Left ventricular afterload

b) Decreased Left ventricular preload
c) Increased pulmonary artery pressures
d) Decreased right ventricular preload

135) Which of the following increases carbon monoxide production in a circle circuit
anesthetic setup?

a) Soda lyme is worse than baralyme

b) Moisture
c) Increased absorbent temperature
d) Decreased volatile concentration

136) In which of the following would a right-sided double lumen tube be indicated

a) Left upper lobectomy with sleeve resection

b) Left lower lobectomy
c) Left lung lavage
d) Left pneumonectomy

137) The clearest indication for intubation in a patient with croup is

a) ?
b) The amount of stridor
c) Cyanosis on room air.
d) Elevated PaCO2

138) Regarding Midazolam in children, which of the following is true?

23
 a) Can be given orally or rectally
b) Is palatable
c) Does not interfere with opioids as pre-med
d) Optimally leads to a sleeping child prior to OR

139) A patient with severe COPD requires elbow surgery of 2.5h in duration. The best
regional technique would be?

a) IV regional (Bier) block

b) Infraclavicular block
c) Supraclavicular block
d) Interscalene block

140) In adults, the risk factors of pulmonary artery rupture with Swan-Ganz catheter
include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Anticoagulation
b) Advanced age
c) Heparin-bonded catheters
d) Intraoperative hypothermia

141) Regarding extreme masseter muscle rigidity, all of the following are true
EXCEPT:

a) It occurs in the presence of full twitch depression in the extremities

b) It is associated with a susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia
c) It causes difficulty with bag mask ventilation
d) It should lead to consideration of canceling the intended surgical procedure

142) Which would lead to a worsening of right-to-left shunting with TOF

a) Halothane – depresses contractility and SVR only minimally

b) Isoproterenol – would increase contractility and drop SVR --> bad
c) Ketamine – preferred induction agent, incr. SVR
d) Propranolol – good for infundibular spasm

143) All of the following would be negatively affected by increased contractility

EXCEPT

a) Mitral stenosis
b) Mitral valve prolapse
c) IHSS
Tetralogy of Fallot

144) Best diagnostic test for malignant hyperthermia:

24
 a) Resting CPK levels
b) Ryanodine receptor identification
c) Genetic testing
d) Halothane-Caffeine contracture test

145) A patient is undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate. The surgeon is

using glycine 1.5%. A specific reaction to this irrigating solution is:

a) Hypertension
b) Confusion
c) Convulsions
d) Visual changes – visual changes, hypotension, and hyponatremia + osmol gap

146) In a 5 lead EKG set-up, what lead would not be affected by disconnection of the L
arm lead:

a) AVR
b) III
c) AVL
d) II

147) All of the following are true regarding scavenging systems, EXCEPT?

a) Passive systems must have a closed interface. – yes, passive and open can’t be
together
b) Reservoir bags and negative pressure relief valves can be used by either active
or passive systems. – I actually don’t know if a neg. valve CAN be used in a
passive system, but passive systems don’t have neg pressure relief valves
c) Active systems must have an open interface. –false, 2004 q 236 is transcribed
the same, so not remembered wrong, and active systems can be open or closed
d) Open does not have valves – true
B & C are false, and A&D are true. I don’t know what else to say

148) Sudden disappearance of the end-tidal CO2 tracing is LEAST likely in which of
the following:

a) Bronchospasm
b) Dislodgement of the endotracheal tube
c) Cardiac arrest
d) PE

149) Which local anesthetic has the largest therapeutic index with regard to CNS
toxicity:

a) Chloroprocaine
b) Lidocaine

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 c) Bupivicaine
d) Ropivicaine

150) All are true regarding PEEP except:

a) Decreased work of breathing

b) Improved V/Q matching
c) Decreased lung water – it redistributes, but doesn’t actually decrease, lung
water? Or maybe option D was false.
d) ?

