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ANATOMY MOCK BOARDS 2010

1. Cremaster muscle is derived from the:

a. External oblique

b. Internal oblique

c. Transverses abdominis

d. Transversalis fascia

2. Derivatives of the external oblique aponeurosis EXCEPT:

a. Inguinal ligament

b. Conjoint tendon –from internal oblique

c. Lacunar ligament

d. Inferior epigastric artery

3. Median umbilical ligament is derived from:

a. urachus

b. umbilical artery

c. umbilical vein

d. transversalis fascia

4. Deep inguinal hernia is a hole or defect in the

a. External oblique

b. Internal oblique

c. Transversus abdominis

d. Transversalis fascia

5. Artery supplying the stomach w’c arose directly from the splenic artery:

a. Left gastric artery

b. Right gastric artery

c. Left gastroepiploic artery

d. R gastroepiploic artery

6. Marginal artery of Drummond:

a. Stomach

b. Small intestine

c. Large intestine

d. Rectum and anal canal

7. Features of the colon EXCEPT:

a. Arterial arcades

b. Taenia coli

c. Appendices epiplocae

d. Haustra

8. Retroperitoneal organs EXCEPT:

a. Pancreas

b. Kidneys

c. Ascending colon

d. Sigmoid colon

9. Junction between the duodenum and jejunum:

a. Falciform ligament

b. Hepatoduodenal ligament

c. Ligament of Treitz

d. Coronary ligament

10. Paired branch of the aorta:


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a. Lumbar artery

b. Celiac artery

c. Superior mesenteric artery

d. Inferior mesenteric artery

31, Stucture located within Pleural cavity

a. Lungs

b. Primary bronchus

c. Pulmonary veins

d. None –it’s a space that contains pleural fluid to lubricate the visceral and parietal surfaces

32. Following organs made an impression at mediastinal surface of right lung except:

a. trachea

b. superior vena cava

c. Arch of aorta

d. Right atrium

33. Feature of right lung

a. has 3 lobes

b. larger than left

c. middle lobes has 3 bronchopulmonary segments

d. AOTA

34. Contents of superior mediastinum:

a. Pulmonary trunk

b. Innominate veins -a.k.a brachiocephalic veins

c. Thoracic aorta -inferior

d. AOTA

35. True of pericardium

36. Vessels directly drains into RA:

a. coronary vein –or sinus

b. Great cardiac vein –drain into coronary sinus

c. middle cardiac vein –drain into coronary sinus

d. AOTA

37.. Chamber of heart that forms its base is:

a. Left atrium

b. Left ventricle

c. RA

d. RV

38. Commonly seen in RA and LA

a. Auricle

b. Opening of coronary sinus

c. Thebesian valve

d. SA node

39. Moderator band located in what chamber?

a. RA

b. RV

c. LA
d. LV
40. Azygous vein drains in what vessel:

a. IVC

b. Brachiocephalic vein

c. SVC

d. IJ vein

41. Intraocular muscle innervated by Abducens nerve:

a. Superior Oblique –trochlear IV

b. Lateral rectus - VI

c. Superior rectus –oculomotor III

d. inferior oblique –oculomotor III

42. Most superficial muscle of the neck innervated by facial nerve:

a. SCM

b. Trapezius

c. Platysma

d. Sternohyoid muscle

43. Mastication muscle:

a. Genioglossus

b. Masseter

c. Hyoglossus

d. Styloglossus

44. Facial muscle that causes a sardonic smile

a. Risorius

b. Procerus

c. Buccinator

d. ????

45. Muscle of the middle ear:

a. Stapedius

b. Digastric???

c. Omohyoid

d. Stylopharyngeal muscle

46. Abducts vocal cords:

a. Postreior cricoarythenoid

b. lateral cricoarythenoid

c. arytenoids

d. cricothyroid

47. Infrahyoid muscle:

a. Arytenohyoid

b. Sternothyroid

c. Omohyoid

d. ALL

48. Facial muscle that draws the eyebrows medially:

a. orbicularis oris

b. procerus

c. corrugator supercilli –corrugated, yupi, lukot, kunot J

d. Levator palpebra superiori

49. ??

