ATP Met

1/17/2019 Free ATP Multiengine
Home (/free-faa-exam/) / ATP Multiengine (/free-faa-exam/atp) / Test (/free-faa-exam/atp/taketest/125/82002) / Results
FAA ATP Multiengine Test

Questions Taken: 125
Questions Answered Correctly: 85
Your Score!
68.0%
The FAA passing score for the ATP Multiengine Test is 70% or better, we recommend you
purchase KING Schools ATP Multiengine Online Video Ground School and Test Prep Course
(http://www.kingschools.com/ground-school/atp/?sco=WB&scu=FAATST01) for a complete
and always current ground school and test prep rolled together in one package.
KING thoroughly covers each subject area in fun and easy to understand presentations. Your
learning is reinforced by answering actual FAA ATP Multiengine test questions that follow
each segment of instruction. You can even take unlimited practice tests from the entire test
question bank! Unlike this free test site, all test answers in the course have detailed
explanations so you understand what is the right answer and why the others are incorrect.
Try it Risk-Free. If you don’t like it, return it for a full refund within 30-days of your purchase.
LEARN MORE (HTTP://WWW.KINGSCHOOLS.COM/GROUND-SCHOOL/ATP/?SCO=WB&SCU=FAATST01)
This free testing site only provides answer explanations for the first question result. For our full
online video ground school including over 20 hours of video instruction, all question
explanations, and test prep tools, please purchase our course here
(http://www.kingschools.com/ground-school/atp/?sco=WB&scu=FAATST01).
1. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a

thunderstorm?
A. Beginning of rain at the surface.
B. Frequent lightning.
C. Continuous updraft.
The key feature of the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is continuous

updrafts that cause the formation of the cloud.
Answer A is incorrect because rain beginning at the surface signals the
beginning of the mature stage. Answer B is incorrect because lightning is
https://www.kingschools.com/free-faa-exam/atp/gradetest 1/26
associated with the friction created by the electrically charged ice crystals
and water droplets colliding in the updrafts and downdrafts during the mature
stage of the thunderstorm.
2. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by

thunderstorms.
B. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found

near a strong temperature inversion.
C. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at

any level in the atmosphere.
3. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A. Convection currents at the surface.
B. Cold temperatures.
C. Poor visibility.
4. What sources reflect the most accurate information on current and forecast
icing conditions?
A. Low-Level Sig Weather Prog Chart, RADAT's, and the Area Forecast.
B. PIREP's, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
C. PIREP's, AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.
5. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level

temperature inversion wind shear?
A. The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at
least 10 ºC.
B. A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just
above the inversion.
C. A wind direction difference of at least 30º between the wind near the
surface and the wind just above the inversion.
6. Where can the maximum hazard zone caused by wind shear associated with a
thunderstorm be found?
A. In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the southwest side
of the cell.
B. Ahead of the roll cloud or gust front and directly under the anvil cloud.
C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.
7. What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged

or decreases slightly as altitude is increased?
A. The air is unstable.
B. A temperature inversion exists.
C. The air is stable.
8. Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with
A. fast moving warm front.
B. fast moving cold front.
C. dry lines.
9. (Refer to figures 153, 154, and 155.) What is the relative moisture
content of the air mass approaching the California coast?
A. Dry.
B. Moist enough for condensation.
C. Very wet with high potential for clouds and precipitation.
10. A prognostic chart depicts the conditions
A. existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
B. which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar

level.
C. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
11. (Refer to figures 153, 154, and 155.) Determine the approximate wind
direction and velocity at FL 240 over the station in central Oklahoma.
A. 280° at 10 knots.
B. 320° at 10 knots.
C. 330° at 13 knots.
12. (Refer to figures 153, 154, and 155.) What is the approximate temperature
for a flight from southern California to central Kansas at FL 350?
A. -16 ºC.
B. -39 ºC.
C. -41 ºC.
13. Precipitation induced fog
A. results from relatively warm rain or drizzle falling through cooler air.
B. results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling through warmer air.
C. is usually of short duration.
14. (Refer to figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?
A. Light rain showers.
B. Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.
C. The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.
15. Where are jet streams normally located?
A. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.
B. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are

located.
C. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break

between the equatorial and polar tropopause.
16. (Refer to figure 151.) A planned low-altitude flight from central

