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SOLUTIONS
1. If F denotes force and t time then in the equation 3. Two cars travelling towards each other on a
F = at-1 + bt2, dimensions of a and b respectively straight road at velocity 10 m/s and 12 m/s
are: respectively. When they are 150 m apart, both
(1) LT4 and LT1 drivers apply their brakes and each car
decelerations at 2 m/s2 until it stops. How far
(2) LT1 and LT4 apart will they be when they have both come to a
stop?
(3) MLT4 and MLT1
(1) 89 m
(4) MLT1 and MLT4 (2) 98 m
(3) 108 m
Solution Choice (4) (4) 150 m
F = at1 + bt2
Solution Choice (1)
a F t MLT2 T MLT1
Let x1 and x2 be the distance travelled by the car
F MLT 2 before they stop under deceleration.
b MLT 4 Using, v2 = u2 + 2as, we get,
t 2 T2
0 = (10)2 2 2 x1 ……..(i)
0 = (12)2 2 2 x2 ……..(ii)
2. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration.
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
The velocity of the body after t seconds is . The
x1 = 25 m and x2 = 36 m
displacement of the body in last three seconds is: Total distance covered by the two cars
3 3
(1) t 3 (2) t 3 = x1 + x2 = 25 + 36 = 61 m
2 2 Distance between the two cars when they stop
3 3 = 150 61 = 89 m
(3) 3 1 (4) 3 1
2t 2t
4. A toy cyclist completes one round of a square
Solution Choice (3) track of side 2 m in 40 seconds. What will be the
Let a be the uniform acceleration. displacement at the end of 3 minutes?
Displacement after time when acceleration (1) 52 m
(2) Zero
a …..(i)
t (3) 16 m
1 (4) 2 2 m
h t2
2t
Displacement upto (t 3) Solution Choice (4)
1 Total time of motion on square track
h1 t 3
2
1
5. A light string passes overo a smoo oth light pulley (m2 m1 ) g (2 1) g g 10
a
connects two blocks of massess m1 and m2 m1 m2 1 2 3 3
(vertically)). If the acceeleration of the system is ation of the ccentre of the mass is
Accelera
(g/8), thenn the ratio of masses
m is:
m1 a1 m2 a2 1(a) 2 (a
a)
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 9 : 7 acm
m1 m2 1 2
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 5 : 3
g g
1 2
Solution Choice (2) 3 3 g 10
3 9 9
In the give
en system, a =
m 1
m2 g
g
The distance travelle
ed by the cen
ntre of mass in
m1 m2 8
two seco
onds is
m1 m2 1 1 1 10
0 20
S c t (2)2
2
m1 m2 8 acm m
2 2 9 9
8 m1 8 m2 = m1 + m2
m1 9 7.. The earrth moves arround the su
un in an ellip
ptical
7 m1 = 9 m2 or
m2 7 OA
orbit as shown in fig
gure. The rattio x . The
OB
6. Two masse es m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are ratio of the
t speed off the earth at B and at A iss:
connected by a light inextensib ble string and
suspendedd by means of a weighttless pulley as
shown in the figure. Assuming that both the t
masses start from restt, the distancce travelled by
the centrre of masss in two seconds is: (1) x (2) x
-2
(Take g = 10
1 ms )
(3) x2 (4) x x
Solution
n Choice (2)
Accordin
ng to law of cconservation
n of angular
momenttum we get;
m A OA
O m B OB
B OA
or x
A OB
20 40
(1) m (2) m
9 9
8.. A body is released from a point distance r from
2 1
(3) m (4) m the centtre of earth. If R is the ra
adius of the earth
e
3 3
and r > R, then the e velocity off the body at the
time of striking
s the e
earth will be:
Solution Choice (1)
(1) gR (2) 2 gR
2 gRr
g 2 gR (r R)
(3) (4)
r R t
Solution
n Choice (4)
Let bee velocity witth which the body strikess the
surface of earth
Here, m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg Accordin
ng to the law
w of conserva
ation of energ
gy
The accele
eration of the
e system is GMm 1 G
GMm
m2
r 2 R
2
2 GM GM T1 T2
or
2 R r X Y Z
r R (r R) GM
Let L be the length and A be area of cross-
= GM
rR gR r g 2
R section of each rod respectively.
2 gR (r R) 1
or Given KY = 2 KZ, KY = KX
r 2
L
Thermal resistance of rod X, RX =
9. A tank full of water has a small hole at its bottom. KX A
If one fourth of the tank is emptied in t1 seconds
L
and the remaining three fourths of the tank is Thermal resistance of rod Y, RY =
KY A
emptied in t2 seconds then ratio:
L
t1 Thermal resistance of rod Z, RZ =
is: KZ A
t2
The electrical equivalent circuit is as shown in
(1) 3 (2) 2 the figure.
2 2 2 3
(3) (4)
2 3
Here, the rods are connected in series.
Solution Choice (4) RS = R X + R Y + R Z
Let A and a cross-sectional areas of the tank and 3L L L L
hole respectively. Let h be height of water in the K eq A K X A K Y A K Z A
tank at a time t. 3 1 1 2
dh K eq 2 K Y K Y K Y
Let represent the rate of fall of level,
dt
3 1 2 4 7
then
K eq 2 KY 2 KY
dh A dh
A a 2 gh or dt 6K Y
dt a 2g h or K eq
7
Required ratio
1
dh 3 h h
3h 4
11. A Carnot engine, having an efficiency of
10
t1 h h 4 2 3
0 as heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the
t2 dh 3h 3
0 work done on the system is 10 J, the amount of
3h 4 h 4
energy absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is:
10. Three identical metal rods X, Y and Z are placed (1) 100 J (2) 99 J
end to end and a temperature difference is (3) 90 J (4) 1 J
maintained between the ends of X and Z. If the
thermal conductivity of Y(KY) is twice that of Z Solution Choice (3)
(KZ) and half that of X (KX), then the effective QH QL
thermal conductivity of the system is: For Carnot engine efficiency
QH
KX 6 KY Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator
(1) (2)
7 7 1
1
7 KY 1 10
(3) (4) 7 KZ or 9
3 1
10
Q
Solution Choice (2) Also L (where W is the work done)
W
or QL W 9 10 90 J
3
12. A pendulum suspended from the roof of an Compare (i) and (ii), we get
elevator at rest has a time period T1, when the 2
elevator moves up with an acceleration a, its k or or 6 cm
3 3
time period becomes T2, when the elevator
The distance between two consecutive node is
moves down with an acceleration a, its time
period becomes T3 then: 6
cm 3 cm
2 2
(1) T1 T2 T3 (2) T1 T 2
2 T32
T2 T3 2 14. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning
(3) T1 (4) None of these fork forming standing waves with five anitnodes
T22 T32
between the two bridges which a mass of 9 kg is
suspended from the wire. When this mass is
Solution Choice (3) replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with
the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for
1 4 2 l the same positions of the bridges. The value of M
T1 2 or g
g T12 is:
l 4 2 l (1) 25 kg (2) 5 kg
T2 2 or ga
ga T22 1
(3) 12.5 kg (4) kg
25
1 4 2 l
T3 2 or ga
ga T32
Solution Choice (1)
4 2 l 4 2 l 4 2 l
2 g where g The frequency of vibration of a string is given by
T22 T32 T12
Solving we get, P T
2L
2 T2 T3
T1 Where p = number of loops (or segments)
T22 T32
= number of antinodes
The other symbols have their usual meanings.
13. The stationary wave produced on a string is
According to question,
represented by the equation
5 9g 3 Mg
x or M 25 kg
y 5 sin cos 40 t where x and y are in cm 2L 2L
3
and t is in seconds. The distance between two
consecutive nodes is: 15. An electric charge of 8.5 × 10-13 C is placed at
(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm the centre of a sphere of radius 1 m. The electric
(3) 6 cm (4) 40 cm flux through the sphere is:
(1) 0.2 N C-1 m2 (2) 0.1 N C-1 m2
Solution Choice (2) (3) 0.3 N C-1 m2 (4) 0.01 N C-1 m2
The given stationary wave produced on a string
is represented by Solution Choice (2)
x According to Gauss’s law
y 5 sin cos 40 t …………………..(i)
3 The electric flux through the sphere is
The standard stationary wave produced on a qin 8.85 10 13 C
string is represented by 0.1N C1 m2
0 8.85 10 12 C2 N1 m2
y = 2a sin kx cos t …………………..(ii)
4
16. A parallel plate capaccitor with air between the Solution Choice (1)
plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The T separation
between itts plates is d.d The space e between the
t
plates is now
n ectrics. One of
filled wiith two diele
ant K2 = 6 and
the dielecttrics has diellectric consta
2d
thickness . Capacitance of the capacitor is
3
now:
(1) 20.25 pF
p (2) 1.8 pF
p
Networkk is redrawn a
as shown in figure.
(3) 45 pF (4) 40.5 pF
Wheatstone’s network.
This is a balanced W
Solution Choice (4)
Equivale
ent capacitan
nce
Ceq = C
A Charge Q = CV
C 0 9 10 12 F
d
Charge on capacitorr between the
e terminals A
A and B
With dielecctric, C = C 0
d
Q CV
0 A . 3
C1 9 C; 2 2
d
3 Energy stored
s in thatt capacitor
2
0 A . 6 Q
C2 9C 1
2d 2 Q 2 C2 V 2 C V 2
=
3 2C 8C 8C 8
C1 C2 Given : C = 1 F, V = 10 V
Ctotal ey are in series
as the
C1 C2
9C9C 9 9 =
1 100 10
6 2
100
10 6 12.5
1 J
Ctotal 0 12 F
C 9 10 8 8
18 C 2 2
Ctotal 40.5 pF.
8.
18 ‘n’ identtical drops, each of cap pacitance C and
charged to a poten ntial V, coalesce to forrm a
17. What is thet energy stored in the capacittor
bigger drop.
d Then thhe ratio of th
he energy sttored
between teerminals A and B of the network
n show
wn
in the big
g drop to tha
at in each sm
mall drop is:
in the figu
ure? (Capaccitance of each
e capacittor
C = 1 F) (1) n5 3 : 1 (2) n 4 3 : 1
(3) n : 1 (4) n3 : 1
5
R n1 3 r 2
V = curre
ent × resista
ance = 10
10 R
mall drop, C = 4 0 r
Capacitancce of each sm
The leng
gth of the wirre is l = 100 cm
c
Capacitancce of bigger drop,
So, the potential
p gradient along the
t wire is
C’ = 4 0 r 4 0 n1 3 r n1 3 C
V 2 10 1
Charge on each small drop,
d Q=CV k ………. (i)
(
l 10 R 100
Charge on bigger drop, Q’ = n Q
The source of emf 10 0 m V is bala
anced againsst a
Q' nQ length off 40 cm of the potentiomeeter wire
Potential of
o bigger drop
p, V’ = 13
C' n C
i.e., 10 10-3 = k 4
40
= n2 3 V 2 40
1 -3 =
or 10 10 (Using (i)))
1 (10 R)
R 10
Energy sto
ored in each small
s drop, U C V 2
2 or R = 790
1
ored in bigger drop, U’ = U
Energy sto C ' V'2
2 0.
20 Two eleectric bulbs marked 40 W, 220 V and
1 1 60 W, 220
2 V when connected in series, accross
2
= n1 3 C n2 3 V n5 3 C V 2
2 2 same voltage
v supp
ply of 220 V, the effeective
power iss P1 and when connecte
ed in parallell, the
U' 1 5 3 2 n5 3
n C V2 2
P1
U 2 CV 1 effective
e power is P2. Then is
s:
P2
220 220
2 2
2 1 1
= 220
40 60 40 60
00 220
2
60 40 2 10
= 220 60 40 220 24
2
24
400
VS2 24
220
2
nt in the potentiometer wire AC is
The curren P1 24
4W
220
2
RS
2
I= When th
he bulbs are cconnected in
n parallel
10 R
6
220
2
1 100
0
or RP
RP 220 2
100
VS2 100
220
2
P2 100 W
220
2
RP
P1 24
4W Force exxperienced b
by AB and CD D are equal and
a
0.24
P2 1000W opposite
e so the contribution in the net force
nced by loop is only due to
experien t AD and BC C.
= 4 ˣ 105
T
Magnetic force expe
erienced by AD
A is,
F1 = I2 B1 ˣ (15 cm) = 3 ˣ 105 N to
owards wire.
(1) 1 (2) 2 Magnetic field at the location of BC
B is,
(3) 3 (4) 4 0 I1 2 10 7 100
B2 2
1 10 5 T
2 (20 cm) 20 10
Solution Choice (1)
Magnetic force expe
erienced by BC
B is,
6 6
2 F2 I2 B 2 (15 cm) 0.75 10 5 N away from
m
36 R 2
R
36 wire.
Solution
n Choice (1)
Efficienccy of a transfformer
(1) Repulsive in nature gnitude equal
e having mag ut power PO
Outpu VS IS
-5
to 3.75 ˣ 10 N =
ut power PI
Inpu VP IP
(2) Repulsive in nature
e having mag
gnitude equal
to 2.25 ˣ 10-5 N where VS = Voltage across secondary
7
16 Solution
n Choice (4)
PO 103 W 3200 W
5 Since ellectromagne etic wave is propagating
p
PO d magnetic field is along y-
along z--direction and
3200
IS 16 A direction
n, therefore e
electric field will
w be along
g x-
VS 200
direction
n.
Also PI = IP VP
Here, E0 c B0 3 108 2 10 7 = 60 V m1
PI 4 10 W 3
or I P
VP
100 V
40 A Thus, E x 60 sin 0.5 10 z 1.5
3
1 10 t V m
11 1
(1) Ey 2 10 7 sin 0.5 103 z 1.5 1011 t
(2) E x 2 10 7 sin 0.5 103 z 1.5 1011 t (1) 0° (2) 30
0°
(3) 45° (4) 60
0°
(3) Ey 60
0 sin 0.5 10
03 z 1.5 1011 t
Solution
n Choice (4)
(4) E x 60
0 sin 0.5 103 z 1.5 1011 t
nt angles are as shown in the figure.
Differen
8
29
9. A telesccope has an objective lenns of focal le
ength
200 cm and an eye piece with fo ocal length 2 cm.
If this te
elescope is used to see e a 50 metre e tall
building at a distancce of 2 km, what
w is the height
of the image of tthe building formed byy the
In triangle ABC, + + = 180°° ; = 60°
objective lens?
