QUESTIONS IN PHARMACOLOGY

Question Answer Reference MPL

1. Drug A loses 80% of its effect before reaching the systemic B Goodman 0.5
circulation. This would most probably happen in which mode and
of administration? Gilman 8th
A. Rectal ed p.5
B. Oral
C. Sublingual
D. Intravenous

2. Drugs A and B act on the same tissue or organ through C Goodman 0.5
independent receptors, resulting in effects in opposite and
directions. This effect is known as Gilman 8th
A. Competitive antagonism ed pp.53-
B. Irreversible antagonism 54
C. Physiologic antagonism
D. Chemical antagonism

3. If drug X is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals equal B Goodman 0.25

to its elimination half life, the number of doses required for and
the plasma concentration of the drug to reach steady state is Gilman 8th
A. 1 – 3 ed pp.26-
B. 4 – 5 27
C. 6 – 7
D. 8 – 9

4. This pharmacokinetic value most reliably reflects the amount B Goodman 0.5
of drug reaching the target tissue after oral administration and
A. Volume of distribution Gilman 8th
B. Area under the blood concentration-time curve ed p.25
C. Peak blood concentration
D. Time to peak blood concentration

5. It was determined that 90% of an oral 80-mg dose of a drug D Goodman 0.25
was absorbed in a 70 kg patient. However, because of and
extensive biotransformation during its first pass through the Gilman 8th
portal circulation, the bioavailability of the drug was only ed pp.5,
25%. AAUMINF liver blood flow of 1500 mL/min, the 21
hepatic clearance of this drug in this situation was
A. 50 mL/min
B. 310 mL/min
C. 760 mL/min
D. 1080 mL/min

6. Of the many names applied to a drug, the one that is the A Generics 1.0
official name and refers only to that drug and not to a Act of
particular product is 1988
A. trade name
B. brand name
C. proprietary name
D. generic name

7. The route of excretion of drugs or their metabolic derivatives D Goodman 0.5

that is quantitatively the LEAST significant is which of the and
following? Gilman 8th
A. Biliary tract ed pp.18-
B. Kidneys 20
C. Lungs
D. Milk
8. The table below shows the effective dose –50s (ED50) and C Goodman 0.50
therapeutic indices (TI) of drugs A to D. They have the same and
therapeutic effects through a common mechanism of action. Gilman 9th
ed p.44
Drug ED50 TI
A 20 20
B 33 10
C 9 8
D 15 10

Which drug is the most potent?

A. Drug A
B. Drug B
C. Drug C
D. Drug D

9. The table below shows the effective dose –50s (ED50) and A Goodman 0.25
therapeutic indices (TI) of drugs A to D. They have the same and
therapeutic effects through a common mechanism of action. Gilman 8th
ed p.68
Drug ED50 TI
A 20 20
B 33 10
C 9 8
D 15 10

Which drug is the safest?

A. Drug A
B. Drug B
C. Drug C
D. Drug D

10. Which of the following drug interactions results to a A Goodman 0.5

decreased drug effectiveness due to chemical interaction? and
A. Tetracycline and mild Gilman 8th
B. Amobarbital and secobarbital ed p.1119
C. Soap and benzalkonium chloride
D. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

11. A newborn suffers from jaundice after being treated with C Goodman 0.25
sulfonamides. This is due to and
A. Enhanced synthesis of bilirubin Gilman
B. Inhibition of bilirubin degradation 8th ed.
C. Displacement of bilirubin bound from albumin p.1037
D. Inhibition of urinary excretion of bilirubin

12. A patient taking an antacid experiences decreased response to A Goodman 0.5

a protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotic. The antibiotic is most and
probably Gilman
A. Tetracycline 8th ed
B. Chloramphenicol p.1119
C. Sulfamethoxazole
D. Penicillin