151) Which is least indicative of a serious chest injury?

a) 7th and 8th rib fractures

b) Flail chest
c) Hemothorax
d) Widened mediastinum

152) Which of the following is the most common etiology of hearing impairment
associated with anesthesia?

a) Spinal anesthesia
b) Cardiopulmonary bypass
c) Dental anesthesia
d) Nitrous oxide

153) The volatile that best preserves hypoxic drive at 0.1 MAC is:

a) Desflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Isoflurane

154) All of the following are useful in preventing venous air embolism except?

a) Use of bone wax

b) Inducing hypovolemia
c) Use of positive pressure ventilation
d) Avoidance of nitrous oxide

155) Which of the following is associated with Trisomy 21

a) DM
b) Hypothyroidism
c) Cushing’s
d) Addison’s

26
156) Regarding IABP, all of the following are contraindications except:

a) Thrombocytopenia
b) Aortic incompetence
c) Thoracic aortic aneurysm
d) Atherosclerosis

157) Which constricts coronary arteries?

a) Adenosine
b) Histamine
c) Hyperoxia
d) Acetylcholine

158) In the pregnant patient, when do gastric motility and pH return to normal?

a) 1-3 days postpartum

b) 10-14 days post partum
c) 3-6 weeks post partum
d) Greater than 6 weeks

159) Decreased levels of Antithrombin III are associated with all of the following
except:

a) Pregnancy
b) Cirrhosis
c) Nephrotic syndrome
d) Recent use of heparin

160) Risk of postop nausea and vomiting include all of the following EXCEPT

a) Female gender
b) Smoking
c) Opioid use
d) History of motion sickness

161) Regarding the use of phenol for neurolytic blocks

a) It is hypobaric
b) It is the agent of choice for celiac plexus block
c) It has increased affinity for vascular tissue compared to neural tissue
d) It does not cause meningeal irritation

162) A patient develops DI following pituitary surgery. Which is true?

27
 a) It is the result of damage to the anterior pituitary
b) It is transient
c) It occurs 24-48hr later
d) It is treated with Chlorpropamide

163) At how many days post-partum does anatomic closure of the normal term infants
PDA occur

a) 1-3days
b) 5-7days
c) 10-14days
d) >14days

164) How much does atrial contraction normally contribute to LV filling?

a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 35%

165) Regarding IV regional techniques, all are correct EXCEPT

a) Lidocaine 0.5% 3mL/kg

b) Avoid deflating tourniquet for at least 20min following injection
c) Use preservative free lidocaine
d) Tourniquet should only be inflated to a maximum of 250 mmHg
If A was actually 3mg/kg, then this would be the answer. Recommendations
change slightly from texts, but usually to max of 250-300 or 2.5x SBP or
100mmHg above SBP

166) Which is consistent with severe preeclampsia

a) SBP>140
b) DBP>90
c) Proteinuria of 300mg/24h
d) Oliguria <500mL/24h

167) All will decrease plasma potassium concentration in hyperkalemia EXCEPT:

a) Kayexalate
b) Epinephrine
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Calcium chloride

168) A single dose of etomidate should be used with caution in the critically ill
because:

28
 a) Venodilation
b) Myocardial depression
c) Suppression of adrenocortical axis
d) Affects cytochrome p450 system

169) Comparing a highly hydrophobic local anesthetic with a moderately hydrophobic

one, which of the following is true

a) Longer duration of action

b) Faster onset
c) Lower potency
d) ??Something about tissue absorption

170) A patient with a history of CAD develops complete heart block under GA. HR
falls to 38bpm and BP 80/60. What is the BEST initial management?

a) Epinephrine 50ug IV
b) Isoproterenol 5ug/min
c) Dopamine 5mcg/kg/min
d) Atropine 1 mg

171) Regarding regional anesthesia in neonate, all are true EXCEPT:

a) Conus medullaris ends at L1 - false

b) Hemodynamic instability is uncommon due to limited parasympathetic
influence on cardiac function – false, table 45-1 Miller 6th mentions
sympathetic immaturity which creates excellent hemodynamic stability
c) They require 10 times the dose/kg of local anesthetic to get the same level of
block compared to adults - ??? False – Millers 45-5 shows essentially same
mg/kg max. doses, but that’s for >6month, no mention of neonate
d) They have more CSF/kg than adults – true 4cc/kg vs. 2cc/kg in adult

This question was probably a “what is true about regional in the neonate” and
the correct answer would be D, that they have more CSF per kg.