(1) 5 cm
m (2) 10
0 cm
28. A ray of light is incide
ent normallyy on the prissm
(3) 1 cm
m (4) 2 cm
c
3
2 im
mmersed in a liquid as shown in the
Solution
n Choice (1)
figure. The e largest value for the an ngle so th
hat
ray is totally reflected at the face ACA is 30°. The For obje
ective lens, f0 = + 200 cm,
refractive index
i of the given
g liquid is
i u0 = 2 105 cm
For a lens
1 1 1
0 u0 f0
1 1 1
or
0 f0 0
3
(1)
2 1 1 999
=
3 200 2 10 5
2 105
(2)
4 2 105
or 0 cm
4 999
(3)
3 Conside
er magnificattion due to ob
bjective lens
3 3 Size of image 0
(4)
4 Size of object u0
0
Solution Choice (4) Size of objectt
Size of image = S
u0
05
2 10 1
= 50 100
999 2 105
5000
= cm 5 cm
999
30
0. A beamm of natural light falls on a system m of
0
C 90
oids, which are arrange
5 polaro ed in successsion
C 90 30 60 such tha
at the pass a
axis of each polaroid
p is tu
urned
through 60° with reespect to thee preceding one.
nternal reflecction at point P
For total in
The fraction of the ght intensity that
e incident lig
g sin C L passes through the ssystem is:
3 1 1
where g = refractive index of the prism = (1) (2)
2 64 32
2
1 1
3 3 3 3 3 (3) (4)
L sin60 256 51
12
2 2 2 4
Solution
n Choice (4)
9
Let I0 be the intensity of incident light. m 90 60 30
Then the intensity of light from the 1st Polaroid is
I0 32. Light of certain colour has 2000 waves to the
I1
2 millimeter in air. What will be the wavelength of
this light in a medium of refractive index 1.25?
Intensity of light from the 2nd Polaroid is
I
2
I0 (1) 1000 A
1
I2 I1 cos 2 60 0 2 8
2 (2) 2000 A
Intensity of light from the 3rd Polaroid is
(3) 3000 A
2
I 1 I
I3 I2 cos 2 60 0 0 (4) 4000 A
8 2 32
Intensity of light from the 4th Polaroid is Solution Choice (4)
2
I 1 I 1mm
I4 I3 cos 2 60 0 0 air = 5 104 mm 5 107 m 5000 A
32 2 128 2000
Intensity of light from 5th Polaroid is
air 5000 A
medium 4000 A
I0 1
2
I0 1.25
I5 I4 cos 2 60 2 512
128
Therefore the fraction of the incident light that 33. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle moving
passes through the system is with a velocity 2.25 108 m/s is equal to the
I5 1 wavelength of a photon. The ratio of kinetic
I0 512 energy of the particle to the energy of the photon
is:
31. The angle of minimum deviation in an equilateral (Velocity of light is 3 108 m/s)
prism of refractive index 1.414 is: 1 3
(1) (2)
(1) 60° (2) 30° 8 8
(3) 90° (4) 45° 5 7
(3) (4)
8 8
Solution Choice (2)
A m Solution Choice (2)
sin
2 h
A is the de Broglie wavelength. The
sin m
2
energy of a photon of this wavelength is
Where is the refractive index, A is the angle of
hc hc
prism and is the angle of minimum deviation. Eh m c ……….(i)
h
Given : A = 60°, = 1.414 m
Kinetic energy of the particle is
60 m
sin
2 1
2 K m 2 ..…….(ii)
sin30 2
Divide (ii) by (i), we have
1 60 m 60 m
sin ; sin 45
sin
2 2 2 1
m 2
K 2 2.25 108 2.25 3
60 m
45
2
E mc 2 c 2 3 108 6 8
10
34. When radiation of the wavelength is incident 35. In an experiment of photoelectric effect, the
on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is stopping potential was measured to be V1 and V2
4.8 volt. If the same surface is illuminated with volts with incident light of wavelength and /2
radiation of double the wavelength, then the respectively. The relation between V1 and V2
stopping potential becomes 1.6 volt. Then the may be:
threshold wavelength for the surface is: (1) V2 < V1
(1) 2 (2) V1 < V2 < 2 V1
(2) 4 (3) V2 = 2 V1
(4) V2 > 2 V1
(3) 6
(4) 8
Solution Choice (4)
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
Solution Choice (2)
K max h 0
According to Einstein’ s photoelectric equation
hc hc 0
hc hc e VS 0 VS
e Vs e e
0
Where = Wavelength of incident light
Where VS = Stopping potential
0 = Work function
= Incident wavelength
VS = Stopping potential
0 = Threshold wavelength
According to given problem
hc 1 1
or VS h c 0
e 0 V1 ………………(i)
e e
For the first case
hc
V2 0 ……………..(ii)
hc 1 1 e
4.8 ………………(i) 2e
e 0
For the second case 2 h c 0 2 h c 2 0 2 0 0
V2
e e e e e e
hc 1 1
1.6 ………………(ii)
e 2 0 h c 0 0
= 2
Divide (i) by (ii), we get e e e
1 1 V2 2 V1 0 (Using (i))
0 V2 2 V1
3
1 1
2 0
36. A photon of wavelength 4400 A is passing
1 1 1 1
3 through vacuum. The effective mass and
2 0 0 momentum of the photon are respectively:
3 3 1 1 (1) 5 10-36 kg, 1.5 10-27 kg m/s
2 0 0 (2) 5 10-35 kg, 1.5 10-26
1 2 (3) Zero, 1.5 10-26 kg m/s
or 0 4
2 0 (4) 5 10-36 kg, 1.67 10-43 kg m/s
11
By de Brog
glie formula 6.023 1023 15
N= , or N = 1.0038 1020
Momentum
m 90 1000
h 6.6 10 34
6 dN
p 10
1.5 10 27 kg
gm/ s Rate of disintegratio
on, N
44400 10 dt
n, velocity = c = 3 108 m/s
For photon 0.6933 0.693 1.0038 10202
= N 010 Bq
7.88 10
p 1.5 10 27 T1 28 3.154 10 7
m o m 5 10 36 kg
or 2
c 3 108
m 5 10 36 , p 1.5
5 10 27 kg m / s
9.
39 Calculatte the highe
est frequenc
cy of the em mitted
photon in the Paschhen series off spectral line
es of
37. The diagrram shows the energy levels for an the hydrrogen atom.
electron in a certainn atom. Wh hich transition (1) 3.7 1014 Hz 1 1015 Hz
(2) 9.1
shown reppresents the emission off a photon with
w (3) 10.23 1014 Hz 9.7 1015 Hzz
(4) 29
the most energy?
e
Solution
n Choice (1)
quencies of the emitted photon
The freq p in the
Paschenn series are given by
1 1
Rc 2 2
3 n
where n = 4, 5, 6, ………..
(1) I (2) II
The high
hest frequen nds to n
ncy correspon
(3) III (4) IV
Rc
highesst
9
Solution Choice (3)
Ist transitio g absorption of a photon..
on is showing 7 107 m1 3 108 m / s
1.097
=
From rest of three transitions III is having
h 9
maximum energy from m level n = 2 tot n=1 = 0.37 1015 s1
1 1 = 3.7 1014 s1 = 3..7 1014 Hz
z
E 2 2
n1 n2
40
0. In the ciircuit shown here, the tra
ansistor used
d has
38. The half life of Sr 90 is 28 years. What is the
t a currennt gain = 1
100. What sh hould be the bias
38
resistor RB so that VCE = 5 V (neg
glect VBE) ?
disintegrattion rate of 15 mg of this isotope?
(1) 7.88 1010 Bq (2) 8.88 1010 Bq
(3) 9.88 1010 Bq (4) 6.88 1010 Bq
Solution
n Choice (1)
12
The Boo
olean expresssion of this gate
g is
Y A B A B A B
Thus, OR
O gate is pro
oduced.
Applying Kirchhoff’s
K law
w to mesh ADCEFA
A
VCC = 10 = IC 103 + VCE
3.
43 A poten of 0.3 V exists across a p-n
ntial barrier o
10 = IC 103 + 5
n is 1 m wide,
junction. If the depletion region w
03 A
IC = 5 10 what iss the intenssity of electtric field in this
Applying Kirchhoff’s
K law
w to mesh AGBEFA
A region?
IB RB + 0 = 10 (1) 2 105 V m-1 (2) 3 105 V m-1
5 105 RB = 10 (3) 4 105 V m-1 (4) 5 105 V m-1
105
RB = 2 1
= 200 103 Solution
n Choice (2)
Electric field
41. owing circuit Y is:
In the follo V 0.3
E 3 105 V m1
d 1 10 6
44
4. If e m electrons is 1.76 10111 C kg-1 and
d the
(1) A (2) B
stopping en the maximum
g potential iss 0.71 V, the
(3) AB (4) A + B
velocity of the photo
oelectron is:
(1) 150 km s-1 00 km s-1
(2) 20
Solution Choice (1)
(3) 500 km s-1 50 km s-1
(4) 25
Solution
n Choice (3)
Here, sttopping poten
ntial, Vs = 0.7
71 V
Y A A B A (1 B)
B (sin ce 1 B 1) = A
e
For elecctron, k 1
1.76 1011 C kg
m
42. The combination of the
e gates as shown
s in figu
ure The maxximum kinetiic energy of the
t
represent: photoele
ectron is
1
K max m max
2
e VS
2
e
max
2
2 VS
m
(1) OR gatte
e
(2) AND ga
ate max 2 VS 2 1.76 1011 0.71
m
(3) NOR gate
= 5 105 m s1 = 50
00 103 m s1
(4) XOR gate
m s1
= 500 km
Solution Choice (1)
13
45. Calculate the linear momentum of a 3 Me V 8.
48 Fehling solution is a mixture of
o two soluttions.
photon: While one
o solution contains CuSO
C 4, the other
o
(1) 0.01 eV
V s/m containss:
CH(O OH)COOK OONa
CO
(2) 0.02 eV
V s/m
(1) | (2) |
(3) 0.03 eV
V s/m
CH(O
OH)COOK COOONa
(4) 0.04 eV
V s/m
OH
COO CHH(OH)COON
Na
Solution Choice (1) (3) | (4) |
Energy of a photon, E = 3 Me V = 3 106 eV COO
OH CHH(OH)COOK
K
E
he photon, p
Linear momentum of th
c Solution Choice: (4 4)
Where c is the speed of light in vaccuum. Fehling’ss solution co
onsists of CuS
SO4 mixed with
w
Rochelle
e salt i.e., so
odium potass sium tartarate
e.
3 10
06 e V
p 10 2 e V s / m 0.01e
0 V s/m CH(OH))COONa
3 10 m / s
8
|
CH(OH))COOK
46. The producct of combusstion of an aliphatic thiol
(RSH) at 298
2 K are: 49
9. Reaction
n by which hyde cannot be
h benzaldeh
(1) CO2 (g) , H2 O(g) and SO
S 2 (g) prepared
d:
(2) CO2 (g) , H2 O(l) and SO
S 2 (g)
(1) + CO + HC
Cl in the pres
sence of
(3) CO2 (l) , H2 O(l) and SO
O2 (g)
(4) CO2 (g) , H2 O(l) and SO
S 2 (l) anhyydrous AlCl3
(1) II < III < IV < I (2) III < II < IV < I (4) + H2 in presenc
ce of Pd-BaS
SO4
(3) IV < III < I < II (4) III < IV < II < I
Solution Choice: (2 2)
Solution Choice (4)
Reductioon in presencce of Zn-Hg and conc.HC
Cl is
Order of reeactivity of different alkyl halides
useful fo
or aldehyde a
and ketone but
b carboxylicc
towards Williamson’s
W s
synthesis is
acid group remains uunaffected.
Alkyl > 1̊ > 2̊ > 3̊
For same alkyl
a group order
o of reacttivity is
50
0. When ethylene
e glyccol is heatedd with a acid
dified
R I > R Br > R Cl
potassiu
um permang ganate, the e main org ganic
Thus orderr of reactivityy of given alkkyl halides
compound obtained is:
towards Williamson’s
W s
synthesis cann be given ass
(1) Oxalic acid (2) Glyoxal
CH2 = CHC CH2Cl(Allyl) > CH3CH2CH H2Br
(3) Form
mic acid (4) Ac
cetaldehyde
(1̊ bromide
e) > CH3CH2CH C 2Cl (1̊ chlo oride) >
(CH3)3CCH H2Br(Sterically hindered)
Solution Choice: (3
3)
14
CH2 OH (CH3 )2 CH CH COOH
KMnO4 /H
| 2 HCOOH |
Formic acid
CH2 OH NH2
(CH3 )2 CH CH COO
51. Thermal decomposition of |
CH3 NH 3
| zwitter ion
CH3 CH2 N C(CH3 )2 OH
54. During the process of digestion, the proteins
| | present in food materials are hydrolysed to amino
CH3 CH3
acids. The two enzymes involved in the process
are:
Gives: enzyme (A)
proteins polypeptides respectively
(1) CH3CH = CH2 enzyme (B)
amin o acids
(2) CH2 = CH2
(1) Invertase and zymase
(3) CH3 – CH3 (2) Amylase and maltase
(4) CH3CH2CH3 (3) Diastase and lipase
(4) Pepsin and trypsin
Solution Choice: (2)
Solution Choice: (4)
pep sin
52. Which of the following statements is not correct? Pr oteins
proteases
Polypeptides
(1) Replacement of halogen by NH2 in alkyl tryp sin
A min o acids
halide is a nucleophilic substitution reaction chemotryp sin
15
a result, two C6H5 groups occur at alternate 59. Match List I with List II and select the correct
carbon atoms on the polymer chain. answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
R CH CH2 (i) Iodoform (a) Anaesthetic
| (ii) Methyl salicylate (b) Antiseptic
C6H5 (iii) Diethyl ether (c) Insecticide
(iv) Hexachloro (d) Detergent
R CH2 CH
C H CH CH
cyclohexane
|
6 5 2
(e) Pain balm
(I) C6H5
(1) (i) – (b) (ii) - (e) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (d)
R CH2 CH CH2 CH
(2) (i) – (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)
| |
(3) (i) – (b) (ii) - (e) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)
C6H5 C6H5
(II) (4) (i) – (c) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (b)
[ CH2 CH CH2 CH ]n
| | Solution Choice: (3)
C6H5 C6H5
Polystyrene Iodoform – Antiseptic
Methyl salicylate – Pain balm
56. Plexiglass (PMMA) is a polymer of: Diethyl ether – Anaesthetic
(1) Acrylic acid (2) Methyl acrylate Hexachlorocyclohexane – Insecticide
(3) Methyl methacrylate (4) None of these
60. Which of the following is considered to be an
Solution Choice: (3) anti-cancer species?
Methyl methacrylate (1)
16
8 10 10
0.98 4.
