Choose the letter of the best answer in each B.

Leading
questions. C. Controlling
1. Management is: D. Organizing
A. An art 7. What refers to the establishing
B. Both science and art interrelationships between people and
C. A science things in such a way
D. Neither art nor science that human and materials resources are
2. Engineering is: effectively focused toward achieving the
A. An art goal of the
B. Both science and art company?
C. A science A. Planning
D. Neither art nor science B. Leading
3. Engineers can become good managers C. Controlling
only through __________. D. Organizing
A. Experience 8. What management function involves
B. Taking master degree in management selecting candidates and training
C. Effective career planning personnel?
D. Trainings A. Organizing
4. If you are an engineer wanting to become B. Staffing
a manager, what will you do? C. Motivating
A. Develop new talents D. Controlling
B. Acquire new values 9. What management function involves
C. Broaden your point of view orienting personnel in the most effective
D. All of the above way and
5. When engineer enters management, channeling resources?
what is the most likely problem he finds A. Directing
difficult to B. Planning
acquire? C. Organizing
A. Learning to trust others D. Leading
B. Learning how to work through others 10. Actual performance normally is the
C. Learning how to take satisfaction in the same as the original plan and therefore it is
work of others necessary to
D. All of the above check for deviation and to take corrective
6. What management functions refers to action. This action refers to what
the process of anticipating problems, management
analyzing them, function?
estimating their likely impact and A. Organizing
determining actions that will lead to the B. Planning
desired outcomes C. Controlling
and goals? D. Staffing
A. Planning 11. What refers to management function
which is to encourage others to follow the controlling a project at each stage of its
example development?
set for them, with great commitment and A. R & D model
conviction? B. Project feasibility
A. Staffing C. Life cycle model
B. Motivating D. All of the above
C. Controlling 17. What project life cycle model is the
D. Leading most relevant for information technology
12. What refers to a principal function of project?
lower management which is to instill in the A. Morris model
workforce B. Waterfall model
a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing C. Incremental release model
the goals of the organization? D. Prototype model
A. Directing 18. In project management, “R & D” stands
B. Motivating for:
C. Staffing A. Retail Distribution
D. Controlling B. Research and Development
13. What refers to the collection of the tolls C. Repair and Develop
and techniques that are used on a D. Reduce and Deduce
predefined set 19. In project management O & M stands
of inputs to produce a predefined set of for:
outputs? A. Operation and Manpower
A. Project Management B. Operation and Maintenance
B. Engineering Management C. Operation and Management
C. Management D. Operation and Mission
D. Planning 20. A project management must be very
14. Which is NOT an element of project good in which of the following skills?
management process? A. Communication skills
A. Data and information B. Human relationship skills
B. Research and development C. Leadership skills
C. Decision making D. All of the above
D. Implementation and action 21. Project integration management
15. What is the most essential attribute of a involves which of the following processes?
project manager? A. Project plan development
A. Leadership B. Project plan execution
B. Charisma C. Integrated change control
C. Communication skill D. Quality planning
D. Knowledge 22. Project quality management involves all
16. In project management, what provides a of the following processes except:
simple yet effective means of monitoring A. Quality planning
and B. Quality assurance
C. Quality Control A. General Management
D. Quality feature B. Engineering Management
23. What is defined as an organized method C. Production Management
of providing past, present, and projected D. Operations Management
information on internal operations and 29. For a project manager to achieve his
external intelligence for use in decision- given set of goals through other people, he
making? must have
A. Electronic Data Processing Systems a good __________.
B. Management Information System A. Interpersonal skills
C. Central Processing System B. Communication skills
D. Data Management System C. Leadership
24. Middle management level undertakes D. Decision- making skills
what planning activity? 30. What type of conflict do managers
A. Intermediate planning encounter when there is disagreement on
B. Strategic planning issues of
C. Operational planning territorial power or hidden agenda?
D. Direct planning A. Technical opinion conflict
25. Strategic planning is undertaken in B. Politics
which management level? C. Ambiguous roles
A. Lower management level D. Managerial procedure conflict
B. Middle management level 31. The process of partitioning an
C. Top management level organization into subunits to improve
D. Lowest management level efficiency is known as
26. What is the advantage of free-rein style __________.
of leadership? A. Division of labor
A. Little managerial control and high degree B. Segmentation
of risk C. Departmentalization
B. Time consuming and cost ineffective D. Territorialization
C. Little ideas from subordinate in decision- 32. By departmentalization of an
making organization, it decentralizes __________?