Oklahoma to western Tennessee at 1200Z is likely to encounter
A. continuous or intermittent rain or rain showers, moderate turbulence, and

freezing temperatures below 8,000 feet.
B. continuous or showery rain over half or more of the area, moderate

turbulence, and freezing temperatures above 10,000 feet.
C. showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence

below 18,000 feet, and freezing temperatures above 12,000 feet.
17. Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered
A. 10 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
B. 15 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
C. 20 miles from the severe thunderstorm.
18. What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind
condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A. Light and variable.
B. Wind shear.
C. Frontal passage.
19. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes slight, rapid, and
somewhat rhythmic bumpiness without appreciable changes in attitude or
altitude, less than one-third of the time?
A. Occasional light chop.
B. Moderate turbulence.
C. Moderate chop.
20. (Refer to figures 201, and 201A.) What type of weather information would
normally be expected to be available from the Weather Data Source at Ogden-
Hinckley?
A. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint,

altimeter, surface winds, and any pertinent remarks.
B. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation,

and the intensity of the precipitation.
C. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter,

wind data, and density altitude.
21. Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS
on
A. 122.1 MHz.
B. 122.0 MHz.
C. 123.6 MHz.
22. Forecast winds and temperatures aloft for an international flight may be
obtained by consulting
A. Area Forecasts published by the departure location host country.
B. the current International Weather Depiction Chart appropriate to the

route.
C. Wind and Temperature Aloft Charts prepared by the U.S. National Centers of
Environmental Prediction (NCEP).
23. Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be
encountered?
A. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.
B. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart.
C. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
24. In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind

direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears.
A calm wind appears in the TAF as
A. VRB00KT.
B. 00000KT.
C. 00003KT.
25. Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move
A. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies.
B. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow.
C. directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.
26. Data that may be added (manual weather augmentation) to the Automated
Weather Observing System (AWOS) report is limited to
A. the precipitation accumulation report, an automated variable visibility,

and wind direction remark.
B. thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and

intensity), and obstructions to visibility (dependent on the visibility being
3 miles or less).
C. density Altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant range visibility.
27. (Refer to figure 146.) What method was used to obtain the METAR at Tyler
(KTYR) at 1753Z?
A. Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS), having a precipitation

discriminator.
B. Automatic Meteorological Observing Station (AMOS), with a precipitation

discriminator.
C. Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS), without a precipitation

discriminator.
28. What is a likely location of clear air turbulences?
A. In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B. Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C. Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
29. (Refer to figure 151.) The 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart
indicates that West Virginia will likely experience
A. continuous or showery precipitation covering half or more of the area.
B. thunderstorms and rain showers covering half or more of the area.
C. continuous rain covering less than half of the area.
30. What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
A. Trough.
B. Ridge.
C. Hurricane or typhoon.
31. In which meteorological conditions can frontal waves and low pressure
areas form?
A. Warm fronts or occluded fronts.
B. Slow-moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
C. Cold front occlusions.
32. When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?
A. On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
B. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation.
C. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint

spread.
33. What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather?
A. Variations of solar energy at the Earth's surface.
B. Changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
C. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
34. Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to
increase and the sink rate to decrease?
A. Sudden decrease in a headwind component.
B. Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity.
C. Sudden increase in a headwind component.
35. A cyclone is
A. a tropical storm in the Atlantic with highest sustained winds of 35

through 64 knots.
B. a tropical depression in the Northwest Pacific with sustained winds of 63

knots.
C. a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean with highest sustained winds
of 65 knots or greater.
36. (Refer to figure 186.) The NAVAID box at Mormon Mesa (MMM) has a black
square in the upper left corner. What does this indicate?
A. That Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service is available.
B. That the National Observatory transmits a time signal on the VOR

frequency.
C. That the facility has a Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) service on

the frequency.
37. What is the general direction of movement of a hurricane located in the