64 An electtron is moviing in Bohr’s
s fourth orbiit. Its
Radius ratiio, 0.5
541
1 10 10
1.81 de-Broglie wavelen ngth is . What is the
It lies in the
e range of 0.141 to 0.732
2 hence, circumfe erence of the
e fourth orbit?
?
coordinatio on number off each ion wiill be 6 as the
e (1) 2/ (2) 2
compound will have Na aCl type structure i.e., (3) 4 (4) 3/
octahedral arrangemen nt.
Solution Choice: (33)
62. Which of the following biphenyls is optica
ally Number of waves in Bohr’s fourth
h orbit = 4
active? circummference = n
number of waaves
(1) wavelength
w = 4
65
5. Due to in
nert pair effe
ect:
(1) Heavvier p-block eelements sho ow lower
oxidaation state ass stable oxida
ation state
(2) (2) Heavvier p-block eelements sho ow higher
oxidaation state ass stable oxida
ation state
ng shielding effect by inner penultima
(3) Stron ate
electrrons is obserrved
(4) The oxidation
o sta
ate is equal to
o the valencee
(3) shelll electrons
Solution Choice: (1 1)
Due to in
nert pair effe
ect, heavier p-block
p eleme ents
show loww (two units less) oxidatioon state as th
he
(4) most sta
able one.
66
6. A bo
onded moleccule MX3 is
s T-shaped. The
number of non-bonding pairs of electrons
e is:
(1) 0
(2) 2
Solution Choice: (4)
(3) 3
o-substituted biphenylss are opticallyy active as
(4) Can be predicted
d only if atom
mic number off M
both the rin n one plane and their
ngs are not in
is kn
nown.
mirror imagges are non--superimposa able.
Solution Choice: (2 2)
63. A sample of calcium carbonate
c (CaCO3) has the t
MX3 hass three bondss pairs. It can n have T-sha
ape
following percentage
p co
omposition
only if it has two lone
e pairs of ele
ectrons.
Ca = 40%; C = 12%; O = 48%
If the law of
o constant proportions
p iss true, then the
t
67
7. The temperature at which nitrogen under u
weight of calcium
c in 4 g of a sammple of calciu um
1 atmospheric presssure has the same root mean
m
carbonate from anothe er source will be:
square velocity as that of CO2 under iden ntical
(1) 0.016 g (2) 0.16 g
conditionn effuses in
n 115 seco onds. The molar
m
(3) 1.6 g (4) 16 g
mass of A is:
(1) – 99.2
27° C (2) – 99.27°
9 K
Solution Choice: (3)
(3) -9.92
27° C (4) 1556° C
Ca = 40%, hence, wt of Ca in 4 g CaCO
C 3
17
3 R 273
3 3 RT 273 T 0
1.785 V1 = 1 400
or
MCO2 MN2 44 28 4000
V1 224.08 ml
m
1.78
3 K = 99.27
T = 173.73 7° C
2.
72 The cha arge/size ratio of a catioon determinees its
68. The entro opy change for a non n-spontaneo
ous
polarizin
ng power. W Which one of the follo owing
reaction is 140 J K-1 mol
m -1 at 298 K.
K The reaction
sequencce represents the increasing order of o the
is: +
polarizin
ng power of tthe cationic species,
s C 2+,
K , Ca
(1) Reversible (2) Irreversible
Mg2+, Bee2+ ?
(3) Exothermic (4) Endo othermic
(1) Mg , Be2+, K+, Ca2+
2+
+
18
75. An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mol) having 1
Number of moles of urea =
bcc structure has unit cell edge 400 pm. Then the 60
density of the element is: 3 1
Number of moles of glucose =
(1) 10.376 g/cm3 (2) 5.188 g/cm3 180 60
(3) 7.289 g/cms (4) 2.144 g/cm3 Since the molar concentration of the two
solutions is same (amount of solvent given is
Solution Choice: (2) same), the two solutions will boil at the same
ZM temperature.
Density =
a3 NA 1030
2 100 78. A silver cup is plated with silver by passing 965
5.188 g / cc coulombs of electricity, the amount of silver
(400) 6.02 1023 1030
3
deposited is:
76. Phenol associates in benzene to a certain extent (1) 9.89 g
(2) 107.87 g
to form dimer. A solution containing 2.0 ˣ 10-2 kg
(3) 1.0787 g
of phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene has its freezing
(4) 1.002 g
point decreased by 0.69 K. The degree of
association of phenol is:
Solution Choice: (3)
(Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol-1)
(1) 73.4 (2) 50.1 EAg Q 107.87 965
w Ag 1.0787 g
(3) 42.3 (4) 25.1 96500 96500
19
80. The volum
me of colloida
al particle, Vc as comparred 83
3. Which one
o of the following seque ences repressents
article Vs in a true solution
to volume of solute pa the corre
ect increasin
ng order of bo
ond angles in
n the
could be: given moolecules?
Vc (1) H2O < OF2 < OCll2 < CIO2
(1) 0 3
10
Vs (2) OCl2 < CIO2 < H2O < OF2
(3) OF2 < H2O < OCll2 < CIO2
Vc
(2) 10
03 (4) CIO2 < OF2 < OC Cl2 < H2O
Vs
Vc Solution Choice: (3)
(3) 1
Vs H2O is sp 3
s hybridised d with bond angle
a 104.5 due
V to presence of two lo
one pairs. OF
F2 has structu
ure
(4) c 10
023
Vs similar to
o H2O with b
bond angle 10 03 due to hiigher
electronegativity of fluorine. OCl2 also has sim
milar
Solution Choice: (2) e with bond angle 111 because
structure b of stteric
For true so
olution, the diameter
d rang
ge is 1 to 10 crowdingg of two chlo
orine atoms. However CIOO2
has -bo
ond characte
er with an odd
d electron so
o that
A and for colloidal solution, diameter range is 10
bond angle is 118. T
Thus four compounds ca
an be
to 1000 A arranged
d in order of their bond angle as
4 3
r
Vc 3 c rc 10
3 3
103
Vs 4 3 rs 1
3 rs
20
Zn, Cd and d Hg have smmaller ionic ra
adii than
group-2 eleements beca ause the formmer involves
10 d- electtrons which have
h poor shhielding effecct
so that electrons are more
m strongly attracted
towards nu ucleus.
Benzene e is non pola
ar in nature. As
A we know that
t
86. o iron in [Fe((CN)6]3- is:
The EAN of non-polaar disperses more to non-polar
(1) 34 (2) 36 substancces. Therefoore, meta-me ethyl
(3) 37 (4) 35 nonylbenzene being nonpolar fro om both sides will
dispersee more to bennzene. All other substancces
Solution Choice: (4) (a, b and
d d) have eith
her one side polar or both
h
Oxidation state
s n [Fe(CN)6]3- = +3
of Fe in sides poolar.
n = electronss on Fe3+ + electrons
EAN of iron e from
m
six CN = 23 + 12 = 35 Sn4
9.
89 Standard
d electrode p
potential for couple
e is
Sn2
87. Which off the follow wing is a free radiccal
Cr 3
substitution
n reaction? +0.15 V and that for the ouple is 0.74
co 4 V.
Cr
These twwo couples in
n their standard state are e
(1)
connecte ed to make a cell. The ce
ell potential will
w
be:
(1) + 1.19 V
(2)
(2) + 0.8
89 V
(3) + 0.18 V
(4) + 1.8
83 V
(3)
Solution Choice: (2)
HO + HCN CH3CH(OH)CN
(4) CH3CH
Ecell Ecathode
c Eanodee
Solution Choice: (1) 0.15 (0.74) 0
0.89 V
Side chain coordinationn takes place
e by free
radical sub
bstitution mecchanism. 90
0. Cs+ ion imparts viole et colour to the
t flame. Th his is
due to th
he fact that th
he emitted raadiations havve:
88. he following molecules iss most suitab
Which of th ble (1) High energy
to disperse
e benzene in water? (2) Low energy
(3) Long
ger waveleng gth
(1) (4) Nonee of these
21
92. Statement-1: Taxon and category are 96. Thermococus, Methanococcus and Methano
different things. bacterium exemplify:
Statement-2: Category shows hierarchical (1) Archaebacteria that contain protein
classification. homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; (2) Archaebacteria that lack any histones
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for resembling those found in eukaryotes but
Statement-1 whose DNA is negatively supercoiled
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False; (3) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton as
Statement-1 well as mitochondria
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False (4) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True ribosomes
22
99. Bryophytes are dependent on water because: 103. Classification of Porifera is based on:
(1) Water is essential for fertilization for their (1) Branching (2) Spicules
homosporous nature (3) Reproduction (4) Symmetry
(2) Water is essential for their vegetative
propagation Solution Choice (2)
(3) The sperms can easily reach upto egg in the The terms porifera was given by Grant, the
archegonium phylum includes animals with pores in their body,
(4) Archegonium has to remain filled with water Its classification based on skeleton or spicules.
for fertilization
104. Which of the following substances, if introduced
Solution Choice (3) into the blood stream, would cause coagulation
Bryophytes require a thin film of water on the of blood at the site of its introduction?
surface of their substratum during sexual (1) Prothrombin
reproduction for the following reasons:
(2) Fibrinogen
(i) Dehiscence of antheridia requires absorption
(3) Thromboplastin
of water from outside
(ii) Dehiscence of archegonium (4) Heparin
(iii) Swimming of sperms to reach the archegonia
Solution Choice (3)
100. Which of the following groups of plants play an Fibrinogen, prothromb in, throm-bolplastin are
important role in plant succession on bare respectively clotting factors I, II and III.
rocks/soil?
Thromboplastin released from injured platelets
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
or injured tissue. This converts prothrombin into
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
thrombin in the presence of calcium ions. The
thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin and the
Solution Choice (3)
latter forms the clot.
23
107. What is true about ribosomes? 111. Which functional group participates in disulphide
(1) The prokaryotic ribosomes are 80S, where bond formation in proteins?
24
Solution Choice (1) 119. Match Column I with Column II
Root sows the following regions Column I Column II
Root cap or calyptras caplike protective (i) Carbon monoxide (a) Qualitative pollutant
covering over the tip. (ii) DDT (b) Feron
Meristematic region is the subapical position. (iii) Chlorofluoro methane (c) Lung cancer
Zone of elongation receives news cells from (iv) Smoking (d) Quantitative
the growing point. pollutant
Root hair zone is the zone of differentiation. (v) Acid rain (e) Nitrogen and
Zone of mature cells having thick walled Sulphur oxides
impermeable cells. (1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (e); (v) - (c)
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (c); (v) - (e)
116. Embryo of a seed is made up of: (3) (i) – (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a); (v) - (e)
(4) (i) – (e); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (b); (v) - (d)
(1) Meristematic tissue (2) Parenchyma
(3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma Solution Choice (2)
118. Which meristem helps in increasing grith? 122. “Reclamation” and “Little leaf” disease, caused
by deficiency of:
(1) Lateral meristem
(1) Zn and Mo (2) Cu and Zn
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Cu and B (4) Mn and Cu
(3) Primary meristem
(4) Apical meristem Solution Choice (2)
“Reclamation” and “Little leaf” disease, caused
Solution Choice (1) by deficiency of Cu and Zn.
25
123
3. Find the wrongly
w matched pair: 126. The diag
gram summaarizes the pa
athway of
glucose
e breakdown.. When two steps
s result in
n net
bium Alfalffa
(1) Rhizob
increase
e of ATP?
a Alnus
(2) Frankia
(3) Rhodospirillum aerobic
a
(4) Bacillus free-livin
ng
124
4. This questtion contain Statement
S – I (Assertion)
(1) A an
nd B (2) A and D
and Statem ason). It has 4 choices I, II,
ment – II (Rea
(3) B an
nd D (4) B and E
o of which only one is correct.
III and IV out c
Statementt I: Cyclic photophosphorylation
n Choice (2)
Solution
syntthesizes ATP
P
ATP fo ormation occurs both at 2, where w
Statementt II: ATPP synthesize in cyclic
glyceraldehydes-3-p phosphate is
i convertedd to
hoto
ophosphorylaation is not
pryuvate
e; and at 5, where the six-ca arbon
ociated with NADPH
asso
compou und, citrate, releases wa
ater and CO
O2 in
form
mation the Kreb
b’s cycle.
(1) Statem
ment I is true, Statement – II is true,
Statem
ment – II is a correct
c expla
anation for 127. The cheemiosmotic ccoupling hypoothesis of
Statem
ment - I oxidative phosphoryylation proposes that
(2) Statemment I is true, Statement – II is true, adenosiine triphosph s formed because:
hate (ATP) is
Statemment – II is NO
OT a correct explanation
e (1) High
h energy bonds are forme
ed in
for Stattement - I mito
ochondrial prroteins
(3) Statem
ment I is true, Statement – II is false (2) ADPP is pumped o
out of the ma
atrix into the
(4) Both th
he Statementts are false interrmembrane sspace
(3) A pro nt forms across the inner
oton gradien
Solution Choice (4) memmbrane
In case of cyclic photophosph
p horylation, the (4) Therre is a chang meability of the
ge in the perm
electron, while
w passinng between ferredoxin
f and er mitochondrial membrane toward
inne
plastoquin
none and/or over the e cytochrom me adenosine dipho osphate (ADP P)
complex the
t electron loses sufficcient energy to
form ATP from ADP an nd inorganic phosphate. Solutionn Choice (3)
Chemio osmotic theo ory postulateed by the British
125
5. The experrimental mateerial that hass largely been biochemmist Peter M Mitchell (19220-22) to exxplain
responsiblle for making
g rapid advan nces in the forrmation of ATP in th he mitochon ndrial
research on
o photosyntthesis is: electron
n transport chain. As s electrons are
(1) Chlamyydomonas transferrred along thhe electron carrier
c syste
em in
(2) Spinacch leaf the inner mitochon ndrial memb brane, hydroogen
(3) Chlorella ions (prrotons) are actively trannsported into
o the
(4) Hydrilla
a space between
b the iinner and ou
uter mitochon
ndrial
membra anes, which h thus con ntains a higher
Solution Choice (3) concenttration of prrotons than the matrix. This
creates an electrocchemical gra adient acrosss the
inner membrane,
m th
hrough whic ch protons move
m
back intto the matrix..