D. All of the above A. Authority
27. If you are appointed as a division B. Responsibility
manager, your first task is most likely to C. Accountability
A. Set goals D. All of the above
B. Determine the resources needed 33. What type of committee companies or
C. Set a standard corporations created for a short term
D. Develop strategies and tactics purpose only?
28. What is defined as the process of A. Interim committee
planning, organizing, and controlling B. Temporary committee
operations to reach C. Standing committee
objective efficiently and effectively? D. Ad hoc committee
34. What refers to a description of whether 39. What type of authority refers to a
the objectives are accomplished? specialist’s right to oversee lower level
A. Efficiency personnel
B. Effectiveness involved in the project regardless of the
C. Ability to manage personnel’s assignment in the organization?
D. Decision- making ability A. Top authority
35. An engineering is required to finish a B. Line authority
certain engineering job in 20 days. He is said C. Staff authority
to be D. Functional authority
__________ if he finished the job within the 40. When a consultant or specialist gives
required period of 20 days advice to his superior, he is using what type
A. Efficient of
B. Effective authority?
C. Reliable A. Top authority
D. Qualified B. Line authority
36. If an engineer provides less input (labor C. Staff authority
and materials) to his project and still come D. Functional authority
out with 41. When structuring an organization, the
the same output, he is said to be more engineer manager must be concerned with
__________. the
A. Managerial skill determining the scope of words and how it
B. Economical is combined in a job. This refers to
C. Effective __________.
D. Efficient A. Division of labor
37. To determine a qualified applicant, the B. Delegation of authority
engineer manager will subject the applicant C. Departmentation
to a test D. Span of control
that is used to measure a person’s current 42. When structuring an organization, the
knowledge of a subject? engineer must be concerned with the
A. Interest test grouping of
B. Aptitude test related jobs, activities, or processes into
C. Performance test major organizational subunits. This refers
D. Personality test to:
38. What type of training is a combination A. Division of labor
of on-the-job training and experience with B. Delegation of authority
classroom C. Departmentation
instruction in particular subject? D. Span of control
A. On-the-job training 43. Which technique will the manager use
B. Vestibule school when evaluating alternative using
C. Apprenticeship program qualitative
D. In-basket evaluation?
A. Comparison technique involving limited or partial information
B. Intuition and subjective judgment about the decision environment?
C. Rational technique A. Sampling theory
D. Analytical technique B. Linear programming
44. Which technique will the manager use C. Decision theory
when evaluating alternative using D. Simulation
quantitative 49. What is quantitative technique where
evaluation? samples of populations are statistically
A. Rational and analytical techniques determined to
B. Intuition and subjective judgment be used for a number of processes, such as
C. Comparison in number technique quality control and marketing research?
D. Cost analysis A. Sampling theory
45. What refers to the strategic statement B. Linear programming
that identifies why an organization exists, C. Statistical decision theory
its philosophy of management, and its D. Simulation
purpose as distinguished from other similar 50. The engineer manager must be concern
organizations in terms of products, services with the needs of his human resources.
and markets? What refers to the need of the employees
A. Corporate mission for food, drinks, and rest?
B. Corporate vision A. Physiological need
C. Corporate character B. Security need
D. Corporate identity C. Esteem need
46. What refers to a process of influencing D. Self - actualization need
and supporting others to work
enthusiastically
toward achieving objectives?
A. Power
Choose the letter of the best answer in each
B. Leadership
questions.
C. Teamwork
51. What refers to the learning that is
D. Charisma
provided in order to improve performance
47. What describes how to determine the
on the
number of service units that will minimize
present job?
both customer’s waiting time and cost of
A. Training
service?