13. A health worker is going to towns which are endemic for D Goodman 0.5
Plasmodium vivax and P. ovale. What should he use for causal and
prophylaxis? Gilman
A. Pyrimethamine 8th ed
B. Quinacrine pp.988 –
C. Chloroquine 989
D. Primaquine
14. A stroke patient suffers from pneumonia after 3 weeks of C Goodman 0.50
hospitalization. Which of the following may be a useful anti- and
infective agent in his case? Gilman
A. Ofloxacin 8th ed
B. Norfloxacin pp.1059 –
C. Ciprofloxacin 1060
D. Lomefloxacin

15. A 5-year old child suffers from neck and back stiffness with D Goodman 0.5
positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs after a bout with and
pneumonia. Which drug would most probably be effective? Gilman
A. Penicillin G 8th ed
B. Penicillin VK pp.1090-
C. Norfloxacin 1091
D. Ceftriaxone

16. Clavulanic acid is combined with amoxicillin because it B Goodman 1.0

A. easily penetrates gram-negative bacteria and
B. inactivates bacterial -lactamases Gilman
C. is a potent inhibitior of cell-wall transpeptidase 8th ed
D. has a spectrum of activity similar to penicillin G p.1093

17. Ethambutol is given together with other antitubercular drugs D Goodman 0.33
in the treatment of tuberculosis in order to and
A. facilitate penetration of the blood-brain barrier Gilman
B. delay excretion of other antitubercular drugs by the 8th ed
kidney p.1158
C. retard absorption after intramuscular injection
D. retard the development of resistance

18. Chronic candidiasis infections of the gastrointestinal tract and A Goodman 0.33
oral cavity are treated orally with and
A. Fluconazole Gilman
B. Clotrimazole 8th ed
C. Amphotericin B pp.1177 –
D. Miconazole 1179

19. The drug which would most likely be effective for the B Goodman 0.5
treatment of patients with Legionella pneumonia is and
A. Streptomycin Gilman
B. Erythromycin 8th ed
C. Penicillin G pp.1133 –
D. Chloramphenicol 1134

20. A 3-year old patient passes out noodle-like worms and is B Goodman 1.0
given an appropriate anti-helminthic. The mechanism of this and
drug is most probably via Gilman
A. interference with cell-wall synthesis 8th ed
B. inhibition of neuromuscular transmission pp.969 –
C. interference with cell division 970
D. interference with protein synthesis

21. Streptomycin and other aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial C Goodman 0.5

protein synthesis by and
A. Peptidoglycan units in the cell wall Gilman
B. DNA 8th ed
C. 30S ribosomal particles p.1100
D. RNA polymerase
22. A patient with upper respiratory tract infection is resistant to A Goodman 0.33
Ampicillin. Which of the following drugs may be used? and
A. Oxacillin Gilman
B. Carbenicillin 8th ed
C. Mezlocillin pp.1068 –
D. Penicillin G 1069

23. A patient with nosocomial pneumonia is given ceftazidime D Goodman 0.5

and another antibiotic. The most probable purpose for adding and
the second antibiotic is to Gilman
A. Increase renal excretion 8th ed
B. Decrease systemic toxicity pp.1098 –
C. Increase oral absorption 1113
D. Prevent the emergence of resistant bacteria

24. A pediatric patient is being treated for typhoid fever. Which of D Goodman 1.0
the following adverse effects may occur? and
A. Bone marrow stimulation Gilman
B. Stainng of teeth 8th ed
C. Alopecia p.1127
D. Aplastic anemia

25. About 75% of patients in this condition may suffer from B Goodman 0.5
vertigo, inability to perceive termination of movement and and
difficulty in sitting or standing without visual clues Gilman
A. Patients allergic to penicillin 8th ed pp.
B. Patients receiving streptomycin therapy 1104-
C. Patients on isoniazid for tuberculoss 1008
D. Patients on amphotericin B therapy

26. A kidney transplant patient is given a drug for B Goodman 0.5

immunosuppression to prevent rejection of the allografted and
organ. The drug is most likely Gilman
A. Cyclosporine 8th ed
B. Azathioprine p.1270
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Vincristine