26
128. Statement 1: Alpha diversity is said to be Solution Choice (1)
higher if the dissimilarity
between communities is higher
131. Growth is primarily affected by two climatic
Statement 2: Alpha diversity is a measure of factors which are:
diversity between the
(1) Light and temperature
communities
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, (2) Temperature and relative humidity
and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for (3) Light and wind
Statement-1 (4) Rainfall and temperature
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
Statement-2 is a NOT correct explanation for Solution Choice (1)
Statement-1
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement-2 is False 132. Statement 1: Net primary productivity is
(4) Both the Statements are False gross primary productivity
minus respiration
Solution Choice (4) Statement 2: Secondary productivity is
produced by heterotrophs
129. Match Column – I with Column – II and select the
(1) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct answer using the codes given below the correct and Statement 2 is the correct
Columns: explanation of Statement 1
Column I Column II (2) If both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(i) Auxin (a) Fruit ripening correct and Statement 2 is the NOT correct
explanation of Statement 1
(ii) Citokinins (b) Phototopism
(3) If Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
(iii) Abscisic acid (c) Antagonist to Gas
incorrect
(iv) Ethylene (d) Stomatal opening and
(4) If Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is
closing
correct
(e) Growth of lateral buds
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) - (e); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a) Solution Choice (2)
(2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(3) (i) – (a); (ii) - (e); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b) Net primary productivity is the rate of organic
(4) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a) matter built up or stored by producers in their
bodies per unit time and area. Net productivity is
Solution Choice (2) equal to gross primary productivity minus loss
due to respiration and other reasons. Rate of
130. Statement 1: A sanctuary is formed for the increase in energy containing organic matter or
conservation of animals only biomass by hetetrophs or consumers per unit
Statement 2: Restricted human activities time and area is known as secondary
are allowed in sanctuaries productivity.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True,
and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for 133. Most important determinant of marine ecosystem
Statement-1 is:
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, (1) Rainfall
and Statement-2 is a NOT correct (2) Geographical location
explanation for Statement-1 (3) Depth of distance from the shore
(3) Statement 1 is True, Statement-2 is False (4) All the above
27
134
4. Cholecysto
okinin is a se
ecretion of: 137. If you in
ncreased the left atrial pre
essure from
(1) Stomacch which stim
mulates panccreas to 5 mmHg g to 15 mmH
Hg, what effec ct would thatt
release the pancre
eatic juice have on n pulmonary circulation?
Solution
n Choice (4)
Solution Choice (3)
28
140. Punkinje’s fibres of the verteberate heart are 144. Water reabsorption in kidney is controlled by:
modified:
(1) Aldosterone
(1) Parasympathetic nerves
(2) ADH
(2) Sympathetic nerves
(3) Motor nerves (3) GH
(4) Muscle cells (4) Oxytocin
29
146. Consider the following statements (I – IV) 148. Actin protein occurs in two forms:
regarding kidney transplant and select the two (1) Polymeric F-actin and monomeric G-actin
correct ones out of these: (2) Monomeric F-actin and polymeric G-actin
(I) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the (3) The tail and a head
recipient may need to take immune (4) F-actin and G-actin, but both globular
suppressants for a long time
Solution Choice (1)
(II) The cell mediated immune response is
responsible for a long time
149. Which of the following statements about the
(III) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for striated muscles is false?
rejection of the graft
(I) In the centre of each I-band is an elastic fibre
(IV) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney (Z-line) which bisects it
transplant depends on specific interferons
(II) Thin filaments are firmly attached to the
The two correct statements are: Z-line
(1) (II) and (III) (III) M-line is a fibrous membrane in the middle
(2) (III) and (IV) of A-bands
(3) (I) and (III) (IV) A sarcomere comprises one full A-bands
(4) (I) and (II) and 2 half I-bands
(1) All (2) (IV)
Solution Choice (4) (3) (I) and (II) (4) None of these
Tissue and blood group matching are essential
before undertaking kidney transplant. Even if Solution Choice (4)
kidney transplant is proper, the recipient may
need to take immune suppressant all his/her life. 150. This question contain Statement – I (Assertion)
The ability of body to differentiate self and and Statement – II (Reason). It has 4 choices I, II,
nonself and the cell-mediated immune response III and IV out of which only one is correct.
is responsible for graft rejection.
Statement I: Ball and socket joints are the
most mobile joints
147. Which one of the following correctly explains the Statement II: Synovial fluid is present here
function of a specific part of a human nephron? (1) Statement I is true, Statement – II is true,
(1) Podocytes : create minute spaces (slit pores) Statement – II is a correct explanation for
for the filtration of blood into the Bowman’s Statement - I
capsule (2) Statement I is true, Statement – II is true,
(2) Henle’s loop : most of the reabsorption of the Statement – II is NOT a correct explanation
major substances from the glomerular filtrate for Statement - I
(3) Distal convoluted tubule : reabsorption of K+ (3) Statement I is true, Statement – II is false
ions into the surrounding blood capillaries (4) Both the Statements are false
(4) Afferent arteriole : carries the blood away
from the glomerular towards renal vein Solution Choice (2)
Synovial fluid is a thick sticky fluid of egg white
Solution Choice (4) consistency, secreted by synovial membranes
Glome podcytes are highly specialized cells with into the synovial cavity. Though the presence of
a complex cytoarchitecture plays a major role in synovial fluid is one of the reasons behind the
establishing the selective permeability of mobility of the joints, but the most accurate
glomerular filtration barrier. reason is the arrangement of the bones at the
joint, the spheroidal ball-like end of one bone
30
articulatess here with th he cup-shap
ped depression 155. Occurre
ence of Leydig’s cells and
d their secrettion
in anotherr. This allow ws the bone e with the ball
b are:
head to be moved freely in many plane es. (1) Ovarry and estrog
gen
Shoulder joints and hip joints are the t
(2) Liver and cholesterol
ball-and-so ocket joints.
(3) Panccreas and glu
ucagon
(4) Testtes and testo
osterone
151. Clusters of
o neuron celll bodies emb bedded in the
e
white mattter of the bra
ain are referre
ed to as:
(1) Nuclei (2) Gyri Solution
n Choice (4)
(3) Sulci (4) Gang glia Leydig’ss cells are prresent in testtes and they
secrete male hormo one testostero one.
Solution: Choice (1) Small groups of polyygonal, large e cells presen
nt in
Nuclei are
e areas of gre
ey matter within the white
e the connnective tissue in between n the
matter, wh
here nerve immpulses are processed.
p seminifeerous tubuless are known as Leydig’s cells
are interstitial cells. They secrete
e male sex
152
2. Which one e of the follow
wing pairs off structures hormone testosteron ne.
distinguish
hes a nerve cell
c from othe er types of
cells?
156. Rhizome which grow
ws vertically upward is:
(1) Vacuolles and fibress
(1) Corm
m (2) Stolon
(2) Flagellum and med dullary sheath
h
(3) Bulb
bil (4) Ro
ootstock
(3) Nucleu
us and mitoch hondria
(4) Perikarryon and denndrites
Solution
n Choice (4)
Solution Choice (4)
The cytoplasm immediately surrounding the 157. Examine e the figuress given below
w and select thet
nucleus is loaded with protein synthetic ch all the 4 items
right opttions out of (A-D); in whic
machineryy and is calle ed perikaryon
n, dendrites A, B, C and D are identified corre ectly:
are usuallyy shorter, tap
pering and much
m brancheed
processess which may be one to se everal. Thesee
two types are only pressent in nervee cells.
153
3. Androgenss are secrete
ed by:
(1) Pituitarry (2) Teste
es
(3) Ovaries (4) Thyroid
154
4. Role of thyymus in Hom
mo sapiens iss chiefly A B C D
concerned d with: (1) Tube
er Rhizo
ome Bulb
b Leaf buds
b
(1) Reprod
duction (2) Immunology (2) Offse
et Sucke
er Stolon Leaf buds
b
(3) Calcium
m balance (4) Blood coagulation (3) Offse
et Stolon
n Suc
cker Leaf buds
b
(4) Tube
er Rhizo
ome Bulb
bil Leaf buds
b
Solution: Choice (2)
Solution
n Choice (4)
31
158. Filliform apparatus is found in: 162. Which of the following option shows correctly
(1) Synergids matched pairs for Column I and Column II
Solution Choice (4) 163. Which of the following is not true about the birth
control pill?
(1) The pill works by preventing ovulation
160. Fertilization occurs in:
(2) The pill works by preventing implantation
(1) Uterus (2) Ureter
(3) The ovarian cycle is suspended by the birth
(3) Vagina (4) Fallopian tube
control pill
(4) The birth control pill contains low doses of
Solution Choice (4) estrogen and progesterone
32
For test-tu
ube babies, fertilization of
o egg is done 167. Sickle cell
c anaemia is:
in vitro and
a gote at gastrula stage is
the zyg (1) Caussed by substtitution of valline by glutam
mic
implanted in the wombb of the mother. acid
d in the beta g
globin chain of haemoglo obin
(2) Caussed by a cha
ange in a sing
gle base pairr of
165
5. What is the figure give
en below show
wing in DNAA
particular?
? (3) Charracterized byy elongated sickle
s like RB
BCs
with
h a nucleus
(4) An autosomal
a lin
nked dominan
nt trait
33
170. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends 173. In human beings retrovirus is considered as a
on the modulation in transcription by: cause of cancer because:
(1) Ribosome (1) In their genome oncogene is present
(2) Transcription factor (2) Their hereditary material made up of single
(3) Anticodon stranded RNA
(4) RNA polymerase (3) They have a gene for reverse transcriptase
(4) In their genome there may be cellular
Solution Choice (4) proto-oncogene
The process of formation of protein sequence
from DNA strand is called transcription which
Solution Choice (4)
requires RNA Polymerase chain. RNA
polymerase chains are of 3-types in eukaryotes
174. Match the following bacteria with the diseases
(i) RNA polymerase-I
and choose the correct option:
(ii) RNA polymerase II
(iii) RNA polymerase-III
Column I Column II
(i) Treponema pallidum (a) Plague
171. The animals of cold countries have relatively
(ii) Yersinia pestis (b) Anthrax
shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs
and other phenotypic characters. This is known (iii) Bacillus anthracis (c) Syphilis
by which law? (iv) Vibrio (d) Cholera
34
176. Which one of the following is correct match? 179. A genetic clone is:
(1) Reserpine –– Tranquilizer (1) A plant produced by asexual means
(2) Cocaine –– Opiate narcotic (2) Hybrid produced by sexual means
(3) Morphine –– Hallucinogenic (3) Homozygous plant produced by sexual
(4) Bhang –– Analgesic means
(4) Heterozygous plant produced by sexual
Solution Choice (1) means
Morphine is an opiate narcotic, Bhang is a
hallucinogen, Reserpine derived form Solution Choice (1)
Rauwolffia, is used as tranquilizer, cocaine is a
stimulant 180. One of the following bacterial groups are
exploited in biogas production:
177. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the (1) Methogens
formation of:
(2) Methanotrophs
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol
(3) Organotrophs
(3) Acetic acid (4) Antibiotics
(4) Eubacteria
Solution Choice (1)
Solution Choice (1)
178. A free living nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium Conversion of organic acid into CH4 gas by
which can also form symbiotic association with activity of methanogenic bacteria (anaerobes).
the water fern Azolla is:
(1) Anabaena (2) Tolypothrix
(3) Chlorella (4) Nostoc
35
VERY SIMILAR PRACTICE PAPER FOR NEET - 02
SOLUTIONS
36
4. A spring gun of spring constant 90 N/cm is 6. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5 M and
compressed 12 cm by a ball of mass 16 g. If the radii R and 2 R respectively are released in free
trigger is pulled, the velocity of the ball is: space with initial separation between their
(1) 50 m s1 centres equal to 12 R. If they attract each other
(2) 40 m s1 due to gravitational force only, then the distance
(3) 60 m s1 covered by the smaller body just before collision
(4) 90 m s1 is:
(1) 2.5 R (2) 4.5 R
Solution Choice (4) (3) 7.5 R (4) 1.5 R
1 2
The potential energy of the spring = kx Solution Choice (3)
2
Let at O there will be a collision. If smaller sphere
1 1 16 2
90 100 (N / m) (0.12)2 moves x distance to reach at O, then bigger
2 2 1000
sphere will move a distance of (9 R x)
The velocity of the ball 90 ms1
37
Acceleration due to gravity at a height h above Spring constant of wire,
the earth's surface is F YA
k
g l l
gh 2
h k eq k1 k 2
1 R
Y 2 A Y1 A Y2 A Y Y2
where g is the acceleration due to gravity on the or or Y 1
l l l 2
earth's surface
R g 4g
At h , gh 2
9. The velocity of the surface layer of water in a
2 R 9
river of depth 10 m is 5 m s-1. The shearing
1
2R stress between the surface layer and the bottom
g g layer is:
At h R, gh
R
2
4 (Coefficient of viscosity of water, = 10-3 SI units)
1 R
(1) 0.6 10-3 N m-2 (2) 0.8 10-3 N m-
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d below (3) 0.5 10-3 N m-2 (4) 10-3 N m-2
the earth's surface is
d Solution Choice (3)
gd g 1
R Hence, = 10-3 N m-2 s
-1
R R g = 5 m s ; l = 10 m,
At d , gd g 1
2 2R 2
Strain rate =
l
R
At the centre of the earth, d = R, gd = g 1 0 Shearing stress
R Coefficient of viscosity, =
Strain rate
Thus, the acceleration due to gravity is maximum
on the earth's surface. Shearing stress = Strain rate
=
10 3
N m2 s 5 m s 1 0.5 10 3
N m2
8. Two wires of equal length and cross-section area
suspended as shown in figure. Their Young's
10 m
modulus are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The
equivalent Young's modulus will be: 10. A black body radiates heat energy at the rate of
2 105 J/s m2 at the temperature of 120C.
Temperature of the black body at which rate of
heat radiation 32 105 J/s m2, is:
(1) 400 K (2) 600 K
(3) 800 K (4) 200 K
Y1 Y2
(1) Y1 + Y2 (2)
2 Solution Choice (3)
Y Y E1 = 2 105 J/s m2,
(3) 1 2 (4) Y1 Y2
Y1 Y2 Temperature T1 = 127 C = 400 K and
E2 = 32 105 J/s m2
Solution Choice (2) By Stefan's law, the rate of emission of radiated
energy per unit area is
E = T4
14 14
E T4 T E 32 105
2 24 or 2 2 5
2
E1 T1 T1 E1 2 10
Young's modulus T2 = 2 T1 = 2 400 = 800 K
F l
Y
A l
38
11. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%,
l l 4l
receives heat at 500 K. If the efficiency is to be T' 2 2 2
g' 5 g 5 g
50%, the source temperature for the same 4
exhaust temperature is:
(1) 900 K (2) 600 K 2T
T' [Using (i)]
(3) 700 K (4) 800 K 5
2T 5T
(1) (2) Electric intensity at centre O, due to small
5 2
element dl of charged ring
5 2 dl (a d)
(3) (4) dE
2T 5T 4 0 a2 4 0 a2
As is clear from figure, horizontal components of
Solution Choice (1) dE will cancel out in pairs and vertical
components will add.