B. Development
A. Queuing theory
C. Vestibule
B. Network model
D. Specialized courses
C. Sampling theory
52. What technique is best suited for
D. Simulation
projects that contain many repetitions of
48. What refers to the rational way to
some standard
conceptualize, analyze and solve problems
activities?
in situations
A. Benchmark job technique
B. Parametric technique
C. Modular technique
D. Non- modular technique
53. What organizational structure is based
on the assumption that each unit should
specialize in
a specific functional area and perform all of
the tasks that require its expertise?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
54. What type of organization structure in
which each project is assigned to a single
organizational unit and the various
functions are performed by personnel
within the unit?
A. Functional organization
B. Territorial organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
55. What organizational structure provides
a sound basis for balancing the use of
human
resources and skills?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
56. In which type of organization where the
structure can lead to a “dual boss”
phenomenon?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Process organization
D. Product organization
57. Which one is an advantage of a matrix
organization?
A. Rapid reaction organization
B. Adaptation to changing environment
C. State-of-the-art technology
D. Better utilization of resources
58. Which one is a disadvantage of a matrix
organization?
A. Dual accountability of personnel
B. Conflicts between project and functional
managers
C. Profit-and-loss accountability difficult
D. Inefficient use of specialist
59. Which one is an advantage projectized
organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Good project schedule and cost control
C. Single point for customer contact
D. Rapid reaction time possible
60. Which one is a disadvantage of a
projectized organization?
A. Uncertain technical direction
B. Inefficient use of specialist
C. Insecurity regarding future job
assignments
D. Slower work flow
61. Which one is an advantage of a
functional organization?
A. Efficient use of technical personnel
B. Rapid reaction time possible
C. Career continuity and growth of technical
personnel
D. Good technology transfer between
projects
62. Which one is disadvantage of a
functional organization?
A. Weak customer interface
B. Weak project authority
C. Inefficient use of specialist
D. Slower work flow
63. In what type of organization where a
project manager is held responsible for
completion of
the project and is often assigned a budget?
A. Functional organization
B. Matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Project coordinated organization
64. In selecting an organizational structure,
which of the following is not a criterion?
A. Finance and accounting
B. Customer relation
C. Location
D. Technology
65. What is NOT a factor to be taken into
consideration when selecting an
organizational
structure for managing projects?
A. Overhead cost
B. Type of technology used
C. Location of the project
D. Level of uncertainty in projects
66. If a project have multidimensional goals,
the project manager often use his
__________ to
reach a compromise solution.
A. Leadership
B. Tradeoff analysis skill
C. Authority
D. Decision-making skill
67. Who is responsible for ensuring that the
project is completed successfully as
measured by
time, cost, performance and stakeholder
satisfaction?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Chief engineer
D. Department supervisor
68. Who is responsible for running a
department so that all his customers are
served efficiently
and effectively?
A. Area manager
B. Sales manager
C. Functional manager
D. Project manager
69. What is the major activity of the project
support office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via the internet
70. What is the major activity of the project
office?
A. Administrative support for projects
B. Support for tools and techniques
C. Overall project management support
D. Project management via internet
71. What is an important tool for the design
and implementation of the project’s work
content?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Life cycle model
D. Project design chart
72. What chart summarizes the
relationships between project stakeholders
and their
responsibilities in each project element?
A. Linear responsibility chart
B. Matrix responsibility chart
C. Responsibility interface matrix
D. All of the above
73. What network model enables engineer
managers to schedule, monitor, and control
large
and complex projects by using only one
time factor per activity?
A. Forecasting
B. Critical path method
C. Program evaluation review technique
D. Simulation
74. What network model enables engineer
managers to schedule, monitor, and control
large
and complex projects by employing three
time estimate for each activity? probability that the project will be
A. Forecasting completed by a specific date
B. Critical path method D. All of the above
C. Program evaluation review technique 78. The CPM was developed by Rand and
D. Simulation Walker in what year?
75. For a project manager to have an A. 1957
effective means of identifying and B. 1958
communicating the C. 1959
planned activities and their D. 1960
interrelationships, he must use a network 79. In what year was PERT developed?
technique. One of the A. 1957
network techniques is commonly known as B. 1958
CPM. What does CPM stands for? C. 1959
A. Critical plan method D. 1960
B. Critical path method 80. In Morris life cycle model, a project is
C. Critical project method divided into how many stages to be
D. Coordinated plan method performed in
76. For a project manager to have an sequence?
efficient means of identifying and A. 3
communicating the B. 4
planned activities and their C. 5
interrelationships, he must use a network D. 6
technique. One of the 81. What is the first stage in the life cycle of
network techniques is commonly known as a project using Morris model?