Caribbean or Gulf of Mexico region?
A. Northwesterly curving to northeasterly.
B. Westerly, until encountering land, then easterly.
C. Counterclockwise over open water, then dissipating outward over land.
38. Thrust is being managed to maintain desired indicated airspeed and the
glide slope is being flown. Which characteristics should be observed when a
tailwind shears to a constant headwind?
A. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Increases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:

Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
B. PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:

Increases, then decreases.
C. PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases. VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases. INDICATED AIRSPEED:

Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
39. The tropopause is generally found when the free air temperatures are
A. between -55° and -65 °C.
B. between -40° and -55 °C.
C. colder than -60 °C.
40. (Refer to figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and
temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270?
A. 347º magnetic; 5 knots; ISA -10 ºC.
B. 350º true; 5 knots; ISA +5 ºC.
C. 010º true; 5 knots; ISA +13 ºC.
41. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. A stable layer of air.
B. An unstable layer of air.
C. Air mass thunderstorms.
42. How are haze layers cleared or dispersed?
A. By convective mixing in cool night air.
B. By wind or the movement of air.
C. By evaporation similar to the clearing of fog.
43. When you hear a SIGMET on an ATC frequency forecasting severe icing
conditions on the route to your destination, you plan for
A. the installed transport category airplane ice protection system protecting

against all types and levels of icing as designed.
B. very little airframe icing because of an OAT of 10 °C or colder, the

moisture is already frozen and cannot adhere to airplane surfaces.
C. the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle that can accumulate
on and beyond the limits of any system.
44. What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A. It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme

turbulence during the next 24 hours.
B. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity

during the following 24 hours.
C. It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of

instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 mb).
45. Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET?
A. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4

inch hail or tornadoes.
B. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with
1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds.
C. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.
46. What action is appropriate when encountering the first ripple of reported
clear air turbulence (CAT)?
A. Extend flaps to decrease wing loading.
B. Extend gear to provide more drag and increase stability.
C. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air.
47. Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a

constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
A. Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease.
B. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease.
C. Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase.
48. A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome

Forecast (TAF), is encoded as
A. VRB00KT.
B. 00000KT.
C. 00003KT.
49. When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?
A. Every 12 hours as required.
B. Every 24 hours as required.
C. Unscheduled and issued as required.
50. Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as
far as
A. 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
B. 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
C. 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain.
51. (Refer to figure 153.) What type weather system is approaching the
California Coast from the west?
A. LOW.
B. HIGH.
C. Cold front.
52. A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome

Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of
A. thunderstorms or other precipitation.
B. precipitation or low visibility.
C. thunderstorms or high wind.
53. METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44.
Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?
A. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
B. The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL.
C. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.
54. (Refer to figure 145.) What condition is reported at Dallas (KDAL)?
A. The tops of the overcast is 10,000 feet.
B. Temperature/dewpoint spread is 8° F.
C. Altimeter setting is 30.07.
55. (Refer to figure 148.) Which system in the Convective SIGMET listing has
the potential of producing the most severe storm?
A. The storms in Texas and Oklahoma.
B. The storms in Colorado, Kansas, and Oklahoma.
C. The isolated storm 50 miles northeast of Memphis (MEM).
56. SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB
24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA.
This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?
A. Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21.
B. Precipitation started at 57 after the hour.
C. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
57. When saturated air moves downhill, its temperature increases
A. at a faster rate than dry air because of the release of latent heat.
B. at a slower rate than dry air because vaporization uses heat.
C. at a slower rate than dry air because condensation releases heat.
58. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized

predominately by downdrafts?
A. Cumulus.
B. Dissipating.
C. Mature.
59. Adiabatic warming is also described as
A. chronographic warming.
B. expansional heating.
C. compressional heating.
60. The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Services Data