In a stationary lift, time period of simple
pendulum is given by E dE sin 2
0 0 4 0 a
l
T2
cos 0
g
………………………(i) 4 0 a
where l is the length of a simple pendulum
E cos cos 0
When a lift accelerates upwards with an 4 0 a 2 0 a
acceleration g/4, it effective acceleration on bob
of pendulum
g 5g
g’ = g + =
4 4
39
14. Let there be spherrically symm
metric charrge 5.
15 What iss the electrric flux link
ked with closed
distribution
n with charge
c nsity varying
den surface?
?
5 r
as = (r) 0 upto r = R, R and (r) 0
3 R
for r > R, where
w r is the distance from the origin.
The electrric field at a distance r (r < R) fro om (1) 1011 Nm2 C-1 012 Nm2 C-1
(2) 10
origin is givven by:
(3) 1010 Nm2 C-1 (4) 8.886 1013 Nm2 C-1
r 5 r 4 0 r 5 r
(1) 0
3 0 4 R (2)
3 0 3 R
Solution
n Choice (2)
r 5 r 4 0 r 5 r ng to Gauss’s law
Accordin
(3) 0 (4)
4 0 3 R 3 0 4 R q
Electric flux,
f
0
Solution Choice (3) Where q = total charrge enclosed by closed
Consider a thin sphericcal shell of ra
adius x and surface
thickness dx
d as shown in the figure e.
25 7 1 0.4
1.2 0
0
8.85 C
= 1012 N m2 C1
8.85 1012 C2 N1 m2
16
6. Four me etallic plates,, each with a surface are
ea A,
2
V = 4 x dx
Volume of the shell, dV are placced at a dista ance d from each other. The
Let us draww a Gaussiann surface of radius r(r < R)
R alternating plates arre connected d to points A and
as shows in the figure above.
a B as shoown in the figgure. Then thhe capacitance of
Total chargge enclosed inside the Gaussian the systeem is:
surface is
r r
5 x
V 0 4 x 2 dxx
Qin dV
0 0 4 R
0 A 2 0 A
5
r x3 (1) (2)
= 4 0 x 2 dx
d d d
0 4 R
3 0 A 4 0 A
r (3) (4)
5 x4 5 3 r4 d d
= 4 0 x 3 4 0 r
12
1 4 R 0 2
12 4 R
0 5 3 r4
E 4 r2 r
0 The equ
uivalent arran
ngement is shhown in figurre.
3 R
The capacity of each s ( 0 A/d). He
h capacitor is ence,
0 r 3 5 r
E the net capacitance
c between A and
a B is given
n by
4 r 2 0 3 R
3 0 A
0 r 5 r C AB C C C 3 C
E 3 R d
4 0
40
17. Two identical capacitors have the same In steady state, both the capacitors are at the
capacitance C. One of them is charged to a same potential. Therefore,
potential V1 and the other to V2. The negative Q1 Q 2 Q Q
ends of the capacitors are connected together. or 1 2
C1 C2 C 2C
When the positive ends are also connected, the
decrease in energy of the combined system is: Q2 = 2 Q1 ………..(i)
Also Q1 + Q2 = Q ………..(ii)
1 1
(1)
4
C V12 V22 (2)
4
C V12 V22 Solving (i) and (ii), we get
1 1 Q 2
C V1 V2 C V1 V2 Q1 and Q 2 Q
2 2
(3) (4)
4 4 3 3
Solution Choice (3) 19. Two point charges +5 C and -2 C are kept
The initial energy of the system, at a distance of 1 m in free space. The distance
between the two zero potential points on the line
1 1 1
Ui
2 2 2
C V12 C V22 C V12 V22 joining the charges is:
q1 q2 C V1 C V2 V1 V2 22 20
V (3) m (4) m
C1 C2 CC 2 21 21
5 5 x1 = 2 x1
7 x1 = 5
Q 2Q
(1) Q, 2 Q (2) , 5
3 3 x1
7
3Q 2Q 4Q
(3) ,3Q (4) , Potential at Q is
2 3 3
Solution Choice (2)
41
5 10 6 2 10 6
VQ
4 0 (1 x 2 ) 4 0 x 2
As VQ = 0
5 2
1 x2 x2
5 x2 = 2 + 2 x2
3 x2 = 2
2
x2 =
3
Require
ed distance between
b
P an
nd Q = (1 – x1) + x2
5 2 21 15 14 20
= 1 m
7 3 21 21
(c)
20. Two wiress of same metal have the same leng gth
The resistances of 7 , 1 and 10 are in
but their cross
c sections are in th he ratio 3 : 1.
series, th
heir equivale
ent resistance
e is
They are joined
j in serries. The ressistance of the
thicker wirre is 10 . The total ressistance of the
t RS = 7 + 1 + 10 = 18
combinatio on is: The equ
uivalent circuit is shown in
n figure (b).
(1) (5/2) 3)
(2) (40/3 Now as RS (= 18 ) and 6 arre in parallel and
(3) 40 (4) 100 6 18
1
is equiva
alent to 4.5
6 18
1
22
2. What is the resistance between the points X and
21. The emf of
o the batterry in the circuit show
wn
Y of thee circuit in tthe figure? Assume
A that the
figure is 15 nternal resisttance 0.5 ohm.
5 volt and in
resistancce of each re
esistor is 25 ohm:
o
What is the awn from the battery?
e current dra
42
4.
24 If the ressistance of th
he upper halff of a rigid lo
oop is
twice th hat of the lo ower half, th
he magnitud de of
magnetic induction at the cen ntre is equa al to:
I2 2 I1
Solution Choice (2)
and I = I1 + I2 = I1 + 2 I1 = 3 I1
I 2
I and I I
1 3 2 3
Magnetic field at the centre of co
oil is
o
B I
2a
Magnetic field
f entre of a circular are of
at the ce
1 o 2I oI
raidus R, carries
c current I and makking an angle e B2 .
2 2a 3 6a a
at the centre
c is given by
1 o I oI
I B1 .
B 0 2 2a 3 12a a
4 R
oI oI
B
en problem =
In the give a 12a
2
oI
0 I 12a
B 2 0 I
4 R 8R
43
25. The wire loop PQRS formed by joining two semi constant) where, n is the number of turns per unit
circular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a current I length of solenoid.
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
B1 n1 I1 200 I
magnetic induction at the centre O is: 6
B2 n2 I2 100 I
3
B1 6.28 102
or B2 1.05 102 Wb m2
6 6
0 I 1 1 0 I 1 1
(1) (2) 27. In a series LCR circuit, the potential difference
4 R2 R1 4 R1 R2
between the terminals of the inductance is 60 V,
1 1 1 1 between the terminals of the capacitor is 30 V
(3) 0 I (4) 0 I
R2 R1 R1 R2 and that between the terminals of resistance is
40 V. The supply voltage will be equal to:
(1) 130 V (2) 10 V
Solution Choice (2)
(3) 50 V (4) 70 V
The magnetic induction at O due to current
through QP and SR will be zero. Thus, the
magnitude induction at O will be only due to Solution Choice (3)
current through semicircles of radii R1 and R2
VR2 VL VC
2
In series LCR circuit, V =
respectively.
Magnetic field at O due to semicircular arc PS of
40 60 30 1600 900
2 2
V
0 I
radius R1 will be B1 . Its direction is
4 R1 2500 50 V
perpendicular to coil directed outwards. Magnetic
field at O due to semicircular arc RQ of radius R2 28. A square wire loop PQRS of side 10 cm and
I resistance 1 is moved with a constant velocity
will be, B2 0
4 R2 -2
in a uniform magnetic field of B = 2 Wb m , as
Its direction is perpendicular to coil directed shown in the figure. The magnetic field lines are
inwards. The resultant magnetic field at O, perpendicular to the plane of the loop (directed
into the paper). The loop is connected to network
B = B1 B2 outwards
ABCD of resistors each of value 3 . The
0 1 1 0 1 1 resistance of the lead wires SB and RD are
or B I I
4 R1 R2 4 R1 R2 negligible. The speed of the loop so as to have a
steady current of 1 mA in the loop is:
44
As the network ABCD is a balanced Wheatstone Solution Choice (2)
bridge, no current will flow through AC, hence the Total average energy density of electromagnetic
effective resistance R of bridge is wave is
1 1 1 1 1 1
or R ' 3 <u> = 0 E2RMS B2RMS
R' 6 6 3 2 2 0
Total resistance of the circuit, R = 1 + 3 = 4
1 1 E2RMS E RMS
Induced emf in the loop B l = 0 E2RMS 2 B RMS
2 2 0 c c
Bl
Current in the circuit, I = 1 1 1
R R = 0 E2RMS E2RMS 0 0 c
2 2 0 0 0
IR
Bl 1 1
= 0 E2RMS 0 E2RMS 0 E2RMS
2 2
Substituting the given values, we get
= (8.85 ˟ 10-12) ˟ (720)2
1 103 A 4
2 102 m s 1 = 4.58 ˟ 10-6 J m-3
2 Wb m 10 10
2 2
m
31. If one face of a prism of prism angle 30° and
29. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 2 is silvered, the incident ray retraces its
10 is given by = 5 t2 – 4 t + 1 weber. How initial path. The angle of incidence is:
much current is induced in the loop after 0.2 s? (1) 60° (2) 30°
(1) 0.4 A (2) 0.2 A (3) 45° (4) 90°
(3) 0.04 A (4) 0.02 A
Solution Choice (3)
Solution Choice (2)
Magnetic flux, = 5 t2 4 t + 1 Wb
d
10 t 4 W b s 1
dt
The induced emf is
d
10 t 4
dt
At t = 0.2 s It is clear from the figure that the ray will retrace
= - (10 ˣ 0.2 4) = 2 V the path when the refracted ray QR is incident
normally on the polished surface AC. Thus angle
The induced current is
of refraction, r = 30° .
2V
I 0.2 A sin
R 10
sin r
sin i sin r
30. The RMS value of the electric field of the light
coming from the sun is 720 N C-1. The average 1 1
sin i 2 sin 30 2
total energy density of the electromagnetic wave 2 2
is:
i 45
(1) 3.3 ˟ 10-3 J m-3 (2) 4.58 ˟ 10-6 J m-3
(3) 6.37 ˟ 10-9 J m-3 (4) 81.35 ˟ 10-12 J m-3
45
32. The speed at which the image of the luminous Here I = 90° r; so sin i = sin(90° r) = cos r
point object is moving, if the luminous point
2 sin i sin i sin i
object is moving at speed 0 towards a Also,
1 sin r 1 cos r2
1 sin2 i
spherical mirror, along its axis, is:
(Given : R = radius of curvature, u = object or 12 sin2 i 22 sin2 i
distance) 2
R
or sin2 i 12 22 22 or sin i
22
2
(1) i 0 (2) i 0
1
2u R
2
2u R R 34. A concave lens forms the image of an object
(3) i 0 (4) i 0
R 2u R such that the distance between the object and
image is 10 cm and the magnification produced
1
Solution Choice (4) is . The focal length of the lens will be:
4
1 1 1 (1) – 6.2 cm
u f
(2) – 4.4 cm
1 d 1 du (3) – 8.6 cm
Differentiating both sides, 2
dt u2 dt
(4) – 10 cm
2 2
d du Solution Choice (2)
i 0
dt u dt u
1 1 1 2 1 2uR R
Again f 2
f u R u Ru
uR
or A concave lens forms virtual image I of a point
2uR
object O.
2 2
R 1
i i 0 As m
u 2u R 4 u
u 4
33. Light incident on a surface separating two media If = x, u = 4 x
is partly reflected and partly refracted as shown
Distance between object and image
in figure so:
O I 4 x x 3 x 10 cm,
10
or x = cm
3
40 10
u cm and cm
3 3
1 1 1
2 1 Using lens formula
(1) sin i (2) tan i f u
2
12
2
1 22
1 3 3 9
(3) sin i = tan r (4) sin I = sec r f 10 40 40
40
f cm 4.4 cm
Solution Choice (1) 9
46
35. The head lights of a jeep are 1.2 m apart. If the 37. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent
pupil of the eye of an observer has a diameter of with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface
for three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the
2 mm and light of wavelength 5896 A is used,
intensities and a , b and c be frequencies for
what should be the maximum distance of the
jeep from the observer if the two head lights are the curves a, b and c respectively. Then:
just separated?
(1) 33.4 km (2) 33.4 m
(3) 3.34 km (4) 3.34 m
or x =
2 10 1.2
3
47
Compare it with the equation of straight line The collector current IC is given by
y = mx + c VC 0.5 V
IC 0.625 103 A
We get, slope of the graph = h R 800
IC 0.625 10 3
IB 26 10 6 A 26 A
39. Two identical photo cathodes receive light of 24
frequencies 1 and 2 . If the velocities of the
photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are
41. Which of the following circuits provides full wave
respectively 1 and 2 , then: rectification of an ac input?