PERT. What does Pert stands for? A. Planning and design
A. Project evaluation review technique B. Feasibility
B. Program evaluation review technique C. Production
C. Path evaluation review technique D. Turnover and startup
D. Program execution review technique 82. Risk management is:
77. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM A. Risk avoidance
network as integral component of project B. Controlling risk
management? C. To gain opportunities
A. They furnish a consistent framework for D. All of the above
planning, scheduling, monitoring and 83. What technique a manager must use if
controlling he decides to absorb the risk in the project?
project. A. Create buffer in the form of management
B. They illustrate the interdependencies of reserve or extra time in schedule
all tasks B. Use a different technology
C. They can be used to estimate the C. Use a different supplier
expected project completion dares as well D. Buying insurance
as the 84. Buying insurance is a form of:
A. Risk elimination the engineer manager in-charge:
B. Risk reduction A. Lacks leadership skill
C. Risk sharing B. Has inadequate control
D. Risk absorption C. Has poor organization
85. What refers to any technique used D. Has no proper planning
either to minimize the probability of an 90. What principal element of uncertainty
accident or to refers to a measure of the relevance of
mitigate its consequences? available
A. Reliability management information to the problem at hand?
B. Risk management A. Statistical confidence
C. Quality assurance management B. Tolerance
D. Project assurance management C. Incompleteness of the data
86. What refers to the techniques that D. Ambiguity in modeling the problem
encompass risk assignment and the 91. One of the mnemonic management tool
inclusive evaluation used is the SMEAC. What does the acronym
of risk, costs and benefits of alternative SMEAC
projects or policies? stands for?
A. Risk management A. Situation, Mission, Execution,
B. Risk-benefit analysis Administration, Coordination
C. Benefit management B. Situation, Mission, Execution,
D. Uncertainty analysis Application, Communication
87. What is measured by the amount of C. Situation, Mission, Execution,
resources that a manager can allocate Administration, Communication
without the D. Strategy, Mission, Execution,
need to get an approval from his or her Administration, Communication
manager? 92. In the management tools, SMEAC,
A. Responsibility where A stands for administration, which is
B. Leadership the
C. Authority appropriate question will the manager ask?
D. Tradeoff skill A. What do we need to get it done?
88. What is defined as a course of action B. What are we aiming to do?
aimed at ensuring that the organization will C. How are we going to do it?
achieve its D. What is the operation environment?
objectives? 93. In project management, what is usually
A. Goal the first step underlying in the process of
B. Strategy performing a project?
C. Program A. Select appropriate performance
D. Plan measures
89. When there is a degradation of service B. Define the goals of the project and their
provided by the company to clients, it is a relative importance
sign that C. Identify a need for a product or service
D. Develop a technological concept C. Policy chart
94. In the process of performing a project, D. Control chart
after the need for a product or service is 99. What is defined as the process of
identified, identifying and choosing alternative courses
what is usually the next step? of action in a
A. Define the goals of the project and their manner appropriate to the demands of the
relative importance situations?
B. Develop a budget A. Sampling theory
C. Develop a schedule B. Alternative-analysis
D. Develop the technological concept C. Problem-solving
95. What is usually the last step in the D. Decision-making
process of performing a project? 100. What refers to the activity of
A. Select appropriate performance incorporating the technical know how with
measures the ability to
B. Implement a plan organize and coordinate workforce,
C. Monitor and control the project materials, equipment and all other
D. Evaluate project success resources including
96. To consider the consequence of money?
uncertainly on project management, laws A. Engineering management
on project B. Engineering technology
management are developed. One of which C. Technical manger
is “A careless planned project will take D. General management
__________
times longer to complete than expected”.