27. A patient has a neoplastic growth which is resistant to most B Di Palma 1.0
chemotherapeutic agents and requires increased dosages to 4th ed
obtain a response. The tumor probably has a large proportion pp.653 –
of cells in the 655
A. S phase
B. G0 phase
C. G1 phase
D. M phase

28. This drug causes a nucleophilic attack on DNA that disrupts D Goodman 0.33
DNA base pairing and
A. Fluorouracil Gilman
B. Methotrexate 8th ed
C. Prednisone p.1210
D. Cyclophosphamide

29. Cardiotoxicity limits the clinical usefulness of which of the A Goodman 0.25
following antitumor antibiotics? and
A. Doxorubicin Gilman
B. Dactinomycin 8th ed
C. Cisplatin pp.1238 -
D. Vincristine 1239
30. This tumor is LEAST susceptible to “cell-cycle specific” anti- B Goodman 0.25
cancer agents and
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia Gilman
B. Adenocarcinoma of the colon 8th ed
C. Burkitt’s lymphoma pp.1202 –
D. Acute granulocytic leukemia 1207

31. A 40-year old cancer patient who has smoked three pack years C DiPalma 0.25
of cigarettes for 12 years presents a decreased pulmonary 4th ed
function test. Physical examination and chest x-rays suggest pp.668 –
pre-existing pulmonary disease. All the following drugs may 669
be prescribed EXCEPT
A. Vinblastine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Bleomycin
D. Cisplatin

32. A drug that alkylates target molecules and is useful for ovarin A Goodman 0.5
cancer is and
A. Hexamethylmelamine Gilman
B. Methotrexate 8th ed p.
C. Vincristine 1025
D. Busulfan

33. A drug that inhibits DNA topoisomerase II and is effective for D Goodman 0.5
testicular cancer is and
A. Vinblastine Gilman
B. Bleomycin 8th ed
C. Interferon-alfa p.1026
D. Etoposide

34. An antagonist of hormone dependent tumor used mainly in A Goodman 1.0

breast cancer and
A. Tamoxifen Gilman
B. Bleomycin 8th ed
C. Cisplatin pp.1025 –
D. Fluorouracil 1027

35. Which of the following agents is an antimetabolite? A Goodman 0.5

A. Thioguanine and
B. Ifosfamide Gilman
C. Mitomycin 8th ed
D. Leuprolide pp.1025 –
1027
36. The drug of choice for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis C DiPalma 0.5
is 4th ed
A. Aspirin pp.528,
B. Streptokinase 533 – 535
C. Enoxaparin
D. Desmopressin

37. A patient experiences chest pain and is given beta-blockers. B Goodman 0.5
The therapeutic action of this class of drugs in this case is due and
to Gilman
A. increased peripheral resistance 8th ed.
B. decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen p.780
C. dilatation of coronary vasculature
D. reduced production of catecholamines
38. A hypertensive patient is treated by a doctor and experiences C DiPalma 0.5
hemolytic anemia with a positive Coomb’s test. This is most 4th ed
likely caused by p.472
A. Clonidine
B. Captopril
C. Methyldopa
D. Prazosin

39. An 80-year old patient is taking captopril. His doctor must D Goodman 0.5
watch out for and
A. bone marrow depression Gilman
B. drug fever 8th ed
C. hepatic injury p.759
D. renal failure

40. An elderly chronic smoker with greatly compromised D Goodman 0.5

pulmonary reserve and almost persistent bronchoconstriction and
may benefit from cromolyn because it is Gilman
A. a bronchodilator 8th ed
B. an H1-receptor antagonist p.630
C. a beta2-agonist
D. an inhibitor of mediator release

41. A patient was noted to have elevated total cholesterol, LDL C Goodman 1.0
and VLDL. Which among the following useful drugs for this and
purpose operates by blocking HMG-CoA reductase to inhibit Gilman
cholesterol synthesis? 8th ed
A. Probucol pp.881 –
B. Clofibrate 884
C. Lovastatin
D. Nicotinic acid

42. A patient continues to have bilateral edema and 3-pillow A Goodman 0.5
orthopnea after adequate therapy with diuretics and digoxin and
may need Gilman
A. Enalapril 8th ed
B. Prazosin p.758
C. Minoxidil
D. Hydralazine