2h
(1) 12 22 1 2 (1)
m
12
2 h
(2) 1 2 1 2
m
2h
(3) 12 22 1 2
m
(2)
12
2 h
(4) 1 2 1 2
m
1
m 12 h 1
2
1
m 22 h 2 (4)
2
1
2
m 12 22 h 1 2
2h
12 22 1 2
m
Solution Choice (4)
(3) 36 A (4) 40 A
Solution Choice (2)
48
43. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical 45. The image of an electric bulb fixed in a wall is to
power of 8 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid be obtained on the wall opposite to it at a
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be: distance of 3 m. The maximum possible focal
(1) 1 D (2) – 1 D length of the convex lens is:
44. A man’s near point is 0.5 m and far point is 3 m. Solution Choice (1)
Power of spectacle lenses required for (i) reading Mg Na2 CO3
MgCO3 2Na
purposes, (ii) seeing distant objects, 1 g eq 1 g eq
respectively, are:
1 g eq. of Mg2 = 12 g of Mg2 = 12000 mg
(1) 2 D and + 3 D
= 1000 millieq of Na2 CO3
(2) + 2 D and 3 D
(3) + 2 D and 0.33 D 12 mg Mg 1milli eq. Na2 CO3
u = 25 cm, = 50 cm, f = ? 3p y
100 4dx2 y2
P 2D
f
(3) Designation for the orbital with the quantum
For seeing distant objects number n = 5, = 0 , m = 0 may be 5s
f’ = distance of far point = 3 m
(4) Designation for the orbital with the quantum
1 1 number n = 2, = 1, m = 0 may be 3p z
P D 0.33 D
f' 3
49
Solution Choice (1 & 3)
(1) Since = 1 corresponds to p-orbital and
m = 1 shows orientation either in x or y axis,
thus this orbital refers to 3p x or 3p y dsp2 hybridization sp3 d or dsp3
(2) 4dxy or 4x x2 y2 hybridization
Number of 90 angle Number of 90 angle
(3) 5s
between bonds = 4 between bonds = 6
(4) 2p z
Solution Choice (1) 50. Calculate the total pressure in a 10.0 L cylinder
Factors affecting atomic size are which contains 0.4 g helium, 1.6 g oxygen and
1.4 g nitrogen at 27C:
1
(1) Atomic radius
Effective nuclear charg e (1) 0.492 atm
(2) 49.2 atm
Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F
(3) 4.52 atm
(2) Atomic radius No. of shells
(4) 0.0492 atm
Li < Na > K <Rb < Cs
1
(3) Atomic size Solution Choice: (1)
Magnitude of ve charg e
Given T = 27C = 27 + 273 = 300 K
Mn> Mn2 Mn3 Mn4
V = 10.0 L
(4) Atomic size Magnitude of ve charge
Mass of He = 0.4 g
Thus the correct order is
Mass of oxygen = 1.6 g
2
OO O Mass of nitrogen = 1.4 g
0.4
nHe = 0.1
49. The maximum number of 90 angles between 4
bond pair bond pair of electrons is observed in: 1.6
nO2 = 0.05
2
(1) dsp hybridization 32
1.4
(2) sp3 d hybridization nN2 = 0.05
28
(3) dsp3 hybridization ntotal = nHe + n O2 + n H2 =
(4) sp3 d2 hybridization 0.1 + 0.05 + 0.05 = 0.2
nRT 0.2 0.082 300
P 0.492 atm
Solution Choice (4) V 10
50
51. The value of van der waal’s constant ‘a’ for 55. Which pair cannot exist together in solution?
gases O2 , N2 , NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, (1) NaHCO3 and NaOH
4.170 and 2.254 litre 2 atm mol2 respectively. (2) NaHCO3 and NaCl
The gas which can be most easily liquefied is:
(3) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
(1) O2 (2) N2
(3) NH3 (4) CH4 (4) NaCl and Na2CO3
(3) Both Statements (1) and (2) are true In diamond each carbon atom is sp 3 hybridized
(4) Both Statements (1) and (2) are false and thus forms covalent bonds with four other
carbon atoms lying at the corners of a regular
Solution Choice (2) tetrahedron.
53. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons to 57. Geometrical isomerism is possible in case of:
form a new compound, y. Assuming that all (1) Pentene-2 (2) Propane
nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is (3) Pentane (4) Ethene
the oxidation state of nitrogen in y: ( There is no
Solution Choice (1)
change in the oxidation state of hydrogen)
Geometrical isomerism is shown by compounds
(1) 1 (2) 3 having C = C and the two groups attached to
(3) +3 (4) +5 each of carbon atom are different.
N26 y ;
loss of 10e
N 24 H44
N
O.N of N changes 2 to + 3
58. Iodination of alkane is a reversible process. The
54. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dil. reaction can be shifted towards the left by using
HNO3 on treatment with: agent:
(1) Fe (2) Mn (1) HIO3 (2) HgO
(3) Cu (4) Al (3) HNO3 (4) HClO3
51
59. Today the concentration of green house gases is 62. A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of
very high because of: 31.6 ohm in a conductivity cell at room
(1) Use of refrigerator temperature. What shall be the approximate
molar conductance of this NaOH solution if the
(2) Increased combustion of oils and coal
(3) Deforestation cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm1.
60. Copper crystallises in a face centred cubic lattice (4) 5464 S cm2 mole1
with a unit cell length of 361 pm. What is the
radius of copper atom in pm?
Solution Choice (2)
(1) 157 (2) 181
Here, R = 31.6 ohm
(3) 108 (4) 128
Conductance
1 1
ohm1 0.0316 ohm1
Solution Choice (4) R 31.6
Since Cu metal crystallises in face centred cubic Specific conductance = conductance cell
lattice. constant
r
a 2 0.0316 ohm1 367 cm1 0.0116 ohm1cm1
4
Now, molar concentration = 0.5 M (given)
a 1.414 361 1.414
r 128pm
4 4 0.5 103 mole cm3
k 0.0116
Molar conductance
61. The temperature at which 10% aqueous solution C 0.5 103
(w/v) of glucose will exhibit the osmotic pressure
of 14 bar is: 23.2 S cm2 mol1
(1) 307.3 C
63. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be
(2) 307.3 K
determined by:
(3) 34 K
(1) Evaluating rate constant at standard
(4) 34 C temperature
(2) Evaluating velocities of reaction at two
Solution Choice (2) different temperatures
52
constant at temperature T2 and Ea is the 67. Oleum is chemically known as:
activation energy. Therefore activation energy of (1) H2SO3 (2) H2SO5
chemical reaction is determined by evaluating (3) H2S2O7 (4) H2S2O8
rate constant at two different temperatures.
53
71. Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation Acidic strength of the four phenols should be
of which type of detergents? p-methylphenol < phenol < m-nitrophenol
(1) Cationic detergents
< p-nitrophenol
(2) Anionic detergents
(3) Non-ionic detergents
(4) Soaps 75. Which of the following is the correct decreasing
order of acidic strength?
Solution Choice (3)
(i) Methanoic acid (ii) Ethanoic acid
72. Phosgene is common name of: (iii) Propanoic acid (iv) Butanoic acid
(1) Carbonyl chloride
(2) Phosphine (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) Phosphorus Oxychloride
(2) (ii) > (iii) > (vi) > (i)
(4) Phosphorus trichloried
(3) (i) > (iv) > (iii) > (ii)
Solution Choice (1) (4) (iv) > (i) > (iii) > (ii)
74. Acidic strength of the four phenols should be: (4) Fehlings solution is used in detection of
glucose
(1) p – methylphenol <phenol < m – nitrophenol
< p-nitrophenol
(2) p – methylphenol < m – nitrophenol < phenol Solution Choice (3)
< p -nitrophenol Tollen’s reagent is used to detect saldehydes.
(3) p – methylphenol < phenol < m – nitrophenol Tollen’s reagent is an ammonical solution of
< p -nitrophenol silver nitrate. When aldehyde is added to
(4) phenol > p – methylphenol < p – nitrophenol Tollen’s reagent, silver oxide is reduced to
> m-nitrophenol metallic silver which deposits as mirror.
54
77. Match the compounds given in List - I with their
characteristic reactions given in List – II. Select H H H
HOOC
the correct option. CC CC
List I List II HOOC COOH H COOH
Compounds Reactions
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2 (a) Alkaline Hydrolysis
55
83. The splitting of d-orbitals in tetrahedral 88. A closed flask contains water in all its three
complexes is: states solid, liquid and vapour at 0 C. In this
(1) Not comparable to octahedral complexes situation, the average kinetic energy of water
since the d-orbitals in tetrahedral complexes molecules will be:
does not split. (1) The greatest in all the three sates
(2) Reverse of the octahedral complexes (2) The greatest in vapour state
(3) Same as in octahedral complexes
(3) The greatest in the liquid state
(4) None of these
(4) The greatest in the solid state
85. Which of the following conversions can be CrO24 Cr2O72 O.N. of Cr does not change. It
carried out by Clemmensen Reduction? remains +6 on both sides. Hence there is no
(1) Benzaldehyde into benzyl alcohol oxidation or reduction.
(2) Cyclohexanone into cyclohexane
(3) Benzoyl chloride into benzaldehyde 90. How can the following reaction be made to
(4) Benzophenone into diphenyl methane proceed in the forward direction?
Solution Choice (3) cis-1, 2-diol forms chelated complex ion with the
product, [B OH 4 ] causing the reaction to
87. A solution which remains in contact with an proceed in forward direction.
undissolved solute is termed as a / an:
(1) Ideal solution
(2) Non-ideal solution
(3) Saturated solution
(4) Unsaturated solution
56
91. Which one of the following is correctly matched 96. Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree and
regarding an institute and its location? largest gametes:
(1) National Institute of Virology - Pune (1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(2) National Institute of Communicable Disease -
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bryophytes
Lucknow
(3) Central Drug Research Institute - Kasauli
(4) National Institute of Nutrition - Mumbai Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (1) 97. Angiosperms have dominated land flora primarily
because of their:
92. A self fertilizing trihybrid plant forms: (1) Nature of self pollination
(1) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes (2) Power of adaptability in diverse habitats
(2) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes (3) Property of producing large numbers of seeds
(3) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(4) Domestication by man
(4) 4 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
93. Employment of hereditary principles in the 98. In which of the following would you place the
improvement of human race is: plants having vascular tissue lacking seeds:
(1) Euthenics (2) Euphenics (1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(3) Eugenics (4) Ethology (3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperms
57
102. Which of the following feature is not common 107. Match the following with reference to Cockroach
between Newt and Hemidactylus? and choose the correct option:
(1) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and
tail (i) Phallomere (a) Chain of developing
(2) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic ova
membrane (ii) Gonopore (b) Bundles of sperm
(3) Trunk has 2 pairs of limb for locomotion (iii) Spermatophere (c) Opening of the
(4) Heart is 3 chambered ejaculatory dust
(iv) Ovarioles (d) The external genitlia
Solution Choice (1)
(1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
103. Which one of the following is the characteristic
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
for birds?
(3) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(1) They are flying animals
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(2) They are warm blooded
(3) They are bipedal and have feather Solution Choice (2)
(4) They are quadruped and have scales
108. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
Solution Choice (3)
(1) Transcription - Writing information from DNA
to t RNA.
104. To which one of the following categories does (2) Translation - Using information in m-RNA to
adipose tissue belong? make protein.
(1) Epithelial (2) Connective (3) Repressor protein - Binds to operator to stop
(3) Muscular (4) Neural enzyme synthesis.
(4) Operon - Structural genes, operator and
Solution Choice (2) promoter
58
110. What are the most diverse molecules in the cell? 113. The key events shown by the telophase stage is:
(1) Lipids (a) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
(2) Proteins poles and their identity is lost as discrete
elements.
(3) Carbohydrates
(b) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
(4) Mineral salts
chromosome clusters.
(c) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
Solution Choice (2)
(1) a only (2) a and b only
111. Which of the following is a reducing sugar? (3) b and c only (4) b and c
59
116. Choose the correct option for A and B: 119. Many pulses of daily use belong to one of the
families below: (tick the correct answer)
(1) Solanaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Liliaceae (4) Poceae
60
124. Function of Zinc is: 129. Connection link between EMP pathway and TCA
(1) Synthesis of chlorophyll b cycle is:
(2) Biosynthesis of Indole 3 – IAA (1) Pyruvic acid (2) Citric acid
Solution Choice (4) (1) If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more total
CO2 in the blood
128. Which of the following is wrongly matched? (2) Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve
downward
(1) Sorghum – Kranz anatomy
(3) The CO2 uptake curve is generated by
(2) PS – II – P700
comparing the total CO2 per unit volume of
(3) Photorespiration – C3 plants blood, and the PCO2
(4) PEP carboxylase – Mesophyll cells (4) Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than
oxygenated
Solution Choice (2)
Reaction center in PS – II is P680+ Solution Choice (4)
61
134. Which of the following is INCORRECT concerning 138. Salivary amylase is also known:
the O2 / CO2 movement and processing through (1) Ptyalin (2) Gastrin
the lungs and tissues?
(3) Glyoxylase (4) Pepsin
(1) Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration
so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to
Solution Choice (1)
dissociate
(2) When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the
psaCO2 is lowered 139. Pacemaker of heart is:
(3) Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the (1) A node (2) Bundle of His
reaction combining H+ with HCO3 to form (3) SA node (4) Purkinje fibers
H2O and CO2
(4) Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H+ Solution Choice (3)
ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O
136. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus, Solution Choice (3)
which of the following would NOT occur as a
result? 142. Secretion of renin from JG cell is due to:
(1) The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0 (1) A fall gloerular blood flow
(2) The PAO2 would be greater than normal (2) Glomerular blood pressure
(3) The PACO2 would be 0 (3) GFR
(4) All of the above are true (4) All of these
62
144. It is also activate the adreral cortex to release 149. Differentiation of colour is the property of the
aldosterone: cone, it is because of the:
(1) Angiotensin II (2) Adrenal gland (1) Types of cones sensory of different colours
(3) Cortisol (4) ADH only
(2) Different types of cones along with the
different type of colour sensory centres in the
Solution Choice (1)
brain
(3) Single type of cones but it has the properties
145. What are the number of tarsal and metatarsal
to differentiate the colour
respectively in each limb of human ?
(4) The colour differentiation is entirely a
(1) 5, 7 (2) 7, 5
property of the colour sensory centre in
(3) 8, 3 (4) 5, 14 the brain
63
153. Which of the following statement is not false? 156. Match the items in column – I with those in
(1) Hormone produced in thyroid stimulates column – II and choose the correct option.
metabolism Column I Column II
(2) Hormone produced in ovary affects the (i) Animals which give
uterine contraction birth to young one (a) Hydra
(3) Hormone produced in small intestine (ii) Animals which
stimulates heart
produces bud (b) Planaria
(4) Hormone produced in adrenal cortex
(iii) An animal which
stimulates heart beat
shows regeneration (c) Viviparous
(iv) Provides nutrition to
Solution Choice (1)
the developing (d) Auxin
(1) (i) – (a); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (c)
154. The hormones of posterior pituitary are oxytocin
(2) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
and vasopressin; but latter is better known as:
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(1) Antidiuretic hormone (4) (i) – (a); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)
(2) Growth hormone
(3) Corticotrophic hormone Solution Choice (2)
(4) Neurohypophyseal A sexual reproduction takes place in many ways:
(I) binary fission, e.g., Amoeba
Solution Choice (1) (II) spore formation – by motile zoospores, e.g.,
Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas or by non motile
conidia, e.g. Penicillium.
155. Read the following statements and select the
correct ones.
157. Find out the wrongly matched pair.
(I) Conidia are the asexual propagules
restricted to kingdom Fungi (1) Tuber - Potato
(II) A piece of potato tuber having atleast one (2) Rhizome - Ginger
eye (or node) is capable of giving rise to a (3) Bulbil - Agave
new plant (4) Leaf of buds - Banana
(III) Ginger propagates vegetatively with the help
of its underground roots
Solution Choice (4)
(IV) Fleshy buds which take part in vegetative
Banana is vegetatively propagated by modified
propagation are called bulbils, present in
stem (Rhizomes).
Dioscorea, Agave, etc
64
159. Assertion: Zygote transforms into blastocyst by 163. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra
cleavage Uterine Devices (IUDs):
Reason: All these changes take place in a (1) Prevent ovulation
period of one week (2) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(1) Assertion are true and the reason is a correct (3) Increase phagocytosis sperms
explanation of the assertion.