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50. Muscle that protrudes the tongue:

a. Styloglossus

b. Palatoglossus

c. Genioglossus –Albert Einstein making belat. J

d. Hyoglossus

51. Part of the vascular coat of the eye

a. Choroid

b. Ciliary body

c. Iris

d. ALL

52. Structure that produce aqueous humor:

a. iris

b. ciliary body

c. lens

d. ciliary process

53. TRUE about submandibular gland:

a. Wharton’s duct opens in oral cavity proper

b. innervated by glossopharyngeal nerve -lingual

c. mixed secretion more of mucous

d. has 2 lobes –multiple lobes

54. Cervical facia that serves as the roof of the ant and post triangle of the neck:

a. superficial cervical fascia

b. Prevertebral fascia

c. pretracheal fascia

d. carotid sheath

55. Space between the true vocal cords is:

a. laryngeal vestibule

b. Rima vestibule

c. Rima glottides

d. laryngeal ventricle

56. laryngeal cartilage that closes the larynx during swallowing:

a. thyroid cartilage

b. cricoids cartilage

c. epiglottis

d. arytenoids cartilage

57. muscles that arises from transverse process of the atlas:

a. longus capitis

b. longus coli

c. rectus capitis anterior

d. ALL

58. the most superficial structure pierced by stensen’s duct:

a. buccinators muscle

b. buccal mucous membrane

c. buccal pad of fat

d. buccopharyngeal fascia

59. chorda typani is a branch of what nerve?

a. mandibular nerve
b. maxillary nerve

c. facial nerve

d. lingual nerve

60. The facial nerve that enters the parotid region thru what foramen:

a. internal acoustic meatus

b. external acoustic meatus

c. stylomastoid foramen

d. foramen rotundum

61. Respiratory epithelium is of what type of epithelium?

a. transitional

b. stratified

c. pseudostratified

d. simple

62. type of tissue composed of cells that are numerous and closely adherent with little or no intercellular substance and
avascular in nature:

a. epithelium

b. muscular

c. connective

d. nervous

63. example of dense irregular connective tissue:

a. capsule of organ

b. tendon –dense regular

c. ligament –dense regular

d. aponeurosis –dense regular

64. argyrophilic fibers supporting hematopoietic and lymphoid organs:

a. reticular

b. elastic

c. collagenous

d. hyaline

65. characteristic of osteocytes EXCEPT:

a. concentric arrangement

b. stellar in shape

c. mononucleated

d. peripheral location of the nucleus

66. the activity of osteoclast in releasing calcium from bones is secreted by what cells?

a. parafollicular

b. oxyphil

c. follicular

d. chief –from parathyroid; releases PTH, an osteoclastic hormone

67. mononucleated or binucleated:

a. cardiac muscles –one or two

b. skeletal-multi

c. smooth-mono

d. cardiac –huh?

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68. area of the sarcomere that does not contain actin filament:

a. A band

b. H band

c. I band

d. Z band

69. dense regular connective tissue covering the cartilage

a. perichondrium

b. perimysium

c. periosteum

d. perimysium

70. touch receptor EXCEPT:

a. Krausse and bulb

b. Merkels’s

c. Meissner’s

d. hair follicle nerve endings

71. neuroendocrine cells located in lamina propia of respiratory tract is known as:

a. Kultchitsky cells

b. Clara cells

c. Argentaniff cells

d. goblet cells

72. Pernicious anemia is a destruction of what cell of the stomach:

a. zymogenic cells

b. parietal cells

c. columnar cells

d. mucous cells

73. plexus of nerve responsible for controlling the secretion of glands in the GIT is known as Meissner’s plexus located at what
layer? (SUBMUCOSA)

a. muscularis mucosa -closest

b. tunica mscularis

c. muscularis

d. tunica adventitia

74. classified as lymphoid organs, EXCEPT:

a. thymus

b. appendix

c. spleen

d. tonsil

75. Hassal’s corpuscles, a characteristic feature of:

a. white pulp of spleen

b. red pulp of spleen

c. thymic medulla

d. thymic cortex

76. growth hormone and prolactin secretion are secretion of what cells:

a. chief cells

b. acidophils

c. follicular cells
d. basophils

77. suppository cells that nourishes and protects the developing spermatogenic cells is:

a. Sertoli cells

b. spermatids

c. interstitial cells

d. spermatogonia

78. cells considered as source of myelin in CNS:

a. Schwann cells -PNS

b. Purkinje

c. oligodendrocytes

d. pyramidal cells of betz

79. Brunner’s gland is associated with what organ?

a. duodenum

b. stomach

c. prostate gland

d. urethra

80. packaging area of cells

a. ER

b. lysosome

c. golgi apparatus

d. centriole

81. thalamus is derived from what secondary brain vesicle

a. myencephelon

b. telencephelon

c. metencephalon

d. diencephalon

82. pathway for pain and temperature

a. anterior st.

b. lateral st.