43. In a hypertensive patient who is taking insulin to treat A Goodman 0.5

diabetes, which of the following drugs is able to be used with and
extra caution and advise to the patient? Gilman
A. Propranolol 8th ed
B. Methyldopa p.239
C. Hydralazine
D. Prazosin

44. The enhancement of contractility of the cardiac muscle fiber B Goodman 0.5
brought about by digitalis is related to and
A. stimulation of calmodulin Gilman
B. inhibition of the sodium pump 8th ed
C. beta-adrenergic stimulation p.817
D. increased production of adenosine

45. Significant relaxation of smooth muscle of both venules and C Goodman 0.25
arterioles is produced by which of the following drugs? and
A. Minoxidil C. Sodium nitroprusside Gilman
B. Diazoxide D. Hydralazine 8th ed
p.803
46. Which of the following agents is useful for the treatment of B Goodman 1.0
malignant hyperthermia? and
A. Halothane Gilman
B. Dantrolene 8th ed
C. Diazepam pp.480 –
D. Baclofen 481

47. A patient was repeatedly given an inhalational anesthetic and D Goodman 0.5
develops post operative jaundice and hepatic necrosis. The and
agent is most likely Gilman
A. Methoxyflurane 8th ed
B. Enflurane pp.286 –
C. Nitrous oxide 292
D. Halothane

48. The preferred treatment for a patient who suffers a series of A Goodman 0.5
seizures without complete recovery is and
A. diazepam Gilman
B. chlorpromazine 8th ed
C. succinylcholine p.459
D. ethosuximide

49. A patient has been taking imipramine for depression. He B Goodman 1.0
would most likely experience which of the following adverse and
effects? Gilman
A. Seizures 8th ed
B. Anticholinergic effects pp.405 –
C. Hepatotoxicity 414
D. Nephrotoxicity

50. The use of which of the following drugs is associated with a D Goodman 0.25
syndrome characterized by hyperthermia, skeletal muscle and
hypertonicity and catatonia, among other signs? Gilman
A. Amobarbital 8th ed
B. Oxazepam p.399
C. Phenytoin
D. Trifluoperazine hydrochloride

51. Chlorpromazine may be used not only in treating A DiPalma 0.5

schizophrenia but is also effective 4th ed
A. in reducing nausea and vomiting pp.275 –
B. as an antihistaminic 277
C. as an antihypertensive agent
D. for treating bipolar affective disorder

52. A child suffers from lapses of consciousness or vacant stares C Goodman 0.5
lasting about 10 seconds, often in clusters. The drug which and
may be most helpful for his disorder is Gilman
A. Phenytoin 8th ed
B. Carbamazepine pp.449 -
C. Ethosuximide 453
D. Phenobarbital

53. Which of the following agents is a selective D2 (dopamine B Goodman 0.5

receptor) agonist? and
A. Promethazine Gilman
B. Bromocriptine 8th ed
C. Haloperidol p.942
D. Chlorpromazine
54. Which of the following local anesthetics is useful for topical D Goodman 0.5
administration only? and
A. Procaine Gilman
B. Bupivacaine 8th ed
C. Lidocaine p.321
D. Benzocaine

55. A dopamine receptor agonist useful in the therapy of A DiPalma 0.5

Parkinson’s disease is 4th ed
A. Bromocriptine pp.317 –
B. Selegine 318
C. Amantadine
D. Belladona

56. A drug used to prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting A Goodman 0.5
associated with motion sickness in the form of a transdermal and
patch is Gilman
A. scopolamine 8th ed
B. ondansetron pp.163 –
C. diphenhydramine 164
D. chlorpromazine

57. The non-selective beta-adrenergic blocking agent that is also A Goodman 0.5
also a competitive antagonist at alpha1-adrenoceptors is and
A. Labetalol Gilman
B. Timolol 8th ed
C. Pindolol pp.235 –
D. Acebutolol 236