A. Three Choose the letter of the best answer in each
B. Four questions.
C. Two 101. Defined as the creative problem
D. Two and a half solving process of planning, organizing,
97. In the typical functional organization leading, and
hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the controlling an organization’s resources to
__________. achieve its mission and objectives.
A. Finance manager A. Management
B. Manufacturing manager B. Planning
C. General manager C. Organizing
D. Marketing manager D. Supervision
98. What is a diagram of the organization’s 102. Refers to the activity combining
official positions and formal lines of “technical knowledge with the ability to
authority organize and
called? coordinate worker power, materials,
A. Organization chart machinery, and money.”
B. Authority chart A. Engineering Management
B. Engineering Materials D. Manufacturing
C. Engineering Organization 108. A function of an engineer where the
D. Engineering Club engineer is either directly in charge of the
103. The following are considered as construction personnel or may have
functions of an engineer except responsibility for the quality of the
A. Testing construction process.
B. Construction A. Construction
C. Sales B. Sales
D. Physical Education C. Consulting
104. A function of an engineer where the D. Government
engineer is engaged in the process of 109. A function of an engineer where the
learning about engineer assists the company’s customers
nature and codifying this knowledge into to meet
usable theories. their needs, especially those that require
A. Research technical expertise.
B. Design and Development A. Construction
C. Testing B. Government
D. Manufacturing C. Consulting
105. A function of an engineer where the D. Sales
engineer undertakes the activity of turning 110. A function of an engineer where the
a product engineer works as consultant of any
concept to a finished physical term. individual or
A. Research organization requiring his services.
B. Manufacturing A. Construction
C. Testing B. Sales
D. Design and Development C. Consulting
106. A function of an engineer where the D. Government
engineer works in a unit where new 111. A function of an engineer where the
products or parts engineer may find employment in the
are tested for workability. government
A. Research performing any of the various tasks in
B. Design and Development regulating, monitoring, and controlling the
C. Testing activities of
D. Manufacturing various institutions, public or private.
107. A function of an engineer where the A. Construction
engineer is directly in charge of production B. Sales
personnel C. Government
or assumes responsibility for the product. D. Consulting
A. Research 112. A function of an engineer where the
B. Design and Development engineer gets employment in a school and
C. Testing is assigned
as a teacher of engineering courses. using any technique in a group classified as
A. Teaching rational
B. Government and analytical.
C. Management A. Quantitative evaluation
D. Consulting B. Qualitative evaluation
113. A function of an engineer where the C. Relative evaluation
engineer is assigned to manage groups of D. Subjective evaluation
people 119. Refers to the management function
performing specific tasks. that involves anticipating future trends and
A. Teaching determining the best strategies and tactics
B. Government to achieve organizational objectives.
C. Management A. Management
D. Consulting B. Planning
114. Defined as the process of identifying C. Organizing
and choosing alternative courses of action D. Supervision
in a 120. Refers to the process of determining
manner appropriate to the demands of the the major goals of the organization and the