c. dorsal column

d. pyramidal

83. loss of vibration and pain sensation, absent reflex but no LMN lesions:

a. Brown Sequard

b. syringomyelia

c. Tabes dorsalis

d. Poliomyelitis

84. Brain and Spinal cord derived from:

a. neural crest

b. neural fold

c. neural tube

d. neural plate

85. LMN lesion:

a. hyperreflexia

b. (+) patho treflex

c. Spastic paralysis –UMN lesions

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d. (+) fasciculations –indicating flaccid paralysis

86. smallest of the CN arising from posterior aspect of the brainstem:

a. optic

b. CN III

c. CN IV –trochlear - smallest

d. CN VI

87. Ptosis result of lesion involving:

a. CN III

b. CN V

c. CN VII

d. CN IV

88. true regarding Bells’ palsy:

a. absence of lacrimation

b. inability to open the eyelid – should be inability to close

c. loss of common sensation

d. anterior 2/3 of tongue

89. 25 yo basketball player received a severe blow to the head that fractured his optic canal. Structure most likely damaged:

a. optic nerve and ophthalmic vein

b. ophthalmic nerve and ophthalmic vein

c. optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

d. ophthalmic nerve and ophthalmic vein

90. primary auditory cortex is associated with:

a. Heschl’s gyrus

b. calcarine sulcus

c. Wernicke’s area

d. Broca’s area

91. sensory aphasia is a result of lesion in the

a. Broca;s area 4

b. 40

c. 22 –Wernicke’s

d. 39

92. branch of internal carotid artery EXCEPT:

a. anterior cerebral

b. ophthalmic

c. middle cerebrum

d. post. Cerebrum

93. R nasal hemianopsia, site of lesion:

a. R optic nerve

b. uncrossed fibers on the right optic chiasm

c. right optic radiation

d. optic chiasm

94. third ventricle communicates to the fourth ventricle by way of:

a. interventricular foramen

b. foramen of Luschka
c. cerebral aqueduct –aka Aqueduct of Sylvius

d. foramen of Magendie

95. septic thrombosis of the cavernous sinus could cause secondary injury to the following structures, EXCEPT:

a. mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

b. mandibular nerve of trigeminal

c. floculonodular lobe

d. lateral lobe

96. coordination of muscle movement is function of what lobe of cerebellum:

a. anterior lobe

b. posterior lobe

c. floculonodular lobe

d. lateral lobe

97. signs of cerebral lesion, EXCEPT:

a. agnosia

b. ataxia

c. aphasia

d. apraxia

98. the brain area with disease or dysfunction implicated in Parkinson’s disease:

a. Pulvinar

b. superior colliculus

c. medial geniculate nucleus

d. substantia nigra

99. artery that provides most of the blood supply to the lateral aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain:

a. basilar

b. anterior cerebral –medial aspect of fronto-parietal

c. posterior cerebral

d. middle cerebral

100. a px comes to the ER with paralysis of is entire face, impaired abduction of his left eye and paralysis of his right upper
limbs. Likeliest lesion at:

a. Left pons

b. Right pons

c. cerebral cortex, L MCA

d. cerebral cortex, R MCA

101. Carpal bone that represents the floor of anatomincal snuff box (SCAPHOID AND TRAPEZIUM)

a. capitate

b. hamate

c. navicular

d. trapezoid

102. in the erb Duchene paralysis, the position by forearm is:

a. pronation

b. supination

c. flexion

d. extension

103. Classified rotator cuff muscle, EXCEPT:

a. supraspinatus

b. infraspinatus

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c. Teres major

d. Teres minor

104. maintenance in carpal tunnel syndrome due to:

a. ulnar

b. musculocutaneous

c. radial

d. medial

105. sideward movement of middle digit toward the thumb

a. abduction

b. adduction

c. reposition

d. opposition

106. inability to supinate the forearm could result from injury of which nerve:

a. musculocutaneous/median

b. “ / radial

c. median/ulnar

d. radial/median

107. Sartorius forms what boundaries of femoral triangle

a. lateral

b. superior

c. medial

d. inferior

108. nerve injured in foot drop:

a. common peroneal

b. deep peroneal

c. superficial peroneal

d. tibial

109. main action of the anterior compartment ( arm: flexor)

a.

b.

c.

d.

110. anterior compartment muscle with dual blood supply:

a. flexor carpi ulnaris

b. flexor digitorum

c. pronator quadrates

d. ..

111. lateral border of the cuboidal fossa:

a. supinator

b. brachialis

c. brachioradialis
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d. plantar teres

112. passes behind the medial epicondyle of humerus

a. ulnar

b. radial

c. median

d. interosseus

113. origin of the suprascapular muscle

a. superior trunk

b. posterior cord

c. lateral cord

d. inferior trunk

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