Link (FISDL) provides the following products:
A. METARs, SIGMETs, PIREPs and AIRMETs.
B. SPECIs, SIGMETs, NOTAMs, and AIRMETs.
C. Convective SIGMETs, PIREPs, AWWs, and NOTAMs.
61. Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?
A. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
B. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity.
C. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the
precipitation up the slope.
62. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A. 1,500 ft/min.
B. 4,500 ft/min.
C. 6,000 ft/min.
63. At which location does Coriolis force have the least effect on wind
direction?
A. At the poles.
B. Middle latitudes (30° to 60°).
C. At the Equator.
64. What type turbulence should be reported when it causes changes in

altitude and/or attitude more than two-thirds of the time, with the aircraft
remaining in positive control at all times?
A. Continuous severe chop.
B. Continuous moderate turbulence.
C. Intermittent moderate turbulence.
65. (Refer to figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon
the aircraft in position 3?
A. Decreasing headwind.
B. Increasing tailwind.
C. Strong downdraft.
66. A clear area in a line of thunderstorm echoes on a radar scope indicates
A. the absence of clouds in the area.
B. an area of no convective turbulence.
C. an area where precipitation drops are not detected.
67. Atmospheric pressure changes due to a thunderstorm will be at the lowest

value
A. during the downdraft and heavy rain showers.
B. when the thunderstorm is approaching.
C. immediately after the rain showers have stopped.
68. A steady state thunderstorm is associated with
A. surface heating.
B. weather systems.
C. mature stage.
69. Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during

takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
A. Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance.
B. Decreased takeoff distance.
C. Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff.
70. SIGMETs (other than domestic convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not
more than
A. 4 hours for other phenomena and may be issued 2 hours before the valid
time.
B. 4 hours for other phenomena.
C. 6 hours for other phenomena.
71. Which condition is present when a local parcel of air is stable?
A. The parcel of air resists convection.
B. The parcel of air cannot be forced uphill.
C. As the parcel of air moves upward, its temperature becomes warmer than the
surrounding air.
72. The three jetstreams are
A. the polar front jetstream, the subtropical jetstream and the polar night
jetstream.
B. the polar front jetstream, the subtropical jetstream, and the polar
jetstream.
C. the polar jetstream, the Tropic of Cancer jetstream, and the Maritime
jetstream.
73. METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001.
SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK
RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
A. The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed.
B. Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
C. Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
74. A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205

knots; temperature -51° C at FL 390. How would this data be encoded in the
FD?
A. 7800-51.
B. 789951.
C. 280051.
75. (Refer to figure 145.) What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock
(KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?
A. The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z.
B. The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
C. The temperature and dew point spread improved.
76. The VV001 in the following METAR indicates

METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK
AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $
A. an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet.
B. a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.
C. the variability value is 100 feet.
77. Freezing rain encountered during climb is normally evidence that
A. a climb can be made to a higher altitude without encountering more than

light icing.
B. a layer of warmer air exists above.
C. ice pellets at higher altitudes have changed to rain in the warmer air
below.
78. (Refer to figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for a
DSM LIT SHV flight at 12,000 feet?
A. Windspeed decrease.
B. Temperature decrease.
C. Wind direction shift from northwest to southeast.
79. Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud
formations, should be reported as
A. convective turbulence.
B. high altitude turbulence.
C. clear air turbulence.
80. Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally

east to west movement of weather systems?
A. Arctic only.
B. Arctic and subtropical.
C. Subtropical only.
81. Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
A. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain, which tends to accelerate the
downward velocity.
B. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after