58. The reversible cholinesterase inhibitor indicted in the D DiPalma 0.33

treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is 4th ed
A. Edrophonium pp.159 –
B. Neostigmine 160
C. Pyridostigmine
D. Tacrine

59. A 30-year old G2P1 patient suffers experiences regular and A Goodman 0.5
increasingly frequent contractions at 6 months of gestation. and
Which of the following agents may help in this case? Gilman
A. Ritodrine 4th ed
B. Nicotine p.206
C. Propranolol
D. Tacrine

60. A predictably dangerous side effect of nadolol that constitutes C Goodman 1.0
a contraindication to its clinical use in susceptible patients is and
the induction of Gilman
A. respiratory depression 8th ed
B. hypersensitivity pp.232 –
C. asthmatic attacks 233
D. hypertension

61. Which of the following bronchodilators is the most selective D DiPalma 0.5
beta2-agonist, is long acting, and can be administered by oral 4th ed
inhalation pp.123 –
A. Propranolol 124
B. Pindolol
C. Metaproterenol
D. Salmeterol
62. Upon taking Penicillin, a patient suddenly experiences B Goodman 1.0
respiratory distress and circulatory collapse. Which is drug and
would be most helpful in this situation? Gilman
A. Norepinephrine 8th ed
B. Epinephrine p.198
C. Isoproterenol
D. Atropine

63. Propranolol is either contraindicated in, or should be used B Goodman 0.5

with caution in all of the following diseases, EXCEPT and
A. congestive heart failure Gilman
B. angina perctoris 8th ed
C. hypoglycemia pp.238 -
D. bronchial asthma 239

64. Sumatriptan succinate is effective for the treatment of acute B DiPalma 0.5
migraine headaches by acting as 4th ed
A. a agonist at nicotinic receptors pp.201 –
B. a selective agonist at 5-HT1D receptors 202
C. an inhibitor of prostacyclin synthase
D. an ataggonist at beta-adrenergic receptors

65. The pharmacologic effects of acetylsalicylic acid include D DiPalma 1.0

A. promotion of platelet aggregation 4th ed pp.
B. alleviation of pain by stimulation of prostaglandin 345 – 353
synthesis
C. minimal gastric irritation
D. a reduction of elevated body temperature

66. Cyproheptadine is an antagonist at A DiPalma 0.33

A. serotonin receptors 4th ed
B. histamine receptors p.203
C. dopamine receptors
D. nicotine receptors

67. A company manager is suffering an attack of allergic rhinitis. C DiPalma 0.5

He needs to control his symptoms but also needs to stay 4th ed
awake in a series of staff meetings. Which of the following pp.193 –
agents would be most helpful? 194
A. Chlorpheniramine
B. Hydroxyzine
C. Terfenadine
D. Diphenhydramine

68. All of the following are therapeutic uses of natural C DiPalma 0.5
prostaglandins or synthetic prostaglandins, EXCEPT 4th ed
A. temporary maintenance of the patency of the ductutus pp.214 –
arteriosus in preterm neonates 215
B. cervical ripening in pregnant women
C. treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases
like bronchial asthma
D. prevention of gastric ulceration caused by nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs

69. Hyperkalemia is a contraindication to the use of which of the D Goodman 0.5

following drugs? and
A. Chlorothiazide Gilman
B. Acetazolamide 8th ed
C. Ethacrynic acid p.726
D. Spironolactone
70. A reduction in insulin release from the pancreas may be cause A Goodman 0.25
by which of the following diuretics? and
A. Chlorothiazide Gilman
B. Triamterene 8th ed
C. Amiloride p.721
D. Acetazolamide
71. A gout patient developed a nephropathy characterized by B Goodman 1.0
overproduction of uric acid and extreme hyperuricemia. What and
agent could have helped prevent this? Gilman
A. Cyclophosphamide 8th ed
B. Allopurinol p.678
C. Sodium chloride
D. Antidiuretic hormone