172) Which of the following surgeries require pacemaker interrogation postoperatively

a) Lithotripsy
b) Thyroid surgery
c) Knee surgery
d) Gyne surgery

173) Which of the following will cause the greatest change in heart rate in the
transplanted heart?

a) Atropine

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 b) Pancuronium
c) Ephedrine
d) Neostigmine

174) Which is correct regarding management of traumatic rupture of the thoracic

aorta?

a) Most involve the ascending aorta

b) Place arterial line in left radial artery
c) Use of vasodilators and beta-blockers to control hemodynamics
d) NG tube deviates to the Left

175) Thallium scan would be most useful for which one of the following:

a) Identification of myocardium at risk

b) To look at abnormal wall motion
c) ?
d) ?

176) By how much has the hydrogen ion concentration changed if the pH goes from
6.38 to 7.38

a) Increased 10x
b) Increased 100x
c) Decreased 10x
d) Decreased 100x

177) When using a variable bypass vaporizer, which of the following is increased by an
increase in altitude (decrease in barometric pressure).

a) Vapor pressure
b) Partial pressure of anesthetic in vaporizer chamber
c) Vaporizer output in volume%
d) Saturated vapor pressure

178) Which of the following is correct regarding administration of sodium

bicarbonate?

a) Can cause paradoxical CNS alkalosis –causes CSF acidosis

b) Can cause hyponatremia –causes hypernatremia/hyperosmolality
c) Can cause severe respiratory acidosis – if ventilation inadequate, CO2
buildup
d) Can cause post-resuscitation metabolic acidosis – theoretical intracellular
increase in CO2 (tissue hypoxia) has never been proven and mostly
discredited

30
179) Calculate the ejection fraction in a patient with mitral regurgitation if the stroke
volume is 250 mL, regurgitant volume is 175 mL, and end-diastolic volume is 500
mL.

a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 45%
d) 50%

180) Which is true regarding anatomic dead space?

a) It is determined by the Bohr equation

b) It is the major portion of physiologic dead space
c) Comprised of trachea and mainstem bronchi
d) It is increased in pulmonary embolism

181) What would the flow-volume loop look like from a patient with tracheomalacia
following resection of a cervical goiter?

a) Normal inspiratory and expiratory flow

b) Decreased inspiratory flow, normal expiratory flow
c) Decreased expiratory flow, normal inspiratory flow
d) Decreased inspiratory and expiratory flow

182) A patient with pheochromocytoma has received adequate medical optimization

prior to surgery when:

a) Decreased urinary VMA levels

b) Decreased plasma volume
c) Hematocrit decreases
d) Decreased serum glucose

183) All are true about LMW heparin compared to unfractionated heparin, EXCEPT

a) Decreased platelet antibody formation

b) Decreased dosing frequency
c) Decreased requirements for monitoring aPTT levels
d) Decreased interaction with antiplatelet agents

184) The beneficial effects of Heliox in patients with upper airway obstruction is due
to:

a) Reductions in viscosity of gas mixture

b) Reduction in density of gas mixture
c) Bronchodilation
d) Decreased airway edema

31
185) What is the most likely effect of adding 25mcg of fentanyl to 1mL of 0.5%
bupivicaine injected intrathecally:

a) Increased respiratory depression at 6-8h

b) Increased block success
c) Increased nausea and vomiting
d) Increased hypotension

186) Which volatile is least likely to cause immune mediated hepatic injury:

a) Halothane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Desflurane
d) Isoflurane