striking the surface.
C. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an
updraft before reaching the surface.
82. (Refer to figure 149.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and
temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over MKC at FL 260?
A. 260° true; 43 knots; ISA +10° C.
B. 260° true; 45 knots; ISA -10° C.
C. 260° magnetic; 42 knots; ISA +9° C.
83. What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and
resultant lift from wind shear?
A. Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed.
B. Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed", and apply maximum

power.
C. Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than-normal

airspeed indications.
84. If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the

pilot should
A. first confirm the ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic
boots.
B. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice.
C. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice
removal.
85. (Refer to figure 150.) The Weather Depiction Chart indicates that the
coastal sections of Texas and Louisiana are reporting
A. all ceilings at or above 20,000 feet with visibilities of 20 miles or

more.
B. marginal VFR conditions due to broken ceilings of 3,200 feet.
C. VFR conditions with scattered clouds at 3,200 feet.
86. (Refer to figures 153, 154, and 155.) What type weather is inferred by
the almost vertical extent of the LOW in Canada?
A. A rapid-moving system with little chance of developing cloudiness,

precipitation, and adverse flying conditions.
B. A slow-moving storm which may cause extensive and persistent cloudiness,

precipitation, and generally adverse flying weather.
C. A rapid-moving storm, leaning to west with altitude, which encourages line

squalls ahead of the system with a potential of severe weather.
87. If a sample of air is forced upward and it is colder than the surrounding
air, it
A. sinks until it reaches denser air.
B. gets energy from surrounding air and remains in place.
C. warms from the surrounding air and rises to expansion.
88. (Refer to figure 144.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon
the aircraft in position 4?
A. Strong tailwind.
B. Strong updraft.
C. Significant performance increase.
89. (Refer to figure 147A.) What type conditions can be expected for a flight
scheduled to land at San Angelo (KSJT) at 1500Z?
A. Chance of 1 statute mile visibility and cumulonimbus clouds.
B. IFR conditions due to low visibility, rain, and mist.
C. IFR conditions due to low ceilings, rain, and fog.
90. A SIGMET may be issued when conditions affect an area
A. 1,000 square miles or more.
B. at least 3,000 square miles.
C. of 4,000 square miles.
91. The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is

METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05
A2989 RMK AO2 $
A. less than 1/4 statute mile.
B. measured 1/4 statute mile.
C. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.
92. What is the result when water vapor changes to the liquid state while
being lifted in a thunderstorm?
A. Latent heat is released to the atmosphere.
B. Latent heat is transformed into pure energy.
C. Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet.
93. At lower levels of the atmosphere, friction causes the wind to flow
across isobars into a low because the friction
A. decreases windspeed and Coriolis force.
B. decreases pressure gradient force.
C. creates air turbulence and raises atmospheric pressure.
94. Which type of weather can only be directly observed during flight and
then reported in a PIREP?
A. Jetstream-type winds and icing.
B. Turbulence and structural icing.
C. Level of the tropopause and turbulence.
95. A jet stream is a narrow, shallow, meandering river of maximum winds

extending around the globe in a wave-like pattern with speeds of
A. 50 knots or greater.
B. 71 knots or greater.
C. 100 knots or greater.
96. Which of the following weather conditions are conducive to in-flight

icing?
A. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below -10 ºC

ambient temperature.
B. Droplets that impact at temperatures below -20 ºC ambient air temperature.
C. Droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below 10 ºC and

above 1 ºC ambient temperature.
97. How will an area of thunderstorm activity, that may grow to severe
intensity, be indicated on the Severe Weather Outlook Chart?
A. SLGT within cross-hatched areas.
B. APCHG within any area.
C. SVR within any area.
98. Where is the usual location of a thermal low?
A. Over the arctic region.
B. Over the eye of a hurricane.
C. Over the surface of a dry, sunny region.
99. What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse
rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
A. Cloud bases form.
B. Precipitation starts.
C. Stable air changes to unstable air.
100. Where do squall lines most often develop?
A. In an occluded front.
B. Ahead of a cold front.
C. Behind a stationary front.
101. The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater)
per 150 miles is
A. 18 knots or less.
B. greater than 18 knots.
C. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.
102. What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A. Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B. One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
C. Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground
until dissipation.
103. (Refer to figures 210, and 211.) The Miami Flight Service Station has
A. Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS).
B. Remote Communications Outlet (RCO) northeast of MIA which operates on