72. A patient developed stones which are radioopaque without A DiPalma 0.5
apparent predisposing factors. The drug which would most 4th ed
likely be helpful is pp.457 –
A. hydrochlorothiazide 460
B. bumetanide
C. furosemide
D. triamterene

73. A hospitalized patient who has been maintained on parenteral C Goodman 0.5
alimentation for 3 weeks, develops weakness, tremors, and
agitation and finally, coma. The most likely fluid and Gilman
electrolyte disturbance is 8th ed
A. hypercalcemia p.705
B. acidosis
C. hypomagnesemia
D. hyperkalemia

74. Antidiuretic hormone is used therapeutically for D Katzung 0.33

A. treating nephrogenic diabetes insipidus 6th ed
B. increasing uterine contractility pp.574 –
C. treating polyuria caused by hypercalcemia 575
D. treating pituitary diabetes insipidus

75. An enhancement of parathyroid hormone-mediated B Goodman 0.25

reabsorption of calcium in the distal tubule is caused by which and
of the following diuretics? Gilman
A. Bumetanide 8th ed
B. Hydrochlorthiazide pp.719,
C. Actazolamide 722
D. Furosemide

76. Mannitol may be helpful in all the following procedures, D Goodman 0.5
EXCEPT and
A. treatment of elevated intracranial pressure Gilman
B. treatment of elevated intraocular pressure 8th ed
C. prophylaxis of acute renal failure pp.714 –
D. treatment of pulmonary edema with congestive heart 715
failure
77. A hypertensive patient with signs of heart failure is on A Goodman 0.5
furosemide. He may develop the following adverse effects and
due to the drug EXCEPT Gilman
A. metabolic acidosis 8th ed
B. hyperglycemia pp.723 –
C. tinnitus 724
D. hypotension
78. Adverse reactions associated with both acetazolamide and B DiPalma 0.5
antibacterial sulfonamides include all the following EXCEPT 4th ed
A. formation of urinary calculi p.465
B. metabolic acidosis
C. crystalluria
D. fever
79. A patient with peptic ulcer and on therapy with cimetidine D Goodman 1.0
may experience decreased effects of many other drugs and
because cimetidine is an inhibitor of Gilman
A. the proton pump 8th ed
B. tyrosine kinase p.901
C. monoamine oxidase
D. cytochrome P-450

80. Omprazole, a new agent for the promotion of healing of A Goodman 1.0
peptic ulcers, has a mechanism of action based on and
A. H+K+ - ATPase Gilman
B. prostaglandins 8th ed
C. gastric secretion pp.902 –
D. pepsin secretion 904

81. Metoclopramide has antiemetic properties because it C Goodman 0.5

A. accelerates gastric emptying and
B. lowers esophageal sphincter pressure Gilman
C. is a CNS dopamine receptor antagonist 8th ed
D. has sedative properties pp.926 –
928
82. A patient with severe liver deficiency produces ammonia and A Goodman 0.5
other toxins in the intestine and eventual encephalopathy. and
Which agent is important in the therapy of this condition? Gilman
A. Lactulose 8th ed 919
B. Lactate – 920
C. Loperamide
D. Lorazepam

83. A patient suffering from persistent peptic ulcer disease was B DiPalma 1.0
given bismuth salts aside from other anti-ulcer agents. This is 4th ed
because of the bactericidal activity of bismuth salts against p.566
A. Escherichia coli
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus aureus

84. Fat soluble vitamins have generally a greater potential toxicity D Goodman 0.5
compared with water soluble vitamins because they are and
A. metabolized faster Gilman
B. more essential to vital metabolic processes 8th ed
C. administered in large doses p.1524
D. avidly stored in the body

85. A patient is undergoing quadruple chemotherapy for B Goodman 0.5

pulmonary tuberculosis. Which vitamin would he most and
probably need a supplement of? Gilman
A. Vitamin A 8th ed
B. Pyridoxine p.1524
C. Thiamine
D. Vitamin C
86. A substance that enhances the probability of ovulation by A Goodman 0.33
blocking the inhibitory effect of estrogens and thus and
stimulating the release of gonadotropin from the pituitary is Gilman
A. clomiphene 8th ed
B. oxymethaolone pp.1395 –
C. ethinyl estradiol 1396
D. progesterone