situation. policies
A. Decision Making and strategies for obtaining and using
B. Engineering Management resources to achieve those goals.
C. Initiative A. Operational Planning
D. Problem solving B. Intermediate Planning
115. The first step in Decision making C. Strategic planning
process is to D. Secondary Planning
A. Analyze environment 121. The top management of any firm is
B. Diagnose problem involved in this type of planning.
C. Make a choice A. Operational Planning
D. Articulate problem or opportunity B. Intermediate Planning
116. The last step in decision making C. Strategic planning
process is to D. Secondary Planning
A. Analyze environment 122. Refers to the process of determining
B. Make a choice the contributions that subunits can make
C. Diagnose problem with
D. Evaluate and adapt decision results allocated resources.
117. Refers to evaluation of alternatives A. Operational Planning
using intuition and subjective judgment. B. Intermediate Planning
A. Quantitative evaluation C. Strategic planning
B. Qualitative evaluation D. Secondary Planning
C. Relative evaluation 123. This type of planning is undertaken by
D. Subjective evaluation middle management.
118. Refers to evaluation of alternatives A. Operational Planning
B. Intermediate Planning C. Production Plan
C. Strategic planning D. Short-range plans
D. Secondary Planning 129. It is a document that indicates the
124. Refers to the process of determining human resource needs of a company
how specific tasks can best be accomplished detailed in terms
on time of quantity and quality and based on the
with available resources. requirements of the company’s strategic
A. Operational Planning plan.
B. Intermediate Planning A. Marketing Plan
C. Strategic planning B. Financial Plan
D. Secondary Planning C. Production Plan
125. This type of planning is a responsibility D. Human Resource Management Plan
of lower management. 130. These are plans intended to cover a
A. Operational Planning period of less than one year. First-line
B. Intermediate Planning supervisors are
C. Strategic planning mostly concerned with these planes.
D. Secondary Planning A. Short-range plans
126. This is the written document or B. Long-range plans
blueprint for implementing and controlling C. Standing Plans
an D. Single-Use Plans
organization’s marketing activities related 131. These are plans covering a time span
to particular marketing strategy. of more than one year. These are mostly
A. Marketing Plan undertaken
B. Financial Plan by middle and top management.
C. Production Plan A. Short-range plans
D. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans
127. This is a written document that states C. Standing Plans
the quantity of output a company must D. Single-Use Plans
produce in 132. Plans that are used again and again
broad terms and by product family. and they focus on managerial situations
A. Marketing Plan that recur
B. Financial Plan repeatedly.
C. Production Plan A. Short-range plans
D. Short-range plans B. Long-range plans
128. It is a document that summarizes the C. Standing Plans
current financial situation of the firm, D. Single-Use Plans
analyzes 133. These are broad guidelines to aid
financial needs, and recommends a managers at every level in making decisions
direction for financial activities. about
A. Marketing Plan recurring situations or function.
B. Financial Plan A. Policies
B. Procedures support a program.
C. Guidelines A. Project
D. Rules B. Budget
134. These are plans that describe the exact C. Program
series of actions to be taken in a given D. Financial Statement
situation. 140. A management function which refers
A. Policies to the structuring of resources and activities
B. Procedures to
C. Guidelines accomplish objectives in an efficient and
D. Rules effective manner.
135. These are statements that either A. Organizing
require or forbid a certain action. B. Planning
A. Policies C. Supervising
B. Procedures D. Structure
C. Guidelines 141. The arrangement or relationship of
D. Rules positions within an organization.
136. Specifically developed to implement A. Organizing
courses of action that are relatively unique B. Planning
and are C. Supervising
unlikely to be repeated. D. Structure
A. Short-range plans 142. This is a form of departmentalization in
B. Long-range plans which everyone engaged in one functional
C. Standing Plans activity,
D. Single-Use Plans such as engineering or marketing, is
137. A plan which sets forth the projected grouped into one unit.
expenditure for a certain activity and A. Functional Organization
explains where B. Product or Market Organization
the required funds will come from. C. Matrix Organization
A. Project D. Divisible Organization
B. Budget 143. This type of organization is very
C. Program effective in similar firms especially “single
D. Financial Statement business firms
138. A plan designed to coordinate a large where key activities revolve around well-
set of activities. defined skills and areas of specialization”.
A. Project A. Functional Organization
B. Budget B. Product or Market Organization
C. Program C. Matrix Organization
D. Financial Statement D. Divisible Organization
139. A plan that is usually more limited in 144. This refers to the organization of a
scope than a program and is sometimes company by a division that brings together
prepared to all those
involved with a certain type of product or A. Line authority
customer. B. Staff authority
A. Functional Organization C. Functional authority
B. Product or Market Organization D. Head authority
C. Matrix Organization 150. A committee created for a short-term
D. Divisible Organization purpose and have a limited life.
145. This is appropriate for a large A. Ad hoc committee
corporation with many product lines in B. Standing committee
several related C. Sinking committee
industries. D. Midget committee
A. Functional Organization
B. Product or Market Organization
C. Matrix Organization Choose the letter of the best answer in each
D. Divisible Organization questions.
146. An organizational structure in which 151. A permanent committee that deals
each employee reports both a functional or with issues on an ongoing basis.
division A. Ad hoc committee
manager and to a project or group B. Standing committee
manager. C. Sinking committee
A. Functional Organization D. Midget committee
B. Product or Market Organization 152. Defined as the management function
C. Matrix Organization that determines human resource needs,
D. Divisible Organization recruits,
147. Refers to a manager’s right to tell selects, trains, and develops human
subordinates what to do and then see that resources for jobs created by an
they do it. organization.