122.3.
C. Transcribed Weather Broadcast.
104. What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND
TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FD) for FL 390 -"731960"?
A. 230° at 119 knots.
B. 131° at 96 knots.
C. 073° at 196 knots.
105. Which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is

present?
A. Wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
106. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms, and some
contain isotachs. The contours depict
A. ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.
B. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface.
C. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.
107. On the constant pressure analysis chart, satellite and aircraft

observations are used in the analysis over areas of sparse data. A satellite
observation is plotted using
A. a station circle at the cloud top location.
B. a square at the cloud top location.
C. a star at the cloud top location.
108. What condition is indicated when ice pellets are encountered during
flight?
A. Thunderstorms at higher levels.
B. Freezing rain at higher levels.
C. Snow at higher levels.
109. Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
A. Squall line.
B. Advective fog.
C. Frontogenesis.
110. (Refer to figure 145.) What type of report is listed for Lubbock (KLBB)
at 1818Z?
A. A special report concerning very low station pressure.
B. An aviation selected special weather report.
C. A Special METAR weather observation, concerning significant weather

changes.
111. What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A. 3 ºC per 1,000 feet.
B. 2 ºC per 1,000 feet.
C. 4 ºC per 1,000 feet.
112. A strong wind shear can be expected
A. on the low pressure side of a 100-knot jetstream core.
B. where the horizontal wind shear is 15 knots, in a distance equal to 2.5°

longitude.
C. if the 5 ºC isotherms are spaced 100 NM or closer together.
113. Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but
not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of
A. a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
B. a 5-mile radius of the center of the runway complex.
C. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
114. Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
A. Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front.
B. Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.
C. Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.
115. Which type cloud is associated with violent turbulence and a tendency
toward the production of funnel clouds?
A. Cumulonimbus mamma.
B. Standing lenticular.
C. Stratocumulus.
116. What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"?
A. Severe thunderstorms are embedded in a squall line.
B. Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
C. Thunderstorms are obscured by other types of clouds.
117. If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the

SIGMET be obtained?
A. ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be provided
in the FSS broadcast.
B. By contacting a weather watch station.
C. By contacting the nearest AFSS.
118. (Refer to figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected
by a microburst encounter?
A. Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.
B. Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.
C. Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.
119. Which event usually occurs after an aircraft passes through a front into
the colder air?
A. Temperature/dewpoint spread decreases.
B. Wind direction shifts to the left.
C. Atmospheric pressure increases.
120. (Refer to figure 175.) The NAVAID boxes at Nez Perce, Walla Walla,
Pasco, and Pullman all have a black dot with a white T within the dot. What
does this indicate?
A. That the frequency of the NAVAID is protected to 12,000 feet and 25 NM.
B. That the National Observatory transmits a time signal on the VOR

frequency.
C. That the facility has a Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) service on

the frequency.
121. The rate of decrease in wind speed from the jet stream core is
considerably greater on the
A. equatorial side.
B. polar side.
C. acute angle side.
122. Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A. 8,000 ft/min.
B. 7,000 ft/min.
C. 6,000 ft/min.
123. In comparison to an approach in a moderate headwind, which is an

indication of a possible wind shear due to a decreasing headwind when
descending on the glide slope?
A. Less power is required.
B. Higher pitch attitude is required.
C. Lower descent rate is required.
124. In this METAR excerpt, “SLP993 SNINCR 1/10” means
A. 0.1 of snow on the runway land zone during the last hour.
B. 1 of snow in the last 10 hours.
C. 1 and a total of 10 of snow is on the ground with 1 in the last hour.
125. What is a difference between an air mass thunderstorm and a steady-state

thunderstorm?
A. Air mass thunderstorms produce precipitation which falls outside of the

updraft.
B. Air mass thunderstorm downdrafts and precipitation retard and reverse the
updrafts.
C. Steady-state thunderstorms are associated with local surface heating.
Learn about King Schools ATP Multiengine Courses (http://www.kingschools.com/ground-school/atp/?sco=WB&scu=FAATST01)