87. A naturally occurring substance useful in treating Paget’s D Goodman 0.5

disease of bone is and
A. cortisol Gilman
B. etidronate 8th ed
C. parathyroid hormone pp.1507 –
D. calcitonin 1510

88. The preferred thyroid preparation for maintenance C DiPalma 0.33

replacement therapy is which of the following drugs? 4th ed
A. Liotrix pp.587 –
B. Dessicated thyroid 589
C. Levothyroxine
D. Liothyronine

89. A patient becomes markedly titanic following a recent D Goodman 0.33

thyroidectomy. This symptom can be rapidly reversed by and
A. vitamin D Gilman
B. plicmycin 8th ed
C. parathyroid hormone p.1247
D. calcium gluconate

90. Metyrapone is useful in testing the endocrine functioning of A Goodman 0.33

A. pituitary adrenal axis and
B. Leydig cells of testes Gilman
C. Neurohypophysis 8th ed
D.  cells of the pancreatic islets p.1458

91. Of the following mechanisms of anti-inflammatory and C Goodman 0.50

immunosuppressive effects of glucocorticoids, which one is and
uniformly observed? Gilman
A. Increased prostaglandin formation 8th ed
B. Reduced formation of lipocortins pp.1442 –
C. Reduced capillary permeability and edema a the 1445
inflammatory site
D. Increased influx of leukocytes to the site of
inflammation

92. Bromocriptine is used to treat some cases of amenorrhea A Goodman 0.5

because it and
A. inhibits prolactin release Gilman
B. increases the synthesis of follicle-stimulating hormone 8th ed
C. stimulates the ovary directly p.1346
D. stimulates release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone

93. Convulsions caused by drug poisoning are most commonly C Goodman 1.0
associated with and
A. phenytoin Gilman
B. chlorpromazine 8th ed
C. strychnine pp.1632 –
D. Phenobarbital 1633
94. Alkalinization of the urine with sodium bicarbonate is useful B Goodman 0.5
in the treatment of poisoning with and
A. amphetamine Gilman
B. aspirin 8th ed
C. morphine pp.18 –
D. cocaine 20

95. A farmer experiences severe poisoning with parathion. Which A Goodman 0.5
of the following agents would be most useful in its treatment? and
A. Pralidoxime Gilman
B. Carbachol 8th ed
C. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid p.122
D. N-Acetylcysteine

96. Activated charcoal may be used to treat poisoning by all of C Goodman 0.5
the following drugs EXCEPT and
A. carbamazepine Gilman
B. aspirin 8th ed
C. lithium p.58
D. Phenobarbital

97. All of the following drugs may produce a syndrome of D Goodman 0.25
flushing, headache, nausea, vomiting, sweating, hypotension and
and confusion after ethanol consumption EXCEPT Gilman
A. moxalactam 8th ed
B. cefoperazine pp.378 –
C. disulfiran 379
D. amitriptyline

98. N-acetylbenzoquinoneimine is the hepatotoxic metabolite of B Goodman 0.5

which drug? and
A. Isoniazid Gilman
B. Acetaminophen 8th ed
C. Indomethacin pp.657 –
D. Sulindac 658

99. Zinc is an essential element for normal growth and C DiPalma 0.5
development. However, toxicity can occur from excessive 4th ed
exposure. Manifestations of chronic poisoning include all the pp.828 –
following EXCEPT 829
A. thrombocytopenia
B. anemia
C. encephalopathy
D. fever

100. A 3-year old boy consumed a liquid from a container in D Goodman 0.33
the family garage. He shows central nervous system and
depression, acidosis, suppressed respiration, and oxalate Gilman
crystals in the urine. Beside supportive and corrective 8th ed
measures, ethanol was administered to the child. What drug p.1625
most likely caused the toxic effect?
A. Metronidazole
B. Nalidixic acid
C. Primaquine
D. Ethylene glycol

OVERALL MPL 53.46