187) Closing capacity increases with all EXCEPT?

a) Smoking
b) Supine
c) Obesity
d) Increased cardiac output

188) A 6-year-old boy with cerebral palsy is scheduled for an emergency

appendectomy. All of the following are possible considerations for this case,
EXCEPT?

a) Risk of hyperkalemia with Sux

b) Gastroesophageal Reflux
c) Hypersensitivity to the CNS depressant effects of volatile anesthetics
d) Depressed laryngeal reflexes

189) All of the following are true regarding ondansetron, EXCEPT?

a) Delay of discharge from the PACU

b) Headache is a common side effect
c) No extrapyramidal side effects
d) Increase in LFTs

190) All of the following are causes of Absolute R to L shunt, EXCEPT?

a) VSD
b) Advanced liver failure
c) Pulmonary thromboembolism
d) Drainage from bronchiolar veins

32
191) All of the following are signs of brainstem anesthesia following
retrobulbar block, EXCEPT?

a) Increased intra-vitreal pressure

b) Contra-lateral Amaurosis Fugax
c) Shivering
d) Loss of consciousness

192) Factors facilitating bupivicaine transfer across the placenta EXCEPT

a) Increased fetal pH
b) Decreased molecular weight
c) Decreased protein binding
d) Increased amount unionized drug

193) Regarding hyperventilation in acute head injury, all of the following statements
EXCEPT ONE are true. Indicate the exception.

a) May not effectively decrease intracranial pressure in the face of severe head
trauma
b) Will attenuate the vasodilatation of inhaled anesthetics
c) The effect on ICP will be terminated by CNS buffering
d) The effects will last 24-48 hours

194) Regarding the 5 lead EKG. All of the following leads EXCEPT ONE will be
affected by disconnection of the Left arm lead. Indicate the exception.

a) AVR
b) III
c) AVF
d) II

195) All of the following EXCEPT ONE predisposes patients to increased risk of
LATE respiratory depression after epidural opiods.

a) Repeat doses of opiods

b) Elderly patients
c) Hydrophobic opiods
d) Comorbid lung disease

196) Which of the following is a component of modern vaporizer design:

a) Constant derived flow

b) High pumping effect
c) Low heat of latency

33
 d) High thermal conductivity

197) Which of the following anesthetics are contra-indicated in someone who is known
anaphylactic to pancuronium:

a) Meperidine
b) Fentanyl
c) Morphine
d) Codeine

198) In regards to mild hypothermia, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a) Increased wound infections

b) Longer post-op hospital stay
c) Impaired coagulation
d) Impaired NMB reversal

199) Of the following all are risk factors for post-op nausea and vomiting EXCEPT:

a) Suffers motion sickness

b) Female
c) Cigarette smoking
d) Dehydration

200) Patient with a fixed airway obstruction breathing 70% Helium 30%
oxygen will decrease the resistance to airflow through the stenotic
region within the trachea because:

a) Helium decreases the viscosity of the gas mixture

b) Helium decreases the friction coefficient of the gas mixture
c) Helium decreases the density of the gas mixture
d) Helium decreases the Reynolds number of the gas mixture

201) 50-year-old male alcoholic presents for inguinal hernia repair, what
is the most likely postoperative electrolyte abnormality?

a) HypoMg
b) HypoK
c) HypoNa
d) HyperK

202) Differences between LMWH and standard unfractionated heparin include all
EXCEPT:

34
 a) No need for PTT to monitor anticoagulation
b) Less interaction with antiplatelet medications
c) Less formation of antiplatelet antibodies
d) Equal development of antibodies

203) Increased closing capacity with all EXCEPT:

a) Smoking
b) Decreased cardiac output
c) Obesity
d) Supine position

204) Which of the following would be expected in a patient with

tracheomalacia resulting after excision of a large thyroid goiter?