Read what our customer's have to say here (http://www.kingschools.com/ground-school/atp#tabs1-e?sco=WB&scu=FAATST01)

RETAKE (/FREE-FAA-EXAM/ATP/TAKETEST/125/82002)
(http://johnandmartha.kingschools.com/)
(http://www.kingschools.com/youtube)
(http://www.kingschools.com/facebook)
(http://www.kingschools.com/twitter)
(http://www.kingschools.com/pinterest)
(http://www.kingschools.com/googleplus)
(http://www.kingschools.com/email)
© 2019 King Schools, Inc.

All Rights Reserved

ATP Met

Enviado por

Dados do documento

Título original

Direitos autorais

Formatos disponíveis

Compartilhar este documento

Compartilhar ou incorporar documento

Opções de compartilhamento

Você considera este documento útil?

Este conteúdo é inapropriado?

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

ATP Met

Enviado por

Direitos autorais:

Formatos disponíveis

1/17/2019 Free ATP Multiengine

Home (/free-faa-exam/) / ATP Multiengine (/free-faa-exam/atp) / Test (/free-faa-exam/atp/taketest/125/82002) / Results

FAA ATP Multiengine Test

LEARN MORE (HTTP://WWW.KINGSCHOOLS.COM/GROUND-SCHOOL/ATP/?SCO=WB&SCU=FAATST01)

1. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a

A. Beginning of rain at the surface.

The key feature of the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm is continuous

2. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A. It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by

B. It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found

C. It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at

3. What characterizes a ground-based inversion?

A. Convection currents at the surface.

B. PIREP's, Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.

C. PIREP's, AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.

5. Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level

C. On all sides and directly under the thunderstorm cell.

7. What is indicated about an air mass if the temperature remains unchanged

A. The air is unstable.

B. A temperature inversion exists.

C. The air is stable.

8. Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with

A. fast moving warm front.

B. fast moving cold front.

B. Moist enough for condensation.

C. Very wet with high potential for clouds and precipitation.

10. A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

A. existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.

B. which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar

C. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

13. Precipitation induced fog

C. is usually of short duration.

14. (Refer to figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?

A. Light rain showers.

B. Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.

15. Where are jet streams normally located?

A. In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.

B. In a break in the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are

C. In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break

16. (Refer to figure 151.) A planned low-altitude flight from central

A. continuous or intermittent rain or rain showers, moderate turbulence, and

B. continuous or showery rain over half or more of the area, moderate

C. showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence

17. Shear turbulence from a thunderstorm has been encountered

A. 10 miles from the severe thunderstorm.

B. 15 miles from the severe thunderstorm.

C. 20 miles from the severe thunderstorm.

A. Light and variable.

A. Occasional light chop.

A. Cloud height, weather, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint,

B. Cloud bases/tops, obstructions to vision, altimeter, winds, precipitation,

C. Cloud height, obstructions to vision, temperature, dewpoint, altimeter,

A. Area Forecasts published by the departure location host country.

B. the current International Weather Depiction Chart appropriate to the

C. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.

24. In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind

25. Summer thunderstorms in the arctic region will generally move

A. northeast to southwest in polar easterlies.

B. southwest to northeast with the jetstream flow.

C. directly north to south with the low-level polar airflow.

A. the precipitation accumulation report, an automated variable visibility,

B. thunderstorms (intensity and direction), precipitation (type and

C. density Altitude, NOTAMs, and reported slant range visibility.