(4) Suppress sperm motility
(2) Assertion are true and the reason is not a
correct explanation of the assertion. Solution Choice (4)
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
164. A normal- visioned man whose father was colour
(4) The assertion is false but the reason is true.
blind, marries a woman whose father was also
colour blind. They have their first child as a
Solution Choice (4)
daughter. What are the chances that this child
would be colour blind?
160. Which is incorrect for sexual dimorphism of male?
(1) 100%
(1) Mammary gland is namesake only
(2) zero percent
(2) Voice is shrill
(3) 25%
(3) Muscles are strong
(4) 50%
(4) Beard and mustache develops
65
166. The chromosome constitution 2n –– 2 of an 169. The difference (s) between mRNA and tRNA is
organism represents: that:
(1) Monosomic (a) mRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
(2) Nullisomic structure due to extensive base – pairing
66
173. Haeckel's theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic 177. Maximum application of animal cell culture
law) means that: technology today is in the production of:
(1) All organisms start as an egg (1) Insulin (2) Interferons
(2) Life history of an animal reflects its (3) Edible proteins (4) Vaccines
evolutionary history
(3) Progeny of an organism resembles its Solution Choice (4)
parents
(4) Body parts once lost are regenerated 178. An association of individuals of different species
living in the same habitat and having functional
Solution Choice (2) interactions is:
(1) Biotic community (2) Ecologic niche
174. Name the first organic acid produced by (3) Population (4) Ecosystem
microbial fermentation:
(1) Citric acid Solution Choice (1)
(2) Lactic acid
(3) Acetic acid 179. Animals that have adapted themselves to live in
(4) None of these deserts are known as:
(1) Fossorial (2) Xerocoles
175. Vinegar is obtained from molasses with the help of: Solution Choice (2)
67
VER
RY SIMILA
AR PRAC
CTICE PA
APER FO
OR NEET
T - 03
S
SOLUTION
NS
68
R mgh
m0R0 m v1 0
2
i.e.,
4
mL
69
I 11. The unit of permittivity of free space, 0 is:
B1 0 sin 90 sin 0 kˆ
4R
(1) Coulomb2 / (Newton-metre)2
0 I
4 R
k̂ B3 (2) Coulomb / Newton-metre
B at centre Solution Choice (4)
0I
Bc B1 B2 B3
4 R
ˆi 2kˆ 0
q2
r 4F
2
v 2.19 106 m / s Zn Solution Choice (3)
v 2.19 106 32 z 2 & n 3 13. The displacement of a particle is represented by
the following equation : s 3t 3 7t 2 5t 8 where
6
v = 1.46 10 m/s s is in metre and t is in second. The acceleration
of the particle at t is:
10. According to Newton, the viscous force acting
(1) 14 m/s2 (2) 18 m/s2
between liquid layers of area A and velocity
(3) 32 m/s2 (4) Zero
V
gradient V / Z is given by F A where
Z
is constant called coefficient of viscosity. The Solution Choice (3)
dimensional formula of is: Displacement s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 5t + 8
70
14. Two bodies A (mass 1 kg) and B (mass 3 kg) are 16. A block B is pushed momentarily along a
dropped from heights of 16 m and 25 m, horizontal surface with an initial velcoity V If is
respectively. The ratio of the time taken by them the coeffient of sliding friction between B and the
to reach the ground is: surface, block B will come to rest after a time:
12 5 g g
(1) (2) (1) (2)
5 12 V V
V V
4 5 (3) (4)
(3) (4) g g
5 4
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (3)
17. Two identical balls A and B moving with
15. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45 with the velocities +0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s respectively,
horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at its collide head on elastically. The velocities of the
highest point as seen from the point of projection balls A and B after collision, will be respectively:
is: (1) + 0.5 m/s and + 0.3 m/s
1 (2) 0.3 m/s and + 0.5 m/s
(1) 60 (2) tan1
2 (3) + 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s
3 (4) 0.5 m/s and + 0.3 m/s
(3) tan1 (4) 45
2
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2) When the identical balls collide head on their
Use the formula R = 4 Hmax/tan Q velocities are exchanged
71
20. A rod PQ ofo mass M an nd length L iss hinged at 3.
23 h m
A black body has a maximum wavelength
end P. The e rod is kept horizontal byy a masslesss at tempperature 20000 K. Its s correspon nding
string tied to
t point Q ass shown in fig gure. When wavelen
ngth at tempe
erature 3000 K will be:
string is cu
ut, the initial angular
a acceeleration of th
he
3 2
rod is: (1) m (2) m
2 3
4 9
(3) m (4) m
9 4
72
27. A square surface
s of sid
de L metres is in the plane 0.
30 A coil of inductive e 31 ha
e reactance as a
of the papper. A uniforrm electric field
f E (volt/m) resistancce of 8 if it is placed in series with
w a
also in the he paper, is limited only to
e plane of th condensser of capaccitative reactance of 25 .
the lower half
h of the sq quare surfacce. The electtric The com
mbination is cconnected to o an AC sourrce of
flux in SI units assocciated with the
t surface is: 110 volt,, The power factor of the circuit is:
(1) 0.64
(2) 0.80
(3) 0.33
(4) 0.56
73
34. A source of sound S is moving with a velocity 36. An ideal heat engine exhausting heat at 77 C. If
50 m/s towards a stationary observer. The its efficiency is 30%, it must take heat at:
observer measures the frequency of the source
(1) 127 C (2) 227 C
as 1000 Hz. What will be the apparent frequency
of the source when it is moving away from the (3) 327 C (4) 673 C
observer after crossing him?
The velocity of sound in the medium is 350 m/s. Solution Choice (2)
(1) 750 Hz (2) 857 Hz T1 T2
(3) 1143 Hz (4) 1333 Hz T1
Solution Choice (4) (1) 4.6 107 m/sec (2) 2.3 107 m/sec
(3) 0.23 102 m/sec (4) 5.1 109 m/sec
1 T
n1
2L 4r 2 Solution Choice (2)
1 2
1 T mv eV
and n2 2
4L r 2 2eV 2 1.6 1019 1500
v
1 m 9 1031
n1 / n2 2 1 V = 2.3 107 m/sec
2
74
39. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 42. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a
is connected across a variable resistance R. The combination of convex lens of focal length 40 cm
value of R for which the power delivered in it is in contact with a concave lens of focal length
maximum is given by: 25 cm. The power of this lens combination in
diopters is:
(1) 2.0 (2) 0.25
(1) + 1.5 (2) 1.5
(3) 1.0 (4) 0.5
(3) + 6.67 (4) 6.67
Solution Choice (4)
According to maximum power theorem, the Solution Choice (2)
power in the circuit is maximum, when internal 100
Power of convex lens P1 2.5 D
resistance = external resistance 40
R = 0.5 100
Power of concave lens P2 4 D g
25
40. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. Now
The distance from the centre of the coil on the P = P1 + P2 = 2.5 D 4 D = 1.5 D
axis where the magnetic induction will be (1/8)th
of its value at the centre of the coil is: 43. In the Young’s experiment with sodium light, the
(1) R 3 slits are 0.589 m apart. What is the angular width
of the fourth maximum? Given that = 589 nm
(2) 2R 3
(1) sin1(3 106 )
(3) R / 3
(2) sin1(3 108 )
(4) 2R / 3
(3) sin1(0.33 106 )
8R3 R2 x 2 2
3
(or) 2R R2 x 2 2
sin
n 3 589 109
2d 0.589
1
2R R2 x 2 2 (or) 4R2 R2 x 2 = sin1 (3 106)
75
45. The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic 48. Which one of the following is not Lewis acid?
energy of a proton. The energy of the photon is (1) AlCl3 6H 2 O
E. Let 1 be the de Broglie wavelength of the
(2) A lC l3
proton and 2 be the wavelength of the photon.
(3) SnCl4
The ratio 1 / 2 is proportional to:
1
(4) FeCl3
0
(1) E (2) E 2
(3) E 1
(4) E2 Solution Choice (1)
Anhydrous AlCl3 is Lewis Acid but hydrous AlCl3
Solution Choice (2)
(AlCl3 6H2O) is not Lewis acid and its p and
h h
We know that d-orbitals are fully filled. So, it can’t accept
mv p
electrons and does not acts Lewis acid
1 p2
Here mv 2 E
2 2m
49. The interaction energy of London force is
or p 2mE
inversely proportional to the sixth power of the
h
1 ...(1) distance between two interacting particles but
2mE their magnitude depends upon:
hc
And 2 ...(2) (1) Charge of interacting particles
E
h E (2) Mass of interacting particles
Therefore, 1
2 2mE hc (3) Polarizing power and polarisability of
1 interacting particles
E 2
(4) Strength of permanent dipoles in the particles
2mc 2
1
1
Or E2 Solution Choice (3)
2
(1) 3s, 3p, 4s, 3d, 4p (2) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p (2) P = 2 atm, T = 150 K
(3) 3s, 3p, 4s, 4p, 4d (4) 3s, 3p, 3d, 4p, 4s (3) P = 0.5 atm, T = 600 K
(4) P = 1.0 atm, T = 500 K
Solution Choice (1)
Follow (n + l) rule
Solution Choice (2)
47. The correct order of acidic strength: PV = nRT (By gas equation)
(1) Cl2 O7 SO2 P4 O10 M
Where V
(2) K 2 O CaO MgO d
(3) CO 2 N2 O 5 SO 3 M
P nRT or PM dT nR
(4) Na 2 O MgO Al2 O 3 d
From above relation
Solution Choice (1)
1 P
Acidic character of oxide Non-metallic nature P d or d or d
T T
of element
Non-metallic character increases along the Therefore, an ideal gas will have maximum
period P
density when ratio of is more
Hence order or acidic character is T
Cl2 O7 SO2 P4 O10
76
51. Which one of the following statements is false? 54. White lead is:
(1) Work is a state function (1) Basic lead acetate
(2) Temperature is a state function (2) Acidic lead carbonate
(3) Change in the state is completely defined (3) Basic lead carbonate
when the initial and final states are specified (4) Basic lead hydroxide
(4) None of these
77
58. Identify the incorrect statement from the Solution Choice (2)
following: Solvent having high cryoscopic constant
(1) Ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet (camphor) can be used in determination of
radiation of the sun molecular masses of organic compounds like
naphthalene, anthracene et., by cryosopic
(2) Depletion of ozone layer is because of its
method
chemical reactions with chlorofluoro alkanes
(3) Ozone absorbs infrared radiations
61. How long a current of 3 amperes has to be
(4) Oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can
passed through a solution of AgNO3 to coat a
cause the depletion of ozone layer
metal surface of 80 cm2 and 0.005 mm thick
layer? Density of Ag is 10.5 g cm-3.
Solution Choice (3)
(1) 127.7 seconds (2) 12.5 seconds
The ozone layer existing between 20 and 35 km
(3) 155.2 seconds (4) 200 seconds
above the earth’s surface, shield the earth from
the harmful U.V. radiations from the sun
Depletion of ozone is caused by oxides of Solution Choice (1)
nitrogen Volume = Area thickness
N2 O h
NO N Reactive nitric oxide Mass of Ag to be deposited
80 0.005
NO O3
NO2 O2 10.5 0.42g
10
O3 h
O2 O E wt i t
Amound deposited
96500
NO2 O
NO O2
108 3 t
0.42
2O3 h
3O2 Net reaction 98500
78
Solution Choice (4) 68. The electronic configuration of four elements are
Adsorption is accompanied by evolution of heat given below. Which element does not belong to
as the residual forces acting along the surface of the same family as others?
adsorbent decrease i.e., adsorption is
(1) Xe 4f14 5d10 6s2
accompanied by decrease in enthalpy
(2) Kr 4d10 5s2
64. Bronze is a mixture of:
(3) Ne 3s2 3p5
(1) Pb + Sn (2) Cu + Sn
(3) Cu + Zn (4) Pb + Zn (4) Ar 3d10 4s2
(1) Inertness
69. The primary valency of Cr in the complex
(2) Gaseous nature
(3) High polarisability Cr H2O Cl2 is:
4
(4) Weak van der Waals forces between atoms (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6
Solution Choice (4)
Due to weak van der Waal’s forces, He has Solution Choice (2)
lowest boiling point. The primary valency if given by O.S. In
Cr H2 O 4 Cl2 . O.S. of Cr is +3 hence valency
66. Which of the following statements is not correct
for nitrogen? of Cr is +3.
(1) Its electronegativity is very high
(2) d-orbitals are available for bonding 70. The compound which is added to soap to impart
(3) It is a typical non-metal antiseptic properties is __________.
(4) Its molecular size is small (1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(2) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate
Solution Choice (2) (3) Rosin
In case of nitrogen, d-orbitals are not available (4) Bithional
79
72. Ce is an important member of Lanthenoid series 77. Which of the following alternatives does not
which of following is wrong statement for Ce? represent a colligative property?
(1) The general oxidation state of Ce is +3 and +4 (1) Lowering of vapour pressure
(2) +3 oxidation state of Ce is more stable than +4 (2) Osmosis
(3) +4 oxidation state of Ce is not available in its (3) Elevation of boiling point
aqueous solution (4) Depression of freezing point
(4) Ce (IV) behave as oxidizing agent
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (1)
78. At what centigrade temperature will the volume of
gas becomes 2x, if the volume of this gas is ‘x’ at
73. Carbonate ion (CO32 ) acts as a: 0 C at constant pressure?
80
The approximate composition of cement is 83. Match the compounds given in Column-I with
Lime (CaO) = 50 60% Column-II and select the suitable option using the
code given below.
Silica (SiO2) = 20 25%
Column - I Column - II
Alumina (Al2O3) = 5 10%
Magnesia (MgO) = 2 3% (i) Benzaldehyde (a) Phenolphthalein
81. Aryl halides do not undergo nuclephilic (iii) Phenyl benzoate (c) Oil of
substitution reaction under ordinary conditions wintergreen
because: (iv) Methyl salicylate (d) Fries
(a) Approach of nucleophile is retarded rearrangement
(1) (i) – (d); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (b)
(b) Carbon carrying halogen atom is sp 3
(2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
hybridised
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (a)
(c) The substrate molecule is destabilised due to (4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (c)
resonance
(d) Partial double bond character between Solution Choice (4)
carbon and halogen
84. Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic
addition mainly because of:
(1) (b) and (d) only
(1) Electronegativity difference of carbon and
(2) (a) and (d) only oxygen atoms
(3) (b) and (c) only (2) Electromeric effect
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) More stable anion with negative charge on
oxygen atom and less stable carbonium ion
Solution Choice (2) (4) None of these
Aryl halides are less reactive towards
nucleophilic substitution because of the parital Solution Choice (3)
double bond character of carbon-halogen bonds.