A. Line authority A. Resourcing
B. Staff authority B. Recruitment
C. Functional authority C. Hiring
D. Head authority D. Staffing
148. A staff specialist’s right to give advice 153. An assessment of future human
to a superior. resource needs in relation to the current
A. Line authority capabilities of
B. Staff authority the organization.
C. Functional authority A. Forecasting
D. Head authority B. Control
149. A specialist’s right to oversee lower C. Programming
level personnel involved in that specialty, D. Recruitment
regardless of 154. Refers to translation of the forecasted
where the personnel are in the human resource needs to personnel
organization. objectives and
goals. present
A. Forecasting job.
B. Control A. Performance Appraisal
C. Programming B. Induction and Orientation
D. Recruitment C. Training and Development
155. This refers to monitoring human D. Monetary Rewards
resource action plans and evaluating their 160. Refers to a movement by a person into
success. a position of higher pay and greater
A. Forecasting responsibilities
B. Evaluation and Control and which is given as a reward for
C. Programming competence and ambition.
D. Recruitment A. Monetary reward
156. Refers to attracting qualified persons B. Promotion
to apply for vacant positions in the C. Demotion
company so that D. Transfer
those who are best suited to serve the 161. The movement of a person to a
company may be selected. different job at the same or similar level of
A. Forecasting responsibility in
B. Evaluation and Control the organization.
C. Programming A. Monetary reward
D. Recruitment B. Promotion
157. Refers to the act of choosing from C. Demotion
those that are available than individuals D. Transfer
most likely to 162. The movement from one position to
succeed on the job. another which has less pay or responsibility
A. Forecasting attached
B. Evaluation and Control to it. It is used as a form of punishment or
C. Selection as a temporary measure to keep an
D. Training employee until
158. In this staffing procedure, the new he is offered a higher position.
employee is provided with the necessary A. Separation
information B. Promotion
about the company and will be introduced C. Demotion
to the immediate working environment and D. Transfer
coworkers. 163. Either a voluntary or involuntary
A. Performance Appraisal termination of an employee.
B. Induction and Orientation A. Separation
C. Training and Development B. Transfer
D. Monetary Rewards C. Termination
159. Refers to the learning that is provided D. Demotion
in order to improve performance on the 164. A process of sharing information
through symbols, including words and A. Verbal
message. B. Oral
A. Counseling C. Written
B. Communication D. Nonverbal
C. Hypnotism 170. Refers to the process of activating
D. Language behavior, sustaining it, and directing it
165. Function of communication that can be toward a
used for decision-making at various work particular goal.
levels in A. Suppression
the organization. B. Motivation
A. Information Function C. Praising
B. Emotive Function D. Unification
C. Motivation Function 171. The following are considered as factors
D. Control Function contributing to motivation except:
166. A function of communication used as a A. Willingness to do a job
means to motivate employees to commit B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task
themselves to the organizations objectives. C. Needs satisfaction
A. Information Function D. Inferiority complex
B. Emotive Function 172. The following are considered theories
C. Motivation Function of Motivation except:
D. Control Function A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory
167. Function of communication that deals B. Expectancy Theory
when feelings are repressed in the C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory
organization, D. Gagarin’s Theory
employees are affected by anxiety, which, 173. It is a management function which
in turn, affects performance. involves influencing others to engage in the
A. Information Function work
B. Emotive Function behaviors necessary to reach organizational
C. Motivation Function goals.
D. Control Function A. Sales talk
168. A form of communication transmitted B. Motivation
through hearing or sight. C. Leading
A. Verbal D. Commanding
B. Oral 174. A person who occupies a higher
C. Written position has power over persons in lower
D. Nonverbal positions within
169. A means of conveying message the organization. This describes:
through body language, as well as the use A. Legitimate power
of time, space, B. Referent power
touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic C. Coercive power
elements. D. Reward power
175. When a person has the ability to give management anticipates problems and
rewards to anybody who follows orders or prevents their
requests, occurrence.