a) Decreased expiratory and inspiratory flow pattern on flow volume

curve
b) Decreased inspiratory and normal expiratory flow pattern on flow
volume curve
c) Decreased expiratory and normal inspiratory flow pattern on flow
volume curve
d) Expiratory/inspiratory ratio < 0.5

205) What is true about a neonate who presents to the OR for repair of a
myelomeningocele? (I’m guessing this is supposed to say except)

a) The risk of hydrocephalus is present from the time of birth

b) There is a risk of hyperkalemia with succinylcholine
c) There is the risk of brainstem compression (Arnold Chiari
malformation)
d) There should be concern about coexisting cardiac anomalies

206) Breakdown or metabolism of volatiles in the human body from highest to

lowest: (probably written wrong H>S>I>D)

a) Halothane > Desflurane > sevoflurane > Isoflurane

b) Sevoflurane > halothane > Isoflurane > Desflurane
c) Halothane > sevoflurane > Desflurane > Isoflurane – should obviously be
H>S>I>D
d) Sevoflurane > Isoflurane > halothane > Desflurane

207) Which statement BEST characterizes the addition of sodium bicarbonate to

Lidocaine 1.5%?

35
 a) No precipitation will occur because the local anesthetic solution is
alkaline
b) The amount of ionized local anesthetic will increase
c) The pCO2 of the solution will increase
d) Addition of 1 mmol NaHCO3 to 10 mL of Lidocaine 1.5% will increase the
pH to > 10

208) Which of the following physiologic responses is most frequently observed with
infra-renal cross-clamping of the abdominal aorta in a pt w/ a normal LV and
coronary arteries:

a) Decreased or no change in blood pressure

b) Decreased CO
c) Increased CVP
d) Increased PCWP

209) Which of the following is true regarding phenol?

a) Hypobaric in glycine
b) Agent of choice for celiac plexus blocks
c) Higher affinity for vascular tissue than neural tissue
d) Causes irritation of meninges when injected intrathecally

210) Which amide local anesthetic is metabolized by liver and tissue cholinesterases:

a) Lidocaine
b) Bupivicaine
c) Ropivicaine
d) Tetracaine

211) What herbal supplement interacts with platelets:

a) St. John's Wort

b) Kava
c) Echinacea
d) Gingko Biloba

212) What is the MOST sensitive sign for neuromuscular reversal:

a) Sustained head lift for 5 seconds

b) No fade with TOF
c) No fade with 5 seconds sustained tetanus at 50 Hz
d) No fade with double burst stimulation

36
213) Which of the following is a characteristic pattern seen in a fellow anesthetist
addicted to drugs:

a) Always requests a medical student to help with the case

b) Meticulous charting
c) Refuses to take over cases from colleagues
d) Insists on giving pts narcotics in PACU himself

214) Which of the following drugs is LEAST useful in treating post-herpetic neuralgia:

a) Ibuprofen
b) Morphine
c) Amitryptyline
d) Epidural methylprednisolone

215) What is the GCS for the following: opens eyes to command, confused speaking,
moves limbs to command:

a) 13
b) 12
c) 10
d) 14

216) What forms the posterior boundary of the epidural space?

a) Posterior longitudinal ligament

b) Ligamentum flavum
c) Pedicles
d) Supraspinous ligament

217) A 26 y o male is involved in a MVA and has a C6 fracture. Which time frame is
the MOST likely for developing a NEW neurological deficit:

a) Intubation
b) Positioning
c) Surgical correction
d) Emergence

218) What patient does this blood gas represent? 7.35/ PCO2 34/ PO2 75 98%

a) Neonate
b) Geriatric

37
 c) Pregnant
d) High Altitude (Chronic)

219) For the acute management of intraoperative hypotension in a patient with HOCM,
which is the best initial choice?

a) Phenylephrine
b) Ephedrine
c) Metoprolol
d) Dopamine

220) Which of the following will decrease the incidence of postoperative neuropraxia
associated with the use of an inflated tourniquet?

a) Deflated the tourniquet every 150 minutes.

b) Maintain a gradient between systolic BP and inflation pressure of no more
than 150 mmHg.
c) Avoid regional anesthesia to the limb.
d) Treat tourniquet induced hypertension with vasodilators

221) Compared to singleton pregnancy, twin gestations have which of the following?

a) Increased incidence of pregnancy induced hypertension.

b) Decreased incidence of prolonged labour.
c) Increased maternal hematocrit.
d) Decreased incidence of post partum hemorrhage.