85. Match the compounds in Column-I with their
It is also party due to repulsion between the
nature from Column-II, as seen in aqueous
electron cloud of the benzene ring and the
medium
nucleophile.
Column - I Column - II
82. Which one of the following alcohols is least (i) Acetamide (a) Acidic
soluble in water?
(ii) Benzonitrile (b) Basic
(1) CH3 OH (2) C3H7 OH
(iii) Triethylamine (c) Neutral
(3) C4H9 OH (4) C10H21OH
(iv) Phenol
81
Acetamide is basic due to the presence of lone 87. Starch is converted into maltose by the:
pair of electrons of N; it is also acidic because its (1) Maltase (2) Invertase
conjugate base shows resonance.
(3) Zymase (4) Diastase
O
||
base
CH3 C NH2 Solution Choice (4)
Diastase enzyme converts starch into maltose
O O
|| |
CH3 C NH CH3 C NH 88. The polymer used in making synthetic hair wigs
is made up of:
(more stable due to –ve charge on O)
(1) CH2 CHCl (2) CH2 CHCOOCH3
Acetamide is neutral. Benzonitrile
(C6H5C N)acts as an electrophile (3) C6H5 CH CH2 (4) CH2 CH CH CH2
(Lewise acid) due to electron deficiency of C of
CN as well as nucleophile (Lewis base) in nature Solution Choice (1)
due to presence of lone pair electrons on N; SARAN, a polymer of vinyl chloride
hence it is neutral. (CH2 = CHCl) and vinylidence chloride, is used
for making synthetic hair wigs.
Triethyl amine and phenol are basic and acidic in
nature respectively.
89. An antibiotic with a broad spectrum:
(1) Kills the antibodies
86. Match Items of Column I with the items of
Column II and assign the correct code: (2) Acts on a specific antigen
(3) Acts on different antigens
Column I Column II
(4) Acts on both the antigens and antibodies
(i) Cyanide process (a) Ultra pure Ge
82
92. A self fertilizing trihybrid plant forms: 98. Angiosperms have dominated land flora primarily
(1) 8 different gametes and 16 different zygotes because of their:
(2) 8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes (1) Nature of self pollination
(3) 4 different gametes and 16 different zygotes
(2) Power of adaptability in diverse habitats
(4) 4 different gametes and 32 different zygotes
(3) Property of producing large numbers of seeds
Solution Choice (2) (4) Domestication by man
94. Cladistic taxonomy places the birds as (3) Bryophyte (4) Gymnosperms
Archosaurs, along with the:
(1) Mammals (2) Crocodilians Solution Choice (1)
(3) Turtles (4) Snakes
96. You might find methanogens: 102. Which of the following feature is not common
(1) In swamps (2) In a cow's stomach between Newt and Hemidactylus?
(3) In marshes (4) All of these (1) Body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail
(2) Head with pair of eyes and tympanic
Solution Choice (4)
membrane
(3) Trunk has 2 pairs of limb for locomotion
97. Plant group with largest ovule, largest tree and
largest gametes: (4) Heart is 3 chambered
(1) Pteridophyte (2) Angiosperms
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Bryophytes
Solution Choice (1)
83
103.. Which one e of the follo
owing is the
e characterisstic (1) (i) – (c); (ii) - (d)); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
for birds: (2) (i) – (d); (ii) - (c)); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (a)
(1) They arre flying anim
mals (3) (i) – (d); (ii) - (b)); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
(2) They arre warm bloo
oded (4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d)); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (a)
09. Stateme
10 ent 1: DNA is associated with
Solution Choice (3)
prrotiens
104.. Monocondyic skull, wa arm blooded d animals with
w Stateme
ent 2: DNA coils aro ound histone
air sacs are present in: prrotiens that form
f a pool
(1) Reptilia
a (2) Birdss annd the entire
e structure is
ca
alled nucleos some
(3) Amphib
bia (4) Mam
mmals
(1) State
ement 1 and Statement 2 are true;
Solution Choice (2) State
ement 2 is the
e correct exp
planation for
State
ement 1.
105.. To which one of the following ca
ategories do
oes (2) State
ement 1 and Statement 2 are true;
adipose tisssue belong?
? State
ement 2 is no
ot the correctt explanation for
(1) Epitheliial (2) Conn
nective State
ement 1.
(3) Muscular (4) Neurral (3) State
ement 1 is tru
ue, Statemennt 2 is false.
(4) State
ement 1 and d 2 are both false.
f
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (1)
106.. Which one
e of the follo
owing is nott a connective 11
10. What are e the most diverse molec
cules in the cell?
c
tissue? (1) Lipids
(1) Bone (2) Cartiilage (2) Prote
eins
(3) Blood (4) Musccles (3) Carbbohydrates
(4) Mineeral salts
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (2)
107.. The clitellu
um is a disstinct part in
n the body of
11
11. Which of
o the followin
ng is a reduc
cing sugar?
earthwormm, it is found in?
(1) Segments 13 – 14 – 15
(2) Segments 14 – 15 – 16
(3) Segments 12 – 13 – 14
(4) Segments 15 – 16 – 17
84
112. Choose the correct statements w.r.t. the 115. Which of the following is not the key features of
completion of prophase. meiosis :
(a) Chromosomal material condenses to form
(1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
compact mitotic chromosomes.
nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and
Chromosomes are seen to be composed of
two chromatids attached together at the meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA
centromere replication
(b) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle, (2) Meiosis I is initiated after the parental
the microtubules, the proteinaceous
chromosomes have replicated to produce
components of the cell cytoplasm
identical sister chromatids at the S phase
(c) Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed
under the microscope, do not show golgi (3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
complexes, endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus chromosomes and recombination between
and the nuclear envelope them
(1) a only (2) b only
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
(3) a and b (4) a, b, and c
meiosis
114. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. cytokinesis in Solution Choice (2)
plants:
(1) In plant cells, wall formation starts in the
117. Choose the correct option:
centre of the cell and grows outward to meet
the existing lateral walls
(2) The formation of the new cell wall begins with
the formation of a simple precursor, called the
cell-plate
(3) The cell-plate represents the middle lamella
between the walls of twoadjacent cells (1) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Seed; D-Endocarp
(4) The cytokinesis in a plant cell is achieved by (2) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Ovule; D-Endocarp
the appearance of a furrow in the plasma (3) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Ovary; D-Endocarp
membrane called the cell cleavage
(4) A-Epicarp; B-Mesocarp; C-Embryo; D-Endocarp
85
118. Match ColumnI with ColumnII 123. Fertility of the soil in rice fields can be improved
by:
Column I Column II
(2) Chlamydomonas (2) Sodium chloride
(i) Apple (a) Outer portion of
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhizopus
receptacle
(iv) Guava (d) Endosperm 124. Besides Fe, Cytochrome a and a3 carry an
additional atom involved in ETC. The deficiency
(v) Pineapple (e) Bract, perianth &
of the same leads to -----:
seeds
(1) Necrosis
(2) Die back of shoot
(1) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (d); (iv) - (e); (v) - (a)
(2) (i) – (e); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d); (v) - (b) (3) Brown heart disease
(3) (i) – (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (e); (v) - (d) (4) Premature leaf abscission
(4) (i) – (b); (ii) - (d); (iii) - (e); (iv) - (c); (v) - (a)
86
128. An organic acid which undergoes both 132. Which of the following can cause stagnant
dehydrogenation and decarboxylation in Kreb’s hypoxia?
cycle is: (1) COPD
(1) Sucinic acid (2) a-ketoglytatric acid (2) Shock or heart failure
(3) Citric acid (4) Malic acid (3) Cyanide poisoning
(4) Carbon monoxide poisoning
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (2)
129. Primary precursor of IAA is:
(1) Methionine (2) Adenine 133. If you blocked the blood supply to an alveolus,
(3) Tryptophan (4) Alanine which of the following would NOT occur as a
result?
Solution Choice (3) (1) The ventilation perfusion ratio would be 0
(2) The PAO2 would be greater than normal
130. Which of the following in FALSE concerning CO2 (3) The PACO2 would be 0
uptake?
(4) All of the above are true
(1) If PO2 = PCO2, then there will be more CO2 in
the blood Solution Choice (1)
(2) Oxygenation moves the CO2 uptake curve
downwards 134. Hormone involved in the discharge of pancreatic
(3) The CO2 uptake curve is generated by juice and contraction of gall bladder in mammals
comparing the total CO per unit volume of is:
blood, and the PCO2 (1) Secretin
(4) Deoxygenated blood carries less CO2 than (2) Secretin and cholecystokinin
oxygenated (3) Gastrin
(4) Enterogastrone
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (2)
131. Which of the following is INCORRECT
135. Pace maker of heart is:
concerning the O2 / CO2 movement and
processing through the lungs and tissues? (1) AV node
(2) Bundle of His
(1) Binding of O2 to Hb changes its configuration
(3) SA node
so that CO2 and H+ ions are more likely to
(4) Purkinje fibers
dissociate
(2) When CO2 diffused into the alveoli, the Solution Choice (3)
PaCO2 is lowered
(3) Carbonic acid is an intermediate in the 136. Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary vein in
reaction combining H+ with HCO3- to form having:
H2O and CO2 (1) No endothelium
+
(4) Arterial blood flows to the tissues where H (2) Valves
ions combine with HCO3- to form H2O (3) Large lumen
(4) Thick muscular wall
Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (4)
87
137. Secretion of renin from JG cell is due to: 144. The hormones of posterior pituitary are oxytocin
(1) A fall glomerular blood flow and vasopressin; but latter is better known as:
(2) Glomerular blood pressure (1) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) GFR (2) Growth hormone
(4) All of these
(3) Corticotrophic hormone
Solution Choice (4) (4) Neurohypophyseal
88
147. Find out the wrongly matched pair. (3) XO condition in human as found in Turner
(1) Tuber - Potato syndrome, determines female sex
(2) Rhizome - Ginger (4) Homozygos sex chromosomes (XX) produce
(3) Bulbil - Agave male in Drosophila
(4) Leaf of buds - Banana
Solution Choice (2)
Solution Choice (4) In grasshopper the males lack a Y-sex
Banana is vegatatively propagated by modified
chromosome and have only an X-chromosome.
stem (Rhizomes)
They produce sperm cells that contain either an
X chromosome or no sex chromosome, which is
148. The technique called gamete intrafallopian
designated as O.
transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those
females:
(1) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow 152. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour,
passage for the sperms blind, marries a woman whose father was also
(2) Who cannot provide suitable environment for colour blind. They have their first child as a
fertilisation daughter. What are the chance that this child
(3) Who cannot produce an ovum would be colour blind?
(4) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus (1) 100% (2) 0%
(3) 25% (4) 50%
Solution Choice (3)
Solution Choice (4) 154. The difference between mRNA and tRNA is / are
that –
151. Which one of the following conditions correctly (a) mRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
describes the manner of determining the sex in structure due to extensive base – pairing
the given example?
(b) tRNA has more elaborated 3-dimensional
(1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
structure due to extensive pairing
determine female sex in birds
(c) tRNA is usually smaller than mRNA
(2) XO type of sex chromosomes determine male
sex in grasshopper (d) mRNA bears anticodon but tRNA has codons
89
(1) a and c (2) All of these 159. Haeckal’s theory of recapitulation (Biogenetic
(3) b and c (4) a, b and c law) means that:
(1) All organisms start as an egg
Solution Choice (3) (2) Life history of an animal reflects its
evolutionary history
(3) Progeny of an organism resembles its parents
155. Which one(s) / are correct?
(4) Body parts once lost are regenerated
(a) In prokaryotes single type of RNA polymerase
can transcribe mRNA, tRNA and rRNA
(b) In eukaryotes RNA polymerase I transcribes Solution Choice (2)
rRNA (28S, 18S and 5.8S) whereas RNA pol
III is responsible for transcription of tRNA, 5S 160. Name the first organic acid produced by
rRNA and Sn RNAs microbial fermentation:
(c) RNA pol II transcribes hnRNA in eukaryotes (1) Citric acid (2) Lactic acid
(d) Ribosomal large subunit has P and A-sites (3) Acetic acid (4) None of these
(1) a and c (2) All of these
(3) b, c and d (4) a, b and c Solution Choice (2)
90
165. The abundance of a species population within its 170. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is
habitat is called: obtained from:
(1) Relative density (2) Regional density (1) Taxus brevifolia
(3) Absolute density (4) Niche density (2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Cinchona officinalis
Solution Choice (4) (4) Berberis nilghiriensis
166. Which of the followings is not the characteristic of Solution Choice (2)
the anatomy of xerophytes?
(1) Well developed conducting tissue 171. Study the followings related to uses of plants and
(2) Spongy parenchyma identify the correct match for the sorghum and
(3) Thick cuticle cotton respectively.
(4) Well developed mechanical tissue I. Blood purification and organic fertilizer
II. Animal feed and paper industry
Solution Choice (2) III. 'B' Vitamin and cosmetics
IV. Explosives and organic fertilizer
167. Competition is most severe between two:
(1) Distantly related species growing in the same
The correct pair is:
habitat
(1) I, II
(2) Closely related species growing in the same
(2) II, III
habitat
(3) III, IV
(3) Closely related species growing in different
niches (4) II, IV
(4) Distantly related species growing in different
niches Solution Choice (4)
Solution Choice (1) 173. In tissue culture medium, the embryoid formed
from pollen grain is due to:
169. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic (1) Cellular totipotency
engineering experiments are:
(2) Organogenesis
(1) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter
(3) Double fertilization
(2) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(4) Test tube culture
(3) Nitrosomonas and Kliebsiella
(4) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
Solution Choice (2)
91
174. Select the correct statement from the ones given and B cell and T cell is specific for a particular
below? antigen
(1) Barbiturates when given to criminals make
them tell the truth 177. Pick up the correct pair:
(2) Morphine is often given to persons who have (1) Xenopsylla –– plague
undergone surgery as a pain killer (2) Pediculus –– Typhoid
(3) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and (3) Culex –– Human malaria
heart rate
(4) Stegomyia –– Yellow fever
(4) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it
stimulates recovery
Solution Choice (1)
Plague is transmitted by rat fleas (Xenopsella)
Solution Choice (2)
(2) Human foetus developing inside the uterus (3) Mushroom shaped gland
draws nourishment from the mother (4) Inguinal gland
(3) Head louse living on the human scalp as well
as laying eggs on human hair Solution Choice (1)
(4) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow’s nest
179. The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined
by the germinal epithelium consisting of:
Solution Choice (3)
(1) Cells of sertoli (2) Spermatocytes
Head louse is an obligate ectroparasite of human
(3) Spermatogonium (4) Spermatids
scalp and as well as laying eggs on human hair.
92