it termed as: A. Feed forward control
A. Legitimate power B. Preventive control
B. Referent power C. Concurrent control
C. Coercive power D. Feedback control
D. Reward power 181. A type of controlling when the
176. When a person compels with orders operations are already ongoing and
through treats or punishment. activities to detect
A. Legitimate power variances are made.
B. Referent power A. Feed forward control
C. Coercive power B. Preventive control
D. Reward power C. Concurrent control
177. When a person can get compliance D. Feedback control
from another because the latter would 182. A type of controlling when information
want to be is gathered about a completed activity, and
identified with the former. in
A. Legitimate power order that evaluation and steps for
B. Referent power improvement are derived.
C. Coercive power A. Feed forward control
D. Reward power B. Preventive control
178. Which of the following is not a trait of C. Concurrent control
an effective leader: D. Feedback control
A. A high level of personal drive 183. Refers to any process that accepts
B. Knowledge of the company, industry or inputs and uses resources to change those
technology inputs in
C. Charisma useful ways.
D. Greedy A. Operation
179. Refers to the process of ascertaining B. Production
whether organizational objectives have C. Construction
been D. Creation
achieved and determining what activities 184. The process of planning, organizing,
should then be taken to achieve objectives and controlling operations to reach
better in objectives
the future. efficiently and effectively.
A. Planning A. Planning
B. Controlling B. Operations management
C. Evaluation C. Evaluation management
D. Inspection D. Backboning
180. A type of controlling when the 185. A process of creating a set of product
specifications appropriate to the demands C. Inventory Control
of the D. Purchasing and Materials Management
situation. 190. The process of determining the
A. Product Design physical arrangement of the production
B. Blueprinting system.
C. Product planning A. Work-Flow Layout
D. Conceptualizing B. Quality Control
186. Refers to forecasting the future sales C. Inventory Control
of a given product, translating this forecast D. Purchasing and Materials Management
into the 191. Refers to the measurement of
demand it generates for various production products or services against standards set
facilities, and arranging for the by the company.
procurement of A. Work-Flow Layout
these facilities. B. Quality Control
A. Product Design C. Inventory Control
B. Blueprinting D. Purchasing and Materials Management
C. Product planning 192. A group of activities designed to
D. Conceptualizing facilitate and expedite the selling of goods
187. The phase of production control and services.
involved in developing timetables that A. Advertisement
specify how long B. Commercial
each operation in the production process C. Marketing
takes. D. Sales
A. Plotting 193. The four P’s of marketing are the
B. Scheduling following except:
C. Timetable A. Product
D. Anticipating B. Price
188. Refers to the approach that seeks C. Promotion
efficiency of operation through integration D. Publicity
of all 194. It includes the tangible (or intangible)
material acquisition, movement, and item and its capacity to satisfy a specified
storage activities in the firm. need.
A. Work A. Product
B. Quality Control B. Price
C. Inventory Control C. Promotion
D. Purchasing and Materials Management D. Place
189. The process of establishing and 195. Refers to the money or other
maintaining appropriate levels of reserve considerations exchanged for the purchase
stocks of goods. or use of the
A. Work-Flow Layout product, idea, or service.
B. Quality Control A. Product
B. Price B. Publicity
C. Promotion C. Sales promotion
D. Place D. Personal selling
196. An important factor for a company to
locate in places where they can be easily
reached by
their customers.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
197. Defined as communicating information
between seller and potential buyer to
influence
attitudes and behavior.
A. Product
B. Price
C. Promotion
D. Place
198. A type of promotion where a paid
message appears in mass media for the
purpose of
informing or persuading people about
particular products, services, beliefs, or
action.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
199. The promotional tool that publishes
news or information about a product,
service, or idea
on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by
the sponsor.
A. Advertising
B. Publicity
C. Sales promotion
D. Personal selling
200. A more aggressive means of promoting
the sales of a product or service.
A. Advertising