222) A patient is undergoing a left thoracotomy with a left-sided endobronchial double

lumen tube. During one-lung ventilation with the right lung ventilated, there is an
increase in the ventilating pressures and the tidal volume is only 100mL. What
maneuver is most likely to improve this?

a) Pull back the endobronchial tube.

b) Apply suction to the non-dependent lung.
c) Deflate the endobronchial cuff.
d) Apply CPAP to the non-dependent lung.

223) Which of the following is NOT at risk for post-partum hemorrhage:

a) PIH
b) Macrosomnia
c) Prolonged Labour
d) Augmented Labour (oxytocin)

38
224) Compared with moderately hydrophobic local anesthetics, highly hydrophobic
LA’s are:

a) Less potent
b) Longer duration of action
c) Faster onset of action
d) Less protein bound

225) A patient with significant mitral regurgitation has a LVEDV of 500cc, a SV of

250cc and has a regurgitant volume of 175cc. What is his EF?

a) 15%
b) 25%
c) 35%
d) 50%

226) What is the loading dose of rectal acetaminophen in the pediatric patient?

a) 15 mg/kg
b) 40 mg/kg
c) 60 mg/kg
d) 100mg/kg

227) Which of the following is associated with metabolic acidosis with an anion gap?

a) Renal tubular acidosis

b) Ureterosigmoidostomy
c) Ingestion of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
d) Salicylate intoxication

228) Which of the following will be increased in a patient with renal failure?

a) Esmolol
b) Nifedipine
c) Digoxin
d) Pancuronium

229) With regards to norepinephrine biosynthesis, which of the following is the most
immediate precursor?

39
 a) Tyrosine
b) Dopamine
c) Epinephrine
d) Phenylalanine

230) Direct coronary artery vasoconstrictor:

a) PGE1
b) Hypoxia
c) Histamine
d) ACh

231) What variables are required to measure SVR:

a) MAP, CVP, CO
b) Systolic BP, CVP, CO
c) MAP, PCWP, CO
d) Systolic BP, PCWP, CO

232) Celiac plexus block effective for cancer pain in all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Kidney
d) Small intestine

233) What is true regarding traumatic aortic rupture:

a) Most common site is the ascending aorta

b) Blood pressure is monitored via the left radial art line
c) Blood pressure is managed with NTG and Beta-blocker
d) OLV is contraindicated in the presence of nitroprusside infusion

234) Epinephrine containing LA given epidurally will cause which of the following
compared to LA without epinephrine:

a) Increased HR
b) Increased BP
c) Increased contractility
d) Increased SVR

235) All of the following increase the risk of pulmonary artery perforation EXCEPT:

a) Age > 60 y o

40
 b) Anticoagulated pt
c) Induced hypothermia
d) Heparin bonded PAC

236) All of the following decrease K+ concentration EXCEPT:

a) Epinephrine
b) Kayexalate
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Insulin

237) Which is true about CO2 lasers:

a) Causes corneal burns

b) ?
c) ?
d) ?

238) In regard to a properly functioning variable bypass vaporizer, what will increase
as the barometric pressure decreases

a) Vapor pressure
b) Vapor pressure as a proportion of output (conc. %)
c) Partial pressure of the vapor
d) Partial pressure within the vaporizer

239) Which least affects SSEP monitoring:

a) Fentanyl infusion
b) Induced hypotension with nitroprusside
c) N2O and bolus sufentanil
d) Propofol infusion

BEST OF LUCK!!!
FROM THE 2007 ANESTHESIOLOGY RESIDENTS

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